test booklet code & no. iz'uif=dk dksm o ÿ- b paper-ii...

25
Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50 Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) ......................................... (Name) ................................................ 2. (Signature) ......................................... (Name) ................................................ Paper-II GEOGRAPHY MAY - 36216 Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of 50 objective type questions. Each question will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory, covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options). 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as follows : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/ questions or questions repeated or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same may please be noted. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. fo|kF;k±lkBh egŸokP;k lwpuk 1. ifj{kkFkh±uh vkiyk vklu ÿekad ;k i`"Bkojhy ojP;k dks iÚ;kr fygkok- rls p vki.kkal fnys Y;k mŸkjif=ds pk ÿekad R;k[kkyh fygkok- 2. lnj iz'uif=ds r 50 cgqi;kZ;h iz'u vkgs r- izR;s d iz'ukl nksu xq.k vkgs r- ;k iz'uif=ds rhy loZ iz'u lks Mfo.ks vfuok;Z vkgs - lnjps iz'u gs ;k fo"k;kP;k laiw.kZ vH;klÿekoj vk/kkfjr vkgs r- 3. ijh{kk lq: >kY;koj fo|kF;kZyk iz'uif=dk fnyh tkbZy- lq#okrhP;k 5 feuhVkae/;s vki.k lnj iz'uif=dk m?kMwu [kkyhy ckch vo'; riklwu igkO;kr- (i) iz'uif=dk m?kM.;klkBh iz'uif=ds oj ykoys ys lhy m?kMkos - lhy ulys yh fdaok lhy m?kMys yh iz'uif=dk fLodk: u;s - (ii) ifgY;k i`"Bkoj uewn dsY;kizek.ks iz'uif=dsph ,dw.k i`"Bs rls p iz 'uif=ds rhy ,dw .k iz 'uka ph la [;k iMrkˇw u igkoh- i`"Bs deh vlysyh@deh iz'u vlysyh@iz'ukapk pwdhpk ÿe vlysyh fdaok brj =qVh vlysyh lnks"k iz'uif=dk lq#okrhP;k 5 fefuVkrp i;Zos{kdkyk ijr ns≈u nqljh iz'uif=dk ekxowu ?;koh- R;kuarj iz'uif=dk cnywu feˇ.kkj ukgh rls p os ˇgh ok<ow u feˇ.kkj ukgh ;kph œi;k fo|kF;k±uh uksan ?;koh- (iii) ojhyizek.ks loZ iMrkˇwu ifgY;kuarjp iz'uif=dsoj vks -,e-vkj- mŸkjif=ds pk uacj fygkok- 4. izR;s d iz'uklkBh (A), (B), (C) vkf.k (D) v'kh pkj fodYi mŸkjs fnyh vkgs r- R;krhy ;ks X; mŸkjkpk jdkuk [kkyh n'kZfoY;kizek.ks Bˇdi.ks dkˇk@fuˇk djkok- mnk- % tj (C) gs ;ks X; mŸkj vls y rj- 5. ;k iz 'uif=ds rhy iz 'uka ph mŸkjs vks -,e-vkj- mŸkjif=ds rp n'kZ okohr- brj fBdk.kh fyghys yh mŸkj s riklyh tk.kkj ukghr- 6. vkr fnys Y;k lwpuk dkˇthiwoZd okpkO;kr- 7. iz'uif=ds P;k 'ks oVh tks Mys Y;k dksÚ;k ikukojp dPps dke djkos - 8. tj vki.k vks -,e-vkj- oj uewn ds ys Y;k fBdk.kk O;frjh‰ brj dks Bs gh uko] vklu ÿekad] Qks u uacj fdaok vks ˇ[k iVs y v'kh dks .krhgh [kw.k ds ys yh vk<ˇw u vkY;kl vFkok vlH; Hkk"ks pk okij fda ok brj xS jekxk± pk voyac ds Y;kl fo|kF;kZyk ijh{ks l vik= Bjfo.;kr ;s bZy- 9. ijh{kk laiY;kuarj fo|kF;kZus ewˇ vks -,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dk i;Zos {kdkadMs ijr dj.k s vko';d vkgs - rFkkih] iz 'uif=dk o vk s -,e-vkj- mŸkjif=ds ph f}rh; izr vkiY;kcjks cj us .;kl fo|kF;k±uk ijokuxh vkgs - 10. Q‰ fuˇÓk fdaok dkˇÓk ckWy isupkp okij djkok- 11. dWyD;qysVj fdaok ykWx Vscy okij.;kl ijokuxh ukgh- 12. pqdhP;k mŸkjklkBh xq.k dikr dsyh tk.kkj ukgh- A B D A B D B Test Booklet Code & No. iz'uif=dk dks M o ÿ- Seat No. (In figures as in Admit Card) Seat No. .............................................................. (In words) OMR Sheet No. (To be filled by the Candidate)

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Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50

Signature and Name of Invigilator1. (Signature) .........................................

(Name) ................................................

2. (Signature) .........................................

(Name) ................................................

