upsc preliminary 2020 test no 24 history, geography ... · roopkund – uttarakhand 3. sat tal –...
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KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY FOR CIVIL SERVICES
UPSC PRELIMINARY 2020
TEST NO 24 – History, Geography & Environment DATE: 10/05/2020 Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
GENRAL STUDIES Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Mark: 200
N
INSTRUCTION
1. IMMDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED ONE TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate‘s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully without any omission /discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet. Liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contain 100 item (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises four responses (answer). You will select the response which you want to mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your response ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet responses to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer sheet as per instruction sent to you with you Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for Wrong Answer:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER MARKED BY A CANDIATE IN THE OBJCTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There— are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the mark assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even it one of the given Answer happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as about that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate; there will be not penalty for that question.
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A
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KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY
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1. Consider the following statements
about the ‘District Mineral
Foundations’:
1. It is a statutory body formed
under the provisions of Mines and
Minerals (Development &
Regulation) Amendment Act 2015.
2. It is funded through the
contributions from miners, to help
the people who are affected by
mining activities.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following statements
about the ‘Indian Ocean Dipole’(IOD):
1. It is an irregular oscillation of sea
surface temperatures in which the
Eastern Indian Ocean becomes
alternately warmer (positive phase)
and then colder (negative phase)
than the central part of the ocean.
2. The positive IOD causes droughts
in Indonesia and Australia.
3. A negative IOD is associated with
the normal rainfall in India.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
3. Consider the following statements:
1. The main purpose of social
forestry is to cultivate fuel-woods
and fodder plants in order to
prevent deforestation of forest
land.
2. In community forestry though the
plantation done by community,
the protection of these plantations
is the primary responsibility of
forest departments.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Consider the following statements
with reference to economic geography
of India:
1. The largest resources in terms of
Gold ore (primary) are located in
Bihar.
2. Major resources of hematite are
located in Odisha.
3. About 92 per cent magnetite ore
deposits occur in southern
sector, especially in Karnataka.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY
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5. Which of the following sources of gas
have been categorized as un-
conventional ones?
1. Coal bed methane
2. Coal mine methane
3. Shale gas
4. Tight gas
Choose the correct option using code
given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. Consider the following Himalayan
peaks:
1. Nanga Parbat
2. K2
3. Rakapeshi
4. Kamet
Which of the following options shows
the correct order of these peaks from
North to South?
(a) 1-2-4-3
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 3-2-1-4
(d) 2-1-4-3
7. At which one of the following
geographical features the river
Brahmaputra almost takes one of the
largest U turn before proceeding for
its further course?
(a) Namcha Barwa
(b) Bomdi La
(c) Garo Hills
(d) Dafla Hills
8. Consider the following factors with
reference to the Indian monsoon:
1. Strong presence of the Tropical Jet
Stream (TEJ) in upper
troposphere.
2. Anticyclonic situation over the
Tibetan plateau.
3. Locking of maximum cloudiness at
the foothills of Himalaya.
Which of these factor/factors is/are
responsible for the ‘Break in the
monsoon’ in India?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Consider the following statements
about the Dharwar Rock system of
India:
1. It is made up of igneous debris
and found only in South India
mostly in Dharwad district of
Karnataka and surrounding
regions.
2. It is abundant with metals like
Gold, Lead and Silver however, it
lacks in Iron ore.
3. It is the oldest rock system of
India.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither is correct
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KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY
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10. Consider the following geographical
features:
1. Aravali Range
2. Vidhya Range
3. Chotanagpur Plateau
4. Mahadeo hills
Through which of these the tropic of
cancer passes?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
11. Consider the following description of
a Himalayan pass:
It is located on the Indo-China
border; In ancient time it was
connected to the silk route; It is
one of the three trading routes of
Indo-china trade. It is;
(a) Shipki La
(b) Nathu La
(c) Rohtang Pass
(d) Bomdi La
12. Consider the following pairs:
Water reservoir Location
1. Tsongmo Lake – Arunachal Pradesh
2. Roopkund – Uttarakhand
3. Sat Tal – Himachal Pradesh
4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Kerala
Which of the above pairs is/are
correctly matched?
