INDIAN INSTITUTE OF SCIENCE BANGALORE - 560,012

Program Research Entrance Paper : Atmospheric Sciences

Paper Code : AS

Day & Date SUNDAY, 27TH APRIL 2008

Time 9.00 A.M. TO 12.00 NOON

G E N E W INSTRUCTIONS

1. The question paper consists of two parts, Part A and Part B.

2. There are 20 questions in PART A. Each quesrion is followed by four answers, out

of which only one is the comct answer.

Answer ali questions in Part A.

3. Answers to Part A are to be marked in the OMR sheet provided.

4. For each ques tion darken the appropriate bubbIe to indicate your answer.

5. Use only HB pencils for bubbling answers. -

6. Mark only one bubble per question. If you mark more than one bubble, the question

will be evaluated as inwrrect.

7. If you wish to change your answer, please erase the existing mark completely before

marking the other bubble.

8. Answers to Part B are to be written in the separate answer book provided.

9. There are 8 questions in PART 13.

Answer any SIX questions in Part B

10. Candidates are asked to fill in the required fields on the sheet attached to the answer

book.

I 1. There is no negative marking.

Atmospheric & Oceanic Sciences

PART A

Answer all questions. All questions carry equal weight. (20 x 2 = 40 marks)

1. The atrnospheric residence time of CO2 is about

(A) 1 month

(B) 1 Year

(C 100 years

(D) 10000 years

2. If the b c t i o n qx) = 1 -2 cos2(x) + Isin(-x)cos(x), 0 < x < 2rr is expanded Ui the fonn

f(x)= &aksin(h) + bkcos(k) (k=0 , 1,2,3, ... m), thenall values ofak and bk are

zero, except

(A) bo, b4,a

CB) ao. b4.m

(C) a2, bz @) al, bl

3. The diurnal range in the surface temperature tends to be maximum when it is

(A) cloudy and windy

) cIoudy and caim

(C) clear and windy

(D) clear and calm

4. At what time of day is the relative humidity normaiiy at a minimum?

(A) Just before sunrise

) When h e air temperature is highest

(C) About midnight

(D) When air temperature is lowest

5. Suppose two surfaces are at ternperatures T and 2T (in K). The ratio of the energy

radiated by the hotter to that by h e cooler surface is

(A) 112

(B) 1/16

('7 16

1 2

6. The velocity profile in a fluid is given by

where z is height above the surface and H is the layer thickness. If p is he viscosity of

the fluid and assuming U to be a constant, the shear stress at z=0 is

-(x-P) 2

l D O 7. For G finite and positive and for any finite p, - b e 2a2 dx =

4%~- (4 P

@ a3

(C) indeterminate

8. The eigen values of the matrix (7 :2]

-

9. I f T is the temperature of the Earth's-surface (in K), the wavelength of its peak emission

is proportional to

(4 T

( 1 1l.r

(C)

@) lfr'

10. 'In tbe hydrostatic approximation,

(A) vertical acceleration is zero

(B) veriical velocity is zero

(C) horizontal acceleration is zero

@) density is constant

11 . The potential temperature (in OC) of an air parcel initially at a height of 500m above

mem sea level and ternperature of 10 OC is approximately (in deg. C)

12. The velocity field in a fluid is given by V = i u(y) + j v(x,z) + k wb), where (i, j, k) are

unit vectors in the (x, y, z) directions, respectively. The flow is necessarily

(A) rotational

(B) irrotationa1

(C) compressible

@) incompressible

13. Atmospheric density is 1 kg!m3 at a height of approximately

(A) 1 mb

(B) 10 mb

(C) 100 mb

14. The eastern equatorial Pacific ocean surface temperature is significantly above normal

during

(A) an El Nino

) a LaNina

(C) a dipole year

(D) an Ekman event

15. If a random variable X has a (unifom) probability density function fdx) = c -1 5 x 5 1,

where c is a constant, variancem) =

(A) 113

03) 1 19 (C) 219

(Dl c2

16. Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength between 0.4 and 0.7 pm is

(A) ultraviolet light

(B) microwave radiation

(C) visible light

) near infiared radiation

17. If the environmental temperature is Te, the buoyancy force (per unit mass) on a parcel

haviag temperature Tp is (g is acceleration due to gravity)

(4 g

@> g T .

(C) gTJG

@) g(T,- TJRe

18. In a "clean" atmosphere, the blue colour of the sky can be a ~ b u t e d to

(A) absorption of red light

) Mie scattering of red light

(C) emission of blue light

@) Rayleigh scattering of blue light

19. The Gulf strearn is mainly forced by

(A) Wind stress

(B) Density gradient

(c> Geothermal gradient

Co) Salinity gradient

20. The pycnocline is deked as the depth at which

(A) temperahire is maximum

) vertical density pdient is minimum

(C) vertical density gradient is maximum

II) temperature decreases gradually

END OF PART A

PART B

THERE ARE EIGHT QUESTIONS IN THIS PART. ANSWER ANY SM. ALL QUESTIONS CARRY EQUAL WEIGHT.

