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Introduction

Defence Unicorn (DU) is a premier

institute dedicated to the preparation

for various exams related to the

Armed Forces and the Paramilitary

Forces. DU is a constituent of Unicorn

Eduventures.

We offer comprehensive written exam

coaching for NDA / CDS / OTA /

AFCAT / CAPF and ACC and other

such written examinations.

Why Us?

Affordable fee structure.

Quality education and best study material.

Experienced faculty members.

Regular test to track the performance of the students.

Daily GK updates and quizzes.

Medical facility.

Library facility.

Personality development sessions such as communication,

body language, spoken English etc.

Outdoor activities / visits

Extra-curricular activities such as Quiz Competition,

Group Planning, various Games, Debates Group

Discussions, Social work activities etc.

Both medium of instructions, if required.

Equal attention to all the students.

Good Hostel facility on request.

Good infrastructure.

Spacious and well-ventilated classrooms etc .

Prepare for….

1. NDA

NDA – National defence academy

NDA exam is conducted by UPSC twice every year. All

candidates who are interested in joining Indian Army, Navy or Air

Force, can appear for NDA examination. NDA exam is known as

the best way to join the Indian defence forces as an officer.

Notification of Examination: October – November & April – May

Conduct of Examination: April – May & Sept. – Oct

NDA examination pattern

There is written exam and after that a final interview round for

selection

NDA written exam paper has two sections

Maths + General ability test

Mathematics (Objective type): 300 Marks

General Ability Test (Objective type): 600 Marks

Total marks for written examination: 900 Marks

Total marks for Interview round: 900 Marks

NDA exam eligibility criteria

Age between 16.5 years and 19.5 years.

Candidate must have passed 10+2 from a recognized board in

India. The students appearing for 10+2 can also apply

Candidate must have studied Mathematics and Physics in 10+2

Candidate must be unmarried

Candidates must be physically fit

2.CDS

Combined Defense Services (CDS) Exam is conducted 2 times

every year by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC. for

selection into the Indian Air Force Academy, Indian Military

Academy, Officers Training Academy and Indian Naval

Academy.

Notification of CDS exam is released in March and August

months, and the actual exam is in the month of February and

November.

Only graduate students who are unmarried are eligible to apply

for the CDS. Those who clear written exam are called for SSB

interview and then selected candidates will be admitted into

respective Academies.

Eligibility Criteria for CDS Exam:

Age Limit to apply for CDS Exam for various Academies is as follows:

Academies Age Limit

Military Academy 19 to 24 years

Air Force Academy 19 to 23 years

Naval Academy 19 to 22 years

Officers’ Training Academy 19 to 25 years

(Women candidates are only eligible for admission into OTA (Officers’ Training Academy).

Educational Qualification for CDS Exam:

OTA and IMA: Graduate degree in any discipline and passed out from a

recognized institute or university

INA: Candidates must hold an Engineering degree

Air Force Academy: Candidate must be 12th passed out with Mathematics

and Physics subjects and must hold a degree from a recognized university.

Or, candidates with Bachelor’s degree in Technology/Engineering are also

eligible.

3. AFCAT

The Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) is conducted by the

Indian Air Force. The exam is held twice a year in February and

August/September, respectively, to select Class-I Gazetted Officers in

Flying and Ground Duties (Technical and Non-Technical).

AFCAT is a gateway for both male and female candidates who wish to

join the Indian Air Force for both Short Service Commission in Flying

Branch and Permanent Commission/Short Service Commission in

Ground Duties for both Technical and Non-Technical roles.

Candidates are selected based on their performance in the online

exam and Air Force Selection Board (AFSB. interview. Candidates

opting for Ground Duty (Technical) branches are required to appear in

both AFCAT and Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT).

AFCAT Eligibility Criteria

Flying Branch –Age should lay between to 23 years at the time of

course commencement. The candidate must be a Graduate

(Minimum three year degree course) in any discipline from a

recognized University who have attained minimum 60% marks in

aggregate in all papers put together and have passed Maths and

Physics at 10+2 level OR BE / B Tech degree (Four year course) from a

recognized University with minimum 60% marks in aggregate in all

papers put together.

Technical Branch- The age must lay between 18 to 28 years at the time

of course commencement. For details on education candidates can

refer to the advertisement.

Ground Duty Branch-The age must lie between 20-23 years for

Graduates, 20-25 years for Post Graduates, 20-26 years for LLB (Three

year course after graduation) and 20-27 years for M.Ed/PhD/CA/ICWA.

