sample paper aakash national talent hunt exam 2016 (senior)

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)

1

1. Four bulbs, each of rating (100 W, 220 V) and

connected in parallel across a voltage supply of

220 V, are operated for five hours daily. If all the bulbs

are replaced by LEDs of rating (8 W, 220 V), how

many units of electrical energy will be saved every

month (30 days)?

(1) 55.2 units

(2) 60 units

(3) 4.8 units

(4) 32 units

2.

A

I = 11 A

V

2

4

6

In the circuit diagram shown above, the readings of

voltmeter and ammeter respectively are

(1) 6 V, 3 A (2) 3 V, 6 A

(3) 12 V, 3 A (4) 12 V, 12 A

3. In the following figure, a person of mass m is

standing on a stationary trolley of mass M on a

smooth horizontal surface. The distance between the

front end of the trolley and point A is d. The

horizontal speed with which the person should jump

off the trolley, such that its front end just passes

through point A in time t, is

Time : 2 Hours MM : 360

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)Sample Paper

A

d

(1)d

t(2)

dm

Mt

(3)tM

md(4)

dM

mt

4. For the shown displacement-time graph, the average

velocity of the body in 10 seconds is

Dis

pla

cem

ent (m

)

0 3 6 10

Time (s)

20

(1) 20 m/s (2) 13 m/s

(3)35

m/s3

(4) Zero

5. Magnetic field pattern in a region is as shown below.

The needle of a magnetic compass will be deflected

most when placed at point

A

B

D

C

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

SECTION-A : SCIENCE


Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior) Sample Paper

2

10. A girl of mass 40 kg takes a staircase of 15 steps,

each of height 20 cm. If she utilizes a power of

80 W to climb the staircase, the time taken by her

is [Take g = 10 m/s2]

(1) Half a minute (2) 40 s

(3) 45 s (4) 15 s

11. Two copper wires A and B have their cross-sectional

areas in the ratio 1 : 2 and lengths in the ratio 2 : 1

respectively. The ratio of the resistivities of A and B

will be

(1) 1 : 4 (2) 8 : 1

(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1

12. A positively charged particle going eastwards enters

a region of uniform and perpendicular magnetic field.

If the particle is deflected vertically upwards, the

direction of magnetic field is

(1) Southwards (2) Northwards

(3) Due west (4) Vertically downwards

13. The magnetic field inside an ideal solenoid carrying

constant non-zero current is

(1) Radial

(2) Non-uniform

(3) Uniform

(4) Zero

14. Choose the pair of quantities having same unit.

(1) Power and energy

(2) Current and potential difference

(3) Work and energy

(4) Work and power

15. When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, then at the

highest point

(1) Acceleration is zero but velocity is non-zero

(2) Acceleration is non-zero but velocity is zero

(3) Both acceleration and velocity are zero

(4) Both acceleration and velocity are non-zero

6. Same net force is applied on two different objects of

masses m and 3m. If x and y are the magnitudes of

their acceleration respectively, then the ratio x

y will

be

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 1

(3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1

7. An object of mass 2 kg is dropped from a certain

height. On rebounding from the ground, it rises

vertically till 2th

5 of its initial height. The ratio of

magnitude of momentum of the object just before

and after striking the ground is

(1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 2

(3) 3 : 5 (4) 5 : 3

8. A boy runs on a circular track of radius 20 m and

stops after covering one sixth of the track. The

magnitude of his displacement will be

(1) 20 m (2) 20 m

(3) 40 m (4)20

3

m

9. A gun recoils when a bullet is fired from it. Which of

the following is/are true w.r.t. this statement?

(a) This phenomenon can be explained on the basis

of Newton's third law of motion.

(b) The magnitude of momentum of gun is greater

than that of bullet.

(c) The magnitude of momentum of bullet is greater

than that of gun.

(d) The magnitude of momentum of bullet and that

of gun are equal.

