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1

B.Com Fourth Semester Examination (Year 2015)

Cost Accounting Subject Code: BCOM-401

Paper Code: FCJ-227 Time : 20 Minutes

M.Marks : 10

Section A

Objective Type Questions

Attempt All Questions. Each question carries 1/2 mark. Use the symbol (√) in the box for marking

the correct answer.

Q. No. 1. Choose the correct answer-

1. Conversion cost includes cost of converting……….into……..

(a) Raw material, WIP (b) Raw material, Finished goods

(c) WIP, Finished goods (d) Finished goods, Saleable goods

2. Describe the method of costing to be applied in case of Nursing Home:

(a) Operating Costing (b) Process Costing

(c) Contract Costing (d) Job Costing

3. Which of these is not a Material control technique?

(a) ABC Analysis

(b) Fixation of raw material levels

(c) Maintaining stores ledger

(d) Control over slow moving and non moving items

4. Most suitable basis for apportioning insurance of machine would be:

(a) Floor Area (b) Value of Machines

(c) No. of Workers (d) No. of Machines

5. The degree of completion of work is determined by comparing the work certified with

:

(a) Contract price, (b) Work in progress,

(c) Cash received in contract. (d) All the above

Roll No.

Enrollment No Enrollment

No.

Invigilator’s Signature

2

6. The type of process loss that should not affect the cost of inventory is:

(a) Abnormal loss, (b) Normal loss,

(c) Seasonal loss, (d) Standard loss

7. The stage where joint products are separated from each other is known as:

(a) Break even point, (b) Angle of incidence

(c) Split-off point (d) Joint distribution point

8. Total cost of a product: Rs. 10,000, Profit is @ 25% on Selling Price. Profit is:

(a) Rs. 2,500, (b) Rs. 3,000,

(c) Rs. 3,333, (d) Rs. 2,000.

9. CVP stands for:

(a) Cost Volume Profit Analysis, (b) Cost Value Profit Analysis,

(c) Cost Volume Position Analysis, (d) Cash Volume Profit Analysis.

10. A point where no profit no loss situation arises known as,

(a) Angle of incidence, (b) P/V Ratio,

(c) Margin of safety, (d) BEP.

11. If a sale is Rs 10000, variable cost is 60%, then P/V Ratio is:

(a) 20%, (b) 30%

(c) 10%, (d) 40%.

12. Marginal costing is also known as:

(a) Management costing, (b) Variable costing,

(c) Differential costing, (d) None of the above.

13. Material control system would be most useful to a:

(a) Manufacture (b) Wholesaler

(c) Hospital (d) Retailer

3

14. A material pricing method in which the oldest cost incurred rarely have an effect on

closing inventory valuation:

(a) FIFO (b) LIFO

(c) Simple average method (d) Weighted average method

15. Added cost of a new product will be:

(a) Material and labour,

(b) Material, labour and factory overhead,

(c) Material, labour, factory overhead, and administrative overhead,

(d) Material, labour, and administrative overhead,

16. The rent of business premises should be shared out between cost centers according to :

(a) Floor area or cubic capacity, (b) The number of employees,

(c) The value of equipments, (d) The no of furniture used,

17. Which of the following production activities would be most likely to employ job order

costing?

(a) Ship building, (b) Candy manufacturing

(c) Car manufacturing (d) Crude oil refining

18. In job order costing, the basic document to accumulate and ascertain the cost of each

order is the:

(a) Purchase order, (b) Requisition sheet,

(c) Invoice, (d) Job cost sheet

19. Tender price is also known as:

(a) Quotation price (b) Contract price,

(c) Process price, (d) All the above.

20. A point where ordering cost and storing cost both are equal know as:

(a) BEP (b) P/V Ratio

(c) EOQ (d) CVP

------------------------

1

B.Com. Fourth Semester Examination (Year 2015)

Cost Accounting Subject Code: BCOM-401

Paper Code: FCJ-227 Time : 2:40 hours

M.Marks : 60

Section – B

(Short Answer Type Questions)

Attempt all questions (each question carries 4 marks)

Q2. What is EOQ? Explain formula with example.

.

OR

What is Bin card? Explain needs of Bin card.

Q3. Write characteristics and objects of cost sheet.

OR

What is Cost sheet? Explain various components of cost sheet.

Q4. What is Operating cost? Explain standing and operating charges with example.

OR

The road transport Co. which keeps a fleet of Lorries shows the following information:

Distance covered in April 2013 = 30,000 KMs

Wages for April = Rs. 2000

Petrol and oil etc for April = Rs.4000

Original cost of Vehicle = Rs 1,00,000

Depreciation @ 25% p.a. on cost

Repairs for the month of April = Rs 6000.

Garage rent for April = Rs.1000

License, and insurance for the year = Rs. 6000

Prepare operating cost sheet for April 2013 showing the total cost per running kilometer.

Q5. What is Reconciliation Statement? Explain reasons behind the difference in financial profit and

cost profit.

OR

Describe the journal features of process costing. Also define normal wastage.

Q6. Define cost audit. Write three advantages of cost audit.

OR

The P/V ratio of Aastha Ltd is 50% and margin of safety is 40%. You are required to work out

the Break Even Point and the net profit if the sales value is Rs. 10, 00,000.

Roll No.

2

Section C

(Long answer type questions) Attempt all questions (each question carries 8 marks)

Q.7 The particulars of material A and B are as follows:

Normal usage = 10 units per week each.

Minimum usage = 5 units per week each.

Maximum usage = 15 units per week each.

Re-order quantity = A=60 Units, B= 100 Units.

Re order period = A= 3 to 5 weeks, B =2 to 4 weeks

Calculate for each material: (a) Reorder level, (b) Minimum level, (c) Maximum level, (d)

Average stock level.

OR

What do you mean by Weighted Average Method of valuation of inventory? From the

following particulars, prepare store ledger for the month of January 2014 showing material

issues prices on the Weighted Average Price Method.

Receipt of Materials Issues of Materials

Date Units Rate per unit (Rs.) Date Units

1.1.2014 500 2 01.01.2014 400

10.01.2014 200 3 15.01.2014 100

18.01.2014 400 4 22.01.2014 200

28.01.2014 300 5 31.01.2014 300

On 29.01.2014 returned 10 units (issued on 15.01.2014). 2 units were loss revealed on Jan 28

during stock verification.

Q 8. From the following data prepare cost and profit statement of Aditi Store Company for the year

2013.

Opening stock of R.M. =Rs. 10,000,

Closing stock of R.M . =Rs. 5,000,

Purchases of R.M. =Rs. 15,000,

Factory expenses =Rs. 10,000,

Opening stock of finished goods, =Rs. 5,000,

Sales =Rs. 72,450,

Factory wages =Rs. 30,000,

Office expenses =Rs.10,000,

Closing stock of finished goods =Rs. 12,000.

500 stoves were manufactured during the year 2013. Company has to quote for the supply

of 2000 stoves in the year 2014. The proposed stoves are of uniform quality and same as

previous year, but the cost of material has increased by 15% and the cost of factory labour

increased by 10%. The same percentage of profit on cost realized during 2013 has to be earned.

Assuming that the cost per unit of overheads remains the same as in previous year. Prepare

statement of showing quotation price.

OR

M/s Hindustan Traders Bhopal manufactures three types of fans – Table fans, Ceiling Fan and

Cooler. The material and wages per units are as under:

3

Items Materials Wages

Table Fan 60 80

Ceiling Fan 100 100

Cooler 900 250

His total Factory overhead for the month of August 2013 was Rs. 1,00,000. You are asked to

determine the factory cost of assuming one ceiling fan is equal to two table fans and one cooler

is equal to five table fans for the purpose of overhead allocation. The production in the month

of August 2013 was 1000 Table fans, 500 Ceiling fans and 100 Coolers.

Q9. The following are the information relating to a contract account No 123.

Contract price = Rs. 600,000

Wages = Rs. 164,000

General expenses = Rs.8600

Raw material = Rs.120, 000

Plant issued = Rs 20,000

As on date cash received was Rs 240,000 being 80% of work certified. The value of material

remaining at site was Rs. 10,000. Depreciate plant by 10%. Prepare the Contract account.

OR

The total contract price in respect of a contract A is Rs. 50,000. ¾ of the work has been

approved by the contractee. The costs incurred so far for contract A are Rs. 25,000. It is

estimated that Rs. 5,000 will be required further to complete the contract. The contractee pays

80% of the work certified by him. Calculate the figure of profit which you considered

reasonable to be taken to the credit of the profit and loss account.

Q.10. Prepare process accounts from the following data:

Particulars I (Rs.) II (Rs.) III (Rs.)

Direct material 360,000 60,000 20,000

Direct wages 20,000 40,000 20,000

Direct Expenses 60,000 - 40,000

Production overhead incurred is Rs. 1, 60,000 and is recovered on 200% on direct wages.

Production during the period was 20,000 Units. There was no opening stock or closing stock of

working in process.