For details on education qualification you can refer to the official

advertisement.

4. INET

The Indian Navy conducts the Indian Navy Entrance Test (INET)

twice every year for the recruitment of capable candidates in the

Navy. This exam is conducted for the Direct Entry of Officers after

the graduate studies.

The INET basically is an entrance exam given for seeking

admission to the prestigious Indian Naval Academy located in

Ezhimala, Kerala. The selection process for the admission consists

of the INET exam followed by the SSB (Service Selection BoarD.

Interview. The final selection of the candidates is done on the

basis of merit position secured by them in the merit list.

Age should be between 19 years and 24 years

Educational Qualification

The minimum educational qualification required depends on the

branch or the cadre for which the aspirant wishes to apply. The

candidates must note that the final year students are also eligible for

the INET.

INET Exam Pattern

The INET exam will consist of four main sections namely English,

Reasoning & Numerical Aptitude, General Science & Mathematical

Aptitude, and General Knowledge. Each section will consist of 100

marks. There will be a negative marking of 1 mark for every incorrect

answer. However, there will be no penalty for the unattempted

questions. The entire duration of the INET exam will be 120 minutes.

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Interesting Articles

Sample Questions

MATHS

1. The average age of 8 men is increased by 4 years when one of them whose age is 30 years is replaced by a new man. What is the age of new man? A. 55 Years B. 62 Years C. 42 Years D. 69 Years 2. A vessel, full of water, weighs 24 kg. When the vessel is 1/4 full, it weighs 9 kg. Find the weight of empty vessel. A. 4 kg B. 5 kg C. 8 kg D. 3 kg 3. If a – b = 4 and ab = 45 find the value of a2 – b2. A. 604 B. 370 C. 253 D. 199 4. If a/ (a + b )- 15/21 what is (a + b )/(a - b )equal to? A. 13/9 B. 23/11 C. 14/5 D. 21/9

5.( 798+579 )2−( 798+579 )2

( 798 × 579 ) = ?

A. 2 B. 6 C. 4 D. 8 6. A man‟s average monthly expenditure for the first four months of the year was Rs. 231.25. For the next five months, the average monthly expenditure was Rs. 22.75 more than what it was during the first four months. If the person spent Rs. 605 in all during the remaining three months of the year, find what percentage of his annual income of Rs. 3500 did he save in the year? A. 10% B. 15% C. 20% D. 25% 7. The average age of students of a class is 15.8 years. The average age of boys in the class is 16.4 years and that of the girls is 15.4 years. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls in the class is:- A. 1:2 B. 2:3 C. 3:4 D. 3:5 8. 18 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is 8 litres. How many buckets will be needed to fill the same tank, if the capacity of the bucket is 12 litres? A. 12 B. 13.5 C. 24 D. Cannot be determined due to insufficient data 9. Two trains are moving on two parallel tracks but in opposite directions. A person sitting in the train moving at the speed of 80 km/hr passes the second train in 18 seconds. If the length of the second train is 1000 m, its speed is? A.100 km/hr B.120 km/hr C.140 km/hr D.150 km/hr 10. The simple interest accrued on a sum of money at the end of four years is 1/5th of its principal. What is the rate of interest per annum?

