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INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN UPSC Prelims 2020

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Insta 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2020

This document is the compilation of 100 questions that are part of

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INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests

www.insightsonindia.com 1 Insights IAS

DAY – 5 (InstaTest-5)

1. Which of the following languages is not recognized as the classical language by the

government?

(a) Sanskrit

(b) Kannada

(c) Telugu

(d) Bengali

Solution: D

Current Classical Languages in India:

1) Tamil (in 2004

2) Sanskrit (in 2005)

3) Kannada (in 2008)

4) Telugu (in 2008)

5) Malayalam (in 2013)

6) Odia (in 2014)

Extra Learning:

Criteria for Classical Languages in India:

• High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years

• A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by

generations of speakers;

• The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech

community;

• The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also

be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its

offshoots.

Benefits of Classical Language Status:

• Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in the concerned

language.

• A ‘Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages’ can be set up.

• The University Grants Commission can be requested to create, to start with at least

in Central Universities, a certain number of professional chairs for classical

languages, for scholars of eminence in the concerned language.




2. Consider the following statements regarding Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran

Pariyojana (MKSP)

1. It is implemented by the Department of Rural Development

2. It is a sub-component of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural

Livelihood Mission.

3. It aims to empower women by enhancing their participation in agriculture and to create sustainable livelihood opportunities for them.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

In line with the provisions of National Policy for Farmers (NPF) (2007), the

Department of Rural Development, Ministry of Rural Development is implementing

a programme exclusively for women farmers namely, Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran

Pariyojana (MKSP). Funding support to the tune of up to 60% (90% for North Eastern

States) for such projects is provided by the Government of India.

More about Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana:

• The “Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana” (MKSP), a sub component of the

Deendayal Antodaya Yojana-NRLM (DAY-NRLM) seeks to improve the present

status of women in Agriculture, and to enhance the opportunities available to

empower her.

• MKSP recognizes the identity of “Mahila” as “Kisan” and strives to build the

capacity of women in the domain of agro-ecologically sustainable practices.

• It has a clear vision to reach out to the poorest of poor households and expand the

portfolio of activities currently handled by the Mahila Kisan.

• The focus of MKSP is on capacitating smallholders to adopt sustainable climate

resilient agro-ecology and eventually create a pool of skilled community

professionals. Its objective is to strengthen smallholder agriculture through

promotion of sustainable agriculture practices such as Community Managed

Sustainable Agriculture (CMSA), Non Pesticide Management (NPM), Zero

Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF), Pashu-Sakhi model for doorstep animal care

services, Sustainable regeneration and harvesting of Non-Timber Forest Produce.

• It aims to empower women by enhancing their participation in agriculture and to

create sustainable livelihood opportunities for them.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/10/mahila-kisan-sashaktikaran-

pariyojana/


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/10/mahila-kisan-sashaktikaran-pariyojana/

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/10/mahila-kisan-sashaktikaran-pariyojana/



3. Consider the following statements regarding Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)

1. LAF is a facility extended by RBI to the scheduled commercial banks

including RRBs.

2. LAF is a facility to avail of liquidity in case of requirement or park excess

funds with RBI in case of excess liquidity on an overnight basis against the collateral of G-Secs including SDLs.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

What is Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) and whether Re-repo in Government Securities Market is allowed?

• LAF is a facility extended by RBI to the scheduled commercial banks (excluding

RRBs) and PDs to avail of liquidity in case of requirement or park excess

funds with RBI in case of excess liquidity on an overnight basis against the

collateral of G-Secs including State Development Loans (SDLs).

• Basically, LAF enables liquidity management on a day to day basis. The operations

of LAF are conducted by way of repurchase agreements with RBI being the

counter-party to all the transactions. The interest rate in LAF is fixed by RBI from

time to time.




• LAF is an important tool of monetary policy and liquidity management. The

substitution of collateral (security) by the market participants during the tenor of

the term repo is allowed from April 17, 2017 subject to various conditions and

guidelines prescribed by RBI from time to time. The accounting norms to be

followed by market participants for repo/reverse repo transactions under LAF

and MSF (Marginal Standing Facility) of RBI are aligned with the accounting

guidelines prescribed for market repo transactions.

• In order to distinguish repo/reverse repo transactions with RBI from market repo

transactions, a parallel set of accounts similar to those maintained for market repo

transactions but prefixed with ‘RBI’ may be maintained. Further market value of

collateral securities (instead of face value) will be reckoned for calculating haircut

and securities acquired by banks under reverse repo with RBI will be bestowed

SLR status.

• Scheduled commercial banks, Primary Dealers along with Mutual Funds and

Insurance Companies (subject to the approval of the regulators concerned)

maintaining Subsidiary General Ledger account with RBI are permitted to re-

repo the government securities, including SDLs and Treasury Bills, acquired

under reverse repo, subject to various conditions and guidelines prescribed by

RBI time to time.

4. Which of the following banks are covered under Deposit Insurance Scheme

1. All commercial banks

2. Local Area Banks

3. Regional Rural Banks

4. Co-operative banks


(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

Banks covered by Deposit Insurance Scheme

(I) All commercial banks including the branches of foreign banks functioning in

India, Local Area Banks and Regional Rural Banks.

(II) Co-operative Banks – All eligible co-operative banks as defined in Section 2(gg)

of the DICGC Act are covered by the Deposit Insurance Scheme. All State, Central

and Primary co-operative banks functioning in the States/Union Territories

which have amended their Co-operative Societies Act as required under the DICGC




Act, 1961, empowering RBI to order the Registrar of Co-operative Societies of the

respective States/Union Territories to wind up a co-operative bank or to

supersede its committee of management and requiring the Registrar not to take

any action for winding up, amalgamation or reconstruction of a co-operative bank

without prior sanction in writing from the RBI, are treated as eligible banks. At

present all Co-operative banks are covered by the Scheme. The Union Territories of Lakshadweep and Dadra and Nagar Haveli do not have Co-operative Banks.

Extra Learning: (It is important due to PMC bank and Yes Bank crisis)

What does the DICGC insure?

The DICGC insures all deposits such as savings, fixed, current, recurring, etc. deposits except the following types of deposits

• Deposits of foreign Governments;

• Deposits of Central/State Governments;

• Inter-bank deposits;

• Deposits of the State Land Development Banks with the State co-operative bank;

• Any amount due on account of and deposit received outside India

• Any amount, which has been specifically exempted by the corporation with the

previous approval of Reserve Bank of India

What is the maximum deposit amount insured by the DICGC?

• Each depositor in a bank is insured upto a maximum of 5,00,000 (Rupees Five

Lakhs) for both principal and interest amount held by him in the same right and

same capacity as on the date of liquidation/cancellation of bank’s licence or the

date on which the scheme of amalgamation/merger/reconstruction comes into

force.

• If you have deposits with more than one bank, deposit insurance coverage limit is

applied separately to the deposits in each bank.

• Deposit insurance premium is borne entirely by the insured bank.

• If a bank goes into liquidation, DICGC is liable to pay to the liquidator the claim

amount of each depositor upto Rupees five lakhs within two months from the date

of receipt of claim list from the liquidator. The liquidator has to disburse the claim

amount to each insured depositor corresponding to their claim amount.”

5. Global Electric Vehicle Outlook, sometime seen in the news, is published by

(a) World Bank

(b) International Energy Agency

(c) The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries

(d) None of the above




Solution: B

The Global Electric Vehicle Outlook is an annual publication that identifies and

discusses recent developments in electric mobility across the globe.

• Global Electric Vehicle Outlook is published by International Energy Agency.

• It is developed with the support of the members of the Electric Vehicles

Initiative (EVI).

• The report includes policy recommendations that incorporate learning from

frontrunner markets to inform policy makers and stakeholders that consider

policy frameworks and market systems for electric vehicle adoption.

• The 2019 edition features a specific analysis of the performance of electric cars

and competing powertrain options in terms of greenhouse gas emissions over

their life cycle. As well, it discusses key challenges in the transition to electric

mobility and solutions that are well suited to address them.

https://www.iea.org/reports/global-ev-outlook-2019

Extra Learning:

About IEA:

• Founded in 1974, the IEA was initially designed to help countries co-ordinate a

collective response to major disruptions in the supply of oil, such as the crisis of

1973/4.

• Members: Presently it has 30 member countries. India is the associate member

of IEA (Not a member). A candidate country to the IEA must be a member

country of the OECD. In addition, it must demonstrate several requirements.

• Publications: World Energy Outlook report.

The four main areas of IEA focus are:

1. Energy Security: Promoting diversity, efficiency, flexibility and reliability for all

fuels and energy sources;

2. Economic Development: Supporting free markets to foster economic growth and

eliminate energy poverty;

3. Environmental Awareness: Analysing policy options to offset the impact of

energy production and use on the environment, especially for tackling climate

change and air pollution; and

4. Engagement Worldwide: Working closely with partner countries, especially

major emerging economies, to find solutions to shared energy and environmental concerns.

6. Consider the following statements regarding Commercial Paper (CP)

1. Commercial Paper (CP) is a secured money market instrument issued in

the form of a promissory note.


https://www.iea.org/reports/global-ev-outlook-2019



2. A CP is issued in minimum denomination of ₹1 lakh and multiples thereof

and shall be issued at a discount to face value.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

Commercial Paper (CP)

Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form

of a promissory note and held in a dematerialized form through any of the depositories

approved by and registered with SEBI. A CP is issued in minimum denomination of ₹5

lakh and multiples thereof and shall be issued at a discount to face value

• No issuer shall have the issue of CP underwritten or co-accepted and options

(call/put) are not permitted on a CP. Companies, including NBFCs and AIFIs, other

entities like co-operative societies, government entities, trusts, limited liability

partnerships and any other body corporate having presence in India with net

worth of ₹100 cr or higher and any other entities specifically permitted by RBI are

eligible to issue Commercial papers subject to conditions specified by RBI.

• All residents, and non-residents permitted to invest in CPs under Foreign

Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999 are eligible to invest in CPs; however,

no person can invest in CPs issued by related parties either in the primary or

secondary market. Investment by regulated financial sector entities will be subject to such conditions as the concerned regulator may impose.

7. Consider the following statements regarding Bonded Labour System (Abolition)

Act 1976

1. The Act provides for an institutional mechanism at the district level in the

form of Vigilance Committees.

2. The Act is being implemented by the Union government through Ministry

of Social Justice and empowerment.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2




(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Bonded Labour or bandhua mazdoori was historically associated with rural economies

where peasants from economically disadvantaged communities were bound to work for

the landlords. In the present times, however, bonded labour is found to exist in both rural

and urban pockets in unorganised industries such as brick kilns, stone quarries, coal

mining, agricultural labour, domestic servitude, circus and sexual slavery.

Possible reasons for low conviction:

• General social bias.

• Nature of bonded labour being migrants, absentism of Witnesses due to their

migratory Nature.

• DM/SDM Courts not as proficient in trial as judicial Courts.

Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act 1976:

• The Act is being implemented by the concerned State Govts./UTs.

• The Act provides for an institutional mechanism at the district level in the form of

Vigilance Committees.

• For the purpose of implementing the provisions of this Act, the State

Governments/UTs may confer, on an Executive Magistrate, the powers of a

Judicial Magistrate of the first class or second class for trial of offences under this

Act.

• Government of India has introduced a revamped Central Sector Scheme for

Rehabilitation of Bonded Labourers– 2016, under which financial assistance to

the tune of Rs.1.00 (one) lakh, Rs.2.00 (two) lakhs & Rs. 3.00 (three) lakhs are

provided to release bonded labourers based on their category and level of

exploitation along with other non-cash assistance for their livelihood.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/18/bonded-labour-abolition-act-1976/

8. Consider the following statements regarding startups in India

1. 55 per cent of startups in India are from Tier I cities and 45 per cent from

Tier II and Tier III cities.

2. Karnataka has largest distribution of startups, followed by Maharashtra

and Delhi.

3. Sector wise, about 14% of the startups are under IT services, followed by

Health and Education.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/18/bonded-labour-abolition-act-1976/



(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

As per the Economic Survey 2019 – 20, as on January 8, 2020, 27,084 startups were

recognized across 551 districts, 55 per cent of which are from Tier I cities , 45 per cent

from Tier II and Tier III cities. 43 per cent of recognized startups have at least one woman director.

9. Which of the following forms the part of Income from Abroad while calculating Gross National Product (GNP)

1. Private Remittances

2. Interest on External Loans 3. External Grants





(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Gross National Product (GNP) is the GDP of a country added with its ‘income from

abroad’. Here, the trans-boundary economic activities of an economy are also taken into account. The items which are counted in the segment ‘Income from Abroad’ is:

(i) Private Remittances

(ii) Interest on External Loans (iii) External Grants

10. Consider the following statements regarding National Dairy Plan Phase I

1. It is a Central Sector Scheme.

2. It aims to help increase productivity of milch animals and thereby increase

milk production to meet the rapidly growing demand for milk.

3. It is supported by World Bank.

4. India ranks first in global milk production


(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

India’s milk production increased from 165.40 MMT in 2016-17 to 176.35 MMT in 2017-

18, a growth rate of 6.62 per cent. The country ranks first in global milk production. The

per capita availability of milk in India during 2017-18 was 375 gm/day and by 2023-24,

it is estimated to increase to 592 gm/day.

National Dairy Plan phase 1:

• Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying is implementing World Bank

assisted National Dairy Plan – I in 18 States to support milk cooperatives and milk

producer companies along with breeding improvement initiative




National Dairy Plan Phase I (NDP I) is a Central Sector Scheme.

• Funding will be through a line of credit from the International Development

Association (IDA), which along with the share of the Government of India will flow

from DADF to NDDB and in turn to eligible End Implementing Agencies (EIAs).

• NDP I will focus on 18 major milk producing states namely Andhra Pradesh, Bihar,

Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha,

Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Telangana,

Uttarakhand, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh which together account for over 90% of

the country’s milk production.

Objectives:

• To help increase productivity of milch animals and thereby increase milk

production to meet the rapidly growing demand for milk.

• To help provide rural milk producers with greater access to the organised milk-

processing sector.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/10/national-dairy-plan/

11. Engel’s Law states that

(a) The percentage of income allocated for food purchases decreases as income rises.

(b) The relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected

by governments.

(c) It is a graphical representation of the distribution of income or of wealth.


Solution: A

What Is Engel’s Law

Engel’s Law is an economic theory introduced in 1857 by Ernst Engel, a German

statistician, stating that the percentage of income allocated for food purchases decreases

as income rises. As a household’s income increases, the percentage of income spent on

food decreases while the proportion spent on other goods (such as luxury goods)

increases.