(1) (a) & (d) (2) (a) & (b)

(3) (a) & (c) (4) Only (b)



3

16. A colourless and odourless gas P is evolved during

thermal decomposition of lead nitrate. P reacts with

natural gas to form compounds Q and R. P, Q and

R respectively are

(1) N2O, O

2 and H

2O (2) CO

2, O

2 and Cl

2

(3) O2, CO

2 and H

2O (4) O

2, CO

2 and H

2

17. The process that does not involve oxidation is

(1) Rancidity (2) Corrosion

(3) Combustion (4) Neutralisation

18. Consider the given table

Elements Number of Number of

NeutronsProtons

Carbon A 8

X B 7

Y 8 8

Z C 9

If carbon and element X are isobars while Y and Z

are isotopes, then A, B, X and Z respectively

represent

(1) 6, 7, oxygen and fluorine

(2) 6, 6, nitrogen and fluorine

(3) 6, 7, nitrogen and oxygen

(4) 7, 7, oxygen and nitrogen

19. Which of the following gases is evolved at cathode

during the electrolysis of brine?

(1) Cl2

(2) O2

(3) H2

(4) NO2

20. Consider the given Venn diagram :

Constituents of acid rain

Constituentsof the

atmosphere of venus

X

'X' can be identified as

(1) Oxalic acid (2) Acetic acid

(3) Sulphuric acid (4) Nitric acid

21. aMnO2 + bHCl cMnCl

2 + dH

2O + eCl

2

pC2H5OH + qO

2 rCO

2 + sH

2O

a, c, q and r in the above chemical equations

respectively are

(1) 2, 4, 2 and 1 (2) 1, 1, 3 and 2

(3) 4, 2, 2 and 1 (4) 2, 1, 4 and 2

22. The number of moles of ammonia that have the

same mass as that of 3 moles of carbon dioxide is

(1) 0.19 mol (2) 2.58 mol

(3) 9.04 mol (4) 7.76 mol

23. Which of the following is an incorrect statement with

respect to Rutherford's atomic model?

(1) There is a positively charged centre in an atom

called nucleus

(2) Electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular

paths

(3) While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do

not radiate energy

(4) The size of nucleus is very small as compared

to the size of the atom

24. Match the following and choose the correct option.

Chemical Reaction Type

(i) Slaking of lime (a) Endothermic

(ii) Respiration (b) Combination

(iii) Neutralisation (c) Exothermic

(iv) Decomposition of

limestone

(1) (i) b,c; (ii) c; (iii) c,a; (iv) a,b

(2) (i) c; (ii) b; (iii) b,c; (iv) a

(3) (i) a,b; (ii) b,c; (iii) c; (iv) b

(4) (i) b,c; (ii) c; (iii) c; (iv) a



4

29. On thermal decomposition of baking soda, salt ‘X’ is

obtained. The aqueous solution of ‘X’ will be

(1) Acidic

(2) Basic

(3) Amphoteric

(4) Neutral

30. Compound A on reacting with baking soda produces

a colourless gas C, which when passed through lime

water forms a solution D. On further passing the gas

C through D, another solution E is formed. Identify

the nature of A and the colour of the solution E.

(1) Acidic, blue (2) Basic, red

(3) Basic, yellow (4) Acidic, colourless

31. The green coloured pigment present in chloroplast

helps in

(1) Absorption of phosphorus from the soil

(2) Absorption of light energy

(3) Removal of excess water through lenticels

(4) Exchange of respiratory gases

32. Select incorrect statement(s) regarding the given

diagram of human brain.

P

Q

S

R

(i) P is responsible for precision of voluntary

actions.

(ii) Centre associated with hunger is a part of P.

(iii) Involuntary actions like salivation and vomiting

are controlled by R.

25. Read the following statements carefully.

Statement-1 : One mole of carbon weighs 12 g.

Statement-2 : 0.5 moles of nitrogen gas contains

3.011 × 1023 atoms of nitrogen.

