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Question bank

1) Clozapine contains which of the following moiety?

(a) Flourobutyrophenone (b) Dibenzodiazepine (c) Dibenzoxazepin (d)Diphenylbutylpipperidine

2) Drugs acting on Nigrostriatal pathways lead to

(a) Antipsychotic effects (b) EPS (c) Anti-cholinergic side effects (d) None of above

3) Z-(o-chlorophenyl)-2-methylaminocyclohexanone is IUPAC name for

(a) Donezepil (b) Meprobamate (c) Ketamine (d) Chlorphenesin

4.Adrenocortical suppression is seen with

(a) Etomidate (b) Propofol (c) Ketamine (d) Isoflurane

As per D&C Act and Rules, the GMP is included under Schedule ………

a) W b) G c) M d) P

(1) Which component is used to control intensity of radiation in UV instruments?a) Monochromator b) Occluder c) slits d) Chopper

(2) Diluent used for formulation of pellets by Spheronization method is……….

a) Lactose b) MCC c) Starch d) PVP

(3) Which test is used to determine the wetting angle?

a) Dew point test b) Draves test c) Cloud point test d) Kraft test

(4) The superdisintegrant used in tablet formulation is……………..

a) Sodium starch glycolate b) Starch c) PVP d) Mg-aluminium silicate

(5) Z-(o-chlorophenyl)-2-methylaminocyclohexanone is IUPAC name for

a) Donezepil b) Meprobamate c) Ketamine (d) Chlorphenesin

(6) Instrument Description

P) Manesty dry cota 1) Layered tablets

Q) Versa Press 2) Compression coated tablets

R) Differential manomer 3) Homogenization of emulsion

S) Ultra-sonifier 4) Determine aggregation of suspension

a) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4 b) P-1,Q-2,R-4,S-3 c) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3 d) P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4

(7) Which solvent is used as a binder in the formulation of compression coated tablets?

a) Acetone b) Aquacoat c) Isopropyl alcohol d) None of the above

(8) Nitric oxide act by which of the following mediator?

a) cGMP b) cAMP c) ATP d) None of the above

(9) Glucose and galactose are……………..?

a) C2 epimers b) C4 epimers c) α-anomers d) β-anomers

(10)Which of the following is/are 5-HT2A antagonist(s)?

a) Ketanserine b) Pizotifen c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(11)Which of the following antiepileptic drug acts by inhibiting GABA uptake?

a) Vigabatrine b) Tiagabine c) Gabapentine d) Lamotrigine

(12)Which of the following drug is used to treat ‘jet-lag’ condition?

a) Melanin b) Melatonin c) Both a & b d) None of the above

(13)Which of the following is ultra short acting Benzodiazepines?

a) Chlordizepoxide b) Midazolam c) Nitrazepam d) Alprazolam

(14)Which of the following amino acids is/are produce ketone bodies?

a) Leucine b) Lysine c) Both A & B d) Alanine

(15)Which of the following enzyme is rate-limiting in urea cycle?

a) CPS-I b) CPS-II c) Arginase d) Hydrolases

(16)Which of the following is not an excitatory amino acid transmitter?

a) Glutamate b) Aspartate c) Glycine d) Homocysteate

(17)Which of the following drug causes methaemogloninaemia?

a) Levodopa b) Tolcapone c) Prilocaine d) Articaine

(18)Clozapine contains which of the following moiety?

a) Flourobutyrophenone b) Dibenzodiazepine c) Dibenzoxazepin d)Diphenylbutylpipperidine

(19) Drugs acting on Nigrostriatal pathways lead toa) Antipsychotic effects b) EPS c) Anti-cholinergic side effects d) None of above

(20)χ max of O-chloro benzaldehyde is…..

a) 265 b) 250 c) 272 d) 275

(21)Adrenocortical suppression is seen with

a) Etomidate b) Propofol c) Ketamine d) Isoflurane

(22) All water soluble vitamins excreted through urine and are not stored in body except…. a) Vitamin B6 b) Vitamin B12 c) Vitamin C d) Niacin

(23)Which of the following test is used to detect lactic acid?

a) Uffelmann test b) karpus test c) Fuji korai test d) Biuret test

(24)What is the synonym of SGPT?

a) AST b) ALT c) ALP d) ASP

(25)Hyperuricemia is associated with abnormal metaboliam of……….?

a) Pyrimidine b) Purine c) Riboflavin d) All

(26)Which of the following vitamin has antioxidant action?

a) Vitamin H b) Vitamin E c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin F

(27)The term REVERSE TRANSCRIPTION means……………..?

a) DNA to RNA b) RNA to DNA c) RNA to Protein d) Protein to RNA

(28)Which of the following unsaturated fatty acid is used for prostaglandin synthesis?

a) Arachidonic acidb) Capric Acid c) Linoleic acid d) All

(29)A 6.40* 10-5 M solution had an absorbance of 0.847 in a 1cm cell at 255 nm. Then molar absorptivity is…..

a) 13234 b) 150 c) 1400 d) 1324

1) Nitric oxide act by which of the following mediator?


2) Which of the following is/are 5-HT2A antagonist(s)?


3) Which of the following antiepileptic drug acts by inhibiting GABA uptake?


4) Which of the following drug is used to treat ‘jet-lag’ condition?

a) Melanin b) Melatonin c) Both a & b d) None of the above

5) Which of the following is ultra short acting Benzodiazepines?


6) Which of the following is not an excitatory amino acid transmitter?

a) Glutamate b) Aspartate c) Glycine d) Homocysteate

7) Which of the following drug causes methaemogloninaemia?

a) Levodopa b) Tolcapone c) Prilocaine d) Articaine

(1) HLB system is used to classify........................

a) Surfactants b) Preservatives c) Antioxidantsd) Sequestering agents

(2) The micro-organism for the assay of tetracycline is……………………….

a) Micrococcus luteus b) E.coli c) Pseudomonas aeruginosad) S. aureus

(3) Which test is used for the diagnosis of Tuberculosis?

a) Wasserman test b) Schick test c) Widal testd) None of the above

(4) In tablet compression machine the component guiding the movement of punches is ………………..

a) Hopper b) Die table c) Cam tracksd) Turrets

(5) Chemically Bentonite is.....................................

a) Magnesium aluminium silicate b) Hydrated aluminium silicate

c) Alumino silicate d) All of the above

(6) The most commonly used abbreviation BCS stands for………………………………….

a) Bovine cervical system b) Benign Carcinogenic symptom

c) Biopharmaceutics classification system d) Bio-clinical system

(7) The drug used in the treatment of Swine Flu (Tamiflu Tablets) by Roche Company is…………………..

a) Abacavir b) Lamivudine c) Oseltamivir d) Tenofovir

(8) Wetting angle of 180˚ indicates……………………….

a) No wetting b) Slight wetting c) Floating d) Complete wetting

(9) The term “Freely soluble” means………………………

a) < 1 part b) 1 – 10 parts c) 30 – 100 parts d) > 10000 parts

(10) Rat holling phenomena relates with………………..

a) Poor flow of granules b) Maintaining the granule flow

c) Filling of capsules d) Increasing the granular flow

(11) Which of the following test(s) is/are utilize for detection of Pilocarpine?

a) Helch’s colour test b) Ekkert’s colour test c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(12) Which of the following test is utilized for detection of quinine?

a) Thaleoquin test b) Vitali-Morrin test c) Frohde’s test d) Kedde’s reaction

(13) Quantitative color estimation is done by………………………....

a) Calorimetric measurement b) Micro-reflectance photometer

c) Psychrometry d) All of the above

(14) Description Related to

P) Crystal growth 1) Griffin

Q) pH scale 2) Sorensen

R) HLB scale 3) DLVO theory

S) Interparticular force 4) Ostwald ripening


(15) Wave theory for EMR was given by………..

a) Newton b) De-Broglie c) Max Planck d) Lambert

(16) Which of the following is not the unit of Frequency?

a) Keyser b) Cycle/sec c) Hertz d) Frensel

(17) Which of the following EMR is used in Nuclear Magnetic Resonance spectroscopy?

a) Radio waves b) Radar waves c) Micro waves d) Cosmic rays

(18) Ascending order for transitions based on energy requirement is…

a) Π → Π* < n → σ*< n → Π* < σ → σ*

b) n → Π* < Π → Π* < n → σ* < σ → σ*

c) σ → σ*< Π → Π* < n → σ*< n → Π*

d) Π → Π* <σ → σ* < n → Π* < n → σ*

(19) n → Π* transition in Nonpolar solvent shows ………….

a) Hypsochromic shift b) Bathochromic shift c) Hypochromic shift d) None of the above

(20) Find the λ max of….

a) 358 nm

b) 319 nm

c) 363 nm

d) 314 nm

(21) Which of the following drug contains pyrimidine and pyrrolidine alkaloids?

a) Withania b) Coca c) Tobacco d) None of the above

(22) Which of the following is also known as “Egyptian Henbane”?

a) Datura b) Coca c) Hyoscyamus d) None of the above

(23) Which of the following drug contains quinoline alkaloids?

a) Ergot b) Withania c) Cinchona d) Rauwolfia

(24) Which of the following is/are the known as water clearing nut?

a) S. nuxblanda b) S. potatorum c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(25) Which of the following drug(s) contains proto alkaloids?

a) Ephedra b) Colchicum c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(26) Which of the following is Mayer’s reagent used for alkaloid testing?

a) KI + Bismuth nitrate b) KI in dilute Iodine solution

c) Saturated solution of picric acid d) Potassium mercuric iodide

(27) Which of the following test is used for xanthine alkaloids?

a) Vitali-Morrin test b) Thaleoquin test c) Murexide test d) Frohde’s test

(28) Which colour is observed when Papaverine + HCl + Potassium Ferricyanide are treated together?

a) Emerald green b) Lemon yellow c) Purple d) Violet

(29) Which of the following is Van Urk’s reagent?

a) p-methyl amino benzaldehyde b) p-dimethyl amino benzaldehyde

c) p-ethyl amino benzaldehyde d) o-methyl amino benzaldehyde

(30) Which of the following tests are used for detection of sterols and Triterpenes?

a) Liberman-Burchard Test b) Halphen’s test

c) Badouin’s test d) Ethambutol

Which of the following receptor is from Type-2 receptor family?a) GABAA b) GABAB c) NMDA d) AMPA

Which of the following is 5-HT1A receptor agonist?a) Buspirone b) Bicuculline c) Zolpidem d) None of the above

Which of the following is the side effect of Levodopa?a) Dyskinesia b) On-Off effect c) Both A and B d) None of the above

Which of the following is the mechanism action of the strychnine?

a) Antagonize GABA b) Antagonize glutamate c) Antagonize glycine d) None of the above

Which of the following test is used for detection of quinoline alkaloid?

a) Thaleoquin test b) Vitali-Morrin test c) Van-urk’s test d) Mayer’s test

Which of the following drug is from Loganiaceae family?

a) Senna b) Nux-vomica c) Vinca d) None of the above

Which of the following drug contains Saponin glycoside?

a) Dioscorea b) Ginseng c) Both A and B d) None of the above

Which of the following variety is the Indian Senega?

a) Polygala senega b) Polygala chinensis c) Polygala alba d) None of the above

Which of the following is the specific test for an alkaloid?

a) Dragendorff b) Wagner c) Murexide d) Hager

Which of the following is the pyridine-pyrrolidine alkaloid containing drug?

a) Lobelia b) Belladona c) Ipecac d) Ergot

Which of the following drugs contains the diacytic stomata?

a) Digitalis b) Datura c) Vasaka d) Belladona

Which of the following leaf drug possess an isobilateral leaf?

a) Senna b) Belladona c) Hyoscyamus d) Vasaka

From the dissolution view point, which dosage form is the least absorbed with time?

a) Solution b) Suspension c) Uncoated tablets d) Coated tablets

ICH stands for …….…………………..…

a) Indian Council on Healthcare system b) Institute for controlling Health Hazards

c) International Conference on Harmonization d) International Committee on Harmonization

Powdered Glass test is not used for which USP Glass?

a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) All of the above

The preferred method for sterilization for mineral oil injections is………………………..

a) Autoclave b) Filtration c) Gas sterilization d) Dry heat

Combiflam tablet is a combination drug product of …………………….

P) Paracetamol Q) Aspirin R) IbuprofenS) Diclofenac sodium

a) PQ b) PR c) PS d) RS

The weight variation problem in tablets may be caused due to……………………..

a) Change in die fill b) Large proportion of fines c) Differing densitiesd) All of the above

Which of the following diluent causes tablet softening upon storage?

a) Lactose b) MCC c) Mannitol d) DCP

Pharmaceutical excipients are intended for following purposes except……………………

a) Pharmacological activity b) Pharmaceutical stability c) Physical solubility d) Chemical compatibility

The thickness of implantable tablet should not be more than……………………..

a) 2 mm b) 4 mm c) 8 mm d) 10 mm

A process designed to kill some or all of the micro-organisms to a harmless level is known as…….……

a) Disinfection b) Sterilization c) Lyophilization d) Ventilation

The diagnostic test used for Brucellosis disease is………………

a) Elex test b) Ducrey test c) Weil felix test d) Coombs test

In the microbial assay of bacitracin, the test organism used is ……………….…..

a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Bacillus pumilus c) Staphylococcus epidermidis d) Micrococcus luteus

What is an acceptable range for a tablet to pass friability test?

a) 0.5-1.5% b) 02.-1% c) 0.5-1% d) 1-2%

Schedule: “Requirement & guideline on Clinical trials for import and manufacture of new drugs.”

a) Sch. D b) Sch. K c) Sch. V d) Sch. Y

The HPMC (commonly known as Hypromellose) is used in formulations as ……………..

a) Coating agent b) Tablet binder c) Sustained release polymer d) All of the above

In the process of sugar coating of tablets the colorants are added in one of the following steps?

a) Syrup coating b) Sub coating c) Polishing d) Seal coating

Standards for mechanical contraceptives are given in...............

a) Schedule V b) Schedule N c) Schedule U d) Schedule R

Opaque color concentrate for film coating is known as ………….

a) Opacoat b) Opaspray c) Opalux d) Opadry

Which of the following is not a function of a plasticizer?

a) To improve flexibility of coating b) To provide pH independent release

c) To reduce the risk of film cracking d) To improve adhesion of film

Which tablets require special care for storage in a hermetically sealed packaging?

a) Implant tablets b) Effervescent tablets c) Chewable tablets d) All of the above

Which of the following drug contains Rubiaceous stomata?

a) Senna b) Coca c) Both A and B d) None of the above

Which of the following drug contains glandular trichomes?

a) Male fern b) Vasaka c) Nux vomica d) Cannabis

Idioblasts of crystal layer of calcium oxalate are a diagnostic feature of …………………….

a) Hyoscyamus niger leaves b) Deadly nightshade leaves c) Cinchona bark d) Senna leaves

Which of the following herbal drug is used as respiratory stimulant in the treatment of asthma?

a) Hyoscyamus b) Duboisia c) Coca d) Lobelia

Atropine on hydrolysis with Barium Hydroxide gives……………………………….

a) Tropanol and Tropic acid b) Scopine and Tropic acid

b) Ecgonine and Benzoic acid d) Benzyl ecgonine and Methanol

Which of the following is/are known as water clearing nut?

a) S. nuxblanda b) S. potatorum c) Both A and B d) None of the above

Which of the following test is used for xanthine alkaloids?


Which of the following test is utilized for detection of quinine?


Which of the following is the Coumarin glycoside?

a) Quassin b) picroside c) prunasin d) khellin

Rauwolfia alkaloid belongs to the class of………………………..

a) Quinoline b) Isoquinoline c) Piperidine d) Indole

Which of the following is controlling DARK ADAPTATION TIME? a) Retinol b) Retinal c) Rhodopsin d) Retinoic acid

Which of the following vitamins is/are widely used in mouth ulcer?a) Folic acid b) Vitamin B12 c) Both A an B d) None of the above

Which of the following is an Antineuritic vitamin?a) Vitamin B5 b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin B7 d) Vitamin B1

Which of the following is an active form of vitamin B6?a) Pyridoxin b) Pyridoxamine c) Pyridoxal phosphate d) Pyridoxal

Which of the following amino acid is frequently bound at active site of enzymes?a) Lysine b) Alanine c) Valine d) Serine

Which of the following enzyme is specific biomarker for liver & skeletal muscle?a) LDH1 b) LDH2 c) LDH3 d) LDH5

Which of the following coenzyme is required in phospholipid synthesis? a) CDP b) ATP c) PLP d) SAM

Which of the following enzyme is controlling used uric acid level?a) MAO b) Xanthine oxidase c) PABA d) None of the above

Wave theory for EMR was given by………..

a) Newton b) De Broglie c) Max Planck d) Lambert

Which of the following is not the unit of Frequency?

a) Keyser b) Cycle/sec c) Hertzd) Frensel

Which of the following EMR is used in Nuclear Magnetic Resonance spectroscopy?a) Radiowaves b) Radarwaves c) Microwaves d) Cosmic rays

Ascending order for transitions based on energy requirement is…

a) Π → Π* < n → σ*< n → Π* < σ → σ*

b) n → Π* < Π → Π* < n → σ* < σ → σ*

c) σ → σ*< Π → Π* < n → σ*< n → Π*

d) Π → Π* <σ → σ* < n → Π* < n → σ*

n → Π* transition in Nonpolar solvent shows …

a) Hypsochromic shift b) Bathochromic shift c) Hypochromic shift d) None of

above

HLB system is used to classify........................

a) Surfactants b) Preservatives c) Antioxidants d) Sequestering agents

The micro-organism for the assay of tetracycline is……………………….

a) Micrococcus luteus b) E.coli c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) S. aureus

Which test is used for the diagnosis of Tuberculosis?

a) Wasserman test b) Schick test c) Widal test d) None of the above

In tablet compression machine the component guiding the movement of punches is

a) Hopper b) Die table c) Cam tracks d) Turrets

Description Related to






Chemically Bentonite is.....................................



The most commonly used abbreviation BCS stands for………………………………….



The drug used in the treatment of Swine Flu (Tamiflu Tablets) by Roche Company is…………………..


Wetting angle of 180˚ indicates……………………….


The term “Freely soluble” means………………………


Rat holling phenomena relates with………………..

(a) Poor flow of granules (b) Maintaining the granule flow

(c) Filling of capsules (d) Increasing the granular flow

Quantitative color estimation is done by………………………....



(1) Which of the following is controlling DARK ADAPTATION TIME? a) Retinol b) Retinal c) Rhodopsin d) Retinoic acid

(2) Which of the following vitamins is/are widely used in mouth ulcer?a) Folic acid b) Vitamin B12 c) Both d) None

(3) Which of the following is an Antineuritic vitamin?a) B5 b) C c) B7 d) B1

(4) Which of the following is an active form of vitamin B6?a) Pyridoxin b) Pyridoxamine c) Pyridoxal phosphated) Pyridoxal

(5) Which of the following amino acid is frequently bound at active site of enzymes?a) Lysine b) Alanine c) Valine d) Serine

(6) Which of the following enzyme is specific biomarker for liver & skeletal muscle?

a) LDH1 b) LDH2 c) LDH3 d) LDH5

(7) Which of the following coenzyme is required in phospholipid synthesis? a) CDP b) ATP c) PLP d) SAM

(8) Which of the following enzyme is controlling used uric acid level?a) MAO b) Xanthine oxidase c) PABA d) None

1) Which of the following drug contains Rubiaceous stomata?

a) Senna b) coca c) both a and b d) none

2) Which of the following drug contains glandular trichomes?

a) Male fern b) vasaka c) nux vomicad) cannabis

3) Idioblasts of crystal layer of calcium oxalate are a diagnostic feature of:

a) Hyoscyamus niger leaves b) Deadly nightshade leaves c) Cinchona bark d) Senna leaves

4) Which of the following herbal drug is used as respiratory stimulant in the treatment of asthma?


5) Atropine on hydrolysis with Barium Hydroxide gives

a) Tropanol and Tropic acid b) Scopine and Tropic acid

b) Ecgonine and Benzoic acid d) Benzyl ecgonine and Methanol

6) Which of the following is/are the known as water clearing nut?

a) S. nuxblanda b) S. potatorum c) Both a & b d) None of

the above

7) Which of the following test is used for xanthine alkaloids?


8) Which of the following test is utilized for detection of quinine?


9) Which of the following is the coumarin glycoside?

a) Quassin b) picroside c) prunasind) khellin

10) Rauwolfia alkaloid belongs to the class of:

a) Quinoline b) isoquinoline c) piperidine d) indole

1)Which of the following receptor is from Type-2 receptor family?a) GABAA b) GABAB c) NMDA d) AMPA

2) Which of the following is 5-HT1A receptor agonist?a) Buspirone b) Bicuculline c) Zolpidem d) none

3) Which of the following is the side effect of Levodopa?a) dyskinesia b) On-Off effect c) Both d) none 4) Which of the following is the mechanism action of the strychnine?a) antagonise GABA b) antagonise glutamate c) antagonise glycine d) none

Cognosy1) Which of the following test is used for detection of quinoline alkaloid?

a) Thaleoquin test b) Vitali-morin test c) Van-urk’s test d) Mayer’s test

2) Which of the following drug is from Loganiaceae family?

a) Senna b) Nux-vomica c) Vinca d) none

3) Which of the following drug contains saponin glycoside?

a) Dioscorea b) Ginseng c) Both d) none

4) Which of the following is the Indian senega?

a) Polygala senega b) Polygala chinensis c) Polygala alba d) none

5) Which of the following is the non-specific test for alkaloid?

a) Dragendorff b) Wagner c) Murexide d) Hager

6) Which of the following is the pyridine-pyrollidine alkaloid containing drug?

a) Lobelia b) Belladona c) Ipecac d) Ergot

7) Which of the following drugs contains the diacytic stomata?

a) Digitalis b) Datura c) Vasaka d) Belladona

8) Which of the following leaf drug is isobilateral leaf?

a) Senna b) Belladona c) Hyoscyamus d) Vasaka


a) Surfactants b) Preservatives c) Antioxidantsd) Sequestering agents

(2) The micro-organism for the assay of tetracycline is……………………….

a) Micrococcus luteus b) E.coli c) Pseudomonas aeruginosad) S. aureus

(3) Which test is used for the diagnosis of Tuberculosis?

a) Wasserman test b) Schick test c) Widal testd) None of the above

(4) In tablet compression machine the component guiding the movement of punches is ………………..

a) Hopper b) Die table c) Cam tracksd) Turrets

(5) Chemically Bentonite is.....................................


c) Alumino silicate d) None of the above

(6) The most commonly used abbreviation BCS stands for………………………………….



(7) The drug used in the treatment of Swine Flu (Tamiflu Tablets) by Roche Company is…………………..


(8) Wetting angle of 180˚ indicates……………………….


(9) The term “Freely soluble” means………………………


(10) Rat holling phenomena relates with………………..

a) Poor flow of granules b) Maintaining the granule flow

c) Filling of capsules d) Increasing the granular flow

(11) Quantitative color estimation is done by………………………....









From the dissolution view point, which dosage form is the least absorbed with time?

a) Solution b) Suspension c) Uncoated tabletsd) Coated tablets

ICH stands for …….…………………..…

(a) Indian Council on Healthcare system (b) Institute for controlling Health Hazards

(c) International Conference on Harmonization (d) International Committee on Harmonization


(a) Type I (b) Type II (c) Type III (d) All of the above

The preferred method for sterilization for mineral oil injections is………………………..



P) Paracetamol Q) Aspirin R) IbuprofenS) Diclofenac sodium






Pharmaceutical excipients are intended for following purposes except …………………………

a) Pharmacological activity b) Pharmaceutical stability

c) Physical solubility d) Chemical compatibility


a) 2 mm b) 4 mm c) 8 mm d) 10 mm

A process designed to kill living micro-organisms to a harmless level is known as…….……………

a) Disinfection b) Sterilization c) Lyophilizationd) Ventilation

The diagnostic test used for Brucellosis disease is


In the microbial assay of bacitracin, the test organism used is ………..

a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Bacillus pumilus c) Staphylococcus epidermidis d) Micrococcus luteus


a) 0.5-1.5% b) 02.-1% c) 0.5-1% d) 1-2%

Schedule: “Requirement & guideline on Clinical trials for import and manufacture of new drugs.”

