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Geol 2001 - 3rd Exam If you want to do well in the exam, I recommend learning these questions plus my slides. Do not forget to study the summaries of these chapters, which are available on iCollege! NOTE: Questions in red, crossed out font will not be covered in the real exam! Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. Nearly all of the minerals that are commercially exploited are either native metals or ore minerals. a. true b. false ____ 2. Matter that stores energy in a readily usable form is termed ____________. a. antimatter c. nuclear b. fuel d. radioactive ____ 3. Which of the following lists contains only fossil fuels? a. coal, oil, natural gas c. coal, wood, natural gas b. coal, geothermal, wind d. hydroelectric, geothermal, wind ____ 4. According to the figure below, the most common source of energy use in the United States in 2000 was ____________. a. oil c. coal b. natural gas d. wind and running water ____ 5. Examine the figure below. When did the combined use of both oil and natural gas begin to nearly steadily increase beyond about 1 billion barrels equivalent? a. 1900 c. 1950 b. 1920 d. 1965 ____ 6. Hydrocarbons are chain-like or ring-like molecules made of carbon and ____________ atoms. a. helium c. water

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Geol 2001 - 3rd ExamIf you want to do well in the exam, I recommend learning these questions plus my slides.Do not forget to study the summaries of these chapters, which are available on iCollege!

NOTE: Questions in red, crossed out font will not be covered in the real exam!

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Nearly all of the minerals that are commercially exploited are either native metals or ore minerals.a. true b. false

____ 2. Matter that stores energy in a readily usable form is termed ____________.a. antimatter c. nuclearb. fuel d. radioactive

____ 3. Which of the following lists contains only fossil fuels?a. coal, oil, natural gas c. coal, wood, natural gasb. coal, geothermal, wind d. hydroelectric, geothermal, wind

____ 4. According to the figure below, the most common source of energy use in the United States in 2000 was ____________.

a. oil c. coalb. natural gas d. wind and running water

____ 5. Examine the figure below. When did the combined use of both oil and natural gas begin to nearly steadily increase beyond about 1 billion barrels equivalent?

a. 1900 c. 1950b. 1920 d. 1965

____ 6. Hydrocarbons are chain-like or ring-like molecules made of carbon and ____________ atoms.a. helium c. waterb. oxygen d. hydrogen

____ 7. Chemically, oil and gas are both ____________.a. pure forms of carbon c. hydrocarbonsb. evaporite minerals d. carbonate minerals

____ 8. Most of the hydrocarbons within oil and natural gas are derived from the breakdown of organic matter from dead ____________.a. dinosaurs c. terrestrial plantsb. plankton d. Mammals

____ 9. According to this figure, the greatest depth at which oil is found is ____________.

a. about 4 km below the surface c. about 9 km below the surfaceb. about 6 km below the surface d. at the base of the lithosphere

____ 10. Organic matter builds up evenly in sediments over the entire ocean floor.a. true b. false

____ 11. Examine the table below. Which nation is consuming the greatest fraction of its oil reserves each year?

a. Saudi Arabia c. Qatarb. China d. the United States

____ 12. A body of rock in which oil is formed is termed a ____________.

a. reservoir rock c. source rockb. seal rock

____ 13. The oil window (temperature range wherein organic matter is converted to petroleum hydrocarbon without destroying it) lies between ____________.a. 30°C and 60°C c. 90°C and 160°Cb. 100°C and 250°C d. 200°C and 350°C

____ 14. Look at the figure below.

Which of the following would NOT result from increased burial temperature of hydrocarbon molecules?a. causing molecules to react and become largerb. causing molecules to contain fewer atomsc. eventually destroying them, leaving only carbond. driving all the carbon off, eventually leaving only hydrogen

____ 15. What effect would the intrusion of a magma body have on the depth to the “oil window”, and why?a. None.b. The depth to the oil window should increase because the magma is migrating upward and

thereby decreasing crustal pressuresc. The depth to the oil window should decrease because the magma is bringing heat closer to

Earth’s surface.d. The depth to the oil window should increase because the water in the magma will cool the

nearby rock.

____ 16. A permeable and porous rock, regardless of lithology, is a good candidate to serve as a ____________ in an oil-producing scenario.a. reservoir rock c. source rockb. seal rock

____ 17. An impermeable rock is most likely to be which of these?a. reservoir rock c. source rock

b. seal rock

____ 18. Which of the following is NOT an important type of oil trap?a. salt dome c. stratigraphicb. syncline d. anticline

____ 19. A commercially viable oil deposit must include a source rock, a reservoir rock, a seal rock, and a ____________.a. fracture system connecting the reservoir rock to the Earth’s surface so that the oil can

move freely upwardb. filter rock, between the source and the reservoir rock, to remove impuritiesc. heater rock, beneath the source rock, to heat the oil and give it buoyancyd. trap that prevents the oil from reaching the Earth’s surface

____ 20. A black, organic-rich shale could likely serve as either of which two necessary types of rocks within oil fields?a. source rock or seal rock c. source rock or reservoir rockb. reservoir rock or seal rock

____ 21. Hydrocarbons consisting of short carbon chains are ____________.a. more volatile than hydrocarbons with longer chainsb. more viscous than hydrocarbons with longer chainsc. typically stable in a solid state at room temperaturesd. All of the above are correct.