12. Consider the following statements regarding Kanyashree Prakalpa Scheme

1. It is a conditional cash transfer scheme with the aim of improving the status

and well-being of the girl child in West Bengal.


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/10/national-dairy-plan/



2. Girls regularly attending institutions for education or vocational/sports

training are eligible for it.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Department of Women Development and Social Welfare, Government of West Bengal

(DWD&SW) has designed the Kanyashree Prakalpa – a conditional cash transfer

scheme with the aim of improving the status and well-being of the girl child in West

Bengal by incentivizing schooling of all teenage girls and delaying their marriages until the age of 18, the legal age of marriage.

Target Beneficiary

• All girl children within the age of 13 to 19 years from families with annual income

up to Rs 120000/-

• Girls regularly attending institutions for education or vocational/sports training

• Girls of Child Care Institutes registered under J.J. Act within the age of 18-19 years

• For the one-time grant, girls who are completing 18 years on or after 1st April

2013

• Approximately 18 Lakhs girl students for annual scholarship each year

• Approximately 3.5 Lakhs girls for one time grant each year

https://wbkanyashree.gov.in/kp_scheme.php

13. Consider the following statements regarding Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act

1. Any Indian or foreign national charged under UAPA is liable for

punishment under this Act, irrespective of the location of crime / offense

committed

2. It has death penalty and life imprisonment as highest punishments.

3. It allows detention without a charge sheet for up to 180 days and police custody can be up to 30 days.


(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only


https://wbkanyashree.gov.in/kp_scheme.php



(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Recently the Centre has banned a separatist group, Sikhs for Justice, on grounds of

secessionism under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act. Sikhs for Justice (SFJ),

formed in 2007, is a US-based group seeking a separate homeland for Sikhs — a

“Khalistan” in Punjab. Operating out of the United States, the group has been trying to

build a campaign for secession of Punjab.

Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA):

• This law is aimed at effective prevention of unlawful activities associations in

India.

• Its main objective is to make powers available for dealing with activities directed

against the integrity and sovereignty of India.

• The Act makes it a crime to support any secessionist movement or to support

claims by a foreign power to what India claims as its territory.

• Any Indian or foreign national charged under UAPA is liable for punishment under

this Act, irrespective of the location of crime / offense committed

• It has death penalty and life imprisonment as highest punishments

• The UAPA, framed in 1967, has been amended twice since: first in 2008 and then

in 2012.

The law is contested for few draconian provisions:

• The Act introduces a vague definition of terrorism to encompass a wide range of

non-violent political activity, including political protest.

• It empowers the government to declare an organisation as ‘terrorist’ and ban it.

Mere membership of such a proscribed organisation itself becomes a criminal

offence.

• It allows detention without a chargesheet for up to 180 days and police custody

can be up to 30 days.

• It creates a strong presumption against bail and anticipatory bail is out of the

question.

• It creates a presumption of guilt for terrorism offences merely based on the

evidence allegedly seized.

• It authorises the creation of special courts, with wide discretion to hold in-camera

proceedings (closed-door hearings) and use secret witnesses but contains no sunset clause and provisions for mandatory periodic review.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/12/unlawful-activities-prevention-act-3/


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/12/unlawful-activities-prevention-act-3/



14. Consider the following statements regarding European Union (EU)

1. The European Union (EU) is a political and economic union of 27 member

states that are located primarily in Europe.

2. The EU and European citizenship were established when the Maastricht

Treaty came into force in 2013


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

The European Union (EU) is a political and economic union of 27 member states that

are located primarily in Europe. Its members have a combined area of 4,233,255.3 km2 (1,634,469.0 sq mi) and an estimated total population of about 447 million.

The EU and European citizenship were established when the Maastricht Treaty came

into force in 1993. The EU traces its origins to the European Coal and Steel Community

(ECSC) and the European Economic Community (EEC), established, respectively, by the

1951 Treaty of Paris and 1957 Treaty of Rome.

Extra Learning:

Countries using the euro currency:

• The euro (€) is the official currency of 19 out of 27 EU countries. These countries

are collectively known as the Eurozone. (Remember the eight countries that don’t

use Euro currency)

• The Schengen Area is one of the greatest achievements of the EU. It is an area

without internal borders, an area within which citizens, many non-EU nationals,

business people and tourists can freely circulate without being subjected to

border checks. Since 1985, it has gradually grown and encompasses today almost

all EU countries and a few associated non-EU countries.

• While having abolished their internal borders, Schengen States have also

tightened controls at their common external border on the basis of Schengen rules to ensure the security of those living or travelling in the Schengen Area.

Other Institutional set up of European Union:

In the EU’s unique institutional set-up:

• the EU’s broad priorities are set by the European Council, which brings together

national and EU-level leaders

• directly elected MEPs represent European citizens in the European Parliament




• the interests of the EU as a whole are promoted by the European Commission,

whose members are appointed by national governments

• governments defend their own country’s national interests in the Council of the

European Union.

The European Council sets the EU’s overall political direction – but has no powers to pass laws.

The European Central Bank is responsible for European monetary policy

15. Consider the following statements regarding Inflation targeting

1. India commenced inflation targeting formally in 2005, when Agreement on

Monetary Policy Framework was signed between the GoI and the RBI.

2. It was New Zealand which went for inflation targeting in 1989 for the first

time in the world.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Inflation targeting

• The announcement of an official target range for inflation is known as inflation

targeting. It is done by the Central Bank in an economy as a part of their monetary

policy to realise the objective of a stable rate of inflation (the Government of India

asked the RBI to perform this function in the early 1970s).

• India commenced inflation targeting ‘formally’ in February 2015 when an

agreement between the GoI and the RBI was signed related to it—the Agreement

on Monetary Policy Framework.

• It was New Zealand which went for inflation targeting in 1989 for the first time in

the world.

16. UN Security Council Resolution 2462, sometime seen in the news, is related to

(a) Sustainable Development Goals

(b) Permanent solution for Israel and Palestine conflict

(c) Terrorist Financing





Solution: C

UN Resolution 2462 (2019) calls upon UN Member States to combat and criminalize

the financing of terrorists and their activities, reaffirms principles contained in UNSCR 1373 (2001) and urges all Member States to implement FATF Standards.

The Resolution not only recognises the role FIUs play in the global effort to deny

terrorists the space to exploit, raise and move funds; it also echoes the work and

principles of the Egmont Group (EG) regarding international cooperation, effective partnership and collaboration between competent authorities.

https://egmontgroup.org/en/content/un-security-council-resolution-2462

Extra Learning:

Regarding FATF, we have covered in previous quiz. Please go through it.

A United Nations resolution (UN resolution) is a formal text adopted by a United

Nations (UN) body. Although any UN body can issue resolutions, in practice most

resolutions are issued by the Security Council or the General Assembly.

About Egmont Group:

• The Egmont Group is a united body (informal organization) of 164 Financial

Intelligence Units (FIUs). The Egmont Group provides a platform for the secure

exchange of expertise and financial intelligence to combat money laundering and terrorist financing (ML/TF).

17. Consider the following statements regarding Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme

1. This Scheme allows exporters to import capital goods for pre-production,

production and post-production at zero customs duty.

2. In return, the exporters are required to fulfill the export obligation to the

tune of three times the import duties, taxes and cess saved amount on capital goods.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


https://egmontgroup.org/en/content/un-security-council-resolution-2462



Solution: A

Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme: This Scheme allows exporters to

import capital goods (except certain specified items under the Scheme) for pre-

production, production and post-production at zero customs duty. In return, the

exporters are required to fulfill the export obligation to the tune of six times the import

duties, taxes and cess saved amount on capital goods, to be fulfilled in six years from date

of issue of the Authorization. Capital goods imported under EPCG authorizations for

physical exports are also exempt from Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) and

Compensation Cess, at present up to 31.03.2020.

18. Consider the following statements regarding Merchant Discount Rate

1. It is a discount provided by Union government to the retailers who use card

payments for the purpose of increasing cashless economy.

2. The government pays the amount directly to the bank account of

merchant/retailer.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

Merchant discount rate (MDR) is a charge retailers pay to a bank or payment service

provider for payment acceptance infrastructure. It is thus the fee that a merchant has to

pay to a bank for every transaction which is split between the bank which has issued the

card, the lender whose point-of-sale terminal is being used and payment gateways like MasterCard or Visa.

In 2017, Union Cabinet approved that the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) applicable on

all debit card/BHIM UPI/ Aadhaar enabled Payment System (AePS) transactions upto and

including a value of Rs. 2000 will be borne by the Government.

Extra Learning:

MDR Policy by the RBI:

• For the time being, the objective of the RBI is to encourage maximum cashless

transaction. Aiming this objective, the RBI has brought a policy of setting upper

limit for MDR by banks. Here, the Reserve Bank had rationalized the Merchant

Discount Rate (MDR) for debit cards with effect from September 2012.




• Since then, the MDR for debit card transaction has been capped at 0.75% for

transaction values upto Rs.2000 and at 1% for transaction values above Rs.2000.

About National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI):

• National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organisation for

operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the

provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a

robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.

• Considering the utility nature of the objects of NPCI, it has been incorporated as a

“Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013),

Achievements of NPCI: (Study about the features of these initiatives)

1. RuPay Cards

2. Immediate Payment Service (IMPS)

3. National Automated Clearing House (NACH)

4. Aadhaar Payment Bridge (APB) System

5. Aadhaar enabled Payment System(AePS)

6. BHIM Aadhaar

7. National Financial Switch (NFS) (NPCI owns it)

8. Bharat Bill Payment System

9. National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) program and FASTag

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-what-is-merchant-discount-rate-and-why-does-it-matter-5826776/

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-13-

july-2019/

19. Consider the following statements regarding commercial services exports

1. India ranks 8th among the world’s largest commercial services exporters.

2. India’s share in world’s commercial services exports has risen over the past

decade to reach 3.5 per cent in 2018.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C




https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-13-july-2019/




According to WTO data, India’s share in world’s commercial services exports has

risen steadily over the past decade to reach 3.5 per cent in 2018, twice the share in

world’s merchandise exports at 1.7 per cent. India now ranks 8th among the world’s

largest commercial services exporters and continues to register strong growth

performance relative to the other major services-exporting countries as well as world

services export growth (Table B).

20. India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) is located in which of the following

states?

(a) Karnataka

(b) Kerala

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Andhra Pradesh

Solution: C

• The India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) Project is a multi-institutional

effort aimed at building a world-class underground laboratory with a rock cover

of approx.1200 m for non-accelerator based high energy and nuclear physics

research in India.

• The Government of India has approved a project to build the India-based Neutrino

Observatory (INO) at Pottipuram in the Theni District of Tamil Nadu.

• The project aims to set up a 51000-ton Iron Calorimeter (ICAL) detector to

observe naturally occurring atmospheric neutrinos in a cavern at the end of an

approximately 2 km long tunnel in a mountain.




• This will help to reduce the noise from cosmic rays that is ever present over-

ground and which would outnumber the rare neutrino interactions even in a

detector as large as ICAL.

21. Consider the following statements regarding Banks Board Bureau (BBB)

1. It had replaced Appointments Board of Government.

2. It was set up as an autonomous body based on the recommendations of the Srikrishna Committee.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Banks Board Bureau (BBB)

• It was set up in February 2016 as an autonomous body– based on the

recommendations of the RBI-appointed PJ Nayak Committee to improve

governance of Public Sector Banks (PSBs).

• It was the part of Indradhanush Plan of government.

• It had replaced Appointments Board of Government.

• Its broad agenda is to improve governance at state-owned lenders. Its mandate

also involved advising the government on top-level bank appointments and

assisting banks with capital-raising plans as well as strategies to deal with bad

loans.

• It guides banks on mergers and consolidations and governance issues to address

bad loans problem among other issues.

22. Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Security Council

1. It is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions to

member states.

2. India is a present non-permanent member of it.

3. A state which is a member of the United Nations but not of the security

council may participate, without a vote in its discussion.


(a) 1 only




(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None

Solution: B

United Nations Security Council is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations and is charged with the maintenance of international peace and security.

• Its powers include the establishment of peacekeeping operations, the

establishment of international sanctions, and the authorization of military

action through Security Council resolutions.

• It is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions to

member states.

• The Security Council consists of fifteen members. Russia, the United Kingdom,

France, China, and the United States—serve as the body’s five permanent

members (Veto power).

• Security Council also has 10 non-permanent members, elected on a regional

basis to serve two-year terms. The body’s presidency rotates monthly among its

members.

• The Council is composed of 15 Members:

• Five permanent members: China, France, Russian Federation, the United

Kingdom, and the United States, and ten non-permanent members elected for two-

year terms by the General Assembly (with end of term year):

1. Belgium (2020)

2. Dominican Republic (2020)

3. Estonia (2021)

4. Germany (2020)

5. Indonesia (2020)

6. Niger (2021)

7. Saint Vincent and the Grenadines (2021)

8. South Africa (2020)

9. Tunisia (2021) 10. Viet Nam (2021)

A State which is a Member of the United Nations but not of the Security Council may

participate, without a vote, in its discussions when the Council considers that country’s

interests are affected. Both Members and non-members of the United Nations, if they are

parties to a dispute being considered by the Council, may be invited to take part, without

a vote, in the Council’s discussions; the Council sets the conditions for participation by a

non-member State.

https://www.un.org/securitycouncil/content/current-members


https://www.un.org/securitycouncil/content/current-members



23. Consider the following statements regarding Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA)

1. It is an attached office under Ministry of Finance.

2. It Compiles and releases monthly Wholesale Price Indices


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA) is an attached office of the Department

for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce &

Industry.

The main functions of the Office of Economic Adviser include, inter alia the following:

Policy Functions

• Economic policy inputs on industrial development.

• Rendering advice relating to formulation of Industrial Policy, Foreign Trade Policy

with respect to industrial sector in general with thrust on manufacturing, issues

relating to bilateral and multilateral trade, as well as taxes and duties related to

industry, including but not restricted to safeguard and anti-dumping duties.

• Analysis of trends of industrial production and growth.

• Examination of multilateral and bilateral issues and processing Policy Notes with

economic implications referred to the Office.

Statistical Functions

• Compiling and releasing monthly Wholesale Price Indices

• Compiling and releasing monthly Index of Core Industries Production

• Developing other Indices on experimental basis, e.g. select business service price

indices

• Supervising as a ‘source agency’, compilation of monthly production statistics for

identified industrial items, their validation, and onward transmission for

computation of the monthly Index of Industrial Production (IIP) by Central

Statistics Office.

• Monthly Statistical compilation of macro indicators (secondary information).