A. 4% B. 5% C. 6% D. Inadequate data 11. A sum of Rs. 2600 is lent out into two parts, one at 9% and another at 7% if the total annual income is Rs. 206, find the money lent at 7%. A. Rs. 1400 B. Rs. 900 C. Rs. 1600 D. Rs. 1200 12. In an election between two candidates 70% of the voters cast their votes, out of which 2% of the votes were declared invali D. A candidate got 7203 votes which was 60% of the total valid votes. Find the total number of voters enrolled in that election. A. 18050 B. 17500 C. 17000 D. 7203 13. A train leaves the station 1/2 hour before the scheduled time. The driver decreases its speed by 25 km/hr. At the next station 250 km away, the train reached on time. Find the original speed of the train. A. 100 km/hr B. 125 km/hr C. 200 km/hr D. 180 km/hr 14. 75 pupils from a school appeared for an examination and 80% of them passe D. Another school entered 10 more pupils than the first school and five pupils less than the first school passe D. The pass % of in the second school was : A. 75% B. 84% C. 72% D. 64.7% 15. Divide Rs. 80 in the proportion of 3:6:7. A. Rs. 10, Rs. 35, Rs. 40 B. Rs. 15, Rs. 30, Rs. 35 C. Rs. 15, Rs. 35, Rs.30 D. Rs. 10, Rs. 40, Rs. 35 16. Calculate the amount on Rs. 1875 for 2 year at 4% per annum, compounded yearly. A. Rs. 676 B. Rs. 776 C. Rs. 1778 D. Rs. 2028 17. If x varies as y and x = 8 when y = 15 then the value of x when y = 10 is: A. 5 B. 15/8 C. 8/15 D. 16/3 18. In a 225 meter long yard 26 trees are planted at equal distance, one tree being at each end of the yard. What is the distance between two consecutive trees? A. 10 meters B. 8 meters C. 12 meters D. 9 meters 19. A bonus of Rs. 1000 is divided among three employees. Rohit gets twice the amount Sachin gets. Sachin gets one fifth of what Gagan gets. How much amount does Gagan get? A. Rs. 500 B. Rs. 625 C. Rs. 750 D. Rs. 120 20. A boy was asked to multiply a number by 25. Instead, he multiplied the number by 52 and got the answer 324 more than the correct answer. The number to be multiplied was- A. 12 B. 15 C. 25 D. 32 21. The average age of 35 students in a class is 16 years. Out of these students the average age of 21 students is 14 years. The average age of remaining students is- A. 15 years B. 17 years C. 20 years D. 19 years

22. After replacing an old member by a new member, it was found that the average age of five members of a club is the same as it was 3 years ago. What is the difference between the age of replaced member and new member? A. 2 years B. 8 years C. 15 years D. 25 years 23. The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs. 8000. The average salary of seven technicians is Rs. 12000 and average salary of others is Rs. 6000. The total number of workers in the workshop are- A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23 24. In an examination a candidate has to get 35% of total marks to pass. In one paper he gets 62 out of 150 and in the second 35 out of 150. How many marks should he get out of 200 marks in the third paper to pass? A. 61 B. 68 C. 70 D. 78 25. The salary of A & B together amounts to Rs. 2000. A spends 95% of his salary and B 85% of his salary. If their savings are same what is the salary of A? A. Rs. 750 B. Rs. 1250 C. Rs. 1500 D. Rs. 1600

Logical Reasoning

1. If 30 January 1989 is Monday then what was the day of week on 26 Oct 2003. A. Monday B. Sunday C. Tuesday D. Saturday 2. If 9th of the month falls on the day preceding Sunday, on what day will 1st of the month fall ? A. Friday B. Saturday C. Sunday D. Monday 3. Anil reached a place on Friday. He came to know that he was three days earlier than the scheduled day. If he had reached there on the following Sunday, how many days late/ early he would have been ? A. One day earlier B. One day late C. Two days late D. Two days earlier 4. If the day before yesterday was Sunday , what day will it be three days after the day after tomorrow ? A. Sunday B. Monday C. Wednesday D. Saturday 5. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday, I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday, how many days late would I have been ? A. One day B. Two days C. Three days D. Four days 6 . In a certain code „RATIONAL‟ is written as „TARNOILA‟. How would „BRUTAL‟ be written in that code? A. UBRTAL B. URBLAT C. UBRATL D. URBTAL (E). None of these

7. In a certain code „FORGIVE‟ is written as „DPPHGWC‟. How would „REQUEST‟ be written in that code? A. PFOVCUR B. TFOVCRU C. POFCVUR

D. TOFCVUR (E.) None of these 8. In a certain code „EASIER‟ is written as TGKUCG. How is CUTTER written in that code? A. TWVVGE B. TGWWVE C. TGVVWE D. TVGVWE 9.If „MEANDER‟ is coded as „4515459‟, then „MATHEMATICS‟ is coded as A. 6 7 2 5 0 6 2 3 0 7 6 B. 4 1 2 8 5 4 1 2 9 3 1 0 C. 4 5 0 3 8 4 0 1 8 5 4 D. 5 7 1 5 9 4 1 3 9 5 5 10. If in a code language. COULD is written as BNTKC and MARGIN is written as LZQFHM, how will MOULDING be written in that code? A. CHMFINTK B. LNKTCHMF C. LNTKCHMF D. NITKHCMF 11. Look at this series: 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ... What number should come next? A. (1/3) B. (1/8) C. (2/8) D. (1/16) 12. Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ... What number should come next? A. 7 B. 10 C. 12 D. 13 13. Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ... What number should come next? A. 20 B. 22 C. 23 D. 26 14. Look at this series: 22, 21, 23, 22, 24, 23, ... What number should come next? A. 22 B. 24 C. 25 D. 26 15. Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ... What number should come next? A. 12 B. 14 C. 27 D. 53 16. Liquor: Drink A. Bread: Butter B. Tea: Beverage C. Sniff: Inhale D. Water: Sip 17. Evaporation: Cloud A. Mountain: Snow B. Book: Pages C. Pressure: Atmosphere D.Tension: Breakdown 18. Barrel: Vial A. Book: Pamphlet B. Book: Reader C. Brochure: Complier D. Length: Height 19. Cream: Cosmetics A. Tiger: Forest B. Mountain: Valley C. Magazine: Editor D. Teak: Wood 20. Carnivore: Herbivore A. Flesh: Plant B. Horse: Lion C. Camel: Giraffe D. Animal: Bird

