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  • SIDDHARTH ACADEMY

    1

    CS-Foundation-BUSINESS ECONOMICS

    Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is not considered production in Economics?

    1 Tilling of soil by farmers 2 Singing a song before friends. 3 Construction of Canal by laborers 4 Painting a picture for sale

    2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of labour? a. Its inseparable from laborer b. It is immobile & passive c. It is human efforts. d. It is rewarded with wages

    3. When marginal product (MP) & average product (AP) both falls-

    a. AP lies below MP b. AP & MP intersect c. MP Lies below AP d. None of above

    4. Total Product, Marginal Product & Average Product for 1st unit of labor are-

    e. Identical f. Different g. Unable to be determined h. None of above

    5. The long run, as economists use the phrase, is characterized by:

    i. At least one fixed factor of production. j. The law of variable proportions k. The law of Returns to scale l. All inputs being fixed.

    6. To economists, the common thing between the short run and the long is that:

    m. In both, capital is fixed n. In both, labor is variable o. In both, production is absent p. None of above

    7. Which of the following is the best formula of the production function?

    q. Q= F (L,L,K,E) r. Q= F (L,E)

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    s. Q= F (L,L,K,E) T t. None of above

    8. The law of Returns to scale applies to:

    u. The short run, but not the long run. v. The long run, but not the short run. w. Both the short run and the long run. x. Neither the short run nor the long run.

    9. Law of Variable proportions passes from-

    y. 2 stages z. 4 stages aa. 1 stage bb. 3 stages

    10. Opportunity cost of an unemployed youth in past now getting job worth Rs.

    7500/- per month is _________.

    a. Nil

    b. infinite

    c. Rs. 7500

    d. Negative

    Use the following schedule to answer question 11-14.

    Units of labour Total Product Marginal product

    0 _____ _____

    1 100 100

    2 195 ?

    3 ? 80

    4 ? ?

    11. What is the Avg. Product when 1 Unit of labour is employed?

    a. 80 b. 100 c. 180 d. 200

    12. What is the marginal product of the 2nd Unit of labour?

    a. 95 b. 195 c. 295 d. 80

    13. What is the Total product of the first three units of labour?

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    a. 295 b. 95 c. 195 d. 275

    14. If Optimum level of output results at end of 4th unit of labor, TP & MP shall be-

    a. 100 & 100 respectively b. 195 & 0 respectively c. 0 & 100 respectively d. 275 & 0 respectively

    15. Direction of TP, AP & MP in 3rd stage of Law of variable proportions shall be-

    a. All the three Increasing b. TP increasing, AP & MP falling c. All the three falling d. TP & AP increasing, MP falling

    16. Uncommon thing between law of variable proportions & returns to scale is- a. Increasing Returns b. Decreasing Returns c. Constant Returns d. None of above

    17. Economies of scale means increasing production with______ per unit

    a. Increase in total cost b. Decrease in average cost c. Decrease in marginal cost d. Decrease in total cost

    18. Which one of the following is also known as Long run average cost curve?

    a. Basket Curve b. Wallet Curve c. Envelope curve d. None of above

    19. Which of the following is an example of external diseconomies? a. Lower salary of firm b. Higher salary of firm c. Tax exemption by Govt. d. High Tax Govt. Policy 20. Internal economies of scale are noticed at-

    a. Firm level independent of industry b. Industry level independent of Firm c. At both firm & industry level d. nowhere

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    21. Which of the following is an example of internal diseconomies? a. High salary of firm b. High tax for industry c. Low tax for industry d. Labour management disputes in firm 22. Which of the following is an example of External economies? a. Low salary of firm b. tax exemption for industry c. High tax for industry d. Labour management disputes of firm 23. With which of the following is the concept of marginal cost closely related?

    a. Variable cost. b. Fixed cost. c. Opportunity cost. d. Economic cost.

