upsc preliminary 2020 test no 24 history, geography ... · roopkund – uttarakhand 3. sat tal –...

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KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY FOR CIVIL SERVICES UPSC PRELIMINARY 2020 TEST NO 24 – History, Geography & Environment DATE: 10/05/2020 Test Booklet Series TEST BOOKLET GENRAL STUDIES Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Mark: 200 N INSTRUCTION 1. IMMDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED ONE TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. Please note that it is the candidate‘s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully without any omission /discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet. Liable for rejection. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contain 100 item (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises four responses (answer). You will select the response which you want to mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your response ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet responses to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer sheet as per instruction sent to you with you Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for Wrong Answer: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER MARKED BY A CANDIATE IN THE OBJCTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There— are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the mark assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even it one of the given Answer happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as about that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate; there will be not penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO Address: 1 st Floor, Above Vikrant Cracker Mart, Vinayak Apartment Opp. Ashwamedh Hotel, Kelkar Road, Near Kanya Shala, Near Appa Balwant Chowk, Pune-30. Mob: 9075006644 / 9359405725 www.upscwala.com https://t.me/TheWisdomAcademyPune A

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Page 1: UPSC PRELIMINARY 2020 TEST NO 24 History, Geography ... · Roopkund – Uttarakhand 3. Sat Tal – Himachal Pradesh 4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Kerala Which of the above pairs is/are

KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY FOR CIVIL SERVICES

UPSC PRELIMINARY 2020

TEST NO 24 – History, Geography & Environment DATE: 10/05/2020 Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENRAL STUDIES Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Mark: 200

N

INSTRUCTION

1. IMMDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED ONE TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. Please note that it is the candidate‘s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully without any omission /discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet. Liable for rejection.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contain 100 item (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises four responses (answer). You will select the response which you want to mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your response ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet responses to various items in the Test Booklet,

you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer sheet as per instruction sent to you with you Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for Wrong Answer:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER MARKED BY A CANDIATE IN THE OBJCTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There— are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the mark assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even it one of the given Answer happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as about that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate; there will be not penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Address: 1st Floor, Above Vikrant Cracker Mart, Vinayak Apartment Opp. Ashwamedh

Hotel, Kelkar Road, Near Kanya Shala, Near Appa Balwant Chowk, Pune-30.

Mob: 9075006644 / 9359405725 www.upscwala.com https://t.me/TheWisdomAcademyPune

A

Page 2: UPSC PRELIMINARY 2020 TEST NO 24 History, Geography ... · Roopkund – Uttarakhand 3. Sat Tal – Himachal Pradesh 4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Kerala Which of the above pairs is/are

KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY

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1. Consider the following statements

about the ‘District Mineral

Foundations’:

1. It is a statutory body formed

under the provisions of Mines and

Minerals (Development &

Regulation) Amendment Act 2015.

2. It is funded through the

contributions from miners, to help

the people who are affected by

mining activities.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Consider the following statements

about the ‘Indian Ocean Dipole’(IOD):

1. It is an irregular oscillation of sea

surface temperatures in which the

Eastern Indian Ocean becomes

alternately warmer (positive phase)

and then colder (negative phase)

than the central part of the ocean.

2. The positive IOD causes droughts

in Indonesia and Australia.

3. A negative IOD is associated with

the normal rainfall in India.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

3. Consider the following statements:

1. The main purpose of social

forestry is to cultivate fuel-woods

and fodder plants in order to

prevent deforestation of forest

land.

2. In community forestry though the

plantation done by community,

the protection of these plantations

is the primary responsibility of

forest departments.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following statements

with reference to economic geography

of India:

1. The largest resources in terms of

Gold ore (primary) are located in

Bihar.

2. Major resources of hematite are

located in Odisha.

3. About 92 per cent magnetite ore

deposits occur in southern

sector, especially in Karnataka.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Page 3: UPSC PRELIMINARY 2020 TEST NO 24 History, Geography ... · Roopkund – Uttarakhand 3. Sat Tal – Himachal Pradesh 4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Kerala Which of the above pairs is/are

KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY

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5. Which of the following sources of gas

have been categorized as un-

conventional ones?

