UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA2

UPKARS

ByDr. Lal & Jain

Commercial Apprentice Traffic Apprentice ECRC Goods Guard Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum-Typist Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist AssistantStation Master Traffic Assistant Sr. Time Keeper

(For Non-Technical Cadre)

Publishers

Publishers

UPKAR PRAKASHAN2/11A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA282 002Phone : 4053333, 2530966, 2531101Fax : (0562) 4053330E-mail : care@upkar.in, Website : www.upkar.in

Branch Offices :4845, Ansari Road, Daryaganj,New Delhi110 002Phone : 01123251844/66

Paras Bhawan(First Floor),Khazanchi Road,Patna800 004Phone : 06122673340

1-8-1/B, R.R. Complex (Near SundaraiahPark, Adjacent to Manasa Enclave Gate),Bagh Lingampally,Hyderabad500 044Phone : 04066753330

28, Chowdhury Lane, ShyamBazar, Near Metro Station,Gate No. 4Kolkata700 004 (W.B.)Phone : 03325551510

B-33, Blunt Square, KanpurTaxi Stand Lane, Mawaiya,Lucknow226 004 (U.P.)Phone : 05224109080

8-310/1, A. K. House,Heeranagar, Haldwani,Distt.Nainital263 139(Uttarakhand)Mob. : 7060421008

The publishers have taken all possible precautions in publishing this book, yet ifany mistake has crept in, the publishers shall not be responsible for the same.

This book or any part thereof may not be reproduced in any form byPhotographic, Mechanical, or any other method, for any use, without writtenpermission from the Publishers.

Only the courts at Agra shall have the jurisdiction for any legal dispute.

ISBN : 978-93-5013-286-9

Code No. 1766

Printed at : UPKAR PRAKASHAN (Printing Unit) Bye-pass, AGRA

Contents

Previous Years Solved Paper

SectionIGeneral Awareness... {148116General Science..... 116

SectionIIArithmetic..... 172

Section IIIGeneral Intelligence & Reasoning 192

General Information

1. For Commercial ApprenticeMedical Std. C-1Normal Age 1832Minimum Educational Qualification Degree from recognized University or its equivalent.

2. For Traffic ApprenticeMedical Std. A-2Normal Age 1832Minimum Educational Qualification Degree from recognized University or its equivalent.

3. For ECRCMedical Std. C-1Normal Age 1832Minimum Educational Qualification Degree from recognized University or its equivalent.

4. For Goods GuardMedical Std. A-2Normal Age 1832Minimum Educational Qualification Degree from recognized University or its equivalent.

5. For Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum-TypistMedical Std. C-1Normal Age 1832Minimum Educational Qualification Degree from recognized University or its equivalent.

Typing proficiency in English/Hindi on Computer isessential.

6. For Sr. Clerk-cum-TypistMedical Std. C-1Normal Age 1832Minimum Educational Qualification Degree from recognized University or its equivalent.

Typing proficiency in English/Hindi on Computer isessential.

7. For Assistant Station MasterMedical Std. A-2Normal Age 1832Minimum Educational Qualification Degree from recognized University or its equivalent.

8. For Traffic AssistantMedical Std. A-2Normal Age 1832Minimum Educational Qualification Degree from recognized University or its equivalent.

( v )

9. For Sr. Time KeeperMedical Std. A-1Normal Age 1832Minimum Educational Qualification Degree from recognized University or its equivalent.

Typing proficiency in English/Hindi on Computer isessential.

Note : The upper age limit will be relaxable as per govt. rules.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS1.1 Candidates should note that

(i) Common single stage CBT (Computer Based Test)/Examination for all the notified categoriesis scheduled to be held simultaneously by all participating RRBs tentatively during scheduledtime. Therefore, candidates can submit ONLINE application to any one RRB only.

(ii) For Category 1, 2, 3 & 4, documents verification will be done after common single stage CBT.