    24. Which of the following does not have non linear shape? a. Total cost curve b. Total Variable cost curve c. Total fixed cost curve d. None of above

    Use the following data to answer question 25-29. (Total Cost in Rs)

    Output (Units)

    0 1 2 3 4 5 6

    Total Cost (TC)

    300 350 410 465 515 600 700

    25. AFC of 6 units of output is:

    a. Rs. 50 b. Rs. 80 c. Rs. 116.66 d. None of above

    26. TFC of 2nd unit of output is:

    a. None of below b. Rs. 110 c. Rs. 410 d. Rs. 300

    27. TVC of 3 units of output is-

    a. 300

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    b. 410 c. 465 d. 165

    28. AVC of 5 units of output is- a. 50 b. 120 c. 60 d. None of above 29. ATC or AC of 4 units of output is- a. 55.25 b. 128.75 c. 515 d. None of above 30. The rising part of the LAC curve is due to which of the following?

    a. Economies of scale. b. Diminishing returns. c. The coordination problems in firm d. Diseconomies of scale

    31. A firms average total cost is Rs. 300 at 5 units output and Rs. 320 at 6 units of

    output. The marginal cost of producing the 6th unit is: a. Rs. 20 b. Rs. 120 c. Rs. 320 d. Rs. 420

    32. A toy manufacturer incurs total cost of Rs, 1, 13,900 per annum at zero level of output. If the selling price is Rs. 200 per unit and break even quantity is 680 units, what is the average variable cost per unit for the firm in Rs.?

    (a) 32.5 (b) 33 (c) 33.5 (d) 31.5

    33. A publisher publishes a book on management. His fixed cost is Rs. 2, 00, 000. If he sells the book at Rs.250 per unit and incurs a variable cost of Rs. 50 per unit, the total variable cost at break even shall be______

    (a) Rs. 30,000 (b) Rs. 50000 (c) Rs. 2, 50,000 (d) Rs. 2, 75,000

    Use the following data taken from seller of Diamonds to answer question 34-39.

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    MR in Rs. 110 135 165 205 240 260

    MC in Rs. 75 115 160 205 245 270

    Q In Units 1 2 3 4 5 6

    34. Equilibrium level of output is ______ units. a. 5 b. 6 c. 4 d. None of above 35. Producer should continue to produce & sell at _____ units of output. a. 6 b. 2 c. 5 d. None of above 36. Maximum total profit at equilibrium level of output in Rs= a. 60 b. 65 c. 55 d. 35 37. Total cost at equilibrium level of output in Rs= a. 615 b. 350 c. 245 d. 555 38. Average Revenue at equilibrium level of output in Rs= a. 155.35 b. 155 c. 153.75 d. 154 39. If the seller sells 5th & 6th unit, his total profit will_____ a. None of below b. Rise c. Be maximum d. Fall If TC = 2Q2 + 55Q +150 & TR = 2Q2 + 40Q + 1050, then answer questions (40 to 43) 40. Break even TR & TC is___ a. Rs. 10650 b. Rs. 10560

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    c. Rs. 60 d. Rs. 10660 41. Break even AR & AC in Rs. is___ a. 175.25 b. 177.5 c. 176.75 d. None of above 42. Break even MC in Rs. Is____ a. 290 b. 395 c. 195 d. 295 43. Break even MR in Rs. is___ a. 180 b. 380 c. 250 d. 280 If TFC = Rs.750, TVC = 3Q2 + 50Q, & MR = 15Q + 5, answer questions (44-45) 44. Equilibrium level of output in units is ____. a. 5 b. 6 c. 50 d. none of above 45. TC at equilibrium level of output in Rs is____ a. 275 b. 325 c. 225 d. none of above 46. Price discrimination implies that the monopolist maximizes profits:

    (a) None of Below (b) By implementing arbitrage (c) By Charging single price (d) By prohibiting Arbitrage

    47. Slope of AR curve in the context of monopolistic competition is-

    (a) Perfectly elastic (b) Relatively elastic (c) Unitary elastic (d) Relatively inelastic

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    48. Market structure where goods have close substitutes is best described as-

    (a) Perfectly competitive. (b) Monopolistic. (c) Monopolistically competitive. (d) None of above

    49. In perfect competition in the short run there will be __________ possibilities

    (a) Normal profits. (b) Supernormal profits. (c) Loss (d) All of above

    50. If sellers AR & AC functions are given as 115Q + 290 & 95Q + 305 respectively,

    with Output of 19 units, seller is making_____ a. NP b. SNP c. Loss d. None of above 51. __________ is the official minimum rate at which the Central Bank of a country is prepared to rediscount approved bills held by banks.