Paper-IIGEOGRAPHY

MAY - 36216

Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided

on the top of this page.2. This paper consists of 50 objective type questions. Each question

will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory,covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).

3. At the commencement of examination, the question bookletwill be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you arerequested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it asfollows :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the

paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.

(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questionsin the booklet with the information printed on thecover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions or questions repeated or not in serialorder or any other discrepancy should not beaccepted and correct booklet should be obtainedfrom the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will bereplaced nor any extra time will be given. The samemay please be noted.

(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Numbershould be entered on this Test Booklet.

4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below onthe correct response against each item.Example : where (C) is the correct response.

5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMRSheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any placeother than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.

6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put

any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the spaceallotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose youridentity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfairmeans, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.

9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at theend of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it withyou outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowedto carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet onconclusion of examination.

10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

fo|kF;k±lkBh egŸokP;k lwpuk1. ifjkkFkh±uh vkiyk vklu ÿekad ;k i`"Bkojhy ojP;k dksiÚ;kr fygkok-

rlsp vki.kkal fnysY;k mŸkjif=dspk ÿekad R;k[kkyh fygkok-2. lnj iz'uif=dsr 50 cgqi;kZ;h iz'u vkgsr- izR;sd iz'ukl nksu xq.k

vkgsr- ;k iz'uif=dsrhy loZ iz'u lksMfo.ks vfuok;Z vkgs- lnjps iz'ugs ;k fo"k;kP;k laiw.kZ vH;klÿekoj vk/kkfjr vkgsr-

3. ijhkk lq: >kY;koj fo|kF;kZyk iz'uif=dk fnyh tkbZy- lq#okrhP;k 5feuhVkae/;s vki.k lnj iz'uif=dk m?kMwu [kkyhy ckch vo'; riklwuigkO;kr-(i) iz'uif=dk m?kM.;klkBh iz'uif=dsoj ykoysys lhy m?kMkos-

lhy ulysyh fdaok lhy m?kMysyh iz'uif=dk fLodk: u;s-(ii) ifgY;k i`"Bkoj uewn dsY;kizek.ks iz'uif=dsph ,dw.k i`"Bs

rlsp iz'uif=dsrhy ,dw.k iz'ukaph la[;k iMrk wu igkoh-i`"Bs deh vlysyh@deh iz'u vlysyh@iz'ukapk pwdhpkÿe vlysyh fdaok brj =qVh vlysyh lnks"k iz'uif=dklq#okrhP;k 5 fefuVkrp i;Zoskdkyk ijr ns≈u nqljhiz'uif=dk ekxowu ?;koh- R;kuarj iz'uif=dk cnywufeˇ.kkj ukgh rlsp os gh ok<owu feˇ.kkj ukgh ;kph œi;kfo|kF;k±uh uksan ?;koh-

(iii) ojhyizek.ks loZ iMrkˇwu ifgY;kuarjp iz'uif=dsojvks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dspk uacj fygkok-

4. izR;sd iz'uklkBh (A), (B), (C) vkf.k (D) v'kh pkj fodYi mŸkjs fnyhvkgsr- R;krhy ;ksX; mŸkjkpk jdkuk [kkyh n'kZfoY;kizek.ks Bˇdi.ksdkˇk@fuˇk djkok-mnk- % tj (C) gs ;ksX; mŸkj vlsy rj-

5. ;k iz'uif=dsrhy iz'ukaph mŸkjs vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dsrp n'kZokohr-brj fBdk.kh fyghysyh mŸkjs riklyh tk.kkj ukghr-

6. vkr fnysY;k lwpuk dkˇthiwoZd okpkO;kr-7. iz'uif=dsP;k 'ksoVh tksMysY;k dksÚ;k ikukojp dPps dke djkos-8. tj vki.k vks-,e-vkj- oj uewn dsysY;k fBdk.kk O;frjh‰ brj dksBsgh

uko] vklu ÿekad] Qksu uacj fdaok vks [k iVsy v'kh dks.krhgh [kw.kdsysyh vk< wu vkY;kl vFkok vlH; Hkk"kspk okij fdaok brj xSjekxk±pkvoyac dsY;kl fo|kF;kZyk ijhksl vik= Bjfo.;kr ;sbZy-

9. ijhkk laiY;kuarj fo|kF;kZus ew vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dk i;ZoskdkadMsijr dj.ks vko';d vkgs- rFkkih] iz'uif=dk o vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dsphfrh; izr vkiY;kcjkscj us.;kl fo|kF;k±uk ijokuxh vkgs-

10. Q‰ fuˇÓk fdaok dkˇÓk ckWy isupkp okij djkok-11. dWyD;qysVj fdaok ykWx Vscy okij.;kl ijokuxh ukgh-12. pqdhP;k mŸkjklkBh xq.k dikr dsyh tk.kkj ukgh-

A B D

A B D

BTest Booklet Code & No.

iz'uif=dk dksM o ÿ-

Seat No.

(In figures as in Admit Card)

Seat No. ..............................................................

(In words)

OMR Sheet No.

(To be filled by the Candidate)

2

MAY - 36216/II—B

3 [P.T.O.

