risky-riskfee asset allocation
TRANSCRIPT
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Capital Allocation BetweenThe Risky And The Risk-Free
Asset
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Its possible to split investment fundsbetween safe and risky assets.
Risk free asset: proxy; T-bills
Risky asset: stock (or a portfolio)
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Issues
Examine risk/return tradeoff. Demonstrate how different
degrees of risk aversion will
affect allocations between riskyand risk free assets.
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rf = 7% rf= 0%E(rp) = 15% p = 22%
y = % in p (1-y) = % in rf
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E(rc) = yE(rp) + (1 - y)rf
c = complete or combined portfolio
For example, y = .75
E(rc) = .75(.15) + .25(.07)= .13 or 13%
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E(r)
E(rp) = 15%
rf = 7%
22%0
P
F
c
E(rc) = 13%C
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pc =
Since rf
y
= 0, then
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c= .75(.22) = .165 or 16.5%
If y = .75, then
c= 1(.22) = .22 or 22%
If y = 1
c= (.22) = .00 or 0%
If y = 0
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Borrow at the Risk-Free Rate and invest in
stock.
Using 50% Leverage,
rc= (-.5) (.07) + (1.5) (.15) = .19
c = (1.5) (.22) = .33
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E(r)
E(rp) = 15%
rf = 7%
p = 22%0
P
F
) S = 8/22
E(rp) - rf = 8%
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E(r)
9
%7%
) S = .36
) S = .27
P
p = 22%
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Greater levels of risk aversion lead tolarger proportions of the risk free rate.
Lower levels of risk aversion lead tolarger proportions of the portfolio ofrisky assets.
Willingness to accept high levels of riskfor high levels of returns would resultin leveraged combinations.
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U = E ( r ) - .005 A 2
Where
U = utility
E ( r ) = expected return on the asset
or portfolio
A = coefficient of risk aversion
2 = variance of returns
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E(r)
7%
P
Lender
Borrower
p = 22%
The lender has a larger A when
compared to the borrower
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Optimal Risky Portfolios
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Number ofSecurities
St. Deviation
Market Risk
Unique Risk
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Range of values for 1,2+ 1.0 > > -1.0
If = 1.0, the securities wouldbe perfectly positively
correlatedIf = - 1.0, the securitieswould be perfectly negatively
correlated
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2p = W12 12+ W22 12+ 2W1W2
rp = W1r1 +W2r2 + W3r3
Cov(r1r2)
+ W32 32
Cov(r1r
3)
+ 2W1W3
Cov(r2r3)+ 2W2W3
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E(rp) = W1r1 +W2r2
2= w12 12 + w22 22 + 2W1W2 Cov(r1[w1
2 12 + w22 22 + 2W1W2 Cov(r1r2
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= 1
13%
%8
E(r)
St. Dev12% 20%
= .3
= -1
= -1
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The relationship depends oncorrelation coefficient.
-1.0 < < +1.0
The smaller the correlation, the greaterthe risk reduction potential.
If = +1.0, no risk reduction is
possible.
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1
1 2
22 -Cov(r1r2)W
1
=
+ -2Cov(r1r2)W2 = (1 -
W1)
2
2E(r2) = .14 = .20Sec 212= .2
E(r1) = .10 = .15Sec 1
2
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W1=(.2)2 - (.2)(.15)(.2)
(.15)2 + (.2)2 - 2(.2)(.15)(.2)
W1= .6733
W2= (1 - .6733) = .3267
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p = .6733(.10) + .3267(.14) = .1131
p= [(.6733)2(.15)2 + (.3267)2(.2)2 +
2(.6733)(.3267)(.2)(.15)(.2)]1/2
p =[.0171]
1/2
= .1308
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W1=(.2)2 - (.2)(.15)(.2)
(.15)2 + (.2)2 - 2(.2)(.15)(-.3)
W1= .6087
W2= (1 - .6087) = .3913
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p = .6087(.10) + .3913(.14) = .115
p= [(.6087)2(.15)2 + (.3913)2(.2)2
2(.6087)(.3913)(.2)(.15)(-.3)]1/2
p=
[.0102]
1/2
= .1009
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The optimal combinations result inlowest level of risk for a given return.
The optimal trade-off is described asthe efficient frontier.
These portfolios are dominant.
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E(r)
Efficientfrontier
Globalminimum
varianceportfolio
Minimumvariancefrontier
Individualassets
St. Dev.
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The optimal combination becomes linear.
A single combination of risky and riskless
assets will dominate.
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M
E(r)
CAL (Globalminimum variance)
CAL (A)CAL (P)
P
A
F
P P&F A&FM
A
G
P
M
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E(r)
Efficient
frontier ofrisky assets
Morerisk-averseinvestor
U U U
Q
P
S
St. Dev
Less
risk-averseinvestor
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E(r)
FrfA
PQ
B
CAL
St.
Dev