Q1

Volume of distribution of Paracetamol is?

A. 500 ml/kg body weight

B. 1 L/kg body weight

C. 5 L/kg body weight

D. 25 L/kg body weight

Correct answer : B. 1 L/kg body weight

Q2

Who is known as the Father of Pharmacology?

A. Oswald Schmiedeberg

B. J Langley

C. Rudolf Buchheim

D. Paul Ehrlich

Correct answer : A. Oswald Schmiedeberg

Q3

Which of the following is not an action of muscarinic antagonists?

A. Reduce respiratory secretions

B. Reduce gastric secretions

C. Contraction of radial muscles of iris

D. Increase rate of conduction in the heart

Q4

Buprenorphine is a?

A. Partial mu agonist

B. Full mu agonist

C. Partial kappa agonist

D. Full kappa agonist

Correct answer : A. Partial mu agonist

Q5

Which of the following is an integrase inhibitor currently in use for the

treatment of HIV infection?

A. Indinavir

B. Elvitegravir

C. Saquinavir

D. Raltegravir

Correct answer : D. Raltegravir

Q6

Tolerance develops to all of the following effects of opioids except?

A. Euphoria

B. Miosis

C. Analgesia

D. Nausea

Correct answer : B. Miosis

Q7

Which of the following is used to decrease the toxicity of amphotericin

B?

A. Dose reduction

B. Liposomal delivery systems

C. Supplementing glucose

D. Giving it along with flucytosine

Correct answer : B. Liposomal delivery systems

Q8

False statement regarding phenytoin is?

A. It is a teratogenic drug

B. Highly protein bound

C. Induces insulin secretion

D. Follows saturation kinetics

Correct answer : C. Induces insulin secretion

Q9

MAO inhibitors are contraindicated in a patient taking?

A. Pethidine

B. Buprenorphine

C. Morphine

D. Pentazocine

Correct answer : A. Pethidine > D. Pentazocine

Q10

Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of ?

A. Generalized tonic clonic seizures

B. Absence seizures

C. Simple partial seizures

D. Complex partial seizures

Correct answer : B. Absence seizures

Q11

All of the following drugs cross the placenta except?

A. Phenytoin

B. Diazepam

C. Morphine

D. Heparin

Correct answer : D. Heparin

Q12

Which of the following drugs have a narrow therapeutic index?

A. Lithium

B. Diazepam

C. Penicillin

D. Desipramine

Correct answer : A. Lithium

Q13

Which of the following is used for the treatment of chlamydia infection

in pregnancy?

A. Tetracycline

B. Erythromycin

C. Azithromycin

D. Doxycycline

Correct answer : C. Azithromycin

Q14

Simeprevir is used for the treatment of ?

A. HIV

B. CMV infection

C. Kaposi sarcoma

D. Chronic Hepatitis C

Correct answer : D. Chronic Hepatitis C

Q15

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are useful in the management of ?

A. Acute myeloid leukemia

B. Small cell carcinoma of lung

C. Gastrointestinal stromal tumors

D. Neurofibromatosis

Correct answer : C. Gastrointestinal stromal tumors

Q16

Which of the following is used in the treatment of meningococcal

meningitis in patients allergic to penicillin?

A. Ciprofloxacin

B. Teicoplanin

C. Meropenem

D. Chloramphenicol

Correct answer : D. Chloramphenicol

Q17

Drug of choice in eclampsia:

a) Oral magnesium sulphate

b) Intravenous magnesium sulphate

c) Oral phenytoin sodium

d) Intravenous phenytoin sodium

Correct answer: b) Intravenous magnesium sulphate

Q18

Ibrutinib is used for the management of ?

A. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

B. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

C. Mantle Cell Lymphoma

D. Lymphocyte rich Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

Correct answer : C. Mantle Cell Lymphoma

Q19

Not true about Na+ K+ 2Cl- Co-transporter:

a) It is a glycoprotein

b) 12 membrane spanning domains

c) There are distinct isoforms for secretory and absorptive function

d) The secretory form is found exclusively in thick segment of ascending

limb of loop of Henle

Correct answer: d) The secretory form is found exclusively in thick

segment of ascending limb of loop of Henle.

Q20

Which of the following is not a loop diuretic:

a) Fruesmide

b) Torsemide

c) Ethacrynic acid

d) Chlorthalidone

Correct answer: d) Chlorthalidone (Thiazide like diuretic)

Q21

Which of the following has a uricosuric action:

a) Allopurinol

b) Losartan

c) Ramipril

d) Atenolol

Correct answer: b) Losartan

Q22

The action of Furosemide in acute pulmonary edema due acute left

ventricular failure is by:

a) Pulmonary venodilation

b) Increasing urine formation

c) Decreases blood volume

d) All of the above

Correct answer: d) All of the above

Q23

Drug class causing free water clearance:

a) Diuretic

b) Saluretic

c) Uricosuric

d) Aquaretic

Correct answer: d) Aquaretic

Q24

Mineralocorticoid Receptors are found in all of the following, Except?

