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1. Plaster of Paris is obtained by calcining

_____.

A. bauxite B. gypsum

C. kankar D. lime stone

Ans. B.

Plaster is made by heating gypsum

(CaSO4.2H2O) powder, thus converting it

to calcium sulphate hemihydrate

(CaSO4.²H2O). The hemihydrate is also

known as stucco or Plaster of Paris

2. For the manufacture of Portland cement

the proportions of raw material used are

_______.

A. lime 63%; silica 22%; other ingredients

15%

B. silica 22%; lime 63%; other ingredients

15%

C. silica 40%; lime 40%; other ingredients

40%

D. silica 70%; lime 20%; other ingredients

20%

Ans. A.

3. To retard the initial setting time of

cement, the compound responsible is

______.

A. Tri-calcium silicate

B. Gypsum

C. Di-calcium silicate

D. Tri calcium aluminate

Ans. B.

When needed, clinkers are mixed with 2-

5% gypsum to retard the setting time of

cement when it is mixed with water.

4. Quick setting cement is produced by

adding ______.

A. less amount of gypsum in very fine

powdered form

B. more amount of gypsum in very fine

powdered form

C. aluminium sulphate in very fine

powdered form

D. pozzolana in very fine powdered form

Ans. C.

Quick Setting Cement as the name

indicates, these types of cements are used

where quick setting is needed. The quick

setting cement is manufactured by adding

a small percentage of aluminum sulphate

and then it is finely grinded with cement.

And also for quick setting action a small

percentage of gypsum or retarder is

added. The aluminum sulphate is mainly

added to accelerate the setting time fast.

Initial setting time = 5 minutes

Final setting time = 30 minutes

5. If P is the percentage of water required

for normal consistency, water to be added

for determination of initial setting time is

________.

A. 0.75 P B. 0.75 P

C. 0.80 P D. 0.85 P

Ans. D.

The standard IS 4031 :1988 (Part V)

requires the water content to be gauged

for determining the setting time of cement

by Vicat’s Apparatus to be 0.85 P (wherein

P is the Percentage of water required to

attain Normal Consistency of the said

Cement

Normal consistency for initial setting time

= 0.85P

Normal consistencey for soundness test =

0.78P

6. Pick up the correct statement from the

following.

A. Adding 5% to 6% moisture content by

weight, increases the volume of dry sand

from 18% to 38%

B. The bulking of fine sand is more than

that of coarse sand

C. If the percentage content of moisture

exceeds 10%, increase in bulk of sand

starts increasing

D. all options are correct

Ans. D.

The increase in moisture of sand increases

the volume of sand. The reason is that

moisture causes film of water around sand

particles which results in the increase of

volume of sand. For moisture content

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percentage of 5 to 8 there will be an

increase in volume up to 20 to 40 percent

depending upon sand.

If the sand is finer there will be more

increase in volume. This is known as

bulking of sand.

7. Strength of cement concrete primarily

depends upon ______.

A. quality of water

B. quantity of aggregate

C. quantity of cement

D. water-cement ratio

Ans. D.

The most important factor of determining

the strength of concrete is water cement

ratio.

It is the ratio of mixing water to that of

cement in the mixture. Cement needs

water of about 38% by weight for

complete hydration.

8. The most valuable timber may be

obtained from ______.

A. chair B. shisham

C. sal D. teak

Ans. D.

Teak is also resistant to termites, though

it is only moderately resistant to marine

borers and powder post beetles.

Teak is very expensive.

The reason is that teak is valuable both for

its elegance and its durability

9. The timber having maximum resistance

against white ants is obtained from

_______.

A. chair B. shisham

C. Sal D. teak

Ans. D.

Because its smell of this tree is not

favorable to white ants or termites

10. Due to attack of dry rot, the timber

______.

A. cracks

B. shrinks

C. reduces to powder

D. none of these

Ans. C.

Dry rot is the term given to brown rot

decay caused by certain fungi that

deteriorate timber in buildings and other

wooden construction without an apparent

source of moisture.

Dry rot is caused by the attack of certain

fungi which break down the wood.

11. The detention period in a septic is

assumed to be ______.

A. 20 minutes B. 25 minutes

C. 30 minutes D. 40 minutes

Ans. C.

The maximum detention time in the wet

well will not exceed 30 minutes of average

flow.

Ans. D.

12. The inspection pit or chamber is a

manhole provided in a base drainage

system ______.

A. at every change of direction

B. at every change of gradient

C. at every 30 m intervals

D. all options are correct

Ans. D.

These are provided at every bend,

junction, change of gradient or change of

diameter of the sewer.

The maximum spacing between the

manholes recommended is 30 m, and 300

m spacing for pipe greater than 2.0 m

diameter

13. The value of “C” of Indian type W.C.

shown in the figure given below is

A. 400 mm B. 450 mm

C. 500 mm D. 550 mm

Ans. C.

These types of water closets can then vary

greatly by shape (square, angular, round,

D-shaped) and by size, with differences in

dimensions (both length and width)

between anywhere in the region of

350mm - 500mm.

14. The diameter of a domestic sewer pipe

laid at gradient 1 in 100 is recommended

_______.

A. 100 mm B. 150 mm

C. 200 mm D. 175 mm

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Ans. B.