24. Recently, Malai poondu Garlic has received the geographical indication (GI) tag, is

grown in:




(a) Baba Budangiri Hills

(b) Kodaikanal Hills

(c) Ratnagiri Hills

(d) Garo Hills

Solution: B

The Rasagola, a popular dessert of Odisha and Kodaikanal’s malai poondu Garlic has

received the geographical indication tag from the Registrar of Geographical Indication.

Extra Learning:

About Malai Poondu Garlic:

• Scientific name Allium Sativum

• It is grown in the Kodaikanal Hills, Dindugul district

• Known for its medicinal and preservative properties

• has anti-oxidant and anti-microbial potential, which is attributed to the

presence of higher amount of organosulfur compounds, phenols and

flavonoids compared to other garlic varieties

• Cultivation is done twice in a year

• Long storage shelf life

25. Consider the following statements regarding Cash Management Bills (CMBs)

1. These are short-term instrument to meet the temporary mismatches in the

cash flow of the Government of India.

2. The CMBs have the generic character of T-bills but are issued for maturities

more than 91 days.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Cash Management Bills (CMBs)

• In 2010, Government of India, in consultation with RBI introduced a new short-

term instrument, known as Cash Management Bills (CMBs), to meet the




temporary mismatches in the cash flow of the Government of India. The CMBs

have the generic character of T-bills but are issued for maturities less than 91 days.

Extra Learning:

• Like T-bills, Cash Management Bills (CMBs) are also issued at a discount and

redeemed at face value on maturity. The tenor, notified amount and date of

issue of the CMBs depend upon the temporary cash requirement of the

Government. The tenors of CMBs is generally less than 91 days. The

announcement of their auction is made by Reserve Bank of India through a Press

Release on its website. The non-competitive bidding scheme has not been

extended to CMBs. However, these instruments are tradable and qualify for ready

forward facility. Investment in CMBs is also reckoned as an eligible investment

in G-Secs by banks for SLR purpose under Section 24 of the Banking

Regulation Act, 1949.

DAY – 6(InstaTest-6)

26. Consider the following statements regarding Coronaviruses

1. They are a large family of viruses that cause illness ranging from the

common cold to more severe diseases such as Severe Acute Respiratory

Syndrome (SARS-CoV).

2. Coronavirus disease (COVID-19) is a new strain that was discovered in

2019 and has not been previously identified in humans.

3. Several known coronaviruses are circulating in animals that have not yet

infected humans.


(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Coronaviruses (CoV) are a large family of viruses that cause illness ranging from the

common cold to more severe diseases such as Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS-CoV) and Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS-CoV).




Coronavirus disease (COVID-19) is a new strain that was discovered in 2019 and has

not been previously identified in humans.

Coronaviruses are zoonotic, meaning they are transmitted between animals and people.

Detailed investigations found that SARS-CoV was transmitted from civet cats to humans

and MERS-CoV from dromedary camels to humans. Several known coronaviruses are circulating in animals that have not yet infected humans.

Common signs of infection include respiratory symptoms, fever, cough, shortness of

breath and breathing difficulties. In more severe cases, infection can cause pneumonia, severe acute respiratory syndrome, kidney failure and even death.

https://www.who.int/health-topics/coronavirus

27. Consider the following statements regarding Community

1. It is a group of organisms usually of the same species, occupying a defined

area during a specific time.

2. Communities in most instances are named after the dominant plant form

(species).


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Population is a group of organisms usually of the same species, occupying a defined area

during a specific time.

Community

• Communities in most instances are named after the dominant plant form

(species).

• In a community the number of species and size of their population vary greatly. A

community may have one or several species.

• The environmental factors determine the characteristic of the community as well

as the pattern of organization of the members in the community.

28. Jalyukta Shivar Scheme has been started by which of the following state?

(a) Nagaland


https://www.who.int/health-topics/coronavirus



(b) Kerala

(c) Gujarat

(d) Maharashtra

Solution: D

Jalyukta Shivar is the flagship programme of the Maharashtra government launched in December 2014. It aims to make 5,000 villages free of water scarcity.

Implementation:

• The scheme targets drought-prone areas by improving water conservation

measures in order to make them more water sustainable. The scheme envisages

to arrest maximum run-off water, especially during the monsoon months, in

village areas known to receive less rainfall, annually.

• Under the scheme, decentralised water bodies were installed at various locations

within villages to enhance the groundwater recharge.

• It also proposed to strengthen and rejuvenate water storage capacity and

percolation of tanks and other sources of storage.

• Dedicated committees were formed to assist in construction of watersheds like

farm ponds, cement nullah bunds alongside rejuvenating the existing water bodies in the villages.

Outcomes of the scheme:

Long- term outcomes:

• To strengthen the rural economy, which continues to be largely agriculture-

driven.

• Improve farmer income by addressing the basic problem pertaining to availability

of water for farming or irrigation purposes.

• Reducing water scarcity in villages that have limited natural supply.

• Improving in risk management or becoming drought resilient and improving

water availability through effective management.

Short- term outcomes:

• Reduction in the run-off water and diverting it to some kind of storage.

• Increasing water storage capacity.

• Increasing the rate of groundwater recharge.

• Enhancing soil fertility and ultimately, improving farm productivity.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/15/jalyukta-shivar/

29. Consider the following statements regarding West Nile fever

1. Birds are the natural hosts of the West Nile Fever virus


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/15/jalyukta-shivar/



2. Female Anopheles mosquito spreads the infection

3. Virus is serologically similar to the Japanese Encephalitis virus


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

West Nile Virus (WNV) can cause neurological disease and death in people. WNV is

commonly found in Africa, Europe, the Middle East, North America and West Asia.

WNV is maintained in nature in a cycle involving transmission between birds and

mosquitoes. Humans, horses and other mammals can be infected.

• West Nile Virus (WNV) is a member of the flavivirus genus and belongs to the

Japanese encephalitis antigenic complex of the family Flaviviridae.

• Birds are the natural hosts of West Nile virus.

• Culex mosquitos, which spread the infection. This viral infection is most often the

result of mosquito bites. Mosquitoes are infected when they feed on birds, which

circulate the virus.

• It may also be transmitted through contact with other infected animals, their

blood, or other tissues. Symptoms of the virus infection include cold, fever,

fatigue and nausea.

• West Nile virus is a disease which spreads from birds to humans through the bite

of an infected culex mosquito. It was first documented WNV case in Kerala.

• This microbe is serologically similar to the Japanese Encephalitis virus, which

means a goto test, ELISA, often fails to differentiate JE antibodies from WNV

antibodies.

Extra Reading:

• West Nile virus can cause a fatal neurological disease in humans.

• However, approximately 80% of people who are infected will not show any

symptoms.

• West Nile virus is mainly transmitted to people through the bites of infected

mosquitoes.

• The virus can cause severe disease and death in horses.

• Vaccines are available for use in horses but not yet available for people.

https://www.who.int/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/west-nile-virus


https://www.who.int/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/west-nile-virus



30. Consider the following statements regarding Environmental Information System

(ENVIS)

1. The aim is to integrate country-wide efforts in environmental information

collection, collation, storage, retrieval and dissemination through ENVIS

websites.

2. It is a centrally sponsored scheme of the Ministry of Environment, Forest

and Climate Change.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Environmental Information System (ENVIS), a Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry

has been implemented since 1982.

The purpose of the scheme is to integrate country-wide efforts in environmental

information collection, collation, storage, retrieval and dissemination through ENVIS

websites, which are dedicated to different interesting themes.

31. Consider the following statements regarding Pyramid of Numbers

1. This deal with the relationship between the numbers of primary producers

and consumers of different levels.

2. Inverted pyramid of numbers is found in pond ecosystem.

3. A pyramid of numbers does not take into account the fact that the size of

organisms being counted in each trophic level.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

Pyramid of Numbers




This deals with the relationship between the numbers of primary producers and

consumers of different levels. It is a graphic representation of the total number of individuals of different species, belonging to each trophic level in an ecosystem.

A pyramid of numbers does not take into account the fact that the size of organisms being counted in each trophic level can vary.

It is very difficult to count all the organisms, in a pyramid of numbers and so the pyramid

of number does not completely define the trophic structure for an ecosystem.

32. Consider the following statements regarding Coniferous forest (boreal forest)

1. It is characterized by evergreen plant species such as Spruce, fir and pine

trees, etc.

2. The productivity and community stability of a boreal forest are lower than

those of any other forest ecosystem.

3. Boreal forest soils are characterized by thick podzols but poor nutrients.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

Coniferous forest (boreal forest):

• Cold regions with high rainfall, strong seasonal climates with long winters and

short summers are characterized by boreal coniferous forest




• This is characterized by evergreen plant species such as Spruce, fir and pine trees,

etc. and by animals such as the lynx, wolf, bear, red fox, porcupine, squirrel, and

amphibians like Hyla, Rana, etc

• Boreal forest soils are characterized by thin podzols and are rather poor. Both

because, the weathering of rocks proceeds slowly in cold environments and

because the litter derived from conifer needle (leaf) is decomposed very slowly

and is not rich in nutrients.

• These soils are acidic and are mineral deficient. This is due to movement of large

amount of water through the soil, without a significant counter-upward

movement of evaporation, essential soluble nutrients like calcium, nitrogen and

potassium which are leached sometimes beyond the reach of roots. This process

leaves no alkaline oriented cations to encounter the organic acids of the

accumulating litter.

• The productivity and community stability of a boreal forest are lower than those

of any other forest ecosystem.

33. Consider the following statements regarding Spent Pot Lining

1. It is produced by the smelting plants

2. It contains high level of cyanide and fluoride.

3. It has also been classified as a hazardous waste under the Hazardous Waste Management Rules, 2016.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Spent pot lining (SPL) from the aluminum industries is produced by the

smelting plants.

• It contains high level of cyanide and fluoride and is carcinogenic in nature and

must be scientifically utilised or detoxified.

• It has also been classified as hazardous waste under the Schedule to the

Hazardous Waste Management Rules, 2016.


july-2019/






34. Consider the following statements regarding Mission Shakti

1. It is an anti-satellite missile test.

2. The mission was carried out by ISRO

3. India is the 4th country in the world to demonstrate the capability to shoot

down satellites in orbit


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

On March 27, 2019 India conducted Mission Shakti, an anti-satellite missile test, from

the Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam Island launch complex.

• This was a technological mission carried out by DRDO. The satellite used in the

mission was one of India’s existing satellites operating in lower orbit. The test was

fully successful and achieved all parameters as per plans. The test required an

extremely high degree of precision and technical capability.

• The significance of the test is that India has tested and successfully demonstrated

its capability to interdict and intercept a satellite in outer space based on

complete indigenous technology.

• With this test, India joins an exclusive group of space faring nations consisting of

USA, Russia and China.

https://mea.gov.in/press-

releases.htm?dtl/31179/Frequently+Asked+Questions+on+Mission+Shakti+Indias+Ant

iSatellite+Missile+test+conducted+on+27+March+2019

35. Consider the following statements regarding Red Tide

1. They are scientifically referred as Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs).

2. Ride tides are usually not harmful


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


https://mea.gov.in/press-releases.htm?dtl/31179/Frequently+Asked+Questions+on+Mission+Shakti+Indias+AntiSatellite+Missile+test+conducted+on+27+March+2019





Solution: C

Why Red Tide is a misnomer?

• “Red Tide” is a common name for such a phenomenon where certain

phytoplankton species contain pigments and “bloom” such that the human eye

perceives the water to be discolored.

• Blooms can appear greenish, brown, and even reddish orange depending upon

the type of organism, the type of water, and the concentration of the organisms.

• The term “red tide” is thus a misnomer because blooms are not always red, they

are not associated with tides, they are usually not harmful, and some species can

be harmful or dangerous at low cell concentrations that do not discolor the water.

• They are scientifically referred as Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs).

36. Which of the following elements/compounds is/are Indoor air pollutants?

1. Volatile organic compounds

2. Radon

3. Asbestos

4. Pesticides


(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

Indoor air pollution

Pollutants

i) Volatile organic compounds

• The main indoor sources are perfumes, hair sprays, furniture polish, glues, air

fresheners, moth repellents, wood preservatives, and other products.

ii) Tobacco

• Smoke generates a wide range of harmful chemicals and is carcinogenic.

iii) Biological pollutants

• It includes pollen from plants, mite, and hair from pets, fungi, parasites, and some

bacteria. Most of them are allergens and can cause asthma, hay fever, and other

allergic diseases.




iv) Formaldehyde

• Mainly from carpets, particle boards, and insulation foam. It causes irritation to

the eyes and nose and allergies.

v) Radon

• It is a gas that is emitted naturally by the soil. Due to modern houses having poor

ventilation, it is confined inside the house and causes lung cancers.

vi) Asbestos

vii) Pesticides

37. Consider the following statements regarding bioremediation techniques

1. Bioaugmentation: Microorganisms are imported to a contaminated site to

enhance degradation process.

2. Bioventing: Injection of air under pressure below the water table to increase

groundwater oxygen concentrations and enhance the rate of biological

degradation of contaminants

3. Biosparging: supply of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to

stimulate the growth of indigenous bacteria.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

In situ bioremediation techniques: It involves treatment of the contaminated material

at the site.

1. Bioventing – supply of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to

stimulate the growth of indigenous bacteria. It is used for simple hydrocarbons

and can be used where the contamination is deep under the surface.

2. Biosparging – Injection of air under pressure below the water table to increase

groundwater oxygen concentrations and enhance the rate of biological

degradation of contaminants by naturally occurring bacteria

3. Bioaugmentation – Microorganisms are imported to a contaminated site to enhance degradation process.




38. Consider the following statements regarding International Charter ‘Space and

Major Disasters’

1. It is a non-binding charter.

2. It provides for the charitable and humanitarian related acquisition of and

transmission of space satellite data to relief organizations in the event of

major disasters.

3. ISRO is not a member of it.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• India, by virtue of being a member of the International Charter ‘Space and Major

Disasters’ has received a satellite data related to the Assam floods from other

member nations including France, Russia and China.

About International Charter ‘Space and Major Disasters’:

• It is a non-binding charter.

• It provides for the charitable and humanitarian related acquisition of and

transmission of space satellite data to relief organizations in the event of major

disasters.

• Initiated by the European Space Agency and the French space agency CNES after

the UNISPACE III conference held in Vienna, Austria in July 1999.

• It officially came into operation on November 1, 2000 after the Canadian Space

Agency signed onto the charter on October 20, 2000.

• Only agencies that possess and are able to provide satellite-based Earth

Observation data can be members of the International Charter. The members

cooperate on a voluntary basis.

• Currently 16 global space agencies including India’s ISRO are its members.

How it works?

• The Charter is a worldwide collaboration, through which satellite data are made

available for the benefit of disaster management. By combining Earth observation

assets from different space agencies, the Charter allows resources and expertise

to be coordinated for rapid response to major disaster situations; thereby helping

civil protection authorities and the international humanitarian community.