(a) Sch. D (b) Sch. K (c) Sch. V (d) Sch. Y














(1) Which of the following is neurohormone?

a. Neuropeptide-Y b. Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide

c. Oxytocin d. Dopamine

(2)Which of the following 5HT-receptors are involved in platelet aggregation?

a. 5-HT1A b. 5-HT1B

c. 5-HT2A d. 5-HT2B

(3) Which of the following is COMT inhibitor and used to treat Parkinsonism?

a. Bromocriptine b. Entacapone

c. Lisuride d. Pramipexole

(4)Which of the following local anaesthetic causes methaemoglobinaemia?

a. Articaine b. Prilocaine

c. Levobupivacaine d. Ropivacaine

(5)Which of the following are D2 class receptor agonist & used to treat parkinsonism?

a. Ropinirole b. Pramipexole

c. Both d. none

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Pharmacognosy

1) Which of the following drug contains C-glycosides?

a. Cochineal b. senna

c. Rhubarb d. None

2.) Which of the following is cyanogenetic glycoside?

a. amygdalin b.prunasin

c. both d. None

3.) Which of the following drug contains Isothiocyanate glycoside?

a. Thevetia b. Brahmi

c. Black mustard d. None

4.) Which of the following drugs gives positive Borntrager’s test?

a. Senna b. Ginseng

c. Gokhru d. Thevetia

5.) Which of the following drug contains S-glycosides?

a. Rhein b. Hypericin

c. Sinigrin d. Carminic acid

6.) Which of the following drug contains abnormal vascular bundles?

a. Senna b. Rhubarb

c. Aloe d. Thevetia

7.) Which of the following is known as St. John’s wort?

a. Aloin b. barbaloin

c. Hypericum d. Carminic acid

8.) Which of the following drug contains unicellular, conical, warty trichomes?

a. Rhubarb b. Senna

c. Digitalis d. Stophanthus

1. Which of the following is a negative modulator of benzodiazepinesA. α – carboline B. β – carbolineC. γ - carboline D. δ – carboline

2. Meprobamate is used as:A. Sedative-hypnoticB. Anti-anxiety agentC. In absence seizureD. All of above

3. Buspiron – an anti anxiety agent isA. 5-HT1a agonistB. 5-HT1a antagonistC. 5-HT1b agonistD. 5-HT1b antagonist

4. Which of the general anesthetic is used as an emulsion form A. Etomidate B. Propofol

C. KetamineD. Halothane

5. IUPAC name of halazepam isA. 5-Chloro -1,3-dihydro-5-phenyl-1(2,2,2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-

oneB. 7-Chloro -1,3-dihydro-6-phenyl-1(2,2,2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-3-

oneC. 7-Chloro -1,3-dihydro-5-phenyl-1(2,2,2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-

oneD. 5-Chloro -1,3-dihydro-6-phenyl-1(2,2,2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-3-

one

In tablet compression machine the component guiding the movement of the punches is called


Dry heat sterilization cannot be used for ……………..

a) Oils b) Powders c) Surgical dressingd) Metal instruments

Quantitative color estimation is done by...




a) W b) G c) M d) P

Pasteurization method for sterilization of milk is carried out at ……………

a) 62.8 ºC for 30 min. b) 68.2 ºC for 30 min. c) 121 ºC for 30 min. d) 60 ºC for 1 hr.

Diluent used for Spheronization method is……….


What is the working principle of action of Hammer mill?

a) Attrition b) Impact c) Both A and B d) Pressure

Which derivative of Vitamin B1 gives fluorescence in visible region?

a) Thiochrome b) Thiamine c) Pyrithiamined) Oxythiamine

The coenzyme not involved in hydrogen transfer

a) FMN b) FAD c) NADP+ d) FH4




Storage condition Description

P) Cold storage 1) Any temp. not greater than 8˚C

Q) Cool storage 2) Any temp. between 8-25˚C

R) Warm storage 3) Any temp. between 30-40˚C

S) Excessive heat 4) Any temp. above 40˚C

(a) P1,Q2,R3,S4 (b) P2,Q1,R4,S3 (c) P2,Q1,R3,S4 (d) P1,Q3,R2,S4

Antibiotic Test organism

P) Bleomycin 1) Mycobacterium smegmatis

Q) Chloramphenicol 2) E.coli

R) Rifampicin 3) B. subtilis

S) Chlortetracyclineine 4) S. aureus


Excipient (Trade Name) Purpose

P) Avicel 1) Diluent

Q) Aspartame 2) Sweetner

R) Ac-di-sol 3) Superdisintegrant

S) Aerosil 4) Glidant


The phenomenon of increasing solubility of non-polar molecules by addition of a water miscible solvent in which the drug has good solubility is called ………..

a) Complexation b) Co-solvency c) Solubilization d) Hydrotrophy

The biological indicator for moist heat sterilization is ………

P) Clostridium sporogenes Q) Chromobacter prodigism R) B. coagulans S) B. subtilis

a) P, Q b) P, R c) R, S d) Q, S

The official dissolution test apparatus contains cylindrical vessel and the lower edge of the blade is positioned from inside bottom of the vessel at

a) 20±2 mm b) 25±2 mm c) 18±2 mmd) 25±0.5 mm

The “Soluble” term means ………………..

a) <1 parts b) 1-10 parts c) 10-30 parts d) 30-100 parts

Vesicular systems formed by a mixture of cholesterol & non-ionic surfactant are known as ………………

a) Liposomes b) Microcapsules c) Neosomes d) Nanospheres

Reaction of lactose with amines is known as ………………….

a) Hydrolysis b) Lactolysation c) Maillard reactiond) All of the above

The diagnostic test for “Diphtheria” is ………………

a) Kahn test b) Coombs test c) Dick testd) Schick test

The term “Veegum” stands for ………………

a) Alumino silicate b) Hydrated aluminium silicate

c) Magnesium aluminium silicate d) All of the above

Which test is used to determine the wetting angle?

a) Dew point test b) Draves test c) Cloud point testd) Kraft test

The test organism used in microbiological assay of antibiotic Polymyxin B is …………………

a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa b) Bordetella bronchiseptica

c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Micrococcus luteus

Taste sensation Recommended flavour

P) Salty 1) Raspberry

Q) Bitter 2) Butterscotch

R) Sweet 3) Chocolate

S) Sour 4) Vanilla


The superdisintegrant used in tablet formulation is


Which evaluation parameter(s) is/are considered for floating tablets?

a) Lag time b) Floating time c) Hardness d) All of the above

Which term is adopted by USP for Fast dissolving tablets?

a) Orodispersible tablets b) Mouth dissolving tablets

c) Melt-In-Mouth Tablets d) Orally disintegrating tablets


a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Bacillus pumilus

c) Staphylococcus epidermidis d) Micrococcus luteus

List of drugs that are exempted from certain provision under manufacture are described under the schedule ….

a) C b) D c) E d) K



Which UV wavelength (in nm) gives maximum bactericidal effect for sterilization purpose?

a) 220 b) 253.7 c) 265 d) 320

Instrument Description






Type of mill Not used for

P) Hammer mill 1) Solid materials

Q) Revolving mill 2) Soft materials

R) Cutter mill 3) Abrasive material

S) Colloid mill 4) Friable material


Which solvent is used as a binder in the formulation of compression coated tablets?


The micronized form of drug is absorbed faster because it’s …………………. is increased.

a) Surface area b) viscosity c) friability d) All of the above

Nucleoside refers to………………….

a) Base + Sugar b) Base + Phosphate c) Base only d) None of the above

Carbohydrates containing more than 4 % protein are known as ……..

a) Glycoprotein b) Mucoprotein c) Metalloprotein d) Lipoprotein.

Invert Sugar is prepared from …..

a) Dextrose b) Sucrose c) Inulin d) None of the above

Maximum amount of flavoring oil that can be added to granulation is ………….

a) 0.1-0.3% b) 0.5-0.75% c) 1-2% d) 2-5%

Which number carbon differentiates α and β forms (i.e. anomers) of D-glucose?

a) C4 b) C3 c) C1 d) C2

Homopolysaccharides have general formula …………..

a) (C6H10O5)n b) (C6H12O4)n c) (C6H10O6)n d) (C6H10O4)n

Which of the following is nonapeptide?

a) Kallidin b) Bradykinin c) Substance P d) Gastrin

Which of the following is/are an essential Fatty Acid(s)?

a) Linoleic Acid b) Linolenic Acid c) Arachidonic Acid d) All of the above

The functionally active form of Vitamin D is…

a) Cholecalciferol b) Ergocalciferol c) Dehydrocholesterol d) Calcitriol

Type of coating Coating materials

P) Sealing 1) HPMC

Q) Subcoating 2) Carnauba wax

R) Polishing 3) Gelatin

S) Film coating 4) Shellac


Controlled porosity Osmotic pumps possess delivery orifice preferably produced by ……………..

a) Laser b) Microdill c) Modified punches d) None of the above

A pediatric patient requires quicker onset of action of a low dose bitter drug that is having high first pass metabolism. Suggest the most suitable dosage form for effective treatment with patient compliance?

a) Sugar coated tablets b) Transdermal patches

c) Orodispersible tablets d) Enteric coated tablets

Which test is used to check the purity of butter containing good conc. of volatile fatty acid?

a) Reichert-Meissl No. b) Acid No. c) Iodine No. d) Ash value

Edman’s Reagent is chemically …………………

a) Phenyl isothiopropionate b) Phenyl isothiocyanate

c) Phenyl isopropylbuty rate d) Phenyl Butylpropionate.

Which of following is present in collagen?

a) 5-Hydroxy proline b) 4-Hydroxy lysine c) 5-Hydroxy lysine d) 3-Hydroxy proline

Which of the following enzymes requires chloride ions as activators?

a) Lipase b) Amylase c) Trypsin d) Chemotrypsin

) Which of the following drug should not be given with torsemide?

a) Bleomycin b) Dactinomycin c) Mitomycin d) Neomycin

2) Which of the following drug is given with fenofibrate to prevent Coronary Heart Disease?

a) Pravastatin b) Rosuvastatin c) Simvastatatin d) Cerivastatin

3) Which of the following β-blocker is used to treat angina?

a) Atenolol b) Nadolol c) Betoxalol d) Nebivolol

4) Which of the following route(s) of administration is used for Epoetin-β?

a) I.M. b) I.V. c) S.C. d) Both B and C

5) Which of the following anti-platelet drug is PDE inhibitor?

a) Dipyridamol b) Disopyramide c) Tirofiban d) Abciximab

biochem question:

1) What is the last product of the glycolysis in anaerobic medium?

a) Pyruvate b) lactate c) citrate d) oxaloacetate

2) HMP pathway is also known as…….

a) Pentose phosphate pathway b) Hexose phosphate pathway

c) Phosphate pathway d) Cori’s cycle

3) Pompe’s deficiency is caused due to deficiency of ………………..

a) Acid maltase b) Glycogen sythatase c) Hexokinase d) Acid lactase

(1) The µ-opioid receptors are involved in the following pharmacological effects except ………….

a) Analgesia b) Euphoria c) Dysphoria d) Respiratory depression

(2) Which of the following is/are the endogenous opioids(s)?

a) Endorphins b) Dynorphins c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(3) Which of the following amino acid is a precursor for Serotonin (5-HT)?

a) Tyrosine b) Tyramine c) Tryptophan d) Taurine

(4) Which of the following drug is used to treat ‘jet-lag’ condition?

a) Melanin b) Melatonin c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(5) Which of the following is not a pharmacological effect of morphine?

a) Diarrhoea b) Pin point pupil c) CNS depression d) Respiratory depression

(6) Which of the following is an ultra short acting Benzodiazepine?


(7) Which of the following herbal drug is used as respiratory stimulant in the treatment of asthma?


(8) Salicin, a phenolic glucoside, on hydrolysis yields ……..…………

a) Salicylic acid + glucose b) Salicyl alcohol + glucose

c) Phenol + glucose d) Salicyl aldehyde + glucose

(9) Atropine on hydrolysis with Barium Hydroxide gives ……………..

a) Tropanol and Tropic acid b) Ecgonine and Benzoic acid

c) Scopine and Tropic acid d) Benzyl Ecgonine and Methanol

(10) C-17 α-β unsaturated lactone ring is a common feature in …………………..

a) Digitalis and squill glycosides b) Digitalis and Senna glycosides

c) Digitalis and Strophanthus glycosides d) Digitalis and amygdalin

(11) C3-O-glycoside digitoxin is used for ……………

a) Cardiac action b) CNS action c) Hypotensive action d) Liver action

(12) Idioblast of crystal layer of calcium oxalate is a diagnostic feature of ……………..

a) Hyoscyamus niger leaves b) Cinchona bark c) Deadly nightshade leaves d) Senna leaves

(13) Which of the following method is used to extract Citrus oils?

a) Hydrodistillation b) Enfleurage method c) Ecuelle method d) None of the above

(14) Which of the following drug(s) contain Phenolic ether volatile oil?

a) Anise b) Nutmeg c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(15) How many no. of Isoprene units are present in sesquiterpenes?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

(16) Which of the following is the main chemical constituent of the Eucalyptus oil?

a) geraniol b) cineole c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(17) Which of the following is/are the substitute(s) of Caraway?

a) Cuminum cyminum b) Anethum sowac) Both A and B d) None of the above

Cology

(18) Which of the following penicillins are effective against P. aeruginosa infection?

a) Oxacillin b) Naficillin c) Methicillin d) Ticarcillin

(19) Which of the following is 4th generation Cephalosporins?

a) Cephazolin c) Cefaclor

b) Cefclidine d) Cefixime

(20) Which of the following drug is used to treat Lyme’ disease?

a) Sulphasalazine c) Clarithromycin

b) Azlocillin d) Clofazimine

(21) Which of the following tetracycline is effective against N. meningitidis infection?

a) Rolitetracycline c) Minocycline

b) Demeclocycline d) Doxycycline

(22) Which of the following anti TB dug causes pyridoxine deficiency?

a) Isoniazid c) Pyrazinamide

b) Cycloserine d) Ethambutol

.what is the function of peroxisome?

a)bimerization b)mutarotation c)oxidation d)glycation

2)which of the following acid is formed on oxidation of -CHO group of sugars?

a)glucoronic acid b)gluconic acid c)sacchric acid d)mucic acid

3.which of the following deficiency cause Phrynoderma or toad skin?

a)essential fatty acid b)non essential fatty acid c)proteins d)all

4)which of the following lipid posses antihyperlipidemic action?

a)phospholipid b)triglyceride c)glycolipid d)sitosterol

5)Proteins are polymer of ……

a) L-α-aminoacidb) D-α-aminoacidc) L-β-aminoacid d) L-λ-aminoacid

6)what is the principle Reverse sequencing method detecting amino acid sequence?

a)enzymatic method b)chemical method c)chemical-DNA method d)HPLC

7)Uric acid is chemically………?

a)2,6-dioxypurine b)2,6,8-trioxypurine c )6-oxypurine d)6,8-dioxypurine

8)which of the following enzymes used for detecting glucose in urine?

A)glucose peroxidase b)glucose oxidase c)glucose transferase d)both a & b

1) Which of the following is the example of Neuromodulator?

a) Nor-adrenaline b) Ach c) Vasoactive Inyestinal Peptide (VIP)d) Oxytocin

2)Which of the following is the 5-HT2A anatagonist?

a) Ketanserine b) Pizotifen c) both d) none

3) Which of the following COMT inhibitor causes Hepatotoxicity as its side effects?

a) Entacapone b) Tolcapone c) both d) none

4) Which of the following antiepileptic drug acts by inhibiting GABA uptake?


(1) Solvent which can be used in PMR spectroscopy is…….

a) Chloroform b) Carbon tetrachloride c) Acetone d) Methanol

(2) Compounds listed below contain σ. N and π electron….

P) Acetaldehyde Q) Butadiene R) Formaldehyde S) Benzenea) PS b) QR

c) PR d) QS

(3) χ max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde is…..

a) 265 b) 250 c) 272 d) 275

(4) How many peaks are observed for Isopropanol in PMR?

a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 5

(5) n → π* in polar solvent shows……

a) Hyperchromic shift b) Bathochromic shift c) Hypsochromic shift d) None

(6) 106 mg of compound A (dissolved in 100 ml ethanol) in a 1 cm long cell has a χ max 295 nm and absorbance is 0.28. Then the value of A1%

1cm is…..

a) 2.64 b) 264 c) 190 d) 640

(7) Rotation of e- around proton generates a secondary magnetic field which may oppose the applied magnetic field. The proton is said to be…..

a) Deshielded b) H-Bonded c) Shifted d) Shielded

(8) Compound C=0 stretching IR Freq.(cm-1)

P) C=O stretching 1) 1420

Q) C-O bending in Phenol 2) 3600

R) O-H stretching 3) 1715

S) O-H bending 4) 1230

a) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3 b) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1 c) P-3,Q-4, R-2,S-1 d) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4

(9) The mechanism of the digitalis is…………

a) ↑ end diastolic volume b) ↓ end diastolic volume c) ↓ myocardial contraction d) All

(10) Which of the following drug is a long acting nitrate used in CHD?a) Nitroglycerine b) Amyl nitrate c) Isosorbide 5-mononitrate d) Nitrous oxide

(11) Which of the following drug cause decrease in GFR?a) Hydralazine b) Orlistat c) Rimonabant d)Enalaprilat

(12) Which of the following drug should not be given with Sotalol?

a) Probucol b) Furosemide c) Icatibant d) Bosentan

(13) Which vitamin’s coenzyme must be required for transamination of Amino acids?

a) VitaminB5 b) VitaminB6 c) VitaminB12 d) VitaminB3

(14) Disposal of ammonia in mammals is by………

a) NH4 b) Urea c) Uric Acid d) NH4Cl

(15) Which of the following is/are example(s) of ketone bodies?

a) Alcohol b) Acetone c) Acetoacetate d) Both A and C

(16) Which of the following enzyme cause phosphorylation of glucose in Glycolysis?

a) Glucokinase b) Pyruvate kinase c) PFK d) All

(17) Which of the following vitamin is known as anti-dermatitis factor?

a) VitaminB6 b) VitaminB12 c) VitaminB3 d) Pantothenic acid

(18) Melatonin is synthesized from…………….

a) Tyrosine b) Valine c) Tryptophan d) Serine

(19) Which arm of the t-RNA is responsible for recognition of triplet codon of m-RNA?a) D-arm b) T¥C arm c) Anticodon arm d) Variable arm

(20) Which of the coenzyme donates sulfate for synthesis of mucopolysaccharides?

a) Phosphoadenosine phosphosulfate b) UDP c) CDPd) ATP

(21) Which of the Non-α-amino acid is intermediate in synthesis of porphyrin?

a) α-Alanine b) δ-Aminolevulinic acid c) Taurine d) ornithine

(22) Which of the following is a central molecule for Glycolysis, Glycogenesis, Gluconeogenesis?

a) Fructose b) Glucose-6-phosphatec) Fructose-6-phosphate d) Glycogen

(23) Bile acid is synthesized from……………

a) Choline b) Phosphatidic acid c) Cholesterol d) Triacylglycerol

(24) Elastin & Keratin are……………..…

a) Scleroproteinb) Simple protein c) conjugated protein d) All of the above

(9) Chemical shift can be expressed in…….

a) δ b) ppm c) Hz d) All of above

(10) If the % transmittance is 50% then Absorbance will be….

a) 0.5 b) 1.301 c) 1.0d) 2.01

(11) χ max of O-chloro benzaldehyde is…..

a) 265 b) 250 c) 272 d) 275

(12) How many peaks are observed for Dimethyl etherl in PMR?

a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1

(13) π →π* in polar solvent shows……

a) Hypochromic shift b) Bathochromic shift c) Hypsochromic shift d) None

(14) A 6.40* 10-5 M solution had an absorbance of 0.847 in a 1cm cell at 255 nm. Then molar absorptivity is…..

a) 13234 b) 150 c) 1400 d) 1324

(15) Precession frequency of 13C is of how many times that of 1H…..

a) 4 b) 1/2 c) 2 d) 1/4

(16) Which of the following can not be used as IR detector?

a) hermocouple b) Golay pneumatic detector c) Globar d) Bolometer

(25) Which of the following gene is responsible for Obesity?

a) obs gene b) obe gene c) ob gene d) obg gene

(26) Which of the following enzyme responsible for transport & elimination of cholesterol from body?

a) Lysine transferase b) Lecithine-cholesterol acyl transferase c) CETP d) Acylase

(27) Which of the following enzyme cause Gaucher’s disease?a) β-glucosidase b) α-galactosidase c) ceramidase d) β-galactosidase

(28) Which of the following is an active form of methionine?

a)s-adenosyl methionine b) S-adenosyl cystine c) Meth- methionine d) S-formyl methionine

(29) Which of the Vitamin is known as Antisterility Vitamin?

a) Vitamin E b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin K d) Vitamin B

(30) How many NET ATP synthesized in aerobic condition in Glycolysis?

a) 8 b) 6 c) 10 d) 12

(31) Which of the following is/are specific biomarker for diagnosis of CVS disease?

a) LDH2 b) CPK2 c) LDH1 d) Both B & C

(32) Which of the following cholesterol is GOOD CHOLESTEROL’?

a) HDL b) LDL c) TG d) NONE

(33) Which of the Following drug is/are Non depolarizing competitive antagonist?

a) Rocuronium b) Mecamylamine c) Suxamethonium d) Both A & B

(34) Which of the drug used in treatment of multiple sclerosis ?a) Tolazoline b) Tizobifen c) Tizanidine d) dimaprit

(35) Which of the following is an antidote of Atropine?a) Physostigmine b) Carisopradol c) Azimilide d) fibirtan

(36) Which of the following drug given with Quinidine to prevent its indirect effect?

a) Verapamil b) Cardinolides c) Bisoprolol d) All

(37) Which of the drug is Fibrinogen site inhibitor?

a) Tirofiban b) Ticlopidine c) Dipyridamol d) Aspirin

(38) Which of the following is a GM_CSF?

a) Lenograstim b) Filgrastim c) PEGfilgrastim d) Molgramostin

1. Tetracyclines are drug of choice for ………..(a) Typhoid fever (b) whooping cough (c) Both a and b (d) None of the

above

2. Which derivative of CPcol is more active than CPcol?(a) 2-NHCOCH3 (b) 2-NHCOCHF2 (c) 2-NHCOCF3 (d) 2-NHCF3

3. Clarithromycin is drug of choice for………………….(a) Legionella infection (b) Atypical pneumonia (c) Lyme`s disease (d)

Whooping cough

4. Imipenam binds to ………………….(a) PBP-1 (b) PBP-2 (c) PBP-3 (d) PBP-4to6

(23) Which Amino acid directly participates in synthesis of Heme….

a) Methionine b) Aspartate c) Glycine d) Tryptophan

(24) No. of Heme present in Myoglobin is……………..

