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Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 – Test–2988

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

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C

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Test 26 English


1. In the context of judicial interpretation, the

presumption of constitutionality is best

described as which of the following?

(a) The presumption that the Preamble to

the Indian Constitution is an essential

part of it.

(b) The presumption of the judiciary that a

statute enacted by the legislature are

constitutional unless it is clearly

unconstitutional or a fundamental right

is implicated by it.

(c) The belief that those basic features of the

Indian Constitution which are not

explicitly mentioned in the Constitution

are implicit.

(d) The logic of dividing power between the

Centre and the states in those matters

which are not explicitly mentioned in the

Constitution.

2. With reference to the Fugitive Economic

Offenders (FEO) in India, consider the

following statements:

1. A Fugitive Economic Offender is any

individual who is willfully not paying a

debt of more than Rs 5 crores and has

absconded without facing the

consequences.

2. Any such individual is declared a

Fugitive Economic Offender by the

money-lending institution to whom he

owes the debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. The term „Rules of Origin‟ is sometimes

seen in the news with reference to

(a) Permitting foreign educational

institutions to set up their campuses in

the domestic country

(b) Regulating investment through

Participatory notes to prevent round

tripping of black money

(c) Granting licenses to foreign e-commerce

firms to operate in the domestic country

(d) Developing trading norms to prevent

dumping of foreign goods in the

domestic market

4. A system declared as Globally Important

Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS), by

FAO, uses which of the following criteria?

1. Food and Livelihood security

2. Agro-biodiversity

3. Local and Traditional Knowledge

systems

4. Cultures, Value systems, and Social

Organisations

5. Landscapes and Seascapes Features

Select the correct answer using the code

given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 4 and 5 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

5. Ajnapatra, written during the time of

Maratha empire deals with:

(a) commentary on the Vedic texts.

(b) political principles of Maratha state.

(c) the agreement between the various

Maratha families during the formation of

confederacy.

(d) principles of grammar of Marathi

language.

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6. Zigzag technology, sometimes seen in news,

pertains to

(a) fuel saving technology in brick kilns

(b) strategic road development plan to avoid

traffic congestions.

(c) crossbreeding technique in crops for

higher yield

(d) battery charging alternatives in electric

vehicles

7. Municipal Corporations can be found in big

cities like Delhi, Bangalore, etc. Municipal

Corporations have three authorities, namely,

the council, the standing committees, and the

commissioner. In this context, consider the

following statements:

1. A Municipal Corporation in a state is

formed by an act of the state legislature.

2. The head of the council of a municipal

corporation is appointed by the state

government.

3. The municipal commissioner is

responsible for the implementation of

the decisions taken by the council.


correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) None

8. Consider the following statements:

1. Bodhisattvas, a central part of Mahayana

Buddhism emerged during the reign of

Ashoka.

2. Mahayana Buddhism believed that each

being attains salvation on his own.

3. All known Bodhisattvas are male, as

Mahayana Buddhism does not promote

the worship of female deities.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) None

9. Consider the following statements:

1. Stem cells are specialized cells having

tissue-specific structures.

2. Stem cells can be found in embryos.

3. Stem cell therapy is used to treat

cancers.


correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

10. With reference to the Kalingan temple

architecture, what does "deula" mean?

(a) It is the sanctum enshrining the deity.

(b) It is the hall for congregation of devotees

(c) It represents the curvilinear tower or

"shikhara" on the temple.

(d) It is the elaborate gateways on the entry

of temple.

11. The terms Toomba, Tarab and Tabli are

associated with which type of musical

instruments?

(a) Solid instruments

(b) Percussion instruments

(c) Wind instruments

(d) String instruments

12. In the context of environment and ecology,

the term 'Trophic Cascade' refers to?

(a) The changes in population or community

structures that occur at the boundary of

two or more habitats.

(b) The progressive dying, usually

backwards from the tip of any portion of

plant.

(c) the flow of energy from one component

to another in a food chain or across food

chains.

(d) The changes in an ecosystem structure

when a top predator is removed or added

to a food chain.

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13. With reference to the 'Electronics

Development Fund', which of the following

statements is/are correct?

1. It is set up as a 'Fund of Funds' to enable

the creation of an ecosystem of

innovation, research, and development.