OR

The finished product of a manufacturing company passes through three processes viz I, II, and

III. The normal wastage in each process is 5%, 7% and 10 % for processes I, II, and III

respectively. Selling price of scraps is Rs.0.70, Rs, 0.80 and One rupee per units for processes

I, II, and III respectively. The other cost details are as follows:

Particulars I II III

Raw material introduced ( Units) 40000 - -

Cost of raw material per Units (Rs.) 8 - -

Direct material 120,000 40,000 40,000

Direct wages 80,000 60,000 60,000

Direct Expenses 40,000 40,000 28,000

Output in Units ( Actual) 38,000 34,600 32,000

Prepare the process accounts.

4

Q.11. On the basis of following information, calculate: BEP, P/V Ratio, and Margin of safety

Sales (10000 units @ 20/- per unit),

Variable cost @ 10/- per unit,

Fixed Cost Rs 500,000/-

Also calculate:

(A)If company’s desired to earn a profit of Rs. 2, 00,000 then expected sales will be?

(B) If a sale of company is Rs. 5, 00,000 then expected profit will be?

(C) If selling price reduced by 10%, then additional units required to sales to earn same level of

profit will be?

OR

Ascertain BEP from the following information:-

a) Fixed cost = Rs. 1,50,000 ; variable cost Rs.2,00,000; profit Rs.1,50,000

b) Fixed cost = Rs.36,000; variable cost ratio = 70%.

------------------------

1


Principles of Management

Subject Code: BCOM -402


M.Marks : 10

Section A


Attempt All Questions (Each question carry 1/2 mark). Use the symbol (√) in the box for

marking the correct answer.


1. Which function of management involves filling, and keeping filled, the positions

in the organization structure?

(a) Organizing b) Planning c) Staffing

(d) Controlling (e) Leading

2. Which of the following is not true about „power‟?

(a) Power requires no formal position

(b) Power works both ways – downward and upward

(c) Power is derived from many sources

(d) Formal authority is a type of power

(e) Power is a narrow term compared to authority.

3. In an organization, a superior has the right to get tasks accomplished by his

subordinates, but the responsibility remains with the superior. This principle

which intends to eliminate the practice of “passing the buck”, is known as-

(a) Authority on par with responsibility

(b) Hierarchy of authority

(c) Unity of direction

(b) Downward delegation of authority

(e) Unity of command.


Roll No.

Enrollment No.

2

4. Informal communication is also referred to as-

a) Grapevine b) Buzz c) Pipeline

d) Noise e) Uproar

5. The behavioural approach of management thoughts can be classified into

I. Bureaucratic management. II. Group influences.

III. Hawthorne studies. IV. Contingency theory.

a) Both (I) and (II) above

b) Both (I) and (III) above

c) Both (II) and (III) above

d) (I), (II) and (III) above

e) (II), (III) and (IV) above.

5. The communication process is made up of various components. Which of the

following is the actual physical product from the source?

a) Feedback b) Filter c) Message

d) Channel e) Understanding.

7. Forces/traits within the manager that determine effective leadership behaviour

include his/her

I. Values. II. Confidence in subordinates.

III. Hunger for power. IV. Aggressiveness.

a) Both (I) and (II) above

b) Both (I) and (IV) above

c) Both (III) and (IV) above

d) (I), (II) and (IV) above

e) All of these

6. Which of the following is an on-the-job training technique?

a) Organizational socialization

b) Creation of “assistant-to” positions

c) Performance appraisal

d) Job enlargement

e) Job analysis.

3

9. „One employee one boss‟ is descriptive of which principle of management:

a) Unity of Direction b) Principle of Scalar Chain

c) Unity of Command d) Span of control

10. According to Maslow, a person who is looking for affection, belongingness,

acceptance, and friendship is at which need level?

a) Physiological b) Safety

c) Social d) Esteem

e) Self-actualization.

11. Which of the following is not an effective listening technique?

a) Avoiding premature evaluation

b) Avoiding eye contact

b) Exhibiting affirmative nods and appropriate facial gestures

c) Finding an area of interest in what the other person is saying

e) Judging the content of the message, but not the weakness of the speaker.

12. According to “Expectancy Theory”, the probability of an individual acting in a

particular way depends on

I. The personality of the individual and the likelihood that it will change.

II. The company and its potential to move in the right direction.

III. The situation.

IV. The strength of that individual's belief that the act will have a particular

outcome and on whether the individual values that outcome.

a) Only (I) above b) Only (IV) above

c) Both (I) and (III) above d) Both (II) and (IV) above

e) (I), (III) and (IV) above.

13. Which of the following skills is most important for first level managers and

includes knowledge of and proficiency in activities involving methods, processes

and procedures?

(a) Human (b) Conceptual (c) Design

(d) Technical (e) Administrative

4

14. Programmers and budgets are examples of

(a) Single-use plans (b) Standing rules

(c) Procedures (d) Gantt chart components

(e) Critical paths.

15. A person who encourages staff participation in the decision making process is

which type of leader?

a) Charismatic b) Participative

c) Bureaucratic d) Situational

16. Communicating expectations and measurements relating to performance

standards occurs during this function of management.

a) leading b) controlling

c) planning d) organizing

17. Management is a creative and________process.

a) One time b) Continuous

c) Mandatory d) Anytime

18. ________, weakness, threats, opportunities are the full form SWOT analysis.

a) Strength b) Asset

b) Strong d) brave

19. One of the cause of low morale is poor________

a) Direction b) Leadership

c) Follow-up d) Interaction

20. A superior should always establish a ________ control so that his subordinates

report to him periodically.

a) Comment b) Feedback

c) Opinion d) Advice

------------------

2


Principles of Management

Subject Code: BCOM -402

Paper Code: FCJ-228 Time : 2.40 Minutes

M.Marks : 60

Section – B (Short Answer Type Questions)


Q.No.2. Write short notes on any three of the following:

(a) Dimensions of HR Planning

(b) Succession Planning

(c) Competency Mapping

(d) Job Evaluation

(e) H.R. Inventory

Q.No.3. Is Management Science or Art?

OR

‘One can delegate authority but not responsibility.’ How far this statement is

true?

Q.No.4. Define Recruitment and Selection. Differentiate between them.

OR

Write the steps of Job evaluation.

Q.No.5. Distinguish between management and administration.

OR

What are various types of Decisions?

Q.No.6. Explain ‘Hawthorne experiments and Human relations’.

OR

Planning is future-oriented activity’ Discuss

Roll No.

2

Section – C (Long answer type questions)


Q.No.7. Define and discuss the objectives of Human Resource Planning at organizational

level. How does it help in determining and evaluating future organizational

capabilities, needs and anticipated problems? Explain with suitable examples.

OR

What is the purpose and process of recruitment function? Discuss various

methods of sourcing manpower.

Q.No.8. Attempt all questions briefly in not more than 100 words.

1. Scalar chain

2. Long-term planning

3. Delphi Technique

4. Define Motivation.

5. Matrix organization structure

OR

Discuss the meaning and importance of matrix organization? Differentiate it from

project organization.

Q.No.9. What are the pre-requisites for introducing Human Resource Information System

(HRIS) in an organization? How is HRIS advantageous over manual system?

Discuss how it can be made more effective and useful?

OR

Define planning. What is the purpose of planning?

State the objectives of planning. State the various steps involved in planning.

Q.No.10. What is the concept of motivation? How does it affect behaviour and

performance? Make a comparison between motivation theories of Herzberg and

Maslow. Which theory of these do you prefer?

OR

What do you mean by leadership style? Which style do you think least and why?

Q.No.11. What do you mean by Controlling? What is its suitability in business

organization?

OR

Bring out different methods of Taylor’s principles of management and Taylor’s

scientific management.

--------------------------------

1


Wealth Tax Subject Code: BCOM-403


M.Marks : 10

Section A


Attempt All Questions. Each question carries 1/2 mark. Use the symbol (√) in the box for marking

the correct answer.

Q. No. I. Choose the correct answer-

1. Wealth Tax is :

a) Central Tax b) Direct Tax

c) Tax on assets d) All of these

2. Rate of wealth tax is:

a) 1% b) 1.03%

c) 10% d) 15%

3. Valuation date is :

a) 1 April b) 31 March

c) 1 January d) 31 December

4. Residential Status is determined in wealth tax as per:

a) Wealth Tax Act b) Income Tax Act..

c) Property Tax Act. d) Citizenship of Tax Payer.

5. Deemed Asset means:

a) Artificial asset

b) Goodwill

c) Asset of other persons includible in net wealth

d) All of these

6. Shall be exempted any one :

a) House b) plot.

c) Both (a) and (b) d) Self residential house

Roll No.


No.


2

7. The following shall not be covered under the definition of asset :

a) Domestic Furniture b ) Electronic furniture

c) Motor cycle d) All of these

8. Due date for filling of Wealth Tax Return in case of Individual :

a) 31st March. b) 31

st July.

c) 30th

September. d) 31st December.

9. Value Added Tax is tax on:

a) sale of goods. b) Supply of services.

c) Production of goods d) Weight of goods.

10. VAT is imposed by:

a) Government of India b) State Government

c) Local Government d) All of these

11. Liable for VAT payment:

a) Industrialist b) Business owner

c) Registered Dealer d) Un Registered Dealer

12. VAT is imposed on goods:

a) Purchase b) Sales

c) Purchase & Sales d) Export.