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
13. With reference to the level of rainfall
in India consider the following
regions:
1. West-Bengal
2. Jharkhand
3. Eastern slope of the Western
Ghats
Which of these regions are fall under
the category of heavy rainfall?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
14. Consider the following statements
about the land holding pattern in
India?
1. In India, more than 75 %
landholdings are less than 1
hectare and hence are not
economically viable.
2. Rajasthan has highest per capita
operation land holding compared
to other states.
3. Land consolidation cost in India is
seems costlier to farmers which
prevents further consolidation.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY
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15. Consider the following statements
about the ‘Carbon Dioxide Removal’
(CDR) or ‘Negative emission
technologies’:
1. It is a process in which carbon
dioxide get removes from its
source such as coal-fired power
plants and then compressed and
utilizes for other purposes.
2. It does not reduce the amount of
carbon dioxide already in the
atmosphere.
3. Plantation of new trees is one of
the best ways to achieve CDR.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
16. Consider the following statements
about the State Biodiversity Boards
(SBBs):
1. Where the National Biodiversity
Board is a statutory body formed
under the Biodiversity Act 2002,
the SBBs are autonomous bodies
formed by cabinet resolutions of
the respective state governments.
2. SBBs Prepare, maintain and
validate People’s Biodiversity
Register (PBR) in consultation with
the local people.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. With reference to the geography of
India the ‘Karewas’ refers to;
(a) The deep earth layer which is
supposed to be rich of natural gas
and oil.
(b) The fossil rich rock system mainly
found at Vindhyan ranges.
(c) The deposits of sand, clays, silt
etc. which is suitable for saffron
and almond cultivation.
(d) The forest system found at high
altitudes in Nilgiris ranges.
18. With reference to the air pollution
issues the ‘Particulate Matter (PM)
2.5’ and ‘Particulate Matter (PM) 10’
are coming frequently in the news.
The PM10 are inhalable coarse
particles, which are particles with a
diameter;
(a) Between 2.5 and 10 micrometers
(um)
(b) 10 micrometers (um) and above
(c) Only 10 micrometers (um)
(d) Less than 10 micrometers (um)
19. Consider the following places:
1. Coringa
2. Puskar
3. Vembanad
4. Laxmital
Which of the given is/are mangroves
and coral reef sites in India?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
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KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY
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20. Which of the following statements
about the Plastic Waste Management
Rules, 2016 is not correct?
(a) It provides for increase in
minimum thickness of plastic
carry bags from 40 to 50 microns.
(b) It revamped the pricing
mechanisms for plastic carry bags
by introducing plastic waste
management fee to be paid by
retailers/street vendors willing to
provide carry bags as pre-
registration charge.
(c) It introduced user charge and
spot fines by local authority.
(d) It is mandatory for seller/producer
to use minimum 100 microns
thick cover or package for
products to facilitate recollection
and recycle of plastic waste.
21. Which of the following pairs is/are
correctly matched?
Convention/Treaty/ Purpose/feature
Protocol
1. The Stockholm - Persistent Organic
Convention Pollutants (POPs)
2. The Rotterdam - Prior Informed
Convention Consent (PIC)
3. UNEP’s Decision – Global legally
25/5 binding instrument
on Ozone
4. Nagoya Protocol – Access and Benefit
Sharing on genetic
resources
Choose the correct option using code
given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
22. Consider the following cities:
1. Delhi
2. Pune
3. Bangalore
4. Dispur
5. Kolkata
6. Bhopal
7. Chennai
At which of the given cities the
benches of the National Green
Tribunal located?
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 7 only
(b) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 and 7 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
(d) 1, 2, 5, 6 and 7 only
23. Consider the following statements
about the National Adaptation Fund
for Climate Change (NAFCC):
1. It is a central sector scheme under
implementation with the Ministry
of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change as National
Implementing Entity (NIE).
2. The overall aim of the fund is to
support concrete adaptation
activities which are not covered
under on-going activities through
the schemes of state and central
government, that reduce the
adverse impact of climate change
facing communities, sectors and
states.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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KUKAN’s WISDOM ACADEMY
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24. Consider the following statements
about the Global Environment
Facility (GEF):
1. GEF is the designated multilateral
funding mechanism of which India
is the founder member.
