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MCAT FULL LENGTH PAPER–3 AS PER UHS PATTERN Total MCQs: 220 Max. Marks: 1100 Time Allowed: 150 Minute PHYSICS C) [L] Q.1 The dimensions for angular displacement is A) [L –1 ] B) [T] D) Dimensionless Q.2 Which of the following is not a S.I. base quantity A) Mass C) Velocity B) Intensity of light D) Length Q.3 Which of the following objects have every point on its surface equidistant from its centre of weight (centre of gravity): C) A table tennis ball D) A triangle A) An egg B) A cubic box Q.4 Which of the following statements is false A) The centre of gravity of a rectangular plate is at the point of intersection of its diagonals B) The centre of gravity of a thin uniform rod is halfway along the rod C) The centre of gravity of a square plate is at the point of its balance D) The centre of gravity of a triangular plate is at one of its vertices Q.5 Ideal fluid is A) Incompressible C) Non – viscous B) Steady flow D) All of these Q.6 A fluid entering a pipe from a point of larger cross section and exits from the point of the same pipe having smaller cross section. Its pressure energy at the exit would A) Decrease because of high velocity C) Remains the same as inlet pressure B) Increase because of high velocity D) Increases because of low velocity Q.7 What do you infer from the Bernoulli’s equation: A) This theorem is valid only for the turbulent flow of the fluid B) Where the speed of the fluid is high, the pressure would be low C) Where the speed is high, the pressure would be low D) All of the above Q.8 The value of absolute zero on Fahrenheit scale: A) 359.4 o F C) 100 o F B) –459.4 o F D) –259.4 o F Q.9 1 Sv is equal to A) 0.01 rem C) 1 rad B) 100 rem D) 0.01 Gy Q.10 The normal temperature of a human body on centigrade scale is: A) 98.6 o C) 37 o B) 40 o D) 459.4 o Q.11 In S.H.M the K.E at the equilibrium position is: A) Zero as the acceleration is zero B) Minimum as the instantaneous displacement is zero C) Minimum as the instantaneous displacement is zero D) Maximum as the velocity is maximum Q.12 Maximum acceleration with zero velocity is possible only for: A) Non inertial frame of reference C) Simple harmonic motion B) Rotational motion D) Random motion Q.13 When a source is moving towards a stationary observer, the apparent change in frequency will be: A) Greater than the original frequency C) Smaller than the original frequency B) Remains the same as that of original frequency D) None of the above Page 1 of 14

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MCATFULL LENGTH PAPER–3

AS PER UHS PATTERNTotal MCQs: 220Max. Marks: 1100 Time Allowed: 150 Minute

PHYSICS

C) [L]Q.1 The dimensions for angular displacement is

A) [L–1]B) [T] D) Dimensionless

Q.2 Which of the following is not a S.I. base quantityA) Mass C) VelocityB) Intensity of light D) Length

Q.3 Which of the following objects have every point on its surface equidistant from its centre of weight (centre of gravity):

C) A table tennis ballD) A triangle

A) An eggB) A cubic box

Q.4 Which of the following statements is falseA) The centre of gravity of a rectangular plate is at the point of intersection of its diagonals B) The centre of gravity of a thin uniform rod is halfway along the rodC) The centre of gravity of a square plate is at the point of its balanceD) The centre of gravity of a triangular plate is at one of its vertices

Q.5 Ideal fluid isA) Incompressible C) Non – viscousB) Steady flow D) All of these

Q.6 A fluid entering a pipe from a point of larger cross section and exits from the point of the same pipe having smaller cross section. Its pressure energy at the exit would

A) Decrease because of high velocity C) Remains the same as inlet pressureB) Increase because of high velocity D) Increases because of low velocity

Q.7 What do you infer from the Bernoulli’s equation:A) This theorem is valid only for the turbulent flow of the fluidB) Where the speed of the fluid is high, the pressure would be low C) Where the speed is high, the pressure would be lowD) All of the above

Q.8 The value of absolute zero on Fahrenheit scale:A) 359.4oF C) 100oFB) –459.4oF D) –259.4oF

Q.9 1 Sv is equal toA) 0.01 rem C) 1 radB) 100 rem D) 0.01 Gy

Q.10 The normal temperature of a human body on centigrade scale is:A) 98.6o C) 37o

B) 40o D) 459.4o

Q.11 In S.H.M the K.E at the equilibrium position is:A) Zero as the acceleration is zeroB) Minimum as the instantaneous displacement is zeroC) Minimum as the instantaneous displacement is zeroD) Maximum as the velocity is maximum

Q.12 Maximum acceleration with zero velocity is possible only for:A) Non inertial frame of reference C) Simple harmonic motionB) Rotational motion D) Random motion

Q.13 When a source is moving towards a stationary observer, the apparent change in frequency will be:

A) Greater than the original frequency C) Smaller than the original frequencyB) Remains the same as that of original frequency D) None of the above

Page 1 of 14

Q.14 A technique for detecting the pressure of objects under water by acoustical echo is called A) Doppler effect C) RadarB) Sonar D) Red shift

Q.15 Two unequal resistances are connected parallel across a battery. Which of thefollowing statement is true?A) Same current will flow through both resistances.B) Current through smaller resistance is higher.C) Current through larger resistance is higher.D) Current can be higher in any resistance depending on emf of the cell.