MAY - 36216/II—B

1. Which of the urban form

models focuses on transportation

arterials ?

(A) Sector model

(B) Concentric model

(C) Peripheral model

(D) Multiple nuclei model

2. Global population witnessed

accelerated increase approximately

200 years back due to :

(A) Green Revolution

(B) Agricultural Revolution

(C) Industrial Revolution

(D) Medical Revolution

GeographyPaper II

Hkwxksyiz'uif=dk II

Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100Note : This paper contains 50 multiple choice questions, each carrying

Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

lwpuk % ;k iz'uif=dse/;s ,dw.k 50 cgqi;kZ;h iz'u fnysys vlwu izR;sd iz'ukyk nksu (2) xq.k vkgsr-loZ iz'u lksMok-

1. okgrwd okfgU;k dsafÊr ukxjh vkdkj izk:i

dks.krs \

(A) f=T;k[kaM izk:i

(B) ladsaÊh; izk:i

(C) ifj/kh; izk:i

(D) cgqdsaÊh; izk:i

2. lqekjs 200 o"kkZiwohZ] tkxfrd yksdla[;k osxoku

ok<hP;k vuqHkwrhps dkj.k ----------- -

(A) gfjr ÿkarh

(B) œ"kh ÿkarh

(C) vkS|ksfxd ÿkarh

(D) oS|dh; ÿkarh

4

MAY - 36216/II—B

3. According to Central Place theory

of settlements, hierarchy is

conceived as a systematic

arrangement of the settlements on

the basis of .................. .

(A) Functional interlinkages

(B) Size of the service areas

(C) Size of threshold population,

range of the function and

nodality

(D) Flow of goods, services and

information

4. A suburb is :

(A) an outer commutating zone of

an urban area

(B) associated with social

homogeneity and a life style

suited to family needs

(C) the spread and growth of cities

(D) both (A) and (B)

3. oLrh vH;klkrhy dsaÊh; LFkku flºkarkuqlkj

Js.khca/k Eg.kts ---------------------------- P;k

vk/kkjkoj oLrhph iºr'khj jpuk gks;-

(A) dk;kZRedn`"VÓk ijLijkar tksM.kh

(B) lsok ks=kps vkdkjeku

(C) v/k%lhek yksdla[;sps vkdkjeku]

dk;kZph dkk o ,ddsafÊrrk

(D) oLrw] lsok o ekfgrh ;kapk vks?k

4. miuxj Eg.kts ------------------------------ -

(A) ,[kkn~;k ukxjhks=kP;k ckg~; fnd~ifjorhZ

foHkkx

(B) lkekftd lekaxrk'kh lacaf/kr o dqVqackP;k

lqlaxr thouiºrh

(C) 'kgjkaph foLrkj o ok<

(D) nksUgh (A) o (B)

5 [P.T.O.

MAY - 36216/II—B

5. Find out the correct descending

sequence of continents on the basis

of crude birth rate :

(A) Africa, Asia, Latin America,

Europe

(B) Africa, Latin America, Asia,

Europe

(C) Latin America, Africa, Asia,

Europe

(D) Europe, Latin America, Africa,

Asia

6. The Brazilian plateau is rich in :

(A) Petroleum

(B) Iron ore

(C) Nickel

(D) Copper

7. The model of agricultural location

given by Von Thunen is based on

....................... technique.

(A) Normative

(B) Empirical

(C) Multi-element

(D) Single element

5. [kaMkpk <kscˇ tUenjkuqlkj ;ksX; mrjrk ÿe

vksˇ[kk %

(A) vkf›dk] vkf'k;k] yWfVu vesfjdk]

;wjksi

(B) vkf›dk] yWfVu vesfjdk] vkf'k;k]

;wjksi

(C) yWfVu vesfjdk] vkf›dk] vkf'k;k]

;wjksi

(D) ;wjk si] yWfVu vesfjdk] vkf›dk]

vkf'k;k

6.------------------------------------- ;kr czkf>fy;u iBkj

le`º vkgs-

(A) isV™ksfy;e

(B) yksg [kfut

(C) fudsy

(D) rkacs

7. OgkWu F;qusu ;kauh ekaMysys œf"kLFkku izk:i------------------------------ ra=koj vk/kkjysys

vkgs-

(A) izek.kd

(B) vkuqHkfod

(C) cgq?kVd

(D) ,d&?kVd

6

MAY - 36216/II—B

8. A topological graph of the transport

network neither related to ................

nor direction.

(A) Index

(B) Scale

(C) Flow

(D) Axis

9. Which of the following is not a foot

loosing industry ?

(A) Iron and steel industry

(B) Sugar industry

(C) Cotton textile industry

(D) Rice milling industry

10. Two malls X and Y having equal

market attraction are equidistant in

kilometers but reachable in 15 and

25 minutes on feet, respectively.

Suresh’s decision to visit mall X

would therefore illustrate the

principle of ...................... .