    a. CRR b. SLR c. Bank rate d. Repo rate

    52 . The 3rd Five Year Plan duration covered the period-

    a. 1951-56

    b. 1961-66

    c. 1947-52

    d. None of above

    53. Literacy rate calculated considering total population into account is known

    as-

    a. Crude Literacy Rate, b. Total Literacy Rate c. Mean Literacy Rate, d. None

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    54. The National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 set long term objective of

    achieving a stable population by-

    a. 2045 b. 2020 c. 2030 d. 2025

    55. Match the following-

    a) Science of wealth 1) Marshall

    b) Science of welfare 2) Samuelson

    c) Science dealing with

    scarcity

    3) Robbins

    d) Science of growth 4) Smith

    a. (a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4) b. (a-4, b-3, c-1, d-4) c. (a-2. b-1, c-3, d-4) d. (a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2) 56. Match the following

    (a) What is 1) Micro-economics (b) What ought to be 2) Macro-economics (c) Aggregates 3) Positive economics (d) Individual units 4) Normative economics

    a. (a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3) b. (a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3) c. (a-3, b-4, c-3, d-1) d. (a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2)

    57. Corporation Bank & Air India are the examples of:

    (a) Fixed capital (b) Artificial capital (c) private capital (d) public

    capital.

    58. The first industrial revolution laid the foundation of --

    (a) Capitalist economy (b) Socialist economy (c) Mixed economy (d)

    None of these

    .59. Under a Command economy

    (a) State plays a major role (b) Market plays major role (c) Both a & b (d) Neither a nor b

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    60. . When the price of a complementary of commodity X falls, the demand for X-

    A. Falls B. Rises C. Remains unchanged D. Any of

    the above

    61. Which of the following is the method of measuring elasticity of demand when

    change in price of a commodity is substantial?

    A. Arc method B. Point method C. Percentage method D. None of these

    62. IC analysis was given by

    A. Allen & Smith B. Hicks & Marshall C. Allen & Hicks

    D. Hicks & Pigou

    63 FERA stands for -

    A. Foreign Exchange Recommendation Act B. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act C. Finance and Export Regulation Association D. Funds Export Revaluation Act 64. In order to encourage investment in the economy, the RBI may

    a. Increase Bank Rate b. Sell securities in the open market c. Buy securities in the open market d. None of above

    65. If Repo Rate is 2 %, as per RBI policy, Reverse repo rate must be- a. 1% b. 2% c. 10% d. 0.5%

    66. Nearly _____percent of working population is engaged in the service sector. a. 23 per cent b. 45 per cent c. 80 per cent d. 50 per cent

    67. 11th Plan had objective of reducing Infant Mortality rate to _____.

    a. 30 b. 28 c. 35 d. 0

    68. ACRP stands for

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    a. Agro-Commodity Regional Planning b. Agro-Climatic Rational Planning c. Agro-Climatic Regional Planning d. Allied-Climatic Regional Planning

    69. As per 2011 Census, ____________ has got highest Gender Ratio. a. Tamil Nadu b. Goa c. Sikkim d. Pondicherry

    70. A target for creating ________new jobs has been set for the Rural Employment

    Generation programme under the Tenth Five Year plan.

    a. 25 Lacs b. 30 Lacs c. 100 Lacs d. 1 Crore

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    MCQs

    1) Which of the following statements is false?

    a) Statistics is derived from the Latin word 'status' b) statistics is derived from

    Italian word 'statista

    c) statistics is derived from in French word 'statistik' d)none

    2) Statistics is applied in

    a)Economics b) Business Management c) Commerce & Industry d)All these

    3) Data collected on religion from the census reports are

    a)Primary data b)Secondary data c)Sample data d) a or b

    4) The data collected on the height of group of students after recording their heights

    with a measuring

    tape are

    a)Primary data b)Secondary data c) Discrete data d)continuous data

    5) The primary data are collected by

    a)Interview method b)Observation method c) Questionnaire method d) All these

    6) The best method to collect the data in case of natural Calamity , is

    a) Personal Interview b) Indirect Interview c) Questionnaire Method d)none

    7) which method of data collection covers the widest area?