1. Coal bed methane

2. Coal mine methane

3. Shale gas

4. Tight gas

Choose the correct option using code

given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

6. Consider the following Himalayan

peaks:

1. Nanga Parbat

2. K2

3. Rakapeshi

4. Kamet

Which of the following options shows

the correct order of these peaks from

North to South?

(a) 1-2-4-3

(b) 2-1-3-4

(c) 3-2-1-4

(d) 2-1-4-3

7. At which one of the following

geographical features the river

Brahmaputra almost takes one of the

largest U turn before proceeding for

its further course?

(a) Namcha Barwa

(b) Bomdi La

(c) Garo Hills

(d) Dafla Hills

8. Consider the following factors with

reference to the Indian monsoon:

1. Strong presence of the Tropical Jet

Stream (TEJ) in upper

troposphere.

2. Anticyclonic situation over the

Tibetan plateau.

3. Locking of maximum cloudiness at

the foothills of Himalaya.

Which of these factor/factors is/are

responsible for the ‘Break in the

monsoon’ in India?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. Consider the following statements

about the Dharwar Rock system of

India:

1. It is made up of igneous debris

and found only in South India

mostly in Dharwad district of

Karnataka and surrounding

regions.

2. It is abundant with metals like

Gold, Lead and Silver however, it

lacks in Iron ore.

3. It is the oldest rock system of

India.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) Neither is correct

Page 4: UPSC PRELIMINARY 2020 TEST NO 24 History, Geography ... · Roopkund – Uttarakhand 3. Sat Tal – Himachal Pradesh 4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Kerala Which of the above pairs is/are

KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY

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10. Consider the following geographical

features:

1. Aravali Range

2. Vidhya Range

3. Chotanagpur Plateau

4. Mahadeo hills

Through which of these the tropic of

cancer passes?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

11. Consider the following description of

a Himalayan pass:

It is located on the Indo-China

border; In ancient time it was

connected to the silk route; It is

one of the three trading routes of

Indo-china trade. It is;

(a) Shipki La

(b) Nathu La

(c) Rohtang Pass

(d) Bomdi La

12. Consider the following pairs:

Water reservoir Location

1. Tsongmo Lake – Arunachal Pradesh

2. Roopkund – Uttarakhand

3. Sat Tal – Himachal Pradesh

4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Kerala

Which of the above pairs is/are

correctly matched?

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

13. With reference to the level of rainfall

in India consider the following

regions:

1. West-Bengal

2. Jharkhand

3. Eastern slope of the Western

Ghats

Which of these regions are fall under

the category of heavy rainfall?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. Consider the following statements

about the land holding pattern in

India?

1. In India, more than 75 %

landholdings are less than 1

hectare and hence are not

economically viable.

2. Rajasthan has highest per capita

operation land holding compared

to other states.

3. Land consolidation cost in India is

seems costlier to farmers which

prevents further consolidation.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Page 5: UPSC PRELIMINARY 2020 TEST NO 24 History, Geography ... · Roopkund – Uttarakhand 3. Sat Tal – Himachal Pradesh 4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Kerala Which of the above pairs is/are

KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY

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15. Consider the following statements

about the ‘Carbon Dioxide Removal’

(CDR) or ‘Negative emission

technologies’:

1. It is a process in which carbon

dioxide get removes from its

source such as coal-fired power

plants and then compressed and

utilizes for other purposes.

2. It does not reduce the amount of

carbon dioxide already in the

atmosphere.

3. Plantation of new trees is one of

the best ways to achieve CDR.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

16. Consider the following statements

about the State Biodiversity Boards

(SBBs):

1. Where the National Biodiversity

Board is a statutory body formed

under the Biodiversity Act 2002,

the SBBs are autonomous bodies

formed by cabinet resolutions of

the respective state governments.

2. SBBs Prepare, maintain and

validate People’s Biodiversity

Register (PBR) in consultation with

the local people.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. With reference to the geography of

India the ‘Karewas’ refers to;

(a) The deep earth layer which is

supposed to be rich of natural gas

and oil.

(b) The fossil rich rock system mainly

found at Vindhyan ranges.