(A) Distance decay

(B) Profit maximization

(C) Economic rationality

(D) Clientele loyalty

8. okgrwd tkˇhpk lkafLFkfrd vkys[k uk------------------------------ 'kh] uk fn'ks'kh lacaf/kr

vlrks-

(A) lwph

(B) izek.k

(C) izokg

(D) vk

9. [kkyhyiSdh dks.krk inHkz"V m|ksx ukgh \

(A) yksg o iksykn m|ksx

(B) lk[kj m|ksx

(C) lqrh dkiM m|ksx

(D) Hkkrlj.kh m|ksx

10. cktkjisBsr leku vkd"kZ.k vl.kkj s X

o Y gs nksu ekWy fdyksehVje/;s leku varjkoj

vkgsr] ijarw ik;h tk.;kl vuqÿes 15 o

25 fefuVs ykxrkr- lqjs'kpk X ekWyyk HksV

ns.;kpk fu.kZ; ---------------------------- rŸo Li"V

djrs-

(A) varjk;

(B) u∂;kps egŸkehdj.k

(C) vkfFkZd foosdhdj.k

(D) xzkgd ,dfu"Brk

7 [P.T.O.

MAY - 36216/II—B

11. Overpopulation is equated with :

(A) the first stage of the

demographic cycle with high

fertility rates

(B) areas of high birth rates

(C) areas of imbalanced fertility

rates and dependency ratios

(D) with a continuing imbalance

between the numbers of people

and carrying capacity of the

land

12. Mac Mahon line, which was decided

between the British and the

Tibeteans as the boundary between

India and Tibet passes through :

(A) Purvanchal Himalayas

(B) Nepal and Sikkim Himalayas

(C) Kumaun Himalayas

(D) Kashmir Himalayas

11. vR;f/kd yksdla[;k Eg.kts --------------- -

(A) yksdla[;k pÿkP;k ifgY;k voLFksr

deky tuunj fLFkrh

(B) mPp tUenj ks=

(C) vlarqfyr tuunj o voyafcrk nj

ks=

(D) yksdkaph la[;k o tfeuhph /kkj.kkerk

;krhy fu;fer vlarqyu

12. Hkkjr o frcsVe/khy lhek Eg.kwu fczVh'k o

frcsVhauh Bjoysyh eWdeksgu js"kk ---------------

e/kwu tkrs-

(A) iwok±py fgeky;

(B) usikˇ vkf.k flDdhe fgeky;

(C) dqek≈a fgeky;

(D) dkf'ej fgeky;

8

MAY - 36216/II—B

13. Which of the following is not an

indicator of the cultural landscape ?

(A) Housetype

(B) Kinship

(C) Size of Settlements

(D) Transport

14. Genetic classification of boundaries

was proposed by .................... .

(A) Ritter

(B) Hettner

(C) Hartshorne

(D) Ratzel

15. The Khasis of Meghalaya Plateau

speak a language that is classified

under :

(A) Mon-Khner group of language

(B) Indo-Aryan Family of

languages

(C) Dravidian Family of languages

(D) Sino-Tibetan Family of

languages

13. [kkyhyiSdh dks.krk lkaLœfrd Hkwn';kpk n'kZd

ukgh \

(A) ?kjkaps izdkj

(B) ukrslaca/k

(C) olkgrhps vkdkj

(D) okgrwd

14. lhekaps tufud oxhZdj.k ---------------------- ;kauh

izfriknhr dsys-

(A) jhVj

(B) gsVuj

(C) gkVZ'kkWuZ

(D) jWV>sy

15. es?kky; iBkjkojhy yksda [kklh cksyr

vlysY;k Hkk"ksps oxhZdj.k [kkyhyiSdh

d'kkr gksrs \

(A) ekWu&[kusj Hkk"kk leqg

(B) baMks&vk;Zu Hkk"kk dqVaqc

(C) ÊfoMh;u Hkk"kk dqVaqc

(D) fluks&frcsVh;u Hkk"kk dqVaqc

9 [P.T.O.

MAY - 36216/II—B

16. Who among the following gave

spatial perspective to growth pole

theory ?

(A) Francis Perroux

(B) Walter Isard

(C) M.N. Pal

(D) Boudeville

17. An area delineated on the basis

of general similarity of land

characteristics and occupancy is

called as :

(A) Space

(B) Landscape

(C) Region

(D) Area

18. The division of India into

administrative states, districts and

blocks etcetra for development

planning is called ................... .

(A) Sectoral development

(B) Multilevel planning

(C) Micro-level planning

(D) Area planning

16. o`ºh /k`o flºkUrkl vfHkks=h; vk;ke

[kkyhyiSdh dks.kh fnyk \

(A) ›kfUll iWjkWDl

(B) okWYVj b>kMZ

(C) ,e-,u- iky

(D) ck≈MfOgys

17. lk/kkj.k Hkwfe oSf'k"VÓkapk lkj[ksi.kk o

okij ;kvk/kkjs fuf'pr dsysY;k ks=kl--------------------- Eg.krkr-

(A) vodk'k

(B) Hkwn`';

(C) izns'k

(D) ks=

18. HkkjrkP;k fodkl fu;kstuklkBh iz'kkldh;

jkT;s] ftYgs o xV bR;knh e/;s dsysY;k

foHkktukl --------------------------- vls Eg.krkr-

(A) foHkkxh; fodkl

(B) cgqikrˇh fu;kstu

(C) lqe ikrˇh fu;kstu

(D) ks= fu;kstu

10

MAY - 36216/II—B

19. The regional disparities can be

narrowed down over a time

when ............... .

