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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014

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1. The distance(S)-time(t) graph of an object of mass2 kg moving along a straight line is as shown below.The net work done on the object in the first fourseconds is

8 m

4 s

S

t

(1) 16 J (2) Zero

(3) 32 J (4) 8 J

2. A man crosses a 90 m long straight track with auniform acceleration in 6 s. If his initial velocity is3 m/s, then he leaves the track with velocity

(1) 30 m/s (2) 27 m/s

(3) 18 m/s (4) 9 m/s

3. Which of the following is not a unit of power?

(1) VA (2) Js–1

(3) kW (4) Wh

4. A passenger, sitting inside a train, is facing in thedirection of motion of the train. He tosses a coin thatfalls ahead of him. It means that the train is

(1) In uniform motion (2) Slowing down

(3) Speeding up (4) Taking a turn

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam-2014

Time : 2 Hours MM : 360SECTION-A : SCIENCE

5. If the current flowing through the electric circuit shownbelow is 1.6 A, then the reading of the voltmeter is

V2

9.6 V

(1) 3.2 V (2) 4.8 V

(3) 8 V (4) 6.4 V

6. If a light ray passes through a rectangular glass slabas shown below, then

75°

i

60°

(1)sin75sin

3i

(2) sin 3 (sin75 )i

(3)sin30sin

3i

(4) sin 3 sin30i


Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper

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7. In the circuit shown below, if the battery does

3240 J of work in 5 s, then the value of resistance R is

6

R

36 V

(1) 4 (2) 10 (3) 3 (4) 2

8. Locate the position of image formed by a concave

mirror for an object placed between its principal

focus and centre of curvature.

(1) At centre of curvature

(2) Between infinity and centre of curvature

(3) Between pole and focus

(4) Behind the mirror

9. Velocity(v)-time(t) graph of an object undergoing

uniform motion is

(1)

v

t

(2)

v

t

(3)

v

t

(4)

v

t

10. In the given figure, value of I2

will be

I2

42

4

8V

I

(1) 1 A (2) 3 A

(3) 4 A (4) 2 A

11. Which of the following reactions involves both

neutralisation and precipitation?

(1) Ca(OH)2

+ CO2

CaCO3

+ H2

O

(2) NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2

O

(3) BaCl2

+ Na2

SO4

BaSO4

+ 2NaCl

(4) Pb(NO3

)2

+ 2KI PbI2

+ 2KNO3

12. Baking powder is

(1) A compound of sodium hydrogencarbonate and

lime

(2) A mixture of baking soda and quick lime

(3) A compound of baking soda and mild edible acid

(4) A mixture of sodium bicarbonate and mild edible

acid

13. Which of the following substances cannot be used

to neutralise an acid extract?

(1) Suspension of milk of magnesia

(2) Baking powder solution

(3) Dock leaf extract

(4) Nettle leaf extract

14. Average atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5. It occurs

in atmosphere in two isotopic forms 17

Cl35 and

17

Cl37. The percentage abundances of these

isotopes are respectively

(1) 80% and 20% (2) 75% and 25%

(3) 70% and 30% (4) 60% and 40%

15. An element ‘E’ contains 19 protons and 20 neutrons.

The ion formed by E, during the formation a stable

compound, is

(1) E2+ (2) E+

(3) E– (4) E2–

16. A mixture contains 0.2 g of oxygen gas and 0.4 g of

carbon dioxide gas. The ratio of oxygen atoms present

in oxygen gas to that in carbon dioxide gas is

(1) 3 : 16 (2) 11 : 8

(3) 3 : 4 (4) 11 : 16



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17. The total number of oxygen atoms present in one

molecule of sodium sulphate is

(1) 4

(2) 3

(3) 4.81 1022

(4) 1.20 1022

18. On heating the crystals of ferrous sulphate strongly

two gases X and Y are evolved. The nature of X and

Y is

(1) Acidic (2) Basic

(3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric

19. Read the following statements carefully :

Statement-1: The main component of bio-gas has

six single bonds in its one molecule.

Statement-2: Boiling point of propane is higher than

that of ethane.

Now, mark the correct option.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect

(3) Only statement-1 is correct

(4) Only statement-2 is correct

20. Match the following :

Functional Group Formula

i. Alcohol (a) C = OHO

ii Aldehyde (b) C = O

iii. Ketone (c) C = OH

iv. Carboxylic acid (d) –OH

(1) i-(b), ii-(a), iii-(c), iv-(d)

(2) i-(c), ii-(a), iii-(b), iv-(d)

(3) i-(d), ii-(b), iii-(c), iv-(a)

(4) i-(d), ii-(c), iii-(b), iv-(a)

21.2

A B6 12 6 in presence of O

(3-carbon compound)

C H O Pyruvate

6CO2

+ 6H2

O + 36 or 38 ATP.