Now, choose the correct option.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect

(3) Only statement-1 is correct


26. Which of the given metals liberate hydrogen gas on

reaction with both acids and bases?

(1) Sodium

(2) Potassium

(3) Magnesium

(4) Zinc

27. Which of the following contains the maximum

number of atoms?

(1) 48 g of helium

(2) 3.011 × 1021 molecules of ammonia

(3) 48 molecules of methane

(4) 3 mol of oxygen

28. Carbon cannot be used to reduce the oxides of

sodium and magnesium to their respective metals

because

(1) Sodium and magnesium have high affinity for

carbon than oxygen

(2) Sodium and magnesium have high affinity for

oxygen than carbon

(3) Sodium and magnesium are least active metals

(4) Sodium and magnesium catch fire on exposure

to air



5

36. In the following diagram, which labellings are

correct?

(iv) Bowman's capsule

(iii) Tubular part of nephron

(v) Glomerulus

(ii) Collecting duct

(i) Renal artery

(vi) Branch of renal artery

(1) (i), (ii) & (iv) (2) (ii), (v) & (vi)

(3) (iv), (v) & (vi) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii)

37. Which of the following sets of words should be used

to replace the underlined terms (wherever necessary)

to make the given statements correct?

(i) The saliva contains salivary amylase that breaks

down complex molecules of proteins.

(ii) Undigested food material is removed from the

body through anus.

(iii) The hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium

which facilitates the action of the enzyme

trypsin.

(iv) The walls of large intestine contain glands which

secrete intestinal juice.

(v) Bile pigments break down large fat globules into

small globules.

(iv) Q helps in maintaining posture and balance of

the body.

(v) Reflex actions are controlled by S.

(1) Only (i)

(2) (i), (iii) & (v)

(3) (ii) & (iii)

(4) (iii), (iv) & (v)

33. In humans, ________ provides a surface where

exchange of gases can take place.

(1) Neuron

(2) Villi

(3) Nephron

(4) Alveolus

34. Statement-1 : Carbon dioxide is insoluble in water.

Statement-2 : Haemoglobin has a high affinity for

oxygen.

(1) Both the statements are true

(2) Both the statements are false

(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false

(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true

35. Glucose(i)

Pyruvate Lactic acid + energy(ii)

The given reactions take place, respectively, in

(1) (i) Chloroplast (ii) Subsidiary cells

(2) (i) Mitochondria (ii) Chloroplast

(3) (i) Cytoplasm (ii) Chloroplast

(4) (i) Cytoplasm (ii) Muscle cells



6

42. Rings of cartilage are present in the throat to

(1) Absorb more oxygen from the air

(2) Filter the inhaled air

(3) Prevent the air passage from collapsing

(4) Produce more energy

43. While explaining the role of various plant hormones

practically, a teacher observed many wilted leaves on

a tree in the garden. Which of the following

hormones is/are responsible for this?

(1) Auxins

(2) Cytokinins

(3) Abscisic acid

(4) Gibberellins

44. Which of the following is the first step of

photosynthesis?

(1) Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and

oxygen

(2) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll

molecules

(3) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates

(4) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy

45. Statement-1 : The opening and closing of the

stomatal pore is the function of guard cells.

Statement-2 : The stomatal pore closes, if the guard

cells swell.



(3) Both the statements are correct

(4) Both the statements are incorrect

(1) Fats Anus Trypsin Small Juice

(2) Sugar Rectum Pepsin Small Pigments

(3) Starch Anus Pepsin Small Salts

(4) Proteins Rectum Trypsin Large Juice

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

38. In which part of the alimentary canal digestion of

starch begins?