15. Pick up the incorrect statement from

the following.

A. Lead is the average horizontal straight

distance between the borrow pit and the

place of spreading soil

B. The lead is calculated for each block of

the excavated area

C. The unit of lead is 50 m for a distance

up to 500 m

D. The unit of lead is 1 km where the lead

exceeds 2 km

Ans. D.

It is the average horizontal distance

between the center of excavation to the

centre of deposition. The unit of lead is

50m.

16. If B is the width of formation d is the

height of the embankment, side slop s:1,

for a highway with no transverse slope,

the area of cross-section is _______.

A. B d+Sd B. 2Bd+Sd

C. 1/2B d Sd − D.

21/2(Bd Sd )+

Ans. B.

Area of sides = Sd2

Total Sectional Area = (Bd+Sd2)

17. In the mid-section formula ______.

A. The mean depth is the average of

depths of two consecutive sections

B. The area of mid-sections is calculated

by using mean depth

C. The volume of the earth work is

calculated by multiplying the mid-section

area by the distance between the two

sections

D. All of the above

Ans. D.

By averaging the depths of two

consecutive sections, mean depth is

calculated first and from the mean depth

the area of mean section is calculated and

finally volume of earthwork is computed

by multiplying the area of mid-section by

the distance between the two original

sections.

Volume of earthwork= area of mid-section

* distance between two consecutive

sections = Am * L

Am=area of mid-section+area of two sides

Am=Bdm+Sdm2

dm=(d1+d2)/2

Therefore; volume of earthwork=

(Bdm+Sdm2)*L

18. The ground surface slopes 1 in 50

along a proposed railway embankment

150 m in length. The height of the

embankment at zero chainage is 0.5 m,

the width is 11 m and side slopes 2:1. If

the falling gradient of the embankment is

1 in 150, the quantity of the earthwork

calculated by prismoidal formula is _____.

A. 3250 m3 B. 3225 m3

C. 3275 m3 D. 3300 m3

Ans. B.

Prismoidal formula = h/6(A1+An + 4 (A2 +

A4) + 2(A3+A5)

19. A cement concrete road is 1000 m

long, 8 m wide and 15 cm thick over the

sub-base of 10 cm thick gravel. The box

cutting in road crust is _______.

A. 500 m3 B. 1000 m3

C. 1500 m3 D. 2000 m3

Ans. C.

The road is 1000m long = 1000m.

The width is 8m = 8m.

The thickness of slab = 0.15m.

Excavation for sub base (10cm thick -

6.25cm compaction) = 3.75cm for gravel.

So,

1000m x 8m x (0.15m + .0375m).

1000m x 8m x 0.1875m = 1500 cubic m.

20. Berms are provided in canals if these

are _______.

A. fully in excavation

B. partly in excavation and partly in

embankment

C. fully in embankment

D. all options are correct

Ans. B.

Berm is the horizontal distance left at

ground level between the toe of the bank

and the top edge of cutting.

The berm is provided in such a way that

the bed line and the bank line remain

parallel. If s1: 1 is the slope in cutting and

s2:1 in filling, then the

Initial berm width = (s1– s2) d1.

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21. The main principle of surveying is to

work _______.

A. from part to the whole

B. from whole to the part

C. from higher level to the lower level

D. from lower level to higher level

Ans. B.

Working from whole to part is done in

surveying in order to ensure that errors

and mistakes of one portion do not affect

the remaining portion.

22. In case of a direct Vernier scale

_____.

A. graduations increase in opposite

direction in which graduations of the main

scale increase

B. smallest division is longer than smallest

division of the main scale

C. graduations increase in the same

direction in which graduations of the main

scale increase

D. None of these

Ans. C.

In case of direct vernier both scales,

namely Vernier and main, move in the

same direction and vernier divisions are

marked in the same direction as that of

the main scale.

23. The slope correction for a length of 30

m along a gradient of 1 in 20 is ______.

A. 3.75 cm B. 0.375 cm

C. 37.5 cm D. 2.75 cm

Ans. A.

Length=30m, gradient=1/20; h=1.5.

Correction for a slope: h2/2l.

(1.5)2/ 2x3000 = 3.75 cm.

24. Correction per chain length of 100

links along a slope having a rise of 1 unit

in n horizontal units is ______.

A. 100/n2 B. 100 n2

C. 100/n3 D. 100/n

Ans. A.

Hypotenuse allowance= 50/n2

25. In chain surveying field work is limited

to _______.

A. linear measurements only

B. angular measurements only

C. both linear and angular measurements

D. all options are correct

Ans. A.

In chain surveying only linear

measurements i.e. lengths are only

measured by chain or with tape.

Chain surveying is the simplest and the

most accurate kind of surveying. In this

the area is divided into network of

triangles since the triangle is the only

figure which can be plotted without any

angular measurements.

26. If the chain line which runs along N-S

direction is horizontal and the ground in E-

W direction is slopping ________.

A. it is possible to set offsets correctly on

east side

B. it is possible to set offsets correctly on

east side

C. it is not possible to set offsets correctly

on west side

D. it is possible to set offsets correctly on

both sides

Ans. D.

