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    See Also:

    The "Son of God" Title in the 1 John 2:22

    What is the best way to convert non-Muslims to Islam?

    Jesus is Yahweh the Son? See how Christians got this very wrong in the NT, using Jesus' wordshimself!

    From: www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htm:

    Father and Son Definitions:

    Definition of Key Terms (a discussion between me and a Christian):

    1- What does "The Father" really mean in the Bible? How is it defined in Islam?(see point #5 below) How does the Bible really define it?

    2- What does "Son of GOD" really mean in the Bible?

    3- Jesus had to at least match Melchizedek in Miracles and Power. See thistext-debatebetween me and a Christian brother.

    4- Does the Bible say that Yahweh created Jesus? Yes it does.

    John 1:1

    "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and theWord was God was with authority(same Greek word for satan's rule[2][3])."

    http://www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htmhttp://www.answering-christianity.com/1john2_22.htmhttp://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,868.msg3373.html#msg3373http://www.answering-christianity.com/convert_christians.htmhttp://www.answering-christianity.com/1john2_22.htm
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    Detailed discussion about Jesus' Willwith ample verses.

    In Islam, there are three "Worlds" or Realms:

    (a)- GOD Almighty, who is not seen by anyone or anything, nor is likeunto anyone or anything.

    (b)- The World of Command, which is the invisible world of the Beings

    that were made by the Word and the Spirit.

    (c)- The World of Creation, the flush and blood, dust and waterphysical world and Universes (plural).

    Also visit: Is the Noble Quran a Creator or Creation?

    "Father" and "Son" in Islam and the Bible:

    5- Is Islam the anti-Christ system according to 1john 2:22? No it isn't. Here are

    some Bible facts regarding "FATHER" and "SON":

    (a)- Allah Almighty is the Believers' only Guardian) ):

    See Noble Verses 8:40, 22:13, 22:78. In Arabic we say

    , which means "The Legal Guardian". is derived

    from the root word . also means a chosen friend toAllah Almighty, as in the following point.

    (b)- FRIENDS = SONS in the Bible and Quran (,

    and

    ):

    We further read the following in the Bible:

    Isaiah 41:8"But you, Israel, my servant, Jacob, whom I have chosen, youdescendants of Abraham my friend,

    Chronicles 20:7Our God, did you not drive out the inhabitants of this land before yourpeople Israel and give it forever to the descendants of Abraham yourfriend?

    James 2:23And the scripture was fulfilled that says, "Abraham believed God, andit was credited to him as righteousness," and he was called God'sfriend.

    So being GOD Almighty's "SON" in the Bible is equal to being GODAlmighty's "FRIEND". Now compare this to the following from the HolyQuran:

    [002:257]Allah is the friend () and patron of those who believe.

    He brings them out of the depths of darkness into light. While those

    http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,868.msg3373.html#msg3373
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    who do not believe, have the forces of evil as their friends; they leadthem out of light, into the very depths of darkness. Such ones shall bethe inmates of the fire. They will stay there forever.

    [003:122](And remember) when the two groups among you lost heart(and almost fell out), even though Allah was their Friend and

    Protector ()? In Allah (alone), should the believers place their

    trust!

    [004:125]Who can be better in religion than one who submits hiswhole self to God, does good, and follows the way of Abraham the true

    in Faith? For God did take Abraham for a friend ().

    So the Bible's "FATHER" & "SON" for GOD Almighty and the Believers isclearly metaphoric, and it only means that GOD Almighty:

    1- Is the Protector.2- Is the Friend.3- Is the Guardian.

    Please visit the following link to further see what Words the GloriousQuran uses for these words and definitions:

    http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1368.msg5203.html#msg5203

    (c)- BEGET = CHOSE:

    Regarding the following verse, and many others like it:

    King James Bible Psalm 2:7I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me,Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.

    Let us look at Noble Verses 27:59, 3:33, 3:42, 7:144, 22:75, 35:32,38:47, 39:4from the Glorious Quran:

    [027:059]Say: Praise be to God, and Peace on his servants whom Hehas chosen (for his Message). (Who) is better?- God or thefalse gods they associate (with Him)?

    27:59

    [003:033]God did choose Adam and Noah, the family ofAbraham, and the family of 'Imran above all people,-

    3:33

    [003:042]Behold! the angels said: "O Mary! God hath chosen thee and purified thee- chosen thee above the women of allnations.

    3:42

    [007:144](God) said: "O Moses! I have chosen thee above(other) men, by the mission I (have given thee) and the words I (havespoken to thee): take then the (revelation) which I give thee, and be of

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    those who give thanks."

    7:144

    [022:075]God choosesmessengers from angels and from menfor God is He Who hears and sees (all things).

    22:75

    [035:032]Then We have given the Book for inheritance to such of OurServants as We have chosen : but there are among them somewho wrong their own souls; some who follow a middle course; andsome who are, by God's leave, foremost in good deeds; that is thehighest Grace.

    35:32

    [038:047]They were, in Our sight, truly, of the company of the Elect and the Good.

    38:47

    [039:004]Had God wished to take to Himself an (actual) son, He couldhave chosenwhom He pleased out of those whom He dothcreate: but Glory be to Him! (He is above such things.) He is God, theOne, the Irresistible.

    39:4

    Furthermore, when Jesus was asked about when the Hour will come,he replied by saying that only GOD Almighty Knows, and that no oneknows, and that Jesus himself also didn't know. Please visit:

    http://www.answering-christianity.com/questions.htmhttp://www.answering-christianity.com/ac7.htm#links

    Jesus spelled it out clearly that he knew NOT. And as to calling GODAlmighty "Father", and that Islam denies that GOD Almighty is anACTUAL FATHER to anyone, in Islam GOD Almighty is called:

    1- Rab - Lord, Father (you are the Rab of your home for being thehusband and the father).

    2- Wali - Guardian.

    In the old Aramaic and Hebrew, GOD Almighty was called what-is-equivalent-to-Islam our Rab and Wali. But that doesn't make GODAlmighty our actual Father. This is exactly as Judaism metaphors suchas idolatry is equivalent to spiritual adultery. No Jew is actuallymarried to GOD Almighty to actually commit a personal marriage-adultery against GOD Almighty! Yet, the Jews use metaphors likethese. Islam came to straighten all of this out and to set the recordstraight that GOD Almighty has no son and no daughter. Otherwise,why would GOD Almighty torture us to Hell if we were His perfect sonsand daughters?? No imperfect being could be an actual son of GODAlmighty (and no being is the son or daughter of GOD Almighty,period!):

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    [005:018](Both) the Jews and the Christians say: "We are sons of God,and his beloved." Say: "Why then doth He punish you for your sins?Nay, ye are but men,- of the men he hath created: He forgiveth whomHe pleaseth, and He punisheth whom He pleaseth: and to Godbelongeth the dominion of the heavens and the earth, and all that isbetween: and unto Him is the final goal (of all)"

    Again, please visit:http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1368.msg5203.html#msg5203.

    6- Did you know that Elohim is Allah [1] [2]. The "im" in Hebrew is a majesticplural for GOD Almighty. The root Word is "Eloh". And the more original Jewssuch as Yemenites and others say Alohim or Alah-im. And when you yourselfpronounce it, you do naturally pronounce it with a double "l": Allah. Jews docall Him: Allah-im. Aramaic-speaking people also call GOD Almighty Allah. Seethe following videos for Biblical references and proofs. Also, pre-IslamicBiblical archeological findingshave GOD Almighty as "Allah". So the OriginalHoly Name for GOD Almighty is not Eloh. It is Allah! Eloh is a Hebrew dialect,which not all Hebrew speakers use anyway. Allah had always been the Originaland Universal GOD Almighty even before birth of Judaism, and the existenceHebrew. And Hebrew is a developed language from Phoenician. See the

    following links:

    (Click to play videos)

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phoenician_alphabethttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biblical_Hebrew

    After you finish reading this article, please visit:The original Bible was lost! See comments from thecommentary of the NIV Bible(one of the most used Bibles world wide) itself admitting that most ofthe Books and Gospels of the Bible are corrupted. No one ever claimed ownership of the current

    Books and Gospels. The owners/writers are unknown.

    The following articles are important to read:

    The "God" title in the Bible was given to others in the OT and NT. Answering Isaiah 9:6. The "El" (God)title that was given to Jesus in the Old Testament, and the "HOTHEOS" (God) title in the New Testament, weregiven to others before and after Jesus in the Bible. The only UNIQUEtitle that exists in the Bible is"Yahweh", which means "The Eternal".

    The absolute Onenessof GOD Almighty in the Bible's Old Testament.

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    Texts referring to GOD as "One, Alone, None Other, None Else".

    "Son of God" means "Servant of God" in Hebrew. Bible agrees with Islam, not with pagan trinity.

    Do People and Angels bowing down to Jesus in Worship really prove that he is the Creator of the Universe? See how the word "Worship"used for Jesus doesn't even exist in the original Greek Bibles. The TrinitarianEnglish translations are nothing but hoaxes and deceptions. The article responds to Matthew 15:9and otherEnglish mistranslated verses in the Bible.

    Answering John 1:1.

    For detailed refutation to the rest of trinity lie, please visit my ANSWERING TRINITYsection.

    ******Obvious mistranslations of the Hebrew Manuscripts. See proofs of alterationsand deceptions done by the Jews and Christians to disprove Islam in the Bible.