(1) Stomach (2) Large intestine

(3) Liver (4) Buccal cavity

39. The artificial kidney removes nitrogenous waste

products from blood through the process of

(1) Dialysis

(2) Active transport

(3) Absorption

(4) Imbibition

40. After an accident, Ram lost his memory, intelligence

and ability to think and reason out. It also affected

his ability to hear and see. Which part of the central

nervous system was most likely affected in the

accident?

(1) Spinal cord

(2) Forebrain

(3) Midbrain

(4) Hindbrain

41. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are the two endocrine glands located in

the brain. ‘X’ releases a hormone ‘Z’ which regulates

growth in humans. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are

(1) X – Hypothalamus and Y – Pituitary gland

(2) X – Thyroid gland and Y – Pineal gland

(3) X – Pituitary gland and Y – Pineal gland

(4) X – Pituitary gland and Y – Thyroid gland



7

46. If , and are the zeroes of a cubic polynomial

ax3 + cx + d, then (1 + ) + + is equal to

(1)2c

a

(2)

2d

a

(3)d

a

(4)

c

a

47. In the given figure, PQRS is a trapezium such that

PQ || SR. The ratio PR : QS is always equal to

O

P Q

RS

(1) PQ : SR

(2) PO – OR : QO – OS

(3) PO + OR : QO – OS

(4) PO2 : OQ

2

48. If 0º < < 90º, then

21 sin cos

cos (1 sin )

is always equal

to

(1) –tan (2) cot

(3) tan (4) –cot

49. If (2 ) 16a a , then the value of a is

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 4

(4) 16

SECTION-B : MATHEMATICS

50. In the given figure, if A and B are the mid-points of

the sides PR and QR respectively of PQR and

ACR = BCR, then PQR is always a/an

P

A

B

C R

Q

(1) Scalene triangle

(2) Isosceles triangle

(3) Equilateral triangle

(4) Right angled triangle

51. An English word consists of 9 alphabets. The sum

of twice the number of vowels and three times the

number of consonants present in the word is equal

to four more than four times the total number of

vowels in the English alphabets. The product of the

number of vowels and consonants present in the

word is

(1) 9 (2) 20

(3) 18 (4) 14

52. In a convex quadrilateral PQRS, SPR = 80°,

QPR = 40°, SQR = 40° and PR = PS. If

diagonals PR and QS intersect at O, then the

measure of POQ is

(1) 90°

(2) 100°

(3) 110°

(4) 120°



8

58. If cot cos 2 3

cot cos 2 3

and 0 < < 90°, then the

value of is

(1) 0° (2) 60°

(3) 30° (4) 45°

59. In the given figure, 1 = 2 = 3. If AD = 5 cm,

DC = 4 cm and the perimeter of BEC is 13 cm,

then the length of BE is

1 2

E

D

C

3

A

B

(1) 4.1 cm

(2) 2 cm

(3) 3.5 cm

(4) 5 cm

60. If p(x) = ax3 + bx

2 + cx + d is a polynomial and

a + b + c + d = 0, then which of the following must

be a factor of p(x)?

(1) x + 1 (2) x – 1

(3) x2 – 1 (4) x

61. HOPE is a parallelogram as shown in the given

figure. The value of y is

H O

PE42°

yx

2x3x

(1) 21° (2) 14°

(3) 35° (4) 27°

53. The ratio of the radius of the base of a cylinder to

its height is 7 : 6. If the volume of the cylinder is

294 cm3, then its base diameter is

(1) 1 cm (2) 14 cm

(3) 7 cm (4) 12 cm

54. If the product of HCF and LCM of two natural

numbers is 378000, then which of the following can

be their HCF?