    a) Telephone Interview b) Mailed Questionnaire c) Direct Interview d)All these

    8) The amount of non responses is maximum in

    a)mailed Questionnaire method b) Interview method c) Observation method d) All

    these

    9) The mode of presentation of data are

    a) Textual, tabulation & diagrammatic b) Tabular, Internal

    & External

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    c) Textual , tabular & internal d) Tabular, textual

    & external

    10) For tabulation 'Caption' is

    a) The upper part of table b)The lower part of

    table

    c) The main part of table d)The upper part of table that describes column

    & sub-column

    11) 'stub' Of a table is

    a) Left part of the table describing the Columns b) Right part of the table

    describing the Column

    c) Right part of table describing rows d) Left past of the table

    describing the rows

    12) The entire upper part of the table is known as

    a) caption b) stub c) Box head d) Body

    13) The unit of measurement in tabulation is shown in

    a) Box head b) Body c) Caption d) stub

    14) In tabulation source of data if any is shown in the

    a) Footnote b) Body c) Stub d) Caption

    15) Diagrammatic presentation is done by

    a) Diagrams b)Charts c) Pictures d) All these

    16) A frequency distribution

    a) Arranges observation in ascending order b) Arranges in terms of groups

    c) Relates to a measurable characteristic d) all these

    17) Relative frequency for a Particular class

    a) Lies between 0 & 1 b) Lies between O&1 , both

    inclusive

    c) Lies between -1 & 0 d) Lies between -1 & 1

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    18) median of a distribution can be obtained from

    a) Frequency Polygon b) Histogram c) Less than type ogives d) None

    19) The number of observations falling within a Class is called

    a) density b) frequency c) both d)none

    20) Consecutive rectangles in a Histogram have no space in between

    a)True b)False c) both d)none

    21) Graphically Mode Can be found using

    a) Ogive b) Frequency polygon c) Histogram d)none

    22) In Histogram , the classes are taken

    a) Overlapping b) non-overlapping c) both d) none

    23) How many basis of classification are there?

    a)4 b) 3 c) 2 d) None

    24) A table has ........ parts

    a) 3 b) 5 c) 4 d) none

    25) How many laws are there in Statistics ?

    a) 2 b) 3 c) O d) none

    26) Some believe that statistics originated from a German word ........

    a)Statista b)statistik c) Status, d) none

    27) Data Can be classified as

    a) Private & Government b) Primary & Secondary c) 'Private & Public

    d)none

    28) Pie diagram is based on a

    a) Circle b) Rectangle c) Triangle d) none

    29) Cost of Sugar is as follows

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    Raw material 12

    labour 20

    direct Production 35

    others 23

    what is the difference between the central angles for largest & smallest components ?

    a) 72 b) 48 c) 56 d) 92

    30) ........ can not be obtained using graph

    a) A.M. b) Median c) Mode d) none

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    (MCQs)

    Chapter VI- BASIC CHARACTERISTICS OF INDIAN ECONOMY-I

    1. When India became Independent, it was a highly __________

    a. backward economy b. Progressive economy c. None of above

    2. We adopted ____________with an active role of the state. a. Capitalism b. Socialism c. mixed economy 3. The Planning Commission was set up in ________

    a. August 1947 b. March 1950 c. April 1991 d. January 1952

    4. Major objective of Planning Commission is -

    a. that the citizens shall not have the right to an adequate means of livelihood. b. that the ownership and control of the material resources shall remain unequal.

    c. Avoiding the concentration of wealth and means in the hands of few. d. None of above

    5. The principal task of the Planning Commission is to formulate the a. five-year plans. b. Annual Plans c. Budget d. None of above 6. In the five year plan document, the amount of money, is broken down into-

    a. public sector outlay and private sector plan outlay. b. only public sector outlay c. only private sector outlay d. none of above

    7. The public sector outlay is the most important part in the plan as-

    a. the private sector has direct control over the investment during a plan period

    b. the Govt. has direct control over the investment during a plan period c. the Govt. has no direct control over the investment during a plan period