(c) The deposits of sand, clays, silt

etc. which is suitable for saffron

and almond cultivation.

(d) The forest system found at high

altitudes in Nilgiris ranges.

18. With reference to the air pollution

issues the ‘Particulate Matter (PM)

2.5’ and ‘Particulate Matter (PM) 10’

are coming frequently in the news.

The PM10 are inhalable coarse

particles, which are particles with a

diameter;

(a) Between 2.5 and 10 micrometers

(um)

(b) 10 micrometers (um) and above

(c) Only 10 micrometers (um)

(d) Less than 10 micrometers (um)

19. Consider the following places:

1. Coringa

2. Puskar

3. Vembanad

4. Laxmital

Which of the given is/are mangroves

and coral reef sites in India?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Page 6: UPSC PRELIMINARY 2020 TEST NO 24 History, Geography ... · Roopkund – Uttarakhand 3. Sat Tal – Himachal Pradesh 4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Kerala Which of the above pairs is/are

KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY

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20. Which of the following statements

about the Plastic Waste Management

Rules, 2016 is not correct?

(a) It provides for increase in

minimum thickness of plastic

carry bags from 40 to 50 microns.

(b) It revamped the pricing

mechanisms for plastic carry bags

by introducing plastic waste

management fee to be paid by

retailers/street vendors willing to

provide carry bags as pre-

registration charge.

(c) It introduced user charge and

spot fines by local authority.

(d) It is mandatory for seller/producer

to use minimum 100 microns

thick cover or package for

products to facilitate recollection

and recycle of plastic waste.

21. Which of the following pairs is/are

correctly matched?

Convention/Treaty/ Purpose/feature

Protocol

1. The Stockholm - Persistent Organic

Convention Pollutants (POPs)

2. The Rotterdam - Prior Informed

Convention Consent (PIC)

3. UNEP’s Decision – Global legally

25/5 binding instrument

on Ozone

4. Nagoya Protocol – Access and Benefit

Sharing on genetic

resources

Choose the correct option using code

given below:

(a) 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

22. Consider the following cities:

1. Delhi

2. Pune

3. Bangalore

4. Dispur

5. Kolkata

6. Bhopal

7. Chennai

At which of the given cities the

benches of the National Green

Tribunal located?

(a) 1, 2, 5 and 7 only

(b) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 and 7 only

(c) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only

(d) 1, 2, 5, 6 and 7 only

23. Consider the following statements

about the National Adaptation Fund

for Climate Change (NAFCC):

1. It is a central sector scheme under

implementation with the Ministry

of Environment, Forest and

Climate Change as National

Implementing Entity (NIE).

2. The overall aim of the fund is to

support concrete adaptation

activities which are not covered

under on-going activities through

the schemes of state and central

government, that reduce the

adverse impact of climate change

facing communities, sectors and

states.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Page 7: UPSC PRELIMINARY 2020 TEST NO 24 History, Geography ... · Roopkund – Uttarakhand 3. Sat Tal – Himachal Pradesh 4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Kerala Which of the above pairs is/are

KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY

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24. Consider the following statements

about the Global Environment

Facility (GEF):

1. GEF is the designated multilateral

funding mechanism of which India

is the founder member.

2. A member country can seek grants

under the GEF to combat

desertification at local level.

3. The World Bank Group, FAO and

World Wildlife Fund (WWF) acts as

GEF Agencies.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2 only

25. Consider the following statements

about the "Beauty of Sourcing with

Respect Conference":

1. It is joint initiative of UNEP, UNDP

and Intergovernmental Platform on

Biodiversity and Ecosystem

Services (IPBES).

2. Its main objective is to discuss

issues such as ethical sourcing,

Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS),

Biodiversity-based R&D trends,

evolving consumer expectations

etc.

3. 2019’s conference was held in

Manila, Philippines.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

26. Consider the following statements

about the Wildlife Crime Control

Bureau (WCCB):

1. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau

(WCCB) was constituted by

Government of India under the

Wildlife Institute of India.

2. It has its independent special

court to conduct the trails

regarding the wildlife crime.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

27. With reference to environmental

protection, the project PARIVESH is

about;

(a) To provide a digital platform for

expeditious and transparent

system for environment, forest,

wildlife and CRZ clearances in the

country.