    What does the Bible say about Jesus? (Answering Trinity and Isaiah

    9:6 in particular)

    Note: Please see my further responses to Trinity at the bottom of this page. Also, below, you will seemy response to the entire verse of Isaiah 9:6, which Trinitarians use heavily to prove that Jesus is theCreator of the Universe.

    ****Please pay close attention to the section where I responded to the "God"title given to Jesus in

    Isaiah 9:6, which I proved that it was also given to others before and after him as well in the Bible.

    Most Christians today claim that God Almighty came down to earth in a form of a human being anddied for our sins to forgive all of us. This is a belief that I struggled with for 3 years of my life. I was

    between Christianity and Islam not knowing which religion is the right one. I knew that both can notbe true. One of them had to be false. You may visit The purpose of this siteto learn more about mytestimony and why I decided to create this web site.

    An exaggerating expression in the Bible: The Bible contains many verses in it that contain irrationalstatements. For instance we read in Matthew 21:21" Jesus replied, 'I tell you the truth, if you havefaith and do not doubt, not only can you do what was done to the fig tree, but also you can say to this

    mountain, 'Go, throw yourself into the sea,' and it will be done. If you believe, you will receivewhatever you ask for in prayer.'" I challenge any "faithful" believing Christian to move one brick, not amountain with his sight or words. Have any Christian from the time of Jesus till now been able to doit?

    Another exaggerating expression is in Mark 16:17-18"And these signs will accompany those whobelieve: In my name they will drive out demons; they will speak in new tongues; they will pick upsnakes with their hands; and when they drink deadly poison, it will not hurt them at all; they will placetheir hands on sick people, and they will get well." Again, I challenge any Christian to allow himselfto get bit by a poisonous rattle snake or cobra and survive its venom.

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    Does this mean no "Christian" is a real Christian? Did Jesus say that no one will ever be a believer,since they can't lift mountains with their eye sights nor survive deadly poisons?

    Does the Bible contain exaggerating expressions in it? and if so, then how can you take the"Trinitarian" verses so literal then? They too are nothing but exaggerations (as I proved below in thisarticle) that do not prove that Jesus is the Creator of this Universe.

    Isaiah 9:6. "For there has been a child born to us, there has been a son given to us; and the princelyrule will come to be upon his shoulder. And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor, MightyGod, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace."

    The word "God" was used numerous times throughout the Bible to show someone's special authoritythroughout the Old Testament. But the GOD of the Bible is One GOD; see verses Genesis 18:14,Exodus 5:2, 6:3, 15:3, 20:7, 34:6, Leviticus 19:2, Deuteronomy 4:24, 6:5, 10:17, Isaiah 2:6, 16:7,17:47, Nehemiah 4:14, Psalm 3:8, and Jeremiah 10:10 Where they all talk about Jehovah being theliving One God and King.

    Note: In regards to Genesis 18 & 19, see my thorough refutation to the trinity lie that wasinvented using them.

    Now, in Isaiah 9:6"For there has been a child born to us......",

    Let us look at Isaiah 7:14"Therefore Jehovah himself will give you men a sign: Look ! The maidenherself will actually become pregnant, and she is giving birth to a son (Jesus the same person in Isaiah

    9:6), and she will certainly call his name Immanuel." Here in Isaiah 7:14 we see Allah Almighty orJehovah is speaking clearly to the people of Israel predicting to them the coming of Prophet Jesus

    peace be upon him. It doesn't say that "Jehovah" will come down and will be born from that woman.

    Also, let us look at Luke 1:34 - 1:35"But Mary said to the angel: How is this to be, since I am havingno intercourse with a man? In answer the angel said to her: Holy Spirit will come upon you, and

    power of the Most High will overshadow you. For that reason also what is born will be called holy,God's Son."Again, here in this verse we don't see Allah Almighty or Jehovah saying that he will be

    born from Mary the Virgin. The angel told her that she will have a miracle by becoming pregnantwithout intercourse, and she will bring a holy person to life.

    Also, let us look at Mathew 1:18-21"But the birth of Jesus Christ was in this way. During the time hismother Mary was promised in marriage to Joseph, and was found to be pregnant by holy spirit beforethey were united. How ever, Joseph her husband, because he was righteous and did not want to makerher a public spectacle, intended to divorce her secretly. But after he had thought these things over, look! Jehovah's angel appeared to him in a dream, saying: Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to takeMary your wife home, for that which has been begotten in her is by holy spirit. She will give birth to ason, and you must call his name Jesus for he will save his people from their sins". This verse clearlydoesn't state that Jehovah was going to be born from Mary the Virgin. It states that someone other thanJehovah who's name will be "Jesus" will be born from her.

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    Also, let us look at John 1:14"So the word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view ofhis glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of undeserved kindnessand truth." Again, this verse clearly states that Jehovah or Allah didn't come in a form of a man. It wasGod's son who came to us. God's only begotten son. Further down in my paper you will see the realdefinition of the word "Son" and what it really means. The word "Son" doesn't mean actual biologicalson at all. You will see it further down.

    Let us look at Luke 2:11"Because there was born to you today a Savior, who is Christ (the) Lord, in

    David's city." The word "Lord" in here doesn't mean GOD or Allah Almighty at all. It simply meansthe master or the leader or the teacher or the most respected or the most admired among his people.But it certainly doesn't refer to the Creator of this Universe. That is not what the word Lord means.We use the word "Lord" a lot for "Drug Lords" or "Market Lords", etc.... They are not GODs. TheseLords are simply powerful people who have a lot of influence on us.

    Defining the meaning of the word "Son":

    After you finish reading this section, please visit: "Son of God" is same as "Servant of God" inHebrew. Bible agrees with Islam, not with pagan trinity.

    Now in Isaiah 9:6"....there has been a son given to us,.........",

    Now let us look at John 3:16"For God loved the world so much that he gave his only begotten Son, inorder that everyone exercising faith in him might not be destroyed but have everlasting life."Ironically, Trinitarians from my personal experience with them rely on this verse (John 3:16) veryheavily when trying to prove that Allah or Jehovah came down to earth to die for our sins. They claimthat Jesus being God's unique son, makes him the only Son for God, which ultimately lead us to theconclusion that Jehovah is Jesus.

    Also, let us look at Hebrews 11:17"By faith Abraham, when God tested him, offered Isaac as asacrifice. He who had received the promises was about to sacrifice his one and only son...." Abrahamhad two sons: Ishmael and Isaac. Ishmael was 13 years older than Isaac. Yet we see that "his one andonly son"expression was used for Isaac. The Bible uses expressions like this to magnify people or toglorify someone on a certain occasion. The Bible in this verse glorifies Isaac for being the chosensacrifice to God, according to what the Jews and Christians claim in their corrupted Bible. So Jesus

    being God's "only begotten Son" in John 3:16doesn't make him God nor the only Son of God.

    Please visit Isaac and Ishmael in Islam and Christianity.

    Now, Let us look at Exodus 4:22 "Thus saith Jehovah, Israel is my son, even my firstborn." Here wesee in this verse that Israel is not only God's so called "Son", but also his first born !!. Does this meanthat Jehovah is Israel? Does it mean that we must worship Israel as Jehovah or Allah? Of course not!!!

    Also, let us look at Jeremiah 31:9"I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is my firstborn." Ephraim inthis verse means Israel. This verse is similar to Exodus 4:22.

    Let us also look at Psalm 2:7"....Jehovah had said onto me (David), thou art my Son; this day have Ibegotten thee." Here in this verse we see that God not only called David his "Son", but also had madehim his begotten Son !!!.

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    Swapping Game: Let us play a little swapping game between the verses of John 3:16, Exodus4:22, Jeremiah 31:9, and Psalm 2:7. Let us take "his only begotten Son"from John 3:16and replace itin Exodus 4:22, and let us take "even my firstborn"from Exodus 4:22and replace it in John 3:16.

    Do you honestly think that the little swap game above would change anything in the meaning? Wouldyou still have believed in Jesus as Jehovah if the above swap was true?

    The above swap proves that the word "Son" doesn't mean actual biological "Son" at all. It just meansthat Jesus is a "Son" of Jehovah in a way that Jehovah loved him so much that he chose him to be hismessenger to the people of Israel.

    Another Swapping Game: Let us replace "I begotten thee"from Psalm 2:7, and replace it inJohn 3:16, and take "his only begotten Son" from John 3:16 and replace it in Psalm 2:7

    Again, do you honestly think that the little swap game above would change anything in the meaning?Would you still have believed in Jesus as Jehovah if the above swap was true?

    Clearly, the above swap proves that the word "Son" doesn't mean actual biological "Son" at all. It justmeans that Jesus is a "Son" of Jehovah in a way that Jehovah loved him so much that he chose him to

    be his messenger to the people of Israel.

    Jesus worshiping his God:

    Let us look at Luke 5:16"And he (Jesus) withdrew himself into the wilderness and prayed to his God."Here we see that Jesus had a God, a supreme God, who is higher than him and stronger than him.Jesus was God's servant and he prayed to God so God would strengthen him more and reinforce himwith patience and desire to continue his mission in spreading the word of God Almighty.

    Also, let us look at Matthew 26:39"And going a little way forward, he (Jesus) fell upon his face,prayingand saying 'My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass away from me. Yet, not as I will, butas you will.' " Here in this verse we see two things: (1) Jesus bowed down on his face and prayed insubmission to his GOD in obedience. (2) Jesus was begging his GOD to let the cup pass away fromhim. Jesus did not have the power to will it for himself and make the cup pass away from Jesus. GODhad to do it for Jesus !. How can Jesus be the Creator of this Universe, the all knowing, most

    powerful??!!