Chain survey is the simplest method of

surveying. In this survey only

measurements are taken in the field, and

the rest work, such as plotting calculation

etc. are done in the office. If the chain line

which runs along N-S direction is

horizontal and the ground in E-W direction

is slopping is possible to set offsets

correctly on both sides

27. The conventional sign shown in the

figure below represents a :-

A. Bridge carrying railway below road.

B. Bridge carrying road below railway

C. Bridge carrying road and railway at the

same level.

D. A level crossing

Ans. B.

The ABOVE diagram represents the bridge

carrying road below railway

The below diagram shows Bridge carrying

railway below road.

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The above represents Bridge carrying road

and railway at the same level.

28. The real image of an object formed by

the objective must lie ______.

A. in the plane of cross hairs

B. at the center of the telescope

C. at the optical center of the eye piece

D. anywhere inside the telescope

Ans. A.

The real image is the plane of cross hairs

because upper middle and lower number

we have to get in this by cross hairs.

29. A relatively fixed point of known

elevation above datum is called ______.

A. bench mark B. datum point

C. reduced level D. reference point

Ans. A.

A benchmark is a point of reference by

which something can be measured. In

surveying, a "bench mark" (two words) is

a post or other permanent mark

established at a known elevation that is

used as the basis for measuring the

elevation of other topographical points.

30. For true difference in elevations

between two points A and B the level must

be set up _______.

A. at any point between A and B

B. at the exact mid-point of A and B

C. near the point A

D. near the point B

Ans. B.

True difference in elevations between two

points A and B is the level must be set up

at the exact midpoint of BS and FS.

31. The property of a soil which permits

water to percolate through it, is called

______.

A. moisture content B. permeability

C. capillarity D. none of these

Ans. B.

Soil permeability is the property of the soil

to transmit water and air. The coefficient

of permeability (or permeability) in soil

mechanics is a measure of how easily

water can flow through a porous soil

medium

32. If the specific gravity and voids in soil

sample are G and e respectively, the

hydraulic gradient i, is ______.

A. (G 1) / (1 e)− +

B. (G 1) / (1 e)+ −

C. (1 G) / (1 e)− +

D. (1 G) / (1 e)+ +

Ans. A.

Critical Hydraulic gradient = (G-1) /

(1+e).

Where,

e - Void ratio.

G - Specific gravity of soil.

33. The shear strength in plastic

undrained clay, is due to ______.

A. inter-granular friction

B. internal friction

C. cohesion

D. none of these

Ans. C.

This makes the shear vane most reliable in

clays which when nearly 100% saturated

have no angle of internal friction and in

which all of the shearing strength is due to

cohesion.

34. The Mohr’s straight theory is based on

the following fact.

A. Material fails essentially by shear

B. Ultimate strength of the material is

determined by the stress in the plane of

slip

C. Failure criterion is independent of the

intermediate principal stress

D. all options are correct

Ans. D.

The Mohr–Coulomb failure criterion is a

set of linear equations in principal stress

space describing the conditions for which

an isotropic material will fail, with any

effect from the intermediate principal

stress being neglected. MC can be written

as a function of major and minor principal

stresses, or normal stress r and shear

stress s on the failure plane

35. To avoid an interruption in the flow of

a siphon, an air vessel is provided ______.

A. at the inlet

B. at the outlet

C. at the summit

D. at any point between the inlet and

outlet

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Ans. C.

A syphon is a long bent pipe used to

connect two reservoirs at different levels

intervened by a high ridge. The highest

point of the syphon is called the summit.

An air vessel is provided at the summit in

order to avoid interruption in the flow.

36. The line of action of the buoyant force

acts through the centroid of the ______.

A. submerged body

B. volume of the floating body

C. volume of the fluid vertically above the

body

D. displaced volume of the fluid

Ans. D.

The line of action of the buoyant force

passes through the centroid of the

displaced liquid volume only if it has

uniform density. This point through which

FB acts is called the center of buoyancy

37. The time oscillation of a floating body

with increase in metacentric height will be

______.

A. same

B. higher

C. lower

D. lower/higher depending weight of body

Ans. C.

∴ The Periodic Time T = 2k

2πmg

so metacentric height is lowered so that

time period of oscillation of ship increases

and you don’t feel that ship is rolling

38. Euler’s equation for motion of liquids is

based on the assumption that the ______.

A. flow is streamline

B. flow takes place continuously

C. flow is homogeneous and

incompressible

D. flow is turbulent

Ans. C.

Euler’s equation is based on the following

assumptions:

❖ The fluid is non-viscous (i,e., the

frictional losses are zero).

❖ The fluid is homogeneous and

incompressible (i.e., mass density of

the fluid is constant).

❖ The flow is continuous, steady and

along the streamline.

❖ The velocity of the flow is uniform over

the section.

❖ No energy or force (except gravity and

pressure forces) is involved in the flow.

39. In order to replace a compound pipe

by a new pipe, the pipes will be equivalent

when following are same for both the

pipes.

A. length and flow

B. diameter and flow

C. loss of head and flow

D. length and loss of head

Ans. D.

Equivalent pipes refer to imaginary pipes

which are used to determine the head loss

and flow of discharge considering that the

flow of discharge and head loss in the

actual piping system is same as that of the

equivalent pipe.