____ 22. The figure below shows close-up views of two sand deposits that have differing degrees of cementation. Which explanation about how increased cementation of the clasts would affect the ability of oil to flow to a well does NOT make sense?

a. It would slow down the flow of oil to the well because the passages are on average less connected.

b. It would slow down the flow of oil to the well because the passages are on average narrower.

c. It would have no effect if there are sufficient, interconnected fractures in the rock (though not visible in the figures).

d. It would speed up the flow of oil to the well because flow through narrower passages will generate more friction and thereby heat the oil and decrease its viscosity.

____ 23. Is oil or natural gas more likely to be present at the greatest depths within Earth, and why?a. oil, because it is more stable at high temperaturesb. oil, because it is more stable at low pressuresc. gas, because it is more stable at high temperaturesd. gas, because it is more stable at low pressures

____ 24. If a sedimentary basin is tectonically subsiding, how would the depth of the oil window be affected, and why?a. The depth of the oil window would decrease because hot fluids produced from diagenesis

of basin sediments would increase hydrocarbon temperatures.b. The depth of the oil window would increase because fluids produced from diagenesis of

basin sediments would prevent or buffer any rise of hydrocarbon temperatures.c. The depth of the oil window would decrease because the basin bottom would be closer to

the mantle and heat of Earth’s outer core.d. The depth of the oil window would increase because the geothermal gradient in the

subsiding basin would lead to cooler rocks being found at greater depths.

____ 25. If drilling encounters both oil and natural gas within a single interval, the ____________.a. gas will float on top of the oilb. oil will float on top of the gasc. gas and oil will be thoroughly mixed togetherd. gas will exist in a dissolved state within the oil

____ 26. Shale, salt, and fine-grained limestone that are unfractured are all good candidates for ____________.a. reservoir rocks c. source rocksb. seal rocks d. either source rocks or reservoir rocks

____ 27. Graphite forms from natural gas as well as coal when temperatures rise. What does this imply?a. Coal and natural gas molecules decompose to carbon and other matter when temperature

rises.b. Coal and natural gas molecules are transformed by neutron bombardment into carbon.c. The precursors of natural gas and coal were graphite or other pure carbon.d. Coal and natural gas must be less dense than graphite.

____ 28. ____________ create(s) an easy route for oil or gas to travel to a well.a. Hydrofracturing c. Drilling mudb. Seismic-reflection d. Pumps

____ 29. The primary reasons that no more than 30% of the oil contained within most reservoirs is recovered are the viscosity of the oil and “patchy” (irregular) or low permeability. Which pair of techniques listed below would probably best increase the percentage of oil recoverable from a reservoir?a. injecting water into the reservoir, and hydraulically fracturing itb. adding weight to the ground surface to compress the reservoir, and applying greater

suction to the pumps on the oil wellsc. applying greater suction to the pumps on the oil wells and fracturing the reservoird. hydraulically fracturing the aquifer and injecting steam into it

____ 30. ____________ is/are an example of alternative hydrocarbon sources.a. Gas hydrate c. Oil shaleb. Tar sands d. All of the above are correct.

____ 31. Tar has a lower viscosity than gasoline.a. true b. false

____ 32. In tar sand, microbes have biodegraded larger molecules, leaving smaller molecules.a. true b. false

____ 33. Which organic substance is produced by black organic shales at temperatures below the oil window?a. natural gas c. kerogenb. coal d. keratin

____ 34. Natural gas ____________.a. consists of longer carbon chains as compared to oilb. is less common than oil at higher temperaturesc. is produced at higher temperatures than oild. is produced at higher temperatures than graphite

____ 35. Most of the world’s coal was deposited in coal swamps during the ____________.a. Cretaceous c. Carboniferousb. Ordovician d. Jurassic

____ 36. Coal is the altered remains of ancient ____________.a. dinosaurs c. terrestrial plantsb. plankton d. mammals

____ 37. ____________ are NOT an example of alternative hydrocarbon sources.a. Methane hydrates c. Oil shalesb. Peat bogs d. Tar sands

____ 38. Most coal forms in __, which develop and preserve the thick sedimentary sequences necessary for deep burial.a. domes c. shieldsb. basins d. active margins

____ 39. Which sequence of coal ranks is listed in order from lowest to highest energy content?a. anthracite, bituminous, lignite c. bituminous, lignite, anthraciteb. lignite, bituminous, anthracite d. bituminous, anthracite, lignite

____ 40. Coal and metal ore deposits deeper than 100 m below the ground surface are usually mined with which technique?a. underground mining b. strip mining

____ 41. The “energy footprint” and annual CO2 emission of building, power plants, and other infrastructure are normally estimated only for the lifetime of operation, and do not include the cost of building and later removing (or recycling) the building, power plant, and so on. If the cost to construct and remove/recycle such facilities were also included in estimating the “energy footprint” and annual CO2 emissions of a proposed nuclear power, which of these factors would NOT change the resulting calculation?a. mining, refining, and transporting uranium ore to the plant each time the core ‘bundle’ needed

change-outb. emissions and energy consumption of the plant during the period of its operationc. the cost to deconstruct, haul away, or decontaminate and recycle the materials of the power station

after it had been shutdownd. the cost to manage, haul away, and safely store or recycle the used reactor core rods.