    Also, let us look at Matthew 26:42"Again, for the second time, he (Jesus) went off and prayed,saying: 'My Father, if it is not possible for this to pass away except I drink it, let your will take place.'"My comments on this verse are similar to the above one (Matthew 26:39), Jesus begged his GOD towill what Jesus wanted to happen. Jesus couldn't will it by himself.

    Also, let us look at Matthew 26:44"So leaving them, he (Jesus) went off and prayed for the third time,saying once more the same word." Here we see that Jesus for the third time begged his GOD to willwhat Jesus wished for in Matthew 26:39above. How can Jesus be the Creator of this Universe if he (1

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    begs, and (2) lacks power?!

    Now in Isaiah 9:6"......and the princely rule will come to be upon his shoulder......",

    Let us look at Luke 22:29"and I make a covenant with you, just as my Father (my GOD) has made acovenant with me, for a kingdom,". Here we see that Jesus came down to serve Jehovah's Kingdom. It

    wasn't Jehovah who was in Jesus in this verse. It was Jesus the Messenger of God who was serving hisGod's Kingdom, Jehovah's Kingdom.

    Let us look at 2 Samuel 7:13 -14"He (David) is the one that will build a house for My Name(Jehovah's Name), and I shall certainly establish the throne of his kingdom firmly to time indefinite. Imyself shall become his Father (His Guardian or Inspirer), and he himself will become my son. Whenhe does wrong, I will also reprove him with the rod of men and with the strokes of the sons of Adam."In this verse, we see that David who came before Jesus had done the same thing to God as Jesus did.David was a king, leader, and a messenger from God. It doesn't say that Jehovah is in David, nor itsays that David is Jehovah. The same way we interpret 2 Samuel 7:13-14 and all the verses aboutDavid should be the same way we should interpret the Verses that talk about Jesus. Jesus is not

    Jehovah, nor ever was.

    Let us look at Revelation 19:16"And upon his (Jesus) outer garment, even upon his thigh, he has aname written, King of kings and Lord of lords." Here we see that Jesus was called the King of allKings and the Lord (leader or master) of all Lords (masters). It doesn't prove anything about Jesus

    being Jehovah, nor ever talks about Jehovah.

    Let us look at Mathew 28:18-20 "And Jesus approached and spoke to them, saying: All authority(from GOD) has been given me in heaven and on the earth. Go therefore and make disciples of peopleof all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father (God), the Son (Jesus), and the Holy Spirit(GOD's inspiration), teaching them to observe all the things I have commanded you. And look! I am

    with you all the days until the conclusion of the system of things." Here in this verse we have fewpoints that Trinitarians often confuse. Trinitarians use this verse very heavily to try to prove thatJehovah or Allah is 3 in 1, meaning that GOD is the father + Jesus + The Holy Spirit.

    This claim is a false one, because when Jesus said in Mathew 28:18-20".....All authority (from GOD)has been give to me in heaven and on the earth...."it clearly shows that Jesus had a stronger or higher

    power over him. One has to ask himself a very simple question here: How can GOD say that GODhad given him authority? It doesn't make any sense, does it?

    Also, when Jesus in Mathew 28:18-20 said ".....baptizing them in the name of the Father (God), the Son(Jesus), and the Holy Spirit (GOD'S inspiration)...."he didn't say go and baptize people in my name(Jehovah). He mentioned his GOD first, then himself (GOD'S messenger), and in GOD's inspiration(The Holy Spirit). This clearly disproves the claim that GOD IS THREE = GOD+JESUS+HOLYSPIRIT.

    Also, when Jesus in Mathew 28:18-20 said "......teaching them to observe all the things I havecommanded you....."well of course Jesus's disciples needed to teach people from what Jesus taughtthem !!!. Jesus was GOD's messenger, and God's favorite "Son" at that time. GOD had inspired Jesuswith all the teachings that people need to go and preach worshiping Jehovah, love and harmony to all

    people.

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    Also, when Jesus said in Mathew 28:18-20 ".....And look! I am with you all the days until theconclusion of the system of things."he (Jesus) was referring to the Holy Spirit that GOD will send toJesus's disciples through either Jesus's inspiration or GOD's inspiration to them. This also doesn't

    prove that Jesus is Jehovah or Allah. We must keep in mind that Jesus was not a normal human being.He was the King of all Kings and the Lord of all Lords as stated above in ( Revelation 19:16. He had

    power from GOD, and he was GOD's favorite "Son" at that time. Jesus had the power to inspire hisfollowers through GOD's Power, because GOD allowed him to do that.

    Further more about Matthew 28:18-20from www.jewsforjudaism.org:

    Question: Doesn't the command by Matthew's Jesus to, "Go therefore, and teach all nations, baptizingin the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit" (Matthew 28:19) show the existence of atriune deity.

    Answer: Matthew 28:19 states: "Go therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing in the name of theFather, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit." Although the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are groupedtogether, this verse does not prove the existence of a triune deity. The verse merely indicates the

    author's belief that they are to be mentioned together during baptism. Each is thought to have a functionin the initiation of the believer during the baptism ritual. Yet no doctrine of coequality among them is

    promulgated in this verse.In the early period baptism was simply in "Christ" (Galatians 3:27) or in the name of Jesus (1Corinthians 1:13, Acts 8:16, 19:5). The text in Matthew represents a later stage of development, but isstill not trinitarian in meaning. The doctrine of the trinity is a still later development.

    Let us look at Hebrew 5:7"During the days of Jesus' life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitionswith loud cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his

    reverent submission." Here we see Jesus prayed to God be saved and God HEARD ( in any religiousspeech the HEARD means that the person has been answer with the prayer) him.

    Let us look at Mark 12:29"The first of all the commandments is, Here, O Israel: The Lord our God isone Lord." If trinity was a valid belief, then Mark 12:29 would have said "God is three in one".

    Let us also look at Acts 3:22 "In fact, Moses said: Jehovah will raise up for you from among yourbrothers a prophet like me. You must listen to him according to all the things he speaks to you." Herewe see Prophet Moses peace be upon him predicting the coming Prophet Jesus peace be upon him.Acts 3:22 didn't say that Jehovah will come down to earth in a form of a human being. Moses said inActs 3:22".....a prophet like me.....", which means that Jesus will be a human being like Moses. If

    Jesus was Jehovah or Allah himself, then Moses wouldn't have said ".....a prophet like me.....".

    Let us look at Mathew 3:16"After being baptized Jesus immediately came up from the water; and,look! the heavens were opened up, and he saw descending like a dove God's spirit coming upon him.Look! Also, there was a voice from the heavens that said: This is my Son, the beloved, whom I haveapproved." Here we see how much GOD loved Jesus and how much he admired him. Jehovah orAllah in Mathew 3:16 was clearly greeting his messenger (Jesus), and telling him how much he loveshim.

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    The devil tempting Jesus 3 times:

    In Mathew 4:1-2"Then Jesus was led by the spirit up into the wilderness to be tempted by the Devil.After he had fasted forty days and forty nights, then he felt hungry." One has to ask himself a verysimple question here: Why would Jesus allow the Devil to lead him to the wilderness to try to tempthim if he were God? This clearly proves that Jesus is not and can not be God!!!.

    In Mathew 4:5-6 "The the devil took him along into the holy city, and he stationed him upon the

    battlement of the temple and said to him: If you are a son of God, hurl yourself down; for it is writtenHe (Jehovah) will give his angels a charge concerning you, and they will carry you on their hands, thatyou may at no time strike your foot against a stone. Jesus said to him: Again it is written, you mustnot put Jehovah your God to the test." Here we see that the devil for the second time tried to temptJesus and have him do things that would make him doubt his GOD Jehovah or Allah. Jesus replied tohim by telling him that no matter what you try to do, you will never be able to test your GOD (yourcreator). The devil was trying to have Jehovah or Allah send angels to Jesus, and Jesus made it clear tothe devil that no one can put GOD to the test, and no one can have GOD do anything without the willof GOD. The devil will never be able to have Jehovah or Allah send down his angels if Jehovah didn'twill it.

    In Mathew 4:8-10"Again the devil took him along to an unusually high mountain, and showed him allthe kingdoms of the world and their glory, and he said to him: All these things I will give you if youfall down and do an act of worship to me. Then Jesus said to him: God away Satan! For it is written, Iis Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone, you must render sacred service." Herewe clearly see that after the devil offered Jesus the world, Jesus told him to go away and to go andworship Allah Almighty or Jehovah. One has to ask himself a very simple question here: If Jesus wasJehovah, then how come he didn't tell Satan in Mathew 4:8-10 "It is me whom you must worship" ?Jesus told Satan "It is Jehovah your God you must worship", which clearly shows that Jesus is notJehovah!!!.

    Please visit: "Jesus obeyed Satan". Sam Shamoun of the "answering Islam" team admitted it throughhis teeth, that Jesus obeyed satan for a little while when he was tempted. How can Jesus be the Creatorof the Universe when he was tempted by satan and obeyed him for a little while? This not only takesaway Jesus' perfection, but it also put him in sin.