40. Steady flow occurs when ______.

A. conditions change steadily with time

B. conditions do not change with time at

any point

C. conditions are same at adjacent points

with time

D. velocity vector at any point remains

constant

Ans. B.

a flow in which the velocity of the fluid at

a particular fixed point does not change

with time — called also stationary flow;

compare uniform flow.

41. A body is said to be provided optimum

amount of streamlining when ______.

A. friction drag is minimum

B. pressure drag is minimum

C. profile drag (i.e. sum of friction drag

and pressure drag) is minimum

D. production of friction and pressure drag

is minimum

Ans. C.

A streamlined body is a shape that lowers

the friction drag between a fluid, like air

and water, and an object moving through

that fluid.

42. The losses in open channel vary as

proportional to _____.

A. velocity (V) B. V2

C. √V D. V3

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Ans. B.

Minor loss of open channel flow = V2/2g

43. If ρ

is density of fluid, then pressure

of fluid due to water hammer is direct

proportional to ______.

A. ρ

B. 1/ ρ

C. ρ

D. 2ρ

Ans. B.

C = √ (bulk modulus/density) = A = √B

ρ

44. The hydraulic radius is given by

______.

A. wetted perimeter divided by area

B. area divide by square of wetted

perimeter

C. area divided by wetted perimeter

D. square root of area

Ans. C.

Based on the 'constant shear stress at the

boundary' assumption, hydraulic radius is

defined as the ratio of the channel's cross-

sectional area of the flow to its wetted

perimeter

45. Pick up the correct sequence of the

part of a canal system from the following.

A. Head work-distributary canal-minor

B. Head work-main canal-branch canal-

distributary-minor

C. Head work-main canal-branch canal-

minor- distributary

D. Head work-branch canal-main canal-

distributary-minor

Ans. B.

TYPES OF CANAL

(BASED ON DISCHARGE)

● MAIN CANAL

● BRANCH CANAL

● MAJOR DISTRIBUTARY

● WATER COURSE OR FIELD CHANNEL

46. Which one of the following statements

is correct?

A. The canal system and the drainage

system are complementary

B. The canal system runs on ridges, gets

divided into smaller channels and spreads

its water on the land

C. The drainage system runs along the

lowest line, collects drainage water from

the slopes and joins the main stream

D. all options are correct

Ans. D.

The drainage system minimizes the impact

of flooding by safely carrying storm water

away from built-up areas into rivers and

creeks.

The dividing ridge line between the

catchment areas of two streams (drains)

is called the watershed or ridge canal.

Since the drainage flows away from the

ridge, no drainage can cross a canal

aligned on the ridge. Thus, a canal aligned

on the watershed saves the cost of

construction of cross-drainage works.

47. If L is the length of vehicles in meters,

C is the clear distance between two

consecutive vehicles (stopping sight

distance), V is the speed of vehicles in km

per hour, the maximum number N of

vehicles/hour is ______.

A.

1000VN

L C=

+ B. 1000

L CN

V

+=

C.

1000LN

C V=

+ D.

1000CN

L V=

+

Ans. A.

C = 1000 V/S.

Where V = Velocity of moving vehicle.

S = Stopping distance + Average length of

vehicle.

48. If n is the length of a rail in meters,

the number of sleepers per rail length

generally varies from _______.

A. n to (n+2)

B. (n+2) to (n+4)

C. (n+3) to (n+6)

D. (n+4) tp (n+5)

Ans. C.

Number of sleepers provided for one rail

length of track is called sleeper density. If

“N” is the length of one rail in meters,

Sleeper Density = N+ X, (X –> 3 to 6)

For a Broad Gauge track, total number of

sleepers required for 1km length of

railway track if sleeper density = N+5

Length of one rail = 12.8m =13m

49. The density of population over 40

hectares is 250/hectare. If water supply

demand per day is 200 liters and sewage

discharge is 80% of water supply, the

sewage flow in sewers of separate system

is ______.

A. 0.05552 cumec B. 0.05554 cumec

C. 0.05556 cumec D. 0.05558 cumec

Ans. C.

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[(40 * 250) * 200 * 80% / (1000 * 24 *

60 * 60)] cumec. = 0.0185 cumec.

Dry weather flow is equal to 3 times of

average flow. So the answer is 0.185 * 3

i.e. 0.05556.

Ans. D.

50. Before discharging the foul sewage

into rivers, it is generally treated by

______.

A. screening B. sedimentation

C. oxidation

D. all options are correct

Ans. D.

The sewage will then flow into various

chambers for equalisation, desilting,

grease separation, mixing, aeration,

chlorination, flocculation, sedimentation,

etc. Wastewater level monitoring in

sewage treatment plants is required in

most of these stages for accurate liquid

level control

51. The ratio of lateral strain to axial

strain of a homogeneous material is

known ______.

A. Yield ratio

B. Hooke’s ratio

C. Poisson’s ratio

D. Plastic ratio

Ans. C.

Poisson's ratio is the ratio of transverse

contraction strain to longitudinal extension

strain in the direction of stretching force.