____ 42. U-235, the isotope of uranium that is essential for operating nuclear power plants, is ____________.

a. the most common of the naturally occurring isotopes of uraniumb. heavier than the other well-known isotope of uraniumc. so rare even in uranium oxide deposits that uranium ore must be processed to enrich the

proportion of U-235 to all uraniumd. created by “breeder reactors” as well as produced during nuclear (atomic bomb) explosions

____ 43. ____________ is/are harnessed from the potential energy of water.a. Hydroelectric power c. Biofuelsb. Solar energy d. Hydrologic energy

____ 44. Which of the following is a renewable resource?a. coal c. windb. oil d. natural gas

____ 45. Look at the figure below. What problem might occur during the long-term operation of a geothermal power plant?

a. The groundwater flowing to the geothermal well would dissolve rock, creating solution features within the bedrock.

b. The groundwater flowing to the geothermal well would deposit-out (precipitate) minerals, decrease the permeability of the rock formation, and decrease the flow of water to the well.

c. The groundwater flowing to the geothermal well would fill the well with placer deposits.d. The groundwater available to flow to the geothermal well would eventually be used up, and the

geothermal well would cease providing hot water to the plant

____ 46. According to the table below, the world’s oil reserves are likely to be depleted in about ____________ years.

a. 10 c. 4,000b. 40 d. 600,000

____ 47. Which of the factors listed below does NOT hinder using geothermal energy to provide most of society’s electrical needs?

a. Groundwater is not available in all places, to capture and carry heat to the surface.b. Magma is found in the shallow crust in only limited areas of the planet.c. Rocks rarely have sufficient permeability to allow flow of groundwater.d. Electrical transmission lines cannot carry electricity generated at geothermal power plants.

____ 48. There are no significant mineral reserves within sedimentary rocks.a. true b. false

____ 49. The first ores that were widely smelted by humans to produce metal were those of ____________.a. bronze c. goldb. copper d. iron

____ 50. The stereotypical gold rush prospector panning for gold in streambeds is mining ________.a. magmatic deposits c. residual mineral depositsb. placer deposits d. sedimentary deposits

____ 51. In what kind of terrain would you expect to find a placer deposit?

a. dry lake bed c. ocean floorb. mountain peak d. streambed

____ 52. Which type of ore is most commonly concentrated in magmatic deposits?a. oxides c. native metalsb. sulfides d. copper ores

____ 53. Mineral-rich veins within or near plutons, deposited in fractures by hot groundwater, characterize ____________.a. hydrothermal deposits c. residual mineral deposits

b. placer deposits d. sedimentary deposits

____ 54. MVT (Mississippi Valley-type) deposits are secondary enrichments primarily of ____________ and ____________.a. gold; silver c. copper; bronzeb. tin; aluminum d. lead; zinc

____ 55. Aluminum is made by processing material excavated from____________ deposits.a. residual mineral c. hydrothermalb. placer d. magmatic

____ 56. Which of these geologic phenomena would a modern mineral prospector use to search for a large deposit of sulfide or minerals within a magmatic body?a. areas of earthquake wave attenuationb. the concentration of aluminum in soils of the areac. indications of recent hydrothermal activityd. locally stronger gravity because of denser minerals

____ 57. Which property of magmatic ore deposits causes them to be concentrated by magmas?a. low temperatures of crystallization c. low densityb. high temperatures of crystallization d. high density

____ 58. Which ore minerals are abundant in sedimentary rocks that are approximately two billion years old?a. copper sulfides c. iron oxidesb. aluminum oxides d. copper oxides

____ 59. In the figure below, why would the densest clasts probably be at the bottom of the river channel?

a. Denser clasts are larger and are therefore found at the river bottom.b. Denser clasts roll (due to landslides, etc.) further into the river and so are most common in the middle of

the channel.c. Denser clasts require more energy to move and so are deposited first, into flood-scoured channels when

waters begin to slow.d. Denser clasts are more magnetic and weak molecular forces cause them to “stick” to water molecules.

____ 60. Which of these materials is used in making glass?a. salt c. limestoneb. granite d. sand

____ 61. Blocks of rock used in construction are termed ____________.a. dimension stone c. oreb. gemstone d. lodestone

____ 62. Stone is typically broken into slabs and blocks through the use of ____________.a. mechanical splitting and chiseling c. heatb. abrasion d. All of the above are correct.

