these flashcards are your secret weapon!
TRANSCRIPT
These Flashcards are Your Secret Weapon!
My name is Scott Payne and I am the creator world’s ONLY case story focused PMP training method and the owner of PM Master Prep (www.pmmasterprep.com).
I created these flashcards to make you battle ready for the exam.
You will learn the MOST important points you need to master.
I N I T I TaT I N g
The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) guide is best described as:
a) a methodology for managing projectsB) a guide to project management processes,
tools, and techniquesC) a guide for project, portfolio, and program
managementD) a standard for project, portfolio, and
program management
Initiating
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Stakeholder Management • Identify Stakeholders
as a project progresses, which two plans act as inputs to the Identify
Stakeholders process (13.1)?
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Stakeholder Management • Identify Stakeholders
If a project requires procurements, which of the following would act as an input to the Identify Stakeholders process (13.1)?
a) agreementsB) Project charterC) Project documentsD) OPas
I N I T I TaT I N g
A) AgreementsDuring procurement, agreements could become a course of new or
changing stakeholders.
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Integration Management • Develop Project Charter
The project manager should be identified and assigned
, preferably during charter development.
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Integration Management • Develop Project Charter
The helps create the charter by determining if the expected outcomes justify the
required investment.
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Integration Management • Develop Project Charter
development is a collaboration effort led by the project
manager or sponsor to deepen the understanding of the project’s
purpose, objective, and benefit.
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Integration Management • Develop Project Charter
Initially, the and are sources of
stakeholder identification. Later, agreements or issues may prompt
stakeholder updates.
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Stakeholder Management • Identify Stakeholders
Identifying, categorizing, and prioritizing will help the project team define appropriate
engagement levels.
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Stakeholder Management • Identify Stakeholders
Which output produced by the Develop Project Charter (4.1)
process is used by the Identify Stakeholders (13.1) process to create
the initial stakeholder list?
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Integration Management • Develop Project Charter
Which process is completed at the very beginning of a project? Why?
I N I T I TaT I N g
Develop Project Charter (4.1)
The Develop Project Charter process is where the idea of a project becomes a reality. Without the project charter,
there is not a project.
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Integration Management • Develop Project Charter
Which of the following is not an Organizational Process asset (OPa) for the Develop Project Charter (4.1) process?
a) Organizational policies, processes, and procedures
B) Internal reporting methodsC) Market demandD) Internal tools, templates, and
other resources
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Integration Management • Develop Project Charter
Which of the following is not an enterprise environmental factor (EEF) for the Develop Project Charter (4.1) process?
a) Organizational policies, processes, and procedures
B) Compliance requirementC) Market demandD) Ecological requirement
I N I T I TaT I N g
A) Organizational policies, processes, and procedures
Organizational policies, processes, and procedures are examples of
organizational process assets (OPas)
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Integration Management • Develop Project Charter
Which output produced by the Identify Stakeholders (13.1) process acts as an input to the Develop Project Charter (4.1) process?
a) Change requestsB) Project document updatesC) Stakeholder registerD) None
I N I T I TaT I N g
D) NoneThe project charter does not change after it is created. It’s one of the only
processes that is not iterative.
I N I T I TaT I N g
An EEF can be any factor that could or does impact a project and
is outside of the organization’s control. An OPA is any policy, procedure, process, template,
method, etc. that is owned by the organization.
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Integration Management • Develop Project Charter
Which data gathering technique leveraged commonly in the Develop
Project Charter process involves interviewing groups of individuals
to learn their expectations and opinions about a proposed product, service, or result?
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Integration Management • Develop Project Charter
Charter development by the project manager or
sponsor creates a deeper understanding of the project’s
, , and .
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Integration Management • Develop Project Charter
Is the project charter template considered an OPa or EEF? Why?
I N I T I TaT I N g
The project charter template is considered an OPA as it is a template document used
on the project that is owned by the organization.
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Integration Management • Develop Project Charter
are environmental regulations considered to be an OPa
or EEF? Why?
I N I T I TaT I N g
Environmental regulations are EEFs. These regulations
potentially impact the project and are outside of the
project team’s control.
I N I T I TaT I N g
Initiating • Stakeholder Management • Identify Stakeholders
Why are the detailed identification and analysis of stakeholders
important to the success of the project?
I N I T I TaT I N g
Detailed stakeholder identification and analysis helps the project team design customized methods to most
appropriately engage each stakeholder. These customized methods and
approaches increase the effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities
and communications.
P L a N N I N g
The project management plan uses the process to
react to the realities of a constantly changing project environment.
Planning • Scope Management • Plan Scope Management
P L a N N I N g
True or False:
When the Develop Project Management Plan (4.2) process
initially begins, it is a fully fledged and comprehensive plan.
Planning • Integration Management • Develop Project Management Plan
P L a N N I N g
Falseat this point in the project, the
project management plan is merely a “shell”, and likely only contains or references the project charter,
business documents, and the stakeholder register.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Plan Scope Management
Which input feeds into the Develop Project Management
Plan (4.2) process to be the foundational input to opening the
project management plan?
P L a N N I N g
True or False:
The development of other plans often produces additional
information and realizations that make it necessary to
refine the scope and resource management plans.
Planning • Integration Management • Develop Project Management Plan
P L a N N I N g
TrueThe planning process is iterative. as each plan is created, it is very
common to adjust the scope.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Collect Requirements
documentation details how each requirement
supports the project’s business needs.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Collect Requirements
The is used to track the status of requirements
throughout the project.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Define Scope
What is the difference between project scope and product scope?
P L a N N I N g
Project scope describes the work performed to deliver a product,
service, or result.
Product scope describes the features and functions of the
actual product, service, or result.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Plan Scope Management
What is the main goal of the scope processes in the Planning Process group?
P L a N N I N g
True or False:
The lowest level of work in the WBS is referred to as the work package.
Planning • Scope Management • Create WBS
P L a N N I N g
TrueThe work package is the lowest level of the WBS and represents the smallest amount of work for which cost and duration can be
estimated and managed.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Create WBS
The WBS should follow the rule: the total
of all work at the lowest level (work packages) should “roll up” so that nothing is left out and no
extra work is performed.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Schedule Management • Plan Schedule Management
The and are two major
scheduling approaches.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Schedule Management • Define Activities
Why is the Create WBS (5.4) process completed before the
Define activities (6.2) process?
P L a N N I N g
The Create WBS process identifies the work packages needed to satisfy the project deliverables. The Define Activities process is the first step in transforming the work packages into
the detailed schedule of activities that the team will complete.
P L a N N I N g
True or False:
activity attributes evolve and deepen in description as the
project progresses.
Planning • Schedule Management • Define Activities
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Schedule Management • Define Activities
have zero duration. They define a point
in time, not an activity.