    From www.answering-christianity.com/satans_offer.htm

    Let us look at the following verses from the Bible:

    "Again, the devil took him to a very high mountain and showed him all the kingdoms of the world andtheir splendor. "All this I will give you," he said, "if you will bow down and worship me." Jesus said tohim, "Away from me, Satan! For it is written: 'Worship the Lord your God, and serve him only.'" (From the NIV Bible, Matthew 4:8-10)"

    "Fear the LORD your God, serve him only and take your oaths in his name. (From the NIV Bible,Deuteronomy 6:13)"

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    There are three logical problems with the polytheist trinity paganism in these verses:

    1- Notice how satan told Jesus "if you will bow down and worship me." It is crystal clear that satanknew Jesus as a Messenger from GOD Almighty, and not GOD Almighty Himself. Otherwise, hewouldn't dare to tell his Creator that.

    2- Notice Jesus' response to satan: "Away from me satan! For it is written 'Worship the LORD yourGod, and serve Him only". Jesus here was clearly directing satan to GOD Almighty; a being other

    than Jesus. Jesus did not tell satan "worship me".

    3- Deuteronomy 6:13 is the verse that Jesus referred to when he said "For it is written". However,Deuteronomy 6:13 says "and take your oaths in his name." What is that Name? It is Yahweh orJehovah. Jesus never even once was ever called Jehovah or Yahweh! Not even once!

    Please visit: The absolute Oneness of GOD Almighty in the Bible's Old Testament.

    Texts referring to GOD as "One, Alone, None Other, None Else".

    Principles of Bible Interpretation about GOD Almighty.

    The word "LORD" in the Bible referring to the Almighty GOD alone.

    The word "Elohim" proves Trinity?

    More on absolute Oneness of GOD Almighty in the Bible's Old Testament.

    The "God" title in the Bible was given to others in the OT and NT. Answering Isaiah 9:6.

    Now in Isaiah 9:6"......And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor......"Let us look at Isaiah 11:2-3 "And upon him the spirit of Jehovah must settle down, the spirit of wisdomand of understanding, the spirit of counselor and of mightiness, the spirit of knowledge and of the fearof Jehovah; and there will be enjoyment by him in the fear of Jehovah." In this verse, we clearly seethat Jehovah or Allah Almighty will be with Jesus to guide him, inspire him, and to educate him. Thatspirit is called the spirit of Mightiness, where God had blessed his messenger Jesus peace be upon himwith that holy spirit. This verse clearly shows that Jesus is not Jehovah. In Isaiah 11:2 -3 we see GODAlmighty had defined for the meaning of spirit of Jehovah. It means the spirit knowledge and knowingthe full truth, and the spirit of leading people to the path of GOD, and finally the spirit of fearingJehovah, where Jesus must fear Jehovah and do only what Jehovah command him to do because Jesus

    is Jehovah's messenger and not Jehovah himself.

    Let us look at Isaiah 42:1 "Look! My servant (Jesus), on whom I keep fast hold! My chosen one, whommy soul has approved! I have put my spirit in him. Justice to the nations is what he will bring forth."Here we see clearly that Jehovah or Allah Almighty had called Jesus his servant. His chosen servant,whom GOD had put the spirit of guidance (as shown in the previous verse Isaiah 11:2-3) into him toguide him and to teach him the truth so he can deliver it to his people, the people of Israel and tonations that will receive his message. God was talking about Jesus as his servant and not as himself.

    Let us look at Isaiah 52:13"Look! My servant (Jesus) will act with insight (inspiration from GOD). Hewill be in high station and will certainly be elevated and exalted very much." Here again, we see GOD

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    talking about Jesus as her servant and not as himself, and is promising that his servant (Jesus) will bewell respected and well admired. GOD will inspire Jesus all the way throughout his ministry so theycan learn the full truth. It doesn't prove anything about Jesus being GOD himself !!!.

    Let us look at Mathew 12:18"Look! My servant (Jesus) whom I chose, my beloved, whom my soulapproved! I will put my spirit upon him, and what justice is he will make clear to the nations." Thisverse is similar to Isaiah 42:1where Allah Almighty or Jehovah calls Jesus his servant and not himself,and promises to inspire him all the way through his ministry. Let us see the many others who carried

    GOD's Spirit in them in the Bible:

    Others who carried GOD's Spirit in them:

    Numbers 24:2"When Balaam looked out and saw Israel encamped tribe by tribe, the Spirit of Godcame upon him"

    Judges 3:10"The Spirit of the LORD came upon him, so that he became Israel's judge and went to war.The LORD gave Cushan-Rishathaim king of Aram into

    the hands of Othniel, who overpowered him."

    Judges 6:34"Then the Spirit of the LORD came upon Gideon, and he blew a trumpet, summoning theAbiezrites to follow him."

    Judges 11:29"Then the Spirit of the LORD came upon Jephthah. He crossed Gilead and Manasseh,passed through Mizpah of Gilead, and from there he advanced against the Ammonites."

    Judges 14:6"The Spirit of the LORD came upon him in power so that he tore the lion apart with hisbare hands as he might have torn a young goat. But he toldneither his father nor his mother what he had done."

    Judges 14:19"Then the Spirit of the LORD came upon him in power. He went down to Ashkelon,struck down thirty of their men, stripped them of their belongings and gave their clothes to those whohad explained the riddle. Burning with anger, he went up to his father's house."

    Judges 15:14"As he approached Lehi, the Philistines came toward him shouting. The Spirit of theLORD came upon him in power. The ropes on his arms became like charred flax, and the bindingsdropped from his hands."

    1 Samuel 10:6"The Spirit of the LORD will come upon you in power, and you will prophesy withthem; and you will be changed into a different person."

    1 Samuel 10:10"When they arrived at Gibeah, a procession of prophets met him; the Spirit of Godcame upon him in power, and he joined in their prophesying."

    1 Samuel 11:6"When Saul heard their words, the Spirit of God came upon him in power, and heburned with anger."

    1 Samuel 16:13"So Samuel took the horn of oil and anointed him in the presence of his brothers, andfrom that day on the Spirit of the LORD came upon David in power. Samuel then went to Ramah."

    1 Samuel 16:16"Let our lord command his servants here to search for someone who can play the harp.

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    He will play when the evil spirit from God comes upon you, and you will feel better." GOD HAS ANEVIL SPIRIT??!!

    1 Samuel 16:23"Whenever the spirit from God came upon Saul, David would take his harp and play.Then relief would come to Saul; he would feel better, and the evil spirit would leave him."

    1 Samuel 18:10"The next day an evil spirit from God came forcefully upon Saul. He was prophesyingin his house, while David was playing the harp, as he usually did. Saul had a spear in his hand..."

    ANOTHER EVIL SPIRIT FROM GOD??!!

    1 Samuel 19:9"But an evil spirit from the LORD came upon Saul as he was sitting in his house withhis spear in his hand. While David was playing the harp,..." ANOTHER EVIL SPIRIT FROMGOD??!!

    1 Kings 22:23"God sent LYING SPIRITS to lie to people" Does GOD lie?!

    1 Samuel 19:20"so he sent men to capture him. But when they saw a group of prophets prophesying,with Samuel standing there as their leader, the Spirit of God came upon Saul's men and they also

    prophesied."

    1 Samuel 19:23"So Saul went to Naioth at Ramah. But the Spirit of God came even upon him, and hewalked along prophesying until he came to Naioth."

    2 Chronicles 15:1"The Spirit of God came upon Azariah son of Oded."

    Ezekiel 11:5"Then the Spirit of the LORD came upon me, and he told me to say: "This is what theLORD says: That is what you are saying, O house of Israel, but I know what is going through yourmind."

    Ezekiel 37:1"The hand of the LORD was upon me, and he brought me out by the Spirit of the LORD

    and set me in the middle of a valley; it was full of bones."

    Luke 1:35"The angel answered, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you (Mary), and the power of theMost High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God."

    Luke 2:25"Now there was a man in Jerusalem called Simeon, who was righteous and devout. He waswaiting for the consolation of Israel, and the Holy Spirit was upon him."

    Why do we have to consider Jesus as the Creator of this Universe or someone who is

    equal to GOD just because GOD had put His spirit in Jesus, and not consider the

    many others who carried GOD's spirit above as equal to GOD?

    Now, let us look at John 4:34 "Jesus said to them: My food is for me to do the will of him (Jehovah)that sent me and to finish his work."Here we see clearly that Jesus told his followers that GOD ishigher than him, and Jesus can only do things within Jehovah's will. Also Jesus said that his mission isto finish the work of Jehovah that was assigned to Jesus peace be upon him.

    Let us look at John 5:30 "I cannot do a single thing of my own initiative; just as I hear, I judge; and thejudgment that I render is righteous, because I seek, not my own will, but the will of him that sent me."Here we see two things in this verse: First, Jesus recognized, admitted and preached to his followers

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    that his is nothing special nor have any power in him. Second, Jesus does nothing of his own will; heonly does the will of GOD who sent him and who inspires him.

    Let us look at John 5:31"If I (Jesus) alone bear witness about myself, my witness is not true. There isanother that bears witness about me, and I know that the witness which he bears about me is true."Here we also see that Jesus admits and preaches to his followers that he is not powerful. The only

    powerful is GOD, his GOD.

    Let us look at John 5:36-38 "But I have the witness greater than that of John, for the very works thatmy Father (my GOD) assigned me to accomplish, the works themselves that I am doing, bear witnessabout me that the Father (GOD) dispatched me. Also, the Father (GOD) who sent me has himself

    borne witness about me. You have neither heard his voice at any time nor ever seen his figure; and youdo not have his word remaining in you, because the very one whom he dispatched you do not believe."Personally speaking, I never had a single Trinitarian explain this verse to me directly. They alwaysgive me indirect answers that have nothing to do with this verse (John 5:36-38). Here we see Jesusagain clearly defines GOD as greater than him, and he told his followers that they have never seenGOD nor ever heard his voice. I don't know what more Allah Almighty and Jesus need to say to proveto Trinitarians that GOD and Jesus are two separate beings !!!.