____ 63. Which mineral is used in making cement?a. sulfur c. zincb. gypsum d. limestone

____ 64. Concrete is ____________.a. synonymous with the term cementb. synonymous with the term Portland cementc. a combination of cement, sand, and graveld. powdered rock of any lithology mixed with water and allowed to set overnight

____ 65. If additional ore resources are not discovered and rates of ore consumption remain the same, in about how many years will most of the resources listed here be exhausted?

a. 10 to 20 years c. 80 to 200 yearsb. 30 to 80 years d. more than 200 years from now

____ 66. Which mineral resources are considered renewable?a. base metals only c. iron and aluminum oresb. nonmetallic minerals only d. No mineral resources are renewable.

____ 67. Mining metallic minerals usually produces sulfur-rich acidic wastes. You learned earlier in this course that calcite (CaCO3) reacts with acids to neutralize them. Based on this, what material could you apply to the acidic surface or groundwater drainage near a metallic ore body or mine, to neutralize its acidity?a. gypsum c. saltb. limestone or marble d. any foliated metamorphic rock

____ 68. The United States government tracks the consumption of metals deemed “strategic” to our society, industry, and defense, and compares their consumption against the resources of those ores within the United States. Based on the chart below, what resources should U.S. geologists be exploring for?

a. iron and leadb. iron, copper, and leadc. zinc and goldd. platinum, nickel, cobalt, manganese, and chromium

____ 69. A drawback to mining sulfides is the risk of ____________.a. underground fires c. “rock bursts”b. tunnel collapse d. acid mine runoff

____ 70. In the figure below, which is NOT a reason for the oil to migrate to the Earth’s surface?

a. It is hot and flows upward because of its temperature.b. It is lighter than any groundwater, and so it will rise through groundwater.c. There is nothing that looks like a trap rock above it, to prevent it from rising.d. It is under pressure and migrates upward toward lower pressure.

____ 71. Sinkholes are a concern primarily for residents whose dwellings are constructed atop ____________.

a. sandstone c. limestoneb. shale d. granite

____ 72. The majority of liquid freshwater within Earth exists in ____________.a. lakes c. pores within rock and sedimentb. rivers and streams d. atmospheric clouds

____ 73. Material through which water readily flows is termed ____________.a. fluent c. permeableb. porous

____ 74. Groundwater ____________.a. does not affect the porosity of the rock and sediment through which it flowsb. uniformly increases porosity due to dissolution of grainsc. uniformly decreases porosity due to deposition of minerals into poresd. may increase or decrease porosity through dissolution or deposition

____ 75. In the figure below, the flecked material to the right of the fault would be considered a(n) ____________.

a. aquifer c. artesian wellb. aquitard d. perched aquifer

____ 76. Primary porosity may be reduced by ____________.a. compaction of grains c. Both a and b are correct.b. cementation of grains d. None of the above are correct.

____ 77. Dissolution of rock produces ____________.a. primary porosity c. secondary porosityb. primary permeability d. a reduction in primary porosity

____ 78. Unconsolidated sediment typically has greater porosity than lithified rock which it forms.a. true b. false

____ 79. In unfractured rock and sediment, water molecules usually take a ____________.a. straight path c. circular pathb. wandering path

____ 80. If a material is porous, it ____________.a. will be permeable as well c. may be permeable or impermeable

b. will be impermeable

____ 81. An impermeable layer of rock or sediment is termed a(n) ____________ in hydrogeologic contexts.a. aquitard c. unconfined aquiferb. confined aquifer d. unsaturated zone

____ 82. An aquifer that is isolated from Earth’s surface by an aquitard is ____________.a. supersaturated c. unconfinedb. confined aquifer d. unsaturated zone

____ 83. A body of permeable, saturated rock or sediment into which water can percolate directly from the ground surface is termed a(n) ____________.a. aquitard c. unconfined aquiferb. confined aquifer d. unsaturated zone

____ 84. Unless it has recently rained, there is no water within pores in the unsaturated zone.a. true b. false

____ 85. Freshwater lakes are always discharge areas.a. true b. false

____ 86. Rock or sediment between the water table and the land surface represents a(n) ____________.a. aquitard c. unconfined aquiferb. confined aquifer d. unsaturated zone

____ 87. In a humid climate, the topography of the water table ____________.a. is unaffected by local surface topographyb. precisely mimics the topography of the ground surfacec. is a subdued (less steeply sloping) mimic of surface topographyd. is an exaggerated (more steeply sloping) mimic of surface topography

____ 88. Perched water tables occur ____________.a. above the regional water table, within permeable rock or sedimentb. above the regional water table, within impermeable rock or sedimentc. below the regional water table, within impermeable rock or sedimentd. below the regional water table, within permeable rock or sediment

____ 89. Which list correctly orders the three types of subsurface water from shallowest to deepest?a. groundwater, soil moisture, vadose zone waterb. soil moisture, groundwater, vadose zone waterc. groundwater, vadose zone water, soil moistured. soil moisture, vadose zone water, groundwater

____ 90. Why will the sandstone shown in the figure below probably not be permeable?

a. There isn’t enough pore space.b. The pore spaces are too small for water to flow through.c. The pore spaces are not connected enoughd. Both a and b are correct.