Tensile deformation is considered positive

and compressive deformation is

considered negative.

n = - etrans / elongitudinal

52. The normal and tangential

components of stress on an inclined plane

through oθ to the direction of the force

will be equal if θ is ______.

A. 45o

B. 30o

C. 60o

D. 90o

Ans. A.

The stresses vary as the inclined plane is

cut at various angles. As expected, σx' is a

maximum (σ max) when θ is 0° or 180°,

and ζ x'y' is maximum (ζ max) when θ is

45° or 135°. Also, .

53. The locus of the end point of the

resultant of the normal and tangential

components of the stress on an inclined

plane is ______.

A. circle B. parabola

C. ellipse D. straight line

Ans. C.

The normal and shear stresses acting

across the characteristics are defined by

the points of contact of the envelope E

with Mohr’s circle for the considered state

of stress. The locus of the highest and

lowest points of the circle is an ellipse

representing the yield criterion

54. Principal planes are subjected to

_____.

A. normal stresses only

B. tangential stresses only

C. normal stresses as well as tangential

stresses

D. None of these

Ans. A.

The maximum and minimum values of

normal stresses occur on planes of zero

shearing stress. The maximum and

minimum normal stresses are called the

principal stresses, and the planes on which

they act are called principal plane the

solution of equation.

55. The strain energy due to volumetric

strain ______.

A. is directly proportional to the volume

B. is directly proportional to the square of

exerted pressure

C. is inversely proportional to Bulk

modulus

D. all options are correct

Ans. D.

U = σ2 / 2E × V.

Where,

σ = stress,

E = young’s modulus,

V = volume of body.

56. A simply supported beam carries a

varying load from zero at one end and w

at the other end. If the length of the beam

is a, the shear force will be zero at a

distance X from least loaded point where X

is _______.

A. a/2 B. a/3

C. a/ 3 D. (a 3)/2

Ans. C.

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57. For a strongest rectangular beam cut

from a circular log, the ratio of the width

and depth is _____.

A. 0.303 B. 0.404

C. 0.505 D. 0.707

Ans. D.

Ratio of width to depth= 1/√2 = 0.707.

58. The maximum magnitude of shear

stress due to shear force F on a

rectangular section of area A at the

neutral axis is _____.

A. F/A B. F/2A

C. 3F/2A D. 2F/3A

Ans. C.

If F

bdis called the Mean Stress then:

59. The ratio of maximum and average

shear stresses on a rectangular section is

_____.

A. 1 B. 1.25

C. 1.5 D. 2

Ans. C.

● The ratio of maximum shear stress to

average shear stress is 4/3 in circular

cross-section.

● The ratio of maximum shear stress to

average shear stress is 3/2 in rectangular

cross-section.

● The ratio of maximum shear stress to

average shear stress is 3/2 in triangular

cross-section.

60. A cantilever of length 2 cm and depth

10 cm tapers in plan from a width 24 cm

to zero at its free end. If the modulus of

elasticity of the material is

6 20.20 10 / mm ,N the deflection of the

free end is _______.

A. 2 mm B. 3 mm

C. 4 mm D. 5 mm

Ans. D.

Use Deflection formulae.

61. A truss containing j joints and m

members will be a simple truss if

________.

A. m 2j 3= −

B. j 2m 3= −

C. m 3j 2= −

D. j 3m 2= −

Ans. A.

The member of joints j and the number of

members (rods) m are related as follows:

m = 2j - 3

This makes a truss statically determinate.

62. In the truss shown in the figure below,

the force in member BC is :-

A. 100 t compressive B. 100 t tensile

C. zero D. indeterminate

Ans. C.

Take moment at C

Σh = 0

No horizontal force at C.

So force in BC is zero.

63. A concrete having a slump of 6.5 cm is

said to be ______.

A. dry B. earth moist

C. semi-plastic D. plastic

Ans. D.

64. Concrete is unsuitable for compaction

by a vibrator if it is _____.

A. dry B. earth moist

C. semi-plastic D. plastic

Ans. D.

Plastic concrete when spun at a very high

speed, gets well compacted by centrifugal

force.

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65. The increased cohesiveness of

concrete, makes it _____.

A. less liable to segregation

B. more liable to segregation

C. more liable to bleeding

D. more liable for surface scaling in frosty

weather

Ans. A.

When the cohesive property of concrete

increases, then there will be chance of

generation of bonding between each

particle in concrete, so there will be no

chance of segregation (Separation of

particles).

66. After casting, an ordinary cement

concrete on drying _______.

A. expands

B. either expands or shrinks

C. shrinks

D. none of these

Ans. C.

Concrete shrinks after drying due to the

voids are filled by air after drying. It is

considerably filled by water. Water will

evaporate from that place by drying. Thus

it shrinks.

67. To obtain cement dry powder lime

stones and shales or their slurry is burnt

in a rotary kiln at a temperature between

_____.

A. 1100o and 1200o C

B. 1200o and 1300o C

C. 1300o and 1400o C

D. 1400o and 1500o C

Ans. D.

The mixture of different ingredients of

cement, is burn at 1400 – 1500ºC

68. The minimum percentage of chemical

ingredient of cement is that of _______.

A. magnesium oxide B. iron oxide

C. alumina D. lime

Ans. A.