Q.16 If the waves interfere constructively, the amplitude of the resulting wave would be:A) Less than either of the individual waveB) Greater than either of the individual waveC) Equal to the shortest of the individual wavesD) Equal to the greatest of the individual wave

Q.17 Thin film of oil on water shows colour pattern when illuminated by white light due toA) Interference C) PolarizationB) Dispersion D) Scattering

Q.18 Monochromatic light means the light having:A) One colour C) Single wavelengthB) Single frequency D) All of above

Q.19 If two or more resistors are joined side by side, this combination is called:A) Series combination of resistors C) Y delta combination of resistorsB) Parallel combination of resistors D) None of the above

Q.20 Which of the following quantities remain the same in/across the resistors connected in series Combination?

A) Charge flow C) Both of the aboveB) Current D) Voltage

Q.21 What is voltage across RL is the given circuit

A) 3.6 V C) 12 VB) 6.3 V D) 10V

Q.22 The strength of the magnetic field outside a solenoid is weak because:A) Lines of force are quite far from each otherB) The lines of force are in the same direction and tend to cancel out the effect of each other C) The lines of force are opposite to each other and tend to cancel out the effect of each other D) Both a and c are correct

Q.23 The direction of magnetic field as given by Fleming’s rule for the solenoid is along:A) Normal to the solenoid C) Can’t be takenB) The axis of the solenoid D) None of the above

Q.24 The direction of magnetic field at a point on the magnetic lines of force can be taken along:A) Normal at that point C) The tangent at that pointB) Axis of the magnetic line of force at that point D) Perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid

Q.25 Shear stress addresses to the:A) Volume changes due to the applied stress C) Shape changes due to the applied stressB) Length changes due to the applied stress D) All of the above

Q.26 The substances undergoing plastic deformation until they break are known asA) Brittle substances C) Elastic substancesB) Ductile substances D) Plastic substances

Q.27 Which of the following will represent OR gate

A) C)

B) D)

Page 2 of 14

Q.28 Energy of the electromagnetic radiation is far more than 1.02 MeV. The dominant process will be

C) Materialization of energyD) All are equally probable

C) Low negative potentialD) Positive potential

C) Gamma raysD) Beta rays

C) Speed of –particlesD) Speed of light and γ–rays

C) Electric and magnetic field

A) Photoelectric effectB) Compton scattering

Q.29 The target in the X ray unit is given a:A) Zero potentialB) High negative potential

Q.30 X rays are similar in nature to:A) Cathode raysB) Canal rays

Q.31 The velocity of X rays is equal to that of:A) Speed of soundB) Speed of electron

Q.32 X rays are affected by:A) Electric field onlyB) Magnetic field only D) None of these

Q.33 The penetrating power of X rays increases with:A) Decrease in velocity C) Increase in velocityB) Increase in frequency D) Decrease in their intensity

Q.34 Display in CRO would be stationary if input signal and saw tooth signal have sameA) Time period C) Both “A” and “B”B) Voltage D) Amplitude

Q.35 Kα characteristic X rays are produced due to the transition of electrons:C) From L to K shellD) From K to L shell

C) C–14

A) From M to L shellB) From N to M shell

Q.36 Name of the atom not used for tracer:A) Na–34B) I–131 D) C–12

Q.37 Which one is more energetic x-rayA) Kα x–ray C) Kγ x–ray B) Kβ x–ray D) All kind of x–rays have same energy

Q.38 The characteristic x-rays appear as discrete lines on a A) Discrete spectrum C) Band spectrumB) Continuous spectrum D) All of these

Q.39 A detector which can count fast and operate at low voltages isC) Wilson could chamberD) Bubble chamber

C) Both “A” and “B”

A) G.M. counterB) Solid state detector

Q.40 Biological effect of radiation depends upon A) Ionization power of radiationB) Nature of part of body D) Nature of material emitting the radiation

Q.41 The unit of the rate of absorption of a radiation to have the same biological effects on different parts of the human body is called a:

A) Roentgen C) RadB) Rem D) Curie

Q.42 A method of recording and producing three dimensional image is named as A) Interference C) Holography B) Diffraction D) Topography

Q.43 Pressure of a gas is:A) Proportional to the average translational K.E. C) Both of the aboveB) Proportional to the absolute temperature D) Proportional to the volume only

Q.44 In solid state detector ____ is used.A) Silicon C) Tin B) Germanium D) Both Si and Ge