A. Liver

B. Colon

C. Hippocampus

D. Kidney

Correct answer : A. Liver

Q25

All of the following are known adverse effects of thalidomide, except:

A. Diarrhoea

B. Teratogenicity

C. Deep Vein Thrombosis

D. Peripheral Neuropathy

Correct answer : A. Diarrhoea

Q26

Which of the following antihypertensive drugs should not be used in a

patient on Lithium in order to prevent Lithium Toxicity?

A. Clonidine

B. Beta blockers

C. Calcium Channel Blockers

D. Diuretics

Correct answer : D. Diuretics

Q27

Alkalinization of urine is done during administration of which of the

following chemotherapeutic drugs?

A. Ara-C (Cytarabine)

B. Methotrexate

C. Cisplatin

D. Ifosfamide

Correct answer : B. Methotrexate

Q28

Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of

Thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppressive cancer chemotherapy?

A. Filgrastim

B. Sargramostim

C. Oprelvekin

D. Erythropoietin

Correct answer : C. Oprelvekin

Q29

All of the following statements about Aprepitant are true except?

A. Agonist at Neurokinin receptor (NK1)

B. Crosses blood brain barrier

C. Metabolised by CYP3A4 pathway

D. Ameliorates nausea and vomiting of chemotherapy

Correct answer : A. Agonist at Neurokinin receptor (NK1)

Q30

All of the following statement s about ‘Erlotinib’ are true except? A. Tyrosine kinase inhibitor

B. Food decreases its absorption

C. Rashes may occur

D. Used in non small cell lung carcinoma

Correct answer : B. Food decreases its absorption

Q31

All of the following statements about Selective Estrogen Receptor

Downregulator (SERD), Fulvestrant are true, Except

A. It is a selective estrogen antagonist

B. Used in the treatment of breast cancer

C. Slower acting, safer and less effective than SERM

D. May be administered as ‘once a month’ dose

Correct answer : C. Slower acting, safer and less effective than SERM

Q32

All of the following statements about Ranolazine are true, except:

A. Piperazine derived antianginal agent

B. May be used as ?rst line agent in chronic angina

C. May improve Glycemic control

D. Hypotension is an established adverse effect

Correct answer : D. Hypotension is an established adverse effect

Q33

All of the following statements about meglitinides are true, except:

A. Act by stimulating insulin release

B. Decrease Postprandial Hyperglycemia

C. Hypoglycemia is less common than with sulfonylureas

D. Act by decreasing insulin resistance

Correct answer : D. Act by decreasing insulin resistance

Q34

lntegrase inhibitors approved for HIV is:

A. Raltegravir

B. lndinavir

C. Lopinavir

D. Elvitegravir

Correct answer : A. Raltegravir

Q35

Amphotericin B treatment mandates the monitoring of which of the

following electrolytes:

A. Na+

B. Ca2+

C. K+

D. Mg2+

Correct answer : C. K+

Q36

Prolonged treatment with INH leads to de?ciency of

A. Pyridoxine

B. Thiamine

C. Pantothenic acid

D. Niacin

Correct answer : A. Pyridoxine

Q37

A patient who was given primaquine develops dark coloured urine one day

after administration of the drug. The likely diagnosis is

A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

B. Glucose-6- phosphatase deficiency

C. Galactose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase de?ciency

D. Galactose-6-phosphatase deficiency

Correct answer : A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

Q38

Which of the following agents is not associated with Hyperthermia

A. Amphetamines

B. MAO inhibitors

C. Atropine

D. Alcohol

Correct answer : D. Alcohol

Q39

All of the following statements about serotonin syndrome are true,

except:

A. lt is not an idiosyncratic reaction

B. Can be caused by SSRI

C. Dantrolene is the drug of choice

D. Associated with hyperthermia and hypertension

Correct answer : C. Dantrolene is the drug of choice

Q40

Which of the following drug is most commonly used world wide in

maintenance doses for opioid dependence

A. Naltrexone

B. Methadone

C. lmipramine

D. Disul?ram

Correct answer : B. Methadone

Q41

BAL is useful in treating poisoning due to all except?

A. Lead

B. Organic mercury

C. Cadmium

D. Arsenic

Correct answer : C. Cadmium

Q42

Which of the following statements is not true about Tacrolimus?

A. It is macrolide Antibiotic

B. lt is indicated for the prophylaxis of organ transplant rejection

C. Glucose intolerance is a well Recognized side effect

D. It can be safely administered with any Nephrotoxic drug

Correct answer : D. It can be safely administered with any Nephrotoxic

drug

Q43

Clinically significant drug interaction occurs between pyridoxine and all

the following drugs except?