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

(25) Which of the following element of ETC possesses isoprenoid units?

a) Coenzyme Q b) Cytochrome c) Cytochrome b d) Non-Heme

(26) Superoxide is converted to H2O2 by…

a) Peroxidase b) Catalase c) Superoxide dismutase d) Glutathion peroxidase

(27) BSP (Bromosulphthalein) is used to access the function of…a) Liver b) Kidney c) Heart d)Muscle

(28) Gonadotropin releasing hormone is….

a) Nonapeptide b) Decapeptide c) Polypeptide d) Octapeptide

(29) Most active mineralocorticoid hormone is …………….

a) Cortisol b) Aldosterone c) ADH d) Epinephrine

(30) In Hemolytic Jaundice, Van den Bergh reaction is….

a) Direct positive b) Indirect positive c) Biphasic d) None of above

(39) Which of the following drug generally given with Diclofenac after orthopedic surgery?

a) Vecuronium b) Derifenacin c) Chlormezanoned) Suxamethonium

(40) Which of the following drug produce depolarization & persistent depolarization?a) Gallamine b) Trimetaphan c) Nicotine d) Doxacurium

(41) Which of the following is an Anionic site Anticholinestearase used in treatment of Glaucoma?a) Distigmine b) Malathione c) Ecothiopate d) Physostigmine

(42) Which of the following receptor located on circular muscle of eye?

a)NM Receptor b) M3 Receptor c) M1 Receptor d) NN

Receptor

(43) Which of the following drug is/are used in poisoning of irreversible Anticholinestearase ?

a) Atropine b) Pralidoxime c) Neostigmine d) Both a & b

(44) Which of the following sugar is an important metabolite in HMP shunt pathway?

a) D-Ribulose b) Xylulose c) Ribose d) Xylose

(45) Which of the following lipid cause diabetes in Hyperlipidemia?a) HDL b) LDL c) Phospholipid d) Triacylglycerol

(46) Which of the following protein structure contain two or more segment of peptide chains?a) Primary b) Secondry c) Tertiary d) Quaternary

(47) Histones are associated with eukaryotic DNA leads to formation of……….

a) Chromosome b) Nucleotide c) Nucleosomes d) Zygote

(48) Which of the following statement is true for Un-competative enzyme inhibiton ?

a) Inhibitor binds to E+S Complex b) Inhibitor binds to ES Complex

c) Inhibitor binds to E+P Complex d) Inhibitor binds to E+S Complex & ES complex

(49) What is calcitriol?

a) Vitamin b) Hormone c) Prohormone d) All

(50) Which of the following assay is based on immunochemical reaction of antigen & antibody?

a) ELISA b) RIA c) LUMINEX d) COLORIMETRY

(51) Which of the following is an Anti-oxidant Enzyme?a) Catalase b) Tocopherols c) Hydroperoxidase d) Aspartate

(52) Growth hormone (GH) mediate bone mineralization through………..?a) GRF b) IGF-I c) hCG d) Somatostatin

(53) Which of the following commonest amino acid is found in protein?

a) Alanine b) Tryptophan c) Tyrosine d) Glycine

(54) Which of the following drug combinations are highly susceptible to Nephrotoxicity?

a) Enalapril+Hydrochlorthiazide b) Losartan+Hydrochlorthiazide

c) Atenolol+Hydrochlorthiazide d) Amlodipine+Hydrochlorthiazide

(55) A patient 40-45 year age, suffering from heart failure & hypertension, which of the following is first choice drug prescribed by physician?a) Digoxin b) Irbesartan c) Spironolactone d) Torasemide

(56) Which of the following drug is both L & T type Calcium channel blocker?a) Nimodipine b) Mibefradil c) Verapamil d) Ethosuximide

(57) Which of the following drug is specific B2 receptor Antagonist?

a) Betaxolol b) Salbutamol c) Ritodrined) Butoxamine

(58) Which of the following drugs is/are Potasium channel openers?

a) Nicorandil b) Pinacidil c) both a & b d) Nebivolol

(59) Desmopressin is selective………………..

a) V2 Agonist b) V2 Antagonist c) V1 Agonist d) V1 Antagonist

(60) Which of the following is Heparin Antagonist?

a) Pergolide b) Protamine c) Methoxamine d) Roxin

(61) Which of the following drug is PPAR α receptor Activator?

a) Tolbutamide b) Gemfibrozil c) Rosiglitazone d) Muraglitazar

(62) Which of the Following antihypertensive drug is producing Rebound Hypertension?

a) Hexamethonium b) Clonidine c) Metoprolold) Prazosin

(63) Which of the following drug is non-depolarising NM blocker?a) Mephensin b) Decamethonium c) Baclofen d) Mivacurium


(65) Which of the following sugar is required for nucleic synthesis?

a) Ribose b) Galactose c) Fructose d) Verbascose

(66) Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?

a) Myristic acid b) Oleic acid c) Valeric acid d) Lignoceric acid

(67) Which of the following amino acid is containing specific functional group DISULFIDE?

a) Cysteine b) Cystine c) Methionine d) Leucine

(68) Which of the following test is used to detect albuminuria?

a) Heat coagulation b) Soliwanoff’s c) Millons d ALL

(69) Which of the following specific reaction is used to identify the increase in serum bilirubin?

a) Van den bergh b) Fouchet’s test c) Gmelin test d) All

(70) Which of the following test used to assess the completeness of vagotomy?a) Hollander’s test b) BUN c) Sulmen’s test d) Histamine test

(71) Which of the following amino acid is precursor for thyroid hormone synthesis?a) Phenyl alanine b) Tyrosine c) Glycine d) Threonine

(72) Which of the following is an end product of β-oxidation?

a) Acetyl CoA b) Aceyl CoA c) Palmitated) Oleic acid

(73) Which of the following enzyme deficiency cause Lactic acidosis?

a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase b) Lactate dehydrogenase

c) 2, 3-BPG d) Hexokinase

(74) Aldosterone is secreted from……?

a) Zona glomerulosa b) Zona reticularis c) Zona fasciculata d) ALL

(75) Which of the following enzyme is responsible for formation of tRNA?

a) RNA polymerase I b) RNA polymerase II c) RNA polymerase III d) Polymerase

(76) Which of the following codons signaling during foetus development causes progeria?

a) UAG b) UUA c) AUU d) CUG

(77) Which of the following is an end product of purine metabolism in humans?

a) Urea b) Uric acid c) Xanthined) Ammonia

(78) Which of the following immunoglobin is mostly responsible for humoral immunity?a) IgA b) IgD c) IgM d) IgG

1. Metabolism of carbamezapine occurs via …………..(a) Epoxide formation at (E) cis stilbene double bond(b) Epoxane formation at (Z) cis stilbene double bond(c) Epoxide formation at (Z) cis stilbene double bond(d) Epoxane formation at (E) cis stilbene double bond

2. Gabapentin acts by inhibiting ………..(a) GABA(b) Na+ channels

(c) Ca+2 channels(d) Glutamate

3. Clozapine contains which of the following moiety?(a) Fluorobutyrophenone(b) Dibenzodiazepine(c) Dibenzoxazepine(d) Diphenylbutylpiperidine

4. Therapeutically used Amphetamine is ……………..(a) (S) + isomer(b) (S) – isomer(c) (R) + isomer(d) (R) – isomer

5. SPEED® is intravenous salt of ………………….(a) Amphetamine(b) Benzphetamine(c) Methamphetamine(d) Phentermine

6. Anxiolytic effect of benzodiaziapines is mediated via ………………(a) α1 subunit(b) α2 subunit(c) α3 subunit(d) α4 subunit

Antipsychotic drug causes gynaecomastia as a side effect which is due to ………………

a) ↑ in prolactin level b) ↓ in prolactin level c) ↑ in dopamine d) ↓ in dopamine

(2) Which of the following drug(s) causes Agranulocytosis?

a) Olanzapine b) Clozapine c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(3) Which of the following is side effect of Phenytoin?

a) Gum hyperplasia b) Hirsutism c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(4) Which of the following drug is used to treat absence seizure?

a) Trimethadione b) Ethosuximide c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(5) Antiepileptic Drug Mechanism of action

1) Vigabatrin P) NMDA antagonist

2) Felbamate Q) GABA transaminase inhibitor

3) Tiagabine R) Ca2+ channel inhibitor

4) Gabapentin S) GABA reuptake inhibitor

a) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P b) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-S, 4-R c) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-R, 4-P d) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-P

COGNOSY

(1) Which of the following is triterpenoidal Saponin glycoside?

a) Strophanthidin b) Glycyrrhizine c) Barbaloin d) Amygdalin

(2) With Ammonium Vanadate and sulphuric acid, strychnine gives which colour?

a) Purple b) Orange c) Blued) Yellow

(3) Which of the following drug is Egyptian henbane?

a) H. reticulates b) H. aureus c) H. albusd) H. muticus

(4) Which of the following drug(s) contains Coumarin glycosides?

a) Psoralea b) Ammi visnaga c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(5) Which of the following test is used to detect ergot alkaloids?

a) Thaleoquin test b) Van Urk’s test c) Kedde’s reaction d) Schoutenten’s reaction

(6) Which of the following drug belongs to Araliaceae family?

a) Glycyrrhiza b) Ginseng c) Senega d) Sarsaparilla

(79) Which of the following organism culture is used for detection of mutagenicity?

a) S.pyogenus b) S.typhimurium c) B.subtilisd) ALL

(80) Which of the following ACE inhibitor is producing heavy protenuria?a) Captopril b) Ramipril c) Lisinopril d) Enalapril

(81) Which of the following H1 – receptor antagonist is used in treatment of vestibular disorders?a) Cinnarizine b) Cyclizine c) Dexamethasone d) Alterelol

(82) Which of the following drug is “mast-cell stabilizer”?a) Loratidine b) Ropinirol c) T3 d) Chromoglicate

(83) Which of the following is mechanism for TACROLIMUS?

a) IL-12 inhibitor b) IL-1 inhibitor c) IL-2 inhibitor d) IL-4 inhibitor(84) Which of the following sulfonamide causes reversible decrease in sperm count?

a) Sulfadiazine b) Sulfasalazine c) Sulfadoxine d) Dapsone

(85) Which of the following drug is HMG-Co A reductase inhibitor?

a) Atorvastatin b) Gemfibrozil c) Niacin d) ALL

(86) Which of the following drug is administerd by intrathecal route in treatment of childhood leukaemia?

a) Mianserine b) Clopidogrel c) Methtrexate d) Ticlopidine

(87) Which of the following cell-cycle phase is responsible for DNA synthesis?

a) S-phase b) G-phase c) M-phase d) G2 -phase

(88) Which of the following progesterone derivative is widely used in oral-contraceptive pill?

a) Levonogestrel b) Mestranol c) Estranold) Genistain

(89) Which of the following test is used for detection of ketone bodies?a) Rothera’s test b) Biuret’s test c) Seliwanoff’s test d) Milon’s test

(90) The intrinsic White injury factor is……a) Biotin b) Lipoic acid c) Vitamin C d) Niacin

(91) The coding unit of the DNA is called as…..?

a) Intron b) Cistron c) Exon d) Prion

(92) Induced fit theory was given by………….?

a) Fischer b) Koshland c) Griffin d) Michalies

(93) Which of the following disease is autoimmune disorder?

a) Rhematoid arthritis b) Grave’s disease c) Addision disease d) Obesity

(94) Niemann-pick disease is due to the deficiency of…….?

a) Glucokinase b) Sphingomylinase c) Fructo kinase d) PFK-II

(95) Maltose is composed of……?

a) Glucose+Glucose b) Glucose+Lactose c) Glucose+Galactose d) Glucose+Fructose

(96) Which of the following enzyme is elevated in prostate cancer?a) Alkaline phosphate b) Acid phosphate c) AST d) ALT

(97) Which of the following antibody is secreted in mother’s milk?a) IgA b) IgD c) IgE d) IgM

(98) Creatinine clearance is used to assess……………….

a) Renal function b) Gastric fuction c) Liver function d) ALL

(99) Xanthine is characterized by…………..?

a) Murexide test b) FeCl3 Reaction c) Ammonia test d) Meconic Acid test

(100) Which of the following drug is dopamine-β-hydroxydase inhibitor?

a) Disulfiram b) Diazoxide c) Baclofen d) Olmisartan

(101) Urea cycle involved in …………..?

a) Protein metabolism b) Carbohydrate metabolism c) Lipid metabolism d) None

(102) Which of the following glucocorticoids is used in replacement therapy?

a) Betamethasone b)Beclomethasone c) Hydrocortisone d) None

(103) Which of the following diuretic drug is containing pteridine ring?

a) Triamterene b) Amiloride c) Bendrothiazided) Furosemide

Which component is responsible for developing the proper pressure within the aerosol system?

a) Actuator b) Propellant c) Valve d) Container

Inadequate spreading of the coating solution before drying causes which tablet coating defect?

a) Orange peeling b) Blistering c) Cracking d) Blooming

Which of the following statements about lambda carrageenan (Viscarin) is/are true?

a) Lambda carrageenan is a non-gelling polymer among different carrageenan grades b) It can be used as a sustained release tablet matrix agentc) Carrageenan is the hydrocolloid obtained by extraction with water from Sea weed (Class

Rhodophyceae)d) All of the above

The shelf life (t90) of zero order reaction is calculated as…………………a) 0.1Co / k b) Co / 2k c) 0.105 / k d) 0.693 / k

For restricted retail sale of drugs apply in form No. _____________

a) 19 b) 19-A c) 19-C d) 19-AA

Flocculated suspensions exhibit ________________ type of flow.

a) Dilatant b) Newtonian c) Plastic d) Pseudoplastic

Polyplasdone used as a superdisintegrant is the trade name of __________________

a) Crosslinked NaCMC b) Crosslinked PVP c) Crosslinked Starch d) Microcrystalline cellulose

Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?

a) Fick’s law b) Henderson-Hassalbache c) Noyes Whitneyd) Michaelis-Menten

The dose to be given for Intramuscular route of administration is ………………….a) 0.01-0.2 ml b) 2-4 ml c) less than 20 ml d) 500 ml or more

Which is a common reaction of reducing sugars (lactose) with amines resulting into unstable products?

a) Hydrolysis b) Lactolysation c) Maillard reactiond) Oxidation




a) 62.8 ºC for 30 min. b) 60 ºC for 1 hr c) 121 ºC for 30 min. d) 68.2 ºC for 30 min.


P) Clostridium sporogenes Q) Chromobacter prodigism

R) B. coagulam S) B. subtilis

a) P, Q b) P, R c) R, S d) Q, S

In BCS, Class III drugs are ______________________

a) Low solubility and high permeability b) High solubility and low permeability

c) Low solubility and low permeability d) High solubility and high permeability

Considering the WHO stability guidance for packaging, the Zone I indicate the condition as……………

a) Temperate b) Subtropical with possible high humidity c) Hot/Dryd) Hot/Humid

Name Description

P) Sorensen 1) pH scale

Q) Dalla Valle 2) Micromeritics

R) Zanasi 3) Tablet coating

S) Wurster 4) Capsule filling machine

a) P1 Q2 R3 S4 b) P1 Q2 R4 S3 c) P2 Q1 R4 S3 d) P1 Q3 R2 S4

Schedule Description

P) Schedule M 1) Requirements of manufacturing premises

Q) Schedule O 2) Standards for disinfectant fluids

R) Schedule R 3) Standards for mechanical contraceptives

S) Schedule V 4) Standards for patent or proprietary medicines








Industrial dryer Pharmaceutical applications

P) Drum dryer 1) Antibiotic solution

Q) Fluidized bed dryer 2) Tablet granules

R) Spray dryer 3) Gelatin

S) Freeze dryer (lyophilizer) 4) Suspension of kaolin


One of the following statements for Transdermal drug delivery system is not true?

a) Suitable for drugs with low o/w partition coefficient

b) Useful for prolonged duration of action

c) Provides rapid drug absorption by penetration enhancers

d) Franz diffusion cell is used for In-vitro release testing of TDDS1) A teratogenic action is:

a) Toxic action on the liverb) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformationc) Toxic action on blood systemd) Toxic action on kidneys

2) Which one of the following local anesthetics is an ester of benzoic acid?a) Lidocaine b) Procainec) Ropivacaine d) Cocaine

3) Which of the following hypnotic agents is a positive allosteric modulator of GABAA receptor function?a) Zaleplon b) Flurazepamc) Zolpidem d) All of the above

4) Dose-related adverse effect caused by phenytoin is:a) Physical and psychological dependence b) Exacerbated grand mal epilepsy c) Gingival hyperplasia d) Extrapyramidal symptoms

5) Which of the following statements is correct?a) MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes serotoninb) MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes serotoninc) MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin; MAO-B metabolizes dopamine d) MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin

6) For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?a) Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema b) Peptic ulcersc) Thromboembolism d) Metabolic acidosis

7) Tick the antibiotic for cancer chemotherapy:a) Cytarabine b) Doxorubicinc) Gentamycin d) Etoposide

8) Tick the drug which belongs to nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors:a) Zidovudine b) Vidarabinec) Nevirapine d) Gancyclovir

9) Mechanism of Izoniazid action is:a) Inhibition of protein synthesis b) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis c) Inhibition of RNA synthesis d) Inhibition of ADP synthesis

10) Tachyphylaxis is:a) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugsb) Very rapidly developing tolerance c) An increase in responsiveness to a drug after taking it for days or weeks.d) None of the above

11) Cocaine is used as...................in the officinal medicine.a) narcotic b) emeticc) sedative d) local anaesthetic

12) Choose the right test for identification of anthraquinones.a) Marquis test b) Froehde testc) Liebermann-Burchard test d) Bornträeger test

13) What is Opium?a) Latex exudate of the unriped incised capsules after air dried.b) Dried wateric extract of the riped capsules.c) Dried alcoholic extract of the unriped capsules.d) Concentrated alcoholic extract of the poppy straw.

14) The common base skeleton of physiologically active ergoline alkaloids is:a) isolysergic acid. b) clavorubine. c) lysergic acid. d) 2-phenylbenzopyrane

15) Which of the following alkaloids derived from lysine?a) emetin b) chelidonin c) cinchonidin d) lobelin

16) Codeine is:a) monomethyl ether of morphine. b) amide of apomorphine.c) acetyl derivative of morphine. d) dimethyl ether of papaverine.

17) Which of the following vegetable drugs has the highest caffeine content?a) Mate folium b) Theae folium c) Guarana d) Coffeae semen

18) Which of the followings is true for inulin?a) arabin b) pectin c) galaktane d) fructosane

19) Which of the following plant constituents can be characterized by reversible complexation with proteins?a) alkaloids b) saponins c) tannins d) mucilages

20) What type of compound is arbutin used in urological infections?a) flavonoid glycoside b) phenolic glycosidec) furanocoumarin d) iridoid glycoside

21) Pilocarpin the alkaloid of Jaborandi folium has.................... .a) antagonist effect of atropine b) agonist effect of atropinc) sedative effect d) diuretic activity

22) Which is the right reagent for identification of Ergot alkaloids?a) van Urk b) Fehling I and IIc) iron-III-chloride d) phloroglucinol in HCl

23) Which of the following drug contains saponin glycoside?a) Dioscorea b) Ginseng c) Both d) none

24) Which of the following test is used for detection of quinoline alkaloid?a) Thaleoquin test b) Vitali-morin test c) Van-urk’s test d) Mayer’s test

25) Which of the following drugs contains the diacytic stomata?a) Digitalis b) Datura c) Vasaka d) Belladona

1) Which component is responsible for developing the proper pressure within the aerosol system? a) Actuator b) Propellant c) Valve d) Container

2) Inadequate spreading of the coating solution before drying causes which tablet coating defect?a) Orange peeling b) Blistering c) Cracking d) Blooming

3) Which of the following statements about lambda carrageenan (Viscarin) is/are true? a) Lambda carrageenan is a non-gelling polymer among different carrageenan grades b) It can be used as a sustained release tablet matrix agentc) Carrageenan is the hydrocolloid obtained by extraction with water from Sea weed (Class Rhodophyceae)

d) All of the above

4) The shelf life (t90) of zero order reaction is calculated as…………………a) 0.1Co / k b) Co / 2k c) 0.105 / k d) 0.693 / k

5) For restricted retail sale of drugs apply in form No. _____________a) 19 b) 19-A c) 19-C d) 19-AA

6) Flocculated suspensions exhibit ________________ type of flow.a) Dilatant b) Newtonian c) Plastic d) Pseudoplastic

7) Polyplasdone used as a superdisintegrant is the trade name of __________________a) Crosslinked NaCMC b) Crosslinked PVP c) Crosslinked Starch d) Microcrystalline cellulose

8) Removal of a single electron from a molecule results in the formation ofa) Fragment ion b) Metastable ion c) Molecular ion d) Rearrangement ion

9) Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?a) Fick’s law b) Henderson-Hassalbache c) Noyes Whitney d) Michaelis-Menten

10)The dose to be given for Intramuscular route of administration is ………………….a) 0.01-0.2 ml b) 2-4 ml c) less than 20 ml d) 500 ml or more

11) Which is a common reaction of reducing sugars (lactose) with amines resulting into unstable products?a) Hydrolysis b) Lactolysation c) Maillard reaction d) Oxidation

12) The phenomenon of increasing solubility of non-polar molecules by addition of a water miscible solvent in which the drug has good solubility is called ………..


13) Pasteurization method for sterilization of milk is carried out at ……………a) 62.8 ºC for 30 min. b) 60 ºC for 1 hr c) 121 ºC for 30 min. d) 68.2 ºC for 30 min.