Page 3 of 14

CHEMISTRYQ.45 The number of unpaired electrons in an atom with Z=24 at ground state will be

A) 4 C) 3B) 5 D) 6

Q.46 Given the data in the accompanying table for atom XIonization Energies K.cal/ mole1st 2582nd 5553rd 10754th 14805th 9350

The most probable number of valence electrons for atom X isA) 5 C) 4B) 2 D) 3

Q.47 The disadvantage of use of chlorinated water isA) Formation of NH4Cl, NHCl2, NCl3 which are eye irritantsB) Increased risk of bladder and rectal cancer by drinking water C) Offensive odour and taste due to chlorinated phenols.D) All of the above

Q.48 Which is the correct trend of oxidizing power in halogen on moving down the group A) F2 > Cℓ2 > Br2 > I2 C) F2 < Br2 < I2 < Cℓ2

B) Cℓ2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 D) F2 < Cℓ2 < Br2 < I2

Q.49 The coordination No. of Iron in [Fe(C2O4)3] isA) 2 C) 6B) 4 D) 0

Q.50 Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metal is associated withtheir catalytic activityA) Variable oxidation states C) Colour of hydrated ionsB) Paramagnetic behavior D) High enthalpy of atomization

Q.51 Select amongst the followings which is not correct A) Nitrogen is poor conductor of heat and electricityB) It only gives acidic oxidesC) Nitrogen has greatest tendency to attract electronsD) The compounds are predominantly covalent

Q.52 Which of the following is the correct sequence of the steps for the manufacture ofnitric acid by Birkland and Eyde’s processA) Formation of nitric oxide → Oxidation of nitric oxide to nitrous oxide → Absorption of nitric oxide to water to give nitric acid → Oxidation of nitrous acid to nitric acidB) Formation of nitric oxide → Oxidation of nitric oxide to nitrogen peroxide → Absorption of nitric oxide to water to give nitric acid → Oxidation of nitrous acid to nitric acidC) Formation of nitric oxide → Oxidation of nitric oxide to nitrogen dioxide → Absorption of nitric oxide to water to give nitric acid → Reduction of nitrous acid to nitric acidD) None of these is correct

Q.53 In the conversion of nitrogen to ammonia using the Haber process, the main reasonwhy the temperature is limited to about 450oC is because.A) At higher temperature catalyst breaks downB) At higher temperature rate of reaction becomes slowC) At higher temperature amount of ammonia decreasesD) A higher temperature would cost too much money to maintain

Q.54 Avogadro's number is the number of particles present inA) 1 dm3 of molecule C) 1 g of molecu1eB) Mass of one molecule D) 1g atom

Q.55 A balanced chemical equation always contains equalA) Volume of reactants and products C) Number of moles of reactants and productsB) Number of atoms of reactants and products D) Number of molecules of reactants and products

Page 4 of 14

Q.56 The process of evaporation of a liquid in nature is accompanied by A) Increase in enthalpy C) Increase in entropyB) Decrease in free energy D) All of these

Q.57 At the same temperature and pressure helium is more ideal than hydrogen due toA) Greater molar mass C) Lesser molar massB) Greater molecular size D) Lesser molecular size

Q.58 The correct electronic configuration of Cr (Z = 24) is

C) 2 4Ne 4s 3d

D) 2 4Ar 4s 3d

C) Neutron

A) Ne 4s13d5

B) Ar 4s13d5

Q.59 The particle with highest e/m ratio A) Electron B) Proton D) Meson

Q.60 The minimum angle between bond pair –bond pair is shown byA) SnCl2 C) SO3

B) NF3 D) H2OQ.61 In which of the following central atom can not form co-ordinate covalent bond

A) BF3 C) NH4+

B) NH3 D) H2OQ.62 Which one of the following equations correctly defines the enthalpy changes of

formation of carbon monoxideA) C(s) + 1/2O2(g) → CO(g) C) C(s) + O(g) → CO(g) B) C(g) + 1/2O2(g) → CO(g) D) C(g) + CO2(g) → 2CO(g)

Q.63 Which of the following is not applicable to thermochemical process A) It represents chemical changeB) It represents heat changeC) Spontaniety of reactionD) It represents the physical states of reactants and products

Q.64 Which one of the following statement is incorrectA) A solution freezes at a lower temperature than the pure solvent.B) A solution boils at a higher temperature than the pure solvent.C) 0.1m NaCl solution and 0.1m sugar solution have the same boiling pointD) Osmosis cannot take place without a semi–permeable membrane.