P L a N N I N g
Rolling wave planning is an iterative technique to define
activities where the near-term work is planned in detail and later
work is planned at a high level.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Schedule Management • Sequence Activities
Which of the following relationship types is the most common of the precedence diagramming method?
a) Finish to start (FS)B) Finish to finish (FF)C) Start to start (SS)D) Start to finish (SF)
P L a N N I N g
A) Finish to start (FS).The successor cannot start until the
predecessor has finished.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Schedule Management • Sequence Activities
Which of the following relationship types is the least common of the precedence diagramming method?
a) Finish to start (FS)B) Finish to finish (FF)C) Start to start (SS)D) Start to finish (SF)
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Schedule Management • Sequence Activities
What is the difference between mandatory and discretionary
dependencies?
P L a N N I N g
Mandatory dependencies are required by the nature of the work or are legally
or contractually required.
Discretionary dependencies are not mandatory, but are preferred, usually
based on best practices.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Schedule Management • Estimate Activity Durations
What two outputs produced by the Estimate activity Durations
(6.4) process are leveraged by the Develop Schedule (6.5) process to
produce the project schedule?
P L a N N I N g
True or False:
Duration estimates do not contain any lags.
Planning • Schedule Management • Estimate Activity Durations
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Integration Management • Develop Project Management Plan
Which of the following is not a core objective of the Planning Process group?
a) Define the project scope and objectivesB) Define the plans that will govern the projectC) Identify, evaluate, and implement changesD) Develop a course of action
P L a N N I N g
C) The identification, evaluation, and implementation of changes within the project is one of the two core objectives of the Monitoring and
Controlling Process Group. The second core objective of the Monitoring and
Controlling Process Group is to track, regulate, and review process completion.
P L a N N I N g
The process builds on the progress started with the charter by defining in greater detail how the project
will be executed, monitored and controlled, and closed.
Planning • Integration Management • Develop Project Management Plan
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Integration Management • Develop Project Management Plan
The project management plan consolidates all subsidiary plans and project baselines. Which of the following is not one of the three project baselines?
a) Scope baselineB) Schedule baselineC) Benefits baselineD) Cost baseline
P L a N N I N g
C) Benefits baselineThe benefits baseline is not one of the project’s three core baselines.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Plan Scope Management
What is name of the plan that documents how the project and product scope will be defined,
validated, and controlled?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Plan Scope Management
The process describes how the product
and project requirements will be analyzed, documented,
and managed.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Collect Requirements
What are the two key outputs of the Collect Requirements process?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Collect Requirements
The requirement documentation details how each requirement
the project’s business need.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Collect Requirements
The requirements traceability matrix links each requirement to
the individual that satisfy the requirement.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Collect Requirements
Which data gathering technique used to collect requirements
involves observing and comparing similar, products, practices, processes, or companies?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Collect Requirements
Which data representation technique involves classifying
large numbers of ideas into distinct groups for review and analysis?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Define Scope
The process builds on the Collect Requirements
process, selecting and defining the final requirements list in
detail and crafting a descriptive scope statement.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Create WBS
The process translates the project scope
statement (created in the 5.3 Define Scope process) into an actionable list of work that must be delivered.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Create WBS
What is the key output created by the Create WBS process?
P L a N N I N g
Scope baselineThe scope baseline consists of the scope statement, WBS, and
WBS dictionary.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Create WBS
The establishes the standard by which work completion is compared throughout the project.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Scope Management • Create WBS
What information does the WBS dictionary provide?
P L a N N I N g
The WBS dictionary provides detailed information on the
delivery, activity, and schedule of every component in the WBS.
P L a N N I N g
The 100% rule is used to confirm that the total of all work at the lowest level (work packages)
“rolls up” to the higher level in a way that no work is omitted and
no extra work is performed.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Schedule Management • Define Activities
What is the purpose of the Define activities process?
P L a N N I N g
The Define Activities (6.2) process describes the actions that deliver
the deliverables defined by the Create WBS (5.4) process.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Schedule Management • Define Activities
The displays all of the specific actions required to produce the work packages
defined in the WBS.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Schedule Management • Sequence Activities
Would the software required to build a network diagram be classified
as an EEF or OPa?
P L a N N I N g
EEFThe software design is outside of the control of the company and
therefore an EEF.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Schedule Management • Sequence Activities
What is the most common relationship type in precedence
diagramming?
P L a N N I N g
Finish to startWhen two activities have a
finish-to-start relationship, the successor cannot start until the
predecessor has finished.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Schedule Management • Develop Schedule
The process analyzes all schedule data, created by processes 6.2 to 6.4, to define a
comprehensive final schedule model and schedule baseline.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Schedule Management • Develop Schedule
What key output created by the Develop Schedule process fully presents the planned start and finish dates for all activities in
a clear visual format?
P L a N N I N g
Free float is the measure of the amount of time an activity can be
delayed without delaying the early start of a successor activity.
P L a N N I N g
What is the difference between free float and total float?
Planning • Schedule Management • Develop Schedule
P L a N N I N g
Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without
delaying the early start of a successor activity.
Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without
delaying the project finish date.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Schedule Management • Develop Schedule
Which question explores the opportunity for fast tracking activities?
“Could these activities be done in parallel?” or “How much faster could this
be done if we added resources?”
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Cost Management • Estimate Costs
The Estimate Costs (7.2), Estimate activity Durations (6.4), and
Estimate activity Resources (9.2) processes all have similar output
structures. What are the three key outputs produced by each
of these processes?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Cost Management • Estimate Costs
The process develops an approximation of the project’s total monetary
resource need that is used in the Determine Budget process to
create the cost baseline.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Cost Management • Estimate Costs
What are the triangular and beta distribution three-point
estimating equations?
P L a N N I N g
Triangular distribution:cE = (cO + cM + cP) / 3
Beta distribution:cE = (cO + 4*cM + cP) / 6
- Most likely (cM)- Best case (cO)
- Pessimistic (cP)
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Cost Management • Determine Budget
The produced by the Estimate Costs (7.2) process are used to create the cost baseline in
the Determine Budget process.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Quality Management • Plan Quality Management
Quality planning should be performed in with
other planning processes.
P L a N N I N g
ParallelThe realities of meeting quality standards may impact cost and
schedule plans.
P L a N N I N g
True or False:
Quality metrics defined in the Plan Quality Management process are
used in later processes to determine the overall quality status and
communicate status to stakeholders.
Planning • Quality Management • Plan Quality Management
P L a N N I N g
TrueQuality metrics describe a
product attribute and how the Control Quality process will
verify compliance to it.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Resource Management • Plan Resource Management
What is the purpose of the resource management processes?
P L a N N I N g
The resource management processes ensure that sufficient
resources are available at the right place and right time to complete the project work.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Resource Management • Plan Resource Management
Which chart type is commonly used in the Plan Resource Management
process to clarify and define the roles and responsibilities
of each team member?
P L a N N I N g
RACI chartThe responsibility assignment
chart (RaCI) clarifies the roles of each team member (Responsible,
accountable, Consult, Inform).