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    d. None of above 8. The first Prime Minister of India, Jawaharlal Nehru presented the first five-year plan on

    a. December 8, 1951. b. January 26, 1952 c. January 26, 1951 d. August 15, 1947

    9. Target growth Rate & Actual growth Rate for 1st Five Year Plan was -

    a. 3% & 3.6% respectively b. 2.1% & 3% respectively c. 3.6% & 2.1% respectively d. 2.1% & 3.6% respectively

    10. Target growth Rate & Actual growth Rate for 9th Five Year Plan was a. 5.35% & 6.5% respectively b. 5.5% & 6.35% respectively c. 6.5% & 5.35% respectively d. None of above 11. The Tenth Five Year Plan duration covered the period-

    a. 2002-07 b. 1997-2002 c. 2002-2012 d. None of above

    12. The period 2007-12 represents- a. 9th Five Year Plan b. 11th Five Year Plan c. 12th Five Year Plan d. None of above 13. 11th Five Year Plan targeted increase in agricultural growth rate to ___% a. 10% b. 1% c. 4.5% d. 4% 14. In India, ____________represents 92% of the consumption of water a. Irrigation b. Industry c. Household d. All of above 15. In India, according to the Annual Report 2009-10 of the Ministry of Agriculture-

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    a. 240.3 million hectares is net sown area b. 200 million hectares is net sown area c. 140.3 million hectares is net sown area d. 340.3 million hectares is net sown area 16. The 1st Five Year Plan duration covered the period- a. 1951-56 b. 1947-52 c. 1956-61 d. None of above 17. Green Revolution started-

    a. in the year 1947-48 b. in the year 1957-58 c. in the year 1977-78 d. in the year 1967-68

    18. __________is a process where there is a sharp increase in the industrial share of GDP

    a. Industrialization b. Commercialization c. Modernization d. None of above

    19. System where British rulers collected the land taxes from farmers and assigned

    responsibility to local zamindars in India is known as__________ a. Mahalwari system b. Ryotwari system c. Zamindari system d. All of above

    20. High Yielding Variety crops formed the basis for-

    a. the Cultural Revolution. b. the social Revolution. c. Industrialisation d. Green Revolution

    21. The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1948, had following major feature. a. State Monopoly in Arms and ammunition, Atomic Energy , Rail Transport b. Private Monopoly in Arms and ammunition, Atomic Energy, Rail Transport c. Foreign Direct Investment d. Disinvestment 22. _________________laid down the economic reforms model.

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    a. The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1948, b. The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1991, c. The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956, d. None of above 23. Disinvestment is a process of transferring the ownership of equity shares from-

    a. Government to a private sector. b. Private sector to Government c. Central Government to World Bank d. State governments to Central government

    24. In year 1996-97, targeted & actual disinvestment in crores was- a. Rs. 10000 & Rs. 580 b. Rs. 380 & rs. 10000 c. Rs. 5000 & Rs. 580 d. Rs. 5000 & Rs. 380 25. NTPC stands for- a. National Telegraph Postal Corporation b. Narmada Thermal Power Corporation c. National Thermal Power Corporation d. National Thermal Powder Corporation 26. BARC stands for- a. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre b. Bharat Atomic Research Centre c. Bhabha Astrological Research Centre d. Bhabha Atomic Recreational Centre 27. BHEL stands for- a. Bharat Heavy Electronics Ltd b. Bhabha Heavy Electrical Ltd c. Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd d. Bombay Heavy Electricals Ltd 28. IPCL stands for- a. International Petrochemicals Corporation Ltd. b. Indian Premier Corporation Ltd. c. Indian Police Corporation Ltd. d. Indian Petrochemicals Corporation Ltd.

    ADDITIONAL MCQS

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    1. Generally an economy is considered under developed if

    e. The standard of living of people & Productivity is low. f. Agriculture is the main occupation of the people g. The production techniques are backward. h. All of the above.

    2. Which of the following statement is correct?

    a. Agriculture occupies 10 per cent population of India. b. Nearly 5 per cent population of India is below the poverty line. c. The production techniques in agriculture are backward. d. None of the above.

    3. Which of the statements is correct?

    a. The tertiary sector contributes the maximum to the GDP. b. India is basically a socialist economy. c. The distribution of income and wealth is quite equitable. d. None of the above.