____ 91. A well-sorted sediment will have ____________ porosity than a poorly sorted sediment.a. greater c. approximately the sameb. less

____ 92. A bedrock that has no intergranular porosity, but that has extensive interconnected fractures, ____________.a. is impermeable c. has secondary porosityb. is probably permeable d. Both b and c are correct.

____ 93. The relationship governing the rate of groundwater flux was discovered by ____________.a. Alfred Wegener c. Henri Darcyb. Isaac Newton d. Charles Richter

____ 94. The elevation of the water table ____________.a. is a constant for a given area as long as the topography remains the sameb. may rise during times of drought and sink during rainy periodsc. may rise during rainy periods and sink during droughts

____ 95. As a rule, groundwater always flows from areas ____________.a. of greater elevation to those of lesser elevationb. of greater water pressure to those of lesser water pressurec. of greater hydraulic head to those of lesser hydraulic headd. near streams to areas beneath mountain ranges

____ 96. Which statement about recharge areas is NOT true?a. Recharge areas typically are elevated with respect to neighboring areas.b. Recharge areas are regions of relatively high precipitation.c. Recharge areas are the same as discharge areas.d. Recharge areas are areas where water infiltrates the sediment from above.

____ 97. You are in charge of putting in water well for a large farm. Unfortunately, there has been a lot of groundwater pollution in the area since it became industrialized almost 200 years ago. Referring to the figure below, how far down should you install the openings of the well in order to have the best chance of getting uncontaminated water?

a. to A c. to Cb. to B

____ 98. The rate of groundwater flow per unit area through a body of rock or sediment depends ____________.a. only on the slope of the water table locallyb. only on the porosity of the rock or sedimentc. on the slope of the water table and the porosity of the rock or sedimentd. on the slope of the water table and the permeability of the rock or sediment

____ 99. A dry well will always result whenever the base of the well is above the water table.a. true b. false

____ 100. An artesian well is one that ____________.a. discharges groundwater at ground surface without pumping

b. has its intake sited within the saturated zone of an unconfined aquiferc. has intake sited within the unsaturated zone of an unconfined aquiferd. has its recharge area at an elevation below sea level

____ 101. Any place where groundwater naturally flows out of the surface of Earth is termed a ____________.a. flowing artesian well c. springb. geyser d. recharge area

____ 102. An ordinary (water-producing) well is likely to result when the base of the well extends below the water table.a. true b. false

____ 103. Which factor listed here would not affect the flow of water at a spring?a. the concentrations of various ions and man-made pollutantsb. conditions of either drought or heavy rainfall at the recharge areac. the interconnectedness of fractures or pore spaces leading to the springd. a decline in the water table in the direction from which groundwater feeds the spring

____ 104. A periodic explosive eruption of steam and water from within the ground up through the surface is termed a _.a. flowing artesian well c. springb. geyser d. recharge area

____ 105. Water flowing from hot springs ____________.a. contains more dissolved minerals than water emanating from cool springsb. contains less dissolved minerals than water emanating from cool springsc. is never hotter than 40°C, so it is always safe to bathe ind. only occurs in regions of active volcanic eruption

____ 106. You operate a geothermal power plant here. After several years, the wells that have produced hot water and steam are beginning to run dry. If you want to install injection wells (wells that you can pump water into), so that you could recharge the groundwater circulation system and preserve the flow of hot water to your production well, where would you drill them?(Note: Lines are red (dark grey) at the end with the arrowhead and blue (light grey) nearer the ends without arrowheads.)

a. by the blue arrows c. in between the blue and red arrowsb. by the red arrows d. at both the blue and red arrows

____ 107. Arsenic can be naturally occurring in groundwater.a. true b. false

____ 108. Extensive pumping of fresh groundwater from wells near a seacoast is most likely to induce ____________.a. saline intrusion; with time the well will start to deliver saline waterb. saline expulsion; with time the freshwater/saline water interface within the aquifer will be

pushed downward and seawardc. mineral deposition of salts within the aquifer

____ 109. Neither methane nor hydrogen sulfide are naturally-occurring in well-water.a. true b. false

____ 110. Venice, Italy, has largely subsided beneath sea-level because of ____________.a. polar ice caps melting due to global warming

b. extensive nearby groundwater mining and sediment compactionc. tectonic forces related to the gradual, ongoing collision of Africa and Europed. None of the above are correct; Venice was built underwater during the Middle Ages.