2. A member country can seek grants
under the GEF to combat
desertification at local level.
3. The World Bank Group, FAO and
World Wildlife Fund (WWF) acts as
GEF Agencies.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 only
25. Consider the following statements
about the "Beauty of Sourcing with
Respect Conference":
1. It is joint initiative of UNEP, UNDP
and Intergovernmental Platform on
Biodiversity and Ecosystem
Services (IPBES).
2. Its main objective is to discuss
issues such as ethical sourcing,
Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS),
Biodiversity-based R&D trends,
evolving consumer expectations
etc.
3. 2019’s conference was held in
Manila, Philippines.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
26. Consider the following statements
about the Wildlife Crime Control
Bureau (WCCB):
1. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
(WCCB) was constituted by
Government of India under the
Wildlife Institute of India.
2. It has its independent special
court to conduct the trails
regarding the wildlife crime.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
27. With reference to environmental
protection, the project PARIVESH is
about;
(a) To provide a digital platform for
expeditious and transparent
system for environment, forest,
wildlife and CRZ clearances in the
country.
(b) Environmental awareness program
being run via ENVIS for citizens of
India under Digital India initiative.
(c) It the initiative of the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate
Change for participation of civil
society in wildlife protection.
(d) It the initiative of The Ministry of
Water Resources, River
Development and Ganga
Rejuvenation for promotion,
innovation and technology
development for water purification
and its conservation.
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28. The Justice Party of Madras had
oppose to boycott the council
elections during the Non-Cooperation
Movement mainly because;
(a) They were in oppose to align the
religious cause like Khilafat issue
with national movement.
(b) They thought the movement could
finally lead to mass violence, as
masses are not yet ready for
peaceful agitation.
(c) They felt that entering the council
was one way of gaining some
power which something that
usually only Brahmans had access
to.
(d) They thought that the struggle
against the colonial rule must be
fought on all fronts.
29. The peasant and tribal movements
were failed to fully align with Non-
Cooperation Movement because;
1. Their grievances were mainly
associated with the local issues
which had limitations to connect
them with freedom struggle.
2. Most of their leaders had doubted
the effectiveness Satyagraha and
Non-violence strategy for struggle.
3. The congress was reluctant to
approve their strategies of
struggle, as it was in conflict with
its own strategy.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
30. Consider the following statements
about the BIOFIN programme:
1. BIOFIN, is a green funding
programme, managed by UNDP-
GEF under the Ecosystems and
Biodiversity Team.
2. It is being implemented by Asian
Development Bank, World Bank
and New Development Bank.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. The program SAMPATTI -
‘Sustainable Management of Pre-
owned Asset through Trade
Initiatives’ is associated with which of
the following?
(a) Municipal solid waste
management
(b) Bio-Medical waste management
(c) E-waste management
(d) Plastic waste management
32. With reference to the post-
independence history of India, the
‘forward policy’ was associated with
which of the following?
(a) Economic reforms
(b) India-Pakistan bilateral relations
(c) India’s Nuclear Policy
(d) India-China border dispute
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33. Consider the following statements
about the 13th meeting of the
Conference of Contracting Parties
(COP-13) to the Ramsar Convention:
1. The COP-13 of the Ramsar
Convention was held in Colombo,
Sri Lanka.
2. The theme of the conference was
‘’Wetlands for a Sustainable Urban
Future”.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
34. C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed
the Swaraj Party within the Congress.
Which of the following was/were their
arguments to return to council
politics?
1. They felt that it was important to
oppose British policies within the
councils when mass struggle
would be not in action.
2. They believed that the existing
councils are not democratic and
need reforms from within.
3. They believed that the real
concessions from British would
only come from council politics
rather than mass struggle.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
35. The British government in England
had appointed a statutory
commission under Sir John Simon to
review and suggest the reforms in
Indian constitutional scheme. The
commission was appointed before its
stipulated time because;
1. The new forces in Indian politics
were now openly demanding for
full independence which led to
political turmoil.