Q.65 The molarity of a solution prepared by adding 7.1 g of Na2SO4 (formula weight 142amu) to enough water to make 100 ml volume isA) 2.0M C) 1.0MB) 0.5M D) 0.05M

Q.66 Which one among the following is the strongest reducing agent 2+ -

Fe +2e Fe(-0.44 V) 2+ -Ni +2e Ni(-0.25V)

2+ -Sn +2e Sn(-0.14V) 3+ - 2+

Fe +e Fe (-0.77 V)

A) Fe3+ C) 2+Fe

B) Ni D) SnQ.67 Which of the following statements about the reaction given below are correct

IO3–(aq) + 2I– (aq) + 6H+ (aq) 6Cl– (aq) → 3ICl2

– (aq) + 3H2O(l)A) The oxidation number of iodine in the iodate ion, 10–3 (aq), changes from +5 to +1 B) The oxidation number of iodine in the iodide ion I–, changes from –1 to +2.C) The oxidation number of chlorine in the iodide ion I–, changes from –1 to –2D) Iodate ions are oxidized

Q.68 Acidic buffer can be prepared by mixingA) Weak acid and weak base C) Strong acid and strong baseB) Weak acid and strong base D) Strong base and strong acid

Q.69 Very small value of Kc for a reaction at equilibrium indicatesA) Very small amount of reactantsB) Very small amount of productsC) The rate of backward reaction is greater than that of the forward one D) The rate of forward reaction is greater than that of the backward one

Page 5 of 14

Q.70 Which of the following statements best describes how a catalyst worksA) A catalyst changes the potential energies of the reactants and productsB) A catalyst decreases the temperature of the reaction which leads to a faster rateC) A catalyst lowers the activation energy barrier for the reaction by providing a different reaction mechanismD) A catalyst raises the activation energy for the reaction which produces a faster rate

Q.71 The rate constant of a first order reaction is 3×10–6 per second. If the initial concentration is 0.10 M, the initial rate of reaction is

C) -6 -13×10 Ms

D) -7 -13×10 Ms

C) 1-9%

A) 3×10-5

Ms-1

B) 3×10-8

Ms-1

Q.72 Coal contain sulphur A) 1-3%B) 2-5% D) 3-8%

Q.73 The IUPAC name of the following compound is

A) 2, 4, 5–triheptene C) 2, 4, 6– trihepteneB) Hepta–1, 3, 5–triene D) 2, 4, 6– heptatfiene

Q.74 Propylacetate and valeric acid are which type of isomersA) Tautomers C) PositionB) Functional D) Metamers

Q.75 The product formed by acid catalysed hydration of 2-phenyl propene isA) 3–phenyl–2–propanol C) l–phenyl–l–propanolB) 2–phenyl–2–propanol D) l–phenyl–l–propanol

Q.76 Markownikoff’s rule is best applicable to the reaction between A) C3H6 + Br2 C) C3H8 + Br2 B) C2H4 + HCl D) C3H6 + HBr

Q.77 A compound X (C4H9Br) undergoes the following reactions

2-

2 7Cr O ,H+(aq)/heatNaOH(aq)/heat4 9 4 10 4 8C H Br C H O C H O What is X

A) 1–Bromobutane C) 1–bromo–2–methylpropaneB) 2–Bromobutane D) 2–Bromo–2–Methylpropane

Q.78 Elimination from 2–bromobutane results in A) Equimolar mixture of 1 and 2–butene C) Predominantly 1–butaneB) Predominantly 2–butene D) 2–butyne

Q.79 The compound ‘leaf alcohol’ is partly responsible for the smell of new-mown grass

Which two compounds will be formed when ‘leaf alcohol’ is oxidized using hot,concentrated manganate(VII) ions?A) CH3CO2H and HOCH2CH2CH2CO2H C) CH3CH2CO2H and HO2CCH2CO2HB) CH3CO2H and HO2CCH2CH2CO2H D) CH3CH2CO2H and HOCH2CH2CO2H

Q.80 Consider the following statements about fermentation process. Which of them is notincorrectI. CO2 is produced in all fermentation reactionsII. It is an endothermic processIII. Occurs at extremely low temperature

C) I and IID) II and III

C) 95%

A) I onlyB) I and III

Q.81 Rectified spirit has percentage of alcohol A) 12 %

B) 24% D) 100%Q.82 Dehydration of methyl alcohol with concentrated sulphuric acid gives

A) CH3CHO C) HCHOB) C2H4 D) None of these

Page 6 of 14

Q.83 Aldehyde and ketone give which of the following mechanism of reaction A) Electroophilic addition reaction C) Elimination reaction B) Nucleophilic addition reaction D) Electrophilic substitution reaction

Q.84 Ketones are less reactive than aldehydes due to A) Stearic hindrance C) Both “A” and “B” B) Inductive effect of alkyl group D) Neither “A” nor “B”

Q.85 Addition of CN- to a carbonyl group will be most favoured byC) CH3 – COCH3

D) CH3 – CO – CH2CH3

C) Benzyl dichloride

A) HCHO B) CH3CHO

Q.86 C6H5COCl is named as A) Benzyl chloride B) Benzoyl chloride D) Benzaldehyde

Q.87 Ethanol can be converted in ethanoic acid byA) Hydrogenation C) OxidationB) Hydration D) Fermentation