____ 111. Pumping vast quantities of water locally ____________.a. raises the local water tableb. lowers the local water table, forming a cone-shaped depressionc. lowers the local water table, forming a cylindrical depressiond. does not affect the water table

____ 112. Groundwater mining refers to ____________.a. acid drainage from mines polluting groundwaterb. legal squabbling over groundwater rights (“It’s mine!”)c. pumping out water faster than it can be replenished by recharged. prospecting an area to find a suitable spot for a well

____ 113. Hard water results from relatively high concentrations of dissolved ____________.a. calcium and magnesium c. sodiumb. francium and cesium d. potassium

____ 114. Groundwater ____________.a. rarely, if ever, contains dissolved ionsb. dissolves calcite and limestonec. can contain dissolved minerals but can never precipitate minerals out of solutiond. can precipitate minerals but only if the ions that would form the mineral in question are

undersaturated in the water

____ 115. Bioremediation of contaminated groundwater involves ____________.a. introduction of laboratory-cultured viruses that can dissolve the plumeb. pumping nutrients into a contaminant plume to help local bacteria metabolize the plumec. pumping out the contaminated groundwater and using it to irrigate genetically modified

crops

____ 116. The well shown in this figure has become “contaminated” with naturally occurring salt water, drawn toward it because too much water was pumped from it for too long. What would be an easy way to restore the aquifer, that is, to push the saline groundwater back toward the ocean?

a. Cover the near-shore sea bottom with heavy plastic and concrete to prevent more seawater from entering the aquifer.

b. Install a line of wells between your “contaminated” well and the coast, and place desalination equipment in each one, to remove salinity from the aquifer.

c. Convert your “contaminated” well into an injection well and begin to pump freshwater into the aquifer through it.

d. Increase the amount of rainfall that occurs just inland from your “contaminated” well.

____ 117. Topography dominated by depressions formed by the collapse of caves is termed ____________.a. valley and ridge c. horst and grabenb. karst

____ 118. Most large cave and karst systems have resulted from ____________ dissolving ____________.a. carbonic acid; limestone c. phosphoric acid; shaleb. ascorbic acid; dolostone d. seawater; rock salt

____ 119. Besides its immense size, what else is unusual about Carlsbad Caverns in southeastern New Mexico?a. Geologists think the system was produced by sulfuric acid rather than carbonic acid.b. The caverns are within a deposit of rock salt rather than limestone.c. The caverns were formed within the span of just a few days in 1937.d. Although there are conduits to the surface, the caverns do not host a population of bats.

____ 120. Most dissolution of bedrock to form caves takes place ____________.a. above the water tableb. just below the water tablec. greater than 10 m below the water table

____ 121. If the cross-section shown here were typical of the main channel of a long river, would you expect the river to dry up as you followed it downstream?

a. Yes, because the water is contaminated.b. Not if there were additional tributaries entering it downstream.c. Yes, because it is in a desert.d. No.

____ 122. Which of the following is not evidence for karst topography?a. salt beds c. limestonesb. sinkholes d. disappearing streams

____ 123. You find a huge new cave system and discover it has multiple, extensive levels, each about 500 ft below the one above it. What can you infer about the water table in the region?a. It used to be higher.b. It periodically dropped further and further.c. It lies beneath an aquitardd. Both a and b are correct.

____ 124. Land subsidence is likely when ____________.a. groundwater recharge occursb. the Ca and Mg content of groundwater increasesc. the water table changesd. discharge lowers the water table

More questions from the 3 chapters that you need to learn for the test on the following pages!

Multiple Choice1. What factor has contributed to the drying up of streams and the intrusion of salty groundwater in the Long

Island area?

a. overpumping of groundwater

b. overuse of surface water

c. diversion of saltwater into dry stream beds

d. injection of stream water to recharge groundwater

2. Why is sediment yield an important consideration in a discussion of water supplies?

a. sediment yield affects the amount of water that is available

b. water resources and sediment resources are closely intertwined

c. sediment is a common water pollutant

d. soil erosion restricts water flow to streams

3. The boundary between drainage basins is called the

a. watershed b. high point c. basin split d. drainage divide

4. The drainage density on clay soils is likely to have what relationship to the drainage density on gravel soils?

a. greater drainage density on clay soils b. greater drainage density on gravel soils

c. equal drainage density, the soil type has no effect

d. greater drainage density on clay soils, but with fewer streams

Water Resources

5. Groundwater mining is accomplished by

a. high discharge of water to streams b. thorough exploration for groundwater resources

c. pumping that exceeds recharge d. very clean miners

6. Vegetation decreases runoff by

a. reflecting only the green portion of sunlight b. absorbing water into leaves

c. intercepting rainfall and slowing its fall to the ground d. holding soil in place

7. Which of the following would likely serve as an aquitard?

a. gravel b. sand c. silt d. fractured gneiss

8. An artesian well is one that

a. contains water b. emits water without pumping

c. is dry most of the year d. is in a confined aquifer

9. The rate of groundwater flow is proportional to the

a. recharge and discharge b. the hydraulic gradient and hydraulic conductivity

c. confinement of the aquifer d. rate of pumping

True/False1. Concerns over water resources focus on the lack of abundance of water on Earth.