(b) Environmental awareness program

being run via ENVIS for citizens of

India under Digital India initiative.

(c) It the initiative of the Ministry of

Environment, Forest and Climate

Change for participation of civil

society in wildlife protection.

(d) It the initiative of The Ministry of

Water Resources, River

Development and Ganga

Rejuvenation for promotion,

innovation and technology

development for water purification

and its conservation.

Page 8: UPSC PRELIMINARY 2020 TEST NO 24 History, Geography ... · Roopkund – Uttarakhand 3. Sat Tal – Himachal Pradesh 4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Kerala Which of the above pairs is/are

KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY

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28. The Justice Party of Madras had

oppose to boycott the council

elections during the Non-Cooperation

Movement mainly because;

(a) They were in oppose to align the

religious cause like Khilafat issue

with national movement.

(b) They thought the movement could

finally lead to mass violence, as

masses are not yet ready for

peaceful agitation.

(c) They felt that entering the council

was one way of gaining some

power which something that

usually only Brahmans had access

to.

(d) They thought that the struggle

against the colonial rule must be

fought on all fronts.

29. The peasant and tribal movements

were failed to fully align with Non-

Cooperation Movement because;

1. Their grievances were mainly

associated with the local issues

which had limitations to connect

them with freedom struggle.

2. Most of their leaders had doubted

the effectiveness Satyagraha and

Non-violence strategy for struggle.

3. The congress was reluctant to

approve their strategies of

struggle, as it was in conflict with

its own strategy.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

30. Consider the following statements

about the BIOFIN programme:

1. BIOFIN, is a green funding

programme, managed by UNDP-

GEF under the Ecosystems and

Biodiversity Team.

2. It is being implemented by Asian

Development Bank, World Bank

and New Development Bank.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

31. The program SAMPATTI -

‘Sustainable Management of Pre-

owned Asset through Trade

Initiatives’ is associated with which of

the following?

(a) Municipal solid waste

management

(b) Bio-Medical waste management

(c) E-waste management

(d) Plastic waste management

32. With reference to the post-

independence history of India, the

‘forward policy’ was associated with

which of the following?

(a) Economic reforms

(b) India-Pakistan bilateral relations

(c) India’s Nuclear Policy

(d) India-China border dispute

Page 9: UPSC PRELIMINARY 2020 TEST NO 24 History, Geography ... · Roopkund – Uttarakhand 3. Sat Tal – Himachal Pradesh 4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Kerala Which of the above pairs is/are

KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY

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33. Consider the following statements

about the 13th meeting of the

Conference of Contracting Parties

(COP-13) to the Ramsar Convention:

1. The COP-13 of the Ramsar

Convention was held in Colombo,

Sri Lanka.

2. The theme of the conference was

‘’Wetlands for a Sustainable Urban

Future”.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

34. C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed

the Swaraj Party within the Congress.

Which of the following was/were their

arguments to return to council

politics?

1. They felt that it was important to

oppose British policies within the

councils when mass struggle

would be not in action.

2. They believed that the existing

councils are not democratic and

need reforms from within.

3. They believed that the real

concessions from British would

only come from council politics

rather than mass struggle.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

35. The British government in England

had appointed a statutory

commission under Sir John Simon to

review and suggest the reforms in

Indian constitutional scheme. The

commission was appointed before its

stipulated time because;

1. The new forces in Indian politics

were now openly demanding for

full independence which led to

political turmoil.

2. The effect of the worldwide

economic depression and

agricultural crisis in India were

making public opinion more

adverse against British.

3. In England, conservative party

thought they would lose next

election and the Labour Party

would be incapable to handle the

issue of Indian freedom struggle.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

36. With reference to the post-

independence history consider the

followings:

1. Bandung Afro Asian Conference

2. Belgrade Non-Alignment Conference

3. Asia Relations Conference

Choose the option which shows the

correct chronology of these events?

(a) 1-3-2

(b) 3-2-1

(c) 1-2-3

(d) 3-1-2

Page 10: UPSC PRELIMINARY 2020 TEST NO 24 History, Geography ... · Roopkund – Uttarakhand 3. Sat Tal – Himachal Pradesh 4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Kerala Which of the above pairs is/are

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37. With reference to consolidation of

Indian union consider the following

statements about the issue of Jammu

and Kashmir accession to India?