Q.88 Which is not base catalyzed reaction of carbonyl compound like aldehyde A) Addition of NaHSO3 C) Haloform reactionB) Addition with HCN D) Polymerization

Q.89 Which of the following amino acids can form hydrogen bonds with their side (R) groupsA) Asparagine C) Aspartic acidB) Glutamine D) All of these

Q.90 Which of the following is an essential amino acidA) Tryptophan C) MethionineB) Lysine D) All of these

Q.91 Serine and threonine are polar amino acids due toA) Reactive hydroxyl group in the side chain C) Reactive keto group in the side chain B) Reactive alcoholic group in the side chain D) Reactive aldehyde group in the side chain

Q.92 Which of the following amino acids has the highest nitrogen content per mole A) Arginine C) AsparagineB) Glutamine D) Alanine

Q.93 Condensation reactions form covalent bonds between the one of amino acid and theof a second amino acid during protein synthesisA) R group; R group C) Amino group; R group B) Amino group carboxyl group D) Carboxyl group R group

Q.94 Which of the following is not a neutral amino acid C) Proline D) Alanine

C) Polyamide polymer

A) ValineB) Histidine

Q.95 Nylon threads are made ofA) Polyester polymerB) Polyvinyl polymer D) Polyethylene polymer

Q.96 Which of the following is not an example of addition polymerA) Polystyrene C) NylonB) PVC D) Propylene

Q.97 The conversion of maltose to glucose is possible by the enzymeC) LactaseD) Diastase

C) FructoseD) Sucrose

C) GlycogenD) Glucose

C) Adipic acid and methyl amine

A) ZymaseB) Maltase

Q.98 Cellulose is a polymer ofA) Glucose B) Ribose

Q.99 Iodine test is shown byA) StarchB) Polypeptides

Q.100 Nylon – 66 is a polyamide of A) Vinylchloride and formaldehyde B) Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine D) Formaldehyde and melamine

Page 7 of 14

Q.101 Which one of the following is an invaluable source of energy but does not cause pollutionA) Fossil fuels C) Nuclear energyB) Sun D) Petroleum

Q.102 During the disinfection by Chlorine, if water contains NH3 then possible side effects areA) Chlorinated phenol B) Chloroform

C) Chlorammines D) H2S

ENGLISHDirections: Choose the right option to complete the following sentences.

Q.103 All the _________and ceremony of the royal marriage was telecast on tv.A) Festival B) Pomp C) Happiness D) Romp

Q.104 A glue produced by bees to _____ their hives appears to contain antibioticsubstances.A) Build B) Decorate C) Collect D) Structure

Q.105 Shaken by two decades of virtual anarchy, the majority of people was ready tobuy________ at any price.A) Order B) Hope C) Liberty D) Emancipation

Q.106 Many myths and legends, however ________, often possess a grain of truth.A) Delightful B) Accurate C) Unbelievable D) Eternal

SPOT THE ERRORIn the first type of sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.

Q.107 It should also help you to understand how can you make better use of the scientific A) B) C)

method in your every day living. D)

Q.108 We wish today was sunny so that we could spend the day in the country communing with nature.A) B) C) D)

Q.109 My brother doesn’t care how much does the car cost because he is going to buy it anyway. A) B) C) D)

Q.110 Stevens was very delighted to see that he was declared more popular than any talk show A) B) C)

host in the USA. D)

Q.111 Wax tablets were wooden planks covering in a thick enough coating of wax to record the A) B) C)

impressions of a stylus. D)

Q.112 If England had not imposed a tax on tea two hundred and twenty years ago, will the A) B) C) D)United States have remained part of the British Commonwealth?

Directions: In each question in the following, four alternative sentences are given. Choose theCORRECT one and fill the circle corresponding to that letter in the answer sheet.

Q.113 A) Christopher could not tackle the drink until he had not boiled it. B) Until he had boiled It, Christopher could not tackle the drink. C) Christopher could not tackle the drink until he had boiled it. D) Christopher could not tackle the drink till he had not boil it.

Page 8 of 14

Q.114 A) The parent who I have offended often come around after a term of years and tell methat his son was right. B) The parent who I have offended often comes around after a term of years and tells me that his son was right. C) The parents whom I have offended often comes around after a term of years and tells that his son was right. D) The parent whom I have offended often comes around after a term of years and tells me that his son was right.

Q.115 A) Adam begins each day with warm-up exercises, a long run and taking a hot shower. B) Adam begin each day with warm-up exercises a long run and taking a hot shower. C) Adam begins each day with warm-up exercises, long run and to take a hot shower. D) Adam begins each day with warm-up exercises, a long run and a hot shower.