13. VAT was imposed in full form:

a) 1 April 1997 b) 1 April 2002

c) 1 April 2006 d) 1 April 2007

14. M.P VAT,2002 came into force w.e.f:

a) 1-4-2006 b) 14-3-2006.

c) 31-3-2006 d) None of these

15. Registration is compulsory if sales is more than in case of importer dealer :

a) Rs 2 Lakhs b) Rs 3 Lakhs

c) Rs 4 Lakhs d) Rs 5 Lakhs

3

16. Diesel & Petrol are taxable at :

a) 13 % & 23% b) 23% & 27%

c) 27% & 23%. d) 20% & 23%.

17. Gross turnover includes:

a) Sales in M.P b) All types of sales.

c) Sales other than tax free goods d) Taxable sales under VAT.

18. Service tax is:

a) An Indirect tax b) Central Govt. tax.

c) Tax on service supplied. d) All of above

19. Person liable to pay service tax is

a) Service Receiver. b) Service Provider.

c) On Services exported d) On services imported.

20. Prescribed Form for Registration of Service tax is:

a) ET 1 b) ST 1.

c) ST 3. d) ST 10.

------------------------------

1


Wealth Tax Subject Code: BCOM-403


M.Marks : 60

Section – B

Short Answer Type Questions)


Q.No.2. Who is liable to pay Wealth tax & who are not?

OR

Explain the terms Valuation date & Net Wealth?

Q.No.3. What do you mean by Deemed Assets?

OR

Write note on Best judgement Assessment?

Q.No.4. Discuss objects of service tax?

OR

Who is responsible for paying service tax?

Q.No.5. What is meaning of VAT?

OR

Discuss methods of VAT charging?

Q.No.6. Write names of five exempted goods from VAT?

OR

Comment on M.P VAT”.

Section C

(Long answer type questions)


Q.No.7. Dicuss in detail the valuation of Let Out Building ?

OR

The following assets & liabilities of an Indian farmer for the year ending

31March,2014:-

Rs.

a. Residential Houses(Three houses values Rs 16,18 & 12 Lakh) 46,00,000

b. Agricultural Land- 42,50,000

c. Animals 50,000

d. Growing Crop Rs 60,000, Ready Crop Rs 50,000 1,10,000

e. Tractor 25,000

f. Tools related to cultivation 25,000

Is he liable to pay wealth Tax ?

Roll No.

2

Q.No.8. Discuss types of Return of Wealth?

OR

Write a detailed note on Exempted Asset?

Q.No.9. Discuss Procedure for Registration under Service tax?

OR

List atleast 15 Taxable Services under Service tax

Q.No.10. Discuss Merit & Demerits of VAT.

OR

What are main features of VAT in M.P

Q.No.11. Discuss procedure for Registration under M.P VAT .

OR

Ajit Kumar, a registered dealer of M.P, made following sales during the year-

1. Electrical Goods (3 Lakh goods purchased from a Registered dealer of Indore)

3,80,700

2. Electrical Fans (purchased from Kolkata) 2,00,000

3. Iron & Steel purchased from Registered dealer of M.P 1,00,000

4. Agricultural equipments sold to farmers 2,25,000

5. Medicines (purchased from Delhi) 75,000

Medicines worth Rs 5,000 were returned by customers within 6 months after purchase .

Sales of medicines includes sale of life saving drugs amounting to Rs 18,000.

Compute Gross Turnover & Taxable sales under M.P VAT.

---------------------------------------

1


Banking Law & Practice in India Subject Code: BCOM-404


M.Marks : 10

Section A





1. How many banks were nationalized on July 1969?

a) 12 b) 13

c) 14 d) 16

2. Which bank has given the instructions to the Commercial Banks regarding the

immediate credit of outstanding cheques?

a) Reserve Bank of India b) Central Bank of India

c) World Bank d) None of these

3. The bank can consider ………lien as their protection against loss on loan or

overdraft which was given to its customers.

a) Particular b) Special

c) General d) Lending

4. MICR technology used for clearance of cheque by bank refers to –

a) Magnetic Ink Company Recognition

b) Magnetic Ink Cross Recognition

c) Magnetic Ink Community Recognition

d) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition


Roll No.

Enrollment No.

2

5. Which bank is also known as called Investment Banks?

a) Exchange Bank b) Reserve Bank of India

c) Industrial Bank d) Central Bank

6. Fixed Deposit is also called as -

a) Accrued Deposits b) Recurring Deposits

c) Demand Deposits d) Time Deposits

7. The rate at which RBI discounts approved Bill of Exchange is called-

a) Bank rate b) Interest rate

c) Exchange rate d) Discount rate

8. Which section of Negotiable Instrument Act 1881, defines endorsement?

a) Section 10 b) Section 15

c) Section 18 d) Section 20

9. Electronic Fund Transfer (EFT) was introduced by-

a) IRDA b) RBI

c) NSE d) SEBI

10. Choose from the following which change has taken place first in banking sector

of India after independence?

a) Establishment of RBI b) Establishment of SBI

c) Nationalization of Banks d) Social controls on Banks

11. The first long term Industrial Financing Corporation set up in country was –

a) RBI b) IDBI

c) IFCI d) ICICI

12. IDBI was delinked from RBI and it became autonomous in the year-

a) 1976 b) 1977

c) 1978 d) 1980

3

13. As a banker to the Government, RBI accepts Government deposits at ………%

interest.

a) 1% b) 2%

c) 3% d) 0%

14. The core banking is a …………branch computerization model.

a) Centralized b) Decentralized

c) Unified d) ATM

15. The reasonable period allowed in India for the presentation of a cheque is –

a) 4 months b) 6 months

c) 3 months d) 5 months

16. Largest share holder (in percentage shareholding) of a Nationalized Bank is-

a) Government of India b) RBI

c) IDBI d) ICICI

17. Which bank was not nationalized in 1969?

a) Punjab National Bank b) Bank of Baroda

c) Union Bank of India d) Oriental Bank of Commerce

18. Electronic payment system is an-

a) Software b) Hardware

c) Application d) Package

19. The ATM pin is ………digit code number used for authenticating and authorizing

the use of the ATM facility by a customer.

a) Five b) Four

c) Six d) Ten

20. The first bank in India to be given an ISO certificate is –

a) Canara Bank b) SBI

c) Indian Bank d) Central Bank of India ------------------------------

1


Banking Law & Practice in India Subject Code: BCOM-404

Paper Code: FCJ-230

Time : 2:40 hours

M.Marks : 60


Attempt all questions (each question carry 4 marks)

Q.No.2. Explain the concept of creation of money.

OR

What are the sources and criterions of recruitment?

Q.No.3. What are the major functions of Stock Exchange in India?

OR

What are the main functions of Reserve Bank of India?

Q.No.4. What are the different forms of banker’s advances?

OR

Explain the functions and utilities of E-banking.

Q.No.5. Summarize the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 for Co-operative

Banks.

OR

What are the merits of privatization of Banks in India?

Q.No.6. Write short note on IDBI.

OR

Explain the various bank records.

Roll No.

2

Section C (Long answer type questions)


Q.No.7. Expound the need and importance of Commercial Banks in India.

OR

Explain the need and importance of controlling and staffing.

Q.No.8. Describe the relation between Commercial Banks and the Reserve Bank of India.

OR

Explain the functions of BSE in the development of India.

Q.No.9. Explain the principles which governs the secured advances.

OR

What are secured and unsecured advances of the Bank? What precautions should

a banker take while giving unsecured advances?

Q.No.10. How far does the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 apply to the nationalized banks?

Discuss.

OR

Explain the need and importance of privatization of Banks in India.

Q.No.11. Discuss the functions of IDBI and its role in the economic development of our

country.

OR

Explain the various needs and importance of statement of advances.

-----------------------------

1


Insurance Finance & Legislation Subject Code: BCOM-405


M.Marks : 10

Section A

[k.M&^v^ Objective Type Questions

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the correct answer.

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1. Sources of information for mortality tables are -

Ek``R;qnj rkfydkvksa ds lwpuk L=ksr gS &

a) Population Statistics b) Records of insurers

Tkula[;k lead chekdrkZvksa ds vfHkys[k

c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these

nksuksa (a) rFkk (b) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

2. The kinds of mortality tables are-

Ek``R;q&nj rkfydkvksa ds Ádkj gS &

a) 3 b) 4

c) 2 d) 6

3. The method(s) of premium computation is/are-

Áhfe;e fu/kkZj.k dh fof/k@fof/k;kW gS &

a) Assessment plan b) Natural premium plan

ewY;kadu ;kstuk ÁkÑfrd Áhfe;e ;kstuk

c) The level premium Plan d) All of these

lerk Áhfe;e ;kstuk mijksDr lHkh

4. The method(s) of loading is/are-

Ckks>u ds fu/kkZj.k dh fof/k@fof/k;kW gS&

a) The constant method

fLFkj fof/k

b) The percentage method

Áfr’kr fof/k

c) The modified percentage method

la’kksf/kr Áfr’kr fof/k

d) All of these

mijksDr lHkh

Roll No.


No.