(6 x 10 = 60 marks)

(STATE YOUR ASSUMPTIONS CLEARLY)

1. A high-altitude balloon remains at a constant potential temperature as it circles the earth.

Suppose such a balloon is in the lower equatorial stratosphere where the temperature is

isothemal at 200 K. If the balloon were displaced verticalIy fiom iis equilibrium ievel

by a small distance 6z it would tend to oscillate about the equilibrium level. What is the

period ofthis oscilation?

2. Given that the sea-level pressure and temperature are po and To, respectively, and

assuming that the temperature decreases unifonnly with height at a rate of K, show that

the height of a pressure surface, p, is given by the folIowing expression:

where R is h e gas constant and g is the acceIeration due to gravity.

3. The dispersion relation of Iong Rossby waves is

where f is the Coriollis fiequency; assume P is a constant equal to 2 X 10'" nils-l, and

g& = 20 m2s-l. At time t = 0, a long Rossby wave is generated all along the line of

longitude 4 = 0 degrees, fiom latitude 0 = 5% to 9 = 30%. What is the shape of the

wavefiont at time T = 1 month? Write the expression and draw a schematic diagram?

4. If the radiative energy ouipiit of a ccrtain slar is 5 . 6 7 ~ X 1 0 ~ ~ W, calculate the "solar"

constant for a planet (radiative flux at the lop oT its surfacc) whose orbit around this star

is n circle of radius lo9 km. Also, assurning tlial the planet is a periect black body with

no atmosphere, calculale its equilibrium temperature

(Stefan-Bollzrnann constant = 5.67 X 10 -~ W K' K-').

5 . A tomado rotates with constant angular velocity o. Show that the surface pressure at the

cenlre of the tornado is given by

wherepo is [he surface pressure at a distance 1.0 fiom lhc centre and T is the temperature

(assurncd constant). If lhe temperature is 288 K, and pressure and windspecd at 100 m

fiom the centre are 100 kPa and 100 m s-', respectively, what is the central pressure?

6. Water is flowing at a constant flow rate through a large pipc of diameter Dl = GOO mm.

It branclies into two pipes o f diameter D2 = 400 mm and D3 = 250 mm. A discharge of 5

m3 s-' is maintained in 6OOrnrn pipe. An average velocily V2 =24 rn s*' was measured in

the 400 mm pipe. Delermine the discharge and average velocity in tlie 250 mm pipe.

Assume flow to be incompressibIe. .

7. a) The dispersion relation of a wave is 0 = p-k< where o is the frequency and k Lhe f

wave number. What are the phase and group speeds? Does thc group speed have a

minimum?

b) A ship is streaming northward a l a rate of 10 km h-'. The surface pressure increases

towards the northwcst at the rale of 5 Pa ~m". What is thc pressure tendency recorded

at a nearby island station if the pressure a b o d the ship decreases at the rate of 100 Pa /

3h?

8. Based on rainfall record over the lasi 100 years (1908-2007), thc total aru~ual rainfall

over India can be considered to be a randoni variable with a mean of 1000mrn and a

standard deviation of IOOriini. Assuming ihai ils distribution can be well approximated

by a Gaussian (Nornial) distribu(ion, and the aniiual rainfall each year is independent of

oiher years, cstimate the fol lowing (use thc standard normal approx imation provided

below):

(a) Tlie probabilily that the total annual rainfall for 2008 will be less tlian 1000mm

(b) The probability that the toial annual rainfall for 2008 will exceed 950mm

(c) The probability that tlie [ota1 annual rainfall for 2008 will be between 900mm and

1 1 OOmrn

Standard Norrnal Approximation If a rando~n variable X has a Normal distribution

with mean px and siandard deviation DX, the corresponding shndard nomal variate

(mean 0 and standard devialion 1) is defined as Z = (X - pdY)/qy. Then,

Use positive root for z > 0 and negative root for z < 0.

END OF PART B

INDIAN INSTITUTE OF SCIENCE BANGALORE - 56001 2

Program Research Entrance Paper : Biological Sciences

Paper Code : BC

Day & Date SUNDAY, 27'" APRIL 2008

Time 9.00 A.M. TO 12.00 NOON

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. This papcr consists of 100 multiple choice qucstions and carrics a total of 100 marks, onc mark for each question.