A. Isoniazid

B. Cyclosporine

C. Levodopa

D. Hydralazine

Correct answer : B. Cyclosporine

Q44

Which is the most active single chemotherapeutic agent in the treatment

of Leiomyosarcoma?

A. Adriamycin

B. Doxorubicin

C. Methotrexate

D. Cisplatin

Correct answer : A. Adriamycin / B. Doxorubicin

Q45

All of the following are hormonal agents used against breast cancer

except?

A. Letrozole

B. Exemestane

C. Taxol

D. Tamoxifen

Correct answer : C. Taxol

Q46

atients suffering from multidrug resistant tuberculosis can be treated

with all the following drugs except:

A. Tobramycin

B. Amikacin

C. Ciprofloxacin

D. Clarithromycin

Correct answer : A. Tobramycin

Q47

A 30 year old pregnant woman developes tuberculosis. Which of the

following antitubercular drugs should not be used:

A. INH

B. Rifampicin

C. Streptomycin

D. Ethambutol

Correct answer : C. Streptomycin

Q48

Which of the following Antimicrobials has Antipseudomonal action:

A. Cefopodoxime proxetil

B. Ceforanide

C. Cefotetan

D. Cefoperazone

Correct answer : D. Cefoperazone

Q49

Which of the following fluoroquinolones does not require dose adjustment

in a patient with creatinine clearance of < 50mg/min?

A. Ciprofloxacin

B. Trovafloxacin

C. Lomefloxacin

D. Sparfloxacin

Correct answer : B. Trovafloxacin

Q50

A post operative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started

on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the

patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the

review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had

started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in

action. Which one of the following is the most likely

combination that was given?

A. Vancomycin and Amikacin

B. Cephalexin and Gentamicin

C. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol

D. Ciprofloxacin and Piperacillin

Correct answer : C. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol

Q51

Which of the following statements is not true regarding sulfonamides:

A. Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT

B. Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration

C. Sulfonamide administration to Newborn may cause Kernicterus

D. Sulfonamides are of value in treatment of infections due to Norcardia

species

Correct answer : A. Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT

Q52

Morphine can be used in all the following conditions except:

A. Head injury

B. Asthma

C. Hypothyroidism

D. Diabetes

Correct answer : A. Head injury

Q53

Which of the following action is ascribed to delta type of opioid

receptors?

A. Supraspinal analgesis

B. Respiratory depression

C. Euphoria

D. Reduced intestinal motility

Correct answer : A. Supraspinal analgesis

Q54

Drug implicated for prolonging QT interval in a premature baby is :

A. Domperidone

B. Metoclopramide

C. Cisapride

D. Omeprazole

Correct answer : C. Cisapride

Q55

All the following statements regarding interactions of levodopa are

correct except:

A. In Parkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy

B. It is a prodrug

C. Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism

D. Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic

potential

Correct answer : D. Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its

therapeutic potential

Q56

A patient of peptic ulcer was prescribed ranitidine and sucralfate in the

morning hours. Why is this combination incorrect:

A. Ranitidine combines with sucralfate and prevents its action

B. Combination of these two drugs produces serious side effects like

agranulacytosis

C. Ranitidine decreases the gastric pH so sucralfate is not able to act

D. Sucralfate inhibits absorption of ranitidine

Correct answer : D. Sucralfate inhibits absorption of ranitidine

Q57

Which of the following is not an adverse effect of chronic amiodarone

therapy?

A. Pulmonary fibrosis

B. Hypothyroidism

C. Hyperthyroidism

D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Correct answer : D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Q58

A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral stenosis with atrial fibrillation

is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he

developed a regular pulse of 64/min. The most likely drug being

administered was:

A. Verapamil

B. Digoxin

C. Carvedilol

D. Propranolol

Correct answer : B. Digoxin

Q59

Which of the following does not bind to GABA receptor chloride channels?

A. Ethanol

B. Alfaxalone

C. Zolpidem

D. Buspirone

Correct answer : D. Buspirone

Q60

All of the following are advantages of using Raloxifene over estrogen in

post menopasual women except?

A. Reduces fracture rates

B. Avoids Endometrial hyperplasia

C. Reduces incidence of venous thrombosis

D. No increase in incidence of breast carcinomas

Correct answer : C. Reduces incidence of venous thrombosis

Q61

All of the following Anticancer agents cause bone marrow depression

except?

A. Chlorambucil

B. Daunorubicin

C. Doxorubicin

D. Flutamide

Correct answer : D. Flutamide

Q62

All of the following statements about an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor are

true except:

A. Reduces intestinal absorbtion of carbohydrates

B. Effective in both type l & 2 diabetes

C. Hypoglycemia is a common & serious side effect

D. Can be used with other oral Hypoglycemic drugs

Correct answer : C. Hypoglycemia is a common & serious side effect

Q63

Which one of the following statements about biguanides is not true?