(iii) For Category 5, 6 & 9, Typing Skill Test of qualifying nature followed by documentverification will be conducted after common single stage CBT.

(iv) For Category 7 & 8, Aptitude Test and verification of documents will be held after commonsingle stage CBT.

1.2 (a) Admission to the common single stage CBT/Typing Skill Test/Aptitude Test will be purelyprovisional, subject to candidates satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions.

(b) Mere issue of Call Letter/e-admit card to candidates will not imply that their candidature hasbeen finally accepted by the RRB.

(c) RRBs conduct verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents onlyafter the candidates have qualified in all the stages of examinations. RRBs may reject theapplications of candidates at any stage of recruitment process in case the candidates are notfulfilling the requisite criteria, and if appointed, such a candidate(s) is/are liable to be removedfrom service summarily.

(d) Before applying for any post, candidates should satisfy themselves that they fulfil all theeligibility norms including educational qualification(s) and medical standard(s). Candidatesshould ensure that they have the requisite Educational/Technical qualifications fromrecognized/Board University/Institute as on the date of submission of the application. Thoseawaiting results of the final examination need not apply.

1.3 Candidates who have been debarred for life from all RRBs/RRC examinations or candidates whohave been debarred for a specified period which is not yet completed need not apply in response tothis Centralized Employment Notice. Their candidature will be rejected during any stage ofrecruitment as and when detected.

1.4 Candidates submitting more than one application with different particulars like name/FathersName/Community/photo (face)/educational and/ or Technical qualification will be summarilyrejected & also be debarred from RRB examinations. A candidate will also be debarred fromexaminations of all RRBs for a specified period/or lifetime if (i) the candidate submits applicationsfor a particular post to more than one RRB, (ii) the candidate submits multiple applications for thesame post and category, (iii) the candidate submits multiple applications with different communityfor the same post & category, (iv) the candidate submits multiple applications with different photo(face) and different name for same post & category and (v) the candidate submits multipleapplications with different documents for the same post & category.

1.5 Signature of the candidates on all prescribed document should be identical, either in English orHindi, and must be in running hand and not in block/capital or disjointed letters. Signatures

( vi )

in different style or language at the time of CBT/examination, Typing Skill Test, AptitudeTest and document verification etc., may result in cancellation of candidature.

1.6 Candidates should note that only the Name, Fathers Name and Date of Birth as recorded in theMatriculation/High School Examination Certificate or an equivalent Certificate as on the date ofsubmission of applications will be accepted by the RRBs.

1.7 Selection by RRB does not confer upon candidates any right of appointment in the Railways. Thefunction of the RRB is to recommend names of suitable candidates to the Chief PersonnelOfficer of the Zonal Railway / Production Unit concerned who in turn issues the offer ofappointment letter subject to the availability of vacancies and candidates being found medicallyfit and satisfying all eligibility criteria including antecedents and character.

1.8 Ordinarily, a railway servant shall be employed throughout his service on the railway or railwayestablishment to which he/she is posted on first appointment and shall have no claim as of rightfor transfer to another railway or another establishment. In the exigencies of service, however, itshall be open to the Competent Authority to transfer the railway servant to any other departmentor railway or railway establishment including a project in or out of India.

1.9 Emoluments on initial appointment will be minimum pay of the Pay Band plus Grade Pay plusother allowances as admissible at that time. During training period only stipend will be paid asapplicable. Candidates may have to give security deposit and execute indemnity bond wherevernecessary.

1.10. Free Second Class Railway Pass as admissible will be issued to candidates belonging to SC/STcommunities when they are called for various stages of selection viz. common CBT/Typing SkillTest/Aptitude Test/Document verification, provided they upload valid caste certificate alongwith ONLINE application.

1.11. Selected male candidates who are finally appointed are liable for active service in RailwayEngineers Unit of Territorial Army.