69. Pick up the correct proportions of

chemical ingredients of cement.

A. Lime : Silica : Alumina : Iron oxide =

63 : 22 : 6 : 3

B. Silica : Lime : Alumina : Iron oxide =

63 : 22 : 6 : 3

C. Alumina : Silica : Lime : Iron oxide =

63 : 22 : 6 : 3

D. Iron oxide : Alumina : Silica : Lime =

63 : 22 : 6 : 3

Ans. A.

70. Pick up the correct statement from the

following

A. Lime in excess, causes the cement to

expand and disintegrate

B. Silica in excess, causes the cement to

set slowly

C. Alumina in excess, reduces the strength

of the cement

D. all options are correct

Ans. D.

Lime (CaO): This is the important

ingredient of cement and I s proportion is

to be carefully maintained. The lime in

excess makes the cement unsound and

causes the cement to expand and

disintegrate. On the other hand, if lime is

in deficiency, the strength of cement

decreases and it causes cement to set

quickly.

Silica (Si02): This is also an important

ingredient’ of cement and it gives or

imparts strength to the cement due to the

formation of dicalcium and tricalcium

silicates. If silica is present in excess

quantity, the strength of cement increases

but at the same time, its setting time is p.

longed.

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Alumina (AI203): This ingredient

imparts quick setting property to the

cement. It acts as a flux and it lowers the

clinkering temperature. However the high

temperature is essential for the formation

of a suitable type of cement and hence the

alumina should not be present in excess

amount as it weakens the cement.

71. For an ordinary Portland cement

______.

A. Residual does not exceed 10% when

sieved through IS Sieve No. 9

B. soundness varies from 5 to 10 mm

C. initial setting time is not less than 30

minutes

D. compressive stress after 7 days, is not

less than 175 kg/cm2

Ans. C.

Initial Setting time of Cement:-

The time to which cement can be moulded

in any desired shape without losing it

strength is called Initial setting time of

cement. As per IS specification, the

minimum initial setting time is 30 minutes

for ordinary Portland cement

Final setting time of Cement:-

The time at which cement completely

loses its plasticity and became hard is a

final setting time of cement. As per IS

specification, the maximum final setting

time for all type of cement is 10 hours.

72. The commercial name of white and

colored cement in India is ______.

A. colocrete

B. rainbow cement

C. silvicrete

D. all options are correct

Ans. D.

Colocrete, rainbow cement, silvicrete and

snowcem are the name of white & colored

cement

73. Inert material of a cement concrete

mix is _______.

A. water B. cement

C. aggregate D. none of these

Ans. C.

Cements may be used alone (i.e., “neat,”

as grouting materials), but the normal use

is in mortar and concrete in which the

cement is mixed with inert material known

as aggregate.

74. According to IS : 382-1963, a good

aggregate should be _______.

A. chemically inert

B. sufficiently strong

C. hard and durable

D. All options are correct

Ans. D.

A good aggregates should satisfy the

following requirement :

● It should be chemically inert.

● It should be sufficiently strong.

● It should be sufficiently hard.

● It should be sufficiently durable.

● It should be of limited porosity.

● It should be cubicle and spherical in

shape.

● It should have rough surface.

● It should be free from coatings of clay

and other materials.

75. An aggregate is known as cyclopean

aggregate if its size is more than ______.

A. 4.75 mm B. 30 mm

C. 60 mm D. 75 mm

Ans. D.

Coarse aggregate is that aggregate whose

particles completely pass through 7.5 cm

mesh sieve and which are entirely retained

on 4.75 mm sieve.

Crushed Stone known as a cyclopean

aggregate.

76. The bulk density of aggregates does

not depend upon _______.

A. size and shape of aggregates

B. specific gravity of aggregates

C. grading of aggregates

D. size and shape of the container

Ans. C.

There are several measures of density

among which bulk density and relative

density are the most important ones. Bulk

density is the density of the material in

bulk granular form. Relative density is the

ratio of the density of substance to the

density of a given reference material

(usually water). Logically, The aggregates

density affects the proportioning of

concrete ingredients.

77. The aggregate containing moisture in

pores and having its surface dry is known

as _______.

A. moist aggregates

B. very dry aggregates

C. dry aggregates

D. saturated surface dry aggregate

Ans. D.

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Depending upon the amount of moisture

content in aggregates, it can exist in any

of the 4 conditions.

● Very dry aggregate (having no moisture)

● Dry aggregate (contain some moisture

in its pores)

● Saturated surface dry aggregate (pores

completely filled with moisture but no

moisture on surface)

● Moist or wet aggregates (pores are filled

with moisture and also having moisture on

surface)

78. If 20 kg of coarse aggregate is sieved

through 80 mm, 40 mm, 20 mm, 10 mm,

4.75 mm, 2.36 mm, 1.18 mm, 600

micron, 300 micron, and 150 micron

standard sieves and the weights retained

are 0 kg, 2 kg, 8kg, 6 kg, 4 kg,

respectively, the fineness modulus of the

aggregate lies in the range of _______.

A. 6.85 – 7.10 B. 7.20 – 7.45

C. 7.50 – 7.75 D. None of these

Ans. B.

ADD CUM % RET AND DIVIDE BY 100 =

740/100 = 7.4.