The reaction A and B occur in

(1) A - Cytoplasm and B - Chloroplast

(2) A - Cytoplasm and B - Mitochondria

(3) A - Mitochondria and B - Chloroplast

(4) A - Ribosome and B - Cytoplasm

22. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Urine is produced in kidneys

(2) Nephron is the basic filtration unit of kidneys

(3) Kidneys are located in the pelvic region

(4) Urinary bladder is under the nervous control

23. The part of the brain which maintains balance of the

body is

(1) Cerebrum

(2) Cerebellum

(3) Medulla

(4) Pons

24. Bile juice responsible for emulsification of fats is

stored in

(1) Gall bladder

(2) Small intestine

(3) Liver

(4) Stomach

25. Radhika removed her hand abruptly after touching a

hot object. The message to remove her hand was

given by the

(1) Vertebral column

(2) Spinal cord

(3) Brain

(4) Cranium



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26. A pigment essential for photosynthesis is present in

the

(1) Vacuole

(2) Leucoplast

(3) Mitochondria

(4) Chloroplast

27. In humans, growth hormone is secreted by

(1) Pituitary gland

(2) Adrenal gland

(3) Thyroid gland

(4) Pancreas

28. In an experiment related to photosynthesis a student

added iodine to the leaf in order to test the presence of

(1) Sucrose

(2) Glucose

(3) Starch

(4) Fructose

29. In the given diagram, which of the following parts

labelled as A, B, C and D is responsible for carrying

messages towards the cell body?

A

B C

D

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

30. Statement 1 : Carbon dioxide in humans is

transported in dissolved form.

Statement 2 : In humans, haemoglobin is present

in blood plasma.

(1) Both the statements are true

(2) Both the statements are false

(3) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false

(4) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true

SECTION-B : MATHEMATICS

31. If x – 2 is a factor of the polynomial 2x3 – 2x + k,

then the value of k is

(1) 12 (2) 2

(3) –12 (4) 8

32. The expression (2x + 3y)3 – 18xy(2x + 3y) is equal to

(1) 2x + 3y (2) 4x2 + 9y2

(3) 8x3 + 27y3 (4) 0

33. If , and are the zeroes of the polynomial

2x3 + 3x2 – 4x + 2, then the value of 2 + 2+ 2 is

(1)3

2(2) 4

(3) 2 (4) 1

34. In the given figure, if ABC PQR , then the

measure of ATP is

A P

T

B Q C R

130° 140°

(1) 50°

(2) 40°

(3) 90°

(4) 145°



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35. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If

AP = a units, then the length of PB is

A

P

BO

45°

(1)2

a

units (2)4

a

units

(3)2

3

a

units (4) a units

36. If 3x + 3x – 1 = 36, then the value of x is

(1) 3 (2) 2

(3) 1 (4) 4

37. If 1

p qp q

, where p and q are positive

rational numbers, then 2q p−

is

(1) Equal to 1 (2) Not real

(3) Equal to –1 (4) Equal to 0

38. The dimensions of the base of a cuboid are

40 cm × 20 cm. If its volume is 4,000 cm3, then its

height is

(1) 8 cm (2) 7 cm

(3) 5 cm (4) 6 cm

39. ABC is an equilateral triangle. If P and Q are the

midpoints of AB and AC respectively and

PQ = 3 cm, then the value of PA + AQ is

(1) 3 cm (2) 6 cm

(3) 9 cm (4) 12 cm

40. Which of the following equations has two distinct

real roots?

(1) x2 + 5x + 7 = 0 (2) 3x2 – 2x + 4 = 0

(3) 2x2 + 6x – 5 = 0 (4) x2 + 4x + 5 = 0

41. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle.