• This unique initiative is able to mobilise agencies around the world and benefit

from their know-how and their satellites through a single access point that

operates 24 hours a day, 7 days a week and at no cost to the user.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/30/international-charter-space-and-major-disasters/

39. Consider the following statements regarding maintaining the Internal environment of an organism

1. Regulate: Some organisms are able to maintain homeostasis by

physiological means.

2. Conform: An overwhelming majority (99 per cent) of animals and nearly

all plants cannot maintain a constant internal environment and change

according to the external environment.

3. Suspend: They do so by reducing their metabolic activity and going into a

state of ‘dormancy’.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only






(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Regulate: Some organisms are able to maintain homeostasis by physiological

(sometimes behavioural also) means which ensures constant body temperature, constant

osmotic concentration, etc.

Conform: An overwhelming majority (99 per cent) of animals and nearly all plants

cannot maintain a constant internal environment. Their body temperature changes with

the ambient temperature. In aquatic animals, the osmotic concentration of the body fluids

changes with that of the ambient air, water osmotic concentration. These animals and plants are simply conformers.

• Many simply ‘sweat it out’ and resign themselves to suboptimal performance in

hot summer months. Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for many

organisms. This is particularly true for small animals like shrews and humming birds. Heat loss or heat gain is a function of surface area.

Suspend: In bacteria, fungi and lower plants, various kinds of thickwalled spores are

formed which help them to survive unfavourable conditions – these germinate on

availability of suitable environment.

• In higher plants, seeds and some other vegetative reproductive structures serve

as means to tide over periods of stress besides helping in dispersal – they

germinate to form new plants under favourable moisture and temperature

conditions. They do so by reducing their metabolic activity and going into a state of ‘dormancy’.

40. Consider the following statements regarding Biotic Relations

1. Lichens represent a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and

photosynthesizing algae

2. Parasitism: An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch 3. Predation: sparrow eating any seed.

Which of the statement above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3




Solution: C

Lichens represent an intimate mutualistic relationship between a fungus and

photosynthesising algae or cyanobacteria.

Commensalism: An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch, and barnacles

growing on the back of a whale benefit while neither the mango tree nor the whale

derives any apparent benefit.

• When we think of predator and prey, most probably it is the tiger and the deer

that readily come to our mind, but a sparrow eating any seed is no less a predator.

Although animals eating plants are categorized separately as herbivores, they are,

in a broad ecological context, not very different from predators.

41. Consider the following statements regarding Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on biodiversity and ecosystem services (IPBES)

1. It is a non-governmental organisation.

2. It aims to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and

ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of

biodiversity.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem

Services (IPBES) is an independent intergovernmental body established by States to

strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services for the

conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term human well-being and sustainable development.

• It was established in Panama City, on 21 April 2012 by 94 Governments.

• It is not a United Nations body.

• However, at the request of the IPBES Plenary and with the authorization of the

UNEP Governing Council in 2013, the United Nations Environment Programme

(UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.

https://ipbes.net/about


https://ipbes.net/about



42. Consider the following statements regarding standing crop

1. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time

called as the standing crop. 2. The biomass of a species varies with abiotic factors of the ecosystem.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called

as the standing crop. The standing crop is measured as the mass of living

organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area. The biomass of a species is

expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight.

• The biomass of a species varies with abiotic factors of the ecosystem.

43. Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM)

1. It is developed by ISRO

2. It can be launched from both land and air based platforms.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Indian Army has successfully conducted summer user trials of NAG, 3rd Generation Anti-

Tank Guided Missile (ATGM).

• The NAG missile is a third-generation anti-tank guided missile, which has top

attack capabilities that can effectively engage and destroy all known enemy tanks

during day and night.

• It uses an imaging infrared seeker in lock-on-before-launch mode.




• It is launched from NAG missile carrier (NAMICA) which is capable of carrying up

to 6 combat missiles.

• Range: Minimum-500 metres and Maximum- 4 kilometres.

• Developed by DRDO.

• ATGMs range in size from shoulder-launched weapons, which can be

transported by a single soldier, to larger tripod-mounted weapons, which require

a squad or team to transport and fire, to vehicle and aircraft mounted missile

systems. It can be launched from both land and air based platforms.


44. Torrefaction technology is used for

(a) Reducing water pollution

(b) Stubble burning

(c) Bioremediation


Solution: B

Torrefaction technology

• India tests Swedish torrefaction technology to reduce stubble burning.

What is Torrefaction?

• It is a thermal process used to produce high-grade solid biofuels from various

streams of woody biomass or agro residues.

• The end product is a stable, homogeneous, high quality solid biofuel with far

greater energy density and calorific value than the original feedstock, providing

significant benefits in logistics, handling and storage, as well as opening up a wide

range of potential uses.

How it works?

• Biomass torrefaction involves heating the biomass to temperatures between

250 and 300 degrees Celsius in a low-oxygen atmosphere.

• When biomass is heated at such temperatures, the moisture evaporates and

various low-calorific components (volatiles) contained in the biomass are driven

out.

• During this process the hemi-cellulose in the biomass decomposes, which

transforms the biomass from a fibrous low-quality fuel into a product with excellent fuel characteristics.






45. Consider the following statements regarding Middle East Respiratory Syndrome

(MERS)

1. It is a viral respiratory disease caused by a novel coronavirus that was first

identified in Saudi Arabia.

2. Dromedary camels are a major reservoir host for MERS-CoV. 3. Nearly 80% of reported patients with MERS-CoV infection have died.


(a) 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) is a viral respiratory disease caused by a

novel coronavirus (Middle East respiratory syndrome coronavirus, or MERS‐CoV) that

was first identified in Saudi Arabia in 2012.

• Approximately 35% of reported patients with MERS-CoV infection have died.

• Although most of human cases of MERS-CoV infections have been attributed to

human-to-human infections in health care settings.

• Current scientific evidence suggests that dromedary camels are a major reservoir

host for MERS-CoV and an animal source of MERS infection in humans.

• However, the exact role of dromedaries in transmission of the virus and the exact

route(s) of transmission are unknown.

• The virus does not seem to pass easily from person to person unless there is close

contact, such as occurs when providing unprotected care to a patient. Health care

associated outbreaks have occurred in several countries, with the largest

outbreaks seen in Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, and the Republic of Korea.

https://www.who.int/en/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/middle-east-respiratory-syndrome-coronavirus-(mers-cov)

46. Consider the following statements regarding Climate vulnerability assessment map

1. The map is being developed by UN Environment.

2. It is being developed for preparing communities and people to meet the

challenge arising out of climate changes.


(a) 1 only






(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Climate vulnerability assessment map

• For preparing communities and people to meet the challenge arising out of climate

changes, a pan India climate vulnerability assessment map is being developed.

Such climate vulnerability atlas has already been developed for 12 states in the

Indian Himalayan Region, using a common framework.

• The map is being developed under a joint project of the Department of Science

and Technology (DST) under the Union Ministry of Science and Technology and

Swiss Agency for Development and Cooperation (SDC).

• It is being developed for preparing communities and people to meet the challenge

arising out of climate changes.

• This research programme of DST is being implemented as part of the National

Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE) and National

Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change (NMSKCC).

47. Consider the following statements regarding Sulphur dioxide emissions

1. India is the largest emitter of anthropogenic Sulphur dioxide in the world.

2. India has over 50 percent of all anthropogenic Sulphur dioxide (SO2) hotspots in the world.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• India is the largest emitter of anthropogenic sulphur dioxide in the world, as per

the data released by environmental NGO Greenpeace on August 19, 2019.

• Anthropogenic sulphur dioxide is produced from burning of coal and it is

known to largely contribute to air pollution.




Key Findings:

• SO2 hotspots across the world have been mapped.

• The SO2 hotspots were detected by the OMI (Ozone Monitoring Instrument)

satellite.

• India has over 15 percent of all anthropogenic sulphur dioxide (SO2) hotspots

in the world.

• The main SO2 hotspots in India include Singrauli in Madhya Pradesh, Korba in

Chhattisgarh, Talcher and Jharsuguda in Odisha, Neyveli and Chennai in Tamil

Nadu, Kutch in Gujarat, Ramagundam in Telangana and Chandrapur and Koradi

in Maharashtra.

• Norilsk smelter complex in Russia is the largest SO2 emission hotspot in the

world.

48. Consider the following statements

1. The State Government is empowered to constitute land other

2. than reserved forests as protected forests over which the Government has

proprietary rights.

3. In reserved forests, extraction of forest resources by local people are

prohibited, unless specifically allowed by a Forest Officer in the course of settlement


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• The State Government is empowered to constitute any land other than reserved

forests as protected forests over which the Government has proprietary rights.

• Under ‘Protected Forests’, the Government retains the power to issue rules

regarding the use of such forests and retains the power to reserve the specific tree

species in the protected forests.

• Reserve forests are the most restricted forests and may be constituted by the

State Government on any forest land or waste land which is the property of the

Government or on which the Government has proprietary rights. In reserved

forests, extraction of forest resources are prohibited, unless specifically allowed

by a Forest Officer in the course of settlement.




49. Consider the following statements regarding Air Quality Index (AQI)

1. Air Quality Index (AQI) is a tool for effective dissemination of air quality

information to people.

2. AQI will consider eight pollutants for which short-term National Ambient

Air Quality Standards are prescribed.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Air Quality Index (AQI)

• Air Quality Index (AQI) is a tool for effective dissemination of air quality

information to people.

• There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted,

Poor, Very Poor, and Severe.

• AQI will consider eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and

Pb) for which short-term (up to 24-hourly averaging period) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed.

50. Consider the following statements regarding Fly ash

1. It is the end product of combustion during the process of power generation

in the coal based thermal power plants.

2. It can settle on water and other surfaces. 3. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction.


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D




The National Green Tribunal has sought a report from the authorities on the current

status on disposal and management of fly ash. The report has been sought, following a plea alleging unscientific handling of fly ash generated by a unit of NTPC.

Fly ash, the end product of combustion during the process of power generation in the

coal based thermal power plants, is a proven resource material for many applications

of construction industries and currently is being utilized in manufacturing of Portland

Cement, bricks/blocks/tiles manufacturing, road embankment construction and

low-lying area development, etc. At present, 63% of the fly ash is being utilised and

target is for 100% utilisation of the fly ash. There is need for education and awareness

generation. Road contractors and construction engineers need to know the benefits of

using fly ash in construction.

• Fly ash is a major source of PM 2.5 (fine, respirable pollution particles) in

summer. It becomes air borne, and gets transported to a radius of 10 to 20 kms.

• It can settle on water and other surfaces.

• Fly ash contains heavy metals from coal, a large amount of PM 2.5 and black

carbon (BC).

• Proper disposal of fly ash is still not happening in many places.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/02/fly-ash-2/


51. Consider the following statements regarding Gas Hydrates

1. Gas hydrates are formed when a gas such as methane gets

2. trapped in well-defined cages of water molecules forming crystalline solids.

3. Their decomposition can release large amounts of Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

that could impact Earth’s climate.

4. Sudden release of pressurized methane gas from ocean base may cause

submarine landslides, which in turn can trigger tsunamis.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/02/fly-ash-2/



Gas hydrates are ice-like crystalline minerals that form when low molecular weight

gas (such as methane, ethane, or carbon dioxide) combines with water and freezes into a solid under low temperature and moderate pressure conditions.

• Most gas hydrates are formed from methane (CH4), which has led to the terms

“gas hydrate” and “methane hydrate” often being used interchangeably.

• On Earth, gas hydrates occur naturally in some marine sediments and within and

beneath permafrost. They are also speculated to form on other planets.

Hydrate deposits are important for a variety of reasons:

• Gas hydrate deposits may contain roughly twice the carbon contained in all

reserves of coal, oil, and conventional natural gas combined, making them a

potentially valuable energy resource.

• Their decomposition can release large amounts of methane, which is a

greenhouse gas that could impact Earth’s climate.

• Sudden release of pressurized methane gas may cause submarine landslides,

which in turn can trigger tsunamis.

• Gas hydrates in the ocean can be associated with unusual and possibly unique

biological communities that use hydrocarbons or hydrogen sulfide for carbon and

energy, via a process known as chemosynthesis.

https://oceanexplorer.noaa.gov/facts/hydrates.html

52. Consider the following statements regarding Biodiversity

1. Biodiversity is the term popularized by the socio-biologist Edward Wilson.

2. Species diversity means a single species might show high diversity at the

genetic level over its distributional range.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Levels of Biodiversity

• Biodiversity is the term popularized by the sociobiologist Edward Wilson to

describe the combined diversity at all the levels of biological organisation.


https://oceanexplorer.noaa.gov/facts/hydrates.html



The most important of them are–

(i) Genetic diversity: A single species might show high diversity at the genetic level

over its distributional range. The genetic variation shown by the medicinal plant

Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different Himalayan ranges might be in terms of

the potency and concentration of the active chemical (reserpine) that the plant

produces. India has more than 50,000 genetically different strains of rice, and

1,000 varieties of mango.

(ii) Species diversity: The diversity at the species level, for example, the Western

Ghats has greater amphibian species diversity than the Eastern Ghats.

(iii) Ecological diversity: At the ecosystem level, India, for instance, with its deserts,

rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries, and alpine meadows has greater ecosystem diversity than a Scandinavian country like Norway.

Extra Learning:

‘United for Biodiversity’ coalition:

• The European Commission (EC) has launched the ‘United for Biodiversity’

coalition.

• It was launched on World Wildlife Day 2020- 3rd March.

What is it?

• The coalition is made up of zoos, aquariums, botanical gardens, national parks, and

natural history and science museums from around the world.

• The coalition offers the opportunity for all such institutions to “join forces and

boost public awareness about the nature crisis, ahead of the crucial COP-15 of the

Convention on Biological Diversity in Kunming, China in October 2020.

A common pledge adopted:

• The coalition adopted a common pledge, citing the Intergovernmental Platform on

Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) Global Assessment finding that one

million species were already at risk of extinction, and appeals to visitors to each of their institutions to “raise their voice for nature.”

Need for this coalition:

• These organisations are vital not only for cataloguing and preserving the natural

world, but are indispensable and invaluable centres for education and

mobilisation — particularly for young leaders and decision-makers of the future.

What is IPBES?

• The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and

Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an independent intergovernmental body,

established by member states in 2012. The objective of IPBES is to strengthen the

science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services for the




conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term human well-being and

sustainable development.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/11/united-for-biodiversity/

53. Consider the following statements regarding Biodiversity across the world

1. More than 70 per cent of all the species recorded are plants

2. Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group, making up more than 70 per cent of the total.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

More than 70 per cent of all the species recorded are animals, while plants (including

algae, fungi, bryophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms) comprise no more than 22 per

cent of the total. Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group,

making up more than 70 per cent of the total. That means, out of every 10 animals on this planet, 7 are insects.