A. Don’t stimulate insulin Release B. Decrease hepatic glucose production

C. Renal Dysfunction is not a contraindication for their use

D. Can be combined with sulfonylureas

Correct answer : C. Renal Dysfunction is not a contraindication for their

use

Q64

Sympathomimetic drugs are useful in the therapy of all of the following

conditions except?

A. Acute decompensated heart failure

B. Hypotension

C. Hypertension

D. Erectile dysfunction

Correct answer : D. Erectile dysfunction

Q65

In which of the following phases of clinical trial of drug, ethical

clearance is not required?

A. Phase I

B. Phase II

C. Phase III

D. Phase IV

Correct answer : D. Phase IV

Q66

A highly ionized drug :

A. Is excreted mainly by the kidneys

B. Corsses the placental barrier easily

C. Is well absorbed from the intestine

D. Is highly protein bound

Correct answer : A. Is excreted mainly by the kidneys

Q67

A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most

likely aetiological agent is:

A. Hepatitis B virus

B. Hepatitis C virus

C. Hepatitis E virus

D. Hepatitis A virus

Correct answer : C. Hepatitis E virus

Q68

Regarding methanol poisoning

Assertion: Administration of ethanol is one of the treatment modalities

Reason: Ethanol inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase

A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct

explanation for the Assertion

B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct

explanation for the Assertion

C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false

D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true

Q69

Safest pain killer that can be administered in renal failure patients?

A. Nimesulide

B. Sulindac

C. Etoricoxib

D. Mefenamic Acid

Q70

Etanercept acts by one of the following mechanisms:

A. By blocking tumor necrosis factor

B. By blocking bradykinin synthesis

C. By inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase-2

D. By blocking lipoxygenase

Correct answer : A. By blocking tumor necrosis factor

Q71

Nevirapine is a

A. Protease inhibitor

B. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

C. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

D. Fusion inhibitor

Correct answer : C. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Q72

Which one of the following is used in therapy of Toxoplasmosis?

A. Artensenuate

B. Thiacetazone

C. Ciprofloxacin

D. Pyrimethamine

Correct answer : D. Pyrimethamine

Q73

Which one of the following is best associated with Lumefantrine?

A. Antimycobacterial

B. Antifungal

C. Antimalarial

D. Antiamoebic

Correct answer : C. Antimalarial

Q74

The group of antibiotics which possess additional anti-inflammatory and

immunomodulatory activity is:

A. Tetracyclines

B. Polypeptide antibiotics

C. Fluoroquinolones

D. Macrolides

Correct answer : D. Macrolides

Q75

One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible:

A. Amoxicillin

B. Penicillin G

C. Piperacillin

D. Cloxacillin

Correct answer : D. Cloxacillin

Q76

All of the following are topically used sulphonamides except:

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Silver sulphadiazine

D. Mafenide

Correct answer : B. Sulphadiazine

Q77

All of the following are hallucinogens, except:

A. LSD

B. Phencyclidine

C. Mescaline

D. Methylphenidate

Correct answer : D. Methylphenidate

Q78

Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is:

A. Phenobarbitone

B. Flumazenil

C. Beta-carboline

D. Gabapentin

Correct answer : C. Beta-carboline

Q79

Oculogyric crisis is known to be produced by all of the following drugs

except:

A. Trifluoperazine

B. Atropine

C. Prochlorperazine

D. Perphenazine

Correct answer : B. Atropine

Q80

Antipyschotic drug-induced Parkinsonism is treated by:

A. Anticholinergics

B. Levodopa

C. Selegilin

D. Amantadine

Correct answer : A. Anticholinergics

Q81

The major difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics is that:

A. The latter cause minimal or no increase in prolactin

B. The former cause tardive dyskinesia

C. The former are available as parenteral preparations

D. The latter cause substantial sedation

Correct answer : B. The former cause tardive dyskinesia

Q82

Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused by blockade of:

A. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

B. Serotonergic receptors

C. Dopaminergic receptors

D. GABA receptors

Correct answer : A. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

Q83

One of the following is not true about nesiritide:

A. It is a brain natriuretic peptide analogue

B. It is used in actuely decompensated heart failure

C. It has significant oral absorption

D. lt has a short half life

Correct answer : C. It has significant oral absorption

Q84

The following drugs have significant drug interaction with digoxin,

except:

A. Cholestyramine

B. Thiazide diuretics

C. Quinidine

D. Amlodipine

Correct answer : D. Amlodipine

Q85

Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from

gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of reflux?