Q.116 A) Last year, Matt earned twice as much as his brother, who has a better position. B) Last year, Matt earn twice more than his brother, who has a better position. C) Last year, Matt earned twice as many as his brother, who has a better position. D) Last year, Matt earned twice as more as his brother, which has a better position.

Q.117 A) Most members of the trade union rejected the mayor’s demand that they return to work. B) Most members of the trade union rejected the mayor’s demand that the members return to work. C) Most members of the trade union rejected the mayor’s demand for them to return to work. D) Most members of the trade union rejected the mayor’s demand that they would return to work.

Q.118 A) Mr.Bittering had raised the mirror to his face. B) Mr.Bittering rose the mirror to his face. C) Mr.Bittering raised the mirror to his face. D) Mr.Bittering had risen the mirror at his face.

Q.119 A) When Friday rolls around, do you go to the mall, head for a bar, or are you going to work?B) When Friday rolls around, do you go to the mall, head for a bar, or go to work?C) When Friday rolls around, do you go to the mall, heading for a bar, or are you going to work?D) When Friday rolls around, are you going to the mall, head for a bar, or are you going to work?

Q.120 A) A thousand million litres of water are delivered to the district daily. B) Thousand million litres of water are delivered to the district daily. C) A thousand million litres of water is delivered to the district daily. D) A thousand million litre of water are delivered to the district daily.

Q.121 A) The space program has been battered in bureaucratic wrangling. B) The space program has been battered into bureaucratic wrangling. C) The space program has been battered by bureaucratic wrangling. D) The space program has been battered to bureaucratic wrangling.

Q.122 A) Then he sat down in corner and remained quite.B) Then he sat down in corner and remained quite. C) Then he sat down in corner and remain quiet. D) Then he sat down in corner and remained quiet.

Directions: In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate Bubble / Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

Q.123 DEMUREB) Contradict C) Allure D) MurmuringA) Retiring

Q.124 DISDAINA) Condescension B) Mundane C) Adore D) Decorum

Page 9 of 14

B) Incarnate C) Pull up D) Send for

B) Elegance C) Diffidence D) Conflict

B) Velvety C) Frowzy D) Jagged

B) Impersonate C) Generate D) Dissipate

B) Scathing C) Strident D) Deficit

B) Vivacity C) Nimbleness D) Satisfaction

Q.125 DERACINATEA) Inculcate

Q.126 DISSONANCEA) Assonance

Q.127 DOWNYA) Brownie

Q.128 EMULATEA) Humiliate

Q.129 DULCETA) Assonant

Q.130 ENNUIA) Languor

Q.131 EXONERATEA) Validate B) Indict C) Vindicate D) Hibernate

Q.132 DISCOMBOBULATEA) Exonerate B) Decelerate C) Disconcert D) Ameliorate

BIOLOGY

C) Morphology Q.133 Study of environmental relations is called:

A) Physiology B) Paleontology D) Ecology

Q.134 Synecology is study of _______ in relation with environment:C) EcosystemD) Biosphere

C) Recombinant plant

A) Community B) Population

Q.135 Any plant containing foreign gene:A) Clone B) Transgenic plant D) Eugenic plant

Q.136 Killing of aphid by use of wasp is an example of:A) Bioremediation C) Biological controlB) Bioabsorption D) Chemical control

Q.137 Endocytosis which involves ingestion of solid material is called:A) Pinocytosis C) Phagocytosis B) Solidocytosis D) Exocytosis

Q.138 Ribosomes are composed of almost an equal amount of:C) RNA & Lipid

D) RNA & Carbohydrate

C) Karyokinesis

A) Protein & lipid B) Protein & RNA

Q.139 Process that is absent in plant cell:A) Cytokinesis B) Osmosis D) Phagocytosis

C) Cell membraneD) Slime

C) Plants

Q.140 Outermost boundary in plant cell is:A) Cell wall B) Capsule

Q.141 DNA is not enclosed in nucleus of:A) Fungi B) Animals D) Cyanobacteria

Q.142 Golgi apparatus in plants can also be called as:C) Dictyosome D) Glyoxisome

C) Multinucleated cell

A) LysosomeB) Peroxisome

Q.143 Mitosis without cytokinesis results in a:A) Monokaryoticell B) Uninucleated cell D) Anucleated cell

Q.144 Which structure of plant cell does not permit cytokinesis by furrowing?A) Cell membrane C) Cell wallB) Centriole D) Phragmoplast

Page 10 of 14

Q.145 Which phases of mitosis are opposite to each other? A) Prophase & metaphase C) Metaphase & telophaseB) Prophase & telophase D) Prophase & Anaphase

Q.146 All of the following are related with mitosis except:C) Tissue cultureD) Conjugation

C) Polyploid

A) CloningB) Healing

Q.147 Which cell can undergo meiosis?A) HaploidB) Diploid D) Monoploid

Q.148 Pairing and tetrad formation is characteristics of: A) Leptotene C) ZygoteneB) Pachytene D) Diplotene