1. The ruler, Hari Singh was

reluctant to join either India or

Pakistan.

2. Popular political forces led by

Sheikh Abdullah wanted to join

India.

3. When India raise this matter to

UNSC, USA and UK’s stand were

in oppose to India, however, Soviet

Union did support India’s stand.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

38. Consider the following statements:

1. first Justice Dhar Commission or

Linguistic Provinces Commission

of 1948 and the

2. JVP Committee advised against

creation of states on linguistic

lines.

3. The JVP Commission

recommended that, the security

and economic development of the

nation should be the basis for

State formation.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

39. Which of the following was/were the

arguments of those who were

demanding state reorganization on

linguistic lines?

1. Many feared that Hindi language

would dominate local political and

social course.

2. The path to politics and power

would be dominated by small

English speaking elite.

3. Administration and politics should

take place in the language that

masses understand.

Choose the correct option from below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

40. Consider the following statements

about the Suez Canal crisis of 1956:

1. The Suez was nationalized by

Naseer in 1956 and this made UK

and France apprehensive and they

demanded international control

over it.

2. India condemned Attack on Egypt

but did support the international

control over Suez.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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41. Consider the following statements

about ‘Panchsheel’ doctrine:

1. The Panchsheel doctrine

influenced from Buddhism.

2. Non-Alignment was the corner

stone of the doctrine.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

42. Who among the following was

disapproved with congress policies

and formed the ‘Kisan Mazdoor Praja

Party’?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) J B Kriplani

(c) Acharya Narendra Dev

(d) Jayaprakash Narayan

43. Consider the following statements

about the Socialist Party?

1. Lohia formed Socialist Party and

took a militant approach and

resorted to strikes, agitations and

civil disobedience.

2. Main agendas of the Socialist

Party were immediate substitution

of English with Hindi.

3. It opposed the gender based and

caste based reservation policy.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of the statements are correct

44. Consider the following statements

about the Mizoram Peace Accord,

1986:

1. It was an official agreement among

the Government of India, the

Tripura National Volunteer and

People's Liberation Army of

Manipur to end insurgency and

violence in Mizoram.

2. Indian government accepted the

demand about the concurrence of

Mizoram state legislative assembly

to the Act of Indian Parliament for

its application in the state.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

45. From the Sixth century CE onwards,

finds of gold coins become rare.

Which of the following was/were the

possible cause/causes for that?

1. The rulers of Western Roman

Empire had put several

restrictions on trade with India to

save their depleting gold reserve.

2. The new towns and networks of

trade started emerging around this

time, which probably had been led

to circulation of gold coins rather

than being hoarded.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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46. Consider the following Harrapan

sites:

1. Mitathal

2. Ganweriwala

3. Siswal

4. Dumb Sadaat

Which among these sites are located

in India?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

47. Among the sixteen Mahajanpadas

why Magadha was emerged as so

much powerful?

1. Monopoly over the Iron mines gave

them decisive lead in defence and

economic sector.

2. More intelligent and Nobel rulers

were born in Magadha.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

48. With reference to the aspects of

Sufism that developed in India the

idea of tariqa/tariqah is;

(a) A reference made to the temporal

world and its possession.

(b) A term used for mention of afterlife

(c) A Sufi school or order which has

specific tradition to reach the

‘ultimate truth’.

(d) Musical and dance sessions

holding at Khanqah

49. Consider the following statements

about the Amir Khusro:

1. He has been called the "father of

Urdu literature."

2. He was contemporary to Sultan

Ghiyas ud-Din Balban.

3. His best known work is the epic

poem Padmavat.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

50. Consider the following statements

about the Battle of Haldighati:

1. The Battle of Haldighati was

fought between Maharana Pratap

and Akbar's forces led by Man

Singh I of Amer.

2. This battle decisively end the

Ranapratap’s hold on Mewar.

Which of the given statements above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

51. Which of the following Harappan

settlement was almost exclusively

devoted to craft production?