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/11/united-for-biodiversity/



54. Consider the following statements regarding Raisina Dialogue

1. It is a multilateral conference committed to addressing the most

challenging issues facing the global community. 2. It is annually conducted by MEA and Observer Research Foundation (ORF)


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

The Raisina Dialogue is a multilateral conference committed to addressing the most

challenging issues facing the global community. Every year, global leaders in policy,

business, media and civil society are hos

112ted in New Delhi to discuss cooperation on a wide range of pertinent international policy matters.

• The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion,

involving heads of state, cabinet ministers and local government officials, as well

as major private sector executives, members of the media and academics.

• The conference is hosted by the Observer Research Foundation in collaboration

with the Government of India, Ministry of External Affair

https://www.orfonline.org/raisina-dialogue/about-us/

55. Which of the following are Ex situ Conservation methods

1. Botanical gardens

2. Zoological parks

3. Sacred groves

4. Wildlife safari parks


(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only


https://www.orfonline.org/raisina-dialogue/about-us/



Solution: D

Ex situ Conservation– In this approach, threatened animals and plants are taken out

from their natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected and

given special care. Zoological parks, botanical gardens and wildlife safari parks serve

this purpose. There are many animals that have become extinct in the wild but continue to be maintained in zoological parks.

A sacred grove or sacred woods are any grove of trees that are of special religious

importance to a particular culture. Sacred groves feature in various cultures throughout the world. Thus, they belong to in-situ conservation efforts.

• The degree of sanctity accorded to the sacred groves varies from one area to

another. In some forests, even the dry foliage and fallen fruits are not touched.

People believe that any kind of disturbance will offend the local deity, causing

diseases, natural calamities or failure of crops. For example, the Garo and the

Khasi tribes of north-eastern India prohibit any human interference in the sacred

groves. In other places, deadwood or dried leaves may be picked up, but the live

tree or its branches are never cut. For example, the Gonds of central India prohibit

the cutting of a tree but allow fallen parts to be used.

Extra Learning:

56. Consider the following statements regarding Kartarpur Corridor project

1. The Kartarpur Corridor will provide visa-free access to the shrine

2. It will be developed from Dera Baba Nanak village in Gurdaspur, Punjab to Gurdwara Darbar Sahib, Kartarpur.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2




Solution: C

• The second round of talks with Pakistan on the modalities for operationalisation

of the Kartarpur Sahib Corridor was recently held at Wagah, Pakistan. Pakistan

has agreed in principle to allow visa-free, year-long travel to the Sikh shrine.

• The Union Cabinet has already approved the building and development of the

Kartarpur corridor from Dera Baba Nanak in Gurdaspur district to the

international border, in order to facilitate pilgrims from India to visit Gurdwara

Darbar Sahib Kartarpur on the banks of the Ravi river, in Pakistan, where Shri

Guru Nanak Devji spent eighteen years.

Kartarpur Corridor project:

• The corridor – often dubbed as the “Road to Peace” – will connect Gurdwara

Darbar Sahib in Pakistan’s Kartarpur with Dera Baba Nanak shrine in India’s

Gurdaspur district. The construction of the corridor will allow visa-free access to

pilgrims from India. The proposal for the corridor has been on the table since

1988, but tense relations between the two countries led to the delay.

Implementation:

• The Kartarpur corridor will be implemented as an integrated development project

with Government of India funding, to provide smooth and easy passage, with all the modern amenities.

The shrine:

• The gurdwara in Kartarpur stands on the bank of the Ravi, about 120 km northeast

of Lahore.




• It was here that Guru Nanak assembled a Sikh community and lived for 18 years

until his death in 1539.

• The shrine is visible from the Indian side, as Pakistani authorities generally trim

the elephant grass that would otherwise obstruct the view.

• Indian Sikhs gather in large numbers for darshan from the Indian side, and

binoculars are installed at Gurdwara Dera Baba Nanak.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/15/kartarpur-sahib-pilgrim-corridor-3/

57. Consider the following statements regarding measurement of Biodiversity

1. Alpha diversity: It refers to the diversity within a particular area or

ecosystem.

2. Beta diversity: It measures the proportion of species at a given site.

3. Gamma diversity: It is a measure of the overall diversity for the different

ecosystems within a region.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

Biodiversity is measured by two major components:

1. species richness, and 2. species evenness.

(i) Species richness: It is the measure of number of species found in a community

a) Alpha diversity: It refers to the diversity within a particular area or ecosystem,

and is usually expressed by the number of species (i.e., species richness) in that

ecosystem.

b) Beta diversity: It is a comparison of diversity between ecosystems, usually

measured as the change in amount of species between the ecosystems

c) Gamma diversity: It is a measure of the overall diversity for the different

ecosystems within a region.

(ii) Species evenness: It measures the proportion of species at a given site, e.g. low

evenness indicates that a few species dominate the site.


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/15/kartarpur-sahib-pilgrim-corridor-3/



58. Consider the following statements regarding the Jerdon’s Courser bird species:

1. It is a nocturnal bird found only in the northern part of the state of Madhya

Pradesh in peninsular India.

2. The majority of the species are contained within the Sri Lankamaleswara

WildLife Sanctuary. 3. It has been listed as Critically Endangered under IUCN Red list.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

The Jerdon’s Courser

• It is a nocturnal bird found only in the northern part of the state of Andhra

Pradesh in peninsular India.

• It is a flagship species for the extremely threatened scrub jungle.

• The species was considered to be extinct until it was rediscovered in 1986 and

the area of rediscovery was subsequently declared as the Sri Lankamaleswara

Wildlife Sanctuary.

• Distribution: Rhinoptilus bitorquatus is a rare and local endemic to the

Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh and extreme southern Madhya Pradesh,

India. Historically, it was known from just a few records in the Pennar and

Godavari river valleys and was assumed to be extinct until its rediscovery

around Lankamalai in 1986. It has since been found at six further localities in the

vicinity of the Lankamalai, Velikonda and Palakonda hill-ranges, southern

Andhra Pradesh, with all localities probably holding birds from a single

population, the majority of which are contained within the Sri Lankamaleswara

WildLife Sanctuary.

• Habitat: Undisturbed scrub jungle with open areas.

• Distribution: Jerdon’s Courser is endemic to Andhra Pradesh.

• Threats: Clearing of scrub jungle, creation of new pastures, growing of dry land

crops, Illegal trapping of birds, plantations of exotic trees, quarrying and the

construction of the River Canals.

• IUCN Status: Critically Endangered




Extra Learning:

• Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary headquartered

in Kadapa, Andhra Pradesh, India. It is the only habitat in the world which provides

home for the Jerdon’s courser, a highly endangered bird species. Red Sanders, an endemic species, can be found here

59. Consider the following statements regarding Anthrax

1. It is caused by Bacillus anthracis

2. It affects animals more often than people.

3. It spreads directly from infected animal to humans.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Recently DRDO, JNU scientists develop more potent Anthrax vaccine. Claim new vaccine

superior than existing ones as it can generate immune response to anthraxtoxin as well as spores.

Anthrax:

• Anthrax is a disease caused by Bacillus anthracis, a germ that lives in soil.

• It affects animals such as cattle, sheep, and goats more often than people. People

can get anthrax from contact with infected animals, wool, meat, or hides. It can

cause three forms of disease in people.

• Anthrax does not spread directly from one infected animal or person to another;

it is spread by spores. These spores can be transported by clothing or shoes.

Symptoms & Infection:

• In most cases, symptoms develop within seven days of exposure to the bacteria.

The one exception is inhalation anthrax, which may take weeks after exposure

before symptoms appear.

• Respiratory infection in humans initially presents with cold or flu-like symptoms

for several days, followed by pneumonia and severe (and often fatal) respiratory

collapse.

• Gastrointestinal (GI) infection in humans is most often caused by consuming

anthrax-infected meat and is characterized by serious GI difficulty, vomiting of




blood, severe diarrhea, acute inflammation of the intestinal tract, and loss of

appetite.

• Cutaneous anthrax, also known as Hide porter’s disease, is the cutaneous (on

the skin) manifestation of anthrax infection in humans. It presents as a boil-like

skin lesion that eventually forms an ulcer with a black center (eschar).

Exposure:

• Occupational exposure to infected animals or their products (such as skin, wool,

and meat) is the usual pathway of exposure for humans. Workers who are exposed

to dead animals and animal products are at the highest risk, especially in countries

where anthrax is more common.

• It does not usually spread from an infected human to a noninfected human. But, if

the disease is fatal to the person’s body, its mass of anthrax bacilli becomes a

potential source of infection to others and special precautions should be used to

prevent further contamination. Inhalational anthrax, if left untreated until obvious

symptoms occur, may be fatal.

• Anthrax can be contracted in laboratory accidents or by handling infected animals

or their wool or hides.

Treatment:

• The standard treatment for anthrax is a 60-day course of an antibiotic. Treatment

is most effective when started as soon as possible.

• Although some cases of anthrax respond to antibiotics, advanced inhalation

anthrax may not. By the later stages of the disease, the bacteria have often produced more toxins than drugs can eliminate.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/06/19/anthrax/

60. Consider the following statements regarding IUCN Red List

1. The IUCN Red List is a critical indicator of the health of the world’s

biodiversity.

2. It was established in 1964 by the International Union for Conservation of

Nature (IUCN).

3. It divides species into only seven categories: Least Concern, Near

Threatened, Vulnerable, Endangered, Critically Endangered, Extinct in the

Wild and Extinct.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/06/19/anthrax/



Solution: A

What is The IUCN Red List?

• Established in 1964, The International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red

List of Threatened Species has evolved to become the world’s most

comprehensive information source on the global conservation status of animal,

fungi and plant species.

• The IUCN Red List is a critical indicator of the health of the world’s biodiversity.

Far more than a list of species and their status, it is a powerful tool to inform and

catalyze action for biodiversity conservation and policy change, critical to

protecting the natural resources we need to survive. It provides information about

range, population size, habitat and ecology, use and/or trade, threats, and

conservation actions that will help inform necessary conservation decisions.

• The IUCN Red List Categories and Criteria are intended to be an easily and widely

understood system for classifying species at high risk of global extinction. It

divides species into nine categories: Not Evaluated, Data Deficient, Least Concern,

Near Threatened, Vulnerable, Endangered, Critically Endangered, Extinct in the

Wild and Extinct.

Extra Learning:

• IUCN is a membership Union composed of both government and civil society

organisations.

• Much of IUCN’s subsequent work in the 1960s and 1970s was devoted to the

protection of species and the habitats necessary for their survival. In 1964, IUCN

established the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, which has since evolved

into the world’s most comprehensive data source on the global extinction risk of

species.

• IUCN also played a fundamental role in the creation of key international

conventions, including the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands (1971), the World

Heritage Convention (1972), the Convention on International Trade in

Endangered Species, (1974) and the Convention on Biological Diversity

(1992).

• In 1980, IUCN – in partnership with the UN Environment Programme (UNEP)

and the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) – published the World Conservation

Strategy, a ground-breaking document which helped define the concept of

‘sustainable development’ and shaped the global conservation and sustainable

development agenda.

• A subsequent version of the strategy, Caring for the Earth, was published by the

three organisations in the run-up to the 1992 Earth Summit. It served as the basis

for international environmental policy and guided the creation of the Rio

Conventions on biodiversity (CBD), climate change (UNFCCC) and

desertification (UNCCD).

• In 1999, as environmental issues continued to gain importance at the

international stage, the UN General Assembly granted IUCN official observer status.




61. Consider the following statements regarding Seaweeds

1. Seaweeds are (thalloid plants) macroscopic algae, which mean they have

no differentiation of true tissues such as roots, stems and leaves.

2. Seaweeds grow in deep coastal waters wherever sizable substrata is

available.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

SEAWEEDS

• Seaweeds are (thalloid plants) macroscopic algae, which mean they have no

differentiation of true tissues such as roots, stems and leaves. They have leaf-

like appendages.

• Seaweeds, the larger and visible marine plants are found attached to rocks, corals

and other submerged strata in the intertidal and shallow sub tidal zones of the sea.

• Seaweeds grow in shallow coastal waters wherever sizable substata is available.

Extra Learning:

• Seaweeds are generally anchored to the sea bottom or other solid structures by

rootlike “holdfasts,” which perform the sole function of attachment and do not

extract nutrients as do the roots of higher plants.

• A number of seaweed species are edible, and many are also of commercial

importance to humans. Some are used as fertilizers or as sources of

polysaccharides.

• The types of seaweed growing near the high-water mark, where plants are often

exposed to air, differ from those growing at lower levels, where there is little or

no exposure.

• Brown algae (class Phaeophyceae) commonly found as seaweeds include kelps

and Fucus. They are widely distributed in colder zones and are absent from

tropical waters.

• Gulfweed (Sargassum) is common as free-floating masses in the Gulf Stream and

Sargasso Sea.

• Seaweed species such as kelps provide essential nursery habitat for fisheries and

other marine species and thus protect food sources; other species, such as

planktonic algae, play a vital role in capturing carbon, producing up to 90% of

Earth’s oxygen.




62. Consider the following statements regarding Lal Bahadur Shastri

1. He became a life member of the Servants of the People Society (Lok Sevak

Mandal), founded by Lala Lajpat Rai.

2. He participated in both non-cooperation movement and the Salt

Satyagraha.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Recently PM visits Varanasi Unveils Lal Bahadur Shastri statue at Varanasi airport.

Lal Bahadur Shastri life and achievements:

Pre- independence:

• Lal Bahadur Shastri was born on 2nd October, 1904 at Mughalsarai, Varanasi of

Uttar Pradesh.

• He was given the title “Shastri” meaning “Scholar” by Vidya Peeth as a part of his

bachelor’s degree award.

• He introduced a slogan “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan” and played a pivotal role in shaping

India’s future.

• He became a life member of the Servants of the People Society (Lok Sevak

Mandal), founded by Lala Lajpat Rai. There he started to work for the upliftment

of backward classes, and later he became the President of that Society.

• He participated in the non-cooperation movement and the Salt Satyagraha.

Post- independence:

• He was the second Prime Minister of Independent India.

• In 1961, he was appointed as Home Minister, and he appointed the Committee on

Prevention of Corruption. He created the famous “Shastri Formula” which

consisted of the language agitations in Assam and Punjab.

• He promoted the White Revolution, a national campaign to increase milk

production. He also promoted the Green Revolution, to increase the food

production in India.