(A) it is ensured that the rate of

development of the backward

areas is greater than the rate

of development of other areas

(B) Preference is given to most

developed areas

(C) Emphasized for equal

weightage to all regions

(D) Allocation of less grants to

lagging areas

20. The minimum sales volume needed

to support a business is called :

(A) Range

(B) Core

(C) Threshold

(D) Optimum business benefit

19. izknsf'kd fo"kerk dkykUrjkus deh gks≈

'kdrs tsOgk -------------------------------- -

(A) ekxkl Hkkxkrhy fodkl nj gk brj

HkkxkP;k fodkl njkiskk tkLr vlY;kph

[kk=h gksrs

(B) vfr fodlhr Hkkxkl izk/kkU; feˇrs

(C) loZ izns'kkl leku Hkkj ns.;koj Hkj

feˇrks

(D) fiNkMysY;k izns'kkl vuqnkukpk deh

okVk feˇrks

20. O;olk;kl vk/kkj ns.;klkBh vko';d

vlysY;k fdeku foÿhP;k vkdkjkekukl---------------------------- vls Eg.krkr-

(A) dkk

(B) xkHkk

(C) v/k%lhek

(D) i;kZIr O;kolkf;d ykHk

11 [P.T.O.

MAY - 36216/II—B

21. Kamet peak lies closer to which of

the following glacier ?

(A) Gangotri

(B) Pindari

(C) Siachin

(D) Rimo

22. Which of the following statement is

not correct ?

(A) The Himalayan ranges act as

a barrier to the cold winds

blowing down from Central

Asia

(B) Himalayan ranges acted as a

barrier to the free movement of

people in the past

(C) The Himalayan ranges are a

large storehouse of marine

fossils

(D) The Himalayan ranges were

formed during Hercynian

Orogeny

21. dkesr f'k[kj [kkyhyiSdh dks.kR;k fgeunhP;k

uthd vkgs \

(A) xaxks=h

(B) fiaMkjh

(C) fl;kphu

(D) fjeks

22. [kkyhyiSdh dks.krs fo/kku cjkscj ukgh \

(A) fgeky;kP;k jkaxk e/; vkf'k;krwu

;s.kkÚ;k FkaM okÚ;kauk vMFkˇk curkr

(B) Hkwrdkˇkr fgeky;kP;k jkaxk yksdkaP;k

eqDr lapkjkl vMFkˇk cuY;k gksR;k

(C) fgeky;kP;k jkaxk lkxjh vo'ks"kkaps eksBs

HkkaMkj vkgsr

(D) fgeky; jk axk aph fufeZrh gls Zfu;u

fxjhtuuknjE;ku >kyh

12

MAY - 36216/II—B

23. Tamil Nadu receives much of its

rainfall through the .................. .

(A) South-West Monsoon

(B) Western Disturbances

(C) North-East Monsoon

(D) Tropical Cyclones

24. Consider the following statements :

(a) Inundation canals are taken

out from rivers without building

any kind of weir

(b) Irrigation by this kind of canals

is more than canal drawn from

irrigation dams.

Which of the above statement(s)

is/are correct ?

(A) Only (a)

(B) Only (b)

(C) Both (a) and (b)

(D) Neither (a) nor (b)

23. rkehˇukMwr cjkplk itZU; --------------------

eq s iMrks-

(A) uSΩZR; ekUlwu

(B) if'peh fokksHk

(C) b'kkU; ekUlwu

(D) m".kdfVca/kh; vkorZ

24. [kkyhy fo/kkukapk fopkj djk %

(a) iwjokgd dkyos unhyk dks.kR;kgh

izdkjpk ca/kkjk cka/kY;kf'kok; unhiklwu

ckgsj dk<ysys vlrkr

(b) v'kk izdkjP;k dkyO;kkjs gk s.kkj s

tyflapu /kj.kkP;k dkyO;k ai skk

vf/kd vlrs

ojhyiSdh dks.krs fo/kku cjkscj vkgs \

(A) QDr (a)

(B) QDr (b)

(C) (a) o (b) nksUgh

(D) (a) fdaok (b) iSdh dks.krsp ukgh

13 [P.T.O.

MAY - 36216/II—B

25. Sequentially, in terms of cotton

cultivation top three states are ........ .

(A) Gujrat — Maharashtra —

Andhra Pradesh

(B) Andhra Pradesh — Gujrat —

Maharashtra

(C) Maharashtra — Andhra

Pradesh — Gujrat

(D) Maharashtra — Gujrat —

Andhra Pradesh

26. Population density map uses

................. type of data.