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Resource Management • Est. Activity Resources
Working directly with the Estimate Costs process, the
process approximates the total physical and human resources
needs of the project.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Resource Management • Est. Activity Resources
What is the primary output of the Estimate activity Resources process
that defines what is needed to complete every work package and
activity defined on the WBS?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Resource Management • Est. Activity Resources
In which resource estimating technique are similar activities from previous projects used to
estimate resource needs?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Resource Management • Est. Activity Resources
When lower-level components are “rolled up” to create an estimate of the higher-level activities, what estimating
activity is being leveraged?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Communications Mgmt. • Plan Communications Mgmt.
Which two documents must be updated to reflect the planned
communications activities?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Communications Mgmt. • Plan Communications Mgmt.
How are the stakeholder register and requirements documentation
leveraged in the creation of the communications management plan?
P L a N N I N g
Stakeholder communication needs were determined
during the development of the stakeholder register and
requirements documentation. The communications management
plan creates strategies to address each need.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Communications Mgmt. • Plan Communications Mgmt.
By posting project updates at regularly scheduled intervals on a corporate intranet page that is
accessible to all stakeholders, a project team is using which method of communications?
P L a N N I N g
PullPull communications allow content access at the user’s own discretion. This is ideal when communicating
with large audiences or transmitting complicated information.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Communications Mgmt. • Plan Communications Mgmt.
One-on-one meetings are an example of which type of
communication method?
P L a N N I N g
InteractiveInteractive communication involves
multi-directional communication between two or more parties.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Risk Management • Plan Risk Management
Which type of risk describes an uncertain event or condition?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Risk Management • Plan Risk Management
Which type of risk describes the total resulting effect of
all risks on a project?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Risk Management • Plan Risk Management
The Plan Risk Management process is focused on developing processes
for identifying and analyzing risks and what other key risk activities?
P L a N N I N g
Developing and implementing risk responses
In conducting the Plan Risk Responses process, the project team is focused on defining how risks will be both identified and managed to
increase the chance of project success. It is key that the team develop processes for developing
and implementing risk responses to mitigate/avoid negative risks and exploit/enhance
positive opportunities.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Risk Management • Identify Risks
Which document often used in the Identify Risks process
leverages a predetermined list of risk categories that serve as a framework and starting point for identifying, describing, and
planning for project risks?
P L a N N I N g
Which process determines the aggregate effect of a project’s
individual risks using the prioritized list of risks created as an output of the Perform Qualitative Risk
analysis process?
Planning • Risk Management • Perform Qual. Risk Analysis
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Risk Management • Perform Qual. Risk Analysis
What type of matrix is used to rank each individual risk by two factors
(probability, impact)?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Risk Management • Plan Risk Responses
What is the term for the strategies developed to address risks with highest impact overall
and individual risks?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Risk Management • Plan Risk Responses
are fallback plans developed for use if and
when the selected risk response strategies don’t work.
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Risk Management • Plan Risk Responses
What are the two data analysis methods used to evaluate and
select the preferred risk response strategies the during Plan Risk
Responses process?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Risk Management • Plan Risk Responses
Which strategy for addressing risk threats involves shifting
ownership of the threat to a third party so that it bears the impact
if the threat occurs?
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Stakeholder Management • Plan Stakeholder Engagement
Which plan documents the specific actions and strategies
used to deliver the desired level of stakeholder engagement and
what process creates it?
P L a N N I N g
Stakeholder management plan, which is created as an
output of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process
P L a N N I N g
Planning • Stakeholder Management • Plan Stakeholder Engagement
Which document created by the Identify Stakeholder process is a key input to the Plan Stakeholder
Management process, helping to provide detailed stakeholder
information?
E x E C u T I N g
The Manage project knowledge processes focus on using existing knowledge and
to improve project outcomes.
Executing • Integration Mgmt • Manage Project Knowledge
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Integration Mgmt • Manage Project Knowledge
Which type of knowledge is easily codified using words, images,
and numbers?
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Integration Mgmt • Manage Project Knowledge
How does tacit knowledge differ from explicit knowledge?
E x E C u T I N g
Tacit knowledge is personal and difficult to express (beliefs,
insights, experience, “know-how”). In comparison, explicit
knowledge is easily codified into words, images, and numbers.
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Integration Mgmt • Manage Project Knowledge
upon project closure, what must the project team do with the lessons
learned register?
E x E C u T I N g
At project closure, the lessons learned register is finalized
(through interviews with the team and stakeholders) and then
transferred to the lessons learned repository so that future projects
can leverage the knowledge.
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Quality Management • Manage Quality
What does quality assurance measure?
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Quality Management • Manage Quality
, produced as an output of the Manage Quality process, are used to evaluate the
achievement of quality objectives.
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Resource Management • Acquire Resources
What resource staffing technique provides flexibility in building a
project team as it allows the use of team members spread in different
geographic locations?
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team
The process is focused on transforming the team
resources acquired into a high-performing collaborative team.
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team
Which tool and technique is often used during the Develop Team process to strategically open
communication and build teamwork?
E x E C u T I N g
Colocation of team members
Colocation is the act of assigning team members to work in the
same location.
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team
In which stage of the Tuckman ladder does the team begin to work together and to trust each other?
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team
When the team members meet, learn about their roles, and act
independently at what stage of the Tuckman ladder are they?
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team
In what stage does a team start working well together as a unit and navigating issues smoothly
and effectively?
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Resource Management • Manage Team
During what process does the project manager actively lead
the team, helping them evaluate performance, navigate conflicts,
and make adjustments to deliver outputs?
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Communications Mgmt. • Manage Communications
Define the objective of the Manage Communication process.
E x E C u T I N g
To effectively collect, store, and communicate project information to specific stakeholders to satisfy
needs and foster appropriate engagement.
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Communications Mgmt. • Manage Communications
Which term is used to define the formatted information that is
transmitted to stakeholders by the Manage Communications process?
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Communications Mgmt. • Manage Communications
What is the difference between project reports and work
performance reports?
E x E C u T I N g
Project reports are ad hoc reports created in 10.2 Manage
Communications. Work performance reports are the
official project status reports produced as an output of 4.5
Monitor and Control Project Work.
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Risk Management • Implement Risk Responses
Which input document supplies the specific details of when each risk
response plan is to be used and how it is to be implemented?
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Risk Management • Implement Risk Responses
Name the interpersonal and team skills that are used as a tool and
technique to ensure that risk responses are fully implemented
during the Implement Risk Responses process.
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Procurement Management • Conduct Procurements
What factors does the team use to evaluate and select the seller that best meets the need of the project and within which process are those
factors created?
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Procurement Management • Conduct Procurements
The provides the seller with the information
required to develop and submit seller proposals.
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Procurement Management • Conduct Procurements
What tool and technique is often used to extend the seller pool
outside of the preferred sellers?
E x E C u T I N g
AdvertisingCommon forums for advertising
procurements are trade publications and company websites.
E x E C u T I N g
During which process are the activities defined in the Plan
Stakeholder Engagement process implemented to increase
stakeholder support and minimize resistance?
Executing • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Manage Stakeholder Engagement
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Manage Stakeholder Engagement
active engagement with stakeholders requires
and skills.
E x E C u T I N g
True or False:
a stakeholder’s ability to influence a project is greatest late in a project.