AOC + 2ABC is

O

A

B

C

(1) 360° (2) 180°

(3) 90° (4) 270°

42. The value of k for which the quadratic equation

kx2 + 6x + 1 = 0 has equal roots is

(1) 6 (2) 8

(3) 9 (4) 4

43. If f(x) = a0

+ a1

x + a2

x2 + a3

x3 + ... + a10

x10, where

a0

, a1

, .... a10

are constants, then the sum of

coefficients of terms having even powers of x can be

expressed as

(1)(2) ( 2)

2

f f (2)

(2) ( 2)

2

f f

(3)(1) ( 1)

2

f f (4)

(1) ( 1)

2

f f

44. A train takes 2 hours less for a journey of 600 km,

if its speed is increased by 10 km/hr from its

original speed. The original speed of the train is

(1) 65 km/hr (2) 60 km/hr

(3) 55 km/hr (4) 50 km/hr

45. A rectangular piece of paper of dimensions

88 cm × 28 cm is folded without overlapping to

make a cylinder of height 28 cm. The volume of the

cylinder is

(1) 1456 cm3 (2) 4277 cm3

(3) 1746 cm3 (4) 5488 cm3



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46. If (7 4 3) (7 4 3) 14x x , where x < 0, then

5

5

1x

x

is equal to

(1)1

2 (2) –2

(3)1

2(4) 2

47. If an angle of a parallelogram is three-seventh of its

adjacent angle, then the measures of angles of the

parallelogram are

(1) 126°, 54°, 126°, 54°

(2) 48°, 132°, 48°, 132°

(3) 62°, 118°, 62°, 118°

(4) 58°, 122°, 58°, 122°

48. If 452

0. 56990

P , where P is any integer between

0 and 9, then the value of PP is

(1) 16 (2) 64

(3) 27 (4) 256

49. Two cubes of edge 4 cm each are joined end to

end. The surface area of the resulting figure is

(1) 160 cm2 (2) 96 cm2

(3) 140 cm2 (4) 192 cm2

50. In ABC, I is the incentre. If BIC : CIA : AIB

= 5 : 6 : 7, then the value of A : B : C is

(1) 3 : 1 : 5 (2) 1 : 3 : 5

(3) 5 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 5 : 3

51. If 7x + 5y = 12 = 5x + 7y, then x2y + xy2 is equal to

(1) 12 (2) 24

(3) 2 (4) 0

52. If PQRS is a quadrilateral and PR is one of its

diagonals, then which of the following is always true?

(1) PQ + QR + RS + SP > 3PR

(2) PQ + QR + RS + SP < 2PR

(3) PQ + QR + RS + SP > 2PR

(4) PQ + QR + RS + SP = 2PR

53. The number of solutions of the equation 2x + 3y = 5

is

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Zero (4) Infinitely many

54. If the base and height of a triangle are increased by

1 unit each, then the area of the triangle is increased

by 9 sq. units. Also, if base of the triangle is

reduced by 2 units and the height remains the

same, then the area of the triangle is reduced by 12

sq. units. The base of the triangle is of length

(1) 5 units (2) 6 units

(3) 12 units (4) 8 units

55. A field is 1700 cm long and 11 m broad. A

rectangular pit of dimensions 6 m × 3.5 m × 1 m is

dug anywhere in this field and dug out soil is spread

evenly over the remaining part of the field. The

approximate rise in the level of the rest of the field

is

(1) 11.23 cm (2) 12.65 cm

(3) 9.57 cm (4) 10.1 cm

56. The non-negative real root of the quadratic equation

2x2 – x – 21 = 0 is

(1)3

2(2)

7

2

(3)5

2(4) 3



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57. In the given figure, OBC is equilateral. If AB is the

longest chord of the circle and D is the mid-point of

AC, then the ratio of side OA to AD is

O

A

D

C

B

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3

(3) 3 : 3 (4) 4 : 3

58. If P is any point inside a ABC and s is the semi-

perimeter of ABC, then which of the following is

always true?

(1) PA + PB + PC < s (2) PA + PB + PC > 2s

(3) PA + PB + PC < 2s (4) PA + PB + PC > s

59. In the given figure, the value of p is

A

B

CD

135°

76° 65°

2 +

60°

p

(1) 14° (2) 12°

(3) 16° (4) 18°

60. The figure formed by joining the mid-points of sides

of a rhombus, taken in order, must be a

(1) Rectangle (2) Kite

(3) Rhombus (4) Square

SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY

Directions for Q.61 & Q.62 : If '24 – 4' means 6,

'18 ÷ 2' means 20, '16 × 12' means 4, '2 + 4' means 8,

then find the solution of the following questions.