2. It is managed by an autonomous body of

the Ministry of Electronics &

Information Technology.


given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. With reference to the coral reefs, consider

the following statements:

1. Barrier reefs grow parallel to the

coastline but are separated by deep

lagoons.

2. Fringing reefs are the most common

type of reefs found in the oceans.

3. Atolls are rings of coral that usually

form around the peninsular coasts of the

continents.


correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

15. Consider the following statements regarding

the executive powers of Governor:

1. Governor acts as the Chancellor of

Universities in the state.

2. He appoints the Chief Electoral Officer.

3. He can remove a member of the state

public service commission.


correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

16. Which of the following commissions was/

were set up to deal with famine issue in

British India?

1. Campbell commission

2. Sadler commission

3. Stratchey commission


given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

17. Consider the following pairs of Industries in

India and their category:

Industry Category Example

1. White Goods

industry

: Dairy industry

2. Footloose

industry

: Diamond industry

3. Sunrise industry : Internet of Things

Which of the pairs given above is/are

correctly matched?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

18. What is White-fi communication

technology?

(a) It refers to use of visible light portion of

electromagnetic spectrum for

communication.

(b) It refers to the use of unused or

underused portion of broadband

frequencies for communication.

(c) It refers to the advancement in wi-fi

technology that completely removes

white noise.

(d) It is a solar-powered broadband wireless

technology.

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19. Consider the following statements about

Harappan City Planning:

1. Only very large towns of Harappa and

Mohenjodaro had a citadel.

2. They had a well-connected street

system.

3. The drainage systems were not unique to

the larger cities but were found in

smaller settlements as well.


correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. It is a form of drawing that is drawn by

using rice flour and is a part of everyday life

in southern states of India. It also features in

the Sangam literature and has also been

used in mathematical research, with its

hexagons, dotted grids, hidden motifs and

loops.

Which of the following art forms is best

described by the above passage?

(a) Madhubani

(b) Lippan

(c) Kolam

(d) Warli

21. Which of the following statements is/are not

correct regarding the Estimates Committee?

1. The estimates committee examines the

reports and accounts of public

undertakings.

2. The Rajya Sabha has no representation

in this Committee.

3. The CAG acts as a guide and

philosopher of this committee.


given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

22. With reference to the various properties of

light and the phenomena and applications

based on such properties, consider the

following pairs:

Phenomena/Application Property

1. Splitting of white

light passing through a

prism

: Dispersion of

light

2. Mirage : Total Internal

Reflection of

light

3. Holograms : Interference

of light

Which of the pairs given above are correctly

matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

23. Which of the following officials are

appointed by the President by a 'warrant

under his hand and seal'?

1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of

India

2. Chief Information Officer

3. Judges of the Supreme Court

4. Central Vigilance Commissioner


below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

24. In the context of global cybersecurity, Agent

Smith, recently in the news, refers to

(a) a covert cyber-operation of Russian

government in war-torn Syria.

(b) a smart phone malware which recently

affected millions of smartphones in

India.

(c) a series of surveillance drones operated

by the US to keep an eye on the

developments in Iraq.

(d) a recently developed firewall to prevent

malware attacks on messaging apps.

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VISIONIAS www.visionias.in

ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS

GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 2988 (2020)

Q 1.B

In constitutional law, the presumption of constitutionality is the legal principle that the judiciary should presume statutes enacted by the legislature to be constitutional unless the law is clearly unconstitutional or

a fundamental right is implicated. Hence, a court cannot declare legislation to be constitutional as

there is any way a presumption of constitutionality. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act-2014 passed by the Lok Sabha on 13 August 2014 and by the

Rajya Sabha on 14 August 2014 which created a National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)

responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges to the higher judiciary in India. The Constitution

Bench of Supreme Court by 4:1 Majority upheld the collegium system and struck down the NJAC as unconstitutional after hearing the petitions filed by several persons and bodies. Hence, the 99th

constitutional amendment act violated the presumption of constitutionality.