    Let us look at Deuteronomy 4:12"And GOD began to speak to you out of the middle of the fire. Thesound of words was what were you hearing, but no form were you seeing nothing but a voice." Thisverse is another proof that no one ever seen GOD in any form.

    Now in Isaiah 9:6"......Mighty God,....."

    Does the Bible in the Old Testament confirm trinity?

    The "God" title in Isaiah 9:6 was given to others

    It is quite unfortunate that in the old Jewish culture, people used to be named "Godly" names. This isquite misleading and deceiving to Christians when they try to define the deity of Jesus.

    Many people in the Jewish old culture were called "God" before Jesus' existence on earth. Thefollowing translations were verified by http://bible.crosswalk.com:

    (the first two were added latter)

    1- Jerusalem was called "The LORD our Righteousness". "In those days Judah will besaved and Jerusalem will live in safety. This is the name by which it will be called: The LORD OurRighteousness (Yahweh tsidken).' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 33:16)"

    2- Abraham called a mountain "The LORD will Provide" (Yahweh Jireh). "SoAbraham called that place The LORD Will Provide (Yahweh Jireh).And to this day it is said, "Onthe mountain of the LORD it will be provided. (From the NIV Bible, Genesis 22:14)"

    3- Ezekiel means "Strong God". It also means "Yahweh is Strong God".

    4- Elijah. This name is short for EliJehovah or "Eli Yahweh". Eli means my GOD, and Yahweh is

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    the name and title of GOD Almighty in the Bible. Does "Eli Yahweh" or Elijah mean that the person isJehovah Himself?

    5- Israel means "Challenge God", "he struggles with God", or "fight with God". It also means "DefeatGod".

    6- Gabriel also means "Strong God".

    7- Isaiah or Jesaiah, which is short for "Jesa Yahweh"means "Salvation from Yahweh". It couldalso mean "Salvation".

    8- Joshua, which is short for "Josh Yahweh" means "Yahweh Saves".

    9- Elli, which is a common name for men before and after Jesus, means "God". Psalm 82:6 "I said,'You are "gods"; you are all sons of the Most High.' " "gods" here in Hebrew is "Elohim", which is

    plural of "EL". It is the same exact thing as "EL" used for Jesus in Isaiah 9:6, since "gods" is acombination of several "EL"s. And as clearly shown here, for someone to be called "god" or "God" inthe Bible it wouldn't make him GOD Almighty Himself, the LORD or Jehovah. I also want to pointout that ANY "Son of GOD" in the Bible is a "god" or "God" as clearly shown in Psalm 82:6.

    Note: The trinitarian liars who translate the Bible into English play dirty tricks about capitalizing andlowering the "g" in "God" to prove their trinity lie, while they fully know that it is the same word usedfor ALL!

    10- Immanuel, Emanuel, Emmanuel, Immanuel, or Imanuel are the SAME NAMEand are anothername for Jesus, means "With us is God". This name is also common for men before and after Jesus.

    11- Elihu means "My God is He".

    12- Gedaliah means "Jehovah is Great". Again, Gedaliah is short for "Gedal Yahweh". Is theperson who was called "Jehovah is Great" GOD Almighty Himself? People before and after Jesusare given this name. See 2 Kings 25:22-24.

    13- Eliadah or Eliada means "God knows".

    14- Eliab means "my God is Father".

    15- Elzaphan means "God is Protector"

    16- Eliakim means "God raises".

    17- Elisha means "God is Salvation".

    18- Eleazar means "God has helped"

    19- Judah or Yahawdah means "Praised". It generally means "Praised by Yahweh".

    20- Hashabiah means "Jehovah has considered".

    21- Mattithiah means "Gift of Jehovah".

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    22- Michael (nick name "Mike") means "who is like God". Yet, non is like Him, the Almighty.See Exodus 8:10.

    23- Jesus, Yahshua, Yeshua or Yashua are the SAME NAME, and mean "Salvation". It doesn't mean"God Saves" as Christians claim. Jesus (Yeshua) means in Hebrew "salvation" and not "God saves".Yud Shin Waw Ain - this name doesn't include the word "God".

    Joshua (Yehoshya) - Yod Hey - Waw Shin Ain

    Isaya (Yeshayah) - Yod Shin Ain - Yod Hey .

    These two names are combination of Yod, Shin, Ain - salvation and Yod, Hey - Yahwe.

    Yosh Hey (Yah) is common short from Yahwe, for example Alleluia comes from "Halelu Yah" -"Glorify Yahwe".

    I confirmed the correctness of the above translations with the Jewish Sabbath Temple. See also how theChristian Translators are in error regarding some of the translations of the "Godly" names that were

    fixed above.

    In the above examples, we clearly see that the old Jewish culture gave "Godly" titles to people who arenot in anyway divine.

    Notice that in Isaiah 9:6, it clearly says "and his NAME shall be...." This clearly proves that "MightyGod" is just a name given to the coming Prophet (Jesus). Since this is just a name, this also clearly

    proves other people in the old Jewish culture were named that name before, even if they're notmentioned in the current Bible.

    Have Isaiah 9:6 said "and he will be God Almighty Himself"or "and he will be the God Almighty"then this would be different, because we now would be talking about not just a NAME given tosomeone, but rather GOD Almighty Himself.

    Important Note:There is not a single Verse in the New Testament where Jesus was called directly ornamed directly "Mighty God" or even "God". Notice in Isaiah 9:6 it clearly says "and his name shall

    be...." Jesus was called "Son of GOD" as many others in the Bible were called Sons of GOD as shownbelow in this article and as was shown above also in this article, but he never even once was addressedas "Mighty God" or "God", nor ever claimed to be "Mighty God" or "God".

    The Jews believe that Isaiah 9:6 was referring to somebody else, other than Jesus. The Book of Isaiahwhich obviously contains Isaiah 9:6 came 700 before the birth of Jesus. The Jews had absolutely no

    problem calling somebody who came 700 years before Jesus "El Gibor (Mighty God)". That person'sname is Hezekiah. The Jews believe that Isaiah 9:6 is referring to Hezekiah and not Jesus, and theydid indeed address Hezekiah as "Mighty God". This proves that many people before Jesus were namedeven at birth "El Gibor (Mighty God)", just like people were also named "Ezekiel (Strong God)", "Elli(God)", "Gabriel (Strong God)", etc...

    The "Mighty God" translation

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    "Mighty God" in Isaiah 9:6 is "El Gibor". This is not exactly "Mighty God", but close. "Strong" ismore correct (but it is different from strong of "hazak"). Here both El and Gibor are nouns - this isshort full spell is "El Hu Gibor".

    Anyway "El Gibor" and "Gabriel" are same thing. They both mean "Strong God". "Gabriel" is anangel's name in the Bible.

    The word "Gibor" in Isaiah 9:6 and the word "Gibor" of Gabriel have exactly the same root, and theyare both the same word. The word itself can also be translated as "Man of God".

    By the way, "EL" can also mean "Judge". So "El Gibor" can also be translated as "Strong Judge".

    The "Mighty God" translation is just one possibility. This type of differences in translation existsthroughout the Hebrew language, where words' meaning change depending on the sentence. That iswhy there is no one single solid Bible Translation!. Theologians have difficulties agreeing on somekey issues in translations. That's why we see so many different Bibles with so many differenttranslations.

    But anyhow, even if "Mighty God" was the right translation, it is still just a NAME given to Jesus andnothing more. It doesn't in anyway prove that he is the creator of the Universe. Many people as shownabove were given the misleading "Godly" titles before Jesus.

    Did Jesus ever claim to be "Mighty God" or "God"?

    From Sheikh Ahmed Deedat's work; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him:

    Let us look at John 10:30"I (Jesus) and the Father are One." This verse is severely misunderstood and

    is taken out of context, because beginning at verse John 10:23 we read (in the context of 10:30) aboutJesus talking to the Jews. In verse John 10:28-30, talking about his followers as his sheep, he states:"...Neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand. My Father who gave them me, is greater than all,and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand. I and the Father are One."

    These verses prove only that Jesus and the Father are one in that no man can pluck the sheep out ofeither's hand. It does not at all state that Jesus is God's equal in everything. In fact the words of Jesus, "My Father, who gave them me is Greater than ALL...," in John 10:29 completely negates this claim,otherwise we are left with a contradiction just a sentence apart. All includes everyone even Jesus.

    Also let us look at verse John 17:20-22 "That the ALL may be made ONE. Like thou Father art in me, I

    in thee, that they may be ONE in us. I in them, they in me, that they may be perfect in ONE" . In thisverse, the same word ONE used, the Greek, HEN is used, not only to describe Jesus and the Father butto describe Jesus, the Father and eleven of the twelve disciples of Jesus. So here if that implies equality,we have a unique case of 13 Gods.

    Of the verse in question,"I and the Father are One" in (John 10:30), we also need to take note of theverses following the 30th verse in the text. In those verses, the Jews accuse Jesus falsely of claiming to

    be God by these words. He however replies, proving their accusation wrong by their own text: "TheJews answered him saying,'For a good work we stone thee not, but for blasphemy, and because thatthou being a man, makest thyself a God '" (John 10:33).