A. Ondansetron

B. Metoclopramide

C. Sodium citrate

D. Atropine

Correct answer : B. Metoclopramide

Q86

Which one of the following drugs increases gastro-intestinal motility?

A. Glycopyrrolate

B, Atropine

C. Neostigmine

D. Fentanyl

Correct answer : C. Neostigmine

Q87

With which of the following theophylline has an antagonistic interaction?

A. Histamine receptors

B. Bradykinin receptors

C. Adenosine receptors

D. lmidazoline receptors

Correct answer : C. Adenosine receptors

Q88

Which one of the following is true of adrenal suppression due to steroid

therapy?

A. It is not associated with atrophy of the adrenal glands

B. It does not occur in patients receiving inhaled steroids

C. It should be expected in anyone receiving > 5mg Prednisolone daily

D. Following cessation, the stress response normalizes after 8 weeks

Correct answer : C. It should be expected in anyone receiving > 5mg

Prednisolone daily

Q89

All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors except:

A. Adrenaline

B. Growth Hormone

C. Insulin

D. Thyroxine

Correct answer : D. Thyroxine

Q90

A highly ionized drug:

A. Is excreted mainly by the kidney

B. Can cross the placental barrier easily

C. ls well absorbed from the intestine

D. Accumulates in the cellular lipids

Correct answer : A. Is excreted mainly by the kidney

Q91

All of the following are part of the treatment of lithium toxicity,

except:

A. Treating dehydration

B. Ingestion of polystyrene sulfonate

C. Hemodialysis

D. Using an antagonist

Correct answer : D. Using an antagonist

Q92

Pretreatment evaluation for lithium therapy should include:

A. Fasting blood sugar

B. Serum creatinine

C. Liver function tests

D. Platelet count

Correct answer : B. Serum creatinine

Q93

Nevirapine is a

A. Protease inhibitor

B. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

C. Non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

D. Fusion inhibitor

Correct answer : C. Non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Q94

All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors except:

A. Nelfinavir

B. Saquinavir

C. Abacavir

D. Ritonavir

Correct answer : C. Abacavir

Q95

One of the following statements regarding mycophenolate mofetil is

incorrect:

A. lt is a prodrug

B. lt is a selective uncompetitive and reversible inhibitor

C. It also inhibits calcineurin

D. Selectively inhibits lymphocyte proliferation

Correct answer : C. It also inhibits calcineurin

Q96

A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus,

which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity

testing. All the following antibiotics will be appropriate except:

A. Vancomycin

B. Imipenem

C. Teicoplanin

D. Linezolid

Correct answer : B. Imipenem

Q97

Which one ofthe following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin?

A. Cephalexin

B. Cloxacillin

C. Piperacillin

D. Dicloxacillin

Correct answer : C. Piperacillin

Q98

All of the following are therapeutic uses of penicillin G, except:

A. Bacterial meningitis

B. Rickettsial infection

C. Syphilis

D. Anthrax

Correct answer : B. Rickettsial infection

Q99

Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with

allergy to sulphonamides?

A. Levobunolol

B. Bimatoprost

C. Brinzolamide

D. Brimonidine

Correct answer : C. Brinzolamide

Q100

All of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall

synthesis, except:

A. Carbapenems

B. Monobactams

C. Cephamycins

D. Nitrofurantoin

Correct answer : D. Nitrofurantoin

Q101

The most common side effect reported in case of treatment with

haloperidol is:

A. Hypotension

B. Akathisia

C. Dryness of mouth

D. Tic disorder

Correct answer : B. Akathisia

Q102

All are side effects of Clozapine, except;

A. Granulocytopenia

B. Seizures

C. Sedation

D. Extrapyramidal side effects

Correct answer : D. Extrapyramidal side effects

Q103

The common side effect with Fluoxetine therapy is:

A. Seizure

B. Anxiety

C. Hypotension

D. Loose stools

Correct answer : D. Loose stools

Q104

Which one of the following drugs does not interfere with folic acid

metabolism?

A. Phenytoin

B. Gabapentin

C. Phenobarbitone

D. Primidone

Correct answer : B. Gabapentin

Q105

Concomitant administration of clonazepam with which of the following

antiepileptic drug can precipitate absence status?