(A) Nominal

(B) Hierarchical

(C) Differentiated

(D) Ratio

27. If the universe has heterogenous

composition, a ....................... sampling

is preferred.

(A) Systematic linear

(B) Stratified random

(C) Systematic block

(D) Random grid

25. dkiwl ykxoMh lanHkkZr rhu vxz.kh jkT;kapk

vuqÿe vlk vkgs-

(A) xqtjkrµegkjk"V™µvka/kz izns'k

(B) vka/kz izns'kµxqtjkrµegkjk"V™

(C) egkjk"V™µvka/kz izns'kµxqtjkr

(D) egkjk"V™µxqtjkrµvka/kz izns'k

26. yksdla[;k ?kurk udk'kklkBh -----------------

izdkjph lkexzh okijrkr-

(A) uken'kZd

(B) Js.khn'kZd

(C) Hksfnr

(D) xq.kksŸkj

27. le"Vhph jpuk tj cgqftulh vlsy rj----------------------------- izfrp;u iºrhl izk/kkU;

fnys tkrs-

(A) ÿecº js"kh;

(B) Lrjh; ;kn`fPNd

(C) ÿecº [kaMh;

(D) ;kn`fPNd tkˇh;

14

MAY - 36216/II—B

28. Basic aim of a thematic map

is ....................... .

(A) To show distribution of

variable(s)

(B) To analyse the spatial pattern

that emerge

(C) To show numeric information

in visual form

(D) To show what exists and where

it exists

29. Which of the following is not a

measure of dispersion ?

(A) Quartile deviation

(B) Variance

(C) Standard deviation

(D) Standard score

30. The spatial resolution of LISS 1

senser was ................... .

(A) 165 m

(B) 30 m

(C) 72.5 m

(D) 5 m

28. [kkyhyiSdh dks.krs mÌs';kRed udk'kkaps

eq[; /;s; vlsy \

(A) ,[kk|k pykps forj.k n'kZfo.ks

(B) fuekZ.k gks.kkÚ;k ks=h; vkœfrca/kkps

fo'ys"k.k dj.ks

(C) lk a f[;dh ekfgrh n `'; Lo:ikr

n'kZfo.ks

(D) dk; vkg s o r s dk sB s vkg s r s

n'kZfo.ks

29. [kkyhyiSdh dks.krs viLdj.kkps ifj.kke

ukgh \

(A) prqFkZd fopyu

(B) izpj.k

(C) izekf.kr fopyu

(D) izekf.kr ewY;

30. LISS 1 ;k laosndkps k s=h; foHksnu---------------------------- ehVj gksrs-

(A) 165

(B) 30

(C) 72.5

(D) 5

15 [P.T.O.

MAY - 36216/II—B

31. A pair of Geomorphologist that

contributed to the concept of base

level of erosion is :

(A) A. Penk and W.M. Davis

(B) G.K. Gilbert and G.E. Dutton

(C) Lyell and Ramsey

(D) Powell and Greenwood

32. Which of the following is not a form

of chemical weathering ?

(A) Chelation

(B) Oxidation

(C) Carbonation

(D) Corrosion

31. Hkw:i'kkL=KkaP;k T;k tksMhus vikj.kkph

vk/kkjHk wr ikrˇh ladYiuk ek aMyh rs

Eg.kts %

(A) ,- isUd vkf.k MCyw-,e- MsOghl

(B) th-ds- xhycVZ o th-b- MVu

(C) yk;y vkf.k jWels

(D) ikWosy vkf.k xzhuowM

32. [kkyhyiSdh dks.krk jklk;fud fonkj.kkpk

izdkj ukgh \

(A) fpys'ku

(B) HkLehdj.k

(C) dkcZuhdj.k

(D) dksjWtu

16

MAY - 36216/II—B

33. Transverse faults along the plate

boundaries indicate .................... .

(A) subsidence of both the plates

(B) subsidence of the higher plate

(C) absense of vertical displacement

(D) uplift of both the plates along

plate boundaries

34. Identify the pair of landforms

produced by the glacial deposition :

(A) Cirques and Aretes

(B) Mattern Horn and Roche

Montane

(C) Eskers and Kames

(D) Sawtooth Ridges and Tarn

35. Which of the following is not a result

of endogenic forces ?

(A) Graben

(B) Horst

(C) Residual Mountain

(D) Rift Valley

33. HkwiV~VkaP;k lhesojhy vuqizLFk (transverse)

Hkza'k --------------------- lqfpr djrkr-

(A) nksUgh HkwiV~Vkaps v/kksxeu

(B) eksBÓk HkwiV~Vkps v/kksxeu

(C) m/oZfn'ksrhy foLFkkiukpk vHkko

(D) lhesojhy nksUgh HkwiV~Vkaps mRFkku

34. fgeunhP;k lap;u dk;kZeq s r;kj gks.kkÚ;k

Hkw:ikaph tksMh vksˇ[kk %

(A) fgexOgj vkf.k /kkjnkjdMs

(B) fxjh'k`ax vkf.k es"k'khyk

(C) ,Ldj vkf.k dse

(D) djor narh Mksaxjjkaxk vkf.k ioZrkrhy

ljksoj

35. [kkyhyiSdh dks.krk varxZr cykpk ifj.kke

ukgh \

(A) xzWcu

(B) gkWLVZ

(C) vof'k"V ioZr

(D) [kpnjh

17 [P.T.O.