(a) Harappa

(b) Mohenjodaro

(c) Chanhudaro

(d) Lothal

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52. Which of following is/are incorrect?

1. Bhoodan movement was initiated

by first PM of India, Pandit

Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951.

2. Bhoodan movement was an

attempt to persuade wealthy

landowners to voluntarily give a

percentage of their land to the

landless people.

Choose the correct option from below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above

53. Chauri-Chaura incident was

associated with which of the following

movement in Indian National

Freedom Movement?

(a) Anti-Partition Movement

(b) Non-Cooperation Movement

(c) Civil Disobedience Movement

(d) Quit India Movement

54. Who among the following led about

2500 marchers on Dharasana Salt

Works during Gandhiji’s Dandi

march?

(a) Sarojini Naidu

(b) Sardar Patel

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) Subhash Chandra Bose

55. ‘Battle of Gajendragad’ was fought

between which of following?

(a) Marathas & British.

(b) Marathas & Tipu Sultan

(c) Ajputs & Tipu Sultan

(d) Rajputs & Nawab of Bengal

56. Which of following is correct with

respect to the partition of Bengal in

1905?

(a) Nawab Khawaja Sllimullah

Bahadur was the Nawaab of

Dhaka.

(b) Lord Curzon was the viceroy of

India.

(c) Bothe (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

57. Which of the following ranges meet at

the Pamir Knot?

1. Hindu Kush

2. Kunlun Mountains

3. Sulaiman Ranges

4. Karakoran Ranges

Choose the correct option from below:

(a) 1 & 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) All of the above

58. Which of the following is the largest

tributary of river Brahmaputra?

(a) Subansiri

(b) Dihang

(c) Dibhang

(d) Teesta

59. Which of the following is the deepest

port inn India?

(a) Mumbai

(b) Cochin

(c) Gangavaram

(d) Vishakhapatnam

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60. When ocean water freezes in the polar

regions, what of the following

happens to the salt present in it?

(a) Salts form a layer on top of ice

formed.

(b) Salts sink to the bottom of

remaing water.

(c) Salt remain in the subsurface

water that does not freeze.

(d) Salts vapourise.

61. Which of following is/are correct with

respect to thermal equator?

1. It is found in North of

Geographical equator.

2. It is found in south of geographical

equator.

3. It is a belt encircling earth having

lowest mean annual temperature.

Choose the correct option from below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) None of the above

62. Consider the following statements.

1. The boundaries of a National Park

are defined by legislation.

2. A Biosphere reserve is declared too

conserve a few specific species of

flora & fauna.

3. In a wildlife sanctuary, limited

biotic interference is permitted.

Which of above statements is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

63. Match the following:

1. Bandipore National Park i. Rajasthan

2. Simlipal Tiger Reserve ii. Kerala

3. Periyar National Park iii. Odisha

4. Sariska National Park iv. Karnatka

(a) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i

(b) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv

(c) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii

(d) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii

64. What is necessarily true for an

ecosystem to develop?

(a) Primary consumers are least

dependent upon producers.

(b) Primary consumers out-number

producers.

(c) Producers are more than primary

consumers

(d) Secondary consumers are largest

& most powerful.

65. Bhopal gas tragedy was caused due

to release of which of the following

gas?

(a) Methyl isocyanate

(b) Potassium isothiocyanate

(c) Sodium isothiocyanate

(d) Ethyl isocyanate

66. Which of the following is correctly

matched?

(a) Basal Convention – Biodiversity

conservation

(b) Kyoto Protocol – Climate change

(c) Montreal Protocol – Global

warming

(d) Ramsar Convention – Ground

water pollution

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67. Which of following is/are correct with

respect to Jim Corbett National Park?

1. It is the oldest National Park of

India.

2. It is was first named as Haile

National Park

Choose the correct option from below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both are correct

(d) Both are wrong.

68. ‘Noor’ recently in news relates to

which of the following?

(a) It is project to develop handicraft

industry by India

(b) It is the first military satellite

launched by Iran.

(c) IT is name given by Pakistan to its

Covid-19 awareness campaign

(d) None of the above

69. ‘Swamita Program’ in news is related

to which of following?

(a) Ascertaining the ownership of land

rights of the tribes in forest areas.