A. Sodium valproate

B. Phenobarbitone

C. Carbamazepine

D. Phenytoin

Correct answer : A. Sodium valproate

Q106

Ethosuximide is used in the treatment of

A. Tonic-clonic seizure

B. Absence seizure

C. Myoclonic seizure

D. Simple partial seizure

Correct answer :B. Absence seizure

Q107

The following statements regarding benzodiazepines are true except:

A. Binds to both GABA A and GABA B receptors

B. They have active metabolites

C. Decreases nocturnal gastric secretion in human beings

D. Extensively metabolized by CYP enzymes

Correct answer :A. Binds to both GABA A and GABA B receptors

Q108

The following are the benzodiazepines of choice in elderly and those with

liver disease, except:

A. Lorazepam

B. Oxazepam

C. Temazepam

D. Diazepam

Correct answer : D. Diazepam

Q109

The loading dose of Aminophylline is:

a) 50-75 mg/kg

b) 0.5-1.0 mg/ kg

c) 2.0-3.5 mg/kg

d) 5-6 mg/kg

Correct answer : d) 5-6 mg/kg

Q110

The drug imatinib acts by inhibition of:

a) Tyrosine kinase

b) Glutathione reductase

c) Thymidylate synthase

d) Protein kinase

Correct answer :a) Tyrosine kinase

Q111

A patient of thromobosis of hepatic veins has been receiving coumarin

therapy for a duration of three years. Recently. she has developed

bleeding tendency. How will you reverse the effect of coumarin?

a) Protamine injection

b) Vit K injection

c) Infusion of fibrinogen

d) Whole blood transfusion

Q112

Prolonged use of one of the following anti convulsants can produce weight

loss:

a) Gabapentin

b) Oxcarbazepine

c) Topiramate

d) Valproic acid

Correct answer : c) Topiramate

Q113

Inhaled nitric oxide is used:

a) For stabilizing systemic hemodynamics

b) In case of jaundice

c) To prevent CNS complication

d) For reducing pulmonary hypertension

Correct answer : d) For reducing pulmonary hypertension

Q114

Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is associated with

secondary leukemia?

a) Vinblastine

b) Etoposide

c) Cisplatin

d) Bleomycin

Correct answer : c) Cisplatin

Q115

Which of the following drugs is associated with untoward side effect of

renal tubular damage?

a) Cisplatin

b) Streptozotocin

c) Methysergide

d) Cyclophosphamide

Correct answer : a) Cisplatin

Q116

Which of the following is an aromatase inhibitor?

a) Tamoxifen

b) Letrozole

c) Danazol

d) Taxane

Correct answer : b) Letrozole

Q117

Anticoagulant effect of warfarin is increased by all of the following

except:

a) Cimetidine

b) Phytonadione

c) Amiodarone

d) Phenylbutazone

Correct answer : b) Phytonadione

Q118

Neostigmine antagonizes nondepolarizing blockade by all of the following

mechanisms, except;

a) Decreasing the breakdown of Acetylcholine at the motor end plate

b) Preventing K efflux from the cell

c) Increasing the release of Acetylcholine at the motor end plate

d) Depolarization of the motor end plate

Correct answer : c) Increasing the release of Acetylcholine at the motor

end plate

Q119

The most significant adverse effect of ACE inhibition is:

a) Hypotension

b) Hypertension

c) Hypocalcemia

d) Hypercalcemia

Correct answer : a) Hypotension (First dose hypotension)

Q120

All drugs can be used in the treatment of H. Pylori infection except

a) Omeprazole

b) Metronidazole

c) Amoxicillin

d) Mosapride

Correct answer : d) Mosapride

Q121

One of the following is a prodrug

a) Enalapril

b) Neostigmine

c) Esmolol

d) Captopril

Correct answer : a) Enalapril

Q122

Which of the following is a benzodiazepine antagonist

a) Flumazenil

b) Butorphanol

c) Naltrexone

d) Pralidoxime

Correct answer : a) Flumazenil

Q123

Which ATT will cause transient memory loss

a) Ethionamide

b) INH

e) Ethambutol

d) Pyrazinamide

Correct answer : b) INH

Q124

Which antiarrhythmic is not class Ic agent

a) Propafenone

b) Tocainide

c) Flecainide

d) Encainide

Correct answer : b) Tocainide

Q125

Which NSAID undergoes enterohepatic circulation

a) Phenylbutazone

b) Aspirin

c) lbuprofen

d) Piroxicam

Correct answer : d) Piroxicam

Q126

Long acting B2 agonists

a) Orciprenaline

b) Salmeterol

e) Albuterol

d) Pirbuterol

Correct answer : b) Salmeterol

Q127

Which of the following drugs dosage interval should be maximum in a

patient with creatinine clearance less than 10ml/min

a) Amikacin

b) Rifampicin

c) Vancomycin

d) Amphotericin B

Correct answer : c) Vancomycin (It is given once in 72 hours when

creatinine clearance is less than 10ml/min)