2. Answers io all questions should be marked only on the OMR sheet provided.

3. For each question, darken (fill) the appropriate bubble on the OMR slieel to indicate your answer.

4. Use only 1-IB pencils to darken thc bubbles.

5 . Darken only one bubble per question. If you mark more than one bubble to answcr a question, it will be evaIuated as incorrect.

6. If you wish to change your ansiver, please erase the exisiing mark compIetely before filling in the other bubble.

7. Thcre is no negative marking for wrong answcrs.

8. Candidates are rcquired to f i l l in h e rcquired fields on thc answer sheet attaclied.

BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES

1. A nick in a DNA moIecule can be detected by which of the following methods?

(A) Nested PCR (B) Primer extcnsion (C) RT-PCR (Dl Karyotyping

2. The stmcture of a double-stranded DNA in a palindrornic sequence is

(A) G-quartets (B) Triplex DNA (C) Hairpin DNA (D) Crucifonn DNA

3. The enzyme responsible for indefinite growth of human cancer cells is

(A) Telomerase (B) DN A polymerase 1 (C) RNA polymerase (D) Reverse lranscriptase

4. Spontaneous deamination in a DNA stored at -20°C will lead to conversion of cytosine into

(A) Thymine (B) Guanine (C) Adenine (D) Uracil

5 . Whicli of the following does NOT apply to iriplex DNA

(A) II is triple-stranded DNA (B) Requires onIy Hoogsteen hydrogen bonding (C) Requires Watson-Crick hydrogen bonding (D) Forms at neuhl or acidic pH

6. Tlie replicative polymerase in E. coli is

(A) - DNA polyrnerase 1 (B) DNA polymerase Ii (C) DNA polyrnerase m @) DNAprimase

7. A DNA chip contains a complete set of random hexanucleotide (6-mers) probes. Out of the 4" 4096 probes, how many wiI1 form perfect complemcntary duplcxes wi th sequences within the 14 nucleotide singleshanded target DNA, 5' -GAACTGCAlTGATA-3'?

8. A major deviation from Mendel s laws occurs because of

(A) Linkage (B) Mutation (C) Reversion @) Complementation

9. A mixture of 50-mer oligonucleotide and free nucleotides was loaded onro a Sephadex G-50 gel filfration column, which of the following results can be expected?

(A) The oligonucleotide and the nucleotidcs would be retained in the column and they both can bind the resin

(B) The oligonucleotide would elute first (C) Nucleotide would elute first (D) Both CO-elute on this column

10. Mcthylation of glutamate residues is typically associated with

(A) Chemotaxis in bacteria (B) Nuclear translocation in eukaryotes (C) Restriction in bacteria (D) Inter-celluIar transport in p1anis

11. Solute movement through which channel is mainIy responsible for the resting voltage?

(A) Porin (B) Gap junction (C) Glucose (D) Potassium

12. Ribonuclease has four disulfide bonds which were reduced by Dithiothreitol in presence of SM urca. These reagents wcre rernoved by diaIysis so rhal the prolein could refoId and ihe disulfide bonds reformed. If h e refonnation of S-S bonds occurred randomly, h e expected rccovery of [he biological activiiy would be

(A) 100% (B) 80% (C> 0.95 % (D) 95 %

13. Myoglobin has 153 amino acid residues. If it was a continuous d-helix, the Iength of myoglobin would be

(A) 36 nm (B) 53 nni (C) 55 nrn (D) 23 nrn

14. The V,,, of an enzyrne was 90 pmoIeslmin/mg of protein. IT the molecular mass of the enzyme is 20,000 Da, the tumover nurnber (min -') of thc enxyrne ic

(A) 180 @) 1800 (C) 90 (Dl 18

1 5 . Wiiich or the following are most likely to be unstable?

(A) Holocentric chromosomes in C. elegans (B) Melacentric chromosomes in humans (C) Dicentric chromosomes in yeast (D) Monocentric chromosomes in mice

16. Thc peptide bond is not

(A) apolar (B) apartialdoublebond (C) planar (D) t r a ~ ~ s in proteins

17. The Bohr effect in hemoglobin refers to the

(A) reduced &nity for O2 at lowerpH (B) higher pH in actively metabolizing tissues (C) increased aff-ity for O2 at lower pH (D) low pH in actively metabolizing tissues

(A) is found primanly in mucosaI secretions (B) is one of h e less common immunoglobulin typcs (C) has the highest molecular weight of all immunoglobulins (D) contains carbohydrate covalently attachcd to thc hcavy chain

19. Which of the following genes is defeciivc in patients suffcring fiom sevcrc cornbined immunodeficiency syndrome?

(A) cysticfibrosis~ansmembraneconductor rcgulator(CFTR) (B) adenosine deaminase (C) ribonucleotide reductase (D) alpha 2 microglobulin

20. For which of h e following diseases, a recombinant vaccine is available

(A) Hepatitis A (3) Hepatitis C (C) Hepatitis B (D) 1-Iepatitis E

21. Which of the following molecules is a poor immunogen in children?

(A) Bacterial polysaccharides (B) Cholera toxoid (C) Killedrabiesvirus (D) Live attcnuated polio virus

22. Which of thc following proteins is NOT required for the growth of Saccl~aronryces cerevisiae celis in a medium containing glucose as ihe sole carbon source?