2. The velocity and depth of water flow influence the amount of soil or sediment the water can erode.

3. Runoff in areas of shale bedrock tends to be less that in areas of gravel because of the high porosity of shale.

4. The water table separates confined and unconfined aquifers.

5. Water pressure is generally greater in a confined aquifer than in an unconfined aquifer.

6. A cone of depression forms when water is pumped from an unconfined aquifer, but not when water is pumped from a confined aquifer.

7. Groundwater movement is proportional to porosity.

8. Groundwater mining in the Ogallala aquifer is a function of the very small amount of water contained in the aquifer.

9. Desalination is used only where alternative water sources are unavailable.

10. Hydroelectric water use is considered nonconsumptive.

Fill-in-the-Blank (I will change these into T/F or multiple choice). Study these to learn!

1. The global ____________ _________ involves the transfer of water between Earth’s water reservoirs.

Answer: hydrologic cycle

2. Drainage basins are separated by the ____________ _____________.

Answer: drainage divide

3. A _____________ aquifer is largely isolated from the Earth’s surface above it.

Answer: confined

4. Pumping of groundwater from a well creates a __________ _________ _________ in the aquifer.

Answer: cone of depression

5. The ability of an Earth material to transmit water is called its _______________ ____________.

Answer: hydraulic conductivity

6. An _____________ stream typically lies above the water table.

Answer: influent

7. An _______________ stream gains water from an aquifer.

Answer: effluent

8. _____________ water use does not divert or remove water from its source.

Answer: Instream

9. _______________ and thermoelectric generators are the primary consumptive users of fresh water.

Answer: Irrigation

10. The water management philosophy put forth by _______ __________ focuses on natural variability in water resources.

Answer: Luna Leopold

Water PollutionMultiple Choice1. How did Hurricane Floyd contribute to dramatic water pollution in North Carolina?

a. intense rain and river flooding caused poorly sited pig farm waste lagoons to overflow

b. intense winds damaged pig farm waste treatment facilities, rendering them inoperable

c. pig carcasses were washed into the ocean, where they decayed

d. careful preparation by pig farm operators prevented major water contamination despite the intensity of the hurricane

2. The level of decaying organic matter in water is indicated by what measure?

a. fecal coliform b. eutrophication index c. biochemical oxygen demand d. nitrogen and phosphorus

3. What measures have largely eliminated waterborne diseases in the U.S.?

a. stringent pig farm regulations b. separation of sewage and drinking water

c. the Clean Water Act d. water renovation and conservation

4. What is the principal cause of cultural eutrophication?

a. heavy metals in treated municipal water b. elevated biochemical oxygen demand

c. elevated levels of fecal coliform bacteria d. elevated levels of phosphorus and nitrogen

5. If MTBE (methyl tertbutyl ether) has such an impact on groundwater, why is it added to gasoline?

a. it helps decrease auto air pollutant emissions

b. it helps to dissolve other gasoline components if they enter the groundwater system

c. it burns much cleaner than other gasoline additives

d. it helps lubricate car engines

6. The biomagnification of mercury occurs as mercury moves through

a. the body of a fish b. the aquatic food chain c. tissues of aquatic algae d. insect swarms

7. If sediment is from natural sources, why is it considered a water pollutant?

a. it is an out-of-place resource

b. it is toxic at its source, so it is also toxic in the water

c. it is usually laden with mercury

d. it is only a pollutant if it contains agricultural chemicals

8. Which of the following would be considered a point source of pollution?

a. industrial wastewater discharge b. agricultural runoff c. street runoff d. yard fertilizer in runoff

9. Acid mine drainage is a problem because

a. it dissolves limestone b. it represents a waste of ore that could be mined

c. it adds sulfur to coal, making it less desirable as a fuel source

d. the acid water may mobilize hazardous heavy metals

10. What happened to the Cuyahoga River in Cleveland in 1969?

a. massive amounts of pig farm waste was discharged

b. acid mine drainage raised the water pollution to toxic levels

c. it caught fire d. it was declared to be in violation of the Clean Water Act

True/False

1. Large pig farms in North Carolina caused no pollution problems prior to the arrival of Hurricane Floyd.

2. All coliform bacteria are harmless.

3. Biochemical oxygen demand reflects the amount of organic matter in water bodies.

4. Waterborne disease has been completely eliminated from the U.S.

5. Nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus are removed from municipal wastewater by secondary treat-ment.

6. Eutrophication can occur in the absence of human influences.

7. Heavy metals remain suspended in the water column indefinitely.

8. Thermal pollution is harmful to some organisms, but actually helps others survive.

9. Because they are of smaller scale, non-point source pollution sources are more easily regulated and con-trolled than are point sources.