14) A solvent used in NMR studies isa) chloroform b) acetone c) carbontetrachloride d) methanol

15) The biological indicator for moist heat sterilization is ………P) Clostridium sporogenes Q) Chromobacter prodigism R) B. coagulam S) B. subtilisa) P, Q b) P, R c) R, S d) Q, S

16) In BCS, Class III drugs are ______________________a) Low solubility and high permeability b) High solubility and low permeabilityc) Low solubility and low permeability d) High solubility and high permeability

17) Considering the WHO stability guidance for packaging, the Zone I indicate the condition as……………a) Temperate b) Subtropical with possible high humidity c) Hot/Dry d) Hot/Humid

18) Conductivity cells are made up of a) two silver rods b) two parallel sheets of platinum c) glass membrane with Ag/AgCI d) Sb-Sb203

19) Name DescriptionP) Sorensen 1) pH scaleQ) Dalla Valle 2) MicromeriticsR) Zanasi 3) Tablet coatingS) Wurster 4) Capsule filling machinea) P1 Q2 R3 S4 b) P1 Q2 R4 S3 c) P2 Q1 R4 S3 d) P1 Q3 R2 S4

20) Schedule DescriptionP) Schedule M 1) Requirements of manufacturing premisesQ) Schedule O 2) Standards for disinfectant fluidsR) Schedule R 3) Standards for mechanical contraceptivesS) Schedule V 4) Standards for patent or proprietary medicines a) P1 Q2 R3 S4 b) P1 Q2 R4 S3 c) P2 Q1 R4 S3 d) P1 Q3 R2 S4

21) Type of mill Not used forP) Hammer mill 1) Solid materialsQ) Revolving mill 2) Soft materialsR) Cutter mill 3) Abrasive materialS) Colloid mill 4) Friable material a) P1 Q3 R4 S2 b) P2 Q3 R4 S1 c) P3 Q2 R4 S1 d) P2 Q3 R1 S4

22) Industrial dryer Pharmaceutical applicationsP) Drum dryer 1) Antibiotic solutionQ) Fluidized bed dryer 2) Tablet granulesR) Spray dryer 3) GelatinS) Freeze dryer (lyophilizer) 4) Suspension of kaolina) P1 Q3 R4 S2 b) P4 Q2 R3 S1 c) P4 Q2 R1 S3 d) P3 Q2 R4 S1

23) IR Detectors CompositionP) Thermocouple 1) Oxides of Mn, CO and NiQ) Pyroelectric Detector 2) Bi-SbR) Golay cells 3) XenonS) Thermistor 4) Triglycine sulphatea) P4 Q2 R3 S1 b) P3 Q1 R4 S2 c) P1 Q3 R2 S4 d) P2 Q4 R3 S1

24) Technique Source of RadiationP) Visible spectrophotometry 1) R Source transmitterQ) IR spectrophotometry 2) Xenon lampR) NMR spectrophotometry 3) Tungsten lampS) Fluorescence spectrophotometry 4) Nernst glowera) P2 Q4 R3 S1 b) P3 Q2 R1 S4 c) P3 Q4 R1 S2 d) P4 Q1 R3 S2

25) Equation ApplicationP) Nernst equation 1) Potential Q) Ilkovic equation 2) IR spectroscopyR) Kaulrauch law 3) Diffusion current S) Hooke’s law 4) Conductance


26) How many gms of a drug should be used in preparing 500 ml of a 1 : 2500 solution? a) 0.2 b) 0.02 c) 0.4 d) 1.25

27) The pyroelectric detector converts electromagnetic radiation into a) electrical signal b) fluorescence c) electrons d) visible light

28) The method of expressing magnetic field strength isa) cycles/sec b) pulses/sec c) debye units d) gauss

29) A conductance cell is calibrated by using a solution of known conductivity, i.e., usually a solution ofa) NaCl b) HgCl c) KCl d) NaSO

30) A mixture of Hydrochloric acid and acetic acid can be titrated satisfactorily bya) Potentiometry b) Conductometry c) amperometry d)

Spectrophotometry

31) An amperometric titrations which one of the following is kept constant? a) Current b) Resistance c) Voltage Applied d) Conductance

32) Energy absorbed in U.V. region produces changes in a) rotational energy b) vibrational energy c) electronic energy d) the three energy levels

33) Molecular formula C4H8O2 : NMR values 1.21δ (3H) triplet; 1.83 δ (3H) singlet; 4.03 δ (2H) quartetThen possible structure is

a) CH3COOCH2CH3 b) CH3OCOCH2CH3 c) CH3CH2CH2COOH d) None of above

34) One of the following statements for Transdermal drug delivery system is not true?

a) Suitable for drugs with low o/w partition coefficientb) Useful for prolonged duration of actionc) Provides rapid drug absorption by penetration enhancersd) Franz diffusion cell is used for In-vitro release testing of TDDS

35) A teratogenic action is:a) Toxic action on the liverb) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformationc) Toxic action on blood systemd) Toxic action on kidneys

36) Which one of the following local anesthetics is an ester of benzoic acid?a) Lidocaine b) Procainec) Ropivacaine d) Cocaine

37) Which of the following hypnotic agents is a positive allosteric modulator of GABAα receptor function?a) Zaleplon b) Flurazepamc) Zolpidem d) All of the above

38) Dose-related adverse effect caused by phenytoin is:a) Physical and psychological dependence b) Exacerbated grand mal epilepsy c) Gingival hyperplasia d) Extrapyramidal symptoms

39) Which of the following statements is correct?a) MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes serotoninb) MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes serotoninc) MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin; MAO-B metabolizes dopamine d) MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin

40) For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?a) Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema b) Peptic ulcersc) Thromboembolism d) Metabolic acidosis

41) Antibiotic for cancer chemotherapy is:a) Cytarabine b) Doxorubicinc) Gentamycin d) Etoposide

42) Drug which belongs to nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors:a) Zidovudine b) Vidarabinec) Nevirapine d) Gancyclovir

43) Mechanism of Izoniazid action is:a) Inhibition of protein synthesis b) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis c) Inhibition of RNA synthesis d) Inhibition of ADP synthesis

44) Tachyphylaxis is:a) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugsb) Very rapidly developing tolerance c) An increase in responsiveness to a drug after taking it for days or weeks.d) None of the above

45) The common base skeleton of physiologically active ergoline alkaloids is:a) isolysergic acid. b) clavorubine. c) lysergic acid. d) 2-phenylbenzopyrane

46) Which of the following alkaloids derived from lysine?a) emetin b) chelidonin c) cinchonidin d) lobelin

47) Cocaine is used as...................in the officinal medicine.

a) narcotic b) emeticc) sedative d) local anaesthetic

48) Choose the right test for identification of anthraquinones.a) Marquis test b) Froehde testc) Liebermann-Burchard test d) Bornträeger test

49) What is Opium?a) Latex exudate of the unriped incised capsules after air dried.b) Dried wateric extract of the riped capsules.c) Dried alcoholic extract of the unriped capsules.d) Concentrated alcoholic extract of the poppy straw.

50) Codeine is:a) monomethyl ether of morphine. b) amide of apomorphine.c) acetyl derivative of morphine. d) dimethyl ether of papaverine.

51) Which of the following vegetable drugs has the highest caffeine content?a) Mate folium b) Theae folium c) Guarana d) Coffeae semen

52) Which of the followings is true for inulin?a) arabin b) pectin c) galaktane d) fructosane

53) Which of the following plant constituents can be characterized by reversible complexation with proteins?a) alkaloids b) saponins c) tannins d) mucilages

54) What type of compound is arbutin used in urological infections?a) flavonoid glycoside b) phenolic glycosidec) furanocoumarin d) iridoid glycoside

55) Pilocarpin the alkaloid of Jaborandi folium has.................... .a) antagonist effect of atropine b) agonist effect of atropinc) sedative effect d) diuretic activity

56) Which is the right reagent for identification of Ergot alkaloids?a) van Urk b) Fehling I and IIc) iron-III-chloride d) phloroglucinol in HCl

57) Which of the following drug contains saponin glycoside?a) Dioscorea b) Ginseng c) Both d) none

58) Which of the following test is used for detection of quinoline alkaloid?a) Thaleoquin test b) Vitali-morin test c) Van-urk’s test d) Mayer’s test

59) Which of the following drugs contains the diacytic stomata?a) Digitalis b) Datura c) Vasaka d) Belladona

60) Benzoczine is-a) Methyl-p-aminobenzoate b) Ethyl-p-aminobenzoate c) ethyl-p-chlorobenzoate d) None of the above

61) Choose the correct statement about estrogen-a) Ring-D is benzenoid & -OH grp at C-17 is phenolicb) Ring-A is quinonoid & -OH grp at C-3 is alcoholicc) Ring-A is benzenoid & -OH grp at C-3 is phenolicd) Ring-D is quinonoid & -OH grp at C-17 is alcoholic

62) Penicilline on hydrolysis with alkali givesa) Penicilloic acid b) Penaldic acid c) Penicillic acid d) Penicillamine

63) Naltriben contains which of the following ring?a) Furan b) Pyrrole c) Thiophene d) Pyridine

64) Macrolide antibiotics exert their action by(a) Inhibiting transcription (b) Alternating the genetic code(c) Terminating protein synthesis prematurely (d) Post translational modification

65) Which of the following gives positive ferric chloride test?(a) Morphine (b) Codeine (c) Thebaine (d) None of the above

66) Isoxazole ring can be found in which of the following?(a) Nitrofurantoin (b) Primidone (c) Mebendazole (d) Cloxacillin

67) Which of the following is pseudo-irreversible in nature-(a) Tacrine (b) Donezepil (c) Rivastigmine (d) Galanthamine

68) The ultrashort acting barbiturates have brief duration of action due to(a) High degree of binding to plasma proteins(b) Low lipid solubility resulting in a minimal concentration in brain(c) Metabolism is slow in liver(d) Rapid rate of redistribution from the brain due to its high liposolublity

69) Match the followingGROUP-A GROUP-BA. DacarbazineP. PteridineB. Procarbazine Q. QuinoneC. Mitomycin-C R. HydrazineD. Methotrexate S. Imidazole(a) AP BQ CR DS (b) AQ BR CS DP (c) AS BQ CR DP (d) AS BR CQ DP

70) Inadequate activity of which enzyme will lead to Grey baby syndrome(a) Glucuronyl esterase (b) Glucuronyl transferase (c) Glucuronyl reductase (d) Glucuronyl synthetase

71) Z-(o-chlorophenyl)-2-methylaminocyclohexanone is IUPAC name for(a) Donezepil (b) Meprobamate (c) Ketamine (d) Chlorphenesin

72) Metabolism of carbamezapine occurs via(a) Epoxide formation at (E) cis stilbene double bond(b) Epoxane formation at (z) cis stilbene double bond(c) Epoxide formation at (z) cis stilbene double bond(d) Epoxane formation at (E) cis stilbene double bond

73) SPEED® is intravenous salt of(a) Amphetamine (b) Benzphetamine (c) Methamphetamine (d) Phentermine

74) 9α-flouro-11β,17α,21-trihydroxy-16β-methylpregna-1,4-diene-3,20-dione is IUPAC name of(a) Triamcinolone (b) Cortisone (c) Beclomethasone (d) Betamethasone

75) Which of the following organism culture is used for detection of mutagenicity?a) S.pyogenus b) S.typhimurium c) B.subtilis d) ALL

76) Which of the following ACE inhibitor is producing heavy protenuria?a) Captopril b) Ramipril c) Lisinopril d) Enalapril

77) Which of the following H1 – receptor antagonist is used in treatment of vestibular disorders?a) Cinnarizine b) Cyclizine c) Dexamethasone d) Alterelol

78) Which of the following drug is “mast-cell stabilizer”?a) Loratidine b) Ropinirol c) T3 d)

Chromoglicate

79) Which of the following is mechanism for TACROLIMUS?a) IL-12 inhibitor b) IL-1 inhibitor c) IL-2 inhibitor d) IL-4 inhibitor

80) Which of the following sulfonamide causes reversible decrease in sperm count?a) Sulfadiazine b) Sulfasalazine c) Sulfadoxine d) Dapsone

81) Which of the following drug is HMG-Co A reductase inhibitor?a) Atorvastatin b) Gemfibrozil c) Niacin d) ALL

82) Which of the following drug is administerd by intrathecal route in treatment of childhood leukaemia?a) Mianserine b) Clopidogrel c) Methtrexate d) Ticlopidine

83) Which of the following cell-cycle phase is responsible for DNA synthesis?a) S-phase b) G-phase c) M-phase d) G2 -phase

84) Which of the following progesterone derivative is widely used in oral-contraceptive pill?a) Levonogestrel b) Mestranol c) Estranol d) Genistain

85) Which of the following test is used for detection of ketone bodies?a) Rothera’s test b) Biuret’s test c) Seliwanoff’s test d) Milon’s test

86) The intrinsic White injury factor is……a) Biotin b) Lipoic acid c) Vitamin C d) Niacin

87) The coding unit of the DNA is called as…..?a) Intron b) Cistron c) Exon d) Prion

88) Induced fit theory was given by………….?a) Fischer b) Koshland c) Griffin d) Michalies

89) Which of the following disease is autoimmune disorder?a) Rhematoid arthritis b) Grave’s disease c) Addision disease d) Obesity

90) Niemann-pick disease is due to the deficiency of…….?a) Glucokinase b) Sphingomylinase c) Fructo kinase d) PFK-II

91) Maltose is composed of……?a) Glucose+Glucose b) Glucose+Lactose c) Glucose+Galactose d) Glucose+Fructose

92) Which of the following enzyme is elevated in prostate cancer?a) Alkaline phosphate b) Acid phosphate c) AST d) ALT

93) Which of the following antibody is secreted in mother’s milk?a) IgA b) IgD c) IgE d) IgM

94) Creatinine clearance is used to assess……………….a) Renal function b) Gastric fuction c) Liver functiond) ALL

95) Xanthine is characterized by…………..?a) Murexide test b) FeCl3 Reaction c) Ammonia test d) Meconic Acid test

96) Which of the following drug is dopamine-β-hydroxydase inhibitor?a) Disulfiram b) Diazoxide c) Baclofen d) Olmisartan

97) Urea cycle involved in …………..?

a) Protein metabolism b) Carbohydrate metabolism c) Lipid metabolism d) None

98) Which of the following glucocorticoids is used in replacement therapy?a) Betamethasone b)Beclomethasone c) Hydrocortisone d) None

99) Which of the following diuretic drug is containing pteridine ring?a) Triamterene b) Amiloride c) Bendrothiazide d) Furosemide

100) In a compound there are seen (m) & (m+2) peak of almost equal intensity. It may contain following halogen…

a) Iodine b) Chlorine c) Fluorine d) Bromine

(104) The ion exchange resins have been extensively used in tablet formulation for …………………

a) Sustained release b) Taste masking c) Disintegration d) All of the above

(105) SPEED® is intravenous salt of ………………….a) Amphetamine b) Benzphetamine c) Methamphetamine d) Phentermine

(106) Anxiolytic effect of benzodiazepines is mediated via ………………a) α1 subunit b) α2 subunit c) α3 subunit d) α4 subunit

(107) With Ammonium Vanadate and sulphuric acid, strychnine gives which colour?

a) Purple b) Orange c) Blued) Yellow

(108) Which of the following drug belongs to Araliaceae family?

a) Glycyrrhiza b) Ginseng c) Senegad) Sarsaparilla

(109) Which of the following drug is Egyptian henbane?

a) H. reticulates b) H. aureus c) H. albusd) H. muticus

(110) Which of the following lipid possess antihyperlipidemic action?

a) Phospholipid b) Triglyceride c) Glycolipid d) Sitosterol

(111) Proteins are polymer of ………….

a) L-α-aminoacid b) D-α-aminoacid c) L-β-aminoacid d) L-λ-aminoacid

(112) Opaque color concentrate for film coating is known as ………….


(113) Gabapentin acts by inhibiting ………..a) GABA b) Na+ channels c) Ca+2 channels d) Glutamate

(114) DEVICE DESCRIPTION

P) Kern Injector 1) Compression of waxy substances

Q) Precompresion stations 2) Implant tablets

R) Fette machines 3) Compression of difficult granulations

S) Chilosonator 4) For dry granulation


(115) Which of these capsules consists of an animal shell composition?

a) HPMC capsules b) Pullulan capsules c) Ocean caps d) Starch capsules

(116) Antipsychotic drug causes gynaecomastia as a side effect which is due to ………………

a) ↑ in prolactin level b) ↓ in prolactin level c) ↑ in dopamine d) ↓ in dopamine

(117) Which of the following drug(s) causes Agranulocytosis?

a) Olanzapine b) Clozapine c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(118) Which of the following is side effect of Phenytoin?

a) Gum hyperplasia b) Hirsutism c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(119) Which of the following drug is used to treat absence seizure?

a) Trimethadione b) Ethosuximide c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(120) Which of the following test is used to detect ergot alkaloids?

a) Thaleoquin test b) Van Urk’s test c) Kedde’s reactiond) Schoutenten’s reaction

(121) Which of the following drug(s) contains Coumarin glycosides?

a) Psoralea b) Ammi visnaga c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(122) Antiepileptic Drug Mechanism of action

1) Vigabatrin P) NMDA antagonist

2) Felbamate Q) GABA transaminase inhibitor

3) Tiagabine R) Ca2+ channel inhibitor

4) Gabapentin S) GABA reuptake inhibitor

a) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P b) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-S, 4-R c) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-R, 4-P d) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-P

(123) Which of these is not a characteristic of semipermeable membrane?

a) Sufficient wet strength b) Biocompatibility

c) Good solute permeability d) None of the above

(124) Which of the following is triterpenoidal Saponin glycoside?

a) Strophanthidin b) Glycyrrhizine c) Barbaloind) Amygdalin

(125) Metabolism of carbamazepine occurs via …………..a) Epoxide formation at (E) cis stilbene double bondb) Epoxane formation at (Z) cis stilbene double bondc) Epoxide formation at (Z) cis stilbene double bondd) Epoxane formation at (E) cis stilbene double bond

(126) Clozapine contains which of the following moiety?a) Fluorobutyrophenone b) Dibenzodiazepine c) Dibenzoxazepine d) Diphenylbutylpiperidine

(127) Therapeutically used Amphetamine is ……………..a) (S) + isomer b) (S) – isomer c) (R) + isomer d) (R) – isomer

(25) What is the function of peroxisome?

a) Bimerization b) Mutarotation c) Oxidation d) Glycation

(26) Which of the following acid is formed on oxidation of - CHO group of sugars?

a) Glucoronic acid b) Gluconic acid c) Saccharic acid d) Mucic acid

(27) Which of the following deficiency cause Phrynoderma or toad skin?

a) Essential fatty acid b) Non-essential fatty acid c) Proteins d) All of the above

(28) What is the principle Reverse sequencing method detecting amino acid sequence?

a) Enzymatic method b) Chemical method c) Chemical-DNA method d) HPLC

(29) Uric acid is chemically?

a) 2,6-dioxypurine b) 2,6,8-trioxypurine c) 6-oxypurine d) 6,8-dioxypurine

(30) Which of the following enzymes used for detecting glucose in urine?

A) Glucose peroxidase b) Glucose oxidase c) Glucose transferase d) Both A and B

(1) Bioflavanoids are known as….

a) Vitamin H b) Vitamin L c) Vitamin P d) Vitamin A

(2) Which of the following is an Antineuritic vitamin?

a) Vitamin B5 b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin B7 d) Vitamin B1

(3) Which of the following is neurohormone?

a) Neuropeptide-Y b) Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide c) Oxytocin d) Dopamine

(4) Which of the following 5HT-receptors are involved in platelet aggregation?

a) 5-HT1A b) 5-HT1B c) 5-HT2A d) 5-HT2B

(5) Which of the following is COMT inhibitor and used to treat Parkinsonism?

a) Bromocriptine b) Entacapone c) Lisuride d) Pramipexole

(6) Which of the following local anaesthetic causes methaemoglobinaemia?

a) Articaine b) Prilocaine c) Levobupivacained) Ropivacaine

(7) Which of the following are D2 class receptor agonist and used to treat Parkinsonism?

a) Ropinirole b) Pramipexole c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(8) Which of the following drug contains C-glycosides?

a) Cochineal b) Senna c) Rhubarb d) None of the above

(9) Which of the following is a Cyanogenetic glycoside?

a) Amygdalin b) Prunasin c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(10) Which of the following drug contains Isothiocyanate glycoside?

a) Thevetia b) Brahmi c) Black mustard d) None of the above

(11) Which of the following drug gives positive Borntrager’s test?

a) Senna b) Ginseng c) Gokhru d) Thevetia

(12) Which of the following drug contains S-glycosides?

a) Rhein b) Hypericin c) Sinigrin d) Carminic acid

(13) Which of the following drug contains abnormal vascular bundles?

a) Senna b) Rhubarb c) Aloe d) Thevetia

(14) Which of the following is known as St. John’s wort?

a) Aloin b) Barbaloins c) Hypericum d) Carminic acid

(15) Which of the following drug contains unicellular, conical, warty trichomes?

a) Rhubarb b) Senna c) Digitalis d) Stophanthus

(16) Which of the following is a negative modulator of benzodiazepines?a) α – carboline b) β – carboline c) γ - carbolined) δ – carboline

(17) Meprobamate is used as ……………..a) Sedative-hypnotic b) Anti-anxiety agent c) In absence seizure d) All of the above

(18) Buspiron – an anti anxiety agent is ………………….a) 5-HT1a agonist b) 5-HT1a antagonist c) 5-HT1b agonist d) 5-HT1b antagonist

(19) Which of the general anesthetic is used as an emulsion form?a) Etomidate b) Propofol c) Ketamine d) Halothane

(20) IUPAC name of halazepam isa) 5-Chloro -1, 3-dihydro-5-phenyl-1(2, 2, 2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1, 4-benzodiazepin-2-oneb) 7-Chloro -1, 3-dihydro-6-phenyl-1(2, 2, 2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1, 4-benzodiazepin-3-onec) 7-Chloro -1, 3-dihydro-5-phenyl-1(2, 2, 2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1, 4-benzodiazepin-2-oned) 5-Chloro -1, 3-dihydro-6-phenyl-1(2, 2, 2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1, 4-benzodiazepin-3-one

(21) Which of the following sugar deficiency cause diarrhoea and flatulence?

a) Maltose b) Sucrose c) Xylose d) Lactose

(22) Which of the following is an unbranched water soluble polysaccharide?

a) Amylase b) Amylopectin c) Heparin d) Hyaluronidase

(23) Which of the following cyclic fatty acid is used in treatment of leprosy?

a) Ricinoleic acid b) Sesame oil c) Chaulmoogra oil d) All of the above

(24) Which of the following phosphogyceride possess antigenic property?

a) Cephalin b) Plasmalogen c) Cardiolipin d) Sphingoside

(25) Which of the following is true for an amino acid lysine?

a) Ketogenic b) glycogenic c) Essential amino acid d) Both A and C

(26) Which of the following test used for imidazole ring containing amino acid?

a) Sakaguchi reaction b) Zak’s test c) Pauly’s test d) Millons test

(27) Which of the following form of DNA is a right handed helix?

a) Z b) A c) B d) E

(28) What is the synonym for transfer RNA?

a) Irregular RNA b) regular RNA c) polymer RNA d) soluble RNA

(29) Which of the following vitamin deficiency is caused by Isoniazid?

a) Pyridoxine b) Niacin c) Biotin d) Pantothenic acid

(30) Which of the following vitamin(s) is/are widely used in mouth ulcer?

a) Vitamin B-complex b) Folic acid c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(17) What is the last product of the glycolysis in anaerobic medium?


(18) Which component is responsible for developing the proper pressure within the aerosol system?


(19) Which of the following drug should not be given with torsemide?


(20) Which of the following drug is given with fenofibrate to prevent Coronary Heart Disease?


(21) Which of the following is the side effect of Levodopa?

a) dyskinesia b) On-Off effect c) Both A and B d) None

(22) Which of the following test is used for detection of quinoline alkaloid?

a) Thaleoquin test b) Vitali-morin test c) Van-urk’s testd) Mayer’s test

(23) Which of the following β-blocker is used to treat angina?


(24) Which of the following drug belongs to Loganiaceae family?

a) Senna b) Nux-vomica c) Vinca d) None

(25) Which of the following route(s) of administration is used for Epoetin-β?

a) I.M. b) I.V. c) S.C.d) Both B and C

(26) Which of the following is the pyridine-pyrrolidone alkaloid containing drug?

a) Lobelia b) Belladona c) Ipecacd) Ergot

(27) Which of the following anti-platelet drug is PDE inhibitor?


(28) Pompe’s deficiency is caused due to deficiency of ………………..


(29) HMP pathway is also known as…….



(30) Drug of choice for primary dysmenorrhea is …………………

a) Aspirin b) Phenylbutazone c) Mefenamic acid d) Indomethacin

(31) Therapeutically used naltrindole is a ………………

a) OP1 antagonist b) OP2 antagonist c) OP3 antagonist d) Sigma antagonist

(32) Drug used in Gilles de la taurette is …………….

a) Pimozide b) Resperidone c) Molindone d) Clozapine

(33) Modafinil acts via which mechanism?

a) α1-NE agonist b) α1-NE antagonist c) β1-NE agonistd) β2-NE antagonist

(34) Drugs acting on Nigro-striatal pathway leads to ………………

a) Antipsychotic effects b) EPS c) Anti-cholinergic side effects d) None

(35) Which of the following receptor belongs to the Type-2 receptor family?

a) GABAA b) GABAB c) NMDAd) AMPA

(36) Which of the following is the mechanism action of the strychnine?

a) GABA antagonist b) glutamate antagonist c) glycine antagonist d) None

(37) Which of the following is 5-HT1A receptor agonist?

a) Gepirone b) Bicuculline c) Zolpidemd) None

(38) Spina bifida is the teratogenic side effect of which of the following anti epileptic drug?

a) Vigabatrin b) Sodium valproate c) Lamotrigine d) Felbamate

(39) Which of the following is the non-specific test for alkaloid?

a) Dragendorff b) Wagner c) Murexided) Hager

(40) Which of the following drug contains Saponin glycoside?

a) Dioscorea b) Ginseng c) Both A and B d) None

(41) Which of the following is the Indian Senega?

a) Polygala senega b) Polygala chinensis c) Polygala alba d) None

(42) The IUPAC name of naproxen is …………….

a) (S)-2-(6-ethoxy-2-napthyl)-acetic acid b) (S)-2-(6-methoxy-2-napthyl)-acetic acid

c) (S)-2-(6-ethoxy-2-napthyl)-propionic acid d) (S)-2-(6-methoxy-2-napthyl)-propionic acid

(43) The ultra-short acting barbiturates have brief duration of action due to ……………..

a) High degree of binding to plasma proteins

b) Low lipid solubility resulting in a minimal concentration in brain

c) Metabolism is slow in liver

d) Rapid rate of redistribution from the brain due to its high liposolublity

(44) Drug Ring System

A. Meloxicam P. Indene ring

B. Sulindac Q. Imidazole ring

C. Maclobemide R. Morpholon ring

D. Etomidate S. Thiazole ring

a) AP BQ CR DS b) AS BP CR DQ c) AR BS CP DQ d) AQ BR CS DP

(45) The temp. at which the vapors of the test liquid (aerosol product) ignite is known as ………

a) Flash extension b) Flash point c) Flash projectiond) Flame point

(46) In the cold filling process the propellant is kept at what temp. prior to adding into container?

a) -20° to -40°F b) -20° to -40°C c) 0° to 20°F d) 30° to 40°C

(31) Which of the following tablets does not require diluents in its formulation?

a) Bilayered tablets b) Floating tablets c) Implantable tablets d) Sublingual tablets

(32) Disposal of ammonia in mammals is by……………..

a) NH4 b) Urea c) Uric Acidd) NH4Cl

(33) Which of the following is an example of Neuromodulator?

a) Nor-adrenaline b) Ach c) Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide (VIP) d) Oxytocin

(34) Which of the following is/are 5-HT2A antagonist(s)?