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    Jesus replies to this accusation saying: "Jesus answered them, 'Is it not written in your Law, "I said yeare gods. If He can call them gods, unto whom the word of God came, say ye of him whom the Fatherhath sanctified and sent into the world, "Thou blasphemeth," because I said I am the son of God?'"(John 10:34-36).

    Let us look at Acts 2:22"O you men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a MAN approvedof God among you..." Peter in the Book of Acts testifies about Jesus. Jesus thus even to his disciples,as to early Christians, not poisoned by Pauline doctrine, was a man, not a God.

    From www.jewsforjudaism.org:

    Question: In John 10:30 Jesus says, "I and the Father are one [hen]." Doesn't this show that they areone in essence?

    This statement does not suggest either a dual or triune deity. What John's Jesus meant by the word hen("one") becomes clear from his prayer concerning the apostles: "That they may be one [hen], just as weare one [hen]" (John 17:22), which means that they should be united in agreement with one another as

    he (Jesus) is always united in agreement with God, as stated: "I [Jesus] always do the things that arepleasing to Him [God]" (John 8:29).There is thus no implication that Jesus and God, or the twelve apostles are to be considered as of oneessence.

    Questions to you

    From the names above, do you honestly think that "Strong God", "Yahweh is Strong God", "YahwehSaves", "God", "Yahweh", "My God is He", "God is Salvation", "Jehovah is Great" and "Mighty God"

    have much differences in their meanings?

    I mean, why consider Jesus as GOD Himself, which is a great blasphemy, when he was given a normal"Godly" title that was given to others before him?

    If Jesus was named "Jehovah is Great (Gedaliah)" for instance, then we would see TrinitarianChristians trying their best to prove that he is GOD Almighty Himself. Why then not consider the

    people who were named "Gedaliah" before and after Jesus as GOD Almighty Himself also? Why notconsider these people divine as well?

    Important Note:So if Jesus was named "Michael or Mike (who is like God)", then we would see

    Trinitarian Christians claim that he is GOD Almighty, since Exodus 8:10 clearly states that there is nonlike GOD, and yet Jesus (Mike) is like GOD which would without a doubt make him GOD.

    This is the type of false interpretations and conclusions that Trinitarian Christians fall into.

    Very Important Note:The reason why the foretold person would be regarded as "Mighty God" is notbecause he will be GOD Almighty Himself. His name or title being "Mighty God" is nothing but away to show that the person will be very important and very powerful. He will be like a God on earth

    because of his Might. I must emphasize that again, the person's "NAME" will be called "MightyGod". Isaiah 9:6 never said that the person will be GOD Almighty Himself, or GOD Almighty will bethat person. The word "NAME"means that the name will be just a (misleading) Godly title as many

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    misleading Godly titles were given to others before and after Jesus peace be upon him in the Bible. Imust also emphasize that in the New Testament, Jesus was not even once called or addressed as"Mighty God" or "God", nor did he ever claim to be "Mighty God" or "God". So if he were indeed theforetold person in Isaiah 9:6 (which I personally believe he were), then this means that Jesus peace beupon him is not GOD Almighty, but a powerful Messenger of GOD Almighty or someone who hasMight that was chosen by GOD Almighty. The Jews as I mentioned above, believe that the person isHezekiah and not Jesus. Either way, the person in Isaiah 9:6 is not GOD Almighty Himself.

    Is Jesus the biological Son of GOD?

    Trinitarian Christians claim that since Jesus was called "Son of GOD", then this would make him theCreator of the Universe Himself. This is a great blasphemy, because this belief holds no concreteground what so ever!. You do not call someone GOD Almighty Himself from a conclusion, especiallywhen it easily can be refuted.

    Many people before Jesus were called "Sons of GOD" in the Bible. Let us look at few of them:

    1- Exodus 4:22 "Thus saith Jehovah, Israel is my son, even my firstborn." Israel was GOD's Sonbefore Jesus since Israel is the "first born". Does this make Israel divine?

    2- Jeremiah 31:9"I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is my firstborn." Ephraim is another name forIsrael.

    3- Psalm 2:7"....Jehovah had said onto me (David), thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee."Since GOD Almighty chose David to be His begotten Son, does this make David divine too?

    The "Son of GOD" title that was given to Jesus wasn't the only title for him. Jesus was also called"Son of David." Keep in mind that Jesus came at least 1,000 years after King David. Jesus was also

    called "Son of Man". See Matthew 1:1, Matthew 9:27, Matthew 12:23, Matthew 15:22, Matthew20:30-31, Matthew 22:42, and many other verses.

    Is the Man whom Jesus was called his son (possibly David) divine? Is David divine since Jesus is hisSon?

    How come Christian Roman Catholics have created the Theological Science of Maryology, and nevercreated the Theological Science of Davidology? I mean think about it, if Jesus the "Almighty GOD"was called "Son of David", then shouldn't this make David a divine person, since he is one from themany billions that GOD created in this world?

    Jesus was called:

    Son of GODSon of DavidSon of Man

    Why consider Jesus as the actual biological Son of GOD, when the same expression was used for KingDavid being Jesus' Father who existed 1,000 years before Jesus?

    Why can't "Son of GOD" that was used for Jesus be just an expression just like the "Godly" titles and"Son of GOD" expressions that were used for others before Jesus as well as shown above?

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    Therefore

    Christians believe in Jesus as GOD Almighty, yet, he never claimed to be GOD. There is absolutely noconcrete base for Trinity. Just because Jesus was called "Son of God" doesn't also make him GOD.David was called GOD's BEGOTTEN Son in Psalm 2:7. Israel was called GOD's first born Son inExodus 4:22. There are many other examples for GOD's Sons in the Bible.

    All what Christians have are conclusions. Conclusions come from theories. Theories are alwaysvenerable for disproof. Have Jesus said "I am your LORD worship me"as GOD said in the OldTestament, then we would have a solid concrete ground. But as far as I am concerned, Trinity is veryweak and bogus! with all respect due to Trinitarian Christians. Non of GOD's religions (including the

    New Testament) taught Trinity. The word "Trinity" doesn't even exist in the Bible!.

    Trinity is a false interpretation that was caused by the unfortunate exaggerating and misleading"Godly" name that was given to Jesus and to others in the Old Jewish Culture. The only unique titlethat GOD Almighty had in the Bible that non was ever called (including Jesus) was "Yahweh" or"Jehovah".

    Bring me one Bible Verse that directly referred to Jesus as "Yahweh" or "Jehovah" and then I'llconsider Trinity to be a valid belief in the Bible.

    The Hebrew word "Echad (One)" in the Bible:

    Let us look at Mark 12:29 "The First is, "Hear O Israel, the Lord our God is One." Jesus, according tothe source of Christianity, in the records that we have of his sayings, never made a claim to be divine.

    In an answer to a question on what the first commandment was, he replied by saying God is One.Jesus was quoting Deuteronomy 6:4. Therefore, let us examine the Hebrew of this verse:

    "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one. (Deuteronomy 6:4)" Trinitarian Christiansclaim that this verse states that the LORD is a "compound one"; he is multiple entities or objectscombined together forming one GOD. Here is my response to them:

    Please visit: "Echad" in the Bible means "A Great Absolute One" for

    GOD Almighty.And

    Texts referring to GOD as "One, Alone, None Other, None Else".

    Mislead Views from Christians regarding the "God" title: When I debate with Christiansabout this "God" expression given to Jesus compared to other Prophets and people, they claim that the

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    word "God" with a capital "G" refers to God himself, and the word "god" with small "g" refers tohumans. They also claim that they came to this type of translation from the Greek translation. Somelies and discrepancies had been inserted into the Bible through capitalizing the letter "G" when it issupposed to be a small "g" when referring to Jesus:

    The following is from the work of Shiekh Ahmed Deedat; may Allah Almighty always be pleased withhim:

    Let us look at John 1:1"In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and the word wasGod."This is often presented from the Gospel of John to prove that Jesus was God. There are howeverseveral problems with this claim: By this verse it is assumed that Jesus was the "word" and since theword was God and became flesh, Jesus is God. The statement that John reproduced in his gospelhowever was uttered not by John but by A. Philo of Alexandria, years before Jesus or John were born.It is therefore completely unlikely that Philo was even remotely referring to Jesus.

    There is also another reason for not capitalizing the "G" in John 1:1, considering the Greek of the aboveverse which disproves the assertion that Jesus is referred to as God in the verse. In the verse above, thefirst time the word God is used, the Greek is HOTHEOS (the same exact word given to Satan as God in2 Corinthians 4:4. The NIV Bible Author wrote "god" for Satan instead of "God"), which means The

    God. The second time the word God is used,"....and the word was God," the word for God isTONTHEOS, which means "a god". Europeans have evolved a system of capital and small letters non-existent in Greek. The God, HOTHEOS is translated as God with a capital G, whereas Tontheos, whichmeans A or ANY God is translated with a small g, god. In this case however, we see the unlawfultranslators trying to prove Jesus being God by putting capital G for both whereas it doesn't belong inthe case of the "word".

    So can we trust the current English Translations? Given that facts above about verse John1:1, how can we expect from an ordinary English speaking Christian who wants to spread his religionwith all his heart honestly and faithfully to understand this lie of capitalizing the small "g" in John 1:1

    and other verses, and not capitalizing the capital "M" in the word "mighty" in Psalm 24:8and the "g" in2 Corinthians 4:4(for Satan) for instance? Must we allow our faith to be all based on what otherauthors decide to insert from their own personal views into the Bible?