The court ought not to interpret the statutory provisions, unless compelled by their language, in such a manner as would involve its unconstitutionality, since the legislature of the rulemaking authority is

presumed to enact a law which does not contravene or violate the constitutional provisions. Therefore,

there is a presumption in favor of the constitutionality of legislation or statutory rule unless ex facie it violates the fundamental rights guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution

Article 13: Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights

Q 2.D The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act 2018 was brought to‖ provide for measures to deter fugitive

economic offenders from evading the process of law in India by staying outside the jurisdiction of Indian

courts, to preserve the sanctity of the rule of law in India and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto‖.

Statement 1 is not correct: An FEO is defined by the act as ―any individual against whom a warrant for

arrest in relation to a scheduled offense has been issued by any court in India, who (i) has left India so as to avoid criminal prosecution; or (ii) being abroad, refuses to return to India to face criminal prosecution‖.

The individual should be involved in offenses of at least 100 crores.

Statement 2 is not correct: To declare a person an FEO, an application has to be filed in a Special Court

(designated under the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002) containing details of the properties to be confiscated, and any information about the person‘s whereabouts. The Special Court will require the

person to appear at a specified place at least six weeks from the issue of notice. Proceedings of the FEO

court will be terminated if the person appears. But he will have to face the due proceedings under other concerned laws.

Q 3.D

Rules of origin are the rules to attribute a country of origin to a product in order to determine its "economic nationality". The need to establish rules of origin stems from the fact that

the implementation of trade policy measures, such as tariffs, quotas, trade remedies, in various cases,

depends on the country of origin of the product at hand. Rules of origin are used:

o to implement measures and instruments of commercial policy such as anti-dumping duties and

safeguard measures; o to determine whether imported products shall receive most-favoured-nation (MFN) treatment or

preferential treatment;

o for the purpose of trade statistics;

o for the application of labelling and marking requirements; and


o for government procurement.

General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) has no specific rules governing the determination of the country of origin of goods in international commerce. Each contracting party was free to

determine its own origin rules, and could even maintain several different rules of origin depending on

the purpose of the particular regulation.

During international trade, an exporting country needs to show a certificate under norms of "rules of

origin" to prove that the commodity or a product originates there. Rules of origin norms help in

containing dumping of goods.

Recently there has been a surge in import of cheap areca nut from SAARC nations. Hence Finance ministry has been requested to check the rules of origin to curb cheaper imports from SAARC countries.

Q 4.D Global important agricultural Heritage systems are outstanding landscapes of aesthetic beauty that

combine agricultural biodiversity and ecosystem and valuable cultural heritage. It is designated by

the Food and agricultural organization (FAO).

Its goal and objective include: to leverage global and national recognition of the importance of agricultural Heritage systems-capacity building of local farming communities and local and national

institutions-to promote enabling regulatory policies and incentive environments to support the

conservation-.It also aims to achieve food security and poverty alleviation. Indian sites include:

o Kuttanad below sea level farming system in Kerala

o Koraput traditional agriculture in Odisha o Saffron heritage of Kashmir

o Grand Anicut and associated farming system in Cauvery delta zone of Tamilnadu

The proposed GIAHS sites are generally assessed based on the following five: o Food and livelihood security o Agro-biodiversity

o Local and Traditional Knowledge systems

o Cultures, Value systems, and Social Organisations o Landscapes and Seascapes Features

Additional Information: o There are 52 GIAHS sites in 21 countries. Six GIAHS sites located in China, Philippines, Tanzania,

United Arab Emirates, Iran and the Republic of Korea are also UNESCO World Heritage sites. Since its inception in 2002, the GIAHS program has built a strong local and international reputation in the

fields of agricultural heritage and agricultural development. Some GIAHS sites in china have

embraced new technologies by engaging with e-business companies like Alibaba to promote their agricultural heritage products.

Q 5.B

Ajnapatra is a royal edict on the principles of Maratha state written in Modi Marathi (a script) by

Ramchandra Pant Amatya. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer. Ramchandra Pant Amatya wrote this famous treatise on political code of conduct in 1715 at the order of

Sambhaji. It has nine chapters but they can divided into mainly two parts. The first part deals with a Shivaji's struggle for independence, Aurangzeb's attack on Marathas and Rajaram's brave struggle to save

the kingdom. The second part of the book is the principal aspect of the book. It deals with role and

functions of the King, his character, his duties towards his subject and the education of the princess.