Q128

Which antibiotic acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis

a) Cefepime

b) Lomefloxacin

C) Erythromycin

d) Tetracycline

Correct answer : a) Cefepime

Q129

Denosumab, a monoclonal antibody against RANKL receptor is used in the

treatment of

a) Rheumatoid arthritis

b) Osteoporosis

c) Osteoarthritis

d) SLE

Correct answer : b) Osteoporosis

Q130

Loading dose depends upon

a) Volume of distribution

b) T1/2

c) Plasma clearance

d) Route of administration

Correct answer : a) Volume of distribution

Q131

Which is not a second generation antihistamine

a) Cyclizine

b) Fexofenadine

c) Loaratidine

d) Acrivastine

Correct answer : a) Cyclizine

Q132

All of the following drugs are metabolized by acetylation except

a) INH

b) Hydralazine

e) Procainamide

d) Metoclopramide

Correct answer : d) Metoclopramide

Q133

The following drug is not useful for MRSA

a) Cefaclor

b) Cotrimoxazole

c) Ciprofloxacin

Correct answer : a) Cefaclor

Q134

Digoxin toxicity is precipitated by all except :

a) Electrolyte disturbance

b) Acute myocardial infarction

c) Hepatic disease

d) Renal disease

Correct answer : c) Hepatic disease

Q135

FK-506 is a

a) It is a macrolide antibiotic

b) Immunoglobulin antibody

c) Non depolarising muscle relaxant

d) Opioid analgesic

Correct answer : a) It is a macrolide antibiotic (Tacrolimus is its

common name)

Q136

Naloxone is not used during resuscitation of a child whose mother is on

a) Methadone

b) Phenycyclidine

c) Amphetamine

d) Cocaine

Correct answer : a) Methadone

Q137

Imatinib used in CML acts by

a) inhibiting Bcr/abl translocation via tyrosine kinase

b) Blocking the action of P-glycoprotein

c) Competitive inhibition of ATP binding site of ABL kinase

d) C-kit kinase inhibition

Correct answer : c) Competitive inhibition of ATP binding site of ABL

kinase

Q138

Drugs which increase Nitric Oxide are all except

a) Glycerine trinitrate

b) Hydralazine

c) Sodium Nitroprusside

d) Fenoldopam

Correct answer : d) Fenoldopam

Q139

Antihypertensive not contraindicated in pregnancy

a) Spironolactone

b) Labetalol

c) Sodium Nitroprusside

d) ACE inhibitor

Correct answer : b) Labetalol

Q140

Hypertension is seen with all except

a) Erythropoietin

b) Cyclosporine

c) NSAID

d) Levodopa

Correct answer : d) Levodopa

Q141

Which is an antimetabolite

a) Cyclosporine

b) Methotrexate

c) Etoposide

d) Vinblastine

Correct answer : b) Methotrexate

Q142

All are antiemetics except :

a) Domperidone

b) Ondensetron

c) Phenazocine

d) Cyclizine

Correct answer : c) Phenazocine

Q143

Bone marrow aplasia is seen with all except

a) Methicillin

b) Chloramphenicol

c) Alpha methyl hydantoin

d) Phenylbutazone

Correct answer : a) Methicillin

Q144

Carbimazole is associated with all except :

a) Choanal atresia

b) Cleft lip and cleft palate

c) Scalp defect

d) Neck swelling

Correct answer : b) Cleft lip and cleft palate

Q145

All are endogenous catecholamines except :

a) Epinephrine

b) Norepinephrine

c) Dopamine

d) Dobutamine

Correct answer : d) Dobutamine

Q146

Impotence is most commonly caused by which antihypertensive agent

a) Calcium channel blocker

b) ACE inhibitors

c) AT1 receptor antagonist

d) Beta blockers

Correct answer : d) Beta blockers

Q147

Gynaecomastia is caused by

a) Clorniphene citrate

b) Tamoxifen

c) Spironolactone

d) Testosterone

Correct answer : c) Spironolactone

Q148

Filgrastim is used in treatment of:

A. Anemia

B. Neutropenia

C. Malaria

D. Filariasis

Correct answer : B. Neutropenia

Q149

Methotrexate is used in high doses in:

A. Osteosarcoma

B. Retinoblastoma

C. Rhabdomyosarcoma

D. Ewing’s sarcoma

Correct answer : A. Osteosarcoma

Q150

Drug causing hypercoagulability is:

A. L asparginase

B. Busulfan

C. Melphalan

D. 5 FU

Correct answer : A. L asparginase

Q151

The following drug acts by hypomethylation

A. Gemcitabine

B. Capecitabine

C. Decitabine

D. Cytosine arabinoside

Correct answer : C. Decitabine

Q152

All are true about immunosuppressants except?

A. Tacrolimus inhibits calcineurin pathway

B. Steroids binds to cytosolic receptors and heat shock proteins

C. Mycophenolate inhibit purine synthesis via GMP dehydrogenase

D. Sirolimus will block kinase in the IL 2 receptor pathway

Correct answer : C. Mycophenolate inhibit purine synthesis via GMP

dehydrogenase

Q153

Nevirapine belongs to the following group

A. Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NNRTI)

B. Protease inhibitor

C. Fusion inhibitor

D. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)

Correct answer : A. Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

(NNRTI)

Q154

The following drug is not useful for MRSA?