(b) Subsidy scheme of Ministry of

Fisheries, GoI for small fishermen,

to purchase fishing boats.

(c) Program for mapping of rural

housing & land holdings via

technology including drones.

(d) Scheme of NABARD to distribute

sewing machines to the women in

BPL families in rural areas.

70. Consider the following statements

with reference to crop seasons in

India:

1. India has three major cropping

seasons called Kharif, Rabi and

Zaid.

2. Watermelon, Toris, Cucumber are

some example of Zaid Kharif crop.

3. The agricultural crop year in India

is from July to June.

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

71. Consider the following statements

regarding Heat Budget of Earth:

1. Earth is gradually heating over the

years and adding to Global

Warming due to Heat Budget.

2. Albedo can be defined as a

measure of how much light that

hits a surface is absorbed without

being reflected back.

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

72. Which of the following theories is

related to the Origin of the Universe?

(a) Nebular Hypothesis

(b) Binary theory

(c) Chamberlain and Moulton theory

(d) Hoyle’s concept of steady-state

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73. Consider the following statements:

1. The transfer of heat through

vertical movement of air is called

advection.

2. Due to convection process,

northern India experiences local

winds called ‘loo’ during summer

season.

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

74. Which among the following is not a

source of energy that drives the

endogenetic processes?

(a) Rotational and Tidal Friction of

Earth

(b) Ultimate energy from the sun

(c) Primordial heat from Earth’s origin

(d) Radioactivity

75. Consider the following statements

regarding the circulation of planetary

winds:

1. The planetary winds deflect

according to the Ferrel’s Law.

2. Westerlies blow from Subpolar

pressure belts to sub-tropical

belts.

3. Polar easterlies blow towards the

poles.

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

76. Hanta virus which causes

hemorrhagic fever with renal

syndrome spreads through which of

following?

(a) Bats

(b) Rats

(c) Chicken

(d) Sheep

77. Consider the following:

1. Increase in inorganic nutrients

2. Fresh water dilution

3. Sedimentation

4. Subaerial exposure

5. Xenobiotic

Which of the above cause coral

bleaching?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

78. Which of the following species are

mentioned under Schedule 1 of the

Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972?

1. Nilgiri Tahr

2. Dugong

3. Pitcher Plant

4. Barking Deer

5. Black Buck

6. Kashmir Stag

Select the correct answer using the

code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

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79. Which of the following water bodies

belong to the category of inland

wetland?

1. Lagoons

2. Ox-bow lakes

3. Ponds

4. Estuaries

5. Creeks

Select the correct answer using the

code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 4 and 5 only

80. Consider the following stages:

1. Nutrient load up

2. Algal blooms

3. Plants flourish

4. Decomposition of dead plants

5. Death of ecosystem

Which of the following sequences

represents the correct order for the

process of eutrophication?

(a) 2-1-3-4-5

(b) 1-3-2-4-5

(c) 1-2-3-4-5

(d) 2-4-1-3-5

81. Which one of the following dramas of

ancient India deals with the love

affair of a poor Brahmana with the

daughter of a courtesan?

(a) Abhijnanashakuntalam

(b) Mrichchhakaktika

(c) Malavikagnimitra

(d) Vikramorvashi

82. Consider the following statements

about the Hoysala Temple

Architecture:

1. The principle sites where temples

were constructed were at Belur,

Halebid and Pattadakkal.

2. The temples usually followed the

Panchayatan style.

3. There was use of soft stone as the

building material.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

83. Consider the following abstract:

“He was a great conqueror, extending

his kingdom to as far as parts of Sri

Lanka. The river Tungabadhra

became his northern boundary. He

assumed the title of Kadaram Kondan

after his naval expedition to Kadaram

or Sri Vijaya.’’

Select the correct ruler with whom

these achievements are associated

with:

(a) Kulottunga II

(b) Narasimhavarman I

(c) Bhaskararavivarman

(d) Rajendra I

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84. Shahna, appointed during the reign

of Allauddin Khalji was responsible

for which of the following?

(a) He headed the military

department.

(b) He was responsible for revenue

collection.

(c) He headed the communications

department.

(d) He headed the markets created by

Allauddin Khalji.