(1) 66 (2) 130

(3) 34 (4) 20

55. In the given figure, MNP is a right triangle such that

N = 90°. MO2 – NO

2 is always equal to

M

N O P

(1)2 21

( )4

MP NP (2)2 21

( )2

MP NP

(3) 2(MP2 – NP

2) (4) MP2 – NP

2

56. 2 3 can be expressed as

(1)1

23

(2)1

32

(3)1 3

2

(4)

3 1

2

57. If the side x of a cube becomes 11 times of itself,

then its volume increases by

(1) 1330x3 (2) 1331x

3

(3) 1321x3 (4) 1320x

3



9

62. If sin(A + B) = sinAcosB + cosAsinB, then the value

of (sin1°cos29° + cos1°sin29°) is

(1)1

4(2)

1

2

(3)1

2(4) 1

63. For the given system of equations 3x – 4y = 5 and

5x + by = c to be inconsistent, one pair of values of

b and c can be

(1)20

3b and

25

3c

(2) b = – 6.4 and c = – 20

(3) b = 6.4 and c = 19

(4)20

3b and c = –19

64. Let p, q, r and l, m, n be the lengths of the sides

of the two triangles such that p2 + q2 + r

2 = 117,

l2 + m

2 + n2 = 117 and lp + mq + nr = 117. The

two triangles can always be proved congruent by

which of the following congruence criterion?

(1) ASA (2) SAS

(3) RHS (4) SSS

65. If (–5, –5) is the solution of the system of equations

3x + 4y + 2p – q = 0 and 4x + 3y + q – 3r = 0,

then r is always equal to

(1)1( )

3q p (2)

2( )

3q p

(3)1(3 2 )

2q p (4)

3(2 )

2q p

66. Which of the following numbers will completely divide

261 + 262 + 263 + 264?

(1) 100 (2) 10

(3) 27 (4) 17

67. If a, b, c and d are natural numbers such that

a2 + b2 = 41 and c2 + d2 = 25, then the polynomial

whose zeroes are (a + b) and (c + d) can be

(1) x2 – 9x + 12 (2) x

2 – 16x + 63

(3) x2 – 2x + 14 (4) x

2 – 7x + 9

68. A rectangular tank, 50 cm long and 30 cm wide,

contains water upto a height of 9 cm. A box of

dimensions 25 cm × 25 cm × 20 cm is now placed

in the tank so that its square face rests on the

bottom of the tank. The quantity of water (in L) that

must be poured into the tank in order to just cover

the box is

(1) 0.4

(2) 16.5

(3) 12.5

(4) 4

69. In the given circle with centre O, RL MQ. The

difference of the measures of QAT and LTM is

M

L

Q

RP

OT

A25°

(1) 30° (2) 70°

(3) 20° (4) 50°

70. If 2sin 2cos 1 0 and is an acute

angle, then the value of cosec is

(1) 2( 2 1) (2) 2( 3 1)

(3)2 1

2

(4)

( 3 1)

2



10

Directions (Q.78) : In a certain language, ‘45’ is coded

as 3, ‘35’ is coded as 5, ‘6’ is coded as 2.

78. ‘34’ will be coded as

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 7 (4) 2

79. Choose the alternative which is different from the

others.

(1) Einstein (2) Niels Bohr

(3) CV Raman (4) Wright brothers

80. A digital display unit has 7 parts as shown.

M

T

B

L1

L2

R1

R2

In a digital clock, there are hour display units

(H1, H

2) and minute display units (M

1, M

2).

H1

H2

M1

M2

In a faulty digital clock, following parts and units are

not functioning properly:

Display Units Part(s) of display unit, which are not functioning properly

H

H

M

M

1

2

1

2

L1, L

T

B

M

2

Which of the following timing cannot be displayed

properly by the above digital clock due to faulty parts

of display units?

(1) 11:10 hrs (2) 11:41 hrs

(3) 14:10 hrs (4) 14:01 hrs

71. If FINE is coded as IFFI, TASTE is coded as

AETTE, then the code for TEACHER is

(1) EHAREER (2) EHERERR

(3) EHEREER (4) EHERRER

72. In a party, there are 15 members. Each shakes hand

with one another. Total numbers of the handshakes

is

(1) 120 (2) 105

(3) 90 (4) 15

73. If x3 – y3 = (x – y) (x2 + y2 – xy) and x3 + y3 = (x +

y)(x2 + y2 + xy), then (23 + 33) (33 – 23)

(1)95

7(2)

35

19

(3)19

35(4) 125

74. Choose the odd one out from the following:

Mobile, iPhone, Laptop, LED, TV

(1) Mobile (2) Laptop

(3) LED (4) iPhone

75. 55 : 1 :: 42 : 8 :: 62 : 27 :: 93 : ?