Directions (21 - 25): Study the following information and answer the question: A. Only I follows

B. Only II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Both I and II follows E. Neither I nor II follows 21. Statement : Only a few Books are Note No Note is a Sheet Conclusion: I. Some Books are Sheet II. Some Note is not Book 22. Statement : Only a few Pen are Paper No Paper is Ink Conclusion: I. Some Pen are Ink II. No Ink is a Pen 23. Statement : Only a few Red are Green All Green are Yellow Conclusion: I. No Yellow is Red II. Some Yellow are Red 24. Statement : Only a few Games are Cricket Some Cricket is Football Conclusion: I. All Football are Games II. Some Cricket can never be Games 25. Statements : Some Balls are Bats Only a few Balls are Stumps Conclusion: I. Some Balls are Stumps II. No Stumps are Balls

English

Direction (Q1 to Q5) : Read the passage carefully and choose the appropriate answer. We stand poised precariously and challengingly on the razor‟s edge of destiny. We are now at the mercy of atom bombs and the like which would destroy us completely if we fail to control them wisely. And wisdom in this crisis means sensitiveness to the basic values of life; it means a vivid realization that we are literally living in one world where we must either swim together or sink together. We cannot afford to tamper with man‟s single minded loyalty to peace and international understanding. Anyone, who does it is a traitor not only to man‟s past and present, but also to his future, because he is mortgaging the destiny of unborn generations. 1. From the tone and style of the passage it appears that the writer is- A. a prose writer with a fascination for images and metaphors. B. a humanist with a clear foresight. C. a traitor who wishes to mortgage the destiny of future generations. D. unaware of the global power situation. 2. The best way to escape complete annihilation in an atomic war is to- A. work for international understanding and harmony. B. invent more powerful weapons. C. turn to religion. D. ban nuclear weapons. 3. The phrase „razor‟s edge of destiny‟ means a/an- A. enigma that cuts through the pattern of life like the edge of a razor. B. critical situation that foreordains the future. C. sharp line of division that marks the alternative courses of action in the future. D. destiny with sharp edges. 4. According to the writer, „wisdom‟ on the razor‟s edge of destiny means: A. awareness that we stand poised precariously on the razor‟s edge of destiny. B. determination to ban nuclear weapons. C. responsibility to the „unborn generations‟. D. awareness of the basic values of life. 5. The author is concerned about the threat of nuclear weapons because he feels that- A. a nuclear war will destroy human civilization. B. all countries are interlinked and one cannot escape the consequences of what happens to another country. C. the world is on the brink of disaster. D. his country is threatened by a nuclear war. In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake, the answer is D. “No error”. 6. A person I met A./in the theatre B./was the playwright himself. C./No error D.. 7. They walked A./besides each other B./in silence. C./No error D.. 8. We returned to the guest house A./impressed by B./what we had seen. C./No error D.. 9. The judge was convinced A./that neither B./of the five accused was guilty. C.

/No error D.. 10. The municipality is going A. /to built a new school B./near the park. C./ No error D.. Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 11. His actions had ________ pain and suffering on thousands of people. A. affected B. imposed C. inflicted D. deplored 12. The Government will ______ all resources to fight poverty. A. collect B. exploit C. harness D. muster 13. The children ______ crackers to celebrate the victory of their team. A. burst B. fired C. shot D. released 14. I am ______ forward to our picnic scheduled in the next month. A. seeing B. looking C. planning D. thinking 15. I hope you must have _____ by now that failures are the stepping stones to success. A. known B. felt C. decided D. realized In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals. 16. CAUSED A. Brought about B. Brought forward C. Brought out D. Brought over 17. PLACID A. Plain B. Clear C. Poor D. Calm 18. AUDACIOUS A. Obvious B. Daring C. Ardent D. Affluent Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals. 19. MONOLOGUE A. Prologue B. Epilogue C. Dialogue D. Catalogue 20. DELETE A. Imbibe B. Improve C. Insert D. Inspire 21. AMBIGUITY A. Certainty B. Clarity C. Rationality D. Laxity