(35) Which of the following drug cause decrease in GFR?a) Hydralazine b) Orlistat c) Rimonabant d)Enalaprilat

(36) Which of the following drug should not be given with Sotalol?

a) Probucol b) Furosemide c) Icatibant d) Bosentan

(37) Excessive use of lubricant leads to increase in disintegration time due to …………….

a) Hydrophobicity b) Hydrophilicity c) Picking d) Mottling

(38) Maillard reaction is due to interaction of carbohydrate with …………….

a) Chloramphenicol b) Aspirin c) Isoniazidd) Paracetamol

(39) Which of the following COMT inhibitor causes Hepatotoxicity as its side effects?

a) Entacapone b) Tolcapone c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(40) Which of the following antiepileptic drug acts by inhibiting GABA uptake?


(41) The mechanism of the digitalis is…………

a) ↑ end diastolic volume b) ↓ end diastolic volume c) ↓ myocardial contractiond) All above

(42) Which of the following drug is a long acting nitrate used in CHD?a) Nitroglycerine b) Amyl nitrate c) Isosorbide 5-mononitrate d) Nitrous oxide

(43) Which vitamin’s coenzyme must be required for transamination of Amino acids?

a) VitaminB5 b) VitaminB6 c) VitaminB12

d) VitaminB3

(44) Which of the following is/are example(s) of ketone bodies?


(45) Which of the following enzyme cause phosphorylation of glucose in Glycolysis?

a) Glucokinase b) Pyruvate kinase c) PFK d) All of the above

(46) Inadequate spreading of the coating solution before drying causes which tablet coating defect?

a) Orange peeling b) Blistering c) Crackingd) Blooming

(47) Molindone contains ………..

a) Pyrrole ring b) Morphiloyln ring c) Both A and B d) None of above

(48) The durability of tablets to combined effects of abrasion and shock is evaluated by ……….

a) Hardness tester b) Friabilator c) Screw gauge d) Disintegration test apparatus

(49) Abrasive and humectant compounds used in the formulation of toothpaste are ………….

P) Dicalcium phosphate Q) SLS R) Sorbitol syrup S) Tragacanth

a) PR b) QS c) PQ d) RS

(50) Elastomer used in rubber closure formulation is …………..

a) Neoprene b) Butyl stearate c) Titanium dioxide d) Butylated hydroxy toluene

(51) Isotopic abundance of 13C is ……….

a) 1.1 % b) 99.98 % c) 50 % d) 11.1 %

(52) Which of the following is most commonly used as reference standard in NMR?

a) DTGS b) TMS c) KBr d) CCl4

(53) Which of the following is less cardiotoxic as compared to others?

a) Daunorubicin b) Doxorubicin c) Idrarubicin d) Aclacinomycin

(54) Drug of choice for choriocarcinoma is…………

a) Methotrexate b) Doxorubicin c) Cytarabine d) Actinomycin-D

(55) Radioactive D2 antagonist is …………..

a) Spiroperidol b) Raclopride c) Sulperide d) Olanzapine

(56) Carbamezapine contains what kind of azepine ring?

a) [a,f] azepine b) [b,f] azepine c) [c,f] azepine d) [d,f] azepine

(57) Z-(o-chlorophenyl)-2-methylaminocyclohexanone is IUPAC name for ………

a) Donezepil b) Meprobamate c) Ketamine d) Chlorphenesin

(58) Type of tablet Description

P) Buccal tablets 1) Slowly erode within the pouch

Q) Lozenges 2) Slowly dissolve in the mouth

R) Sublingual tablets 3) Beneath the skin

S) Implants 4) Beneath the tongue


(59) GROUP-A GROUP-B

A. Dacarbazine P. Pteridine

B. Procarbazine Q. Quinone

C. Mitomycin-C R. Hydrazine

D. Methotrexate S. Imidazole

a) AP BQ CR DS b) AQ BR CS DP c) AS BQ CR DP d) AS BR CQ DP

(60) MESNA is an abbreviation used for ………..

a) Sodium-2-mercaptoethane sulphate b) sodium-2-mercaptoethane sulphonate

c) sodium-3-mercaptoethane sulphate d) sodium-3-mercaptoethane sulphonate

(1) Ellipsoidal Schizolysigenous oil glands are important diagnostic characteristics of ………………

a) Ergot b) Ginseng c) Cinnamon d) Clove

(2) The opium alkaloids in Papaver-somniferum are present as……………

a) Free Alkaloids b) salt of citric acid c) salts of meconic acid d) None

(3) Phloroglucinol and HCl produce pink or red color with ……………….

a) Cellulose cell walls b) Lignified cell walls c) Cutinized cell walls d) Mucilaginous cell walls

(4) Guidelines for Clinical trials, import & manufacture of new drugs as per D&C Act are given under......

a) Schedule N b) Schedule Y c) Schedule A d) Schedule B

(5) The oil obtained from cymbopogan flexousus contains one of the following ……………….

a) Citral b) A-terpeniol c) A-pinene d) Neral

(6) The test organism used in Microbiological assay of Rifampicin is....................

a) Micrococcus luteus b) E.coli c) Bacillus subtilis d) S. aureus

(7) The diagnostic test for typhoid (caused by S. typhi) is…………….

a) VDRL test b) Mantoux testc) RIA d) Widal test

(8) Which of the vitamin is known as anti-dermatitis factor?


(9) Melatonin is synthesized from …….

a) Tyrosine b) Valine c) Tryptophan d) Serine

(10) Which arm of the t-RNA is responsible for recognition of triplet codon of m-RNA?a) D-arm b) T¥C arm c) Anticodon arm d) Variable arm

(11) Which of the coenzyme donates sulfate for synthesis of mucopolysaccharides?

a) Phosphoadenosine phosphosulfate b) UDP c) CDP d) ATP

(12) Which of the Non-α-amino acid is intermediate in synthesis of porphyrin?


(13) Which of the following is a central molecule for Glycolysis,Glycogenesis,Gluconeogenesis?

a) Fructose b) Glucose-6-phosphatec) Fructose-6-phosphate d) Glycogen

(14) Bile acid are synthesized from………..

a) Choline b) Phosphatidic acid c) Cholesterol d) Triacylglycerol

(15) Elastin & Keratin are……………………

a) Scleroprotein b) Simple protein c) conjugated protein d) None of the above

(16) Choose the correct key intermediate for the bio-synthesis of C6-C3 units, which serves as a precursor for the biosynthesis of amino acids.

a) Shikimic acid b) Pyruvic acid c) Dehydro quinic acid d) Mevalonic acid

(17) Choose the correct characteristic of the epidermal cells and cuticle of Atropa belladona leaf.

a) Pitted walls with striated cuticle b) Wavy walls with striated cuticle

c) Algal walls with smooth cuticle c) Straight walls with wavy cuticle

(18) Solvent which can be used in PMR spectroscopy is…….

a) Chloroform b) Carbon tetrachloride c) Acetone d) Methanol(19) Choose the correct for digitoxigenin

a) 3 β, 14 β, 16 β trihydroxy cardenolide b) 3 β, 12 β, 14 β trihydroxy cardenolide

c) 3β, 14 β dihydroxy cardenolide d) 1, 3, 5, 11α, 14, 19β hexahydroxy cardenolide

(20) Choose the correct trichomes of digitalis purpurea.a) Numerous covering trichomes and a few glandular trichomesb) Few covering trichomesc) Few glandular and a few covering trichomesd) Few glandular trichomes

(21) Hyoscyamine, an alkaloid from atropa belladona…………….a) Readily racemises to atropine with ethanoic alkali. Atropine is (±) Hyoscyamineb) Readily disintegrates into atropine with acid solution. Atropine is (-) Hyoscyaminec) Readily rearranges into atropine with alkali solution. Atropine is (+) Hyoscyamined) Readily racemises to atropine with ethanolic alkali. Atropine is (±) Hyoscine

(22) Compounds listed below contain σ, n and π electron…..………….

P) Acetaldehyde Q) Butadiene R) Formaldehyde S) Benzene

a) PS b) QR c) PR d) QS

(23) λ max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde is………....

a) 265 b) 250 c) 272 d) 275

(24) How many peaks are observed for Isopropanol in PMR?

a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 5

(25) n → π* in polar solvent shows……

a) Hyperchromic shift b) Bathochromic shift c) Hypsochromic shift d) None

(26) 106 mg of compound A (dissolved in 100 ml ethanol) in a 1 cm long cell has a χ max 295 nm and absorbance is 0.28. Then the value of A1%

1cm is…………..

a) 2.64 b) 264 c) 190 d) 640

(27) Rotation of electron around proton generates a secondary magnetic field which may oppose the applied magnetic field. The proton is said to be……………...

a) Deshielded b) H-Bonded c) Shifted d) Shielded

(28) Compound C=0 stretching IR Freq.(cm-1)

P) C=O stretching 1) 1420

Q) C-O bending in Phenol 2) 3600

R) O-H stretching 3) 1715

S) O-H bending 4) 1230

a) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3 b) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1 c) P-3,Q-4, R-2,S-1 d) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4

(29) As per Schedule O of the D & C Act the minimum Rideal Walker Coefficient for Grade 1 and Grade 3 Black disinfectant fluids are…………..

P) 18 Q) 10 R) 5 S) 14

a) PR b) QS c) PS d) RS

(30) Which drying process is used in the preparation of yellow fever vaccine?

a) Spray drying b) Vacuum drying c) Drum drying d) Freeze drying



(2) Which of the following cholesterol is GOOD CHOLESTEROL?

a) HDL b) LDL c) TG d) None

(3) Chemical shift can be expressed in ……………..

a) δ b) ppm c) Hz d) All of the above

(4) Lozenges tablets are used for ……………..

a) Slow dissolution in stomach b) Fast dissolution in stomach

c) Slow dissolution in mouth d) Slow dissolution in intestine

(5) Which of the Vitamin is known as Anti-sterility Vitamin?

a) Vitamin E b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin K d) Vitamin B

(6) Tablet thickness is measured by

a) Manometer b) Pycnometer c) Sliding caliper scale d) Picometer

(7) Which of the following is not a pharmacological effect of morphine?

a) Diarrhoea b) Pin point pupil c) CNS depression d) Respiratory depression

(8) Which tablets require special care for storage in a hermetically sealed packaging?


(9) Which of the following amino acid is a precursor for Serotonin (5-HT)?

a) Tyrosine b) Tyramine c) Tryptophan d) Taurine

(10) In the process of sugar coating of tablets the colorants are added in one of the following steps?


(11) Which of the following drug is used to treat ‘jet-lag’ condition?

a) Melanin b) Melatonin c) Both A and Bd) None of the above

(12) The leaker test (using Methylene blue solution) is performed for the evaluation of ……….

a) Ampoules b) Vials c) Bottles d) All of the above

(13) Which of the drug is Fibrinogen site inhibitor?

a) Tirofiban b) Ticlopidine c) Dipyridamol d) Aspirin

(14) An antioxidant commonly used in the formulation of a non-aqueous parenteral preparation is……

a) Ascorbic acid b) Thioglycollic acid c) Na-metabisulphate d) BHT

(15) Idioblast of crystal layer of calcium oxalate is a diagnostic feature of ……………..

a) Hyoscyamus niger leaves b) Cinchona bark c) Deadly nightshade leaves d) Senna leaves

(16) Standards for mechanical contraceptives are given in...............


(17) The µ-opioid receptors are involved in the following pharmacological effects except ………….

a) Analgesia b) Euphoria c) Dysphoria d) Respiratory depression

(18) Most commonly used film former in Nail preparations is ……..

a) PEG b) Nitrocellulose c) Castor oil d) Carbopol

(19) Which of the following is an ultra short acting Benzodiazepine?

a) Chlordizepoxide b) Midazolam c) Nitrazepam d)

Alprazolam

(20) Which of the following herbal drug is used as respiratory stimulant in the treatment of asthma?


(21) Which of the following is/are the endogenous opioid(s)?

a) Endorphins b) Dynorphins c) Both A and Bd) None of the above

(22) Salicin, a phenolic glucoside, on hydrolysis yields ……..…………

a) Salicylic acid + glucose b) Salicyl alcohol + glucose

c) Phenol + glucose d) Salicyl aldehyde + glucose

(23) Atropine on hydrolysis with Barium Hydroxide gives ……………..

a) Tropanol and Tropic acid b) Ecgonine and Benzoic acid

c) Scopine and Tropic acid d) Benzyl Ecgonine and Methanol

(24) Which of these coating polymer(s) is/are soluble in the intestinal fluid above pH 6?

a) Eudragit E b) Eudragit L c) HPMC d) All of the above

(25) C-17 α-β unsaturated lactone ring is a common feature in …………………..

a) Digitalis and squill glycosides b) Digitalis and Senna glycosides

c) Digitalis and Strophanthus glycosides d) Digitalis and amygdalin

(26) Instrumentation Description

P) Nomogram 1) To determine the moisture content of the capsule shell

Q) Toluene distillation 2) To determine the capsule size

R) Accofill 3) Fill exact powder dose in hard gelatin capsules

S) Accogel 4) Filling of dry powder in soft gelatin capsules


(27) Industrial dryer Pharmaceutical applications




S) Freeze dryer 4) Suspension of kaolin


(28) Anomocytic type of stomata is found in the leaves of …………….

a) Fox glove b) Cassia acutifolia c) Urginea maritima d) Atropa belladonna

(29) If the % transmittance is 50% then Absorbance will be…………...

a) 0.5 b) 1.301 c) 1.0 d) 2.01(30) λmax of O-chloro benzaldehyde is………………..

a) 265 nm b) 250 nm c) 272 nm d) 275 nm

(31) How many peaks are observed for Dimethyl ether in PMR?

a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1

(32) π →π* in polar solvent shows……………………….

a) Hypochromic shift b) Bathochromic shift c) Hypsochromic shift d) None

(33) A 6.40* 10-5 M solution had an absorbance of 0.847 in a 1cm cell at 255 nm. Then molar absorptivity is……………………………….

a) 13234 b) 150 c) 1400 d) 1324

(34) Precession frequency of 13C is how many times that of 1H?

a) 4 b) 1/2 c) 2 d) 1/4

(35) Which of the following cannot be used as IR detector?

a) Thermocouple b) Golay pneumatic detector c) Globar d) Bolometer

(36) Which of the following gene is responsible for Obesity?

a) obs gene b) obe gene c) ob gene d) obg gene

(37) Which of the following enzyme is responsible for transport & elimination of cholesterol from body?a) Lysine transferase b) Lecithine-cholesterol acyl transferase c) CETP d)

Acylase(38) How many NET ATP molecules are synthesized in aerobic condition in Glycolysis?

a) 8 b) 6 c) 10 d) 12

(39) Which of the following is/are specific biomarker for diagnosis of CVS disease?

a) LDH2 b) CPK2 c) LDH1 d) Both B and C

(40) Which of the following drug is/are Non-depolarizing competitive antagonist?

a) Rocuronium b) Mecamylamine c) Suxamethonium d) Both A and B

(41) Which of the drug used in treatment of multiple sclerosis?a) Tolazoline b) Tizobifen c) Tizanidine d) Dimaprit

(42) Which of the following is an antidote of Atropine?a) Physostigmine b) Carisopradol c) Azimilide d) Fibirtan

(43) Which of the following drug given with Quinidine to prevent its indirect effect?

a) Verapamil b) Cardinolides c) Bisoprolol d) All of the above

(44) Which of the following is a GM_CSF?

a) Lenograstim b) Filgrastim c) PEGfilgrastim d) Molgramostin

(45) The full form for AMPA is...……………………..

a) a-amino-3-hydroxy-4-methyl-isoxazole b) a-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-isoxazole

c) a-amino-4-hydroxy-4-methyl-isoxazole d) a-amino-4-hydroxy-5-methyl-isoxazole

(46) Adrenocortical suppression is seen with………………………

a) Etomidate b) Propofol c) Ketamine d) Isoflurane(47) Arrange the following in descending order of their blood:gas partition.

a) Desflurane<nitrous oxide<sevoflurane<isoflurane

b) Desflurane<nitrous oxide<isoflurane<sevoflurane

c) Nitrous oxide<desflurane<isoflurane<sevoflurane

d) Isoflurane<nitrous oxide<desflurane<sevoflurane

(48) Cheese reaction is associated with………………………….

a) Reversible MAO-A inhibitors b) Irreversible-B MAO inhibitors

c) Reversible MAO-B inhibitors d) Irreversible MAO-A inhibitors

(49) Topiramate possess following action……………………..

a) Increases GABA effect b) Antagonizes glutamate receptors c) Weak CA inhibitor d) All of above

(50) Pentostatin is structurally…………………………….

a) Tetrahydro pyridine b) Tetrahydro imidazole c) Dihydro pyridine d) Dihydro imidazole

(51) Which of the following is not a function of a plasticizer?



(52) N-triflouro Acetyl Doxorubicin is …………………………….

a) Idrarubicin b) daunarubicin c) Mitomycin d) Valrubicin

(53) Inadequate activity of which enzyme will lead to Grey baby syndrome?

a) Glucuronyl esterase b) Glucuronyl transferase

c) Glucuronyl reductase d) Glucuronyl synthetase

(54) Active form of Chloramphenicol is…………………………………..

a) (D)-erythreo Levo b) (D)-threo levo c) (D)-erythreo dextro d) (D)-threo dextro

(55) Which of the following enzyme cause Gaucher’s disease?a) β-glucosidase b) α-galactosidase c) ceramidase d) β-galactosidase

(56) Which of the following is not possessing sulphonamide group?

a) Tolbutamide b) Furosemide c) Zonisamide d) Atenolol

(57) Browne’s tubes are most commonly used as chemical indicator for………………………

a) Ethylene oxide sterilization b) Heat sterilization

c) Radiation sterilization d) Filtration sterilization

(58) Form No. for issuing license for sale from motor vehicle of drug except that of Schedule C/C1 is……

a) 19 b) 19 A c) 19 C d) 19 AA

(59) The process in which DNA is passed from one bacterium to another in a bacteriophage is known as……

a) Transduction b) Transfection c) Transformation d) Transplantation

(60) Which of the following is an active form of methionine?

a) S-adenosyl methionine b) S-adenosyl cysteine c) Met-methionine d) S-formyl methionine

(1) Which of the following method is used to extract Citrus oils?

a) Hydrodistillation b) Enfleurage method c) Ecuelle methodd) None of the above

(2) How many no. of Isoprene units are present in sesquiterpenes?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

(3) % Compressibility required for excellent flowability is ………

a) < 1.25 b) 5-15 c) 12-16 d) > 40

(4) Which of the following is the fourth generation Cephalosporin?

a) Cephazolin b) Cefclidine c) Cefaclor d) Cefixime

(5) Which of the following is the main chemical constituent of the Eucalyptus oil?

a) geraniol b) cineole c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(6) Which of the following is an Anionic site Anticholinestearase used in treatment of Glaucoma?a) Distigmine b) Malathione c) Ecothiopate d) Physostigmine

(7) In Hemolytic Jaundice, Van den Bergh reaction is……………………….


(8) The number of Heme present in Myoglobin is……………..

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

(9) BSP (Bromosulphthalein) is used to access the function of…………….…a) Liver b) Kidney c) Heart d) Muscle

(10) Gonadotropin releasing hormone is………………


(11) Which of the following is/are the substitute(s) of Caraway?

a) Cuminum cyminum b) Anethum sowac) Both A and B d) None of the above

(12) Which of the following penicillin is effective against P. aeruginosa infection?

a) Oxacillin b) Naficillin c) Methicillin d) Ticarcillin

(13) Which of the following drug is used to treat Lyme’ disease?

a) Sulphasalazine b) Azlocillin c) Clarithromycin d) Clofazimine

(14) Which of the following tetracycline is effective against N. meningitidis infection?

a) Rolitetracycline b) Demeclocycline c) Minocycline d) Doxycycline

(15) Which of the following drug(s) contain Phenolic ether volatile oil?

a) Anise b) Nutmeg c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(16) Which of the following anti TB dug causes pyridoxine deficiency?

a) Isoniazid b) Cycloserine c) Pyrazinamide d) Ethambutol

(17) The USP apparatus used in the in-vitro release testing of transdermal patches is…………..

a) Paddle b) Basket c) Paddle over diskd) All of the above

(18) The source microorganism for Oxytetracycline is …………………….

a) Streptomyces nodosus b) S. fradiae c) Streptomyces rimosus d) S. orientalis

(19) Which of the following drug generally given with Diclofenac after orthopedic surgery?

a) Vecuronium b) Derifenacin c) Chlormezanone d) Suxamethonium

(20) Which of the following drug produce depolarization and persistent depolarization?a) Gallamine b) Trimetaphan c) Nicotine d) Doxacurium

(21) Which of the following receptor is located on circular muscle of eye?

a) NM Receptor b) M3 Receptor c) M1 Receptor d) NN Receptor

(22) Which of the following drug is/are used in poisoning of irreversible Anticholinestearase?

a) Atropine b) Pralidoxime c) Neostigmine d) Both A and B

(23) Which Amino acid directly participates in synthesis of Heme?