    4. _______is the apex bank for agriculture credit in India.

    a. RBI b. SIDBI c. NABARD d. ICICI

    5. The share of agriculture in Indias national income has ______ over the years.

    a. Remained constant. b. Decreased. c. Increased. d. First decreased and then increased.

    6. The green revolution is also known as

    a. Wheat revolution. b. Rice revolution. c. Cultural Revolution. d. Forest revolution.

    7. The area under irrigation has ______ over the years in India.

    a. Remained constant. b. Decreased. c. Increased. d. First increased and then decreased.

    8. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Under zamindari system, farmers directly paid land revenue to the state.

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    b. Income tax revenues from the agriculture sector are negligible. c. Banks are providing loans to the agriculture sector at zero interest rate. d. None of the above.

    9. Abolition of intermediaries and tenancy reforms are both parts of

    a. Industrial reforms in India. b. External sector reforms in India. c. Land reforms in India. d. Banking reforms in India.

    10. Agriculture sector faces the problem of

    a. Slow and uneven growth. b. Inadequate and incomplete land reforms. c. Inadequate finance. d. All of the above.

    11. Which of the following has been specifically established to meet the requirements

    of credit of the farmers and villagers? a. ICICI bank. b. Regional Rural Banks. c. State Bank of India. d. EXIM bank.

    12. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

    a. About 80 per cent of agricultural area has irrigation facilities. b. About 60 per cent area is rain fed in India. c. Productivity per worker in agriculture is much lower. d. Cropping pattern is quite skewed in India.

    13. Which of the following statements is correct?

    a. Countries which are industrially well-developed generally have higher per capita income than countries which are not.

    b. India is a capital surplus economy. c. Agriculture sector need not depend upon industrial sector for its growth. d. None of the above.

    14. Three steel plants in Bhilai, Rourkela and Durgapur were set up in the

    a. First plan. b. Second plan. c. Third plan. d. Fourth plan.

    15. Which of the following has resulted in failure to achieve targets of industrial

    Production? a. Poor planning. b. Power, finance and labour problems.

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    c. Technical complications. d. All of the above.

    16. About _______ per cent of the sick units in India are small units.

    a. 10 per cent b. 5 per cent c. 30 per cent d. 98 per cent

    17. The Tenth Plan aimed at achieving a growth rate of _______ in the industrial

    sector. a. 5 per cent b. 8 per cent c. 10 per cent d. 6 per cent

    18. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Indian Oil Corporation, Steel Authority of

    India, and Bharat Heavy Electricals are all examples of a. Small scale units. b. Private sector units. c. Public sector units. d. Sick units.

    19. Over the planning period the share of industrial sector in the GDP of India

    has_________. a. Increased b. Decreased c. Remained constant d. Remained above 50 per cent

    20. The industrial sector depends on the agricultural sector because

    a. The agriculture sector provides food and other products for the consumption purposes of industrial sector.

    b. The agriculture sector provides raw-materials for the development of agro-based industries of the economy.

    c. The agricultural sector provides market for the industrial products. d. All of the above.

    21. A sick industrial unit is one

    a. Where most of the employees are sick. b. Which is unable to perform its normal functions and production of

    goods and services at a reasonable profit on a sustained basis c. Which is unable to make profits more than 10 per cent of its capital

    employed d. Which borrows money from bank for its fixed assets

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    22. The service sector in India now accounts for

    a. More than 80 per cent of GDP. b. More than 70 per cent of GDP. c. More than 50 per cent of GDP. d. More thane 90 per cent of GDP.

    23. Nearly _____percent of working population is engaged in the service sector.

    a. 23 per cent b. 45 per cent c. 80 per cent d. 50 per cent

    24. India has the ______ largest scientific and technical manpower in the world.

    a. Fifth b. Tenth c. Eighth d. Second

    25. Small scale units exist in India because

    a. They are labour intensive and India is a labour surplus economy. b. They offer methods of ensuring more equitable distribution of income and

    wealth. c. They facilitate the creation of a winder entrepreneurial base. d. All of the above.