Executing • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Manage Stakeholder Engagement
E x E C u T I N g
FalseStakeholders have the greatest
ability to influence a project early in the project. as the project
progresses and work is completed, there is less that can be influenced.
E x E C u T I N g
Executing • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Manage Stakeholder Engagement
What three types of outputs are created as a result of the Manage
Stakeholder Engagement process?
E x E C u T I N g
Change requests, project management plan updates, project
document updates
Change requests and updates to project plans and documents are often generated as engagement
approaches are executed, evaluated, and improved.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Which of the following is not a type of action that would initiate a change request?
a) Corrective actionsB) Preventative actionsC) Defect repairsD) Progress updates
M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
D) Progress updatesThe three main drivers for change
requests to improve performance are corrective actions, preventative actions,
and defect repairs. Progress updates alone are not drivers for change requests, but they may convey information that drives
the need for a change request.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work
Work performance information provides insights into the
effectiveness in meeting project .
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
ObjectivesWork performance information indicates how the project is performing in scope,
schedule, budget, quality, etc. These results are compared against the project plan to determine the degree of variance
from the plan and if preventative/corrective actions are required.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work
Which three types of documents provide the baseline standards and
additional performance data needed to assess project progress?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Project plans, project documents, and agreementsThe project plans provide the expected plans and baselines by which progress
is evaluated. The documents can provide progress reports, forecasts, logs, and
standards. The agreements define what contractors must deliver.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work
What is the difference between root cause analysis and alternatives analysis?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Root cause analysis identifies the main reasons for an issue or
variance between planned and actual performance. Alternatives analysis is used to evaluate and select the best corrective or preventative action to
improve project performance.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control
Describe the method by which change requests are recorded
and submitted.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Change requests must be recorded in written form
and entered into the change management system in order to be eligible for evaluation.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control
Data analysis is used by the to evaluate the
impact of each change request.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Change control board (CCB)
all change requests submitted must be evaluated by a CCB. This board evaluates the total impact
of the proposed change and renders a decision.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control
Name the three options that the change control board has when
evaluating a change request.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Approve, defer, or reject
Every change request must be approved, deferred, or rejected by the change control board (CCB).
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control
What are the three most common decision-making techniques used by
a change control board to render a final decision on a change request?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Voting, autocratic decision making, and multicriteria
decision making
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control
Which portion of the project management plan must be updated if a change request is submitted, approved, and results in additional costs?
a) WBS dictionaryB) Cost baselineC) Schedule baselineD) Communication plan
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
B) Cost baselineThe approved change request
authorizes the increase of additional costs for the project. The cost baseline must be adjusted to
reflect the increase.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control
If a potential problem is identified in a project, but the team does
not believe it justifies the creation of a change request at the
present time, where should the information be recorded?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Issue logThe issue log is used to record and track issues of all magnitudes in the project.
While the issue identified may not currently require a change request, it is
prudent to record it on the issue log so that it may be tracked going forward.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Scope Management • Validate Scope
What is the difference between the Control Quality and Validate
Scope processes?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Control Quality confirms that quality standards are met.
Validate Scope confirms the customer accepts the deliverables.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Scope Management • Validate Scope
What must occur for a verified deliverable to become an
accepted deliverable?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
In order for a verified deliverable to become an accepted deliverable, the customer must confirm that
the acceptance criteria have been met. A formal signature confirming
acceptance must be obtained from the customer.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Scope Management • Validate Scope
Which two techniques are used to evaluate that verified deliverables
meet acceptance criteria?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Inspection and decision making
Inspection includes measuring, examining, and validating each
deliverable. Decision making, often including voting, is the method by
which a conclusion is reached.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Scope Management • Validate Scope
The accepted deliverables produced by the Validate Scope process are forwarded to which
process as an input?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Scope Management • Control Scope
Define the primary purpose of the Control Scope process.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
The Control Scope process is focused on monitoring the
status and managing changes to the scope baseline to
prevent scope creep.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Scope Management • Control Scope
Which key output of the Control Scope process summarizes the
actual scope performance against the scope baseline?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Scope Management • Control Scope
and project documents provide the facts
required to identify significant variances between the
scope performance and the performance baseline.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Work performance dataWork performance data provide
the raw materials that are analyzed within the Control Scope
process to produce the work performance information.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Schedule Management • Control Schedule
Schedule-related work performance information, such as SV and SPI, are fed back (as inputs)
into which process?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Monitor and Control Project Work
The Monitor and Control Project Work process tracks, summarizes,
and reports on the overall project performance.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Schedule Management • Control Schedule
The visually displays the amount
of work completed and uncompleted over time.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Schedule Management • Control Schedule
Define the primary purpose of the Control Schedule process.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
The Control Schedule process involves monitoring and
maintaining an accurate schedule baseline throughout the
completion of the project.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Which of the following is not a method to bring a project schedule back into alignment with the plan?
a) Resource compressionB) Resource optimizationC) Leads and lagsD) Schedule compression
M/C • Schedule Management • Control Schedule
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
A) Resource compressionResource compression is not
an actual technique. The three common methods are resource
optimization, lead and lag analysis, and schedule compression.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs
integrates scope, schedule, and cost to
answer the question, “Has the plan been effective in delivering
the desired results?”
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Earned value management (EVM)
EVM integrates the cost, schedule, and scope performance and
evaluates it against the baseline.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs
State the only difference between the CV and CPI equations.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
A division symbolThe equations for CV and CPI are
nearly identical in structure. The only difference is that there is a division
symbol in the CPI equation:
CV = EV - aCCPI = EV / aC
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs
Which type of analysis evaluates the amount of management and contingency reserves
still remaining?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Reserve analysisReserve analysis is used during the Control Costs process to track the
amount of reserves remaining.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Quality Management • Control Quality
The Control Quality process is generally performed before the
Validate Scope process, although the two processes could be performed
in .
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Quality Management • Control Quality
What is the primary output of the Control Quality process?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Verified deliverableVerified deliverables confirm that
the project deliverables do what they were intended to do.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Quality Management • Control Quality
Which quality tool is used to help identify the possible root cause
driving a defect?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Cause-and-effect diagramalso known as a fishbone or
Ishikawa diagram, the cause-and-effect diagram helps to identify the
root cause of a defect.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
True or False:
The Control Resources process is focused on coordinating both
physical and team resources.