(24) Which of the following element of Electron transport chain (ETC) possesses isoprenoid units?

a) Coenzyme Q b) Cytochrome c) Cytochrome B d) Non-Heme

(25) Superoxide is converted to H2O2 by………………


(26) Most active mineralocorticoid hormone is ………………


(27) Tetracyclines are drug of choice for ……………a) Typhoid fever b) whooping cough c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(28) Which derivative of CPcol is more active than CPcol?a) 2-NHCOCH3 b) 2-NHCOCHF2 c) 2-NHCOCF3 d) 2-NHCF3

(29) Imipenem shows highest binding affinity to…………….a) penicillin binding proteins (PBP)-1 b) PBP-2 c) PBP-3 d) PBP- 4to6

(30) Clarithromycin is drug of choice for……………………..a) Legionella infection b) Atypical pneumonia c) Lyme`s disease d)

Whooping cough

(1) Which of the following drug is a specific M3 receptor Antagonist?

a) Methoctramine b) Solifenacin c) Tripitramine d) Oxotremorine

(2) Which of the following drug is used as the urinary bladder relaxant?a) Glycopyrrolate b) Atropine c) Clinidium d) Flavoxate

(3) Which of the following drug is a TXA2 synthesis inhibitor?

a) Ridogrel b) Dazoxiben c) Diazoxide d) Doxazosin

(4) How many no. of Isoprene units are present in Triterpenes?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

(5) Which of the following is also known as Eucalyptus oil?

a) Chenopodium oil b) Dinkum oil c) Both A and Bd) None of the above

(6) Which of the following is used as a source of citral from which β-ionone is prepared?

a) Turpentine oil b) Lemon-grass oil c) Peppermint oil d) Camphor oil

(7) Which of the following is/are the main constituent of Garlic?

a) Alliin b) Allicin c) Both A and Bd) None of the above

(8) No. of peaks in CMR spectra of Resorcinol is ………………

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8

(9) Which of the following is 2nd generation Cephalosporins?

a) Cephazolin b) Cefclidine c) Cefaclor d) Cefixime

(10) When Gaultheria oil treated with 5% solution of vanillin in 90% alcohol it gives which colour?

a) Lemon yellow b) Blood red c) Purple d) Green

(11) Which of the following is the bitter principle of Saffron?

a) Crocin b) Crocetin c) Picrocrosin d) Safranal

(12) Which of the following antimalarial drug is effective against Exo-erythrocytic phase?

a) Quinine b) Chloroquine c) Mefloquine d)

Primaquine

(13) Base peak in Benzaldehyde in the Mass spectrum is at……………..

a) 77 b) 91 c) 105 d) 107

(14) Which of the following drug is used to treat Lennox-gastaut syndrome?

a) Gabapentin b) Tiagabine c) Felbamate d) Topiramate

(15) Which of the following antiepileptic drug cause “spina-bifida” as its teratogenic effect?

a) Lamotrigine b) Carbamzepine c) Sodium valproated) Vigabatrin

(16) Which of the following drug is used in Arrhythmia and as skeletal muscle relaxant?a) Disopyramide b) Quinidine c) Azimilide d) Digoxin

(17) Which of the following diuretic is acting on the Principal Cells?

a) Spiranolactone b) furosemide c) Urea d) Acetazolamide

(18) Ticlopidine is acting on ………………………….

a) P2Y1 b) P2X1 c) P2Y21 d) P2Y12

(19) Which of the following is the atypical antipsychotic?

a) Pimozide b) Reserpine c) Fluphenazined) Loxapine

(20) In a compound there are seen (m) & (m+2) peak of almost equal intensity. It may contain halogen…..........

a) Iodine b) Chlorine c) Fluorine d) Bromine

(21) High vacuum is an important requirement of ……………………….

a) NMR spectroscopy b) IR spectroscopy c) Mass spectroscopy d) Polarimeter

(22) Which of the following is present in the Guggul lipids?

a) Z-guggulesterone b) E-guggulesterone c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(23) Which of the following is/are the adulterant(s) of Guggul?

a) Commiphora abyssinica b) Commiphora roxburghii c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(25) Out of following which one is anti-fungal agent?a) Neomycin b) Fradicin c) Neamine

d) Fradimine

(26) Paromamycin is drug of choice for ………………………..

a) Penicillin resistant gonnorhea b) UTI c) Brucellosis d) Amebic dysentery

(27) Mechanism of inhibition of Hydroxyurea is by inhibiting……………………………

a) Ribose nuclease b) Deoxyribose nuclease

c) Ribonucleotide reductase d) Deoxyribonucleotide reductase

(28) An electro-negative substituent at position-6 in benzodiazepines results …………………………..

a) Increase in the effect b) Decrease in the effect c) Abolishing effect d) No change

(29) Group-I Group-II

A. Halazepam P. Anxiolytic

B. Alprazolam Q. Hypnotic

C. Diazepam R. Anti-depressant

D. Temazepam S. Anasthetic

a) AP BQ CR DS b) AQ BR CS DPc) AS BR CQ DP d) AP BR CS DQ

(30) Pigmentory retinopathy is caused by ………………………....

a) Chlorpromazine b) Trifluperazine c) Mesoridiazine d) Haloperidol

(1) A process designed to kill living micro-organisms to a harmless level is known as_____________________


(2) Chemically Bentonite is________________________



(3) The most commonly used abbreviation BCS stands for_________________________________



(4) The drug used in the treatment of Swine Flu (Tamiflu Tablets) by Roche Company is___________________


(5) Pyrogens can be detected by______________________

a) Fluorescence technique b) Electron microscopy c) LAL testing d) Smear test

(6) The chemical used in hard, rigid hydrophobic lens is_______________________

a) HEMA b) PMMA c) CAB d) Silicon rubber

(7) Which of the following is not a mechanism for filtration type sterilization?

a) Imbibation b) Electrostatic charge c) Alkylationd) Pore Irregularity

(8) Higher is the brittle fracture index, more _______________ is the tablet.

a) stronger b) weaker c) friabled) elegant

(9) Flocculated suspensions exhibit ________________ type of flow.


(10) As per USFDA guideline, Class 100 Clean room contains 100 particles of ______________

a) < 0.5 μm / ft3 b) < 0.3 μm / ft3 c) < 0.5 μm / m3 d) < 0.1 μm / m3

(11) For restricted retail sale of drugs apply in form No. _____________

a) 19 b) 19-A c) 19-C d) 19-AA

(12) The pharmacy Act was passed in __________

a) 1948 b) 1955 c) 1965 d) 1970

(13) If the drug is imported under a name which belongs to another drug, it is considered as ______________

a) Misbranded drug b) Adulterated drug c) Spurious drug d) Drug of abuse

(14) Insulin preparations are usually administered by _______________ injections.

a) Intradermal b) Intravenous c) Subcutaneous d) Intramuscular

(15) Trehalose is used as ___________

a) Tablet disintegrant b) Lyoprotectant c) Gelling agent d) Glidant







(17) Aerosol Evaluation test Description

P) Flash point 1) Standard Tag open apparatus

Q) Density 2) Rotational viscometer

R) Foam stability 3) Pycnometer

S) Particle size distribution 4) Cascade impactor


(18) Disease Test

P) Tuberculosis 1) Mantoux test

Q) Typhoid 2) Widal test

R) Hemophillus 3) Ducrey test

S) Syphilis 4) Treponema immobilization test


(19) For the first order kinetics half life is computed from ___________________

a) 0.105/K b) 0.693/K c) log 0.9/K d) None of the above

(20) The IND is issued before __________________

a) Starting animal trials b) Starting Phase I trials c) Starting Phase II trialsd) Starting Phase IV

(21) Which of the following sugar is an important metabolite in HMP shunt pathway?

a) D-Ribulose b) Xylulose c) Ribose d) Xylose

(22) Which of the following lipid cause diabetes with Hyperlipidemia?a) HDL b) LDL c) Phospholipid d) Triacylglycerol

(23) β-pleated sheet is one of the forms of which of the following protein structure?a) Primary b) Secondary c) Tertiary d) Quaternary

(24) Histones associated with eukaryotic DNA leads to formation of______________________

a) Chromosome b) Nucleotide c) Nucleosomes d) Zygote

(25) Which of the following statement is true for non-competitive enzyme inhibition?

a) Inhibitor binds to E+S Complex b) Inhibitor binds to ES Complex

c) Inhibitor binds to E+P Complex d) Inhibitor binds to E+S Complex and ES complex

(26) Calcitriol relates to________________

a) Vitamin b) Hormone c) Prohormone d) All of the above

(27) Which of the following assay is based on immunochemical reaction of antigen and antibody?

a) ELISA b) RIA c) LUMINEX d) COLORIMETRY

(28) Which of the following is an Anti-oxidant Enzyme?a) Catalase b) Tocopherols c) Hydro-peroxidase d) Aspartate

(29) The molecular formula for cholesterol is____________________

a) C27H46O b) C24H46O c) C20H46Od) C29H48O

(30) Pernicious anemia leads to _______________ resulting in failure of Vitamin B12 synthesis.

a) Lack of intrinsic factor b) Lack of extrinsic factor c) Lack of HCl production d) All of the above

(1) Most alkaloids occur in nature as:

a) Free bases c) insoluble salts of organic acids

b) Water soluble salts d) alcohol soluble salts of organic acids

(2) Anomocytic type of stomata are found in the leaves of:

a) Fox glove b) Cassia accutifolia c) Urginea maritimed)Atropa belladonna

(3) Chinchona alkaloids are present as:

a) Free bases c) salts of meconic acid

b) Free acids d) salts of quinic & cinchotanic acid

(4) Cineole is a terpene belonging to the class of:

a) Diterpene b) Monoterpene c) sesquiterpene d) triterpene

(5) Codeine is:

a) 6-methyl morphine c) 3-methoxy morphine

b) 3,6-dimethyl morphine d) Ethyl morphine

(6) Alkaloids in cinchona bark are detected by:

a) Iodine test b) Thaleoquin test c) Leibermann-burchard test d) Nessler’s test

(7) Colchicine is mainly used to treat:

a) Gout b) cancer c) diabetes d) arthritis

(8) Rauwolfia alkaloid belongs to the class of:

a) Quinoline b) isoquinoline c) piperidine d) indole

(9) In CCF the natural product used belongs to the family:

a) Leguminosae b) Scrophulariaceae c) Apocynaceae d) Solanaceae

(10) Gensenosides having one of the following action:

a) Oxytocic action c) Antitussive action

b) Adaptogenic action d) none of the above

(11) Which of the following glycoside(s) is/are present in Smilax?

a) Smilagenin b) Sarsapogenin c) Both a & b d) none of the above

(12) Which of the following bitter glycoside is/are present in Chirata?

a) Gentiopicrin b) Amarogentian c) Both a & b d) none of the above

(13) Which of the following is the Coumarin glycoside?

a) Quassin b) picroside c) prunasin d) khellin

(14) Which of the following drug contains cruciferous type of stomata?

a) Digitalis b) Datura c) Hyoscyamus d) Senna

(15) Which of the following test is used to detect cotton seed oil as an adulterant?

a) Badouin’s test b) Salkowski reaction c) Schoutenten’s reaction d) Halphen’s test

(1) The weight variation problem in tablets may be caused due to……………………..

a) Change in die fill b) Large proportion of fines c) Differing densities d) All of the above

(2) Moh’s scale is related with

a) Flexibility b) Hardness c) Bulk densityd) Stickiness

(3) Polyplasdone is the trade name of __________________


(4) The thickness of implantable tablet should not be more than……………………..

a) 2 mm b) 4 mm c) 8 mm d) 10 mm

(5) The temperature used for the sterilization of vaccines is............................

a) 70 º C b) 80 º C c) 55-60 ºC d) 95-100 º C

(6) A multiple emulsion is designated as………………………

a) o/w/w b) w/o/w c) w/o/o/wd) w/o/o

(7) One of the following is not used as a sweetening agent in tablet?

a) Neotame b) Sucralose c) Aerosild) Aspartame

(8) Emulsions are defined as thermodynamically unstable systems. The events that follow sequentially towards instability are:

a) coalescence, breaking, creaming and flocculation

b) coalescence, breaking, creaming and flocculation

c) coalescence, breaking, creaming and flocculation

d) flocculation, creaming, coalescence and breaking

(9) An o/w microemulsion is prepared using a hydrophilic surfactant. The appearance of a microemulsion is:

a) Intense white b) Milky white c) Translucent d) Transparent

(10) For an ideal suspension the sedimentation volume should be…………………..

a) Equal to one b) less than one c) more than one d) zero

(11) The storage temperature for aerosols should never exceed……………………..

a) 37 ºC b) 120 ºF c) 100 ºF d) 120 ºC

(12) The preferred method for sterilization for mineral oil injections is………………………


(13) Description Description

P) Castor oil 1) Plastic flow

Q) Conc. Flocculated suspension 2) Pseudoplastic flow

R) Liquid dispersion of methyl cellulose 3) Dilatant flow

S) Pastes of small deflocculated particles 4) Newtonian flow

a) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2 b) P-3,Q-1,R-2,S-4 c) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3d) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3

(14) Pharmaceutical importance of simethicone is _______________

a) Antiadherent b) Antifoaming c) Glidant d) Emulsifying agent

(15) The BCS Class II drugs are ______________________



(16) Pharmaceutical excipients are intended for following purposes except ______________________

a) Pharmacological activity b) Pharmaceutical stability c) Physical solubilityd) Chemical compatibility

(17) Which of the following diluent causes tablet softening upon storage?

a) Lactose b) MCC c) Mannitold) DCP

(18) How many litres of 8% solution can be made from 500 gm of a solid?

a) 1.6 litre b) 4 litre c) 6.25 litre d) 6250 litre

(19) One of the following statements for a generic drug product is not true?

a) Must contain the same active ingredients in the same concentration as the innovator

b) Must contain the same composition of inactive ingredients

c) Must be bioequivalent to the innovator product

d) Generics are offered at significantly lower prices than reference medicines

(20) One of the following statements for Phase I clinical trial is not true?

a) It is initiated only after successful animal studies

b) It is performed on healthy human volunteers

c) It is used to determine the drug safety

d) It is used to establish the drug efficacy

(21) Which of the following pairs has an interaction beneficial for routine clinical use?a) Pseudoephedrine and Aluminum hydroxide gel b) Tetracycline and Milk of Magnesiac) MAO inhibitors and Tyramine d) Chloromphenicol and Tolbutamide

(22) Macrolide antibiotics exert their action by a) Inhibiting transcription b) Alternating the genetic codec) Terminating protein synthesis prematurely d) Post translational modification

(23) A specimen isolated from a patient suffering from septicemia was found to be a strict aerobe. Its culture vial has a characteristic grape like odour and it was susceptible to Carbenicillin. Identify the organism-

a) Pseudomonas flourescens b) S.typhi c) S. aureus d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

(24) The drug regime used in treatment of both intestinal and extra intestinal symptoms of amoebiasis orally isa) Diloxanide & Iodoquinol b) Paramomycin & Mefloquine c) Metronidazole & Diloxanide d) Chloroquine

(25) Which of the following gives positive ferric chloride test?a) Morphine b) Codeine c) Thebaine d) None of the above

(26) Fusidic acid belongs to which of the following group?a) Cyclic dipeptide b) Macrolide c) Tetracyclic triterpine

d) Glycopeptide

(27) Which of the following anti-anxiety agent is an azaspirodecanedione derivative?a) Lorazepam b) Cycloheptadiene c) Meprobamate

d) Buspirone

(28) One of the following drug has activity against herpes virus simplex-I and is used topically. Systemic administration of this agent results in BMD, hepatic dysfunction and nephrotoxicity. Identify the drug.

a) Acyclovir b) Amantadine c) Vidarabined) Idoxuridin

(29) β-phenyl-N-alkyl piperidine moiety is largely responsible for activity in one of the following. Choose the correct one-

a) Bupreonorphine b) Pethidine c) Cycloserined) Amitryptilline

(30) The most common causative agent of bacterial pneumonia is…………………………a) S.aureus b) E.coli c) Streptococcus pneumoniae

d) Mycoplasma pneumonia

(31) p-flouro phenyl acetic acid conjugate, on metabolism, is given by which of the following drug?a) Paracetamol b) Diloxanide c) Ivermectin d) Haloperidol

(32) 2-β(2-chloroethyl)aminoperhydro-1,3,2-oxazaphosphorinane is an …………………a) Anti-metabolite b) Alkylating agent c) Anti-TB agent d) Anti-arrhythmic agent

(33) N-allyl derivative of dihydrohydroxymorphine is…………………………a) Naloxone b) Nalorphine c) Thebaine d) Naltrexone

(34) Enkephalins are ………………………..a) Exogenous compounds used in analgesia.b) Endogenous ligands are pentapeptides that are localized in some nerve endings.c) Endogenous ligands are tripeptides that are present in nerve tissue.d) Endogenous ligands are tetrapeptides that are present in cardiovascular tissue.

(35) Isoxazole ring can be found in which of the following drug?a) Nitrofurantoin b) Primidone c) Mebendazole d) Cloxacillin

(36) For simple (1st order) NMR spectrum value of Δv/j should be………………

a) >10 b) <10 c) >15 d) <15

(37) Which of the following alkenes would have the largest λmax?

(38) The CMR spectrum of an unknown compound shows 4 absorptions and the PMR spectrum shows 4 absorptions. Which of the following compounds is the unknown compound?

(39) Which of the following have highest λmax?

a) CH3F b) CH3Cl c) CH3Br d) CH3I

(40) Value of the Plank constant is ………………

a) 6.625*10-27 erg sec b) 6.625*10-27 joule sec c) 6.241*10-11 erg sec d) 1.602*10-12 joule sec

(41) Characteristic component of Polarograph is …………………..

a) Diffusion current b) Pt.electrode c) Calomel electrode d) Dropping mercury electrode

(42) Diffusion current can be obtained by ………………….

a) Ilkovic eqn. b) Beer’s eqn. c) Hooke’s law d) Lambert’s law

(43) Which of the following is used as Polarographic maxima suppressant?

a) Gelatin b) Methyl red c) Triton d) All of the above

(44) Benzyl bromide gives base peak at …………..

a) 77 b) 91 c) 105d) 107

(45) Dependent variable in Polarography is ……………….

a) Current b) Potential c) Concentration d) Volume

(46) Which of the following drug combinations are highly susceptible to Nephrotoxicity?

a) Enalapril+Hydrochlorthiazide b) Losartan+Hydrochlorthiazide

c) Atenolol+Hydrochlorthiazide d) Amlodipine+Hydrochlorthiazide

(47) A patient of 40-45 year age is suffering from heart failure & hypertension, which of the following is first choice drug prescribed by physician?a) Digoxin b) Irbesartan c) Spironolactone d) Torasemide

(48) Which of the following drug is both L & T type Calcium channel blocker?a) Nimodipine b) Mibefradil c) Verapamil d) Ethosuximide

(49) Which of the following drug is specific B2 receptor Antagonist?

a) Betaxolol b) Salbutamol c) Ritodrine d) Butoxamine

(50) Which of the following drug(s) is/are Potassium channel opener?

a) Nicorandil b) Pinacidil c) Both A and B d) Nebivolol

(51) Desmopressin is selective…………………….

a) V2 Agonist b) V2 Antagonist c) V1 Agonist d) V1 Antagonist

(52) Which of the following drug is Heparin Antagonist?

a) Pergolide b) Protamine c) Methoxamine d) Roxin

(53) Which of the following drug is PPARα receptor Activator?

a) Tolbutamide b) Gemfibrozil c) Rosiglitazone d) Muraglitazar

(54) Which of the following antihypertensive drug produces Rebound Hypertension?

a) Hexamethonium b) Clonidine c) Metoprolold) Prazosin

(55) Which of the following drug is non-depolarising NM blocker?a) Mephensin b) Decamethonium c) Baclofen d) Mivacurium


(57) Which of the following sugar is required for nucleic synthesis?

a) Ribose b) Galactose c) Fructose d) Verbascose

(58) Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?

a) Myristic acid b) Oleic acid c) Valeric acid d) Lignoceric acid

(59) Which of the following amino acid is containing specific functional group DISULFIDE?

a) Cysteine b) Cystine c) Methionine d) Leucine

(60) Which of the following test is used to detect albuminuria?

a) Heat coagulation b) Seliwanoff’s c) Millon’s d) All of the above

(61) Which of the following specific reaction is used to identify the increase in serum bilirubin?

a) Van den bergh b) Fouchet’s test c) Gmelin test d) All of the above

(62) Which of the following test used to assess the completeness of vagotomy?a) Hollander’s test b) BUN c) Sulmen’s test d) Histamine test

(63) Which of the following amino acid is precursor for thyroid hormone synthesis?a) Phenyl alanine b) Tyrosine c) Glycine d) Threonine

(64) Which of the following is an end product of β-oxidation?

a) Acetyl CoA b) Aceyl CoA c) Palmitate d) Oleic acid

(65) Which of the following enzyme deficiency cause lactic acidosis?

a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase b) Lactate dehydrogenase c) 2, 3-BPGd) Hexokinase

(66) Aldosterone is secreted from…………………..

a) Zona glomerulosa b) Zona reticularis c) Zona fasciculata d) All of the above

(67) Which of the following enzyme is responsible for formation of tRNA?

a) RNA polymerase I b) RNA polymerase II c) RNA polymerase III d) Polymerase

(68) Which of the following codon signaling during foetus development causes progeria?

a) UAG b) UUA c) AUU d) CUG

(69) Which of the following is an end product of purine metabolism in humans?

a) Urea b) Uric acid c) Xanthine d) Ammonia

(70) Which of the following immunoglobin is mostly responsible for humoral immunity?

a) IgA b) IgD c) IgM d) IgG(71) Name of drugs Synonyms

1. Nux vomica P) Indian tobacco

2. Lobelia Q) Thorn apple leaves

3. Colchicum R) Meadow saffron

4. Stramonium S) Crow fig seeds

a) 1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q b) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R c) 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q d) 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-S

(72) The bitterness value is determined by comparing the test drug with following drug:

a) Quinine HCl b) Chloroquine HCl c) Quinine sulphate d) Quinine phosphate

(73) Give the name of anti-transpirant Growth Regulator:

a) Gibberellin b) Abscicic acid c) Ethylene d) Auxin

(74) Drugs Families

1. Artemisia P) Combretaceae

2. Myrobalan Q) Leguminosae

3. Black catechu R) Euphorbeaceae

4. Amla S) Compositae

a) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q b) 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-S c) 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R d) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-P

(75) The usual adulterants for clove buds are clove stalk and mother clove. The clove stalk can be identified by the presence of …..

a) Starch grains b) cystoliths c) prisms of calcium oxalated) none

(76) Mother clove can be identified by the presence of……………………

a) Acicular crystals of calcium oxalate b) starch grains c) lignified scleriedsd) both b & c

(77) Which of the following alkaloid is not derived from tyrosine?

a) Ephedrine b) colchicines c) morphine d) papaverine

(78) Ester value really means………………………

a) No. of mg of KOH required to neutralize the free acid in 1 gm of the oil

b) No. of mg of KOH required to neutralize the fatty acids resulting from complete hydrolysis of 1 gm of the oil

c) No. of mg of KOH required to combine with fatty acids which are present in glycerides form in 1gm of the oil

d) None of the above

(79) Glycyrrhiza has all these pharmacological activities except one.

a) antiulcer b) antispasmodic c) anti-inflammatoryd) antidiabetic

(80) Chemical tests Chemical constituents

1. Grignard Reaction P) Flavanoids

2. Shinoda Test Q) Tannins

3. Froth Test R) Cyanogenetic Glycosides

4. Goldbeater’s Skin Test S) Saponin

a) 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q b) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S c) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-R d) 1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q

(81) Which of the following neurotransmitter is involved in Parkinson’s disease?

a) Nor-adrenaline b) Dopamine c) Histamine d) Neuropeptide-Y

(82) Which of the following is not an excitatory amino acid transmitter?

a) glutamate b) aspartate c) glycined) homocysteate

(83) Which of the following drug causes methaemogloninaemia?

a) levodopa b) tolcapone c) prilocaine d) articaine

(84) Which of the following drug is 5-HT 1A receptor agonist and used to treat anxiety?

a) methaqualone b) buspirone c) meprobamate d) zolpidem

(85) Which of the following drug causes Anterograde amnesia as its pharmacological effect?

a) Benzodiazepines b) barbiturates c) tricyclic antidepressants d) none of the above

(86) Which of the following drug is used to treat Pneumocystis carini infection in AIDS patient?

a) Ureidopenicillins b) co-trimoxazolec) loracarbef d) doripenam

(87) Which of the following drug is metabolized by enzyme acetyl transferase?

a) Tetracycline b) cycloserine c) chloramphenicold) capreomycin

(88) Which of the following anticancer drug acts by inhibition of topoisomerase-I enzyme?

a) etoposide b) topotecan c) vinorelbined) mitomycin

(89) Which of the following anticancer drug is irreversible aromatase inhibitor?

a) mitotane b) flutamide c) exemestaned) hydroxyurea

(90) Which of the following drug is used in “rescue therapy” of methotrexate?

a) capacitabine b) fosfestrol c) leucovorind) octreolide

(91) TEVA is mainly known for …………………………..

a) Branded drugs b) Excipients c) Genericsd) Indian drugs

(92) Lipitor is the brand name for ………………………..

a) Atorvastatin b) Atorvastatin Calcium c) Simvastatind) Lipostatin

(93) Which of the following statements for PEG is true?

a) PEG, also known as PEO, has the trade name carbowax

b) The covalent coupling of a therapeutic protein to the PEG molecule is known as PEGylation

c) Higher Mol. Wt. PEG is used as ointment bases and film coatings.

d) All of the above

(94) Which of the following statements for Polymorphs is true?

a) Polymorphs have different physico-chemical properties

b) Milling/micronization operations may result in polymorphic conversion of a drug

c) Addition of Cellulose ether polymers (HPC, MC) may inhibit polymorphic transformation

d) All of the above

(95) How many parts of 10% ointment should be mixed with 2 parts of 15% ointment to get 12% ointment?a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

(96) One of the ex-officio member of the Pharmacy Council of India is……………………….a) Director General of Health Services b) Government Analystc) Registrar of the State Pharmacy Council d) Director General of Indian Veterinary Research Institute

(97) A retardant material that forms a hydrophilic matrix in the formulation of matrix tablets is………a) HPMC b) CAP c) Polyethyleneoxide d) Carnauba Wax

(98) An organism which has been implicated as a possible cause of chronic gastritis and peptic ulcer is………………………a) Campylobacter jejuni b) E. coli c) Helicobacter Pylori d) Giardia lamblia

(99) A new drug delivery system which is composed of phospholipids that spontaneously form multilamellar concentric bilayer vesicles with layers of aqueous media separating the lipid layers is…………………a) prodrugs b) liposomes c) osmotic pumps d) nanoparticles

(100) Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by ……………………(P) Cascade impactor (Q) light scatter decay (R) Karl-Fischer method (S) IR spectrophotometrya) P, Q b) Q, R c) R, S d) P, S

(1) What is an acceptable range for a tablet to pass friability test?

a) 0.5-1.5% b) 02.-1% c) 0.5-1% d) 1-2%

(2) Which instrument is used for Homogenization of emulsion?

a) Wood’s apparatus b) Erweka c) Ultra-sonifier d) Coulter Counter

(3) Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?