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    (MCQs)

    CHAPTER VII- SELECT AREAS OF INDIAN ECONOMY

    1. India accounts for ______percent of world surface area but it supports _____ percent of the world population respectively.

    a. 3.4 & 16.7 b. 4 & 20 c. 2.4 & 16.7 d. 16.7 & 2.4

    2. As per latest information, current population of India in 2012 is-

    a. 1.22 billion b. 0.80 billion c. 2 billion d. 2.12 billion 3. The National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 outlines the long term objective of

    achieving a stable population by- a. 2045 b. 2020 c. 2030 d. 2015

    4. As population of a country increases the per head availability of natural resources-

    a. declines b. increases c. remains fixed d. becomes zero 5. Where as in 1921 the per capita cultivated land was ____ acres, it reduced to ____

    acres in 1995 respectively. a. 1.11 & 1 b. 1 & .048 c. 1.11 & .048 d. 1 & 1.11

    6. The ratio of unproductive population to productive population is known as- a. Independency ratio b. mean ratio c. dependency ratio d. nothing 7. As per census 2011 regarding population in India- I. Density is _______per sq km. a. 125 b. 250 c. 372 d. 382 II. Gender ratio is _______ females per 1000 males. a. 800 b. 950 c. 940 d. 1100 III. Female literacy % is _______. a. 60 b. 65.46 c. 46.65 d. 64.56 IV. The state of _______ is said to be the most populous state. a. Bihar b. Sikkim c. UP d. Goa V. The country is responsible for _______ %of the total population on earth. a. 17.5 b. 15 c. 20 d. 100

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    8. Literacy rate calculated by taking the total population into account is known as-

    a. Crude Literacy Rate b. No Literacy Rate c. Mean Literacy Rate 9. Literacy rate calculated by considering population aged above 7 years is known as- a. Crude Literacy Rate b. Effective Literacy Rate c. Adult Literacy Rate 10. As per National Population Policy, 2000 (NPP 2000), following targets are set- I. Make school education up to age _____free and compulsory a. 10 b. 15 c. 21 d. 14 II. Reduce infant mortality rate to below _____per 1000 live births. a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 35 III. Promote delayed marriage for girls, not earlier than age ____. a. 15 b. 21 c. 18 d. 25 IV. Achieve ______per cent registration of births, deaths, marriage and pregnancy a. 100 b. 80 c. 0 d. 50 11. _______can is defined as a situation in which a section of the society is unable to

    fulfill even its basic minimum requirement of life. a. Malnutrition b. inequality c. Poverty d. Full employment 12. Poverty is mainly viewed in two ways-

    a. absolute and relative b. half & full c. more & less d. good & bad 13. In India, we are mostly concerned with-

    a. Zero poverty b. Absolute Poverty c. Relative poverty 14. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005was passed in-

    a. December 2005 b. November 2005 c. May 2005 d. September 2005 15. NFWP stands for- a. Notional Food for Work Programme b. National Food for Work Programme c. National Fool for Work Programme d. National Food for Worm Programme 16. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) was launched in-

    a. 1999. b. 1991 c. 2001 2011 17. A target for creating ______ lakh new rural jobs has been set under the Tenth Five Year plan

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    a. 20 b. 50 c. 25 100 18. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yozana (PMGY) launched in year-

    a. 2000 b. 2005 c. 2010 d. 2012 19. NSSO stands for- a. The National Soil Survey Organization b. The National Sample System Organization c. The National Sample Survey Organization d. The National Sample Service Organization 20. India currently faces coal shortage of _____ metric tonne.

    a. 23.96 b. 25 c. 27.15 d. 0

    21. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established with effect from_____

    a. 20th Feb 1991 b. 20th Feb 2001 c. 20th Feb 1997 d. 20th February 2007 22. TDSAT stands for- a. Transport Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal b. Telecommunications Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal c. Telecommunications Directorate Settlement and Appellate Tribunal d. Telecommunications Dispute Solutions and Appellate Tribunal 23. The New Telecom Policy, 1999 became effective from__________

    a. 1st April 2009 b. 1st April 1991 c. 1st April 1999. d. 1st April 2009 24. Nearly ______% of the population in India does not have access to essential medicines. a. 25 b. 51 c. 75 d. 67 25. ____________has the lowest Infant Mortality Rate (IMR). a. Kerala b. UP c. Assam d. Goa 26. ____________has the highest Infant Mortality Rate (IMR). a. Gujarat b. Karnataka c. Bihar d. UP

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    ADDITIONAL MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. What is Indias rank in world population?

    a. First. b. Second. c. Third. d. Fourth.