• In 1964, he signed an agreement with the Sri Lankan Prime Minister Sirimavo

Bandaranaike, in concern with the status of Indian Tamils in Ceylon. This

agreement is known as Srimavo-Shastri Pact.

• He was awarded the Bharat Ratna the India’s highest civilian award posthumously

in 1966.




• He signed Tashkent Declaration on 10 January, 1966 with the paksitan President,

Muhammad Ayub Khan to end the 1965 war.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/08/lal-bahadur-shastri/

63. Polypedates Bengalensis, new frog species was found in

(a) Kerala

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(d) West Bengal

Solution: D

Polypedates Bengalensis

• It is a newly discovered frog species from West Bengal.

• Also known as the Brown Blotched Bengal Tree Frog

• It belongs to the genus Polypedates. There are 25 other Polypedates species round

the world. Polypedates bengalensis is the 26th.

• The frog’s body colour is yellowish-brown to greenish-brown.

64. The first-of-its-kind rehabilitation center for freshwater turtles will be set up at

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Orissa

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Bihar

Solution: D

• First-of-its kind turtle rehab centre comes up in Bihar

• A first-of-its-kind rehabilitation centre for freshwater turtles was inaugurated in

Bihar’s Bhagalpur forest division in January 2020.

• The need to build such a centre was felt after several turtles were found severely

wounded and sick when rescued from smuggles by rescue teams.

Extra Learning:

Difference between a turtle and a tortoise:


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/08/lal-bahadur-shastri/



• The most important thing to remember about tortoises is that they are exclusively

land creatures. They live in a variety of habitats, from deserts to wet tropical

forests. (Unlike most sea turtles, which take to land only when they are laying eggs,

tortoises don’t have much to do with water other than drinking it and occasionally

bathing in it.) However, not all land turtles are tortoises; thus, box turtles and

wood turtles have been called tortoises, though they are not considered tortoises

today.

• Tortoises are generally herbivorous, while other turtles are omnivorous.

65. Consider the following statements regarding National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF)

1. The Fund has been created out of cess on coal produced / imported under

the polluter pays principle.

2. Project/scheme relating to innovative methods to adopt to the Clean

Energy technology and research & development are eligible for funding

under the NCEF.

3. It is a lapsable fund under Public Accounts.


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: D

• The National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF) is a fund created in 2010-11 using the

carbon tax – clean energy cess – for funding research and innovative projects in

clean energy technologies of public sector or private sector entities, upto the

extent of 40% of the total project cost.

• Assistance is available as a loan or as a viability gap funding, as deemed fit by the

Inter-Ministerial group, which decides on the merits of such projects.

• The Fund is designed as a non-lapsable fund under Public Accounts and with its

secretariat in Plan Finance II Division, Department of Expenditure, Ministry of

Finance

Usage of fund

Any project/scheme relating to Innovative methods to adopt to Clean Energy technology

and Research & Development are eligible for funding under the NCEF. An indicative list of such projects is as follows:




• Projects supporting the development and demonstration of integrated community

energy solutions, smart grid technology renewable applications with solar, wind,

tidal and geothermal energy;

• Projects in critical renewable energy infrastructure areas such as Silicon

Manufacturing; etc.

http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=National_Clean_Energy_Fund_(NCEF)

66. Which of the following is/are Critically endangered species

1. Brown Bear

2. Malabar Civet

3. Pygmy Hog 4. Gharial

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

Except Brown Bear All other species mentioned are Critically endangered.

Status of Brown Bear: Least Concern.

Extra Learning:

Students should understand the parameters used to group the species into different

categories.

Usage IUCN Red list data:

• Data from The IUCN Red List are used to calculate the Red List Index (RLI), which

is one of the biodiversity indicators used by the Convention on Biological Diversity

(CBD) to monitor progress towards achieving the targets set out in the Strategic

Plan for Biodiversity 2011-2020.

• The IUCN Red List also provides data for the indicators needed to measure

progress towards the achievement of the United Nations Sustainable

Development Goals (SDGs), particularly Goal 15.

• The IUCN Red List assessments of freshwater species have also contributed to the

work of the Ramsar Convention in selecting sites that are important for freshwater

biodiversity.


http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=National_Clean_Energy_Fund_(NCEF)



• The IUCN Red List will contribute to the function of the Intergovernmental

science-policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) to

strengthen the science-policy interface on biodiversity and ecosystem services to improve decision making.

The Global Environment Facility (GEF) has included information from The IUCN Red

List in its resource allocation framework since 2008. Other foundations and funding

instruments, such as the Critical Ecosystem Partnership Fund (CEPF); SOS – Save Our

Species; and Mohamed bin Zayed Species Conservation Fund, also use data from assessments on The IUCN Red List to guide their investments in conservation.

Several conservation planning methodologies use The IUCN Red List to identify Key

Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) for conservation including: Important Bird Areas;

Important Plant Areas; and Alliance for Zero Extinction (AZE) sites. For example, one

of the criteria that AZE sites must meet is that they contain at least one Endangered or

Critically Endangered species, as listed on The IUCN Red List.

Data from The IUCN Red List are included in the Integrated Biodiversity Assessment

Tool (IBAT), an innovative decision support tool available to both the business and

conservation sectors. The wealth of information on habitats and threats to species is also used in biodiversity management and site rehabilitation planning processes.

https://www.iucnredlist.org/about/uses

Students are also advised to study the highlighted keywords above.

67. Consider the following statements regarding difference between Wild life

sanctuary and National Park (NP)

1. National parks are declared by Central Government only, while Wild life

sanctuary is declared by State Government only.

2. Certain activities like grazing of livestock are regulated in sanctuaries and

are prohibited in National Parks.

3. Wildlife sanctuary can be created for a particular species whereas the national park is not primarily focused on a particular species.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B


https://www.iucnredlist.org/about/uses



WILD LIFE SANCTUARY (WLS)

• The Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972 provided for the declaration of certain

areas by the State Government as wildlife sanctuaries if the area was thought to

be of adequate ecological, geomorphological and natural significance.

National Park (NP)

• The Wild Life (Protection) Act (WPA) of 1972 provided for the declaration of

National Parks by the State Government in addition to the declaration of wildlife

sanctuaries.

• National Parks are declared in areas that are considered to be of adequate

ecological, geomorphological and natural significance although within the law, the

difference in conservation value of a National Park from that of a sanctuary is not specified in the WPA 1972.

Difference between the Wild life sanctuary and National Park (NP)

• National Parks enjoy a greater degree of protection than sanctuaries.

• Certain activities which are regulated in sanctuaries, such as grazing of livestock,

are prohibited in National Parks.

• Wildlife sanctuary can be created for a particular species (for e.g. grizzled giant

squirrel w.l.s in srivalliputhur) whereas the national park is not primarily focused

on a particular species.

• The Central Government may also declare, Wild Life Sanctuary and National Park

under certain conditions

68. Consider the following statements regarding Internet Saathi programme

1. It is a joint initiative of Facebook Inc and Tata Trusts 2. It aims to facilitate digital literacy among Tribal in rural India.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

Google India and Tata Trusts are set to expand their ‘Internet Saathi’ digital literacy

programme for rural women to villages in Punjab and Odisha. Currently, the programme

has reach of 2.6 lakh villages across 18 states. On adding Punjab and Odisha the programme will now extend its reach to 20 states in India.




Internet Saathi:

• It is joint initiative of Google India and Tata Trusts.

• It aims to facilitate digital literacy among women in rural India.

• The programme aims to train Saathis in villages that can in turn help educate other

women from their village in the use of the internet.

Significance of the initiative:

• It has contributed towards bridging digital gender divide in rural India. Women

trained under this initiative have started their own micro-business such as

stitching, honeybee farming, and beauty parlours. Many under programme are

also driving awareness for issues like girl child education, menstrual hygiene and more within their communities.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/18/internet-saathi-programme/

69. Consider the following statements regarding Hangul or Kashmir Stag

1. IUCN’s Red List has classified it as least concern species.

2. It is largely found in Dachigam National Park


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

HANGUL/Kashmir Stag

• The Kashmir stag (Cervus affinis hanglu) also called Hangul is a subspecies of

Central Asian Red Deer native to Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.

• The IUCN’s Red List has classified it as Critically Endangered and is similarly

listed under the Species Recovery Programme of the Wildlife Institute of India

(WII) and the Environmental Information System (ENVIS) of the Ministry of

Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).

• This deer lives in groups of two to 18 individuals in dense riverine forests, high

valleys, and mountains of the Kashmir valley and northern Chamba in

Himachal Pradesh.

• In Kashmir, it’s found in Dachigam National Park at elevations of 3,035 meters.

• These deer once numbered from about 5,000 animals in the beginning of the 20th

century. Unfortunately, they were threatened, due to habitat destruction,


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/18/internet-saathi-programme/



overgrazing by domestic livestock and poaching. This dwindled to as low as 150

animals by 1970.

• However, the state of Jammu & Kashmir, along with the IUCN and the WWF

prepared a project for the protection of these animals. It became known as Project

Hangul. This brought great results and the population increased to over 340 by 1980.

70. Consider the following statements regarding Green Crackers

1. It has been developed by Indian Council of Scientific and Industrial

Research (CSIR).

2. They are known as ‘green’ firecrackers because they have a chemical

formulation that produces water molecules, which substantially reduces

emission levels and absorbs dust.

3. The green crackers will be 25-30 per cent costlier to manufacture than the

conventional ones.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Green Crackers

• Indian Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) has developed green

crackers, which are new and improved formulations of the previous sound-

emitting crackers and other fireworks.

What are green crackers?

• They are less harmful and less dangerous than the conventional ones. They are the

crackers with reduced emission and decibel level. They are known as ‘green’

firecrackers because they have a chemical formulation that produces water

molecules, which substantially reduces emission levels and absorbs dust.

• It promises a reduction in particulate matters and harmful gases, like nitrous oxide

and sulfur oxide, by 30- 35 per cent.

• The green crackers will be 25-30 per cent cheaper to manufacture and

manufacturers would not have to make any changes in their facilities.




71. Consider the following statements regarding Swine Flu

1. Swine Flu is a highly contagious acute respiratory disease of pigs caused by

type A influenza virus. 2. Swine flu viruses can spread from human to human.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Swine flu is an infection caused by a virus. It’s named for a virus that pigs can get. People do not normally get swine flu, but human infections can and do happen.

• Swine Flu is a highly contagious acute respiratory disease of pigs caused by

type A influenza virus. In 2009 a strain of swine flu called H1N1 infected many

people around the world.

• The virus is contagious and can spread from human to human. Symptoms of swine

flu in people are similar to the symptoms of regular human flu and include fever,

cough, sore throat, body aches, headache, chills and fatigue.

• Swine flu viruses do not normally infect humans. However, sporadic human

infections with swine flu have occurred. Children younger than five years old and

adults who are 65 years and above, patients with chronic pulmonary condition

(including asthma), , neurological, neuromuscular or metabolic disorders

(including diabetes), obese adults and pregnant women are in the high risk group

• There are antiviral medicines you can take to prevent or treat swine flu. There is

a vaccine available to protect against swine flu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/states-put-on-high-alert-as-swine-flu-cases-spike-across-the-country/article26063610.ece

72. Consider the following statements regarding Senna Spectabilis

1. It is an evergreen tree native to tropical areas of America. 2. It is an invasive species found in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR).


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2






(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Senna Spectabilis

• The Kerala Government is planning to arrest the rampant growth of Senna

spectabilis, in the forest areas of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR), including

the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.

• It is a deciduous tree native to tropical areas of America.

• It grows up to 15 to 20 metres in a short period of time and distributes thousands

of seeds after flowering.

• It is an invasive species.

• Concerns: The thick foliage of the tree arrests the growth of other indigenous tree

and grass species. Thus, it causes food shortage for the wildlife population,

especially herbivores. It also adversely affect the germination and growth of the

native species.

• It is categorised as ‘Least Concern’ under IUCN Red List.

73. Consider the following statements regarding National Crèche Scheme

1. The Scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child

Development.

2. It is a centrally sponsored scheme

3. It is an intervention towards protection and development of children in the age group of 6 months to 6 years.


(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

National Crèche Scheme is being implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme through States/UTs with effect from 01.01.2017.

National Creche Scheme:

• The Scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child

Development.

• It is a centrally sponsored scheme.




• It aims at providing a safe place for mothers to leave their children while they are

at work, and thus, is a measure for empowering women as it enables them to take

up employment.

• Coverage: It is an intervention towards protection and development of children

in the age group of 6 months to 6 years.

Features:

• Provides for day care facilities to the children of working mothers.

• Provides supplementary nutrition, health care inputs like immunization, polio

drops, basic health monitoring, sleeping facilities, early stimulation (for children

below 3 years), pre-school education for children aged between 3-6 yrs.

Significance:

• This scheme facility enables the parents to leave their children while they are at

work and where the children are provided with a stimulating environment

for their holistic development.

• This scheme ensures to improve the health and nutrition status of the

children.

• It promotes physical, social, cognitive and emotional/holistic development of

the children.

• It also educates and empowers parents/caretakers for the better childcare.

• The scheme is being structurally revised with the enhanced financial norms,

stringent monitoring and sharing pattern between the Government of India and the implementing agencies and NGOs.

Eligibility Criteria:

• The State Government, Voluntary Institutions, Mahila Mandals with the know

report of service in the field of child welfare department and registered under the

Societies Registration Act, 1860 or registered as a Public Trust at least for the

period for last 2 years are eligible for applying for the financial assistance from the fund.

Fund sharing:

• The fund sharing pattern under National Creche Scheme amongst Centre,

States/UTs & Non-Governmental Organizations/Voluntary Organisations for all

recurring components of the scheme is in the ratio of 60:30:10 for States, 80:10:10

for North Eastern States and Himalayan States and 90:0:10 for UTs.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/29/national-creche-scheme/

74. Consider the following statements regarding Central Water Commission (CWC)

report on Heavy metals contaminating rivers

1. Arsenic and zinc are the two toxic metals whose concentration is always

found above the limits.


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/07/29/national-creche-scheme/



2. Iron emerged as the most common contaminant.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Heavy metals contaminating rivers

• Central Water Commission (CWC) has released a report on heavy metals

contaminating Indian rivers.

• Iron emerged as the most common contaminant.

• Arsenic and zinc are the two toxic metals whose concentration is always found

within the limits.

• Other major contaminants found in the samples were lead, nickel, chromium,

cadmium and copper.

• Metals found in Non-Monsoon Period: Lead, cadmium, nickel, chromium and

copper.

• Monsoon Period: Iron, lead, chromium and copper exceeded ‘tolerance limits’ in

this period most of the time.