Q.149 In a a cell dividing through meiosis, number of chiasmata at end of diakinesis is: A) 0 C) 1B) 2 D) Many

Q.150 Lowest number of chromosome in eukaryotic cell is 1 pair which is present in:C) CyanobacteriaD) Penecillium

C) CelluloseD) Sucrose

C) Pentose

A) BacteriaB) Virus

Q.151 It is least soluble in water is: A) GlucoseB) Lactose

Q.152 Dihydroxyacetone is a:A) HexoseB) Tetrose D) Triose

Q.153 One which contains carbon to carbon double bond:C) Butyric acidD) Acetic acid

C) TripeptideD) Polypeptide

A) Oleic acidB) Palmitic acid

Q.154 Glycylalanine is a: A) DipeptideB) Amino acid

Q.155 Adenine and guanine are: A) Main nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids C) Main nitrogenous wastes of humans

B) Main nitrogenous bases of phospholipids D) Main types of amino acids in proteinsQ.156 Optimum temperature for enzymes of human body is:

A) 90 0F C) 98 0FB) 95 0F D) 100 0F

Q.157 The cofactor usually acts as ” bridge” between:C) Coenzyme & substrateD) Activator & substrate

A) Enzyme & substrateB) Enzyme & product

Q.158 It is not true about induce fit model:A) Explains mechanism of enzyme action C) Enzyme is a flexible structure

D) Enzyme doesn’t show change during reaction

C) Highly alkalineD) Slightly acidic

C) CofactorD) Inhibitor

C) ViroidD) Venome

C) DiplococcusD) E. coli

C) Antiseptics

B) Enzyme is specific in natureQ.159 The optimum pH of catalase is:

A) Slightly alkalineB) Highly acidic

Q.160 Cyanide for enzymes act as:A) SubstrateB) Prosthetic group

Q.161 HIV is a:A) VirionB) Prion

Q.162 Example of rod shape bacteria are:A) SpirocheteC) Rhizopus

Q.163 Tetracycline and penicillin are A) DisinfectantsB) Antibiotics D) Antigens

Q.164 It is a drug that is obtained from fungi and also used against fungi: Page 11 of 14

C) LovastatinD) Ergotin

C) Lycopersicum

A) PenicillinB) Griseofulvin

Q.165 Genus name of pepper is:A) CapsicumB) Cestrum D) annum

Q.166 Following alkaloid is obtained from Atropa balladona:A) Atropine C) StreptomycinB) Senna D) Daturine

Q.167 It is used to make alcohol from molasses after getting table sugar: C) Sugar caneD) Lemon grass

C) OsculumD) Pore

C) Ancylostoma

A) BarleyB) Potato

Q.168 In sponges, water enters through:A) OstiaB) Siphon

Q.169 Endoparasite that inhabits blood of host:A) FasciolaB) Schistosoma D) Taenia

Q.170 Number of main digestion sites in human digestive system are:C) 3D) 1

C) Teeth

A) 2B) 4

Q.171 Mastication is the main function of:A) Lips B) Tongue D) Cheeks

Q.172 Muscular tube that passes through pharynx and joins stomach is:A) Trachea C) Nerve canalB) NG tube D) Esophagus

Q.173 These are finger like projections that increase surface area of ileum:A) Villi C) FoldsC) Microvilli D) Crypts

Q.174 Lungs are separated from abdominal cavity by a muscular sheath called:A) Pleura C) PericardiumB) Rib cage D) Diaphragm

Q.175 Most of the oxygen in our body is transported through:C) PlasmaD) Lymph

C) Bone marrowD) Thymus

C) AntibodyD) Tubulin

C) Xanthine

A) WaterB) Blood

Q.176 In adults, RBCs are formed in:A) LiverB) Spleen

Q.177 Substance formed by basophils:A) HeparinB) Histones

Q.178 Which one is not a nitrogen waste?A) HypoxanthineB) Xanthophyll D) Allantoin

Q.179 Right kidney is slightly lower than left kidney due to:A) Heart C) PancreasB) Liver D) Lungs

Q.180 Capillaries present around the loop of Henele:A) Vasa recta C) LactealsB) Peritubular D) Glomerulus

Q.181 The only possible treatment in end stage renal failure is:A) Hemodialysis C) LithotripsyB) Peritoneal dialysis D) Kidney transplantation

Q.182 Ureters open into the urinary bladder through:A) Pelvis C) Ureteral orificesB) Hilus D) Urethral orifices

Q.183 It is involved in screening of sensory information coming from eyes and ears:A) Forebrain C) Hindbrain

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B) Midbrain D) Spinal cordQ.184 Major coordinating centre of human body is:

C) HypothalamusD) Cerebellum

C) Relay neurons

A) ThalamusB) Cerebrum

Q.185 Glands and muscles are activated by:A) Sensory neuronsB) Associative neuron D) Motor neurons