2. The effect of the worldwide
economic depression and
agricultural crisis in India were
making public opinion more
adverse against British.
3. In England, conservative party
thought they would lose next
election and the Labour Party
would be incapable to handle the
issue of Indian freedom struggle.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
36. With reference to the post-
independence history consider the
followings:
1. Bandung Afro Asian Conference
2. Belgrade Non-Alignment Conference
3. Asia Relations Conference
Choose the option which shows the
correct chronology of these events?
(a) 1-3-2
(b) 3-2-1
(c) 1-2-3
(d) 3-1-2
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37. With reference to consolidation of
Indian union consider the following
statements about the issue of Jammu
and Kashmir accession to India?
1. The ruler, Hari Singh was
reluctant to join either India or
Pakistan.
2. Popular political forces led by
Sheikh Abdullah wanted to join
India.
3. When India raise this matter to
UNSC, USA and UK’s stand were
in oppose to India, however, Soviet
Union did support India’s stand.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
38. Consider the following statements:
1. first Justice Dhar Commission or
Linguistic Provinces Commission
of 1948 and the
2. JVP Committee advised against
creation of states on linguistic
lines.
3. The JVP Commission
recommended that, the security
and economic development of the
nation should be the basis for
State formation.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
39. Which of the following was/were the
arguments of those who were
demanding state reorganization on
linguistic lines?
1. Many feared that Hindi language
would dominate local political and
social course.
2. The path to politics and power
would be dominated by small
English speaking elite.
3. Administration and politics should
take place in the language that
masses understand.
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
40. Consider the following statements
about the Suez Canal crisis of 1956:
1. The Suez was nationalized by
Naseer in 1956 and this made UK
and France apprehensive and they
demanded international control
over it.
2. India condemned Attack on Egypt
but did support the international
control over Suez.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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41. Consider the following statements
about ‘Panchsheel’ doctrine:
1. The Panchsheel doctrine
influenced from Buddhism.
2. Non-Alignment was the corner
stone of the doctrine.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Who among the following was
disapproved with congress policies
and formed the ‘Kisan Mazdoor Praja
Party’?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) J B Kriplani
(c) Acharya Narendra Dev
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan
43. Consider the following statements
about the Socialist Party?
1. Lohia formed Socialist Party and
took a militant approach and
resorted to strikes, agitations and
civil disobedience.
2. Main agendas of the Socialist
Party were immediate substitution
of English with Hindi.
3. It opposed the gender based and
caste based reservation policy.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the statements are correct
44. Consider the following statements
about the Mizoram Peace Accord,
1986:
1. It was an official agreement among
the Government of India, the
Tripura National Volunteer and
People's Liberation Army of
Manipur to end insurgency and
violence in Mizoram.
2. Indian government accepted the
demand about the concurrence of
Mizoram state legislative assembly
to the Act of Indian Parliament for
its application in the state.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
45. From the Sixth century CE onwards,
finds of gold coins become rare.
Which of the following was/were the
possible cause/causes for that?
1. The rulers of Western Roman
Empire had put several
restrictions on trade with India to
save their depleting gold reserve.
2. The new towns and networks of
trade started emerging around this
time, which probably had been led
to circulation of gold coins rather
than being hoarded.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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46. Consider the following Harrapan
sites:
1. Mitathal
2. Ganweriwala
3. Siswal
4. Dumb Sadaat
Which among these sites are located
in India?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
47. Among the sixteen Mahajanpadas
why Magadha was emerged as so
much powerful?
1. Monopoly over the Iron mines gave
them decisive lead in defence and
economic sector.
2. More intelligent and Nobel rulers
were born in Magadha.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. With reference to the aspects of
Sufism that developed in India the
idea of tariqa/tariqah is;
(a) A reference made to the temporal
world and its possession.
(b) A term used for mention of afterlife
(c) A Sufi school or order which has
specific tradition to reach the
‘ultimate truth’.
(d) Musical and dance sessions
holding at Khanqah
49. Consider the following statements
about the Amir Khusro:
1. He has been called the "father of
Urdu literature."
2. He was contemporary to Sultan
Ghiyas ud-Din Balban.