2

5. The method(s) of calculation of net premium is/are-

’kq) Áhfe;e dh x.kuk dh fof/k@fof/k;kW gS &

a) Calculation of single premium for one year term insurance policy

,d o"khZ; vof/k chek i= ij ,d= Áhfe;e dh x.kuk

b) Calculation of single premium for five year term insurance policy

ikWp o"khZ; ,d= Áhfe;e vof/k chek i= dh Áhfe;e dh x.kuk

c) Both (a) and (b)

nksuksa (a) rFkk (b)

d) None of these

mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

6. The method(s) of calculating reserve is/are-

Lkap; dh x.kuk dh fof/k@fof/k;kW gS&

a) 2 b) 3

c) 4 d) 1

7. In endowment insurance policy, the amount is payable -

cUnkscLrh chek ikWfylh esa jde ns; gksxh &

a) At the time of death of policy holder

chfer O;fDr dh e`R;q gksus ij

b) At the end of the period, specified in the policy

chek vof/k iwjh gksus ij

c) (a) or (b) whichever is earlier

¼v½ ;k ¼c½ tks igys gks

d) (a) or (b) whichever is later

¼v½ ;k ¼c½ tks ckn esa gks

8. Factor(s) to be considered, while calculating premium rate is/are-

Áhfe;e nj dks fu/kkZfjr djrs le; /;ku j[kus okys rRo gS &

a) Rate of mortality b) Rate of interest

e``R;q nj C;kt nj

c) Rate of expenses d) All of these

[kpksZ dh nj mijksDr lHkh

9. Premium may be paid in life insurance -

Tkhou chek esa Áhfe;e pqdkbZ tk ldrh gSa&

a) Quarterly b) Annual

=Sekfld okf"kZd

c) Lump sum d) Any of above

,d eq’r mijksDr lHkh

10. Surrender value is applicable only in the case of -

Lkei.kZ ewY; dh O;oLFkk ykxw gksrh gS dsoy & a) Fire insurance b) Marine insurance

vfXu chek esa leqnzh chek esa

c) Life insurance d) General insurance

thou chek esa lkekU; chek esa

3

11. A policy acquires surrender value only, if the premium has been paid on it for at

least-

leiZ.k ewY; rHkh ÁkIr fd;k tk ldrk gS tcfd Áhfe;e de ls de-------------------------vof/k

ds fy, pqdkbZ x;h gS &

a) Six months b) One year

6 ekg ,d o"kZ

c) Three year d) Five year

rhu o"kZ ikWp o"kZ

12. Surrender value received by insured when he has paid-

leiZ.k eqY; chfer dks rHkh ÁkIr gksrk gS tc&

a) All premium installments paid

lEiw.kZ Áhfe;e fd’rksa dk Hkwxrku fd;k gks

b) Paid premium for certain years

fuf’pr o"kkZs rd Áhfe;e dk Hkwxrku gks

c) Not paid any premium

Áhfe;e dk fcYdqy Hkqxrku ugh fd;k gks

d) Not paid final installment

tc vafre fd’r u pqdkbZ gks

13. The method(s) of distribution of surplus is/are-

vf/k’ksl ds forj.k dh Á.kkyh@Á.kkfy;kW gS&

a) Simple reversionary bonus system

ljy ÁR;korhZ cksul Á.kkyh

b) Compound reversionary bonus

pØo``f) ÁR;korhZ cksul

c) Contribution bonus system

v’kanku cksul Á.kkyh

d) All of these

mijksDr lHkh

14. A cheque which is not crossed is called-

,d pSd] ftldk js[kkadu u gks] dgykrk gS

a) Uncrossed cheques b) Open cheques

vjs[kkfdar pSd [kqyk pSd

c) Order cheque d) Bearer cheque

vknsf’kr pSd okgd pSd

15. The types of crossing are-

js[kkadu ds Ádkj gS &

a) 2 b) 4

c) 1 d) 5

16. Life insurance consists-

Tkhou chek esa fufgr gS &

a) Risk and investment b) Only risk

tksf[ke ,oa fofu;ksx dsoy tksf[ke

c) Only investment d) None of these

dsoy fofu;ksx mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

mailto:�.kkyh@�.kkfy;kW

4

17. Objects of setting the LIC was/were-

Tkhou chek fuxe dh LFkkiuk dk mns~~’; Fkk@Fks

a) To protect the interest of policy holder

cheknkjksa ds fgrksa dh j{kk

b) Spreading the insurance

chek dk Álkj djuk

c) Financial arrangement for 5 years plans

iapo"khZ; ;kstukvksa ds fy, foRr O;oLFkk

d) All of these

mijksDr lHkh

18. When did the bill was passed for establishing Life Insurance Corporation of India?

Tkhou chek fuxe fo/ks;d dc ikfjr fd;k x;k &

a) June 1947 b) June 1956

twu 1947 twu 1956

c) June 1960 d) June 1970

twu 1960 twu 1970

19. Essential of the cheques-

pSd dh fo’ks"krk gS&

a) A written instrument b) An order

,d fyf[kr foys[k ,d vkns’k

c) Conditional order d) All of these

’krZlfgr vkns’k mijksDr lHkh

20. Essential for a valid endorsement is -

oS?k i``"Bkadu ds fy, vko’;d gSA

a) Signature of endorser b) Date of endorsement

i``"Bkadd ds gLrk{kj i``"Bkadu dh frfFk

c) Delivery after endorsement d) All of these

i``"Bkadu Ik’pkr~~ lqiqnZxh mijksDr lHkh

----------------------------------

1


Insurance Finance & Legislation Subject Code: BCOM-405

Paper Code: FCJ-231

Time : 2:40 hours

M.Marks : 60

Section – B

[k.M&^c^ (Short Answer Type Questions)

(y?kqmRrjh; iz’u)


lHkh iz’uksa ds mRrj nsaA (lHkh iz’uksa ds fy;s 4 vad fu/kkZfjr gSa)

Q.No.2. Briefly explain the importance of ‘Mortality Tables’.

*e``R;q&nj rkfydkvksa* ds egRo dks la{ksi esa le>kb;sA

OR

Distinguish between Net Premium and Gross Premium.

’kq) ÁC;kt ¼Áhfe;e½ rFkk ldy ÁC;kt esa vUrj crkb;sA

Q.No.3. Explain the ‘Constant Method’ of loading of premium.

Áhfe;e ds cks>u dh *fLFkj fof/k* dks le>kb;sA

OR

Explain in brief the factors affecting the rate of premium.

Áhfe;e nj dks ÁHkkfor djus okys ?kVdksa dks la{ksi esa le>kb;sA

Q.No.4. What is endowment life policy?

cUnkscLrh thou chek i= D;k gSa\

OR

What is Reserve? Explain the need of Reserve.

Lkap; D;k gksrk gS\ lap; dh vko’;drk dks le>kb;sA

Q.No.5. Explain the surrender value.

leiZ.k ewY; dks le>kb;sA

OR

Explain the sources of surplus.

**vkf/kD;** ds L=ksrks dks le>kb;sA

Q.No.6. Describe the main objectives of Life Insurance Corporation of India.

Hkkjrh; thou chek fuxe ds eq[; mns~~’;ksa dks crkb;sA

OR

What is ‘cheque’? Describe its characteristics.

*pSd D;k gS* \ bldh fo’ks"krk,W crkb;sA

Roll No.

2

Section C

[k.M&^l^ (Long answer type questions)

(nh/kZ mRrjh; iz’u) Attempt all questions (each question carry 8 marks)


Q.No.7. What is mortality table? How is it constructed and what are its types?

Ek``R;qnj rkfydk D;k gS\ ;g fdl Ádkj cuk;h tkrh gS vkSj fdrus Ádkj dh gksrh gS\

OR

What is premium?” Explain the use of mortality tables in determination of

premium.

Áhfe;e D;k gS\ Áhfe;e ds fu/kkZj.k esa e`R;qnj rkfydk dh mi;ksfxrk dks le>kb;sA

Q.No.8. Define loading? Explain the different methods of loading.

Ckks>u dh ifjHkk"kk nhft,\ cks>u yxkus dh fofHkUu fof/k;ksa dks crkb;sA

OR

Explain the various modes of payment of claim.

nkos ds Hkwxrku dh fofHkUu fof/k;ksa dks le>kb;sA

Q.No.9. State the main features of endowment policies. Explain any two main endowment

policies.

cUnkscLrh cheki=ksa dh fo’ks"krk,W crkb;sA fdUgh nks Áeq[k cUnkscLrh cheki=ksa dks la{ksi

esa le>kb;sA

OR

Explain the methods of calculating reserve.

Lkap; dh x.kuk djus dh fof/k;ksa dks le>kb;s\

Q.No.10. What is surplus? Explain the methods of distribution of surplus.

vkf/kD; D;k gS\ vkf/kD; ds forj.k dh fof/k;ksa dks le>kb;sA

OR

Explain the process of getting the surrender value of the policies.

Ckhek&i=ksa dk leiZ.k ewY; ÁkIr djus dh ÁfØ;k dks le>kb;sA

Q.No.11. What do you understand by crossing a cheque? Illustrate the several kinds of

crossings.

pSd ds js[kkadu ls vki D;k le>rs gS\ fofHkUu Ádkj ds js[kkdauksa ds mnkgj.k nhft,

OR

Describe the various parties to a Bill of Exchange mentioning their respective

rights and liabilities.

fofue; i= ds fofHkUu i{kdkjksa ds nkf;Ro o vf/kdkjksa dks lfoLrkj le>kb;sA

-----------------------------

1


HRM in Tourism Industry Subject Code: BCOM-406

Paper Code: FCJ-232

Time : 20 Minutes

M.Marks : 10

Section A


Attempt All Questions. Each question carries 1/2 mark. Use the symbol (√) in the box for marking the

correct answer.