(1) 16 (2) 27

(3) 49 (4) 81

76. If rank of a student from last is 17th and 15th from

beginning, then how many students are there?

(1) 31 (2) 32

(3) 33 (4) 17

77. Find the missing term.

11 17 23 31, , , , ?

19 29 37 43

(1)41

47(2)

37

53

(3)41

53(4)

37

47

SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY



11

81. Consider following four different dice (not necessarily

standard dice). Choose the odd one out.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

82. In the given question, the pair of figures bears a

certain relationship. Choose the option that exhibits

the same relationship.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

83. ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Directions (Q.84 & Q.85) : Read the following information

carefully and answer the questions.

Five members of a family are sitting on a dining table.

L is the mother of M. M is the sister of N, who is the son

of O. P is the only daughter-in-law of L.

84. How is P related to M?

(1) Sister

(2) Daughter

(3) Sister-in-law

(4) Daughter-in-law

85. O is M's _______ .

(1) Brother (2) Sister

(3) Father (4) Uncle

86. ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)



12

� � �

Directions (Q.89 and Q.90): Read the given information

carefully and answer the following questions.

In a report published, the sources of energy used in India

for the production of electricity in year 2012 are shown

below :

Sources of Energy

Number of Electrical units in Tera Watt Hour

708.3

115.4

26.7

143.8

58.6

4.6

Coal

Gas

Nuclear

Hydro

Renewable

Imports

89. If Hydro is also considered as a renewable form of

energy resource, then what will be the new

percentage of non-renewable form from which

electrical energy is produced?

(1) 19.1 (2) 80.9

(3) 89.1 (4) 89.9

90. If government decides to reduce the contribution of

polluting sources of energy (Coal, Gas and Nuclear)

by 20% keeping the total production of electricity

same and also makes the import contribution NIL by

increasing the required contribution of non-polluting

sources of energy, then the approximate percentage

contribution by non-polluting sources will be

(1) 26

(2) 32

(3) 36

(4) 40

87. In the following figure, how many triangles are possible?

(1) 32 (2) 30

(3) 28 (4) 24

88. If the following image is rotated by 180°

anticlockwise,

then new image will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Note : Answer key of Sample Paper is available at

www.aakash.ac.in & www.anthe.in

ANSWERS

1. (1)

2. (3)

3. (4)

4. (4)

5. (2)

6. (3)

7. (2)

8. (2)

9. (1)

10. (4)

11. (4)

12. (2)

13. (3)

14. (3)

15. (2)

16. (3)

17. (4)

18. (3)

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)Sample Paper

19. (3)

20. (3)

21. (2)

22. (4)

23. (3)

24. (4)

25. (3)

26. (4)

27. (1)

28. (2)

29. (2)

30. (4)

31. (2)

32. (2)

33. (4)

34. (4)

35. (4)

36. (4)

37. (3)

38. (4)

39. (1)

40. (2)

41. (3)

42. (3)

43. (3)

44. (2)

45. (1)

46. (3)

47. (2)

48. (3)

49. (3)

50. (2)

51. (3)

52. (3)

53. (2)

54. (4)

55. (4)

56. (4)

57. (1)

58. (2)

59. (3)

60. (2)

61. (3)

62. (2)

63. (4)

64. (4)

65. (2)

66. (2)

67. (2)

68. (4)

69. (4)

70. (2)

71. (3)

72. (2)

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sample paper aakash national talent hunt exam 2016 (senior)

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