22. CORPULENT A. Lean B. Gaunt C. Emaciated D. Obese 23. BRIEF A. Limited B. Small C. Little D. Short

24. EMBEZZLE A. Misappropriate B. Balance C. Remunerate D. Clear 25. VENT A.Opening B. Stodge C. End D. Past tense of go

General Knowledge

1. The term “Tee” is used commonly in which among the following sports? A. Tennis B. Polo C. Golf D. Racing 2. Who among the following has written the book “Cricket My Style”? A. Sunil Gavaskar B. Anil Kumble C. Kapil Dev D. None of them 3. Polycythaemia is a disease related to _______? A. Red Blood Cells B. White Blood Cells C. Blood Serum D. None of the above 4. Which among the following acids is abundant in Grapes, Bananas and Tamarind? A. Lactic Acid B. Oxalic Acid C. Salicylic Acid D. Tartaric Acid 5. Which of the following states is not included in the sixth schedule of Indian Constitution? A. Meghalaya B. Tripura C. Mizoram D. Manipur 6. The Flamingo Festival is celebrated in__? A. Andhra Pradesh B. Karnataka C. Kerala D. Bihar 7. The Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary (SWS) is located in which state? A. Odisha B. Kerala C. Tripura D. Manipur 8. In which year, Partition of Bengal was annulled? A. 1909 B. 1910 C. 1911 D. 1912 9. Who among the following was the leader of Mahagujarat Movement? A. Sardar Patel B. Indulal Yagnik C. Savjibhai Korat D. Vinubhai Patel 10. Which of the following is India's top state in fish farming? A. Kerala B. Tamil Nadu C. Punjab D. West Bengal 11. NREGA stands for:- A. National Revenue Engagement Guarantee Association B. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act C. National Rural Employment Guarantee Association

D. National Revenue Employment Guarantee Act 12. River Satluj originates from:- A. Northern slopes of the Kailash range B. Spring at Verinarg C. Rakas Lake D. Amakantak plateau 13. Limonitic ore is the ore of which metal? A. Iron B. Aluminium C. Zinc D. Cobalt 14. Black revolution relates to which of the following? A. Self-dependence in food grains production B. Self-dependence in milk production C. Self-dependence in petroleum/crude oil D. None of these 15. Karrar is the unmanned bomber aircraft of:- A. Iraq B. Iran C. Turkey D. Pakistan

16. Chak-Hao, a type of Black Rice, has got GI (Geographical Indications). It belongs to which state of India? A.Sikkim B.Arunachal Pradesh C.Tripura D.Manipur

17. Name the person who has been selected for the Nikkei Asia Prize 2020 in the category of „Science and Technology‟. A.Ram Prasad Kadel B.Thalappil Pradeep C.Anthony Tan D.Tan Hooi Ling 18. The theme of World Migratory Bird Day 2020 is? A.Unifying our Voices for Bird Conservation B.Protect Birds: Be the Solution to Plastic Pollution! C.Their Future is our Future D.Birds Connect Our World 19. In which state, a unique vehicle named Sanjeevani has been developed at local level? A.Madhya Pradesh B.Bihar C.Uttar Pradesh D.Assam 20. Which company has stopped online sale of Huawei laptops after US ban on Chinese tech companies? A.Microsoft B.Google C.eBay D.Amazon 21. Which state Government became first in India to Grant Industry Status to Sports? A.Mizoram B.Jharkhand C.Meghalaya D.Chhattisgarh 22. „Borlaug Award‟ is given every year to an Indian scientist for outstanding contribution in the field of- A. Medicine B. Space C. Applied Science D. Agriculture 23. The highest Indian gallantry award which could be given in peace time is- A. Ashok Chakra B. Param Vir Chakra C. Kirti Chakra D. Param Vishisht Seva Medal

24. The most successful Satellite Launch Vehicle of Indian Space Programme to launch commercial satellites is known as- A. SLV B. ASLV C. PSLV D. GSLV 25. Which one of the following soils is most suitable for cotton cultivation- A. Red soil B. Black soil C. Loamy soil D. Laterite soil

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