1. Recruitment and selection must be effective to ensure it-

a) Offsets high labour turnover

b) Delivers the highest caliber of individuals at optimal most

c) To have a surplus in case of sickness and absence.

d) Encourages new blood into the organization

2. The timescale for performance appraisals are usually-

a) One year b) Biannually

c) 3 months d) At regular intervals

3. The individual, most associated with first recognizing the link between pay and

performance was given by -

a) Mayo b) F.W. Taylor

c) Herzberg d) Kohn

4. A set wage or salary is an expression of what type of reward?

a) Rewards as rights

b) Rewards as those which are contingent

c) Rewards which are discretionary

d) PRP

Roll No.


No.


2

5. The process of reorganizing a company’s employees to improve their efficiency is

termed as-

a) Right sizing

b) Down sizing

c) Retrenchment

d) Lay-offs

6. Redressal of employees’ grievances covers-

a) Positive attitude towards employees’ grievances and readiness to help

b) Expediting machinery for resolving employees’ grievances

c) Equitable salary system for all

d) Both (a) and (b)

7. Whistle Blowing is the situation wherein an employee-

a) Causes indiscipline in the organization

b) Disclose other employees’ illegal immoral or illegitimate activities

c) Discloses the employer’s illegal immoral or illegitimate activities

d) All of these

8. Job is defined as-

a) Set of activities performed in the organization

b) Set of activities similar as to kind of work

c) Set of position similar as to nature and kind of work

d) None of these

9. On-the-job training methods are not based on-

a) Demonstration methods b) Interactive methods

c) Vestibule Training method d) Apprentice training method

3

10. Performance appraisal includes-

a) Check reviews done by the supervisors

b) Review his performance in relation to the objectives and other behaviours

c) Promote employees for self appraisal

d) All of these

11. Human Resource Management,(HRM) is a part of the broad Human Resource

Development(HRD) System, as this focus to-

a) Selection, Induction, Training and Development

b) Operational and Organizational Option

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) None of these

12. Performance Appraisal is a double edged tool to-

a) Create space for the employee to organizationally survive.

b) Offering challenges for promotion.

c) Accompanying the course of Demotion.

d) All of these

13. Job Evaluation criterion comes from-

a) Job manual b) Job description

c) Job specification d) Job duration

14. The number of subordinates a superior can effectively handle is called-

a) Organizing people b) Span of control

c) Direction d) Coordination

15. The concept of stagnation in the context of HRM means-

a) Lack of appropriate selection criteria.

b) HR staff having very limited experience outside the HR function.

c) Over-reliance on the internal labour market to fill new positions.

d) Lack of integration of recruitment and selection into the wider

human resource function.

4

16. Expectancy Theory of Motivation was propounded by-

a) Porter and Lawler b) McGregor

c) Vroom d) J. Stacy Adams

17. The view that a distinctive set of HR practices can be applied successfully to all the

organizations irrespective of their settings is referred to as-

a) Best Procedure b) Best Performance

c) Best Practice d) Best Policy

18. A formal explanation of the knowledge, skills, abilities, traits and other characteristics

necessary for effective job performance is known as-

a) Job Description b) Job Analysis

c) Job Specification d) Job Enrichment

19. In which of the following methods grievances are ascertained at the time of employees

quitting the organization?

a) The exit interview method

b) The gripe-box system

c) The open-door policy

d) Opinion surveys

20. Which of the following best describes the theory X?

a) People are committed to their responsibilities.

b) Motivation is a result of rational behavior towards attaining goals.

c) The perceived relationship between a given level of efforts and

an expected performance.

d) None of these

------------------------------

1


HRM in Tourism Industry Subject Code: BCOM-406

Paper Code: FCJ-232

Time : 2:40 hours

M.Marks : 60

Section – B

(Short Answer Type Questions)


Q.No.2. What is the role of HRM in hospitality industry?

OR

Highlight any two HR practices of tourism industry.

Q.No.3. Define Human Resource planning.

OR

Differentiate between Selection and Recruitment. Also explain the process of

selection.

Q.No.4. Define reward. What different types of rewards can be offered to a person serving in

the operations of a travel agency?

OR

What are the steps taken by the tour operators to manage the poor performance of

their employees?

Q.No.5. List out the various personality traits required for an inbound tour operator.

OR

What role can informal communication play in improving the performance of an

organization?

Q.No.6. Explain how the Maslow’s theory of motivation can be applicable for tourism

professional.

OR

What points should be considered while communicating with a foreign tourist?

Roll No.

2

Section C



Q.No.7. “Human Resources policies are the guidepost to human resources management”.

Explain.

OR

Elucidate the evolution of Human Resources Management. Discuss its significance due to

emergence of large corporations.

Q.No.8. Why there has been an increased emphasis on human resource planning? Illustrate with

examples the process of human planning in a tour operations company.

OR

Why do organizations prefer internal sources of recruitment? Explain the advantages and

disadvantages of internal sources of recruitment.

Q.No.9. What do you mean by 360 degree appraisal? What are its relative merits and demerits?

OR

What procedure can be adopted for evaluating the skill up-gradation requirements?

Q.No.10. How will you evaluate the effectiveness of Integrated Personality Development Programme?

If not effective what steps would be taken to make it effective.

OR

Explain the role and the importance of communication skills for a tourism professional.

Q.No.11. “Money cannot motivate all people under all circumstances”. Discuss.

OR

Give an account of the complaint and the grievances practices followed in tourism industry.

----------------------------------

1


Foreign Trade Financing & Procedure Subject Code: BCOM -407


M.Marks : 10

Section A

[k.M&^v^


oLrqfu"B Á’u



lHkh iz’u vfuok;Z gSaA izR;sd iz’u gsrq 1@2 vad fu/kkZfjr gSaA lgh mRrj gsrq fn;s x;s ckDl esa (√) fpUg dk iz;ksx djsaA


lgh mÙkj pqfu,&

1. ……………..is a document issued by importer’s bank stating that payment will

be made to the exporter if the required documents are presented to the bank within

the validity period.

;g ,d Ái= gS tks vk;krd ds cSad }kjk tkjh fd;k tkrk gS ftlesa ;g fufgr gksrk

gS fd fu;kZrd dks oS|rk vof/k esa Hkqxrku dj fn;k tk;sxk ;fn vko’;d nLrkost

ÁLrqr dj fn;s tkosaA

a) Pre-shipment bill b) Bank Guarantee

iwoZ&f’kiesaV fcy cSad xkajVh

c) Letter of Credit d) Export order

lk[k i= fu;kZr vkns’k

2. EXIM Bank was established in the year-

,fXte (EXIM) cSad dh LFkkiuk gqbZ Fkha&

a) 1982 b) 1983

c) 1991 d) 1981

3. The operations of letter of credit have been regulated and governed by-

Lkk[k i= dh lapkyu fØ;k,a fu;af=r gksrh gS&

a) Uniform customs and practice for documentary credits

lesfdr dLVe ,oa MkD;wesaVªh lk[k fØ;k,a

b) FEMA

Qsek

c) Export Import Policy

vk;kr fu;kZr uhfr

d) Free trade agreement

eqDr O;kikj le>kSrk


Roll No.

Enrollment No.

2

4. What work does EXIM bank does -

,fXte (EXIM) cSad }kjk D;k dk;Z fd;s tkrs gSaA

a) Export financing b) Export services

fu;kZr laca/kh foÙk lqfo/kk fu;kZr lsok,a

c) Promotional activities d) All of these

ÁorZu xfrfof/k;ka mijksDr lHkh

5. The maximum period of pre-shipment finance is normally-

lkekU;r% iwoZ f’kiesaV foÙk gsrq vf/kdre vof/k gksrh gSaA

a) 90 days b) 180 days

90 fnu 180 fnu

c) 60 days d) 160 days

60 fnu 160 fnu

6. Mismanagement of export pricing could often lead to -

fu;kZr ewY;ksa ds vfu;feRkRkkvksa ls fuEu ÁHkko dh laHkkouk,a cu tkrh gSA

a) Competitive pressures

ÁfrLi/kkZRed ncko

b) Development of parallel markets

lekaukrj cktkj dk mn~~Hko

c) Pressures for price reductions

ewY; esa deh gsrq ncko

d) Both (b) and (c)

nksuksa (b) rFkk (c)

7. Medium and long term post shipment finance is extended by-

e/;e ,oa nh?kZdkyhu Ik’pkr f’kiesaV foÙk Ánku fd;k tkrk gSA

a) EXIM Bank b) SBI

,fXte cSad ,lchvkbZ

c) NABARD d) RBI

ukckMZ vkjchvkbZ

8. Which of the following is an external force that influences export pricing?

vk;kr ewY;ksa dks ÁHkkfor djus okys rRoksa esa ls fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk ,d ckg; rRo

gksxkA

a) Supply and demand

iwfrZ ,oa ekax

b) Location and environment of the domestic market

?kjsyw cktkj dk LFkku o Ik;kZoj.k

c) Government regulations in the home country

?kjsyw ns’k dh ljdkjh uhfr;ka

d) All of these

mijksDRk lHkh

3

9. Letter of Credit are used for all of the following except-

fuEu gsrq lHkh ds fy, lk[k i= dk Á;ksx fd;k tkrk gS] flok; ,d dks NksM+dj

a) As an important way of facilitating customs release of goods

eky ds dLVe ls NqM+okus ds le; ,d egRoiw.kZ ek/;e ds rkSj ij

b) As a standby to guarantee, to perform obligation.