    Is Jesus Immanu-el?

    From Sheikh Ahmed Deedat's work; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him:

    Let us look at Isaiah 7:14 "Therefore, the Lord himself will give you a sign, behold a will conceive and

    bear a child and shall call his name Immanu-el." It is claimed that this verse was a prophecy about thebirth of Jesus to the virgin Mary. It is further claimed that since the word Immanuel means "God withus," the person being talked about, i.e Jesus was God. The word translated as "virgin" is the wrongtranslation of the Hebrew word ALMAH. The word ALMAH in Hebrew means "young woman." Thecorrect Hebrew word for virgin is BETHULAH. Since many young women begot children since thosewords were penned, it is not at all necessary that those words should apply to Jesus.

    Another fact that is often ignored is that Jesus was never named Immanuel, nor did anyone ever addresshim as Immanuel when he lived. On the contrary, the Messiah was named Jesus (Luke 2:21)by theangel according to the gospels. Also, even if a person is named Immanuel, it doesn't mean that the

    person so named is God. Consider for example all the people named ELI in the Old Testament. ELI

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    means God in the Hebrew. It is also narrated that Jesus while talking to God referred to Him as ELI(Mark 15:34 & Matthew 27:46). We cannot however on this basis of just name accept all the peoplenamed ELI in the Old Testament as Gods. Similarly, we cannot accept a person named Immanuel (Godwith us) as God. Jesus was never named Immanuel anyway, so both ways the argument and claim arefalse.

    What did Jesus say about GOD?

    In Matthew 24:36Jesus told his followers that no one (including Jesus) knows when the judgment daywill come; Only GOD knows. Jesus's followers wanted to know when the Judgment day will come.

    In John 14:28 "The Father is greater than I."

    In John 10:29"My Father is greater than ALL."

    In John 5:30 "I can of mine own self do NOTHING.....I seek not my own will but the will of Him whosent me." Jesus was sent in this verse by his own admission. In this verse he himself says that the one

    who is sent: "..... the one who is sent is not greater than the one who sent (John 13:16)."

    Thomas is misunderstood in verse John 20:28:

    From Sheikh Ahmed Deedat's work; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him:

    It is often claimed that since Thomas referred to Jesus as "My God, my Lord (John 20:28),"that Jesuswas God. An ignorance of the context of the verse and of Christian doctrine prompts this claim. Thecontext of the verse talks about an unbelieving Thomas being surprised when Jesus offers him

    evidence.The exclamation, "My God,"on his part was just astonishment. We use such exclamations everydaywhile talking to people. This doesn't mean that the person we are talking to is God. For example, I seeJohn cutting his wrist with a Rambo knife. I say: "My God, John what are you doing?"Do I mean thatJohn is God? Of course not. Similar is the use of the expression by Thomas. If you go into Jewish orMuslim societies even today, you'll hear people exclaim "My God, my Lord," at every situation whichsurprises them or causes them anguish or is astonishing. In the verse above Thomas says: "My God,my Lord." He was not claiming that Jesus was his (1) God and (2) Lord. If he did then the church andthe disciples should have stamped him as a heretic right there and then. Because claiming that Jesus isLord and God is a violation of Christian doctrine, which asserts that there is One God, the Father andOne Lord, Jesus. Jesus can't be God and Lord. "...yet for us there is but one God, the Father...and oneLord, Jesus Christ ...(I Corinthians 8:6)". Believing the above (i.e Jesus is Lord and God) would leavea person with unorthodox doctrine branded by the church as Sabellianism, Patripassianism,Monarchianism.

    Jesus saying "I am":

    From Sheikh Ahmed Deedat's work; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him:

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    It is claimed that Jesus used the words, "I am", and since these same words were used by God todescribe Himself to the people in the Old Testament, Jesus was claiming to be God. John 8:58, is

    presented to back this claim. In the verse, Jesus says: " Before Abraham was I am. (John 8:58)" Now,if Jesus existed before Abraham did, that might be a remarkable thing, but does that prove that he wasGod?

    How many people existed before Abraham? The Bible presents Jeremiah as being a prophet before hewas conceived in his mother's womb; "Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, before you were

    born I set you apart; I appointed you as a prophet to the nations. (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 1:5)"Yet no one says that his pre-human existence qualifies him for deity. In Exodus chapter 3, Godallegedly says: "I am what I am."Long before the time of Jesus, there existed a Greek translation of theOld Testament called the Septuagint. The key word, "I am," in Exodus which is used by Christians to

    prove the deity of Jesus is translated as "HO ON." However, when Jesus uses the word in John 8:58theGreek of the "I am," is EGO EIMI. If Jesus wanted to tell the Jews that he was claiming to be God heshould have at least remained consistent in the use of words or the whole point is lost. How many

    people in that age would have said "I am," in answer to questions in everyday life. Billions. Are they algods? Of course not !.

    Jesus claiming to be the "Alpha and the Omega":

    Please visit: Jesus the "Alpha and Omega". Not only this quote doesn't prove Jesus as GOD, but itwas also written in a book that is unreliable in later bibles. In the original Bibles, the quote doesn'teven exist!!

    Arche of the Creation of God as Alpha and Omega. The "Alpha and Omega"doesn't even exist inthe original Bibles! It's a lie that was later inserted by trinitarians. See the historical proofs in thearticle. If their site is down, then you can read the article at this link ON MY SITE.

    From www.jewsforjudaism.org:

    Question : In the Book of Revelation we find the verse, "I am the Alpha and the Omega, says the LordGod, who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty" (Revelation 1:8). But what do you dowith Revelation 22:13, which appears to be Jesus speaking (see verse 16), when he says, "I am theAlpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end"? Doesn't the command byMatthew's Jesus to, "Go therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing in the name of the Father, and theSon, and the Holy Spirit" (Matthew 28:19) show the existence of a triune deity.

    Answer: Despite the distinctiveness with which God and Jesus are regarded in the New Testamentsome Christians are under the misconception that God and Jesus form two-thirds of a triune deity.Partial responsibility for this error is due to the New Testament writers, who use a number ofdesignations for Jesus, which are the same as those given to God in the Jewish Bible and in the NewTestament. The resulting confusion as to whether certain New Testament passages refer to God or toJesus helped to produce the belief in a triune god.That Jesus, who is considered by the New Testament writers to be the link between God and creation,is called by some of the same designations that are applied to God is understandable. After all, the NewTestament writers believed that God had conferred a tremendous amount of power upon this angelic

    being, so why not, as well, some of His names, which express certain facets of His being? But it is

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    nevertheless clear that although the God of the New Testament interacts with the world He createdsolely through His "firstborn" (Colossians 1:15-17), the latter is still subservient to God. Because of theexalted yet subservient position in which they envision Jesus, the New Testament writers do not believeit compromises God's status to apply some of His names to Jesus (cf. Ephesians 1:21, Philippians 2:9,Hebrews 1:4). The use of common names is not intended to indicate that Jesus is of one substance withGod.

    Perhaps, if "the Alpha and the Omega" in Revelations 22:13 is actually a reference to Jesus it stems

    from the New Testament belief that the pre-incarnate Jesus was the first thing created by God. What issignificant is not so much the use of this name as the fact that whenever the relationship between Godand Jesus is treated, the New Testament writers always describe God as superior to Jesus.

    In any case, in verse 12 the subject of verse 13 ("the Alpha and the Omega") says he is "comingquickly." Since Jesus has not come "quickly" this is either false prophecy or the text is not speakingabout Jesus.

    GOD says "Let us create".... in the book of Genesis: (Does "us" mean GOD and

    Jesus?)

    It is unfortunate that Trinitarians try their best to try to prove that Jesus was GOD himself even if thecost is corrupting the real meanings of the Old Testament. In Hebrew, Arabic and Aramaic, the word"us" can be used to magnify a person. If a Chief Executive Officer of a company in the Middle Eastwants to say for instance "I decided to do the following....", then he would say it "We decided to do thefollowing...."even though he would be referring to himself only.

    If the word "us" in the book of Genesis is referring to Trinity as Trinitarians believe, then how comepeople back then were not Trinitarians? How come the concept of Trinity was born 2300 years after

    the book of Genesis? More than 1/3 of The Holy Quran (The Muslims' Holy Book) talks about AllahAlmighty (GOD). Allah Almighty in numerous verses says "We" about himself. Muslims todaybelieve in One GOD and don't believe in Trinity. Jews also believe in One GOD and not in Trinity,even though in their Holy Books such as the Talmud, GOD refers to Himself as "We" and not "I".

    My dear friend, you must first study the languages of Hebrew, Arabic and Aramaic before you (as aTrinitarian) start corrupting the Old Testament's real meanings. I think this would be a sin !.

    Further more regarding GOD using the word "Us" in the Bible:

    From www.jewsforjudaism.org:

    Question : God said: "Let us make man in our image . . ." (Genesis 1:26) and "Come, let us go down,and there confound their language" (Genesis 11:7). To whom does the "us" refer?