MAY - 36216/II—B

36. In which of the following types of

precipitation the size of drop is less

than 0.5 millimeter ?

(A) Rain

(B) Drizzle

(C) Hail

(D) Snow

37. Mid latitudinal cyclones develop in

conjunction with the .................. .

(A) Polar Front

(B) Meritime Front

(C) Tropical Front

(D) Equatorial Front

38. Climate, where evaporation exceeds

precipitation and there is constant

water deficiency is designated by

Koppen as ......................... types of

climate.

(A) C

(B) A

(C) B

(D) D

36. [kkyhyiSdh dks.kR;k o`"Vh izdkjkr Fksackpk

O;kl 0.5 feyhehVjiskk deh vlrks \

(A) itZU;

(B) rq"kkj

(C) xkjk

(D) fge

37. e/; vko`Ÿkh; vkorkZpk fodkl ------------ 'kh

tksMysyk vkgs-

(A) /k`oh; vk?kkMh

(B) lkxjh vk?kkMh

(C) m".kdVhca/kh; vk?kkMh

(D) fo"kqoo`Ÿkh; vk?kkMh

38. vls gokeku dh tsFks ck"ihHkou o"Vhiskk tkLr

vlrs vkf.k lrr ik.;kph derjrk tk.kors

R;kl dksisuus ---------------------------- izdkjps

gokeku vls fu/kkZfjr dsys vkgs-

(A) C

(B) A

(C) B

(D) D

18

MAY - 36216/II—B

39. The rate at which temperature of a

rising and expanding air parcel

decreases is called the .................. .

(A) Environmental Lapse Rate

(B) Adiabatic Lapse Rate

(C) Normal Lapse Rate

(D) Katabatic Lapse Rate

40. Reflection of a substance, expressed

as percentage of incident radiation

reflected is :

(A) Advection

(B) Aerovane

(C) Albedo

(D) Azores

39. oj tk.kkÚ;k vkf.k izlj.k iko.kkÚ;k ok;qiwat

(Air parcel) ps rkieku T;k njkus deh gksrs

R;kl -------------------------- Eg.krkr-

(A) i;kZoj.kh; yksinj

(B) vkarfjd (vWMh,cWVhd) yksinj

(C) ljkljh yksinj

(D) dWVkcWVhd yksinj

40. inkFkk ZdMwu gk s.kkÚ;k vkikrh izkj.kkps

ijkorZukph VDdsokjh Eg.kts ---------------------

gks;-

(A) vWMOgsD'ku

(B) vsjksOgsu

(C) vycsMks

(D) v>ksjl~

19 [P.T.O.

MAY - 36216/II—B

41. In terms of geographical extent

the ocean deposits which has the

largest coverage is .............................

deposits.

(A) Calcareous

(B) Globigerina

(C) Redclay

(D) Radiolarian

42. Which one of the following seas does

not have land boundaries ?

(A) Red Sea

(B) Adriatic Sea

(C) Sargasso Sea

(D) Aegean Sea

41. HkkSxksfyd foLrkjkuqlkj lokZr foLr`r O;kIrh

ks= -------------------------- ;k fuksikps vkgs-

(A) pquke;

(B) Xyksfctsfjuk

(C) jsMDys

(D) jsfMvksysfjvu

42. [kkyhyiSdh dk s.kR;k leqÊkl Hk wlhek

ukghr \

(A) rkacMk leqÊ

(B) vsfM™;kfVd leqÊ

(C) lkjxWlks leqÊ

(D) vsft;u leqÊ

20

MAY - 36216/II—B

43. ........................ of the wave is

determined by dividing the length

of a wave by the period.

(A) Velocity

(B) Frequency

(C) Fetch

(D) Amplitude

44. Lists of local winds (List I) and their

associated regions (List II) are given.

Match the List I with List II and

select the correct answer from the

codes given below :

List I List II

(a) Chinook (1) Spain

(b) Mistral (2) Russia

(c) Solano (3) North America

(d) Burran (4) South France

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (4) (1) (2)

(B) (3) (2) (1) (4)

(C) (4) (1) (2) (3)

(D) (2) (3) (4) (1)

43. ygjhpk --------------------------- rjax ykachyk

vkorZdkˇkus Hkkxwu fuf'pr djrkr-

(A) izosx

(B) okjaokjrk

(C) nksyfoLrkj

(D) rjax ijkl

44. LFkkfud okjs (List I) o R;kaP;k'kh fuxMhr

izns'k (List II) fnysys vkgsr- List I o

List II ;kaP;k tksMÓk tq owu [kkyhy fnysY;k

ladsrkadkrwu ;ksX; i;kZ; fuoMk %

List I List II

(a) fpuqd (1) Lisu

(b) feLV™y (2) jf'k;k

(c) lksykuks (3) mŸkj vesjhdk

(d) cqjku (4) nfk.k ›kal

lkadsrkad %

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (4) (1) (2)

(B) (3) (2) (1) (4)

(C) (4) (1) (2) (3)

(D) (2) (3) (4) (1)

21 [P.T.O.