• The main sources of heavy metal pollution are mining, milling, plating and surface

finishing industries that discharge a variety of toxic metals into the environment.

• The presence of metals in drinking water to some extent is unavoidable and

certain metals, in trace amounts, are required for good health. However, when

present above safe limits, they are associated with a range of disorders.

• Long-term exposure to the heavy metals may result in physical, muscular, and

neurological degenerative processes that mimic Alzheimer’s disease,

Parkinson’s disease, muscular dystrophy and multiple sclerosis.

75. Municipal Performance Index (MPI) in India is released by:

(a) Ministry of Finance

(b) NITI Aayog

(c) Ministry of Panchayat Raj

(d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)

Solution: D




To help assess the progress made in cities through various initiatives and empower them

to use evidence to plan, implement & monitor their performance, two Assessment

Frameworks, viz. Ease of Living Index (EoLI) and Municipal Performance Index (MPI)

2019 have been launched by the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs. Both these

indices are designed to assess quality of life of citizens in 100 Smart Cities and 14 other

Million Plus Cities.

Ease of Living Index is aimed at providing a holistic view of Indian cities – beginning from

the services provided by local bodies, the effectiveness of the administration, the

outcomes generated through these services in terms of the liveability within cities and,

finally, the citizen perception of these outcomes. The key objectives of the Ease of Living

Index are four-folds, viz. a) generate information to guide evidence-based policy making;

b) catalyse action to achieve broader developmental outcomes including the SDG; c)

assess and compare the outcomes achieved from various urban policies and schemes; and

d) obtain the perception of citizens about their view of the services provided by the city

administration. EoLI 2019 will facilitate the assessment of ease of living of citizens across

three pillars: Quality of Life, Economic Ability and Sustainability which are further

divided into 14 categories across 50 indicators.

https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=199084


76. Consider the following statements regarding the mechanisms to reduce emissions forms

1. Electrostatic precipitator is used to remove over 90 per cent particulate

matter present in the exhaust.

2. A scrubber can remove gases like oxides of sulfur.

3. Catalytic converters are used to convert unburnt hydrocarbons into carbon

dioxide and water.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Smokestacks of thermal power plants, smelters and other industries release

particulate and gaseous air pollutants together with harmless gases, such as nitrogen,


https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=199084



oxygen, etc. These pollutants must be separated/ filtered out before releasing the

harmless gases into the atmosphere.

There are several ways of removing particulate matter; the most widely used of which is

the electrostatic precipitator, which can remove over 99 per cent particulate matter

present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant.

A scrubber can remove gases like Sulphur dioxide. In a scrubber, the exhaust is passed through a spray of water or lime.

Catalytic converters, having expensive metals namely platinum-palladium and

rhodium as the catalysts, are fitted into automobiles for reducing emission of

poisonous gases. As the exhaust passes through the catalytic converter, unburnt

hydrocarbons are converted into carbon dioxide and water, and carbon monoxide

and nitric oxide are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.

77. Consider the following statements regarding Ozone

1. Ozone formed in the lower troposphere acts as pollutant and harms plants

and animals.

2. Ozone found in the stratosphere acts as a shield absorbing ultraviolet

radiation from the sun.

3. The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of

the atmosphere is measured in terms of Dobson units (DU).


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

‘Bad’ ozone, formed in the lower atmosphere (troposphere) that harms plants and

animals. There is ‘good’ ozone also; this ozone is found in the upper part of the

atmosphere called the stratosphere, and it acts as a shield absorbing ultraviolet radiation

from the sun.

• UV rays are highly injurious to living organisms since DNA and proteins of living

organisms preferentially absorb UV rays, and its high energy breaks the chemical

bonds within these molecules. The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from

the ground to the top of the atmosphere is measured in terms of Dobson units

(DU).

• Ozone gas is continuously formed by the action of UV rays on molecular oxygen,

and also degraded into molecular oxygen in the stratosphere. There should be a




balance between production and degradation of ozone in the stratosphere. Of late,

the balance has been disrupted due to enhancement of ozone degradation by chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

78. Which of the following gas/compound is the biggest overall contributor to the

greenhouse effect?

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Water vapour

(c) Methane

(d) Oxides of Nitrogen

Solution: B

Water Vapour is the biggest overall contributor to the greenhouse effect and humans

are not directly responsible for emitting this gas in quantities sufficient to change its

concentration in the atmosphere. However, CO2 and other greenhouse gases is increasing

the amount of water vapour in the air by boosting the rate of evaporation.

Unlike CO2, which can persist in the air for centuries, water vapour cycles through the

atmosphere quickly, evaporating from the oceans and elsewhere before coming back

down as rain or snow.

79. Consider the following statements regarding Skybot F-850

1. It is a life-size humanoid robot which spends some days in space and learns

to assist astronauts in the International Space Station.

2. It is the first robot to go into space in the human history.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Final Experimental Demonstration Object Research (FEDOR)

• Russia has launched an unmanned rocket into space.




• It is carrying a life-size humanoid robot that will spend 10 days learning to assist

astronauts on the International Space Station.

• Known as FEDOR, which stands for Final Experimental Demonstration Object

Research or the Skybot F-850 is the first humanoid robot to be sent to space by

Russia.

• The robot’s main purpose it to be used in operations that are especially dangerous

for humans onboard spacecraft and in outer space.

• FEDOR, who is the size an adult and can emulate movements of the human body,

has apparently embraced his mission, describing himself as “an assistant to the ISS

crew”.

Significance:

• Fedor copies human movements, a key skill that allows it to remotely help

astronauts or even people on Earth to carry out tasks while the humans are

strapped into an exoskeleton.

• Fedor is described as potentially useful on Earth for working in high radiation

environments, demining and tricky rescue missions.

Background:

• Fedor is not the first robot to go into space.

• In 2011, NASA sent up Robonaut 2, a humanoid robot developed with General

Motors that had a similar aim of working in high-risk environments.

• In 2013, Japan sent up a small robot called Kirobo along with the ISS’s first

Japanese space commander.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/08/23/fedor/

80. Consider the following statements regarding Global Warming Potential (GWP)

1. The GWP for a gas is a measure of the total energy that a gas absorbs over

a particular period of time (usually 100 years), compared to carbon

dioxide.

2. Carbon dioxide has a GWP of 1 and serves as a baseline for other GWP

values.

3. Perfluorocarbons have highest GWP.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/08/23/fedor/



Solution: A

• The Global Warming Potential (GWP) for a gas is a measure of the total energy

that a gas absorbs over a particular period of time (usually 100 years), compared

to carbon dioxide.

• Gases with a higher GWP absorb more energy, per pound, than gases with a lower

GWP, and thus contribute more to warming Earth.

• Carbon dioxide (CO2) has a GWP of 1 and serves as a baseline for other GWP

values.

81. Which of the following methods is/are Geo-Engineering technique?

1. Copy a Volcano

2. Seed the Sea with iron

3. Whiten the clouds with wind-powered ships

4. Build fake trees

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D




GEO-ENGINEERING:

• Geo-engineering primarily aims at modifying and cooling Earth’s environment,

defeating the environmental damage and ensuing climate changes to make the

planet more inhabitable. Geoengineering, at this point, is still only a theoretical

Concept

• Hoisting parasols, placing mirrors in space, whitening the stratosphere with

sulfate aerosols, whitewashing building roofs to reflect sunlight or flinging iron filings into the ocean to promote carbon-gulping algae are some of the modes.

5 Big Plans to Stop Global Warming

• Copy a Volcano

• Shoot Mirrors Into Space

• Seed the Sea with Iron

• Whiten the Clouds with Wind-Powered Ships

• Build Fake Trees

82. Consider the following statements regarding English Channel

1. It is a part of the Atlantic Ocean.

2. It separates the island of Britain from northern France.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

English Channel:

• French inventor crosses the English Channel on his hover board.

• The English Channel is a part of the Atlantic Ocean.

• It separates the island of Britain (part of the UK) from northern France and joins

the North Sea to the Atlantic Ocean.

• It’s approximately 350 miles long, and at its narrowest in the Strait of Dover.


august-2019/


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/08/05/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-05-august-2019/




83. Consider the following statements regarding The Blue Carbon Initiative

1. It is a program working to mitigate climate change through the restoration

and sustainable use of coastal and marine ecosystems.

2. The initiative is coordinated by Ministry of Environment, Forest and

Climate Change and brings together research institutions, non-

governmental organizations and communities from around the world.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

The Blue Carbon Initiative is a global program working to mitigate climate change

through the restoration and sustainable use of coastal and marine ecosystems. The

Initiative currently focuses on mangroves, tidal marshes and seagrasses. The Blue

Carbon Initiative brings together governments, research institutions, non-governmental

organizations and communities from around the world.




• The Initiative is coordinated by Conservation International (CI), the

International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), and the

Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of the United Nations

Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (IOC-UNESCO).

• The Blue Carbon Initiative focuses on mangroves, salt marshes and seagrasses,

which are found on every continent except Antarctica.

https://www.thebluecarboninitiative.org/

84. Consider the following statements regarding mechanisms initiated under Kyoto

Flexible Market Protocol mechanisms

1. Joint Implementation (JI)

2. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)

3. Emission Trading


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Flexible Market Mechanisms

• This leads us to the second, the flexible market mechanisms of the KP, based on

the trade of emissions permits. KP countries bound to targets have to meet them

largely through domestic action— that is, to reduce their emissions onshore.

• But they can meet part of their targets through three “market-based

mechanisms” that ideally encourage GHG abatement to start where it is most

cost-effective– for example, in the developing world. Quite simply, it does not

matter where emissions are reduced, as long as they are removed from the planet’s atmosphere.

The Kyoto Flexible Market Protocol mechanisms:

1. Joint Implementation (JI)

2. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)

3. Emission Trading


https://www.thebluecarboninitiative.org/



85. Consider the following statements regarding European Green Deal

1. It is an announcement made by European Union on additional measures it

would take on climate change.

2. The EU has promised to bring a law, binding on all member countries, to

ensure it becomes “climate neutral” by 2030.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

European Green Deal

• On the sidelines of Madrid Climate talks, the European Union came up with an

announcement on additional measures it would take on climate change. It is called

as the European Green Deal.

Overview and key features of the European Green Deal:

Climate neutrality: The EU has promised to bring a law, binding on all member

countries, to ensure it becomes “climate neutral” by 2050.

What is it?

• Climate neutrality, sometimes also expressed as a state of net-zero emissions, is

achieved when a country’s emissions are balanced by absorptions and

removal of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere. Absorption can be

increased by creating more carbon sinks like forests, while removal involves

technologies like carbon capture and storage.

86. Consider the following statements regarding INS Vikramaditya

1. It is a nuclear powered air craft carrier of India

2. It was indigenously built in India

3. It was retrofitted with a Barak missile system under joint development

with Israel.


(a) 2 only

(b) 1 only




(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Solution: D

INS Vikramaditya is the country’s most powerful aircraft carrier. It was built in 1987

and had served the Soviet navy (named as Baku). It was later renamed Admiral Gorshkov

under the Russian navy. It is powered by 8 turbo-pressurised boilers, 4 shafts, 4 geared steam turbines, generating 180,000 horsepower diesel engine

• The Indian navy purchased the vessel in 2004 and commissioned it in November

2013 at Severodvinsk in Russia. It can carry over 30 aircraft comprising MiG-29Ks,

Kamov-28s, Kamov-31s, ALH-Dhruv and Chetak helicopters.

• It was retrofitted with a Barak missile system under joint development with

Israel. It is based at its home port at Karwar in Karnataka.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/INS_Vikramaditya

87. Consider the following statements regarding Shri Krishna Temple in Bahrain

1. It is considered to be the first and the oldest temple in the Gulf countries.

2. It was built by Thathai Bhatia Hindu community. 3. The temple completes 1500 years recently.


(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

Krishna temple in Bahrain:

• PM Narendra Modi has announced a renovation project of USD 4.2 million for the

iconic Shri Krishna Temple in Bahrain.

• The temple completes 200 years last year

• The temple is estimated to have been established around 1817 and was built by

Thathai Bhatia Hindu community, and is still being managed by them.

• It is considered to be the first and the oldest temple in the Gulf countries and

has been a place of worship for a host of Hindus since centuries.


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/INS_Vikramaditya




88. Consider the following statements regarding Biometric Seafarer Identity

Document (BSID)

1. India is the first country in the world to issue Biometric seafarer identity

document.

2. The project is launched by the Ministry of Science and Technology

3. Every Indian seafarer who possesses a valid continuous discharge

certificate issued by the Government of India will be eligible for issue of a

BSID.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

Biometric Seafarer Identity Document (BSID):

• India has become the first country in the world to issue Biometric Seafarer

Identity Document (BSID), capturing the facial bio-metric data of seafarers.

• Eligibility: Every Indian seafarer who possesses a valid Continuous Discharge

Certificate issued by the Govt. of India will be eligible for issue of a BSID.






Key features of BSID:

• It will have a biometric chip embedded in it.

• The card has two optical security features- Micro prints/micro texts and

Unique Guilloche pattern.

• The project has been launched by the Ministry of Shipping.

What is Continuous Certificate of Discharge

• A Continuous Certificate of Discharge or Continuous Discharge Certificate

(C.D.C.) is a seafarer’s identity document issued by his country.

• This document certifies that the person holding this is a seaman as per The

International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watch

keeping for Seafarers (STCW), 1978, as amended 2010. Every seafarer must

carry this document while on board, which is also an official and legal record of

his sea experience. The master of the vessel signs the document each time a seaman is signed off from the vessel certifying his experience on board.


89. Consider the following statements regarding The Protection of Plant Varieties and

Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001

1. It is in conformity with International Union for the Protection of New

Varieties of Plants (UPOV), 1978.

2. The legislation recognizes the contributions of both commercial plant

breeders and farmers in plant breeding activity and also provides to

implement TRIPs.

3. Under the act Researchers will have exclusive rights to produce, sell, market, distribute, import or export the protected variety.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001:

• Enacted by India in 2001 adopting sui generis system. It is in conformity with

International Union for the Protection of New Varieties of Plants (UPOV), 1978.






The legislation recognizes the contributions of both commercial plant breeders and

farmers in plant breeding activity and also provides to implement TRIPs in a way that

supports the specific socio-economic interests of all the stakeholders including private,

public sectors and research institutions, as well as resource-constrained farmers. Rights under the Act:

1. Breeders’ Rights: Breeders will have exclusive rights to produce, sell, market,

distribute, import or export the protected variety. Breeder can appoint agent/

licensee and may exercise for civil remedy in case of infringement of rights.

2. Researchers’ Rights: Researcher can use any of the registered variety under the

Act for conducting experiment or research. This includes the use of a variety as an

initial source of variety for the purpose of developing another variety but repeated use needs prior permission of the registered breeder.