3. His best known work is the epic
poem Padmavat.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
50. Consider the following statements
about the Battle of Haldighati:
1. The Battle of Haldighati was
fought between Maharana Pratap
and Akbar's forces led by Man
Singh I of Amer.
2. This battle decisively end the
Ranapratap’s hold on Mewar.
Which of the given statements above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Which of the following Harappan
settlement was almost exclusively
devoted to craft production?
(a) Harappa
(b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Chanhudaro
(d) Lothal
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52. Which of following is/are incorrect?
1. Bhoodan movement was initiated
by first PM of India, Pandit
Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951.
2. Bhoodan movement was an
attempt to persuade wealthy
landowners to voluntarily give a
percentage of their land to the
landless people.
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
53. Chauri-Chaura incident was
associated with which of the following
movement in Indian National
Freedom Movement?
(a) Anti-Partition Movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement
54. Who among the following led about
2500 marchers on Dharasana Salt
Works during Gandhiji’s Dandi
march?
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
55. ‘Battle of Gajendragad’ was fought
between which of following?
(a) Marathas & British.
(b) Marathas & Tipu Sultan
(c) Ajputs & Tipu Sultan
(d) Rajputs & Nawab of Bengal
56. Which of following is correct with
respect to the partition of Bengal in
1905?
(a) Nawab Khawaja Sllimullah
Bahadur was the Nawaab of
Dhaka.
(b) Lord Curzon was the viceroy of
India.
(c) Bothe (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
57. Which of the following ranges meet at
the Pamir Knot?
1. Hindu Kush
2. Kunlun Mountains
3. Sulaiman Ranges
4. Karakoran Ranges
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
58. Which of the following is the largest
tributary of river Brahmaputra?
(a) Subansiri
(b) Dihang
(c) Dibhang
(d) Teesta
59. Which of the following is the deepest
port inn India?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Cochin
(c) Gangavaram
(d) Vishakhapatnam
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60. When ocean water freezes in the polar
regions, what of the following
happens to the salt present in it?
(a) Salts form a layer on top of ice
formed.
(b) Salts sink to the bottom of
remaing water.
(c) Salt remain in the subsurface
water that does not freeze.
(d) Salts vapourise.
61. Which of following is/are correct with
respect to thermal equator?
1. It is found in North of
Geographical equator.
2. It is found in south of geographical
equator.
3. It is a belt encircling earth having
lowest mean annual temperature.
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) None of the above
62. Consider the following statements.
1. The boundaries of a National Park
are defined by legislation.
2. A Biosphere reserve is declared too
conserve a few specific species of
flora & fauna.
3. In a wildlife sanctuary, limited
biotic interference is permitted.
Which of above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
63. Match the following:
1. Bandipore National Park i. Rajasthan
2. Simlipal Tiger Reserve ii. Kerala
3. Periyar National Park iii. Odisha
4. Sariska National Park iv. Karnatka
(a) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
(b) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv
(c) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
(d) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
64. What is necessarily true for an
ecosystem to develop?
(a) Primary consumers are least
dependent upon producers.
(b) Primary consumers out-number
producers.
(c) Producers are more than primary
consumers
(d) Secondary consumers are largest
& most powerful.
65. Bhopal gas tragedy was caused due
to release of which of the following
gas?
(a) Methyl isocyanate
(b) Potassium isothiocyanate
(c) Sodium isothiocyanate
(d) Ethyl isocyanate
66. Which of the following is correctly
matched?
(a) Basal Convention – Biodiversity
conservation
(b) Kyoto Protocol – Climate change
(c) Montreal Protocol – Global
warming
(d) Ramsar Convention – Ground
water pollution
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67. Which of following is/are correct with
respect to Jim Corbett National Park?
1. It is the oldest National Park of
India.
2. It is was first named as Haile
National Park
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong.
68. ‘Noor’ recently in news relates to
which of the following?
(a) It is project to develop handicraft
industry by India
(b) It is the first military satellite
launched by Iran.
(c) IT is name given by Pakistan to its
Covid-19 awareness campaign
(d) None of the above
69. ‘Swamita Program’ in news is related
to which of following?