Q 6.A

In zigzag kilns, bricks are arranged to allow hot air to travel in a zigzag path. The length of the zigzag air path is about three times that of a straight line, and this improves the heat transfer from the flue

gases to the bricks, making the entire operation more efficient. In addition, better mixing of air and fuel

allows complete combustion, reducing coal consumption to about 20 percent. Hence option (a) is the

correct answer. The zigzag design also ensures uniform distribution of heat, increasing the share of Class I bricks to about

90 percent. It also reduces emissions considerably.

The zigzag technology has two sub-types: natural and induced. The induced draft uses fans to regulate air, while the natural draft has a chimney. The operational cost of the induced draft includes the cost of diesel

and the maintenance of a generator to run the fan, which comes up to about Rs 250,000 a season. This

cost is eliminated in the natural model, but it requires an initial investment in building a chimney.

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While natural zigzag is usually the first choice for brick kiln owners as running costs are lower, they are

choosing induced zigzag as conversion costs are lower. The government order also promotes induced draft technology.

Q 7.A

Municipal corporations are created for the administration of big cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore and others. They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state

legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of India. There may be one common

act for all the municipal corporations in a state or a separate act for each municipal corporation. Hence

statement 1 is correct.

A municipal corporation has three authorities, namely, the council, the standing committees, and

the commissioner. The Council is the deliberative and legislative wing of the corporation. It consists of the Councillors directly elected by the people, as well as a few nominated persons having knowledge or

experience of municipal administration. In brief, the composition of the Council including the reservation

of seats for SCs, STs, and women is governed by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act.

The Council is headed by a Mayor. He is assisted by a Deputy Mayor. He is elected in a majority of the states for a one-year renewable term. He is basically an ornamental figure and a formal head of the

corporation. His main function is to preside over the meetings of the Council. Hence option 2 is not

correct. The standing committees are created to facilitate the working of the council, which is too large in size.

They deal with public works, education, health, taxation, finance and so on. They take decisions in their

fields. The municipal commissioner is responsible for the implementation of the decisions taken by the council

and its standing committees. Thus, he is the chief executive authority of the corporation. He is appointed

by the state government. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 8.D

The emergence of Bodhisattva is central to Mahayana sect of Buddhism, which emerged during the

fourth council of Buddhism held in 1st century A.D at Kashmir during the reign of Kanishka. The worship of images of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas became an important part of this tradition.

Bodhisattva was thought of in the schools of the Great Vehicle or Mahayana not as a being who was soon

to become a Buddha, but as one who would bide his time until even the smallest insect had reached the

highest goal. The old ideal (in Hinayana Buddhism) of the Arhant, the '"Worthy", who achieved

Nirvana and would be reborn no more, began to be looked on as rather selfish. Instead of striving to

become Arhants, men should aim at becoming Bodhisattvas, and by the spiritual merit which they

gained assist all living things on the way to perfection. The idea of transference of merit is a special feature of the teaching of the Great Vehicle. According to the Lesser Vehicle or Hinayana Buddhism a

man can only help another on the way by example and advice. Each being must be a lamp unto himself,

and work out his own salvation. Thus, Bodhisattva is an ideal, an aspirant of Buddhahood (buddhatva) who works for the enlightenment of all sentient beings in contrast to that of one‘s own emancipation of

the Arhat (an ideal in non-Mahāyāna traditions). Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Prominent Bodhisattvas:

o Avalokiteśvara: Avalokiteśvara is, conceivably, the most popular of all Mahayana Bodhisattvas. He is seen as the most compassionate savior of the universe. He is compassion-incarnate who is concerned with

every bit of sufferings of all beings in their everyday life.

o Manjuśri: Manjuśri is the Bodhisattva of wisdom and enlightenment. He is associated with the role of interlocutor on the questions regarding ultimate truth.

o Tara or Shayama Tara, also known as Jetsun Dölma in Tibetan Buddhism, is an important figure in

Buddhism. She appears as a female bodhisattva in Mahayana Buddhism, and as a female Buddha in

Vajrayana Buddhism. o Kṣitigarbha: Another important Bodhisattva in Indo-Tibetan Buddhism is Kṣitigarbha. Kṣitigarbha saves

the sentient beings during the period between the death of Sakyamuni Buddha and the future advent of

Maitreya Buddha. o Maitreya: Maitreya is the future Buddha. The idea is that there were many previous Buddhas, and there

will be many future Buddhas. If there will be future Buddhas, then the being who is to come next as the

Buddha must be the one who has advanced on his Bodhisattva path. That being is Maitreya. Maitreya is the only Bodhisattva accepted by both Mahayana and non-Mahayana traditions.

o Other prominent Bodhisattvas mentioned in the Buddhist Sanskrit literature are Samantabhadra,

Amitabha, Vajrapani.