79. Pick up the correct statement from the

following.

A. Gypsum in cement decreases the

setting time

B. The first compound of cement which

reacts with water is C2S

C. Bulking of sand is less when its

particles are fine

D. all options are correct

Ans. A.

Gypsum is used for decrease the setting

time and calcium chloride used for

increase the setting time.

80. The datum temperature for maturity

by Plowman, is _______.

A. 23oC B. 0o

C. -5.6oC D. -11.7o

Ans. D.

Plowman (1958) proposed a single

strength-maturity equation based on past

studies performed by various authors,

with various mixtures, water-to-cement

ratios, and curing temperatures between

11°F and 105°F (-12°C to 41°C). Using

the logarithmic strength-maturity function,

he proposed that the constants, a and b

have specific values based on four

strength ranges up to 10,000 psi. With

this equation, Plowman found that any

concrete strength could be estimated

based on a given maturity, regardless of

water-to-cement ratio, the curing

temperature under 100°F, or aggregate-

to-cement ratio, with an average error of

3%. Plowman's equation seemed to be

valid, although his equation was only

based on 26 different compressive

strength values.

81. Minimum spacing between horizontal

parallel reinforcement of different sizes

should not be less than ______.

A. one diameter of thinner bar

B. one diameter of thicker bar

C. sum of the diameters of thinner and

thicker bars

D. twice the diameter of thinner bar

Ans. B.

Minimum Distance Between Individual

Bars main reinforcing bars shall usually be

not-less than the greatest of the following:

1. The diameter of the bar if the diameter

are equal,

2. The diameter of the larger bar if the

diameters are unequal, and

3. 5 mm more than the nominal maximum

size of coarse aggregate.

82. The minimum thickness of the cover at

the end of a reinforcing bar should not be

less than twice the diameter of the bar

subject to a minimum of ______.

A. 10 mm B. 15 mm

C. 20 mm D. 25 mm

Ans. D.

(i) At each end of the longitudinal bars,

concrete cover shall not be less than 25

mm or twice the diameter of the bar,

whichever is more.

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(ii) The longitudinal bars shall not have a

cover less than 40 mm or the diameter of

bar whichever is more.

83. The width of the flange of a T-beam,

which may be considered to act effectively

with the rib depends upon ______.

A. breadth of the rib

B. overall thickness of the rib

C. center to center distance between T-

beams

D. all options are correct

Ans. D.

66

of w f

Ib b D= + +

Where, bf = width of flange

Lo= Centre to center distance between Tee

beams

Bw =width of the rib

Df = Overall thickness of the rib

84. In a single reinforced beam, if the

permissible stress in concrete reaches

earlier than that in steel, the beam section

is called ______.

A. under-reinforced section

B. over reinforced section

C. economic section

D. critical section

Ans. B.

Reinforced concrete beam sections in

which the failure strain in concrete is

reached earlier than the yield strain of

steel is reached, are called over-reinforced

sections.

85. Pick up the incorrect statement from

the following:

Tensile reinforcement bars of a

rectangular beam ______.

A. are curtailed if not required to resist the

bending moment

B. are bent up at suitable places to serve

as shear reinforcement

C. are bent down at suitable places to

serve as shear reinforcement

D. are maintained at bottom to provide at

least local bond stress

Ans. B.

Bent up bars is also used along with

stirrups in the past to carry some of the

applied shear forces. In case where all the

tensile reinforcement is not needed to

resist bending moment, some of the

tensile bars where bent-up in the region of

high shear to form the inclined legs of

shear reinforcement. The use of bent-up

bars is not preferred nowadays. Due to

difficulties in construction, bent-up bars

are rarely used. In beams with small

number of bars provided, the bent-up bar

system is not suitable due to insufficient

amount of straight bars left to be

extended to the support as required by

the code of practice

86. A part of the slab may be considered

as the flange of the T-beam if _______.

A. flange has adequate reinforcement

transverse to beam

B. it is built integrally with the beam

C. it is effectively bonded together with

the beam

D. all options are correct

Ans. D.

A T-beam used in construction, is a load-

bearing structure of reinforced concrete,

wood or metal, with a t-shaped cross

section. The top of the t-shaped cross

section serves as a flange or compression

member in resisting compressive stresses.

The web (vertical section) of the beam

below the compression flange serves to

resist shear stress and to provide greater

separation for the coupled forces of

bending.

87. Though the effective depth of a T-

beam is the distance between the top

compression edge to the center of the

tensile reinforcement for heavy loads it is

taken as _______.

A. 1/8th of span B. 1/10th of span

C. 1/12th of span D. 1/16th of span

Ans. C.

The depth of the T-beam is taken between

1/10 tp 1/20 of the span, contingent on

the loads acting on it. It can be likewise

accepted from the economy point by the

given formula:

r

M rd

tJb

=

88. For the design of a simply supported

T-beam the ratio of the effective span to

the overall depth of the beam is limited to

_______.

A. 10 B. 15

C. 20 D. 25

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Ans. C.

L/d ratio

simply supported = 20.

Continuous slab = 26.

Cantilever slab = 7.

89. The width of the rib of a T-beam is

generally kept between ______.