(a) Ascertaining the ownership of land
rights of the tribes in forest areas.
(b) Subsidy scheme of Ministry of
Fisheries, GoI for small fishermen,
to purchase fishing boats.
(c) Program for mapping of rural
housing & land holdings via
technology including drones.
(d) Scheme of NABARD to distribute
sewing machines to the women in
BPL families in rural areas.
70. Consider the following statements
with reference to crop seasons in
India:
1. India has three major cropping
seasons called Kharif, Rabi and
Zaid.
2. Watermelon, Toris, Cucumber are
some example of Zaid Kharif crop.
3. The agricultural crop year in India
is from July to June.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
71. Consider the following statements
regarding Heat Budget of Earth:
1. Earth is gradually heating over the
years and adding to Global
Warming due to Heat Budget.
2. Albedo can be defined as a
measure of how much light that
hits a surface is absorbed without
being reflected back.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
72. Which of the following theories is
related to the Origin of the Universe?
(a) Nebular Hypothesis
(b) Binary theory
(c) Chamberlain and Moulton theory
(d) Hoyle’s concept of steady-state
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73. Consider the following statements:
1. The transfer of heat through
vertical movement of air is called
advection.
2. Due to convection process,
northern India experiences local
winds called ‘loo’ during summer
season.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
74. Which among the following is not a
source of energy that drives the
endogenetic processes?
(a) Rotational and Tidal Friction of
Earth
(b) Ultimate energy from the sun
(c) Primordial heat from Earth’s origin
(d) Radioactivity
75. Consider the following statements
regarding the circulation of planetary
winds:
1. The planetary winds deflect
according to the Ferrel’s Law.
2. Westerlies blow from Subpolar
pressure belts to sub-tropical
belts.
3. Polar easterlies blow towards the
poles.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
76. Hanta virus which causes
hemorrhagic fever with renal
syndrome spreads through which of
following?
(a) Bats
(b) Rats
(c) Chicken
(d) Sheep
77. Consider the following:
1. Increase in inorganic nutrients
2. Fresh water dilution
3. Sedimentation
4. Subaerial exposure
5. Xenobiotic
Which of the above cause coral
bleaching?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
78. Which of the following species are
mentioned under Schedule 1 of the
Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972?
1. Nilgiri Tahr
2. Dugong
3. Pitcher Plant
4. Barking Deer
5. Black Buck
6. Kashmir Stag
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
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79. Which of the following water bodies
belong to the category of inland
wetland?
1. Lagoons
2. Ox-bow lakes
3. Ponds
4. Estuaries
5. Creeks
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 4 and 5 only
80. Consider the following stages:
1. Nutrient load up
2. Algal blooms
3. Plants flourish
4. Decomposition of dead plants
5. Death of ecosystem
Which of the following sequences
represents the correct order for the
process of eutrophication?
(a) 2-1-3-4-5
(b) 1-3-2-4-5
(c) 1-2-3-4-5
(d) 2-4-1-3-5
81. Which one of the following dramas of
ancient India deals with the love
affair of a poor Brahmana with the
daughter of a courtesan?
(a) Abhijnanashakuntalam
(b) Mrichchhakaktika
(c) Malavikagnimitra
(d) Vikramorvashi
82. Consider the following statements
about the Hoysala Temple
Architecture:
1. The principle sites where temples
were constructed were at Belur,
Halebid and Pattadakkal.
2. The temples usually followed the
Panchayatan style.
3. There was use of soft stone as the
building material.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
83. Consider the following abstract:
“He was a great conqueror, extending
his kingdom to as far as parts of Sri
Lanka. The river Tungabadhra
became his northern boundary. He
assumed the title of Kadaram Kondan
after his naval expedition to Kadaram
or Sri Vijaya.’’
Select the correct ruler with whom
these achievements are associated
with:
(a) Kulottunga II
(b) Narasimhavarman I
(c) Bhaskararavivarman
(d) Rajendra I
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84. Shahna, appointed during the reign
of Allauddin Khalji was responsible
for which of the following?
(a) He headed the military
department.
(b) He was responsible for revenue
collection.
(c) He headed the communications
department.
(d) He headed the markets created by
Allauddin Khalji.