M/C • Resource Management • Control Resources
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
False The Control Resources process is focused only on the coordination
of physical resources, not team resources.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Resource Management • Control Resources
The act of monitoring and analyzing the actual vs. planned resource
allocation, during the Control Resources process, produces
that can highlight gaps in resources availability.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Resource Management • Control Resources
Throughout a project, the team recognizes two examples of extremely effective resource utilization. Where should this
information be recorded?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Resource Management • Control Resources
Name two critical “soft skills” that are often used to obtain additional
resources and solve problems during the Control Resources process.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Resource Management • Control Resources
What type of data analysis is used during the Control Resources
process to better understand the economic impacts of a decision?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Comm. Management • Monitor Communications
During which process was the stakeholder engagement matrix,
which defines the current vs. desired engagement levels, created?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Comm. Management • Monitor Communications
Which project document should be updated to record engagement
and communications issues uncovered during the Monitor
Communications process?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Comm. Management • Monitor Communications
If a change request was submitted and approved to modify the approach, frequency, or method of communicating information, which document or plan would be least likely to be updated?
a) Communications management planB) Stakeholder engagement planC) Requirements traceability matrixD) Lessons learned register
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
C) Requirements traceability matrix
updates to the methods of communication would most likely be recorded in the communications management plan, stakeholder engagement plan, and
lessons learned register.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk
How does the Monitor Risk process differ from the Implement Risk
Responses process?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
The Monitor Risks process evaluates the effectiveness of risk responses initiated during the Implement Risk
Responses process.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk
The communicates whether or not the contingency
reserve remaining is sufficient to meet the risk remaining.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
The risk-related generated as the key output of the Monitor
Risks process is fed back (as an input) into the Monitor and Control Project Work process. This process tracks, summarizes,
and reports on overall project performance.
M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk
Name the technique commonly used to determine if the risk management processes are followed and effective.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk
Which two types of data analysis are used during the Monitor Risk process to compare the scheduled vs. actual technical accomplishments and to evaluate the impact of risk on contingency reserves?
A) Qualitative risk analysis and quantitative risk analysisB) Technical performance analysis and contingency
analysisC) Technical performance analysis and reserve analysis D) Risk categorization and quantitative risk analysis
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
C) Technical performance analysis and reserve analysis Technical performance analysis compares technical accomplishments during project
execution with what was scheduled. Reserve analysis is used to determine if
the remaining reserve is adequate.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk
What type of reserve has been established to account for
knowable-unknowns?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
True or False:
Changes to procurements require adherence to the company’s internal
change request process.
M/C • Procurement Management • Control Procurements
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
False Changes to procurements must
adhere to the change control terms defined in the contract.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Procurement Management • Control Procurements
The Controlling Procurements process generates
and that must be documented in project
documents/plans.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Procurement Management • Control Procurements
Describe the process required to close a procurement.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
To close the procurement, formal written notice that the contract has been completed must be obtained. The process is formally defined in the contract terms and is usually
completed by the authorized procurement administrator.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Procurement Management • Control Procurements
What two methods are used to monitor that the deliverables
produced meet the requirements defined in the contract?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Inspections and auditsIn the most simple terms, you inspect things and you audit
processes.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
The team can improve the effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities by completing all of the following, except:
A) Collecting work performance data generated by the Direct and Manage Project Work process
B) Evaluating if the desired engagement levels are obtained (actual vs. desired)
C) Removing stakeholders who resist project progressD) Generating changes to improve the effectiveness of
engagement activities
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
C) Removing stakeholders who resist project progress
Stakeholders are only removed from the stakeholder register if they are no longer
impacted by the project. It is not acceptable to remove stakeholders who resist the project. The primary goal of the Monitor Stakeholder
Engagement process is to adjust the strategies used in order to improve the engagement of
stakeholders, especially those resistant.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
On which data representation document would it be easy to see which stakeholder currently has
a gap between the actual and desired engagement level?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Stakeholder engagement matrix
The stakeholder engagement matrix, created in the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process,
maps the actual vs. desired engagement level for each stakeholder. This document must be updated throughout the project
to reflect changes.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
Which two interpersonal and team skills must be leveraged
when cultivating strong stakeholder engagement on
international projects?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Cultural awareness and political awareness
When developing strong stakeholder engagement it is extremely important
to be aware of the cultural and political environments of the different
stakeholders on your project.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
The completion of stakeholder analysis has determined that the
planned engagement activities have failed to deliver the desired level of engagement for a key stakeholder.
What should the team do next?
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Complete root cause and then alternatives analysis
Root cause analysis helps define the reasons for a lack of engagement and alternatives analysis develops options to eliminate the variances.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
M/C • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
provide insights necessary to understand each
stakeholder’s level of engagement.
M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g
Work performance dataWork performance data define the
project status of the type of engagement delivered, which stakeholders are
supportive, and the levels of support. Work performance data and project documents are key inputs to the Monitor Stakeholder
Engagement process.
C L O S I N g
Describe why the Close Project or Phase process is an ideal integration
management process.
Closing • Integration Mgmt. • Close Project or Phase
C L O S I N g
The Close Project process is ideally an integration management process in that it consolidates the
planned work and all documents and translates them into a final form that satisfies the customer and records
information for further learning.
C L O S I N g
Closing • Integration Mgmt. • Close Project or Phase
Which term is used to describe project deliverables after they have
been inspected and approved by the customer as having met the
acceptance criteria?
C L O S I N g
Closing • Integration Mgmt. • Close Project or Phase
The Close Project process is where the final product is actually handed
over to the customer. In which process did the customer approve
the project deliverable?
C L O S I N g
Validate ScopeThe customer formally approves the project deliverables in the Validate
Scope process.
C L O S I N g
Closing • Integration Mgmt. • Close Project or Phase
During the Close Project process, your team is investigating the project’s current
risk status and attempting to identify if there are any open risks remaining.
Which project document should the team leverage to investigate these questions?
C L O S I N g
Risk report The risk report provides information
on the risk status and is used to check that there aren’t any open
risks at the end of a project.
C L O S I N g
Closing • Integration Mgmt. • Close Project or Phase
The Close Project process uses which of the following tools and techniques to evaluate that the closure activities are completed to the appropriate levels?
a) Project management information systemB) Expert judgementC) Product analysisD) Inspection
C L O S I N g
B) Expert judgementExpert judgement is applied when performing administrative closure
activities. These experts ensure that the project or phase is performed to
the appropriate standards.
C L O S I N g
Closing • Integration Mgmt. • Close Project or Phase
Which two logs should be analyzed prior to closing the project?
C L O S I N g
Issue log and change logThe issue log should be evaluated to
determine if any issues remain that may impact the success of final product
transferred. In analyzing the change log, the team must confirm that all outstanding
change requests are fully implemented before closing the project.
C L O S I N g
Closing • Integration Mgmt. • Close Project or Phase
Which of the following is not an objective of the Close Project or Phase process?
a) Transfer the finished deliverable to the customerB) Obtain customer approval of the project
deliverablesC) Obtain verification from the customer that
they accept the project deliverablesD) update and archive all project documents
and OPas
C L O S I N g
B) Obtain customer approval of the project deliverables
Customer approval is obtained during the Validate Scope process.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
What are the characteristics of a definable work project?
Agile Practice Guide Section 2.1
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Definable work projects have clear procedures that have
proved successful on similar projects in the past.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
True or False:
High-uncertainty projects have low rates of change, complexity, and risk.
Agile Practice Guide Section 2.1
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
FalseHigh-uncertainty projects have high rates of change, uncertainty, and risk.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 2.1
Why would exploratory work require the participation of subject
matter experts?