    Answer: Trinitarian Christians maintain that Genesis 1:26 and Genesis 11:7 are prooftexts of an allegedtri-unity god, but this claim is erroneous. The inference that "Let us make man in our image" (Genesis1:26) refers to the plurality of God is refuted by the subsequent verse, which relates the creation of manto a singular God, "And God created man in His image" (Genesis 1:27). In this verse the Hebrew verb"created" appears in the singular form. If "let us make man" indicates a numerical plurality, it would befollowed in the next verse by, "And they created man in their image." Obviously, the plural form isused in the same way as in the divine appellation 'Elohim, to indicate the all-inclusiveness of God's

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    attributes of authority and power, the plurality of majesty. It is customary for one in authority to speakof himself as if he were a plurality. Hence, Absalom said to Ahithophel, "Give your counsel what weshall do" (2 Samuel 16:20). The context shows that he was seeking advice for himself' yet he refers tohimself as "we" (see also Ezra 4:16-19).

    What does "Jesus" mean? does it mean "God saves" as Christians claim?

    The answer was given to me byNick. He is Jewish and speaks Hebrew fluently.

    Jesus ( Yeshua ) means in Hebrew "salvation" and not "God saves" .Yud Shin Waw Ain - this name dosn't include the word "God" .

    Joshua ( Yehoshya ) - Yod Hey - Waw Shin AinIsaya ( Yeshayah ) - Yod Shin Ain - Yod Hey .

    These two names are combination of Yod, Shin, Ain - salvation and Yod, Hey - Yahwe.

    Yosh Hey ( Yah ) is common short from Yahwe, for example Alleluia comes from "Halelu Yah" -"Glorify Yahwe".

    Let us look at Exodus 7:1"Consequently Jehovah said to Moses: See, I have made you like God toPharaoh and Aaron your brother will become your Prophet."There are two important things in thisverse, first Moses was called "like God" and second Moses had a Prophet or Messenger. It is clearfrom this verse that God in the Bible used glorifying expressions to magnify someone. Of courseMoses being called like God doesn't make him a holy person. Moses according to the Bible was amurderer and a sinful person for a period of time, and the God of the Bible still chose to call him "likeGod", which clearly shows that "God" is only a magnifying title. The only unique title to God isJehovah in the Bible. Also, it is commonly known that Prophets and Messengers are sent only byJehovah or Allah Almighty and only belong to him. In Exodus 7:1we see that Moses not only became"like God", but he also owned a Prophet or Messenger. Of course Moses was never GOD himself. Thisverse only used an expression to magnify Moses.

    Let us also look at 1 Corinthians 8:5"For even though there are those (people) who are called gods,whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many gods and many lords." This verse clearly showsus that we must not take the word "god" that is used for a human being as actual God or Jehovah orAllah Almighty.

    Let us look at Psalms 82:6 "I myself (Jehovah) have said: You are gods and all of you are sons of the

    Most High." Here we see that Jehovah or Allah Almighty called other Prophets "Gods" and his "Sons"Does that make them Jehovah himself just because they were called Gods? Of course not.

    Let us look at Psalms 82:1 "God is stationing himself in the assembly of the Divine One; In the middleof gods he judges." Here we see that God will judge his own Gods in the day of judgment. Again, theword "god" is just a magnifying expression when given to people. It doesn't mean the actual GODhimself.

    Let us look at Jeremiah 51:57 "And I (Jehovah) will make her Princes and her wise ones, her governorsand her deputy rulers and her mighty men drunk...."Here we see that the word "Mighty" was used tomagnify men. It is the same word that is used to magnify God. We can clearly see in this verse that

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    John 1:1

    "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and theWord was God was with authority(same Greek word for satan's rule[2][3])."

    Detailed discussion about Jesus' Willwith ample verses.

    In Islam, there are three "Worlds" or Realms:

    (a)- GOD Almighty, who is not seen by anyone or anything, nor is likeunto anyone or anything.

    (b)- The World of Command, which is the invisible world of the Beingsthat were made by the Word and the Spirit.

    (c)- The World of Creation, the flush and blood, dust and waterphysical world and Universes (plural).

    Also visit: Is the Noble Quran a Creator or Creation?

    "Father" and "Son" in Islam and the Bible:

    5- Is Islam the anti-Christ system according to 1john 2:22? No it isn't. Here aresome Bible facts regarding "FATHER" and "SON":

    (a)- Allah Almighty is the Believers' only Guardian) ):

    See Noble Verses 8:40, 22:13, 22:78. In Arabic we say

    , which means "The Legal Guardian".

    is derived

    from the root word . also means a chosen friend toAllah Almighty, as in the following point.

    (b)- FRIENDS = SONS in the Bible and Quran (,:(and

    We further read the following in the Bible:

    Isaiah 41:8"But you, Israel, my servant, Jacob, whom I have chosen, you

    descendants of Abraham my friend,

    Chronicles 20:7Our God, did you not drive out the inhabitants of this land before yourpeople Israel and give it forever to the descendants of Abraham yourfriend?

    James 2:23And the scripture was fulfilled that says, "Abraham believed God, andit was credited to him as righteousness," and he was called God'sfriend.

    So being GOD Almighty's "SON" in the Bible is equal to being GOD

    http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,868.msg3373.html#msg3373http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,868.msg3373.html#msg3373
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    Almighty's "FRIEND". Now compare this to the following from the HolyQuran:

    [002:257]Allah is the friend () and patron of those who believe.

    He brings them out of the depths of darkness into light. While thosewho do not believe, have the forces of evil as their friends; they leadthem out of light, into the very depths of darkness. Such ones shall bethe inmates of the fire. They will stay there forever.

    [003:122](And remember) when the two groups among you lost heart(and almost fell out), even though Allah was their Friend and

    Protector ()? In Allah (alone), should the believers place their

    trust!

    [004:125]Who can be better in religion than one who submits hiswhole self to God, does good, and follows the way of Abraham the true

    in Faith? For God did take Abraham for a friend ().

    So the Bible's "FATHER" & "SON" for GOD Almighty and the Believers isclearly metaphoric, and it only means that GOD Almighty:

    1- Is the Protector.2- Is the Friend.3- Is the Guardian.

    Please visit the following link to further see what Words the GloriousQuran uses for these words and definitions:

    http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1368.msg5203.html#msg5203

    (c)- BEGET = CHOSE:

    Regarding the following verse, and many others like it:

    King James Bible Psalm 2:7I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me,Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.

    Let us look at Noble Verses 27:59, 3:33, 3:42, 7:144, 22:75, 35:32,38:47, 39:4from the Glorious Quran:

    [027:059]Say: Praise be to God, and Peace on his servants whom Hehas chosen (for his Message). (Who) is better?- God or thefalse gods they associate (with Him)?

    27:59

    [003:033]God did choose Adam and Noah, the family ofAbraham, and the family of 'Imran above all people,-

    3:33

    [003:042]Behold! the angels said: "O Mary! God hath chosen thee and purified thee- chosen thee above the women of allnations.

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    3:42

    [007:144](God) said: "O Moses! I have chosen thee above(other) men, by the mission I (have given thee) and the words I (havespoken to thee): take then the (revelation) which I give thee, and be ofthose who give thanks."

    7:144

    [022:075]God choosesmessengers from angels and from menfor God is He Who hears and sees (all things).

    22:75

    [035:032]Then We have given the Book for inheritance to such of OurServants as We have chosen : but there are among them somewho wrong their own souls; some who follow a middle course; andsome who are, by God's leave, foremost in good deeds; that is thehighest Grace.

    35:32

    [038:047]They were, in Our sight, truly, of the company of the Elect and the Good.

    38:47

    [039:004]Had God wished to take to Himself an (actual) son, He couldhave chosenwhom He pleased out of those whom He dothcreate: but Glory be to Him! (He is above such things.) He is God, theOne, the Irresistible.

    39:4

    Furthermore, when Jesus was asked about when the Hour will come,he replied by saying that only GOD Almighty Knows, and that no oneknows, and that Jesus himself also didn't know. Please visit:

    http://www.answering-christianity.com/questions.htmhttp://www.answering-christianity.com/ac7.htm#links

    Jesus spelled it out clearly that he knew NOT. And as to calling GODAlmighty "Father", and that Islam denies that GOD Almighty is an

    ACTUAL FATHER to anyone, in Islam GOD Almighty is called:

    1- Rab - Lord, Father (you are the Rab of your home for being thehusband and the father).

    2- Wali - Guardian.

    In the old Aramaic and Hebrew, GOD Almighty was called what-is-equivalent-to-Islam our Rab and Wali. But that doesn't make GODAlmighty our actual Father. This is exactly as Judaism metaphors suchas idolatry is equivalent to spiritual adultery. No Jew is actuallymarried to GOD Almighty to actually commit a personal marriage-adultery against GOD Almighty! Yet, the Jews use metaphors like

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    these. Islam came to straighten all of this out and to set the recordstraight that GOD Almighty has no son and no daughter. Otherwise,why would GOD Almighty torture us to Hell if we were His perfect sonsand daughters?? No imperfect being could be an actual son of GODAlmighty (and no being is the son or daughter of GOD Almighty,period!):

    [005:018](Both) the Jews and the Christians say: "We are sons of God,and his beloved." Say: "Why then doth He punish you for your sins?Nay, ye are but men,- of the men he hath created: He forgiveth whom

    He pleaseth, and He punisheth whom He pleaseth: and to Godbelongeth the dominion of the heavens and the earth, and all that isbetween: and unto Him is the final goal (of all)"

    Again, please visit:http://www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1368.msg5203.html#msg5203.

    6- Did you know that Elohim is Allah [1] [2]. The "im" in Hebrew is a majesticplural for GOD Almighty. The root Word is "Eloh". And the more original Jewssuch as Yemenites and others say Alohim or Alah-im. And when you yourselfpronounce it, you do naturally pronounce it with a double "l": Allah. Jews do

    call Hi