A. Cefaclor

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Ciprofloxacin

D. Vancomycin

Correct answer : A. Cefaclor

Q155

All of the following statements about Heparin are true except?

A. Causes Alopecia

B. Non Teratogenic

C. Releases Lipoprotein Lipase

D. Causes Hypokalemia

Correct answer : D. Causes Hypokalemia

Q156

Prothrombin Time of a patient is 26. Control PT is 13 seconds and

Sensitivity index is 1.41. What will be the INR of this patient?

A. 26/3

B. (26/13) * 1.41

C. (26/13) ^ 1.41

D. (26/13) ^ (1/1.41)

Correct answer : C. (26/13) ^ 1.41

Q157

All of the following antiepileptic agents act via Na+ channel except

A. Vigabatrin

B. Phenytoin

C. Valproate

D. Lamotrigne

Correct answer : Vigabatrin

Q158

Which of the following is not an antiepileptic agent:

A. Phenytoin

B. Topiramate

C. Flunarizine

D. Carbamazepine

Correct answer : C. Flunarazine

Q159

All are short and rapid acting insulins except

A. Lispro

B. Aspart

C. Glargine

D. Glulisine

Correct answer : C. Glargine

Q160

All of the following have receptors which are transcription factors,

except?

A. Insulin

B. Estrogen

C. Glucocorticoids

D. Vitamin D

Correct answer : A. Insulin

Q161

Which of the following is beneficial in NSAID induced gastric ulcer?

A. PGE1 agonist

B. PGE2 agonist

C. PGD agonist

D. PGF2 agonist

Correct answer : A. PGE1 agonist

Q162

True about Octreotide are all except :

A. Is active orally

B. Supresses growth hormone secretion

C. Useful for variceal bleeding

D. Useful in secretory diarrhea

Correct answer : A. Is active orally

Q163

Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist?

A. Montelukast

B. Zileuton

C. Omalizumab

D. Nedocromil

Correct answer : A. Montelukast

Q164

The following drugs are used in obesity except?

A. Orlistat

B. Sibutaramine

C. Olestra

D. Neuropeptide Y Agonist

Correct answer : D. Neuropeptide Y Agonist

Q165

The following drugs may be used in erectile dysfunction except?

A. Phenylephrine

B. Apomorphine

C. Alprostidil

D. PGE1 analogues

Correct answer : A. Phenylephrine

Q166

Nesiritide is a:

A. Brain natriuretic peptide analogue

B. Endothelin R antagonist

C. Gp Ilb IIIa antagonist

D. TNF alpha antagonist

Correct answer : Brain natriuretic peptide analogue

Q167

The drug having maximum propensity to cause peripheral neuropathy?

A. Didanosine

B. Zidovudine

C. Stavudine

D. Lamivudine

Correct answer : Stavudine

Q168

Orange coloured urine is due to:

A. Rifampicin

B. INH

C. Pyrazinamide

D. Ethambutol

Correct answer : Rifampicin

Q169

All of the following are Gp IIb/Illa antagonist except?

A. Abciximab

B. Clopidogrel

C. Tirofiban

D. Epitifibatide

Correct answer : Clopidogrel

Q170

Which of the following is a prodrug

A. Ticlopidine

B. Aspirin

C. Clopidogrel

D. Dipyridamole

Correct answer : Ticlopidine & Clopidogrel

Q171

Which of the following is not an alkylating agent?

A. Cyclophosphamide

B. 5-FU

C. Busulfan

D. Chlorambucil

Correct answer : 5-FU (It is an antimetabolite)

Q172

Finasteride is a:

A. 5 alpha reductase inhibitor

B. PDE inhibitor

C. Alpha la blocker

D. Androgen receptor blocker

Correct answer : 5 alpha reductase inhibitor

Q173

True statement about clonidine are all except,

A. Increases parasympathetic outflow

B. Decreases sympathetic outflow by blocking central alpha receptor

C. Used in Hypertension

D. Prazosin is used to antagonize side effects of clonidine

Correct answer : Prazosin is used to antagonize side effects of clonidine

Q174

All of the following may be associated with beta 2 agonist treatment

except?

A. Hyperkalemia

B. Hyperglycemia

C. Detrusor relaxation

D. Relaxation of gut and bronchial muscles

Correct answer : Hyperkalemia, beta 2 agnoists increase K+ uptake into

muscles and hence cause hypokalemia.

Q175

All of the following are non selective beta blockers with additional

actions except?

A. Carvedilol

B. Betaxolol

C. Cartelol

D. Labetalol

Correct answer : Betaxolol, It is a selective beta blocker with

additional actions