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Work that is exploratory includes new design, problem solving,
and work that has not been done before. Therefore, it requires a subject matter experts to
collaborate and solve problems to create a solution.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
True or False:
as project uncertainty increases so does the risk of rework.
Agile Practice Guide Section 2.4
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Trueas a project uncertainty increases,
the risk of rework would also change, as well as the possible need to use a
different approach.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 2.4
What is the benefit of a team working in small increments?
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
They are better able to unearth the true customer requirments faster
and more accurately.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 2.4
Why do iterative and incremental approaches reduce waste
and rework?
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
The team gains interactive discovery of requirements or incremental deliverables for
feedback. This higher frequency of feedback creates less wasted
work or rework scenarios.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 2.4
What are the five characteristics of iterative and incremental
approaches?
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
• Very short feedback loops• Frequent adaption of process• Reprioritization• Regularly updated plans• Frequent delivery
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 2.4
When both technology uncertainty and requirements uncertainty are very high, the project moves beyond complex to
.
a) CompleteB) ConfusedC) ChaoticD) Challenging
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1
What are the four types of project life cycles?
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1
List the characteristics of the requirements, activities, delivery, and
goal for the predictive life cycle.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
• Fixed requirements• Activities are performed once
for entire project• Single delivery• The main goal is to manage cost
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1
List the characteristics of the requirements, activities, delivery, and
goal for the iterative life cycle.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
• Dynamic requirements• Activities are repeated until
correct• Single delivery• The main goal is correctness
of solution
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1
List the characteristics of the requirements, activities, delivery, and
goal for the incremental life cycle.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
• Dynamic requirements• Activities are performed once
for a given increment• Frequent smaller deliveries• The main goal is speed
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1
List the characteristics of the requirements, activities, delivery, and
goal for the agile life cycle.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
• Dynamic requirements• Activities are repeated until
correct• Frequent small deliveries• The main goal is customer value
via frequent delivery feedbacks
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1
Describe the planning process in a predictive life cycle.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1
Describe the planning process in an iterative life cycle.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Prototypes and proofs are planned but the outputs are intended to be modified from the plans created in
the beginning.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1
Describe the planning process in an incremental life cycle.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Teams may plan several successive deliveries in
advance or only one at a time. The deliveries inform the
future project work.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1.2
When do projects benefit from iterative life cycles?
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Iterative life cycle would benefit a project when complexity is high, when the project incurs frequent
changes, or when the scope is subject to different stakeholders’ views of the desired final product.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
True or False:
Iterative life cycles take less time because they are optimized
for speed of delivery rather than learning.
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1.2
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
FalseIterative life cycles may take
longer because they are optimized for learning rather
than speed of delivery.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1.3
The frequent delivery of small deliverables is called the
.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1.3
In an incremental life cycle are completeness and delivery
absolute?
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
NoCompleteness and delivery are subjective. The team may need
feedback on a prototype and may then choose to deliver a
minimum viable product.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1.4
In an agile environment, the team expects requirements to
.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1.5
What three categories are organizational and product attributes assessed under?
a) Culture, Team, ProductB) Team, Project, EnvironmentC) Culture, Team, ProjectD) Culture, Team, Environment
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1.5
What is the value of agile suitability filters?
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile suitability filters help to assess the likely fit or gaps for using agile approaches
in a project.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
assessment models for use in an agile suitability filter should be
completed as a .
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1.5
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
GroupThe value of these assessment models is that conversation is
encouraged with the stakeholders of the project.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1.6
a combination of predictive, iterative, incremental, and/or agile approaches
is a approach.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1.8
Describe the nature of a project that is predominately predictive but
incorporates agile components.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
There is a portion of the project that comes with uncertainty,
complexity, or opportunitu for the scope creep. However, the rest of the project can be managed using
a predictive approach.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section
Why would an entirely agile project choose to inject a
predictive element?
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
A particular element of the project is non-negotiable and cannot be
executed using an agile approach.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1.10
Project teams may design a hybrid life cycle based on project
.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1.11
Why would you not want to make a successful team who is used to a
predictive environment switch to an agile environment overnight?
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile techniques look and feel very different. Allowing a gradual
transition improves learning and alignment among teams
and stakeholders.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.2
agile frameworks are not customized for the team. The team may need to
practices to deliver value on a regular basis.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 3.3
Which of the following is a factor that would require project tailoring?
a) The flow of work is often interrupted by delays.
B) The quality of the product increments is poor.
C) More than one team is needed to build a product.
D) all of the above
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.1
You are a project manager that wants your team to adopt an agile
mindset. What are the five questions that can help to implement this?
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
1) How can the project team act in an agile manner?
2) What can the team deliver quickly and obtain early feedback to benefit the next delivery cycle?
3) How can the team act in a transparent manner?4) What work can be avoided in order to focus on
high priority items?5) How can servant-leadership approach benefit
the achievement of the team’s goals?
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3.7
Why would a siloed organization cause roadblocks when forming a
cross-functional agile team?
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
The team members needed typically report to different managers and have different metrics by which managers
rate their performance. Managers need to focus on FLOW efficiency and TEAM based metrics rather
than resource efficiency.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Application of Agile in PMBOK Guide Knowledge Areas (According to to the Agile Practice Guide)
Explain the application of agile work process in PMBOK guide
Knowledge area Section 9 Project Resource Management.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
The team structure is self organizing, collaborative, with generalizing
specialists. In an uncertain environment, agreements for fast supply (or use of
lean methods) play an important role in controlling cost and schedule.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Application of Agile in PMBOK Guide Knowledge Areas (According to to the Agile Practice Guide)
Explain the application of agile work process in PMBOK guide
Knowledge area Section 10 Project Communications Management.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
In an agile environment, new project details need to be communicated on a more frequent
and faster basis. Team member access to information should be streamlined, there
should be frequent team checkpoints, and colocating should be implemented as much
as possible. Also, holding transparent, regular stakeholder reviews should be
used to support communication between management and stakeholders.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
Application of Agile in PMBOK Guide Knowledge Areas (According to to the Agile Practice Guide)
Explain the application of agile work process in PMBOK guide
Knowledge area Section 11 Project Risk Management.
a g I L E O V E R V I E W
An agile environment (an environment of high-variability) will incur more uncertainty and risk. Incremental work should be reviewed often and
cross-functional teams should utilize knowledge sharing to make sure that risk is understood and
managed. Risk should be considered when selecting the work of each iteration/sprint (and will be
managed throughout). Requirements in agile are kept as a living document and may be prioritized
based on emerging understanding of risk exposure.
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
In an agile environment, what enhances agility?
Agile Practice Guide Section 2.2
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Continuous attention to technical excellence and good
design enhances agility.
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Agile Practice Guide Section 2.2
What is simplicity and is it essential?
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Agile Practice Guide Section 2.2
The best designs and products are a result of what type of team?
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Agile Practice Guide Section 2.2
according to the 12 principles of the agile Manifesto, why should
teams reflect regularly?
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
At regular intervals the team reflects on how to become more effective, then tunes and adjusts
their behavior accordingly.