nkf;Ro fuoZgu ds xkjaVh gsrq

c) As a method of financing export/import of goods

eky ds vk;kr ,oa fu;kZr ds foÙk gsrq

d) As a device to guarantee payment obligation

Hkqxrku nkf;Ro dh xkjaVh gsrq

10. The buyer or buyer’s bank has no right to stop payment (under a letter of credit

transaction) in order to inspect the quality of the goods shipped because of;

Lkk[k i= O;ogkj ds nkSjku Øsrk vFkok Øsrk dk cSad eky dh xq.koRRkk dh tkap ds

vk/kkj Hkqxrku ugha jksd ldrk D;ksafd a) The rule of strict compliance

Lk[r laiknu dk fu;e

b) The independent principle

Lor=a fl)kUr

c) The rule of red clause credit

jsM DykWt ØsfMV fu;e

d) The rule of stand by Letter of Credit

lk[k i= fodYi ds fu;ekuqlkj

11. In a Letter of Credit (L/C), the LC may be split among many parties, and each

party is able to present their own documents for payment.

,d lk[ki= ds varxZr lk[ki= fofHkUu i{kksa ij foHkkftr fd;k tk ldrk gS rFkk

ÁR;sd i{k Hkqxrku gsrq viuk Ái= ÁLrqr dj ldrk gSA

a) Revocable b) Transferrable

[kaMuh; gLrkarj.kh;

c) Red clause d) Confirmed

jsM DykWTk fuf’pr

12. Which of the following is not an advantage of export factoring?

fu;kZr QSDVfjax dk fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk ykHk ugha gSA

a) Factoring allows immediate payment against receivables and increase

working capital.

QSDVfjax dk;Z’khy iwWth esa o``f) ,oa nsunkjksa dk s RkRdky Hkqxrku Ánku djrk

gSA

b) Factors conduct credit investigations

QSDVj lk[k vuqala/kku vk;ksftr djrs gSA

c) Factoring us not a good substitute for bank credit when the letter is too

restrictive or uneconomical

QSDVfjax cSad lk[k dk Js"B ÁfrLFkkiu ugha gS tcfd og Áfrca/kkRed ,oa

vferR;;h gks

d) Factors assume credit risk in the event of buyer’s default or refusal to pay

QSDVlZZ lk[k tkssf[ke vuqekfur djrs gS tcfd Øsrk Hkqxrku gsrq vLohÑr gks

tkrs gSaA

4

13. ……………..is the practice of purchasing deferred debts arising from

international sales contracts without recourse to the exporter.

LFkfxr ns;rkvksa tks varZjk"Vªh; foØ; vuqca/k ls mRiUu gksrs gS] rFkk fu;kZrdksa ds

leFkZu ds cxSj O;ogkjksa ls mRiUu gksrs gSa dgykrs gSaA

a) Buyer credit b) Forfeiting

Øsrk lk[k gj.k

c) Discrepancy d) Discounting

vfu;ferrk dVkSrh

14. In the event of default by the exporter, EX-IM bank will cover percent of the

principal of the loan and interest, upto the date of claim for payment, in so far as

the lender has met all the terms and conditions of the guarantee agreement.

fu;kZrd ds Hkqxrku u djus dh n’kk esa ,fXte cSad ns; ewy/ku o C;kt ds Áfr’kr ij

ns; frfFk rd lqjf{kr djrk gS vxj Ánkrk us xkjaVh vuqca/k dh leLr ’krsZ iwjh dj

nha

a) 70 b) 80

c) 90 d) 100

15. The following payment method could be risky for the seller:

foØsrk ds fy, fuEufyf[kr Hkqxrku fof/k tkf[keiw.kZ gks ldrh gSA

a) Cash in advance b) Irrevocable letter of credit

vfxze udn v[kaMuh; lk[ki=

c) Open account d) Bank collection time draft

lh/ks [kkrs esa tek lhfer le; cSadlaxzg Mªk¶V

16. Packing credit is -

iSfdax ØsfMV ls vk’k; gS

a) An advance made for packing goods for export

iSfdax xqM~l ds fu;kZr gsrq vfxze

b) Pre-shipment finance for export

fu;kZr gsrq Áhf’kiesaV Qkbusal

c) A priority sector advance

vfxze ÁkFkfedrk {ks=

d) None of these

mijksDRk esa ls dksbZ ugha

17. Option forward contracts are available -

vkWI’ku] QkWjoMZ vuqca/k miyC/k gksrs gSA

a) For exporters only

dsoy fu;kZrd gsrq

b) For importers only

dsoy vk;krd gsrq

c) For exporters compulsorily only and for importers at their discretion

fu;kZrdksa gsrq vko’;d ,oa vk;krdksa gsrq funsZ’kkuqlkj

d) None of these

mijksDRk esa ls dksbZ ugha

5

18. The major player in foreign exchange market are -

fons’kh fofue; cktkj ds Áeq[k vax gksrs gSA

a) Commercial Banks

okf.kfT;d cSad

b) Corporates

dkWiksZjsV

c) Exchange brokers

fofue; czksdlZ

d) Central Bank of the country and the Central Government

dsanz ljdkj o dsnzh; cSad

19. A forward rate agreement helps the user to -

,d QkWjoMZ vuqca/k mi;ksxdrkZ dks fuEu lqfo/kk Ánku djrk gSA

a) Fix the rate of borrowing b) Reduce the cost of borrowing

_.kksa dh nj r; djuk _.kksa dh ykxr de djuk

c) Cover exchange risk d) Avail tax benefit

fofue; tksf[ke dh j{kk dj ykHk Ánku djuk

20. Packing credit guarantee is used for how many days?

iSafdx ØsfMV xkjaVh fdrus fnuksa ds fy, miyC/k gksrh gSA

a) 12 months b) 6 months

12 ekg 6 ekg

c) 10 months d) 8 months

10 ekg 8 ekg

---------------------------

1


Foreign Trade Financing & Procedure Subject Code: BCOM -407

Paper Code: FCJ-233

Time : 2:40 hours

M.Marks : 60

Section – B


(y?kqmRrjh; iz’u)



Q.No.2. Describe the role of commercial banks in financing foreign trade.

fons’kh O;kikj dks foÙk Ánku djus esa okf.kfT;d cSadks dh Hkwfedk le>kb;sA

OR

Explain in brief procedure adopted by banks for financing foreign trade.

cSadks }kjk fons’kh O;kikj dks foÙk Ánku djus dh ÁfØ;k dks la{ksi esa le>kb;saA

Q.No.3. Describe in detail the pre-shipment procedures for export of goods from India.

Hkkjr ls fu;kZr djus gsrq Áhf’kiesaV ÁfØ;k dks foLrkj ls le>kb;sA

OR

What necessary steps to be taken in post shipment stage?

iksLV f’kiesaV voLFkk gsrq dkSu&dkSu ls vko’;d dne mBkus pkfg,A

Q.No.4. What is Letter of Credit? Describe the procedure for opening letter of credit.

Lkk[k i= D;k gS\ lk[k i= tkjh djus dh ÁfØ;k D;k gSaA

OR

What are the functions of ECGC?

ECGC ds D;k dk;Z gSa\

Q.No.5. What are the various export pricing strategies?

fu;kZr ewY; laca/kh dkSu&dkSu lh j.kuhfr;ka gksrh gSaA

OR

What is the difference between pricing and costing for export?

fu;kZr gsrq dher fu/kkZj.k ,oa ykxr fu/kkZj.k esa D;k fHkUurk,a gSaA

Q.No.6. What do you mean by exchange fluctuation risk? How can it be minimized?

fofue; mPpkopu tksf[ke ls vki D;k le>rs gSaA bls fdl rjg U;wure fd;k tk

ldrk gSA

OR

Explain International Capital Market.

varjk"Vªh; iwWth cktkj dks le>kb;sA

Roll No.

2

Section C


(nh/kZ mRrjh; iz’u) Attempt all questions (each question carry 8 marks)


Q.No.7. Explain the importance of foreign trade financing?

fons’kh O;kikj dh foÙk lqfo/kk dk egRo le>kb;sA

OR

What role does RBI play in making available finance to exporters?

fu;kZrdksa dks foÙk miyC/k djokus esa vkjchvkbZ dh D;k Hkwfedk gksrh gSA

Q.No.8. Explain export financing. Discuss the importance of export finance.

fu;kZr foÙk dks le>kb;s\ fu;kZr foÙk ds egRo dks le>kb;sA

OR

What are the various forms of pre-shipment finance?

Áhf’kieasV foÙk ds dkSu&dkSu ls fofHkUu :Ik gSaA

Q.No.9. Write brief note on policies issued by ECGC?

ECGC }kjk tkjh dh xbZ uhfr;ksa ij ,d laf{kIr fVIi.kh fyf[k,A

OR

What are the different types of Letter of Credit? Explain them.