(A) Phosphoglyccrate kinase (B) GAPDH (C) Hexokinase (D) Cytochrome C

. 23. hcubation of GTP with a protein resulted in the fomation of GDP and P,. The protein is likely to tie:

(Al Ras (B) Myc (C) Fos (Dl Myb

24. FOS, JUN and MYC are:

(A) proteins cxpressed on the surface of cancerous cells (B) protein kinases that phosphorylate transcription factors regulating expression of

cancer genes (C) proteins involved in regulation of expression of genes involved in growth promotion (D) pro teins involved in recombination and DNA repair

25. Which one of the following staiements is correct?

(A) Hclper T cells express surface CD8 marker (B) Cyto tox ic T cells express surface CD4 marker (C) Helper T cells express surface immunoglobulin IgG @) Cyto toxic T cells express surface CD8 marker

26. I i secretory IgA protein subjected to SDS-PAGE under reducing conditions, the number of bands one can visualize after staining is:

27. A THl subset of T cells typically secretes

(A) JL5 (B) L - 1 3 (C) IL-4 (D) m-v

28. Which 01 the follo w ing aie examples of prirnary lyrnphoid organs

(A) Spleen and Iymph node (B) Lymph node and Peyer's patches (C) Bone rnarrow and thyrnus @) Tonsils and liver

29. Phagocytes kill bacteria using all of the following EXCEPT

(A) Hydrogen peroxide (B) Hydrolytic enzymes

(C) ~ W P H (J3) Sirong reducing agents

30. Which one oT the fo1Iowing sequences in proteins corresponds 10 N-glycosyla~ion site? (X . indicates any amino acid residue)

(A) Asn-Ser/Thr (B) Asn-X-SerlThr (C) Asn-X-X-SerlThr (D) Sermhr-Asn

3 1. Which orthe following secondary metabolites is NOT an anti-cancer dmg?

(A) Paclitaxel (B) Podophyllotoxin (C) Atropine (D) %ncristinc

32. (33 and C4 plants differ in their photosynthesis, hoiv?

(A) C4 plants can separate CO1 fixation and Calvin cycle temporally o;spatially (B) C4 plants can perform the light dependent reactions at night (C) C4 planis rcquire less energy for thcir carbon acquisilion and are, thcrefore, morc

eficient (D) C3 planls perfonn the light indepcndent reaclions in ihe vascular bundles

33. If lhc average molecular weight of one amino acid is 1 10 Daltons, the molecular weight of a peptide made up of 10 amino acids is expected to be

(A) 1100 (B) 938 (C) 876 P) 744

34. A bacterium has 1000 genes. Among the two daughlers following replication, ihere is a probability of 11100 that a gene in either of the daughters hac mutated. If a culture of one million cclIs is raised fiom one bacterium, the probability that the culture is a true clone (j .en, contains no mutants) js

(A) about 99 in 100 (3) about 1 in 100 (C) about 1 in 10000 @) < ~ X I O "

35. Maich the following and choose ihe correct combinarion:

i. Rho and Rac proteins ii. Raf iii. Rb iv. MAPKs v. Bad

a. Serine/thrconinc kinase b. Tumour suppressor gene c. GTP-binding proteins d. Apoptotic iactor e. Regulate Ihe activity of

transcription fac tors

(A) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-e, v-d (B) i-b, ii-a, iii-e, iv-c, v-d (C) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-e, v-a (D) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c, v-d

36. Which of ihe following is common to ihe synthesis of all steroid honnones?

(A) Conversion of testosterone 10 estradiol (B) Cholestcrol side chain cleavage (C) Isomerization (D) Dehydrogenation

37. Myasthenia Gravis in hurnans is characterized by increased muscular weakness because of diminishing effects of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junction due to

(A) Decrcascd release af acetylcholine at lhc ncurornuscular junction (B) Increased activation of acetylcholine receptor C ) Production of antibodies against ace~ylcholine reccptor (D) Increased release of inhibitory neurotransrnitters at the neuromuscular junction

38. The posterior pituitary stores and secretes

(A) ADH and FSH (B) GH and Prolaciin (C) ACTH and ADH @) ADH and Oxytocin

39. If '4~-g~ycint: is used for biosynthetic labeling, which one of the following rnolecules c m be labeled in bacterial cells?