(4) One of the following statements for Transdermal drug delivery system is not true.




d) Franz diffusion cell is used for In-vitro release testing of TDDS

(5) Which is the most stringent environment control zone that is required for filling of parenteral?

a) Grey b) Black c) White d) Red

(6) The dose to be given for Intramuscular route of administration is ………………….a) 0.01-0.2 ml b) 2-4 ml c) less than 20 ml d) 500 ml or more

(7) The shelf life (t90) of zero order reaction is calculated as…………………a) 0.1Co / k b) Co / 2k c) 0.105 / k d) 0.693 / k

(8) Which of the following mills are used for sterile products?a) Ball mill b) Colloid mill c) Fluid energy mill d) Both A and C

(9) The causative micro-organism for Syphilis is………………………..a) Bordetella pertussis b) Treponema pallidum c) Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Campylobacter jejuni

(10) Educational regulations are approved by ……………………a) State Government b) Central Government c) Tribunal d) All of the above

(11) Kraft point is the point at which …………………….of the surfactant equals to CMC.a) Lipophilicity b) Hydrophilicity c) Solubility d) None of the above

(12) The Drug Technical Advisory Board consists of following number of Ex-Officio members?a) 3 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10

(13) One of the following statements is true regarding oxygen requirement for Facultative anaerobes (E.coli).

a) Requires oxygen b) Grows with or without oxygen c) Grows best with low oxygen d) Killed by oxygen

(14) The Thermophil bacteria can grow at………………

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bordetella_pertussis

a) 5-25 ° C b) 25-40 ° C c) 40-85 ° C d) 70-100 ° C

(15) In a formulation development laboratory, you have to formulate an oral dosage from containing olive oil, vitamin A and water. Suggest a suitable dosage form.a) Solution b) Suspension c) Emulsion d) Capsule

(16) Yen is the currency of ……………….

a) Japan b) Singapore c) UK d) South Africa

(17) The full form of GRAS is ………………….

a) Generally recognized as safe b) Generic remedies and safety Agreement

c) Government rational approach to safety d) Government relief and services

(18) The regulatory agency of Brazil is …………………

a) EMEA b) TGA c) ANVISA d) USFDA

(19) A patent gives the owner the right to……………………………

a) Make her invention

b) Publish the results of tests using the invention

c) Exclude others from making her invention

d) Collect a monetary award from the government

(20) Combiflam is a combination drug product of …………………….

P) Paracetamol Q) Aspirin R) Ibuprofen S) Diclofenac sodium


(21) Colorcon is a company popularly known for ………………….

a) Branded drugs b) Excipients c) Generics d) Indian drugs

(22) The HPMC (commonly known as Hypromellose) is used in formulations as ……………..


(23) As per ICH stability guidance, Zone I indicates the condition as………………………..

a) Temperate b) Subtropical climate c) Hot/Dry d) Hot/Humid

(24) A number of two digits is equal to 3 times the sum of digits. Find the number

a) 72 b) 63 c) 27 d) 36

(25) The shelf life of a liquid drug is 24 hrs. at 5 ºC. Approximately how long will the drug be stable at 37 ºC?

a) 1 hr. b) 2 hrs. c) 3 hrs. d) 4 hrs.

(26) In Potentiometry curve is obtained by plotting…………………….

a) Emf Vs ml of titrant b) Emf Vs current c) Current Vs ml of titrant d) Current Vs resistance

(27) Which of the following is an inert electrode?

a) Carbon electrode b) Calomel electrode c) Hydrogen electrode d) Glass electrode

(28) 60 mg of NaAc.3H2O (M.W. 136) on titration gave reading 3.5 ml then strength of Karl-Fischer reagent is………...

a) 6.81 mg of water / ml of reagent b) 17.14 mg of water / ml of reagent

c) 23.82 mg of water / ml of reagent d) 10.2 mg water / ml of reagent

(29) Law of independent migration used in Conductometry is……………………….

a) Kohlrausch law b) Beer’s law c) Lambert’s lawd) Hooke’s law

(30) Acetic anhydride is used in Non-aq. Titration ……………………

a) To remove water b) To adjust pH

c) For standardization of HClO4 soln. d) As a solvent

(31) Reagent used for UV-estimation of steroids containing α-ketone is …………………….

a) Triphenyl Tetrazolium chloride b) Bratton Marshal reagent

c) 2, 4-Dinitrophenyl d) Antimony trichloride

(32) Detector used in ESR spectroscopy is ………………….

a) Silicon carbide b) Silicon crystal detector c) Klystron d) Golay pneumatic detector

(33) Primary standard compound for Acetous perchloric acid is ………………..

a) KHP b) Anhydrous sodium bicarbonate c) Benzoic acidd) NaOH

(34) In Gas chromatography for analysis of drugs containing halogens, the preferred detector is ……………a) TCD b) FID c) Gas density detectors d) ECD

(35) Iodine vapours for TLC are used to detect………..…………

a) Carboxylic acids b) Steroids c) Unsaturated compound d) Volatile compounds

(36) Techniques Electrodes

P. Polarography 1. Pt + DME

Q. Conductometry 2. Pt + Pt

R. pH metry 3. Pt + Glass

S. Potentiometry 4. Pt + SCE


(37) In gel permeation chromatography, the molecules are separated on the basis of……………………..

a) Chemical nature b) Size & Shape c) Adsorptive properties d) Partition coefficient

(38) For qualitative analysis in Polarography which of the following is used?

a) Half wave potential b) Diffusion current c) Migration currentd) Residual current

(39) Common indicator used in non aqueous titration is…………………….

a) Crystal violet b) Methyl orange c) Sudan red d) Phenolphthalein

(40) Base peak in Benzoyl bromide in the Mass spectrum is at …………………………

a) 77 b) 91 c) 105 d) 107

(41) Which of the following heterocyclic ring is present in Atorvastatin?

a) Pyrolle b) Imidazole c) Piperidined) Furan

(42) Losartan-An angiotensin II type1 receptor antagonist metabolized to…………….….a) Losartan-5-CH3OH b) Losartan-4-CH3OH c) Losartan-5-COOH d) Losartan-4-COOH

(43) Which of the following drug is a specific coronary vasodilator?a) Verapamil b) Azimilide c) Amiodarone d) Diltiazem

(44) Which of the following amino acid is frequently bound at active site of enzymes?a) Lysine b) Alanine c) Valine d) Serine

(45) Which of the following protein causes Alzheimer disease?

a) Amyloid-β-peptide b) Amyloid-α-peptide c) Amyloid-λ-peptide d) Amyloid-δ-peptide

(46) Which of the following vitamin deficiency causes scruvy?

a) Ascorbic acid b) Nicotin c) Biotin d) Pyridoxin

(47) Which of the following is a major transporter of steroid hormone?

a) Transcortin b) Transferrine c) Ceruloplasmin d) RBP

(48) Which of the following coenzyme is involved in electron transport chain (ETC) process?

a) Coenzyme A b) Coenzyme Q c) Coenzyme H d) Coenzyme V

(49) Which of the following cycle divided into energy investment, splitting and energy generation phase?

a) TCA cycle b) Glycolysis c) Gluconeogenesis d) Urea cycle

(50) Which of the following enzyme is responsible for β-oxidation of unsaturated fatty acid?

a) Isomerase b) Dehydrogenase c) Oxidase d) Thiolase

(51) Which of the following enzyme is rate-limiting in urea cycle?a) CPS-I b) CPS-II c) Arginase d) Hydrolases

(52) Which of the following process is responsible for synthesis of protein from mRNA? a) Transcription b) Translation c) Reverse transcription d) PCR

(53) Which of the following group is responsible for anti-anginal activity of 1, 4-dihydropyridine?

a) Nitrate b) Nitro c) NO d) NH3

(54) Which of the following anti-arrhythmic drug shows pH dependent activity?

a) Procainamide b) Sotalol c) Propranolol d) Digoxin

(55) Which of the following moiety is responsible for binding to angiotensin II type 1 receptor?

a) Acidic tetrazole b) Basic tetrazole c) Neutral tetrazole d) All of the above

(56) Which of the following contains nitrile group?

a) Dipyridamol b) Diltiazem c) Verapamil d) Both A and C

(57) Which of the following is a prodrug of enalapril?

a) Lisinopril b) Enalapril maleate c) Captopril d) Quinapril

(58) Which of the following sentence is true for β-blocker sotalol?a) L-sotalol 15 times more β-Blocker b) L-sotalol 30-60 times more β-Blockerc) D-sotalol 30-60 times more β-Blocker d) D-sotalol 10-20 times more β-Blocker

(59) Which of the following moiety is responsible for α1 antagonistic activity of prazosin?a) 10 amine b) 20 amine c) 30 amine d) 40 amine

(60) Which of the following drug is synthesized by Williamson synthesis?

a) Clofibrate b) Fenofibrate c) Colesevelam d) Probenecid

(61) What is the synonym of SGPT?

a) AST b) ALT c) ALP d) ASP

(62) A lady 30-35 year old, taking Ramipress™ containing ramipril for severe hypertension. Which of the following drug will be prescribed by physician with Ramipress™?

a) Dextromethorphan b) Ibuprofen c) Tramadol d) Telmisartan

(63) Which of the following drug is Bradykinin antagonist?

a) Icarban b) Atosiban c) Icatibant d) Dazoxiben

(64) Which of the following drug causes crystalluria?

a) Metyrosine b) Disulfiram c) Guanithidined) All of the above

(65) Which of the following β-Blocker produces side effect lupus erythematosus?

a) Pindolol b) Proctalol c) Atenolold) Metoprolol

(66) Which of the following central analgesic drug is used as pain killer?a) Trazodon b) Tramadol c) Piroxicam d) Diclofenac

(67) Which of the following drug is used in Raynauld’s disease?

a) Nifedipine b) Captopril c) Clonidine d) Amlodipine

(68) Which of the following β-Blocker is used in glaucoma?

a) Nadolol b)Cartelol c) Oxprenolol d) Betoxalol

(69) Which of the following is used as antifibrinolytic drug?

a) Aminocaproic acid b) Picotamide c) Ticlopidined) Aspirin

(70) Which of the following drug is widely used in supraventricular tachycardia?a) Adenosine b) Warfarin c) MgSO4 d) Mexiletine

(71) Control of Respiratory depression is mediated by……………………..

a) μ1 receptor b) μ2 receptor c) Kappa receptord) None of the above

(72) Naltriben contains which of the following ring?

a) Furan b) Pyrrole c) Thiophene d) Pyridine

(73) Anti-UV erythema activity is associated with which of the following?

a) Mefenamic acid b) Flufenamic acid c) Meclofenamate.Na d) Clonixin

(74) Paracetemol produces Anti-pyretic, Analgesic effect via inhibition of enzyme………………………..

a) COX-1 b) COX-2 c) COX-3 d) COX-4

(75) Primaquine is associated with which of the following side effects?

a) Teratogenic b) Increases QT interval c) Heart blockd) Cyanosis

(76) Largactil® is a trade name for which drug?

a) Morphine b) Cyclophosphamide c) Chloropromazined) Sulperide

(77) Drug of choice in today`s world due to high resistance to other drugs is………………

a) Quinine b) Chloroquinine c) Fosphidomycind) Artemisinin

(78) Adrenocortical suppression is associated with…………..

a) Etomidate b) Ketamine c) Isoflurane d) Propofol

(79) Structure of Carmustine, an anticancer drug is…………………………

a) ClCH2CH2N(NO)CH2NHCH2CH2Cl b) ClCH2CH2N(NO)CH2N(NO)CH2CH2Cl

c) ClCH2CH2N(NO)CONHCH2CH2Cl d) ClCH2CH2N(NO)CON(NO)CH2CH2Cl

(80) Drug of choice for Lennox gastaut syndrome is …………………………….

a) Lamotrignine b) Felbamate c) Tigabine d) Zonisamide

(81) Which of the following anti-TB dug causes pyridoxine deficiency?a) Isoniazid b) Pyrazinamidec) Cycloserine d) Ethambutol

(82) Which of the following penicillins are effective against P. aeruginosa infection?a) Oxacillin b) Naficillin c) Methicillin d) Ticarcillin

(83) Which of the following is/are the endogenous opioids(s)?a) Endorphins b) Dynorphins c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(84) Nitric oxide acts by which mediator?


(85) Which of the following drug is used to treat Lyme’ disease?a) Sulphasalazine b) Clarithromycin c) Azlocillin d) Clofazimine

(86) Which of the following drugs is excreted primarily by renal tubular secretions?a) Gentamycin b) Kanamycin c) Tetracycline d) Carbenicillin

(87) Which of the following tetracycline drug is effective against N. meningitidis infection? a) Rolitetracycline b) Minocycline c) Demeclocycline d) Doxycycline

(88) Which of the following anticancer drug acts by inhibition of topoisomerase-I enzyme? a) Etoposide b) topotecan c) vinorelbine d) mitomycin

(89) Which of the following drug is used to treat Pneumocystis carini infection in AIDS patient?a) Ureidopenicillins b) co-trimoxazole c) loracarbef d) doripenam

(90) µ-opioid receptors are involved in all pharmacological effects except………………….a) Analgesia b) Euphoria c) Dysphoria d) Respiratory depression

(91) As per WHO guidelines which of the following method is used to determine water content of the herbal crude drug?

a) Toluene Distillation b) Gravimetric analysis c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(92) Lycopodium spore method is used to analyze which of the following form of the drug?a) Leaf b) stem c) powdered drug

d) root

(93) Which of the following drug contains glandular trichomes?a) Male fern b) vasaka c) nux vomica d) cannabis

(94) Which of the following herbal drug is used as respiratory stimulant in the treatment of asthma?a) Hyoscyamus b) Duboisia c) Coca d) Lobelia

(95) Which of the following is the main chemical constituent of the Eucalyptus oil?a) Geraniol b) cineole c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(96) How many no. of Isoprene units are present in sesquiterpenes?a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

(97) Which of the following contains Phenolic ether volatile oil?a) Anise b) Nutmeg c) Both A and B d) None of the above

(98) Colchicine is mainly used to treat……………………….a) Gout b) cancer c) diabetes d) arthritis

(99) Rauwolfia alkaloid belongs to the class of……………………….a) Quinoline b) Isoquinoline c) Piperidine d) Indole

(100) Which of the following method is used to extract Citrus oils?a) Hydrodistillation b) Enfleurage method c) Ecuelle method

d) None of the above

Controlled release products are…………………………

a) Modified release products b) Sustained release products c) Delayed release products d) All of the above

The correct non-ionic surfactant used as a penetration enhancer in the preparation of mucoadhesives is…………….a) oleic acid b) tween-80 c) glycerol d) propylene glycol

Guggulipid, a resin is…………………………

a) a hypolipidemic agent obtained from cotton plants containing multifunctional compound ( ± ) gossypolb) a lipid obtained from Arctium lappa, asteraceae and traditionally used for the treatment of dermatosesc) cathartic glucoresin obtained from Ipomoea orizabensis and used since ancient timed) a hypolipidemic agent obtained from Commiphora mukul consisting of a mixture of sterols including Z-pregna-(20)-diene-3, 16-dione

What is the term for a utility patent in India?

a) 10 years b) 15 years c) 17 years d) 20 years

The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction. The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12 hours was 4.10 × 10 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599- 1 œhr

What is the quantity of drug remaining undecomposed after 8 hours?a) 0.455 moles/litre b) 0.25 moles/litre c) 0.0455 moles/litre d) 0.10 moles/litre

What is the amount of drug deteriorated during the period of 24 hours?a) 0.026 moles/litre b) 0.0026 moles/litre c) 0.03 moles/litre d) 0.053 moles/litre

Peso is the currency of …………………………………

a) Korea b) UAE c) Mexico d) Bangladesh

The full form of IIG is ……………………………

a) Indian Institute of Geology b) Indian

c) International Institute of Gastrology d) Inactive Ingredient guide

TGA is the regulatory agency of…………………………..

a) New Zealand b) USA c) Australia d) Europe

The full form of USPTO is ……………………………

a) UN Society for Patient Therapeutic operations b) United States Pharma Trade Organization

c) United States Patent and Trademark Office d)

Alcon is the global leader in ……………………

a) Coating technology b) Transdermals c) Ophthalmics d) Aerosols

Find the next number…………..

If 2+3 = 10, 7+2 = 63, 6+5 = 66, 8+4 = 96, then 9+7 =????

a) 99 b) 144 c) 160 d) 97

In statistics, the value that occurs the most frequently in a data set is known as …………………..

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Range

Indian Patent Act was passed in ……………

a) 1950 b) 1960 c) 1970 d) 1980

All the drug products marketed in USA are listed in ………………………

a) Blue book b) Green book c) Red book d) Orange book

The USFDA is concerned with the regulations of………………………

a) Drugs b) Cosmetics c) Medical devices d) All of the above

How much of 3% ointment must be added to 50 gm of an 15 % ointment to make 10% ointment?

a) 7.15 gm b) 14.30 c) 35.7 gm d) 250 gm

Which derivative of Vitamin B1 gives fluorescence in visible region?

a) Thiochrome b) Thiamine c) Pyrithiamine d) Oxythiamine

The coenzyme not involved in hydrogen transfer

a) FMN b) FAD c) NADP+ d) FH4

Which number carbon differentiates α and β forms (i.e. anomers) of D-glucose?

a) C4 b) C3 c) C1 d) C2

Homopolysaccharides have general formula …………..

a) (C6H10O5)n b) (C6H12O4)n c) (C6H10O6)n d) (C6H10O4)n

Which test is used to check the purity of butter containing good conc. of volatile fatty acid?

a) Reichert-Meissl No. b) Acid No. c) Iodine No. d) Ash value

Which of the following is/are an essential Fatty Acid(s)?

a) Linoleic Acid b) Linolenic Acid c) Arachidonic Acid d) All of the above

Edman’s Reagent is chemically …………………

a) Phenyl isothiopropionate b) Phenyl isothiocyanate

c) Phenyl isopropylbuty rate d) Phenyl Butylpropionate.

Which of the following is nonapeptide?

a) Kallidin b) Bradykinin c) Substance P d) Gastrin

Which of following is present in collagen?

a) 5-Hydroxy proline b) 4-Hydroxy lysine c) 5-Hydroxy lysine d) 3-Hydroxy proline

Nucleoside refers to………………….

a) Base + Sugar b) Base + Phosphate c) Base only d) None of the above

Carbohydrates containing more than 4 % protein are known as ……..

a) Glycoprotein b) Mucoprotein c) Metalloprotein d) Lipoprotein.

Invert Sugar is prepared from …..

a) Dextrose b) Sucrose c) Inulin d) None of the above

The functionally active form of Vitamin D is…

a) Cholecalciferol b) Ergocalciferol c) Dehydrocholesterol d) Calcitriol

Which of the following enzymes requires chloride ions as activators?

a) Lipase b) Amylase c) Trypsin d) Chemotrypsin

Which of the following sugar deficiency cause diarrhoea and flatulence?

a) Maltose b) Sucrose c) Xylose d) Lactose

Which of the following is an unbranched water soluble polysaccharide?

a) Amylase b) Amylopectin c) Heparin d) Hyaluronidase

Which of the following cyclic fatty acid used in treatment of leprosy?

a) Ricinoleic acid b) Sesame oil c) Chaulmoogra oil d) All of the above

Which of the following phosphogyceride possess antigenic property?

a) Cephalin b) Plasmalogen c) Cardiolipin d) Sphingoside

Which of the following is true for an amino acid lysine?

a) Ketogenic b) glycogenic c) Essential amino acid d) Both A and C

Which of the following test used for imidazole ring containing amino acid?

a) Sakaguchi reaction b) Zak’s test c) Pauly’s test d) Millons test

Which of the following form of DNA is a right handed helix?

a) Z b) A c) B d) E

What is the synonym for transfer RNA?

a) Irregular RNA b) regular RNA c) polymer RNA d) soluble RNA

Which of the following vitamin deficiency is caused by Isoniazid?

a) Pyridoxine b) Niacin c) Biotin d) Pantothenic acid

Which of the vitamin widely used in mouth ulcer?

a) Vitamin B-complex b) Folic acid c) Both A and B d) None of the above

Bioflavanoids are known as….

a) Vitamin H b) Vitamin L c) Vitamin P d) Vitamin A

Which of the following is an Antineuritic vitamin?

a) Vitamin B5 b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin B7 d) Vitamin B1

What is the function of peroxisome?

a) Bimerization b) Mutarotation c) Oxidation d) Glycation

Which of the following acid is formed on oxidation of - CHO group of sugars?

a) Glucoronic acid b) Gluconic acid c) Saccharic acid d) Mucic acid

Which of the following deficiency cause Phrynoderma or toad skin?

a) Essential fatty acid b) Non-essential fatty acid c) Proteins d) All of the above

What is the principle Reverse sequencing method detecting amino acid sequence?

a) Enzymatic method b) Chemical method c) Chemical-DNA method d) HPLC

Uric acid is chemically?

a) 2,6-dioxypurine b) 2,6,8-trioxypurine c) 6-oxypurine d) 6,8-dioxypurine

Which of the following enzymes used for detecting glucose in urine?

A) Glucose peroxidase b) Glucose oxidase c) Glucose transferase d) Both A and B

Which of the following lipid possess antihyperlipidemic action?

a) Phospholipid b) Triglyceride c) Glycolipid d) Sitosterol

Proteins are polymer of ………….

a) L-α-aminoacid b) D-α-aminoacid c) L-β-aminoacid d) L-λ-aminoacid

What is the last product of the glycolysis in anaerobic medium?


Which of the following drug should not be given with torsemide?


Which of the following drug is given with fenofibrate to prevent Coronary Heart Disease?


Which of the following β-blocker is used to treat angina?


Which of the following route(s) of administration is used for Epoetin-β?

a) I.M. b) I.V. c) S.C. d) Both B and C

Which of the following anti-platelet drug is PDE inhibitor?


Pompe’s deficiency is caused due to deficiency of ………………..


HMP pathway is also known as…….



Which vitamin’s coenzyme must be required for transamination of Amino acids?

a) VitaminB5 b) VitaminB6 c) VitaminB12 d) VitaminB3

Disposal of ammonia in mammals is by………

a) NH4 b) Urea c) Uric Acid d) NH4Cl

Which of the following is/are example(s) of ketone bodies?


Which of the following enzyme cause phosphorylation of glucose in Glycolysis?

a) Glucokinase b) Pyruvate kinase c) PFK d) All

Which of the following vitamin is known as anti-dermatitis factor?