Lkk[k i=ksa ds fofHkUu Ádkj dkSu&dkSu ls gSaA le>kb;sA

Q.No.10. What do you mean by Export price? What factors affect it.

fu;kZr ewY; ls D;k le>rs gSa\ blds ÁHkkfor djus okys dkSu ls dkjd gSaA

OR

Explain procedure for obtaining long term export credit from EXIM Bank.

,fXte (EXIM) cSad }kjk nh?kZdkyhu lk[k Ánku djus dh ÁfØ;k dks le>kb;sA

Q.No.11. What is forward cover? Explain its advantages and disadvantages.

QkjoMZ doj D;k gS\ blds ykHk o gkfu;ka dks le>kb;sA

OR

Explain;

a) International trade under constant cost

b) Increasing opportunity cost

c) International trade under decreasing cost.

Lke>kb;s&

aa) fLFkj ykxr ij vrajk"Vªh; O;kikj

b) c<+rh gqbZ volj ykxr

c) ?kVrh ykxr ij varjk"Vªh; O;kikj

-----------------------------

1


Internet & E-Commerce Subject Code: BCOM-408


M.Marks : 10

Section A





1. By intranet, we mean-

a) An extension of the internet

b) An organizational network

c) An organizational network which uses TCP/IP protocol

d) A private organizational network which uses TCP/IP protocol

2. HTML stands for-

a) Hyper tech markup language

b) Hyper text markup language

c) Hyper text markup language

d) None of these

3. By E-commerce, we mean-

a) Commerce of electronic goods

b) Commerce which depends on electronics

c) Commerce which is based on the use of internet

d) Commerce which is based on transactions using computers

connected by telecommunications network.


Roll No.

Enrollment No.

2

4. Unique advantage of m-commerce is-

a) Anytime e-commerce

b) Anywhere e-commerce

c) Anytime and anywhere e-commerce

d) Inexpensive e-commerce

5. In the layered architecture of m-commerce consist of-

a) Six layers b) Five layers

c) Four layers d) Three layers

6. Among all mobile services for sending textual data, the most popular is-

a) GPRS b) SMS

c) IPVG d) GPS

7. The maximum length of message in SMS are-

a) Unlimited b) 160 characters

c) 80 bytes d) 320 bytes

8. The two major standards used in EDI are-

(i) EDIFACT

(ii) ANSI ×12

(iii) ANSI EDI

(iv) ISO EDI

a) (i), (ii) b) (iii), (iv)

c) (ii), (iii) d) (i), (iv)

9. EDI is used most in-

a) B2C e-commerce b) Commerce using internet

c) C2C e-commerce d) B2B e-commerce

3

10. XML-

a) Facilitate understanding of the type of a document.

b) Provides good formatting of document

c) Is an improvement HTML

d) Are very complicated and exhaustive

11. A payment system must meet the following requirements.

(i) Payment security.

(ii) Payment privacy

(iii) Mutual authorization of the two parties.

(iv) Non repudiation

a) (i), (ii) b) (i), (ii), (iii)

c) (i), (ii), (iv) d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

12. By payment system integrity, we mean-

a) Integrity of transaction

b) Non repudiation of agreed transaction

c) Privacy of transaction

d) Correctness of transaction

13. Dual digital signature is required to-

a) Settle disputes, between customer and merchant

b) Ensure authenticity of customer

c) Ensure authenticity of acquirer

d) Settle disputes between acquirer and credit card issuing bank.

14. Electronic cheque payments will be mostly used in-

a) C2C e-commerce

b) C2B e-commerce

c) B2B e-commerce

d) Interbank account reconciliation

4

15. An e- payment scheme becomes acceptable if it is-

(i) Economical

(ii) Scalable

(iii) Standardized

(iv) Good

a) (i), (ii) b) (i), (ii), (iii)

c) (i), (iii), (iv) d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

16. A payment gateway-

(i) Is a proxy which acts on behalf of a merchant to facilitate payment.

(ii) Can handle both credit card and electronic ECS payments.

(iii) Can handle e-cash payments.

(iv) Authenticates customers on behalf of merchants.

a) (i), (ii) b) (i), (ii), (iii)

c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) d) (i), (ii), (iv)

17. By encryption of a message, we mean-

a) Compressing it

b) Expanding it

c) Scrambling it to preserve its secrecy

d) Hashing it to a shorter abstract

18. Encryption can be done-

a) Only on textual data b) Only on ASCII coded data

c) On any bit string d) Only on mnemonic data

19. A web page is located using-

a) Universal Resource Links b) Universal Resource Locator

c) Universal Record Links d) Uniform Resource Links

20. The expansion of SSL is-

a) Secure Server Layer b) Secure Socket Layer

c) Simple Security Layer d) Security at Server Level

------------------------------

1


Internet & E-Commerce Subject Code: BCOM-408

Paper Code: FCJ-234

Time : 2:40 hours M.Marks : 60



Q.No.2. What is Extranet?

OR

What do you mean by Domain name?

Q.No.3. Explain technical components of E-commerce.

OR

What are the differences between traditional commerce and E-commerce?

Q.No.4. Define Dynamic Pricing.

OR

What is an electronic market?

Q.No.5. What do you mean by Electronic Funds Transfer?

OR

Why is authentication required in e-commerce?

Q.No.6. What is SSL?

OR

What is E-security?

Roll No.

2

Section C



Q.No.7. What is Internet service provider? How does it function?

OR

What is VSAT? What are its applications?

Q.No.8. What is E-commerce? Explain various functions of E-commerce.

OR

Give a layered architecture for m-commerce. Give the functions of each layer.

Q.No.9. What is EDI? Describe Key requirements of EDI in detail.

OR

What are business to business hubs? Explain B2B matrix.

QNo.10. What are the different types of electronic payment systems? Explain each of them.

OR

What type of encryption and communication are used in electronic clearance of pay

orders?

Q.No.11. What is secure hyper text transfer protocol? Briefly explain how it functions.

OR

What is triples DES (or 3DES)? Explain with a block diagram how the Triple DES is

implemented using DES encryption blocks.

-------------------------------------

1

B.Com. Fourth Semester Examination (Year 2015) English Language & Scientific Temper

Subject Code: FC-102

Paper Code: FCJ-235 Time : 3.00 hours

M.Marks : 70

Q1. Attempt any five questions 5x4 = 20 marks

a) Throw light on the context in which the essay „A Nice Cup of Tea‟ was written by

George Orwell.

b) Comment on H.G. Wells as a writer of fantasy fiction with special reference to

„The Man who could Work Miracles‟.

c) Critically analyze John Steinbeck‟s portrayal of Elisa in „The Chrysanthemums‟.

d) What is the central idea of Alexander Fleming‟s speech at the Nobel Banquet in

Stockholm on December 10, 1945?

e) Human interaction is just as important as learning. Discuss with reference to

Asimov‟s „The Fun They Had‟.

f) In Wordsworth‟s poetry, childhood is a magical, magnificent time of innocence.

Elucidate with reference to „The Tables Turned‟.

g) Analyze the poem „Urban‟ by Nissim Ezekiel as a poem of the post-independence

era.

Q2. Comprehension of the unseen passage: 10 marks

People moan about poverty as a great evil and it seems to be an accepted belief that if

people had plenty of money, they would be happy, and get more out of life. As a rule

there is more genuine satisfaction in life and more is obtained from life in the humble

cottage of the poor man than in the palace of rich men, who are attended by servants

and governesses at a later stage. At the same time I am glad to think they do not know

what they have missed.

It is because I know how sweet and happy and pure the home of honest poverty is,

how free from perplexing care and social envies and jealousies, how loving and united

the members are in the common interest of supporting the family that I sympathize

with the rich man‟s boy and congratulate the poor man‟s son. It is for these reasons

that from the ranks of the poor so many strong eminent self-reliant men have always

sprung. If you read the list of the “Immortals who were not born to die” you will find

that most of them have been poor.

Read the above passage carefully and answer the following questions:-

1. What is the popular notion about poverty? 1 mark

2. Where can one get more genuine satisfaction in life? 1 mark

3. Why does the author pity the rich man‟s boy? 1 mark

4. a) They do not know what they have missed (make it affirmative) 2 marks

b) People moan about poverty. (frame a wh-type)

5. Find two other words in the passage with similar meanings to „confusing‟ and

„self dependent‟. 2 marks

6. How has the author compared rich with poor? What is his conclusion? 2 marks

7. Give the passage a suitable title. 1 mark

Q3. I Letter Writing 8 marks

a) Your colony is facing a lot of problem now-a-days due to water shortage.

Write a letter to the Editor of your local newspaper stating the problem and

urging prompt action.

OR

Roll No.

2

b) You visited a new city for holidaying. Unfortunately the hotel room you had

booked was not ready upon your arrival. Write a letter of complaint to the

Hotel Manager giving details of the problem and stating what action would

you like the manager to take.

Q3. II Write a paragraph on any one topic. 7 marks

1. Uniforms should/should not be there for college students.

2. Nuclear disarmament is/is not an achievable goal.

3. A book that influenced me the most.

4. Technology can/cannot replace teachers.

Q4. Report writing 10 marks

Your college canteen is selling food items at a high rate. Students have a complaint

against this and they want the administration to step in and do something about it.