Q.186 The system involved in preparing our body in condition of stress and emergency:A) Nervous system only C) Both nervous & endocrine systemB) Endocrine system only D) Both endocrine & exocrine system

Q.187 Testes consist of complex duct system called as;C) Seminiferous tubules

D) Ejaculatory duct

C) Secondary oocyte

A) Vas deferensB) Malpighian tubules

Q.188 In humans, ovaries after birth contain:A) OogoniaB) Primary oocyte D) Ova

Q.189 Fallopian tube in humans is important for:C) ConceptionD) Development

C) GreyD) Black

C) Spirillum D) Spirochete

C) Axial skeletonD) Appendicular skeleton

C) Nasal, Lacrimal

A) OvulationB) Fertilization

Q.190 Colour of corpus leuteum is:A) RedB) Yellow

Q.191 Syphilis is caused by:A) CoccusB) Bacillus

Q.192 Skeleton of arms and legs is:A) ExoskeletonB) Endoskeleton

Q.193 Unpaired facial bones are:A) Maxilla, Zygomatic B) Palatine, Inferior concha D) Mandible, Vomer

Q.194 These are the vertebrae of abdominal region:C) ThoracicD) Pelvis

C) Sacrum

A) CervicalB) Lumbar

Q.195 Pelvic girdle connects hind limb with:A) ScapulaB) Hip bone D) Coccyx

Q.196 All of the following are true about skeletal muscles except:A) Striated C) VoluntaryB) Uninucleate D) Movement

Q.197 A hormone actually controls a process by acting on:C) ReceptorD) Product

C) InsulinD) Oxytocin

C) At puberty

A) SubstrateB) Enzyme

Q.198 Hormone produced by hypothalamus:A) ProgesteroneB) Thyroxin

Q.199 Somatotrophic releasing factor is secreted:A) In child hoodB) In old age D) Throughout life

Q.200 It is a hormone that regulates our diurnal rhythms:A) Melatonin C) MelanotoninB) MSH D) Prolactin

Q.201 Which are components of immune system?C) B lymphocytesD) All “A” “B” “C”

C) Mostly protein

A) T lymphocytesB) Antibodies

Q.202 Chemical nature of an antibody is:A) ProteinB) Carbohydrates D) Lipid

Q.203 Polypeptide chains in an antibody are held together through: A) Peptide bond C) Disulphide linkageB) Hydrogen bond D) Glycosidic linkage

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Q.204 Cell mediated immune response is developed by: A) Neutrophils C) B lymphocytesB) Monocytes D) T lymphocytes

Q.205 In snake bite, passive immunity is produced by:A) Antigen C) AntisepticB) Antivenom D) Antibiotic

Q.206 Photosynthetic pigments are organized into clusters called:A) Cytochromes C) PhotosystemsB) Phytochromes D) Chromatophores

Q.207 The carotenes are red to________ pigments:A) Blue C) YellowB) Orange D) Green

Q.208 The membranes found in stroma of chloroplast form an elaborate interconnected setof flat, disc like sacs called:A) Cristae C) ThylakoidsB) Cisternae D) Tonoplast

Q.209 Pyruvic acid (pyruvate) is the end product of:A) Krebs cycle C) Calvin cycleB) Urea cycle D) Glycolysis

Q.210 Which is an iron containing compound involved in light dependent phase ofphotosynthesis?A) Ferridoxin C) NADPB) Plastocynin D) Chlorophyll

Q.211 A probe is a single stranded nucleotide sequence that will hybridize during genesequencing into certain: A) DNA C) RNAB) Amino acid D) Fatty acid

Q.212 In patients with cystic fibrosis, there is formation of:C) HematomaD) Atheroma

C) Restriction endonucleaseD) DNA ligase

C) Treatment by geneD) Inheritance of gene

C) DNA polymerase

A) Blood clotB) Mucus plug

Q.213 Flanking site is important for:A) Reverse transcriptaseB) Taq polymerase

Q.214 Gene therapy involves:A) Analysis of DNAB) Cloning of DNA

Q.215 PCR taken its name from: A) RNA polymeraseB) DNA ligase D) Endonuclease

Q.216 An important turning point for evolutionary theory was the birth of:A) Population ecology C) Population geneticsB) Demography D) Biometry

Q.217 Prokaryotes are the ancestors of all life as evident from:C) Molecular biologyD) All “A” “B” “C”

C) HerbivoresD) Decomposers

C) DetritusD) Sun

C) High rain fall regions

A) BiochemistryB) Cell biology

Q.218 3rd trophic level in a food chain is:A) ProducerB) Carnivores

Q.219 Main source of energy in an ecosystem is:A) WindB) Humus

Q.220 Regions suitable for forest growth: A) DesertB) Grasslands D) Tundra

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