(A) Purines and pyrirnidines (B ) Purines and proteins (C) Proteins and Iipids @) Pyrirnidines and proteins

40. Which one of lhe following reagents inhibits mamrnalian cell cycle at M phase?

(A) Colcemid (B) Adriamycin (C) Mimosine (D) Hydroxyurea

I 4 1. In which one o l thc following metabolic reactions is GTP utilized?

(A) DNA replication (B) Fatiy acid biosynthesis (C) Protein synthesis (D) ATP s ynthesis

II 42. Rous Sarcoma vims uses the following enzyme for its replication:

(A) DNA dependent DNA Polymerase @) RNA dependent RNA Polymerase (C) DNA dependent RNA Polymerase (D) RNA dependent DNA Polymerase

The protection against Small Pox afforded by prior infection with Cow Pox represents

(A) Antigenic Specificity (B) Antigenic Cross-reac tivity (C) Viral Super-infection @) h a t e Imrnunity -

The antigenic peptides can bind to the T cell receptor when the peptides are only

(A) in the kee f o m (B) when bound by antibody (C) when complexed to hapten 0) when Ioadcd on to MHC molecules

Which of ihe fol lowing enzyrnes can be used 10 radiolabel DNA as well as RNA?

(A) Klenow fragrnen t of DNA polymerase 1 (B) Polyiiucleotide kinase (C) Revcrse transcriptase @) Taq polymerase

46. Which oE the foIlowing antibiotics resembIes the 3' end of a charged tRNA molecule?

(A) Puromycin (B) S lrep toniycin (C) Tetracycline (D) Kananiycin

47. Wheii heaied, he AZb0 of DNA sample A increases lincarly wilh temperalure, whereas Lhat of DNA sainplc B increases CO-operatively. Whic h one of the follorving is correct?

(A) Both A & B are single stranded (B) A is double stranded and B is single siranded (C) Both A & B are double stranded (D) A is siiigle slranded and B is double stranded

48. Wliich of the following gascs ac t as signaling moleculcs in eukaryoles?

(A) Ethylene and Niirous oxide '

(B) Ethylene and Nih-ic oxide (C) Carbon dioxide and elhylene (D) Nitric oxide and oxygen

49. You dissolve one mole of sodium acetate in 1 L o f pure water. The concentration of sodium acetale in Lhis solution is

(A) .l.OM (B) 10.0M (C) 4 . O M (D) 1.1 M

50. The secondary structure of a proiein can be dctcmined by

(A) NMR spectroscopy, X-ray crys tallography and CD speciroscopy (3) NMR spectroscopy, X-ray crystallography and Fluorescence spectroscopy (C) X-ray cryslallography, W-visible sp eclroscopy and Fluorcscencc spectroscopy (D) CD spectroscopy, Mass spectroscopy and Fluorescence anisobopy

5 1. Match the following and choose the correct combination:

(a) Protein structure (1) Northern blot (b) DNA transfer (2) Frederick Sanger (c) DNA sequencing (3) Ramachandran plot (d) R N A transfer (4) Southern Blot

(A) a-2; b-4; c-3; d-1 (S3) a-3; b-1; c-2; d-4 (C) a-3; b-4; c-2; d-l @) a-2; b- 1; c-3; d-4

52. 500 ml of aqueous solution at pH 2 is mixed with 500 ml of aqueous solution at pH 7. Neither solution is buffered; the resulting pR is closest to

53. The dimension of a subcellular body is 1.5A. Its dimension in meters is

(A) 1 . 5 ~ 108 (B) 1.5 x 10'~ (c) 1.5 I o-? (J3) 1.5 x 10"O

54, The approximate total nurnber of red bIood cells (RBC) in a human body is 25x1 012. About 2x1 0 l1 RBCs are pmduced per day. Therefore, the RBC on an averagc survives for

[A) 12.5 days (B) 2.5 days (C) 125 days (D) 200 days

55. The molecular weight of IgG is 150 kDa. If the mass ratio of antibody:antigen in an IgG- antigen complex is 1 : 1, the molecular weight of ihc antigcn is

(A) 75 kDa (B) 15OkDa (C) 251cDa @) 300kDa

56. Arnino acid composition analysis revealcd that a peptide has 2 AIa, 2 Lys and I Phe. Further, a) Ala is observed at the ,N-temiinus before and after digcslion with chyrnotrypsin and b) a iree Lys is re teased afier digestion witli trypsin. Idenii fy the sequence of the pcplide?