Write a report stating the problem and make appropriate suggestions.

OR

You have recently visited a music concert that showcased various artists from all over

India. Write a report about the program for your college magazine.

Q5. Language skills 10 marks

a) Grammar and usage

1. My school …….(hold) a food-and-fun fair next month to raise money for the

school building fund (suitable tense)

2. I………….in Canada for eight years. (suitable tense)

3. Maria ……… Chinese for two years (suitable tense)

4. She ……(look) very worried for the past few days (suitable tense)

5. Spicy food should not be placed…..reach of small children (preposition)

6. You should not do anything that is ………the rules (Preposition)

7. I go to the gym for work outs ……..(adverb)

8. Anna addressed the gathering……….for one hour (adverb)

9. The competitive test is …………. difficult. You must work hard. (Adverb)

10. I‟ll just have …..a cup of tea. (Determiner)

b) Vocabulary 5 Marks

1. Match the words with their meanings:

a) Ambiguous Friendly

b) Empathy Arrogant

c) Amicable Sentimental

d) Inevitable Compassion

e) Vain Unavoidable

f) Nostalgic Doubtful

2. Match the words with opposite meanings.

a) Cheap Generous

b) Clean Shallow

c) Deep Expensive

d) Mean Dirty

--------------------------------

1


Environmental Studies Subject Code: FC-103


M.Marks : 05

Section A

[k.M&^v^ Objective Type Questions

oLrqfu"B Á’u

Attempt All Questions. Each question carry 1/2 mark. Use the symbol (√) in the box for marking

the correct answer.

lHkh iz’u vfuok;Z gSaA izR;sd iz’u gsrq 1@2 vad fu/kkZfjr gSaA lgh mRrj gsrq fn;s x;s ckDl esa (√) fpUg dk iz;ksx djsaA


lgh mÙkj pqfu,&

1. The world environment day is celebrated on-

fo’o i;kZoj.k fnol dc euk;k tkrk gS\

a) 4th

June b) 5th

June

4 twu 5 twu

c) 8th

March d) 15th

June

8 ekpZ 15 twu

2. Which amongst the following is a type of phytoplanktons?

fuEu esa ls dkSu lk fodYi Qk;VksIysadVu dk ,d Ádkj gS\

a) Potamogeton b) Typha

iksVkekstuVu Vk;Qk

c) Trapa d) Euglena

VªSik ;qxyhuk

3. The ozone layer filters out all the radiations below_________________.

vkstksu dh ijr --------------------------------- ds uhps dh lHkh fodj.kksa dks ckgj fQYVj dj nsrh

gSA

a) 3000˚A b) 2000˚A

c) 5000˚A d) 1000˚A

4. Which amongst the following is the most populated continent of the world?

fuEufyf[kr ds chp esa ls nqfu;k dk lcls vf/kd vkcknh okyk egkn~ohi dkSu lk gS\

a) Asia b) Europe

,f’k;k ;wjksi

c) Australia d) North America

vkWLVªsfy;k mÙkjh vesfjdk

Roll No.


No.


2

5. Biotic components of the ecosystem which are unable to prepare their own food

but these consume, rearrange & decompose complex food are known as-

ikfjfLFkfrdh Á.kkyh ds tSfod ?kVd tks Lo;a vius [kkus dks cuk ikrs gSa vfirq ;s

tfVy [kkn~; inkFkZ dks iquO;ZfLFkr dj ds mudh [kir djrs gSa&

a) Autotrophs b) Producers

Loiks"kd mRiknd

c) Heterotrophs d) None of these

ijiks"kh mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

6. The full form of CFC is-

CFC dk Qqy QkeZ gS&

a) Chloro floro carbon b) Chlorine flourine carbon

Dyksjks ¶yksjks dkcZu Dyksjhu ¶yksjhu dkcZu

c) Carbonated floro carbon d) Carbon flourine compound

dkcksZusVM ¶yksjks dkcZu dkcZu ¶yksjhu dEikUM

7. Bangalore-Tamil Nadu Industrial region is the primary producer of-

caxyksj rfeyukMq vkSn~;ksfxd {ks= fdl pht dk ÁkFkfed mRiknd gS\

a) Coal b) Silk and cotton

dks;yk js’ke ,oa dkWVu

c) Steel d) Oil

LVhy rsy

8. United Nations Environmental programme was started in June 1972 at-

la;qDr jk"Vª dk Ik;kZoj.k dk;ZØe twu 1972 esa fdl txg ÁkjaHk gqvk Fkk\

a) New York b) London

U;w ;kdZ yanu

c) Sydney d) Stockholm

flMuh LVkadgkse

9. IPCC’s full form is-

IPCC dk Qqy QkeZ gS&

b) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

b) Intergovernmental Programme on Climate Change

c) International Programe on Climate Change

d) None of these

mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

10. Which amongst the following is/are the source of surface water?

fuEu fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls dkSu lk fodYi lrgh ty dk lzksr gS\ a) River b) Ponds

unh rkykc

c) Lakes d) All of these

>hy mijksDr lHkh

------------------------------

1


Environmental Studies Subject Code: FC-103


M.Marks : 30

Section – B


(y?kqmRrjh; iz’u)



Q.No. 2. Express your views on the conservation of forest resources.

ou lalk/kuksa ds laj{k.k is vius fopkj O;Dr djsaA

OR

What are natural resources and comment upon their importance?

Ák—frd lalk/ku D;k gksrs gSa ,oa mudh vgfe;r D;k gS bl fo"k; ij ys[k fy[ksaA

Q.No.3. Explain Ex-situ conservation of Bio diversity.

iwoZ lhVw laj{k.k&tSo fofo/krk ds laj{k.k dks le>kbZ;sA

OR

Write a note on over utilization of water resource.

ty lalk/kuksa dk vR;f/kd gks jgs mi;ksx ij viuh fVIi.kh dhft;sA

Q.No.4. Write a note on the factors affecting distribution of population.

tula[;k forj.k ls lacaf/kr eq[; dkjdksa ,oa muesa fofo/krk ij ,d uksV fy[ksaA

OR

What is pollution? Explain its various types.

Ánw"k.k D;k gS\ Ánw"k.k ds Ádkjksa ij Ádk’k MkysA

Q.No.5. Explain the importance of sustainable development.

LFkk;h vFkok Lkrr~~ fodkl ds egRo ds ckjs esa fy[ksaA

OR

Comment on the position of agriculture in India with reference to environment.

Hkkjrh; Ik;kZoj.k ds lUnHkZ esa Hkkjrh; —f"k dh fLFkfr ij fVIi.kh dhft,A

Q.No.6. Why is it important to create awareness for the conservation of natural resources?

Ák—frd lalk/kuksa ds laj{k.k ds fy;s lekt ,oa vke tu thou esa tkx#drk gksuk

D;ksa t#jh gS\

OR

Write a note on ozone layer depletion.

vkstksu ijr ds fjDrhdj.k ij Ádk’k MkysaA

Roll No.

2

Section C


(nh/kZ mRrjh; iz’u) Attempt all questions (each question carries 4 marks)

lHkh iz’uksa ds mRrj nsaA (lHkh iz’uksa ds fy;s 4 vad fu/kkZfjr gSa½

Q.No.7. What do you understand by Ecosystem? Throw some light on its types.

ikfjfLFkfrdh ra= ls vki D;k le>rs gSa\ blds eq[; Ádkjksa ij Ádk’k MkysA

OR

Elaborately discuss the importance of the Bio diversity Act 2002.

tSo fofo/krk vf/kfu;e 2002 ds egRo ij ppkZ djsaA

Q.No.8. What role can an individual play in the conservation of natural resources?

i;kZoj.k laj{k.k esa ,d vke ukxfjd dh D;k Hkwfedk gks ldrh gS crk,¡A

OR

Write about the adverse effects of population explosion on the environment.

tula[;k o`f) ds i;kZoj.k ij gks jgsa Áfrdwy ÁHkkoksa ds ckjs esa fy[ksaA

Q.No.9. Write a detailed note on the value of Biodiversity. Why is this diversity

necessary?

tSo fofo/krk ds egRo ds ckjs esa fy[ksaA ;g fofo/krk D;ksa t#jh gS ;g Hkh mtkxj djsaA

OR

What is a food chain? Explain by giving examples from the environment.

[kkn~~~; Ja`[kyk D;k gksrh gS\ i;kZoj.k ls tqM+s mnkgj.kksa ds }kjk le>kbZ;sA

Q.No.10. What is global warming? Explain.

Xykscy okfeZax D;k gS le>kbZ;sA

OR

Write a note about the major national parks and sanctuaries of India.

Hkkjr dh eq[; jk"Vªh; m|kuksa ,oa vH;kj.kksa ds ckjsa esa ,d uksV fy[ksaA

Q.No.11. Why are the construction of dams important? Also elaborate upon major problems

associated with it.

ck¡/kksa dk fuekZ.k D;ksa t#jh gS\ ck¡/kksa ds fuekZ.k ls tqM+h dfBukbZ;ksa ds ckjs esa Hkh crk,¡A

OR

What are the adverse effects of deforestation. Explain in detail.

isM+ksa dh vkR;kf/kd dVkbZ ls gks jgh gkfu ds ckjsa esa foLrkj ls fy[ksaA

------------------------

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