Farmers’ Rights:

1. A farmer who has evolved or developed a new variety is entitled for registration

and protection in like manner as a breeder of a variety;

2. Farmers variety can also be registered as an extant variety;

3. A farmer can save, use, sow, re-sow, exchange, share or sell his farm produce

including seed of a variety protected under the PPV&FR Act, 2001 in the same

manner as he was entitled before the coming into force of this Act provided farmer

shall not be entitled to sell branded seed of a variety protected under the PPV&FR

Act, 2001;

4. Farmers are eligible for recognition and rewards for the conservation of Plant

Genetic Resources of land races and wild relatives of economic plants;

5. There is also a provision for compensation to the farmers for non-performance of

variety under Section 39 (2) of the Act, 2001 and

6. Farmer shall not be liable to pay any fee in any proceeding before the Authority or Registrar or the Tribunal or the High Court under the Act.

90. Consider the following statements regarding Green Climate Fund

1. The GCF was set up in 2015 under the UNFCCC’s Paris agreement to

channel funding from developed countries to developing countries.

2. It is intended to be the centerpiece of efforts to raise Climate Finance of

$100 billion a year by 2020.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2




Solution: B

About Green Climate Fund:

• The GCF was set up in 2010 under the UNFCCC’s financial mechanism to channel

funding from developed countries to developing countries to allow them to

mitigate climate change and also adapt to disruptions arising from a changing climate.

How it helps?

• The Green Climate Fund will support projects, programmes, policies and other

activities in developing country Parties using thematic funding windows.

• It is intended to be the centerpiece of efforts to raise Climate Finance of $100

billion a year by 2020.

• The Fund will promote the paradigm shift towards low-emission and climate-

resilient development pathways by providing support to developing countries

to limit or reduce their greenhouse gas emissions and to adapt to the impacts of

climate change, taking into account the needs of those developing countries

particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change.

• The Fund will strive to maximize the impact of its funding for adaptation and

mitigation, and seek a balance between the two, while promoting environmental,

social, economic and development co-benefits and taking a gender-sensitive approach.

Who will govern the Fund?

• The Fund is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility

for funding decisions and that receives the guidance of the Conference of Parties

(COP). The Fund is accountable to, and functions under the guidance of, the COP.

91. Consider the following statements regarding MOSAiC Expedition

1. It is the largest ever Antarctic expedition in history. 2. It is spearheaded by the Alfred Wegener Institute in Germany.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B




• Multidisciplinary Drifting Observatory for the Study of Arctic Climate

(MOSAiC) Expedition

• India’s Vishnu Nandan will be the only Indian aboard the multidisciplinary drifting

observatory for the Study of Arctic Climate (MOSAiC) expedition.

• He will be aboard the German research vessel Polarstern, anchored on a large

sheet of sea ice in the Central Arctic, drifting along with it during the pitch-black

Polar winter.

About MOSAiC:

Spearheaded by the Alfred Wegener Institute in Germany.

• It is the largest ever Arctic expedition in history.

• It will be the first to conduct a study of this scale at the North Pole for an entire

year.

• The aim of the expedition will be to parameterise the atmospheric,

geophysical, oceanographic and all other possible variables in the Arctic, and

use it to more accurately forecast the changes in our weather systems.

• The international expedition will involve more than 60 institutions from 19

countries.

Significance:

• MOSAiC will contribute to a quantum leap in our understanding of the coupled

Arctic climate system and its representation in global climate models.

• The focus of MOSAiC lies on direct in-situ observations of the climate processes

that couple the atmosphere, ocean, sea ice, biogeochemistry, and ecosystem.


1. Bolivia is a landlocked country

2. Brazil shares border with all South American countries except Chile


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Bolivia is a landlocked country bordered by Brazil, Paraguay, Argentina, Chile,

and Peru.

• Paraguay is the only other landlocked country in South America

• Brazil shares border with all South American countries except Chile and Ecuador.




93. Which of the following are the Reports and programmes initiated by World Wildlife Fund (WWF)

1. Living Planet Report

2. Debt-for-nature swaps

3. Marine Stewardship Council (MSC)

4. Healthy GrownPotato


(a) 1, 2 and 3 only




(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

World Wildlife Fund (WWF)

• It is an international non-governmental organization Founded in 1961.

Headquarter — Gland (Switzerland).

• Aim: wilderness preservation & the reduction of human impact on the

environment. It is the world’s largest conservation organization

Reports & Programmes:

• Living Planet Report— published every two years by WWF since 1998; it is

based on a Living Planet Index and ecological footprint calculation Earth hour

• Debt-for-nature swaps–financial transactions in which a portion of a developing

nation’s foreign debt is forgiven in exchange for local investments in

environmental conservation measures.

• Marine Stewardship Council (MSC) — independent non-profit organization

which sets a standard for sustainable fishing

• Healthy GrownPotato — eco-brand that provides high-quality, sustainably

grown, packaged, and shipped potatoes to consumers by leveraging integrated

pest management (IPM) farming practices on large scale farms.

94. Consider the following pairs

Military Exercises Countries Involved

1. Bold Kurukshetra India and Singapore

2. AUSINDEX – 19 India and Australia

3. Hand in Hand India and Japan

Which of the pairs given above is/are matched correctly?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 only

Solution: C




• Bold Kurukshetra is the 12th edition of joint military exercise between India

and Singapore. It focused on developing interoperability and conduct of joint

tactical operations in mechanized warfare.

• AUSINDEX – 19 is the third edition of the bilateral Maritime Exercise between

Royal Australian and Indian Navies. The maiden edition of the exercise was held

in September 2015 at Visakhapatnam and Australia hosted the second edition of

the exercise off Freemantle in June 2017.

• The eighth edition of the joint India-China military training exercise Hand-in-

Hand 2019 has drawn to a close in the Indian state of Meghalaya in the Northeast.

Extra Reading

Military Exercises

Countries Military Exercises

Countries

1. Indra India and Russia 19. Lamitye India and Seychelles 2. Simbex India and Singapore 20. Naseem Al Bahr India and Oman 3. Agni Warrior India and Singapore 21. Al Nagah India and Oman 4. Bold

Kurukshetra India and Singapore 22. Hand-in-hand India and China

5. Salvex India and United States 23. AUSINDEX India and Australia 6. Yudh Abhyas India and United States 24. Prabal Dostyk India and Kazakhstan 7. Vajra Prahar India and United States 25. Khanjar India and Kyrgystan 8. Slinex India and Sri Lanka 26. Maitree India and Thailand 9. Mitra Shakti India and Sri Lanka 27. Ajeya Warrior India and United

Kingdom 10. Sampriti India and Bangladesh 28. Konkan India and United

Kingdom 11. Nomadic

Elephant India and Mongolia 29. Desert Eagle India and United Arab

Emirates 12. Khan Quest India and Mongolia 30. Ekuverin India and Maldives 13. Varuna India and France 31. Vinbax India and Vietnam 14. Shakti India and France 32. Harimau Shakti India and Malaysia 15. Surya Kiran India and Nepal 33. Dustlik India and Uzbekistan 16. Jimex India and Japan 34. Milan Multi-nation Naval

exercise in the Indian Ocean

17. Sahyog Kaijin India and Japan 35. Dosti Trilateral Coast Guard exercise among India, Sri Lanka and Maldives from 2012

18. Garuda Shakti India and Indonesia 36. Malabar Trilateral Naval exercise between India, Japan and United States from 2015

19. Samudra Shakti

India and Indonesia

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_exercises_of_the_Indian_Army


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_exercises_of_the_Indian_Army



95. Consider the following statements regarding Blue flag programme

1. The Blue Flag Programme is run by the international non-governmental

organization, Foundation for Environmental Education.

2. Chandrabhaga beach of Odisha’s coast has recently got the Blue Flag

certification process.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Blue flag programme:

• The Blue Flag Programme for beaches and marinas is run by the international,

non-governmental, non-profit organisation FEE (the Foundation for

Environmental Education).

• It started in France in 1985 and has been implemented in Europe since 1987, and

in areas outside Europe since 2001, when South Africa joined.

Definition:

• The ‘Blue Flag’ beach is an ‘eco-tourism model’ and marks out beaches as

providing tourists and beachgoers clean and hygienic bathing water,

facilities/amenities, a safe and healthy environment, and sustainable

development of the area.

Key Facts:

• Japan and South Korea are the only countries in South and south-eastern Asia

to have Blue Flag beaches.

• Spain tops the list with 566 such beaches; Greece and France follow with 515 and

395, respectively.

• Chandrabhaga beach of Odisha’s Konark coast has completed the Blue Flag

certification process.

96. UNEP Colombo Declaration is related to

(a) Pollution caused by ships.

(b) Pollutions caused by aviation sector.

(c) Global Nitrogen Challenge.




(d) Peat land development.

Solution: C

UN Environment Programme (UNEP) member states recently adopted the “Colombo Declaration” which calls for tackling global nitrogen challenge.

How Nitrogen turned into pollutant from nutrient how it is affecting health and

environment?

• Nitrogen is an inert gas that’s necessary for life. But we’re changing it into forms

that are harmful, overloading the environment with it, and throwing the natural

nitrogen cycle out of whack.

• Nitrogen compounds running off farmland have led to water pollution problems

around the world, while nitrogen emissions from industry, agriculture and

vehicles make a big contribution to air pollution.

• Over 80% of the nitrogen in soil is not utilised by humans. While over four-fifths

of the nitrogen is used to feed livestock, only about six per cent reaches humans in

case of non-vegetarian diet, as compared to the 20% that reaches the plate of a

vegetarian.

• Nitrogen becomes a pollutant when it escapes into the environment and reacts

with other organic compounds. It is either released into the atmosphere, gets

dissolved in water sources such as rivers, lakes or groundwater, or remains in the

soil. While it might lead to favourable growth of species that can utilise this

nutrient, nitrogen as a pollutant is often detrimental to the environment and

health.

• According to the World Health Organization, nitrate-contaminated drinking water

can cause reduced blood function, cancer and endemic goiters. Surplus inputs of

nitrogen compounds have been found to cause soil acidification.

97. Gaza strip, often seen in the news, shares border with which of the following

countries/territories?

1. Israel

2. Egypt

3. Syria 4. Jordan

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only




Solution: D

About GAZA:

• The Gaza Strip is a self-governing Palestinian territory on the eastern coast of

the Mediterranean Sea. It borders Egypt on the southwest and Israel on the east

and north. Gaza and the West Bank are claimed by the State of Palestine.


1. Spratly Island is located in East China Sea

2. Socotra Island is located in Indian Ocean

3. The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• The Spratly Islands are a disputed archipelago in the South China Sea.

Composed of islands, islets and cays and more than 100 reefs, sometimes grouped




in submerged old atolls, the archipelago lies off the coasts of the Philippines,

Malaysia, and southern Vietnam.

• Named after the 19th-century British whaling captain Richard Spratly who sighted

Spratly Island in 1843, the islands contain less than 2 km2 (490 acres) of naturally

occurring land area spread over an area of more than 425,000 km2 (164,000 sq

mi).

• The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.

On the north coast lies Iran, and on the south coast the United Arab Emirates and

Musandam, an exclave of Oman.

• It provides the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean and is one

of the world’s most strategically important choke points

• Socotra also called Soqotra, located between the Guardafui Channel and the

Arabian Sea, is the largest of four islands in the Socotra archipelago. The

territory is located near major shipping routes and is officially part of Yemen, and

had long been a subdivision of the Aden Governorate.

• In 2004, it became attached to the Hadhramaut Governorate, which is much closer

to the island than Aden (although the nearest governorate was the Al Mahrah

Governorate). In 2013, the archipelago became its own governorate, the Socotra

Governorate.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/navy-sends-ship-to-socotra-island-in-

yemen-to-rescue-38-stranded-indians/article24069098.ece

99. Consider the following statements regarding Rotavirus

1. It is a leading cause of severe diarrhoea and death among children less than

14 years of age.

2. It is transmitted by the faecal-oral route, via contact with contaminated

hands, surfaces and objects


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

The Health Ministry has drawn an ambitious plan under the 100 days agenda of the newly

elected government, wherein it has been decided to provide Rotavirus vaccine to every child across all States and Union Territories by September, 2019.


https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/navy-sends-ship-to-socotra-island-in-yemen-to-rescue-38-stranded-indians/article24069098.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/navy-sends-ship-to-socotra-island-in-yemen-to-rescue-38-stranded-indians/article24069098.ece



The vaccine has been developed indigenously under a public-private partnership by the

ministries of science and technology and health and family welfare.

Rotavirus:

• Rotavirus is a leading cause of severe diarrhoea and death among children less

than five years of age.

• It is responsible for around 10% of total child mortality every year.

Rotavirus-Signs and Symptoms:

• Kids with a rotavirus infection have fever, nausea, and vomiting, often followed by

abdominal cramps and frequent, watery diarrhea.

• Kids may also have a cough and runny nose.

• Sometimes the diarrhea that accompanies a rotavirus infection is so severe that it

can quickly lead to dehydration.

• As with all viruses, though, some rotavirus infections cause few or no symptoms,

especially in adults.

Transmission:

• Rotavirus is transmitted by the faecal-oral route, via contact with contaminated

hands, surfaces and objects, and possibly by the respiratory route. Viral diarrhea

is highly contagious.

Background:

• Out of all the causes of diarrhoea, rotavirus is a leading cause of diarrhoea in

children less than 5 years of age. Rotavirus diarrhoea presents in similar manner

like any other diarrhoea but can mainly be prevented through rotavirus

vaccination. Other diarrhoea can be prevented through general measures like

good hygiene, frequent hand washing, safe water and safe food consumption,

exclusive breastfeeding and vitamin A supplementation.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/08/10/rotavirus/

100. Consider the following statements regarding Geologic Sequestration Trapping

Mechanisms

1. Hydrodynamic Trapping refers to the process where carbon dioxide can be

dissolved into a liquid, such as water or oil.

2. Mineral Carbonation refers to the process where carbon dioxide can react

with the minerals, fluids, and organic matter in a geologic formation to form stable compounds/minerals.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only


https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/08/10/rotavirus/



(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Geologic Sequestration Trapping Mechanisms

• Hydrodynamic Trapping: Carbon dioxide can be trapped as a gas under low-

permeability cap rock (much like natural gas is stored in gas reservoirs).

• Solubility Trapping: Carbon dioxide can be dissolved into a liquid, such as water

or oil.

• Mineral Carbonation: Carbon dioxide can react with the minerals, fluids, and

organic matter in a geologic formation to form stable compounds/minerals;

largely calcium, iron, and magnesium carbonates.


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