    2. The annual additional to Indias population is almost equal to the total population of

    a. Bangladesh b. Australia. c. Japan d. China .

    3. In which state is the sex ratio most favorable to women? a. Andhra Pradesh b. Uttar Pradesh. c. Kerala. d. Karnataka.

    4. Which year is known as year of great divide for Indias population? a. 1991. b. 2001. c. 1981. d. 1921.

    5. In which state/union territory is the literacy rate highest? a. Delhi. b. Chandigarh. c. Karnataka. d. Kerala.

    6. Indias passing through __________ stage of demographic transition. a. Fourth b. Third c. First d. Second

    7. In the theory of demographic transition in the last stage- a. Birth rate rises, death rate rises b. Birth rate rises, death rate falls. c. Birth rate falls, death rate rises. d. Birth rate falls, death rate falls.

    8. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Indias population is second largest in the world.

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    b. India is still passing through first stage of demographic transition. c. More people in a country always mean more economic trouble for the country. d. None of the above.

    9. Indias present population is a. Between 50-60 crore. b. Between 60-70 crore. c. Between 70-80 crore. d. Above 100 crore.

    10. India accommodates nearly _______ per cent of worlds population. a. 10. b. 50. c. 17. d. 45.

    11. Of late, birth rate in India has _______ and death rate has ________ a. Fallen, fallen b. Risen, fallen. c. Risen, risen d. Fallen, risen.

    12. Identify the incorrect statement a. The problems of poverty and unemployment are inter-related. b. The problem of poverty has been solved in India. c. Growing population has also contributed to the problem of poverty in India. d. None of the above.

    13. SJSRY stands for a. Swaran Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana. b. Shahari Jeewan Sudhar Rashtriya Yojana. c. Sampoorna Jeewan Shahari Rozgar Yojana. d. None of the above.

    14. A situation of employment in which a person is apparently employed but his contribution to the production is almost nil is called __________ unemployment.

    a. Structural b. Chronic c. Disguised d. Cyclical.

    15. ____________ Unemployment may result when some workers are temporarily out of work changing job.

    a. Cyclical. b. Voluntary. c. Frictional

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    d. Seasonal

    16. According to ___________ measure, a person is said to be employed for the week even if the employed only for a day during the week.

    a. Usual status. b. Current weekly status. c. Current daily status. d. Current yearly status.

    17. Every ________ person in the world in an Indian. a. Second b. Third. c. Sixth. d. Tenth.

    18. ______________ measure generally gives the lowest estimate of unemployment especially for poor economy.

    a. Usual status. b. CWS. c. CDS. d. CMS.

    19. Most of unemployment in India is __________ a. Voluntary b. Structural c. Frictional d. Technical

    20. The highest user of commercial energy is a. Agriculture. b. Transport c. Household. d. Industry.

    21. In terms of generation of power ___________s contribution is the maximum. a. Hydel b. Nuclear. c. Thermal. d. Others.

    22. Of the major 12 ports, ___________ is the top traffic handler. a. Paradip b. Cochin. c. Vishakhapatnam. d. Mumbai.

    23. Sahara Jet and Kingfisher are examples of

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    a. Private schools. b. Private airlines. c. Private ships, d. Private railways

    24. Our postal network is _________ in the world a. Among the largest networks b. Fifth smallest. c. Tenth largest. d. Tenth smallest.

    25. Who is regulatory authority for telecom in India? a. SEBI b. TRAI c. MTNL d. BSNL

    26. Over the years, the incidence of malaria (cases in million) has ___________ a. Reduced b. Increased c. Remained the same d. Doubled.

    27. Over the years, the number of polio cases has a. Increased b. Reduced c. Remained the same d. Doubled.

    28. NLM stands for a. National Leprosy Mission. b. National Logistic Mission. c. National Literacy Mission d. National Law Mission.

    29. IIM stands for a. Indian Institute of Marketing b. Indian Institute of Manpower c. Indian Institute of Management d. International Institute of Management.