Melatonin is synthesized from……………. a) Tyrosine b) Valine c) Tryptophan d) Serine

Which arm of the t-RNA is responsible for recognition of triplet codon of m-RNA?a) D-arm b) T¥C arm c) Anticodon arm d) Variable arm

Which of the coenzyme donates sulfate for synthesis of mucopolysaccharides?

a) Phosphoadenosine phosphosulfate b) UDP c) CDP d) ATP

Which of the Non-α-amino acid is intermediate in synthesis of porphyrin?


Which of the following is a central molecule for Glycolysis, Glycogenesis, Gluconeogenesis?

a) Fructose b) Glucose-6-phosphate c) Fructose-6-phosphate d) Glycogen

Bile acid is synthesized from……………

a) Choline b) Phosphatidic acid c) Cholesterold) Triacylglycerol

Elastin & Keratin are……………..…

a) Scleroprotein b) Simple protein c) conjugated protein d) All of the above

Which Amino acid directly participates in synthesis of Heme….


No. of Heme present in Myoglobin is……………..

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Which of the following element of ETC possesses isoprenoid units?

a) Coenzyme Q b) Cytochrome c) Cytochrome b d) Non-Heme

Superoxide is converted to H2O2 by…


BSP (Bromosulphthalein) is used to access the function of…a) Liver b) Kidney c) Heart d)Muscle

Gonadotropin releasing hormone is….


Most active mineralocorticoid hormone is …………….


In Hemolytic Jaundice, Van den Bergh reaction is….


HLB of o/w emulsifying agent is ……………

(a) 3-6 (b) 6-9 (c) 9-16 (d) 15-40

Capacity (in ml) of 000 capsule is ………….

(a) 0.13 (b) 0.30 (c) 0.95 (d) 1.30

Which of the following is not a water soluble antioxidant?

(a) Ascorbic acid (b) Thioglycerol (c) Lecithin (d) Sodium metabisulphate

ICH stands for …….……

(a) Indian Council on Healthcare system (b) Institute for controlling Health Hazards

(c) International Conference on Harmonization (d) International Committee on Harmonization

Various shaped tablets are produced by …………

(a) Convex punches (b) Slotted punches (c) Concave punches (d) Flat punches

Sparingly soluble means …………..

(a) 1-10 parts (b) 10-30 parts (c) 30-100 parts (d) 100-1000 parts

Schedule: “Requirement & guideline on Clinical trials for import and manufacture of new drugs?”

(a) Sch. D (b) Sch. K (c) Sch. V (d) Sch. Y


(a) Type I (b) Type II (c) Type III (d) All of the above

Name Description

P) Sorensen 1. pH scale

Q) Dalla Valle 2. Micromeritics

R) Zanasi 3. Tablet coating

S) Wurster 4. Capsule filling machine


Schedule Description

P) Schedule M 1. Requirements of manufacturing premises

Q) Schedule O 2. Standards for disinfectant fluids

R) Schedule R 3. Standards for patent or proprietary medicines

S) Schedule V 4. Standards for mechanical contraceptives


Sterilization process Biological indicator

P) Filtration 1. B. stearothermophillus

Q) Radiation 2. B. pumulis

R) Dry heat 3. B. subtilis var. niger

S) Moist heat 4. Serratia marscence


Diagnostic tests for syphilis are...........

P) Kahn test Q) Widal test R) Wasserman test S) Schick test

(a) P,Q (b) P,S (c) P,R (d) Q,S

In tablet compression machine the component guiding the movement of the punches is called


Dry heat sterilization cannot be used for ……………..

a) Oils b) Powders c) Surgical dressing d) Metal instruments

Quantitative color estimation is done by...




a) W b) G c) M d) P


a) 62.8 ºC for 30 min. b) 68.2 ºC for 30 min. c) 121 ºC for 30 min. d) 60 ºC for 1 hr.

Diluent used for Spheronization method is……….


What is the working principle of action of Hammer mill?

a) Attrition b) Impact c) Both A and B d) Pressure




Storage condition Description

P) Cold storage 1) Any temp. not greater than 8˚C

Q) Cool storage 2) Any temp. between 8-25˚C

R) Warm storage 3) Any temp. between 30-40˚C

S) Excessive heat 4) Any temp. above 40˚C


Antibiotic Test organism

P) Bleomycin 1) Mycobacterium smegmatis

Q) Chloramphenicol 2) E.coli

R) Rifampicin 3) B. subtilis

S) Chlortetracyclineine 4) S. aureus


Excipient (Trade Name) Purpose

P) Avicel 1) Diluent

Q) Aspartame 2) Sweetner

R) Ac-di-sol 3) Superdisintegrant

S) Aerosil 4) Glidant





P) Clostridium sporogenes Q) Chromobacter prodigism R) B. coagulam S) B. subtilis

a) P, Q b) P, R c) R, S d) Q, S

The official dissolution test apparatus contains cylindrical vessel and the lower edge of the blade is positioned from inside bottom of the vessel at ______________________

a) 20±2 mm b) 25±2 mm c) 18±2 mm d) 25±0.5 mm

The “Soluble” term means ………………..

a) <1 parts b) 1-10 parts c) 10-30 parts d) 30-100 parts

Vesicular systems formed by a mixture of cholesterol & non-ionic surfactant are known as ………………

a) Liposomes b) Microcapsules c) Neosomes d) Nanospheres

Reaction of lactose with amines is known as ………………….

a) Hydrolysis b) Lactolysation c) Maillard reactiond) All of the above

The diagnostic test for “Diphtheria” is ………………

a) Kahn test b) Coombs test c) Dick test d) Schick test

The term “Veegum” stands for ………………

a) Alumino silicate b) Hydrated aluminium silicate

c) Magnesium aluminium silicate d) All of the above

Which test is used to determine the wetting angle?

a) Dew point test b) Draves test c) Cloud point test d) Kraft test

The test organism used in microbiological assay of antibiotic Polymyxin B is …………………

a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa b) Bordetella bronchiseptica

c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Micrococcus luteus

Taste sensation Recommended flavour

P) Salty 1) Raspberry

Q) Bitter 2) Butterscotch

R) Sweet 3) Chocolate

S) Sour 4) Vanilla


The superdisintegrant used in tablet formulation is


Which evaluation parameter(s) is/are considered for floating tablets?

a) Lag time b) Floating time c) Hardness d) All of the above

Which term is adopted by USP for Fast dissolving tablets?

a) Orodispersible tablets b) Mouth dissolving tablets

c) Melt-In-Mouth Tablets d) Orally disintegrating tablets


a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Bacillus pumilus

c) Staphylococcus epidermidis d) Micrococcus luteus

List of drugs that are exempted from certain provision under manufacture are described under the schedule ….

a) C b) D c) E d) K



Which UV wavelength (in nm) gives maximum bactericidal effect for sterilization purpose?

a) 220 b) 253.7 c) 265 d) 320

Instrument Description












Which solvent is used as a binder in the formulation of compression coated tablets?


The micronized form of drug is absorbed faster because it’s …………………. is increased.

a) Surface area b) viscosity c) friability d) All of the above

Maximum amount of flavoring oil that can be added to granulation is ………….

a) 0.1-0.3% b) 0.5-0.75% c) 1-2% d) 2-5%

Type of coating Coating materials

P) Sealing 1) HPMC

Q) Subcoating 2) Carnauba wax

R) Polishing 3) Gelatin

S) Film coating 4) Shellac


Controlled porosity Osmotic pumps possess delivery orifice preferably produced by ……………..

a) Laser b) Microdill c) Modified punches d) None of the above

A pediatric patient requires quicker onset of action of a low dose bitter drug that is having high first pass metabolism. Suggest the most suitable dosage form for effective treatment with patient compliance?

a) Sugar coated tablets b) Transdermal patches

c) Orodispersible tablets d) Enteric coated tablets

Which component is responsible for developing the proper pressure within the aerosol system?


The temp. at which the vapors of the test liquid (aerosol product) ignite is known as ………

a) Flash extension b) Flash point c) Flash projection d) Flame point

In the cold filling process the propellant is kept at what temp. prior to adding into container?

a) -20° to -40°F b) -20° to -40°C c) 0° to 20°F d) 30° to 40°C

The ion exchange resins have been extensively used in tablet formulation for

a) Sustained release b) Taste masking c) Disintegration d) All of the above

Which drying process is used in the preparation of yellow fever vaccine?

a) Spray drying b) Vacuum drying c) Drum drying d) Freeze drying



Which of these is not a characteristic of semipermeable membrane?

a) Sufficient wet strength b) Biocompatibility

c) Good solute permeability d) None of the above



Which of these capsules consists of an animal shell composition?

a) HPMC capsules b) Pullulan capsules c) Ocean caps d) Starch capsules

Which of these coating polymer(s) is/are soluble in the intestinal fluid above pH 6?

a) Eudragit E b) Eudragit L c) HPMC d) All of the above






DEVICE DESCRIPTION

P) Kern Injector 1) Compression of waxy substances

Q) Precompresion stations 2) Implant tablets

R) Fette machines 3) Compression of difficult granulations

S) Chilosonator 4) For dry granulation


Instrumentation Description

P) Nomogram 1) To determine the moisture content of the capsule shell

Q) Toluene distillation 2) To determine the capsule size

R) Accofill 3) Fill exact powder dose in hard gelatin capsules

S) Accogel 4) Filling of dry powder in soft gelatin capsules


Lozenges tablets are used for ……………..

a) Slow dissolution in stomach b) Fast dissolution in stomach

c) Slow dissolution in mouth d) Slow dissolution in intestine

Tablet thickness is measured by

a) Manometer b) Pycnometer c) Sliding caliper scale d) Picometer

Inadequate spreading of the coating solution before drying causes which tablet coating defect?

a) Orange peelingb) Blistering c) Cracking d) Blooming

Abrasive and humectant compounds used in the formulation of toothpaste are

P) Dicalcium phosphate Q) SLS R) Sorbitol syrup S) Tragacanth

a) PR b) QS c) PQ d) RS

The durability of tablets to combined effects of abrasion and shock is evaluated by ……….

a) Hardness tester b) Friabilator c) Screw gauge d) Disintegration test apparatus

Elastomer used in rubber closure formulation is

a) Neoprene b) Butyl stearate c) Titanium dioxide d) Butylated hydroxy toluene

HLB system is used to classify........................


The leaker test (using Methylene blue solution) is performed for the evaluation of ……….

a) Ampoules b) Vials c) Bottles d) All of the above

An antioxidant commonly used in the formulation of a non-aqueous parenteral preparation is……

a) Ascorbic acid b) Thioglycollic acid c) Na-metabisulphated) BHT

Industrial dryer Pharmaceutical applications




S) Freeze dryer 4) Suspension of kaolin




Most commonly used film former in Nail preparations is ……..

a) PEG b) Nitrocellulose c) Castor oil d) Carbopol

Guidelines for Clinical trials, import & manufacture of new drugs as per D&C Act are given under......

a) Schedule N b) Schedule Y c) Schedule Ad) Schedule B

As per Schedule O of the D & C Act the minimum Rideal Walker Coefficient for Grade 1 and Grade 3 Black disinfectant fluids are…………..

P) 18 Q) 10 R) 5 S) 14

a) PR b) QS c) PS d) RS

The USP apparatus used in the in-vitro release testing of transdermal patches is…………..

a) Paddle b) Basket c) Paddle over diskd) All of the above

% Compressibility required for excellent flowability is ………

a) < 1.25 b) 5-15 c) 12-16 d) > 40

The source microorganism for Oxytetracycline is …………………….

a) Streptomyces nodosus b) S. fradiae c) Streptomyces rimosus d) S. orientalis

Browne’s tubes are most commonly used as chemical indicator for………………………

a) Ethylene oxide sterilization b) Heat sterilization

c) Radiation sterilization d) Filtration sterilization

Form No. for issuing license for sale from motor vehicle of drug except that of Schedule C/C1 is……

a) 19 b) 19 A c) 19 C d) 19 AA

The test organism used in Microbiological assay of Rifampicin is....................

a) Micrococcus luteus b) E.coli c) Bacillus subtilis d) S. aureus

The diagnostic test for typhoid (caused by S. typhi) is………………………

a) VDRL test b) Mantoux test c) RIA d) Widal test

Description Related to






Aerosol Evaluation test Description

P) Flash point 1) Standard Tag open apparatus

Q) Density 2) Rotational viscometer

R) Foam stability 3) Pycnometer

S) Particle size distribution 4) Cascade impactor


Disease Test

P) Tuberculosis 1) Mantoux test

Q) Typhoid 2) Widal test

R) Hemophillus 3) Ducrey test

S) Syphilis 4) Treponema immobilization test


A process designed to kill living micro-organisms to a harmless level is known as…….……………


Chemically Bentonite is..............................



The most commonly used abbreviation BCS stands for………………………………….



The drug used in the treatment of Swine Flu (Tamiflu Tablets) by Roche Company is…………………..


Pyrogens can be detected by………………………

a) Fluorescence technique b) Electron microscopy c) LAL testing d) Smear test

The chemical used in hard, rigid hydrophobic lens is…………….

a) HEMA b) PMMA c) CAB d) Silicon vinyl pyroliidone

Which of the following is not a mechanism for filtration type sterilization?

a) Imbibation b) Electrostatic charge c) Alkylationd) Pore Irregularity

Higher is the brittle fracture index, more _______________ is the tablet.

a) stronger b) weaker c) friabled) elegant

Flocculated suspensions exhibit ________________ type of flow.


For restricted retail sale of drugs apply in form No. _____________

a) 19 b) 19-A c) 19-C d) 19-AA

The pharmacy Act was passed in __________

a) 1948 b) 1955 c) 1965 d) 1970

If the drug is imported under a name which belongs to another drug, it is considered as ______________

a) Misbranded drug b) Adulterated drug c) Spurious drug d) Drug of abuse

Insulin preparations are usually administered by _______________ injections.

a) Intradermal b) Intravenous c) Subcutaneous d) Intramuscular

As per USFDA guideline, Class 100 Clean room contains 100 particles of ______________

a) < 0.5 μm / ft3 b) < 0.3 μm / ft3 c) < 0.5 μm / m3 d) < 0.1 μm / m3

For the first order kinetics half life is computed from ___________________

a) 0.105/K b) 0.693/K c) log 0.9/K d) None of the above

Trehalose is used as ___________

a) Tablet disintegrant b) Lyoprotectant c) Gelling agent d) Glidant

IND is issued before __________________

a) Starting animal trials b) Starting Phase I trials c) Starting Phase II trialsd) Starting Phase IV



Moh’s scale is related with

a) Flexibility b) Hardness c) Bulk density d) Stickiness

Polyplasdone is the trade name of __________________



a) 2 mm b) 4 mm c) 8 mm d) 10 mm

The temperature used for the sterilization of vaccines is............................

a) 70 º C b) 80 ºC c) 55-60 ºC d) 95-100 ºC

A multiple emulsion is designated as

a) o/w/w b) w/o/w c) w/o/o/w d) w/o/o

One of the following is not a sweetening agent in tablet?

a) Neotame b) Sucralose c) Aerosil d) Aspartame

Emulsions are defined as thermodynamically unstable systems. The events that follow sequentially towards instability are:

a) coalescence, breaking, creaming and flocculation

b) coalescence, breaking, creaming and flocculation

c) coalescence, breaking, creaming and flocculation

d) flocculation, creaming, coalescence and breaking

flocculation – floccules

creaming – nonuniform distribution of globules

coalescence – globules fail to remain together

breaking – two phases separate

An o/w microemulsion is prepared using a hydrophilic surfactant. The appearance of a microemulsion is:

a) Intense white b) Milky white c) Translucentd) Transparent

For an ideal suspension the sedimentation volume should be

a) Equal to one b) less than one c) more than one d) zero

The storage temperature for aerosols should never exceed

a) 37 ºC b) 120 ºF c) 100 ºF d) 120 ºC

The preferred method for sterilization for mineral oil injections is


Description Description

P) Castor oil 1) Plastic flow

Q) Conc. Flocculated suspension 2) Pseudoplastic flow

R) Liquid dispersion of methyl cellulose 3) Dilatant flow

S) Pastes of small deflocculated particles 4) Newtonian flow


Pharmaceutical importance of simethicone is _______________

a) Antiadherent b) Antifoaming c) Glidantd) Emulsifying agent

In BCS Class II drugs are ______________________



Pharmaceutical excipients are intended for following purposes except ______________________

a) Pharmacological activity b) Pharmaceutical stability

c) Physical solubility d) Chemical compatibility



One of the following statements for a generic drug product is not true?

a) Must contain the same active ingredients in the same concentration

b) Must contain the same composition of inactive ingredients

c) Must be bioequivalent to the innovator product

d) Generics are offered at significantly lower prices than reference medicines

One of the following statements for Phase I clinical trial is not true?

a) It is initiated only after successful animal studies

b) It is performed on healthy human volunteers

c) It is used to determine the drug safety

d) It is used to establish the drug efficacy

How many litres of 8% solution can be made from 500 gm of a solid?

a) 1.6 litre b) 4 litre c) 6.25 litre d) 6250 litre

----

TEVA is mainly known for __________________


Lipitor is the brand name for ____________________

a) Atorvastatin b) Atorvastatin Calcium c) Simvastatind) Lipostatin

Which of the following statements for PEG is true?

a) PEG, also known as PEO, has the trade name carbowax

b) The covalent coupling of a therapeutic protein to the PEG molecule is known as PEGylation

c) Higher Mol. Wt. PEG is used as ointment bases and film coatings.

d) All of the above

Which of the following statements for Polymorphs is true?

a) Polymorphs have different physico-chemical properties

b) Milling/micronization operations may result in polymorphic conversion of a drug

c) Addition of Cellulose ether polymers (HPC, MC) may inhibit polymorphic transformation

d) All of the above

How many parts of 10% ointment should be mixed with 2 parts of 15% ointment to get 12% ointment?a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

One of the ex-officio member of the Pharmacy Council of India isa) Director General of Health Servicesb) Government Analystc) Registrar of the State Pharmacy Councild) Director General of Indian Veterinary Research Institute

A retardant material that forms a hydrophilic matrix in the formulation of matrix tablets isa) H.P.M.C b) C.A.P c) Polyethylene d) Carnauba Wax

An organism which has been implicated as a possible cause of chronic gastritis and peptic ulcer isa) Campylobacter jejuni b) E. coli c) Helicobacter Pylori d) Giardia lamblia

A new drug delivery system which is composed of phospholipids that spontaneously form multilamellar concentric bilayer vesicles with layers of aqueous media separating the lipid layers isa) prodrugs b) liposomes c) osmotic pumps d) nanoparticles

Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by ……………………(P) Cascade impactor (Q) light scatter decay (R) Karl-Fischer method (S) IR spectrophotometrya) P, Q b) Q, R c) R, S d) P, S

----


a) 0.5-1.5% b) 02.-1% c) 0.5-1% d) 1-2%

In a formulation development laboratory, you have to formulate an oral dosage from containing olive oil, vitamin A and water. Suggest a suitable dosage form.a) Solution b) Suspension c) Emulsion d) Capsule

How much of 3% ointment must be added to 50 gm of an 15 % ointment to make 10% ointment?

a) 7.15 gm b) 14.30 c) 35.7 gm d) 250 gm

Yen is the currency of ………………………..

a) Japan b) China c) UK d) South Africa

The full form of GRAS is ………………………

a) Generally recognized as safe b) Generic remedies and safety Agreement

c) Government rational approach to safety d) Government relief and services

The regulatory agency of Brazil is …………………………..

a) EMEA b) TGA c) ANVISA d) USFDA

All the drug products marketed in USA are listed in ……………………….

a) Blue book b) Green book c) Red book d) Orange book

The USFDA is concerned with the regulations of …………………………

a) Drugs b) Cosmetics c) Medical devices d) All of the above

A patent gives the owner the right to ………………………

a) Make her invention

b) Publish the results of tests using the invention

c) Exclude others from making her invention

d) Collect a monetary award from the government


P) Paracetamol Q) Aspirin R) Ibuprofen S) Diclofenac sodium


Colorcon is mainly known for ………………………..


One of the following statements is true regarding oxygen (O2) requirement for Facultative anaerobes (E.coli).

a) Requires oxygen b) Grows with or without oxygen c) Grows best with low oxygen d) Killed by oxygen

The Thermophil bacteria can grow at………………

a) 5-25 ° C b) 25-40 ° C c) 40-85 ° C d) 70-100 ° C



As per WHO stability guidance Zone I indicates the condition as………………………..

a) Temperate b) Subtropical with possible high humidity c) Hot/Dryd) Hot/Humid

Controlled release products are…………………………

a) Modified release products b) Sustained release products c) Delayed release products d) All of the above

Indian Patent Act was passed in ……………

a) 1950 b) 1960 c) 1970 d) 1980

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A number of two digits is equal to 3 times the sum of digits. Find the number

a) 72 b) 63 c) 27 d) 36

Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?


One of the following statements for Transdermal drug delivery system is not true?




d) Franz diffusion cell is used for In-vitro release testing of TDDS

Which instrument is used for Homogenization of emulsion?

a) Wood’s apparatus b) Erweka c) Ultra-sonifier d) Coulter Counter

20

Which is the most stringent environment control zone that is required for filling of parenteral?

a) Grey b) Black c) White d) Red

The dose to be given for Intramuscular route of administration is ………………….a) 0.01-0.2 ml b) 2-4 ml c) less than 20 ml d) 500 ml or more

The shelf life (t90) of zero order reaction is calculated as…………………a) 0.1Co / k b) Co / 2k c) 0.105 / k d) 0.693 / k

Which of the following mills are used for sterile products?a) Ball mill b) Colloid mill c) Fluid energy mill d) Both A and C

The causative microorganism for Syphilis is………………………..a) Bordetella pertussis b) Treponema pallidum c) Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Campylobacter jejuni

Educational regulations are approved by ……………………a) State Government b) Central Government c) Tribunal d) All of the above

Kraft point is the point at which …………………….of the surfactant equals to CMC.a) Lipophilicity b) Hydrophilicity c) Solubility d) None of the above

The Drug Technical Advisory Board consists of following number of Ex-Officio members?a) 3 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10

The correct non-ionic surfactant used as a penetration enhancer in the preparation of mucoadhesives is…………….a) oleic acid b) tween-80 c) glycerol d) propylene glycol

Guggulipid, a resin is…………………………

a) a hypolipidemic agent obtained from cotton plants containing multifunctional compound ( ± ) gossypolb) a lipid obtained from Arctium lappa, asteraceae and traditionally used for the

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bordetella_pertussis

treatment of dermatosesc) cathartic glucoresin obtained from Ipomoea orizabensis and used since ancient timed) a hypolipidemic agent obtained from Commiphora mukul consisting of a mixture of sterols including Z-pregna-(20)-diene-3, 16-dione

What is the term for a utility patent in India?

a) 10 years b) 15 years c) 17 years d) 20 years

The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction. The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12 hours was 4.10 × 10 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599- 1 œhr

What is the quantity of drug remaining undecomposed after 8 hours?(A) 0.455 moles/litre (B) 0.25 moles/litre(C) 0.0455 moles/litre (D) 0.10 moles/litre

What is the amount of drug deteriorated during the period of 24 hours?(A) 0.026 moles/litre (B) 0.0026 moles/litre(C) 0.03 moles/litre (D) 0.053 moles/litre

Peso is the currency of …………………………………

a) Korea b) UAE c) Mexico d) Bangladesh

The full form of IIG is ……………………………

a) Indian Institute of Geology b) Indian

c) International Institute of Gastrology d) Inactive Ingredient guide

TGA is the regulatory agency of…………………………..

a) New Zealand b) USA c) Australia d) Europe

The full form of USPTO is ……………………………

a) UN Society for Patient Therapeutic operations b) United States Pharma Trade Organization

c) United States Patent and Trademark Office d)

Alcon is the global leader in ……………………

a) Coating technology b) Transdermals c) Ophthalmics d) Aerosols

Find the next number…………..

If 2+3 = 10, 7+2 = 63, 6+5 = 66, 8+4 = 96, then 9+7 = ????

a) 99 b) 144 c) 160 d) 97

In statistics, the value that occurs the most frequently in a data set is known as …………………..

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Range

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