1.12 Serving Defence Personnel likely to be released within one year of the closing date of applicationform can also apply, both for vacancies earmarked for Ex-Servicemen and for posts not reservedfor Ex-Servicemen.

RECRUITMENT PROCESSONLY single online application (i.e., common for all the notified categories) is required to besubmitted by the candidate. There shall be a common CBT (Computer Based Test) for all thenotified categories of posts followed by qualifying Skill (Typing) Test or Aptitude Test, whereverapplicable and Document Verification.

The date, time and venue of the CBT/online examination, aptitude test and skill test will be fixedby the RRB and will be intimated to the eligible candidates in due course. Request forpostponement of the examination/aptitude test/skill test and change of center/venue will not beentertained under any circumstances.

Selection is made strictly as per merit. There will be a Common CBT (Examination) for all thenotified categories of individual RRBs. (i) For posts of Cat. No. 1, 2, 3 & 4 (CA, TA, ECRC &Goods Guard) merit will be drawn on marks obtained in CBT (ii) For the posts of Cat. No : 5, 6 &9 (Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist, JAA, Sr. Time Keeper) Typing Skill Test of qualifying nature (marksobtained in typing skill test shall not be added for making merit) shall be conducted for which thenumber of candidates equal to eight times the number of vacancies shall be called for. Thecandidates should be able to type 30 WPM in English or 25 WPM in Hindi on PersonalComputer only with disabling editing tools and spell check facility. For guidelines of those whoappear for skill test in Hindi, KrutiDev and Mangal font shall be made available for skill test onPersonal Computer. The merit will be drawn only for the candidates qualified in the typing skill

( vii )

test based on performance in CBT (iii) For the posts of Cat. No. 7 & 8 (ASM, Traffic Assistant)Aptitude Test shall be conducted for which candidates equal to eight times the number of vacanciesshall be called for. The merit will be drawn only for the candidates qualifying in the aptitude test,with 70% weightage being given to the marks obtained in the CBT and 30% weightage being givento the marks obtained in the aptitude test. Short listed candidates will be called for verification oforiginal documents. In addition to the no. of vacancies, 50% extra candidates shall also be calledfor all the categories unless otherwise specified as standby candidates merely to avoid shortfall inempanelment. During document verification, candidates will have to produce their originalcertificates. No additional time will be given and the candidature of the candidates not producingtheir original certificates on the date of verification is liable to be forfeited.

Stages of Examination : (a) Common single stage CBT for all notified categories, (b) Followed byverification of documents for Cat. No. 1, 2, 3, & 4 (Commercial Apprentice, Traffic Apprentice,ECRC & Goods Guard) (c) Typing skill test of qualifying nature followed by verification ofdocuments for Cat. No. 5, 6, & 9 (JAA, Sr. Clerk, Sr. Time Keeper). Exemption in Typing SkillTest may be extended to PWD candidates having disability of more than 40%. Such candidates arerequired to bring typing skill test exemption certificate to the Type Test centre issued by competentmedical board as per proforma given in the advertisement. (d) Aptitude Test followed byverification of documents for Cat. No. 7 & 8 (ASM & Traffic Assistant (e) Candidates called forAptitude Test for the post of ASM & Traffic Assistant are required to bring Vision Certificate toAptitude Test centre from an Eye Specialist on prescribed proforma which is given in theadvertisement, failing which they will not be allowed to appear in the Aptitude Test.

The standard of questions for the single stage CBT (Computer Based Test) will be generally inconformity with the educational standards prescribed for the posts. The questions will be ofobjective type with multiple choices and are likely to include questions pertaining to GeneralAwareness, Arithmetic, General Intelligence and Reasoning. The question paper for single stageCBT will be in English, Hindi, Urdu and regional languages and the duration of the examinationwill be 90 minutes duration with 100 questions. For Aptitude Test, candidates are advised to visitwebsite of RDSO (www.rdso.indianrailways.gov.in Directorates Psycho TechnicalDirectorate Candidates Corner for question patterns & other details.