MAY - 36216/II—B

45. Assertion (A) :

A great proportion of the residual

wilderness of India is now under

great threat.

Reason (R) :

Intensive forms of agricultural and

industrial growth lead to shrinking

of biodiversity.

Select the correct answer from the

codes given below :

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) true and (R)

is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) true but (R)

is not the correct explanation

of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

45. izfriknu (A) :

Hkkjrkrhy moZfjr oU;tSfodrk (wilderness)

cgqrka'kh /kksD;kr vkgs-

dkj.k (R) :

l[kk sy œf"ki zdkj o vk S|k s fxd o`ºh

tSfodfofo/krk vkdqapu iko.;kl dkj.khHkwr

Bjrkr-

[kkyh fnysY;k ladsrkadkrwu ;ksX; mŸkj

fuoMk %

ladsrkad %

(A) nksUgh (A) o (R) cjkscj vkgsr vkf.k

(R) gs (A) ps ;ksX; Li"Vhdj.k vkgs

(B) nksUgh (A) o (R) cjkscj vkgsr i.k

(R) gs (A) ps ;ksX; Li"Vhdj.k ukgh

(C) (A) gs cjkscj vkgs] i.k (R) gs pwd

vkgs

(D) (A) gs pwd vkgs] i.k (R) gs cjkscj

vkgs

22

MAY - 36216/II—B

46. Match the List I and List II and

select the correct answer from the

codes given below :

List I List II

(a) Alexander von (1) Anthropo Geography

Humboldt

(b) Carl Ritter (2) Geographic Humane

(c) Friedrich (3) Cosmos

Ratzel

(d) Jean Brunches (4) Europe

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (2) (4) (1)

(B) (3) (4) (1) (2)

(C) (2) (1) (4) (3)

(D) (1) (3) (4) (2)

47. Hartshorne’s several articles

and finally the book — “Perspective

on the Nature of Geography”

was written in reaction to the work

of ...................... .

(A) Ackerman

(B) Haggett

(C) Sauer

(D) Schaefer

46. lwph I o lwph II ;kaP;k tksMÓk tq orkuk

[kkyh fnysY;k ladsrkadke/kwu ;ksX; i;kZ;

fuoMk %

lwph I lwph II

(a) vysD>kaMj OgkWu (1) ekuooa'k Hkwxksy

gqEcksYV

(b) dkyZ fjVj (2) ekuoh Hkwxksy

(c) ›sMfjd jWV>sy (3) dkWlekWl

(d) thu czqUl (4) ;qjksi

lkadsrkad %

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (2) (4) (1)

(B) (3) (4) (1) (2)

(C) (2) (1) (4) (3)

(D) (1) (3) (4) (2)

47. gkVZ'kkWuZps vusd ys[k o varr% iqLrd

^^HkwxksykP;k Lo:ikps ;FkkFkZ n'kZu** gs----------------------- ;kaP;k dk;kZojP;k izfrfÿ;srwu

ys[ku >kys vkgs-

(A) vWdjeu

(B) gWxsV

(C) lkmj

(D) 'ksQj

23 [P.T.O.

MAY - 36216/II—B

48. The 1960’s approach of geography

as spatial science was identified

with language and method of :

(A) Ecosystem

(B) Environment

(C) Geometry

(D) Landscape

49. Who among the following remarked :

“We must ask the earth herself for

her laws.”

(A) Humboldt

(B) Ritter

(C) Ratzel

(D) W.M. Davis

50. In 1970s the ....................... school

approach emerged as a strong

critique of spatial organisation

paradigm in Human Geography.

(A) Regional

(B) Welfare

(C) Areal Differentiation

(D) Locational

48. 1960 e/;s vfHkks=h; foKku vlk Hkwxksykpk

n`"Vhdksu] Hkk"kk o ------------------------------ iºrh

;klg vks [kyk tkr gksrk-

(A) ifjlaLFkk

(B) i;kZoj.k

(C) Hkwferh;

(D) Hkwn`';

49. fuEufyf[krk ai Sdh dks.kh iq<hy fVIi.kh

dsyh \ vki.k i`Fohykp frP;k dk;nÓka

ckcrph i`PNk dsyh ikfgts-

(A) gacksYV

(B) fjVj

(C) jWV>sy

(D) MCY;w- ,e- MsfOgl

50. 1970 P;k n'kdkr ------------------------------

fopkj/kkjk ekuoh Hkwxksykrhy vfHkks=h; la?kVu

:ikoyhph l'kDr lehkk Eg.kwu mn;kl

vkyh-

(A) izknsf'kd

(B) dY;k.kdkjh

(C) ks=h; foHksnu

(D) LFkkuh;rk

24

MAY - 36216/II—B

ROUGH WORK

25 [P.T.O.

MAY - 36216/II—B