85. Consider the following statements
about the philosophical systems in
Ancient India:
1. The Nyaya Philosophy developed
as a system of logic.
2. The Vaisheshika School
propounded the atom theory,
believing that all material objects
are made up of atoms.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
86. Which of the following is not a factor
that resulted in India’s decision of not
joining the Regional Comprehensive
Economic Partnership (RCEP)?
(a) Huge trade deficit with RCEP
members.
(b) Indian investors are investing in
RCEP countries instead of India.
(c) Concerns of dairy farmers.
(d) Data localisation rules.
87. Consider the following statements
about the Missile Technology Control
Regime:
1. It is a legally binding treaty.
2. Its membership allows a country
to import missiles, drones and
technology associated with
delivery of weapon of mass
destruction (WMD) from other
member countries.
3. India is not a member of this
group.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
88. Consider the following statements
about the International Organization
for Migration (IOM):
1. It was established after World
War-II to resettle refugees from
Europe.
2. It annually releases the World
Migration Report (WMR).
3. India is not a member of this
organization.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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89. ‘Incheon Strategy’ is associated with
which of the following?
(a) Make in India
(b) Digital India
(c) Accessible India Campaign
(d) Stand up India
90. Which of the following statements
defines the term Climate Neutrality,
often seen in the news?
(a) A state in which animal and plant
species are not affected by the
climate change.
(b) Countries which remain
unaffected by global warming.
(c) Countries which have a neutral
opinion regarding climate change.
(d) A state in which a country’s
emissions are balanced by
absorptions and removal of
greenhouse gases from the
atmosphere.
91. Consider the following statements
regarding RESPOND (Sponsored
Research) programme, sometimes in
the news:
1. Under it, ISRO will set up five
Space Technology Cells at premier
institutes.
2. Under it, the rich talent of
Academia/Faculty is being
harnessed to support the Nation’s
Space programme.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
92. Consider the following statements
about invoking Section 144 of the
Criminal Procedure Code (Cr PC):
1. Section 144 of the Cr PC can be
invoked only by Judicial
Magistrates.
2. Section 144 of the Cr PC can be
invoked when there is threat to
public peace, security or law and
order in a particular area.
3. The power to block
telecommunications, including use
of internet has been provided only
under Section 144 of the Cr PC.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
93. “Secure 20 by 2020" was started by
12 snow leopard countries under the
Bishkek Declaration. Which of the
following countries are parts of this
initiative?
1. India
2. Kazakhstan
3. Mongolia
4. Turkey
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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94. The ‘Senkaku-Diaoyu’ islands is
sometimes in the news in the context
of a conflict between
(a) Russia and Japan
(b) China and the Philippines
(c) South Korea and North Korea
(d) China and Japan
95. Consider the following statements
with reference to ‘Industry 4.0’:
1. It includes the Internet of Things
(IoT), Autonomous robots and
Augmented Reality.
2. India has become the first country
in the world where the World
Economic Forum has opened its
centre for the Fourth Industrial
Revolution.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
96. Sabki Yojana Sabka Vikas, recently in
the news, is related to which of the
following?
(a) Gram Panchayat Development
Plan
(b) Scheme to launch the Common
Utility Card
(c) New initiative of social audit
(d) Initiative to increase awareness
and participation of tribals in
various schemes
97. India has signed the ‘Vienna
Agreement’, ‘Nice Agreement’ and
‘Locarno Agreement' in order to
comply with the obligations of
(a) ILO
(b) WTO
(c) WIPO
(d) UNCTAD
98. The principles like ‘Confidence
Building Measures’, ‘development of
preventive diplomacy’ and
‘elaboration of approaches to
conflicts’ are related to which of the
following organisation?
(a) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
(b) ASEAN Regional Forum
(c) SAARC
(d) European Union
99. Which among the following best
describes the term "Currency War",
which was in news recently?
(a) Competitive Depreciation
(b) Competitive Appreciation
(c) Competitive Devaluation
(d) Competitive Revaluation
100. Which of the following countries
recently launched world’s first
floating nuclear reactor?
(a) Sweden
(b) China
(c) France
(d) Russia