There shall be negative marking in CBT (Computer Based Test)/Examinations and marks shall bededucted for each wrong answer @1/3 of the allotted marks for each question.

Candidates should read the instructions on the e-call letter carefully and follow them scrupulously.Failure to comply with the instructions may lead to cancellation of their candidature. Mock/Practice tests will also be made available on RRBs website to the candidates to acquire familiaritywith the online examination process.

Note : Candidates are not permitted to use calculators and other electronic gadgets. They shouldnot, therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Premises. If any candidate is found to possessmobile phone, blue-tooth or any other means of wireless communication, in working or switchedoff mode, his/her candidature shall be cancelled forthwith and he/she will be debarred from RRBexaminations besides legal action as deemed fit.

Selection is made strictly according to merit on the basis of CBT/online examination (And AptitudeTest, Typing skill test of qualifying nature wherever applicable).

Based on the performance of candidates in the CBT/online examination and Aptitude Test/TypingSkill Test, wherever applicable, candidates equal to the number of vacancies are called fordocument verification in the main list. In addition, 50% extra candidates are also called as standbyunless otherwise specified. However, they are considered for empanelment only if there is shortfallin empanelment from the main list. During document verification, candidates will have to producetheir original certificates. No additional time will be given and the candidature of the candidatesnot producing their original certificates on the date of verification is liable to be forfeited.

( viii )

Appointment of selected candidates is subject to their passing requisite Medical Fitness Test to beconducted by the Railway Administration, final verification of educational and communitycertificates and verification of antecedents/character of the candidates.

RRBs at their discretion may hold additional CBT and/or skill test/aptitude test if considerednecessary for all or for a limited number of candidates as may be deemed fit by RRBs.

Railway Recruitment Board is only recommending the names of successful candidates to ZonalRailways/Production Units. The process of appointment thereof is managed by the Chief PersonnelOfficer of Railway/Production Unit concerned.

MEDICAL FITNESS TESTThe candidates recommended for appointment will have to pass requisite medical fitness test(s)conducted by the Railway Administration to ensure that the candidates are medically fit tocarryout the duties connected with the post. Visual Acuity Standard is one of the important criteriaof medical fitness of railway staff. The medical requirements against different medical standardsfor different categories are outlined below :

(a) A-2 : Physically fit in all respects. Visual StandardsDistance vision : 6/9, 6/9 withoutglasses. Near Vision : Sn : 0.6, 0.6 without glasses and must pass test for Colour Vision,Binocular Vision, Field of Vision and Night Vision.

(b) C-1 : Physically fit in all respects. Visual Standards Distance Vision : 6/12, 6/18 with orwithout glasses. Near Vision : Sn: 0.6, 0.6 with or without glasses when reading or close workis required.

Note : (i) The above medical standards (Criteria) are indicative and not exhaustive and apply tocandidates in general. (ii) For Ex-Servicemen and PWD candidates different standards will apply.(iii) Candidates qualifying in examination(s)/for these post but failing in prescribed medicalexamination(s) will not any case be considered for any alternative appointment. (iv) Candidateswho do not fulfil the prescribed medical standards need not apply.

Railway Recruitment BoardCommon Computer Based Exam. 2016

(Non-Technical Categories)Solved Paper(Based on Memory)

201601. To conduct detailed study into disease

causing organism in livestock, BiosafetyLaboratory has been setup in India in1. Ludhiana 2. Bengaluru3. Anand 4. Allahabad(A) 4 (B) 1(C) 2 (D) 3

02. The medicine paracetamol is1. An analgesic2. An antipyretic3. An analgesic and antipyretic4. A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug

(A) 2 (B) 4(C) 3 (D) 1

03. If M = 14, TANK = 61, then STARDOM =1. 79 2. 893. 99 4. 109(A) 4 (B) 1(C) 2 (D) 3

04. The headquarters of ISRO is located at1. Bengaluru 2. New Delhi3. Pune 4. Mumbai(A) 3 (B) 2(C) 1 (D) 4

05. If the interior angle of a polygon is 108, thenit is a1. Octagon 2. Hexagon3. Pentagon 3. Tetragon(A) 3 (B) 4(C) 1 (D) 2

06. Expand : (W 9)21. (W2 9W + 81)2. (W2 9W + 18)3. (W2 18W + 81)4. (W2 18W 81)

(A) 2 (B) 1(C) 4 (D) 3

07. Surya is 25 years older than his son. In 5years, he will be twice as old as his son. Whatwill be Suryas age after 3 years ?

1. 20 2. 23

3. 45 4. 48

(A) 3 (B) 1

(C) 4 (D) 2

08. Which country launched its first commericalsatellite on 24th November, 2015 as a part ofits National Space Program ?

1. Russia 2. India

3. Japan 4. China

(A) 3 (B) 4

(C) 2 (D) 1

09. Secularism means

1. Not practicing any religion.

2. Practicing multiple religious.

3. Freedom to join any satsang.

4. Freedom of religion and worship.

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

10. What is the noise level of normal conversa-tion ?

1. About 60 db 2. About 70 db

3. About 80 db 4. About 90 db

(A) 1 (B) 3

(C) 4 (D) 2

11. After 9/11 tragedy, the rebuilt World TradeCentre complex in New York is called

1. New World Trade Centre

2. Empire State Building

3. One World Trade Centre

4. World Trade Complex

(A) 4 (B) 2

(C) 1 (D) 3

4 | Railway Board (N. Tech.) 2016

12. Find the similarity in the followingOlive Oil, Coconut Oil, Cod Liver Oil,Sunflower Oil1. All of them are vegetable oils.2. All of them are rich in Vitamin A.3. All of them are rich in Vitamin D.4. All of them are oills.

(A) 2 (B) 1(C) 4 (D) 3

13. Shimla Agreement 1972 between India andPakistan was signed in1. Barnes Court2. Ellerslie Building3. Viceregal Lodge4. Gorton Castle

(A) 4 (B) 1(C) 3 (D) 2

14. Which of the following fractions is thehighest of all ?

1.54

2.43

3.32

4.65

(A) 2 (B) 4

(C) 1 (D) 3

15. 10 people can do a work in 30 days. In howmany days, can 15 people complete doublethe work

1. 20 2. 25

3. 40 4. 45

(A) 2 (B) 3

(C) 1 (D) 4

Directions(Q. 1618) The likes andprofessions of five friendsRosy, Mary, Lily,Andy and Daisy are given. Consider the followinginformation and answer questions based on it

1. Rosy like Yellow and is a Student.

2. The Librarian likes Green.

3. Mary and Andy like Purple and Bluerespectively and neither of them is aTeacher.

4. Andy is Inspector.

5. One of the five is a Principal.

16. Which colour does the Teacher like ?1. Blue 2. Brown3. Purple 4. Green

(A) 4 (B) 1(C) 3 (D) 2

17. Who among the following is the wrong pair ?1. AndyInspector2. PurplePrincipal3. DaisyGreen4. RosyTeacher

(A) 4 (B) 3(C) 1 (D) 2

18. Who is the Principal ?1. Daisy 2. Andy3. Mary 4. Lily

(A) 4 (B) 1(C) 2 (D) 3

19. If Deplete : Exhaust then Replenish

1. Exhale 2. Iuhale

3. Reuse 4. Restore

(A) 3 (B) 2(C) 4 (D) 1

20. Which of the following is a Space-BasedAugmentation System ?

1. INSAT 2. GAGAN

3. GSAT 4. SARAL

(A) 4 (B) 3(C) 2 (D) 1

21. In a certain code language if 41095 isREADY and 840327 is FRAILS, then83145419 is1. FEARY RED 2. FIERY RED

3. FAIRY RED 4. FIREY RED

(A) 4 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 1

22. The instrument used to regulate temperatureto a particular degree is called

1. Thermostat 2. Thermometer

3. Pyrometer 4. Thermocouple

(A) 4 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 1

Railway Board (N. Tech.) 2016 | 5

23. Ganga Action Plan initiated by the UnionGovernment aims at1. Streamlining the flow of Ganga River.2. Reduction of Pollution on Ganga River.3. Efficient use of Ganga water for irriga-