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Q 9.C

Stem cells are special human cells that have the ability to develop into many different cell types, from muscle cells to brain cells. In some cases, they also have the ability to repair damaged tissues.

Stem cells differ from other kinds of cells in the body.

o Self-renewal: They can divide and renew themselves for long periods.

o Stem Cells are Unspecialised: It does not have any tissue-specific structure that allows it to perform specialized functions. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

o Potency: Specialised cells can be derived from stem cells through a process called differentiation.

While differentiating, the cell usually goes through several stages, gaining more specialization at each step.

Stem cells are divided into two main forms: embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells.

o The embryonic stem cells used in research today come from unused embryos resulting from an in vitro fertilization procedure and that are donated to science. These embryonic stem cells

are pluripotent, meaning that they can turn into more than one type of cell.

o There are two types of adult stem cells.

One type comes from fully developed tissues, like the brain, skin, and bone marrow. There are only small numbers of stem cells in these tissues, and they are more likely to generate only certain

types of cells. For example, a stem cell-derived from the liver will only generate liver cells.

The second type is induced pluripotent stem cells. These are adult stem cells that have been manipulated in a laboratory to take on the pluripotent characteristics of embryonic stem cells.

o Hence statement 2 is correct. Stem cells are applied especially to treat cancers, which require high-dose chemotherapy within the

scope of medical care. The patient‘s own stem cells are extracted from bone marrow or peripheral

blood prior to high-dose chemotherapy, stored temporarily and transplanted after the treatment in order

to minimize the side effects of the aggressive chemotherapy and to support the regeneration of destroyed

cells. Hence statement 3 is correct. Besides cancer, Stem cell therapy offers great potential for the treatment of diseases such

as neurodegenerative diseases, cardiac infarction, stroke, arthritis, or diabetes.

Q 10.A

Odishan Temple Architecture:

o Architecture in Odisha found its supreme expression in the form of temples, some of which are

among, finest in the country.

o Of these, three are most famous the Lingaraja temple at Bhubaneswar (11th century), the

Jagannath Temple at Puri (12th century) and the great Sun Temple at Konark (13th century).

These three cities form the "Golden Triangle" of Odishan Temple Architecture.

o These mark the culmination of a distinct style of architecture called the Kalinga style remarkable in its plan elevation and details of decoration.

o While the main temple, called Vimana or Deula, is the sanctum enshrining the deity the porch

or assembly hall called Jagamohana is the place for the congregation of devotees. o Rekha, Pidha & Khakhara are three types of Deula.

o The Kalinga style reached its perfection during the Ganga period when two more structures were

added to the front of the two-part temple in order to meet the needs of the elaborate rituals;

these are the natamandira (dancing hall) and the bhogamandapa (hall of offerings).

Types of Temples:

o Rekha Deula: The sanctum is constructed on a square base, with a curvilinear long tower or shikhara.

For e.g. Jagannath Puri, Parsurameshwara Temple

o Pidha Deula: The sanctum is rectangular with a roof in the form of pidhas or a pyramid. For e.g. Sun

Temple, Konark's Jagamohana. o Khakhra Deula: The roof of the sanctum is semicylindrical in shape. For e.g. Vaital temple at

Bhubaneswar and Varahi temple at Chaurasi.

64 Yogini Temples:

o There is another class of temples that are almost unique in their conception and execution in the whole

country; these are the circular shaped, hypaethral or roofless structures dedicated to the sixty-

four yoginis belonging to the Tantric order. o Out of all the five shrines of yogini worship existing in the whole country, two are situated in

Odisha, the Chausathi Yogini temples one at Hirapur near Bhubaneswar and the other at

Ranipur-Jharial in Titlagarh subdivision of Balangir district.

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