85. Consider the following statements

about the philosophical systems in

Ancient India:

1. The Nyaya Philosophy developed

as a system of logic.

2. The Vaisheshika School

propounded the atom theory,

believing that all material objects

are made up of atoms.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

86. Which of the following is not a factor

that resulted in India’s decision of not

joining the Regional Comprehensive

Economic Partnership (RCEP)?

(a) Huge trade deficit with RCEP

members.

(b) Indian investors are investing in

RCEP countries instead of India.

(c) Concerns of dairy farmers.

(d) Data localisation rules.

87. Consider the following statements

about the Missile Technology Control

Regime:

1. It is a legally binding treaty.

2. Its membership allows a country

to import missiles, drones and

technology associated with

delivery of weapon of mass

destruction (WMD) from other

member countries.

3. India is not a member of this

group.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

88. Consider the following statements

about the International Organization

for Migration (IOM):

1. It was established after World

War-II to resettle refugees from

Europe.

2. It annually releases the World

Migration Report (WMR).

3. India is not a member of this

organization.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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89. ‘Incheon Strategy’ is associated with

which of the following?

(a) Make in India

(b) Digital India

(c) Accessible India Campaign

(d) Stand up India

90. Which of the following statements

defines the term Climate Neutrality,

often seen in the news?

(a) A state in which animal and plant

species are not affected by the

climate change.

(b) Countries which remain

unaffected by global warming.

(c) Countries which have a neutral

opinion regarding climate change.

(d) A state in which a country’s

emissions are balanced by

absorptions and removal of

greenhouse gases from the

atmosphere.

91. Consider the following statements

regarding RESPOND (Sponsored

Research) programme, sometimes in

the news:

1. Under it, ISRO will set up five

Space Technology Cells at premier

institutes.

2. Under it, the rich talent of

Academia/Faculty is being

harnessed to support the Nation’s

Space programme.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

92. Consider the following statements

about invoking Section 144 of the

Criminal Procedure Code (Cr PC):

1. Section 144 of the Cr PC can be

invoked only by Judicial

Magistrates.

2. Section 144 of the Cr PC can be

invoked when there is threat to

public peace, security or law and

order in a particular area.

3. The power to block

telecommunications, including use

of internet has been provided only

under Section 144 of the Cr PC.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None of the above

93. “Secure 20 by 2020" was started by

12 snow leopard countries under the

Bishkek Declaration. Which of the

following countries are parts of this

initiative?

1. India

2. Kazakhstan

3. Mongolia

4. Turkey

Select the correct answer using the

code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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94. The ‘Senkaku-Diaoyu’ islands is

sometimes in the news in the context

of a conflict between

(a) Russia and Japan

(b) China and the Philippines

(c) South Korea and North Korea

(d) China and Japan

95. Consider the following statements

with reference to ‘Industry 4.0’:

1. It includes the Internet of Things

(IoT), Autonomous robots and

Augmented Reality.

2. India has become the first country

in the world where the World

Economic Forum has opened its

centre for the Fourth Industrial

Revolution.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

96. Sabki Yojana Sabka Vikas, recently in

the news, is related to which of the

following?

(a) Gram Panchayat Development

Plan

(b) Scheme to launch the Common

Utility Card

(c) New initiative of social audit

(d) Initiative to increase awareness

and participation of tribals in

various schemes

97. India has signed the ‘Vienna

Agreement’, ‘Nice Agreement’ and

‘Locarno Agreement' in order to

comply with the obligations of

(a) ILO

(b) WTO

(c) WIPO

(d) UNCTAD

98. The principles like ‘Confidence

Building Measures’, ‘development of

preventive diplomacy’ and

‘elaboration of approaches to

conflicts’ are related to which of the

following organisation?

(a) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

(b) ASEAN Regional Forum

(c) SAARC

(d) European Union

99. Which among the following best

describes the term "Currency War",

which was in news recently?

(a) Competitive Depreciation

(b) Competitive Appreciation

(c) Competitive Devaluation

(d) Competitive Revaluation

100. Which of the following countries

recently launched world’s first

floating nuclear reactor?

(a) Sweden

(b) China

(c) France

(d) Russia