61. 9 18 – 2 × 4 + 3

(1) 6 (2) 5

(3) 7 (4) 13

62. 2000 – 200 20 × 2 + 15

(1) 203 (2) 78

(3) 1 (4) 0

63. What are the maximum number of ways or paths in

which you can go from place 'A' to place 'B', provided

you can cross any junction only once in each

journey? [C, D, E, F, G, H are junction points]

Place

A

Place B

ED

C

HG

F

(1) Four (2) Eight

(3) Twelve (4) Six

64. If 'R' weighs half as much as 'S', 'S' weighs one

fourth of 'J' and 'R' weighs thrice as much as 'M', then

which of the following weighs the least?

(1) M (2) R

(3) S (4) J



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Directions for Q.65 & Q.66 : The first and second pair

of figures bear a certain relationship among them. Find

the missing one.

65.?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

66.?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Directions for Q.67 & Q.68 : In each of the following

questions, choose the figure which will represent the best

relationship among the three classes.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

67. School, Classroom, Blackboard

68. Tea, Coffee, Beverages

69. Complete the figure pattern given below.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Directions for Q.70 & Q.71 : At first, I interchanged the

1st and 7th letter in the word "NONSENSIBILITY" from the

beginning and then removed 2nd, 4th and the last letter to

form a new word, which might not be meaningful.

70. Find the seventh letter from the last in the new word.

(1) N (2) E

(3) I (4) S

71. Which letter is fourth to the right of tenth letter from

the right end in the new word?

(1) E (2) N

(3) B (4) I



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72. Out of all the given numbers as shown below choose

the odd one out.

576

1

64

441

16

100

169144

36200

81

25

(1) 441 (2) 25

(3) 200 (4) 576

73. In this question, select an option figure that can be

formed by involving all the figures (with any

orientation) given in the box marked (A).

(A)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

74. 3 : 4 : : 24 : 32 : : 10 : ?

(1) 14.5 (2) 12.5

(3)1

133

(4)2

133

75. Choose the correct alternative which is different from

the others.

(1) Sofa (2) Table

(3) Furniture (4) Chair

76. Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Deepinder said,

“Her mother's brother is the only son of my mother's

father, who has only two children”. The girl's mother

is Deepinder's

(1) Mother (2) Sister

(3) Aunt (4) Grandmother

77. Which of the following alternatives will come next in

the series?

ZQA, XMC, VIE, TEG, ?

(1) RAI (2) SAG

(3) RAG (4) RAJ

78. Choose the correct alternative that completes the

given pattern.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

79. A shopkeeper uses a code OLISPAH = ` 28/-,

where O = ` 1/-, L = ` 2/-, I = ` 3/- and so on.

Bearing this code scheme in mind, what price does

the code SOAP denote?

(1) ` 120 (2) ` 18

(3) ` 16 (4) ` 61

80. How many triangles are there in the following figure?

(1) 12

(2) 11

(3) 10

(4) 9



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Directions for Q.81 to Q.83 : Study the information given

below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are nine houses. R is

2 km east of Q. P is 1 km north of Q and W is 2 km south

of P. V is 1 km west of W while S is 3 km east of V and U is

2 km north of V. X is situated just in middle of Q and R

while T is just in middle of W and S.

81. Distance between T and V is

(1) 1 km (2) 1.5 km

(3) 2 km (4) 5 km

82. Distance between T and X is

(1) 1 km (2) 2 km

(3) 3 km (4) 4 km

83. Distance between P and U is

(1) 1 km (2) 1.41 km

(3) 2 km (4) 3 km

84. Find the missing number in the given matrix :

6 2 3

5945

110 10 ?

(1) 16 (2) 11

(3) 21 (4) 19

Directions for Q.No. 85 to 88 : Marks obtained by seven

students in respective subjects are given below:

Student Subjects

Maths Science SST English Hindi

Ramesh 68 100 88 100 60

Suresh 75 92 35 120 60

Monica 92 78 56 82 52

Adarsh 120 82 42 130 72

Tara 90 78 90 80 50

Amrit 100 72 85 100 75

Shikha 135 90 90 120 50

Maximum marks that can be obtained in 'Maths' and

'English' are 150. Maximum marks in subjects- Science,

SST and Hindi are 120, 100 and 80 respectively.

85. In how many subjects did Monica obtain 60% or

above marks?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

86. What is the percentage of marks obtained by Tara

overall?

(1) 66.8 (2) 72

(3) 64.6 (4) 70

87. How many students obtained more than 60% marks

both in Maths as well as Science?

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) One (4) Four

88. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by

Shikha in all the subjects?

(1) 470 (2) 558

(3) 485 (4) None of these

89. Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

90. Lion : Pride :: Ship : ?

(1) Dock (2) Troop

(3) Fleet (4) School

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