(A) Ala-Ala-Phe-Lys-Lys (B) Ala-Phe-Lys-Ala-Lys (C) Ala-Phe-Lys-Lys- Ala (D) Ala-Phe-Ala-Lys-Lys

57. An oligonieric pro tein dissociates to its component subunits when exposed to temperature beloiv O'C, whereas high salt concentralion has l i l t le effecl on its dissociation. The quaternaty stmcture of the protein is likely to be stabiIized by

(A) van der Waals interaction (B) Eleclrostalic inleraction (C) Hydrophobic interaction (D) Covalcnl bondc

58. Signal recognition particle consists of:

(A) A single large RNA (B) A multi-protein complex (C) A complex of a single RNA and mulliplc proleins (D) A complcx of muILiple RNAs and multiple proteins

59.- In iniiucnza virus infected cells, 5' cap-dependent translation of host cell mRNAs is severely impaired. The mechanism involvcs:

(A) Slealingof5'capofthehosicellmRNAby Ihevirus (B) Cleavage oT an essmtial initiation factor by viral proteases (C) Degradation of host cell mRNA by virus induced nucleases (D) Cornpetition with the viral mRNA foor the initiaiing ribosome

60. Two-hybrid analysis is used for:

(A) Studying DNA-protein interactions (B) Sludying protein-protein interactions (C) Studying regulatory proteins (D) Identificalion of complementary strands of nucleic acids

61. Whcn the nerve cells send a message for muscle cells to contract, acetylcholine attaches to thc rcceptor on the muscle cell membrane and a channel i s opened aI1owing the ~ a ' ions to enter the c e l through:

(A) Diffusion (B) Osmosis (C) Active transport (D) Facilitated difision

62. Mitochondria are involvcd in all of the following, except

(A) ATP-production (B) Apoptosis (C) Tricarboxylic acid cycle (D) Fatty acid biosynthesis

63. Pluripotent cells are normally derived from

(A) Foetal tissue (B) Inner cell mass of blastocyst (C) Trophectoderm of blastocyst @) Foetal gonadal ridge

64. For crnbryo cloning by nuclear transfer technology, one would requirc the following to reconstitute an early cleavage-stage embryo:

(A) Enucleated somatic cell and oocyte nucleus (B) Enucleated oocyte and enucleated somatic cell (C) Enucleated oocyte and somatic cell nucleus (II) Nucleated oocyte and nucleated somatic celI

65. Which one of the following organisms does no1 have telomeres?

(A) Dictyosteliurn discioideunz (B) Tetruhy mena rliermophila (C) Saccluzromyces cerevisiae @) Ilaernophilus influenzae

66. End product repression differc fiom fcedback inhibition by regulating

(A) Enzyme activity (B) Enzyme synthesis (C) Enzyme stability @) Enzyme folding

67. What is the [S] for the enzyme catalyzed reaction which has an initial velocity of 12.62 mole/liter/min, maximum velocity of 21 -85 molelli ter/inin, and a Km o f 3.88 moIelliier?

(A) 2.51 moldliier (B) 5.3 molelliter (C) 0.2 molefliter (D) 4.3 I molelfiter

68. The following genotypes are found in a populaiion: AA=70, Aa=50 and aa=20. What are Lhe allelc frequencies of A and a?

(A) A=0.68 and a=0.32 (3) A=Q.63 and a=0.36 (C) A=0.36 and a=0.63 (D) A=0.86 and a=0.14

69. A parental cross involvi ng pure tall-round seeded and pure dlvarf -wrinkle seeded pea plants produccd (all-round seeded plants. Upon interbreeding Ihe F1 lall-round sccded plants, a total of 400 Fz plants were produced. How many among them were dwarf-round seeded plants?

70. The concept 'central dogma of molecular genetics' was modi fied by

(A) Temin andBaltimore (B) Benzer (C) Crick @) Beadle andTatum

7 1. How many rno1ecuIes ofATP are consumed a nd produced for two molecuIes of glucose in glycolysis?

(A) 2 and 2 (B) 2and4 (C) 2 and 8 (D) 4 and 8

72. A 3.2 kb single copy region was ampliried by PCR from Iiuman genomic DNA. The human gcnome size is 3 . 2 ~ 1 09bp. Prior to PCR, what proporlion oilhe DNA consisls of the 3.2 kb target sequence?

(A) 10" (B) 10-l2 (c) 10'~ (D) I O - ~

73. A protein rich in which of the followi ng amino acids would have a higher bu ffering capacity at physiologic pH?

(A) Aspartic acid (B) Argininc (C) Serinc (D) Bistidine

74. To calculate the membrane potential, which of ihe following equalions is used?

(A) Einstein-Stokes (13) Nemst (C) Goldman (D) Hodgkin-Huxley

75. The residues that coordinate to the 2n2' in Zinc finger proteins are

(A) Asp and Glu (B) Cys and Met (C) C y s and His (D) His and Ser

76. If ihe residues are arranged in the descending order of hydrophobicity, which one the following sequences is correct?