10. In the mid-1990s, Congress passed revisions to the Clean Water Act with broad public support.

Fill-in-the-Blank (These will change into T/F or multiple choice)

1. The source of ___________ ___________ bacteria is typically animal fecal waste.

Answer: Escherichia coli

2. Nitrogen and ____________ are usually responsible for cultural eutrophication.

Answer: phosphorus

3. The oil tanker ________ __________ caused massive water pollution near Valdez, Alaska in 1989.

Answer: Exxon Valdez

4. Biomagnification is an especially important process in the concentration of ______ to toxic levels.

Answer: mercury

5. ____________ sources of pollution are diffuse and intermittent.

Answer: Nonpoint

6. Acid mine drainage results from the oxidation and dissolution of coal and __________ ores.

Answer: sulfide

7. A cone of ___________ is formed in saltwater as it intrudes fresh groundwater near a pumping well.

Answer: ascension

8. A septic tank performs the equivalent of ______________ treatment in the municipal wastewater treatment system scheme.

Answer: primary

9. Wetlands are especially efficient at reducing _____________ levels in wastewater.

Answer: nutrient

10. After ____________ treatment of wastewater, 95% of pollutants have been removed.

Answer: advanced

Multiple Choice1. Between the mid-1970s and the mid-1990s, energy consumption in the U.S.

a. increased at a higher rate than previously b. increased, but at a slower rate

c. decreased d. remained the same

2. The ultimate source of the energy in fossil fuels is

a. the sun b. the Earth’s internal heat

c. the energy of the plants and animals from which the fuel is formed d. biomass

3. Coal rank is based upon

a. the carbon percentage and heat value b. the geographic location where it is mined

c. the sulfur content d. the depth at which it is mined

4. Why is coal usage likely to increase in the future?

a. coal is a relatively clean energy resource in terms of air pollution

b. mining and processing of coal create minimal environmental impact

c. coal is an abundant resource in relation to oil and gas

d. coal is generally considered a renewable resource

5. Which of the following geologic features is not required for an oil or gas deposit to form?

a. source rock b. cap rock c. reservoir rock d. volcanic rock

6. Which of the following geologic situations is most likely to contain significant oil concentrations?

a. 1.1 billion year old rocks that accumulated in the vicinity of a divergent plate boundary

Energy Resources

b. 200 million year old rocks that have been exposed by uplift in a subduction zone

c. 300 million year old rocks that accumulated in a subsiding sedimentary basin

d. 150 million year old rocks that are flat lying and unfaulted

7. Methane hydrates may be a viable future energy source because

a. they are abundant and clean burning b. they are easily obtained from their deposits

c. they are not fossil fuels and therefore will not contribute to the greenhouse effect

d. they are renewable resources

8. What is the most important aspect of future oil supplies?

a. when the supplies will be exhausted b. how much remains

c. when oil production will peak d. how clean newly found oil reserves will be

9. Why does acid rain result from fossil fuel consumption?

a. fossil fuels heat the atmosphere, making rain more acidic

b. fossil fuel burning releases nitrogen and sulfur oxides

c. particulates emitted from fossil fuel burning settle in lakes and acidifies them

d. fossil fuel burning releases stored organic carbon

10. Nuclear fission is the process of

a. bringing light atoms together to make heavier atoms b. splitting of heavy atoms to make light atoms

c. using solar energy to excite atomic nuclei d. producing nuclear fuel

True/False

1. Fossil fuels are generated by processes deep in the Earth’s interior.

2. Most coal has the same sulfur content, but varies widely in heat content.

3. Natural gas and methane hydrate energy sources have the same chemical composition.

4. Most of the largest oil and gas fields are located in continental interiors, far from plate boundaries

5. Given current trends, oil supplies are likely to be largely consumed by the end of the 21st century.

6. The best solution to concerns over acid rain is to buffer lakes with calcium carbonate.

7. Nuclear power from splitting of U-235 is a renewable energy resource.

8. The accident at the Chernobyl nuclear power plant caused similar levels of environmental degradation as did the Three Mile Island accident.

9. Radioactive minerals release energy only through the fission process.

10. Wind power generation has grown rapidly in the past decade.

Fill-in-the-Blank (These will change into T/F or multiple choice)

1. ______________ coal has the highest heat content.

Answer: Bituminous

2. The rock unit that provides a barrier to upward migration of oil is called the ___________ _____________.

Answer: cap rock.

3. ______________ ______________ is the only site being considered in the U.S. for high-level nuclear waste storage.

Answer: Yucca Mountain

4. Nuclear _____________ involves the joining of lighter elements to produce heavier ones.

Answer: fusion

5. ______________ _____________ systems are characterized by hot water circulation.

Answer: Hydrothermal convection

6. ____________ solar energy systems simply enhance absorption of solar energy without requiring mechani-cal power.

Answer: Passive

7. Fuel cells rely on the element ___________ for their energy source.

Answer: hydrogen

8. Electricity generation through urban waste incineration is an example of _____________ power genera-tion.

Answer: biomass

9. _______________ is the process of capturing wasted heat from power-generating and industrial installa-tions.

Answer: Cogeneration

10. The ________ path of energy policy relies more on decentralized power generation.

Answer: soft