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Agile Practice Guide Section 2.2
What are the four values of the agile Manifesto?
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
• Individuals and interactions over processes and tools.
• Working software over comprehensive documentation.
• Customer collaboration over contract negotiation.
• Responding to change over following a plan.
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.2.7
Continuous Integration, Test at all levels, acceptance Test-Driven Development
(aTDD), Test driven development (TDD) and Behavior-Driven Development
(BDD), Spikes (timeboxed research or experiments) ae all practices that can help a team deliver at their maximum
.
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.2.8
after a team produces an increment of value, what is the first part
of their delivery?
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
A demonstration, the team then gets feedback and use it
in the next retrospect.
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
True or False:
The PMO and other interested parties should be encouraged to
attend demonstrations.
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.3
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
TrueThe PMO and other people who
have interest in the project should be encouraged to attend demos so that the people involved with deciding on the project portfolio
can see progress.
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Agile Practice Guide Section 6.4
as organizations progress to greater agility, there will be obvious need for additional to change the way they interact and
perform their responsibilities.
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Agile Practice Guide Section 6.5.1
What problem could arise when agile methods are used for the
collaboration of MuLTIPLE teams?
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Insufficient guidance for initiatives that require
collaboration in a program or portfolio.
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Agile Practice Guide Section 6.5.2
In a multiteam environment why might a team scale work? What can
be done as an alternative to this?
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
A team might scale work of several agile projects into a single agile
program or design a structure that supports approaches across the
entire portfolio.
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Agile Practice Guide Section 6.6.1
an agile-based PMO approach is based on a
mindset.
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
True or False:
If the PMO is delivering value to its clients, it is less likely that clients will request its services
and adopt its practices.
Agile Practice Guide Section 6.6.2
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
FalseIf the PMO is delivering value to its clients, it is MORE likely that
clients will request its services and adopt its practices.
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Agile Practice Guide Section 6.6.3
Why does an agile PMO need to be multidisciplinary?
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
In order to support project-specific needs, the PMO needs
to be conversant in several competencies beyond project management itself; different
projects require distinct capabilities.
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Agile Practice Guide Section 6.7 -
What are the five key characteristics of an organization that affect its
ability to shift to new information and market needs?
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
• Geography• Functional Structures• Size of project deliverable• Allocation of people to projects• Procurement-heavy
organizations
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Agile Practice Guide Section 6.8
When addressing an individual challenge area or implementing a new hybrid or agile approach, it is best to undertake this task
.
a g I L E M a N I F E S T O
Agile Practice Guide Section 2.2
Is agile an approach, a method, a practice, a technique,
or a framework?
S E R Va N T L E a D E R S H I P
What is the ideal project environment for agile practices?
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.2, 4.2.1, 4.2.1.1, 4.2.1.2, 4.2.1.3, 4.2.1.4
S E R Va N T L E a D E R S H I P
There are unknowns, there is a requirement for intense
collaboration, and the customer’s satisfaction is the primary goal.
S E R Va N T L E a D E R S H I P
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.2, 4.2.1, 4.2.1.1, 4.2.1.2, 4.2.1.3, 4.2.1.4
as a servant leader you should focus on clearing the way for your team to
do their work.
S E R Va N T L E a D E R S H I P
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.2, 4.2.1, 4.2.1.1, 4.2.1.2, 4.2.1.3, 4.2.1.4
Which of the following IS NOT a responsibility of a servant leader?
a) Educate the stakeholdersB) Support the team through mentoringC) Let the team handle technical project
management activitiesD) Celebrate team success
S E R Va N T L E a D E R S H I P
C) Let the team handle technical project management activities.
a servant leader should HELP with these activities. Servant leaders may have more
experience in techniques and should support the team by providing training or
undertaking these activities.
S E R Va N T L E a D E R S H I P
True or False:
In an agile environment the value of a project manager is not in their position, but in their ability to help
others improve.
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.2.2
S E R Va N T L E a D E R S H I P
Agile Practice Guide Section
With what business representative does a cross-functional team
collaborate with and coordinate their work?
T H E a g I L E u M B R E L L a
Explain the kanban board and kanban method.
Agile Practice Guide Section A3.4
T H E a g I L E u M B R E L L a
The kanban board is a visualization tool that enables improvements to the flow
of work by making bottlenecks and work quantities visible. The kanban method is an agile technique influenced by the
original kanban inventory control system and used for knowledge work.
T H E a g I L E u M B R E L L a
Agile Practice Guide Section 6.1.1
What are the two key factors that inspire the use of change management practices in an
agile context?
T H E a g I L E u M B R E L L a
1) Changes associated with accelerated delivery.
2) Changes associated with agile approaches.
T H E a g I L E u M B R E L L a
Agile Practice Guide Section 6.1.2
What are the five characteristics of an organization that can more easily
support an agile environment?
T H E a g I L E u M B R E L L a
1) Executive management’s willingness to change.2) Organization’s willingness to shift the way it
views, reviews, and assesses employees.3) Centralization or decentralization of project,
program, and portfolio management functions.4) Focus on short term budgeting and metrics vs
long term goals.5) Talent management maturity and capabilities.
T H E a g I L E u M B R E L L a
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.2.7
What is the goal of continuous integration?
T H E a g I L E u M B R E L L a
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.2.7
What happens at acceptance test-driven development (aTDD)?
T H E a g I L E u M B R E L L a
The whole team gets together and talks about acceptance criteria for a work product.
T H E a g I L E u M B R E L L a
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.2.7
In terms of TDD and BDD, writing the automated tests
before writing the project helps to “ -proof”
the product.
T H E a g I L E u M B R E L L a
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.2.7
Why are spikes (timeboxed research or experiments) useful?
T H E a g I L E u M B R E L L a
Spikes are useful for learning a critical, technical or
functional element.
a g I L E T E a M E x P L a I N E D
as a project manager you want to use the agile manifesto to guide your
team. This allows you to tell them that agile emphasizes how people
are utilized. Is this correct?
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3.1
a g I L E T E a M E x P L a I N E D
Noagile optimizes on the flow of value, with rapid delivery to the customer, rather than how people are utilized.
a g I L E T E a M E x P L a I N E D
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3.1
as a project manager you want your agile team in the same team space.
This is called .
a g I L E T E a M E x P L a I N E D
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3.1
The failure of a team to use collaboration techniques such as pairing, swarming, and mobbing
can result in mini-waterfalls. Why is this a concern?
a g I L E T E a M E x P L a I N E D
Mini-waterfalls occur when a team addresses ALL requirements, then ALL
design, then ALL building. This results in assumptions about the product that are no longer valid or relevant, rather than learning as they progress by delivering
smaller complete features.
a g I L E R O L E S T H R E E P E R S P E C T I V E S
True or False:
If the customer wants great results then the team must be structured
with only specialist roles to maximize resource efficiency.
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3.3
a g I L E R O L E S T H R E E P E R S P E C T I V E S
FalseThe team’s objective is FLOW efficiency and resources must be optimized throughout the
ENTIRE team.
a g I L E R O L E S T H R E E P E R S P E C T I V E S
Describe a distributed (dispersed) team?