(A) Asp, Ala, Ser, Val, 1le (B) Ile, Val, AIa, Scr, Asp (C) Asp, Ile, Ser, Val, Ala @) VaI, Ala, IIe, Asp, Ser

77. There are two concentric circles. The radius of [he outer onc is twicc the radius of the imer circle. What is the ratio of the area between the circles to that of the inner circle?

(A) 1:l (B) 2: 1 (C) 1:3 (i3) 3:l

78. Cellulose is a polymer of

(A) -Glu-al, 3 Glu- (B) -Glu-01,4 Glu- (C) -Glu-a l , 4 Gal- (D) -Glu-B1,3 Gal-

79. Considcr the benzene ring in which the C-C bond lengt h is 1.4 A. What is ihe disiancc in A between diagonalIy opposite carbon atoms?

(A) 2.8 (B) 1.4 (C) 0.7 @) 4.2

80. Whicli one of ihe following molecules is a precursor for synthesis of viiarnin C in the liver and the kidney of most mammals except higher primates?

(A) Glucose (3) Phenylalanine (C) Squalene (D) Linolenic acid

8 1 . The lysosomal sorting signal is

(A) N-acetyl-glucosarnine (B) Ran:GTP (C) mannose-6-phosphate (13) ribose-6-phosphatc

82. The average density of a soluble protein is 1.33 glcm3. Calculate thc specific volurne of a soluble protein, given that the average molecular weight of an arnino acid residue is 120 Daltons.

(A) O.SOmL/g (B) 0.75 mL/g (C) 0.33 mL/g (II) l.OOmL/g

83. A guinea pig was given a single injection o f 2 4 ~ a ~ ~ . PeriodicaIly, blood samples were withdrawn and analyzed immediately for radioaclivily. The data are shown below. Calculate ihe biological half-life of 2 4 ~ a in the blood stream

Ti me of inj ec tion (hr) Specific activity (CPMlml)

(A) 3hr CB) 6hr (C) 9 hr (D) 12 hr

84. Which of the foI1owing features ~Ttransposons is responsible for genetic polarity?

(A) The presence of a translation stop signal in ihe transposon (B) The inversion of base sequence in iransposon (C) The presence of a transcnption- stop signal in h e transposon @) The delelion of base sequence in transposon

85. The pKa values for adenine (N-1) and guanine (Ii-7) are 4.2 and 3.2, respectively. At pH 7, the percentage of protonated forms of these groups are:,

(A) 0.2 % of adenine and 0.02 % of guanine (B) 100 %ofadenineandO%ofguanine (C) 0 % of adenine and 100 % of guanine (D) 0.02 % of adenine and 0.2 % of guanine

86. Which of the following amino acids would you expect to find inside o l a typical globular protein at pH 7?

(A) Arg, Lys, Thr, Phe (B) S er, Glu, Asn, Lys (C) Val, Ilc, Phe, Mer (D) Ser, Met,Asp, Thr

87. Which one of the following reagents should be used ta seleclively inhibit RNApolymerase II mediated transcript ion in mamrnalian cells?

(A) Alpha-amanitin (B) Colchicine (C) Puromycin (D) Fucomycin

88. Elecrroplioresis of a purified protein called X in the presence of sodium dodecyl sulfate and beia-mercaptoethanol shows a single band of 60 kDa. In a gcl filtraiion experiment, protein X elutes between alcohol dehydrogenase (160 kDa) and Farnylase (190 kDa). How many identical subunits protein X is composed of?

(A) One (B) Two (C) Five (D) Ihree

89. When bacleria develop resistance to an anlibioiic, thc explanaiion on the basis of natural selection is that

(A) Resistanl bacteria preexisted which were selected by the presence of the antibiotic (B) Exposurc to the antibiotic induced [he resisiance (C) Tlie antibiotic is mutagenic (D) Resistancc is a naiural and non-genetic proccss

90. Removal o f gcnc activily A fiom a linear pathway rcsulls in highcr than normal Ievek of transcripts fiom gene B. A reasonable hypothesis wouId be that

(A) Gene B must act upstrearn oigene A (B) Gene A has no relation to transcripts of Gcne B (C) Gene 3 acts downsirearn of gene A and is regulated by AdirectIy or indirectly @) The increase in tranccript B abundance is an experimental error