tion.4. Using Ganga River for generating hydel

energy.(A) 3 (B) 4(C) 2 (D) 1

24. How many times does the number 3 occur inunits place for numbers ranging from 1 to100 ?1. 20 2. 113. 10 4. 19(A) 4 (B) 1(C) 2 (D) 3

25. A college council is auditioning students for acultural festival. They must satisfy the follo-wing criterion1. Student must know at least one dance

form.2. Student must know to play at least one

musical instrument.3. Student must have good acting skills.Which one of the following council willdefinitely select ?

1. Z is a Bharatnatyam Dancer, a violinist,but does not have any acting skills.

2. P plays football, guitar, has acted in roadshows and is a classical dancer.

3. J is contemporary dancer, a great actorand is planning to learn flute.

4. A plays sitar is a hip-hop dancer anddoes not have any acting skills.

(A) 3 (B) 4(C) 1 (D) 2

26. Select the alternative that shows a similarrelationship as the given pair

Mandatory : Compulsory

1. Philosophy : Idealism2. Thesis : Proposition3. Generosity : Narrow-mindedness4. Hypothesis : Supposition

(A) 2 (B) 4(C) 1 (D) 3

27. Gopal covers 100 km. He travels at a speedof 60 kmph for the first 40 km and rest of thedistance at 60 kmph. What is his averagespeed in kmph ?1. 44.20 2. 45.203. 46.20 4. 47.20(A) 4 (B) 3(C) 2 (D) 1

Directions(Q. 28-30) The bar chartrepresents number of fiction and non-fiction booksin four Libraries L1, L2, L3 and L4. Consider thebar chart and answer questions based on it

28. The ratio of total number of non-fiction tofiction books in all libraries is1. 7/6 2. 6/73. 15/17 4. 17/5(A) 1 (B) 2(C) 3 (D) 4

29. The ratio of total books of libraries L1 and L3to L2 and L4 is1. 29/36 2. 33/323. 36/29 4. 32/33(A) 4 (B) 2(C) 3 (D) 1

30. What is the percentage difference of totalnumber of Fiction books in Libraries L3 andL4 to the Non-Fiction books in L3 and L4 ?1. 1334% 2. 1176%3. 667% 4. It is the same(A) 2 (B) 1(C) 3 (D) 4

31. Find the factors of (x2 x 132)1. (x 11) (x 12)2. (x + 12) (x 11)3. (x + 11) (x + 12)4. (x 12) (x + 11)

(A) 3 (B) 1(C) 4 (D) 2

6 | Railway Board (N. Tech.) 2016

32. Which of the following is not a UnionTerritory ?1. Puducherry 2. Chandigarh3. Lakshadweep 4. Sikkim

(A) 2 (B) 1(C) 3 (D) 4

33. If sin = 1

2 then (tan + cos ) =

1.1

22.

2

2

3.3

24.