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3.4
a g I L E R O L E S T H R E E P E R S P E C T I V E S
Cross-functional teams in different locations.
a g I L E R O L E S T H R E E P E R S P E C T I V E S
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3.5
When a team has a temporarily assigned specialist, it is important
that everyone (team and specialist) have the same expectations in terms of level of commitment.
Why is this important?
a g I L E R O L E S T H R E E P E R S P E C T I V E S
Clarity of commitment level needs to be clear so the team can deliver. Part-time assignments can create
risks for the project.
a g I L E R O L E S T H R E E P E R S P E C T I V E S
True or False:
The team produces value by focusing on the work.
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3
a g I L E R O L E S T H R E E P E R S P E C T I V E S
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3
What is the product owner focused on?
a g I L E R O L E S T H R E E P E R S P E C T I V E S
The product owner is looking at the bigger picture not just on the
work but on the product goals, product backlog, next sprint, and
overall product lifecycle.
I D E a L a g I L E W O R K S P a C E
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3.5, 4.3.6, 4.3.7
What are ways we can leverage virtual tools if a team is
geographically distributed?
I D E a L a g I L E W O R K S P a C E
The more important cultural norm in an organization willing
to try a new method is enabling a work environment.
Agile Practice Guide Section 6.2.1
I D E a L a g I L E W O R K S P a C E
Agile Practice Guide Section 6.2.2
Explain the impact of organizational culture on implementing change.
I D E a L a g I L E W O R K S P a C E
If the team who needs to drive the strategy is not passionate about the change then you stand little
chance of actually implementing it.
I D E a L a g I L E W O R K S P a C E
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3.6, 4,3.7
What is the ideal project environment for agile practices?
I D E a L a g I L E W O R K S P a C E
• There are unknowns.• Requires intense collaboration.• Customer satisfaction is
primary goal.
I D E a L a g I L E W O R K S P a C E
Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3.6, 4,3.7
Would a predictable environment that requires little collaboration
and where cost management is the primary goal be ideal
for agile methods?
I D E a L a g I L E W O R K S P a C E
Noan ideal agile environment has
many unknowns, requires intense collaboration, and customer
satisfaction is the primary goal.
I D E a L a g I L E W O R K S P a C E
A long-lived video conference link that is disperesed between teams, in various locations, and
runs all day so people can engage spontaneously with one another.
a g I L E P R O j E C T C H a R T E R
True or False:
The team charter defines the purpose and working agreement
of the project.
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.1, 5.2
a g I L E P R O j E C T C H a R T E R
The vision/purpose of the agile project charter answer
what question?
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.1, 5.2
a g I L E P R O j E C T C H a R T E R
True or False:
The project release criteria tells you what done looks like.
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.1, 5.2
a g I L E P R O j E C T C H a R T E R
TrueThis is the part of the project charter
that answers what done looks like.
a g I L E P R O j E C T C H a R T E R
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.1, 5.2
The flow of work in the project charter answers what questions?
a g I L E P R O j E C T C H a R T E R
True or False:
Not talking over one another and meeting attendance requirements
are some examples of team charter ground rules.
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.1, 5.2
a g I L E P R O j E C T C H a R T E R
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.1
Why might a team charter be useful for an agile team?
a g I L E P R O j E C T C H a R T E R
Agile teams require team norms and an understanding of how
to work together. Although not required, a team charter may be useful for a team to learn
how to work together.
a g I L E P R O j E C T C H a R T E R
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.1
What is the goal of the team charter?
a g I L E P R O j E C T C H a R T E R
To create an agile environment where team members can work to the best of their ability as a TEAM.
P R O D u C T B a C K L O g P R E P
The backlog is the ordered list of all the work, presented in story form for the team. Also
known as the product backlog, an ordered list of user centric
requirements that a team maintains for a product.
P R O D u C T B a C K L O g P R E P
Application of Agile in PMBOK Guide Knowledge Areas (According to to the Agile Practice Guide)
From a high-level, explain how the process of estimitating costs is different in an agile environment
than predictive.
P R O D u C T B a C K L O g P R E P
Since the scope is not fully defined and change is frequent a project may not
benefit from detailed cost calculations. Light-weight estimating methods
can be used to generate a quick high-level forecast of project labor costs
(these can later be adjusted).
u S E R S T O R I E S
What is the first C of the three C’s of user stories?
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.2.6, Glossary
S P R I N T P L a N N I N g a N D B a C K L O g
True or False:
The team members lead the daily stand-up meeting.
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.2.4
S P R I N T P L a N N I N g a N D B a C K L O g
TrueThe scrum master may facilitate the kick-off at the beginning of a project.
S P R I N T P L a N N I N g a N D B a C K L O g
Application of Agile in PMBOK Guide Knowledge Areas (According to to the Agile Practice Guide)
For a high-level, explain how the schedule is developed
differently in an agile environment than in predictive.
S P R I N T P L a N N I N g a N D B a C K L O g
Agile approaches use short cycles to perform work, review the
results, and adapt as necessary.
D E M O / R E V I E W
Lean encourages teams to deliver fast by managing flow
by managing work in progress.
D E M O / R E V I E W
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.2.5
When does a demonstration happen in iteration-based agile?
R E T R O S P E C T I V E
True or False:
The team, product owner, and scrum master (facilitator) attend
the retrospective.
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.2.1
R E T R O S P E C T I V E
True or False:
Teams only retrospect at the end of, typically two week, iterations.
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.2.1
R E T R O S P E C T I V E
FalseTeam members may decide to retrospect when they release something, more than a few weeks have passed since the last
retrospective, when the team is stuck and completed work is not flowing, or when the
team reaches any other milestone.
R E T R O S P E C T I V E
Application of Agile in PMBOK Guide Knowledge Areas
From a high-level, explain how the role of the team in planning and
managing project work differs in an agile environment than predictive.
R E T R O S P E C T I V E
In an agile environment the control of planning how the work will be completed is owned by the team. The project manager’s focus is in building a collaborative decision-making environment and making
sure the team has what they need to respond to changes.
M E a S u R I N g a g I L E P R O g R E S S
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.4.1
Explain the difference between a burndown chart and a burnup chart
in an agile environment.
M E a S u R I N g a g I L E P R O g R E S S
A burndown chart is a graphical representation of the story points (work) remaining vs the time left
in the timebox. A Burnup chart is a graphical representation of the story
points (work) completed toward the release of a product.
M E a S u R I N g a g I L E P R O g R E S S
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.4.1
Explain the difference between lead time, cycle time, and response time in a flow-based agile environment.
M E a S u R I N g a g I L E P R O g R E S S
Lead time in a flow-based agile environment is the total time it takes to deliver an item, measured from the
time it is added to the board to the moment it is completed. Cycle time is the time required to process an item.
Response time is the time the item waits until work starts.
M E a S u R I N g a g I L E P R O g R E S S
Agile Practice Guide Section 5.4.1
Why is measuring story points often an inaccurate measurement of progress?