A. 1/7 to 1/3 of rib depth

B. 1/3 to ½ of rib depth

C. 1/2 to 3/4 of rib depth

D. 1/3 to 2/3 of rib depth

Ans. D.

DIMENSION OF T-BEAM:

1. The effective width of the flange is

adopted as the minimum of c/c distance of

the nearby ribs or beams.

2. The overall thickness of the slab

crossing over the beam is taken as flange

thickness.

3. The breadth of the rib is taken on down

earth ground. It should be adequate to

hold the steel zone in it, effectively. It

might be taken as between 1/3 to 2/3 of

the general depth of the beam.

4. The depth of the T-beam is taken

between 1/10 tp 1/20 of the span,

contingent on the loads acting on it.

90. The neutral axis of a T-beam exists

______.

A. within the flange

B. at the bottom edge of the slab

C. below the slab

D. all options are correct

Ans. D.

For a T-beam section, there are two cases

(Figure 5.4-2) depending on where the

neutral axis falls into:

• Case 1: flanged section when the neutral

axis falls into the web

• Case 2: rectangular section when the

neutral axis falls into the flange

91. As per ISI, rolled steel beam sections

are classified into ______.

A. two series B. three series

C. four series D. five series

Ans. D.

The rolled steel beam sections are

classified in to five series.

● Indian standard junior beam (ISJB)

● Indian standard light beam (ISLB)

● Indian standard medium weight beam

(ISMB)

● Indian standard wide flange beam

(ISWB)

● Indian column section (SC)

92. The channels get twisted

symmetrically with regard to its axis

_______.

A. parallel to flanges

B. parallel to web

C. perpendicular to flanges

D. perpendicular to web

Ans. B.

When a channel section is subject to

bending due to a point load that acts

through the shear Centre and parallel to

the web, the bending stress in the flanges

is uniform across their width and the shear

stress varies

93. Bulb angles are used in ______.

A. column building

B. bridge building

C. ship building

D. water tank building

Ans. C.

On a smaller scale, the same bulb flats are

also used in U.S. Coast Guard Cutters and

personal/corporate yachts, measuring in

at a mere 65 feet. Again, using curved

bulb angles might allow the ships to

transport more goods including friends

and family. The compact shape of a bulb

flat provides easy access for welding,

painting and inspection.

94. Live load ______.

A. varies in magnitude

B. varies in position

C. is expressed as uniformly distributed

load

D. all options are correct

Ans. D.

A Live Load is defined as “Those loads

produced by the use and occupancy of the

building or other structure and do not

include construction or environmental

loads such as wind load, snow load, rain

load, earthquake load, flood load or dead

load. Live loads, or imposed loads, are

temporary, of short duration, or a moving

load. These dynamic loads may involve

considerations such as impact,

momentum, vibration, slosh dynamics of

fluids and material fatigue.

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95. The permissible stress, to which a

structural member can be subjected to, is

known as ________.

A. bearing stress

B. working stress

C. tensile stress

D. compressive stress

Ans. B.

In the actual, the material is not subjected

up to ultimate stress but only up to a

fraction of ultimate stress. This stress is

known as working stress. This stress is

also known as allowable stress or

permissible stress.

so, Working Stress = (Ultimate Stress) /

(Factor of Safety).

96. The ratio of longitudinal stress to

strain within elastic limit is known as

_______.

A. modulus elasticity

B. shear modulus of elasticity

C. bulk modulus of elasticity

D. tangent modulus of elasticity

Ans. A.

Young's modulus is a material property

that describes a materials' stiffness and is

therefore one of the most important

properties of solid materials. It is the ratio

of stress to strain when deformation is

totally elastic. Young's modulus, also

known as the elastic modulus or modulus

of elasticity.

97. Poisson’s ratio for steel within elastic

limit ranges from ______.

A. 0.15 to 0.20 B. 0.25 to 0.24

C. 0.25 to 0.33 D. 0.33 to 0.35

Ans. D.

lateral

axial

v

=−

98. Diameter of a rivet hole is made larger

than the diameter of the rivet by

_______.

A. 1.0 mm for rivet diameter upto 12 mm

B. 1.5 mm for rivet diameter exceeding 25

mm

C. 2.0 mm for rivet diameter over 25 mm

D. none of these

Ans. C.

The diameter of a rivet hole is made larger

than the nominal diameter of the rivet by

1.5mm of rivets less than or equal to

25mm diameter and by 2mm for diameter

exceeding 25mm

99. An imaginary line along which rivets

are placed is known as _____.

A. rivet line

B. scrieve line

C. back line

D. all options are correct

Ans. D.

The rivet line is also known as scrieve line

or back line or gauge line. The rivet line is

the imaginary line along which rivets are

placed.

100. The main type of butt joints is a

double cover ______.

A. shear riveted joint

B. chain riveted joint

C. zig-zag riveted joint

D. all options are correct

Ans. D.

Rivets are loaded in shear the load is

distributed in proportion to the shear area

of the rivets is called shear riveted joint.

Rows of rivets may lie exactly opposite to

each other over straight lines. is said to be

chain riveted.

In zig-zag riveting the rivet in one row is

placed at the middle level of the two rivets

in the adjacent row.