( )1 + 2 2

(A) 2 (B) 1(C) 3 (D) 4

34. Which of the following will appear third, ifthey are arranged according to a dictionary ?1. Autumn 2. Austere3. Assert 4. Auspicious

(A) 3 (B) 2(C) 1 (D) 4

35. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed in theyear1. 1930 2. 19313. 1932 4. 1933

(A) 2 (B) 3(C) 4 (D) 1

36. Which key on a windows keyboard sets tofull screen mode in most browsers ?1. F1 2. F103. F11 4. F12

(A) 2 (B) 1(C) 3 (D) 4

37. If + and , and are interchanged inthe equation 17 7 27 + 7 3, then itsvalue will be1. 7 2. 173. 27 4. 37

(A) 1 (B) 4(C) 2 (D) 3

38. Twice the difference between two numbers isequal to their sum. If one number is 15, findthe other number

1. 15 2. 103. 5 4. 20

(A) 4 (B) 2(C) 3 (D) 1

39. The percentage of nitrogen in the air isabout1. 74% 2. 76%3. 78% 4. 80%

(A) 1 (B) 4(C) 3 (D) 2

40. G is twice as fast as S in doing work. If G cando a work in 30 days less than S, how manydays will they take to complete the worktogether ?1. 25 2. 203. 22 4. 15

(A) 1 (B) 2(C) 3 (D) 4

41. Rupee sign R is a1. Devanagari letter2. Roman letter3. Sanskrit script4. A combination of Roman and Devanagari

letter

(A) 2 (B) 1(C) 3 (D) 4

42. The mean and median of 7, 5, 5, 2, 7, 6, 5, 3,7, 6 is1. 53 and 5 2. 5 and 553. 5 and 6 4. 53 and 55

(A) 4 (B) 1(C) 2 (D) 3

43. Which movement was called off followingthe violence at Chauri Chaura incident ?1. Khilafat Movement2. Quit India Movement3. Non Co-operation Movement4. Home Rule Movement

(A) 4 (B) 1(C) 2 (D) 3

44. Astrosat is Indias first1. Reconnaissance Satellite2. Remote sensing satellite

Railway Board (N. Tech.) 2016 | 7

3. Space observatory4. Communication Satellite

(A) 3 (B) 4(C) 2 (D) 1

45. Find the missing (?) in the series14, 28, 42, 56, ?, 84, 981. 68 2. 703. 72 4. 74

(A) 2 (B) 1(C) 3 (D) 4

46.

What is the area of this trapezoidal garden(All measurements are in cm) ?1. 60 sq.cm 2. 180 sq.cm

3. 210 sq.cm 4. 240 sq.cm

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

47. The periodicity of the Commonwealth Gamesis

1. No fixed interval

2. 4 years

3. 5 years

4. 6 years

(A) 4 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 1

48. The sum of three consecutive numbers is 126.Find the highest number

1. 41 2. 42

3. 43 4. 44

(A) 4 (B) 3

(C) 1 (D) 2

49. Human nails are made of

1. Pigment 2. Elastin

3. Albumin 4. Keratin

(A) 2 (B) 4

(C) 1 (D) 3

50. If the mathematical operator + meansdivision, means multiplication, meanssubtraction and means addition, then thevalue of11 7 + 21 2 2 3 4 is

1.83

2.43

3. 43

4. 83

(A) 2 (B) 3(C) 1 (D) 4

51. Sachin Tendulkar made his test debut in 1989at1. Karachi, Pakistan2. Mumbai, India3. Kolkata, India4. Melbourne, Australia

(A) 2 (B) 1(C) 4 (D) 3

52. The test for diagnosing HIV is 1. Pap Smear 2. ELISA3. DND 4. Mantoux

(A) 3 (B) 2(C) 1 (D) 4

53. Sunil has a son Karna and a sister Sangeetawho is the mother of Jagdish and Vijay.Harnish is Jagdishs maternal uncle. How isHarnish related to Karna ?

1. Brother 2. Father3. Nephew 4. Paternal Uncle

(A) 4 (B) 1(C) 2 (D) 3

54. 1123 + 1123 + 1123 = ?1. 123453 2. 1323433. 124643 4. 134643

(A) 3 (B) 1(C) 2 (D) 4

55. If RESEARCH is $ # ! # % $ & @ SCAREis1. ! & % $ # 2. ! @ % $ #3. ! $ % # & 4. ! @ % # $

(A) 4 (B) 1(C) 2 (D) 3

continue

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