9 1 . The following plant honnone is synthesized hom an &no acid precursor

(A) Ethylene (B) Abscisic acid (C) C y tokinin (D) Awin

92. Which enzyrne is the target of dmgs used io treat disease caused by influenza virus?

(A) Collagenase (13) Hyaluronidase (C) Neu raminidase (D) Proteinase

93. Which enzyme complex is responsible for majorib of the ATP-depe ndent degadation of cylosolic proteins?

(A) 265 proteasomes (B) Cathepsins (C) 20s proteasomes (D) Calpains

94. Which family of Iranscription factors is dircclly activated by lnierferons?

(A) NF-kappa B (B) NFAT (C) AP-1 (D) STAT

95. von Willebrand disease is due to deficiency of a faclor involved in

(A) T cel1 activalion (B) PlateIet adhesion (C) NK cell ki lling (D) Differentiation of B cells

96. What is the principal characteristic of all oxidizing agents?

(A) Elec tron donor (B) Removes charge fiom electrons (C) Electron recep tor (D) Burns eleclrons

97. A cross between two true breeding lines one with dark blue flowers and one with bright white flowers produces Fl offspring that are iight blue. When the FI progeny are selfed, a 1:2:1 ratio of dark blue to light blue to white fiowers is observed. What genetic phenomenon is consistent with these results?

(A) Epistasis (B) -Incomplete dominance (C) Codominance @) Inbreeding depression

98- Which of the fo]lowing compounds would have the highesl boiling poinl?

(A) CH3CH2CH2CH3 P) cH3NI-I2 (C) CH30H (D) ( 3 3 2 9

99. Whicli of the foliowing molecules was rnosl likely to have beeii synthesized iii the smooth endoplasmic rctic ulum'?

(A) Protein (B) Pliospholipid (C) Glucose (II> Starch

100. Which of the following is related to affinity maturaiion?

(A) Class svitch recombination (B) Homologous recombination (C) V(D)J recombination @) Somatic hypermutation

INDIAN INSTITUTE OF SCIENCE BANGALORE - 56001 2

Program Research Entrance Paper : Chemistry

Paper Code : CY

Day & Date SUNDAY, 27TH APRIL 2008

Time 9.00 A.M. TO 12.00 NOON

9

1. This question paper consists of only objective type questions for a total of 100 rnarks

2. Four options are provided for each question

3. Answer dl questions. A correct answer gets +1 mark and a wrong answer geis -lJ3

rnark.

4. Some useful physical constanls

(a) Universai gas cons tant, R = 8.3 14 J K" mol-' .

(b) Planck's constant, h = 6.626 x 1 0 ~ ~ J.s

(c) Accelerarion due to gravity. g = 9.8 m sq2

(d) Speed of light in vacuum, c = 2.988 x 10' m s-'

(e) Avagadro number, N (No) = 6.023 x ld3 mol-'

(f) Boltzman constant, kB = 1.38 x 1 0 ~ ~ J R'

(g) EIectronic charge, e = 1 602 x 10'19 C

(h) Electronic mass, m = 9.109 x 1 0"' Kg

(i) Pem-ittivity of vacuum, r, = 8.854 x 1 ~ ' ~ F m-'

Q) Faraday constant. F = 96500 C mol"

(k) 1 calorie = 4.184 J

(1) 1 ahn = 760 Tom

Abbreviations used:

Me - methyl, Ph - Phenyl

(A)catalyst for epoxidation reaction (B) component in photosynthetic systern (C) nitrogen fixation enzyrne @) di-oxygen binding metaIlopro tein

2. The number of d-d electronic band spectra for the high-spin Fe(III) octahedral system is '

(A> Zero @) Two (C) Three @)One

3. Which of the following shows NOXIMAL spinel stnrcture

4. Which of the following is diamagnetic in nature

5. The ground State term for tlpei in octahedral field is

6. The base hydrolysis of [ ~ o ~ l ( ~ ~ ~ ) ~ i ] ~ f p r o c e e d s in a

7. The correct formulation for tem(cyclopentadieny1) t i taniurnv) complex is

(A) [Ti(q5-cs~5)41 @) [~ibl'-c&)41 (C) I T ~ ( ~ ' - C S H ~ ) ( ~ ' - ~ 5 ~ 5 ) 3 1

(D) ~ i ( q ~ - ~ s ~ s ) z ( q l - ~ ~ ~ ~ h l

8. The oxidation s tate of iron in [ ~ e ( - q ~ - ~ ~ ) ~ ] PF~] is

9. A complex of N i o , ENiC12(PPh3)2] is paramagnetic. The analogous P d o complex is diamagnetic. The number of isomers that wiii exist for the nickel and the palladium complexes are

(A) One, One (B) One, Two (C) Two, One @) Two, Two

10. The bond angle in C1O4- is

(A) 45' (B) 90" (C) 107.5" (D) 109.5"

1 1. Which of the following moIecules is paramagnetic?

12. The hydration energies of the alkaline earth rnetal ions are signiiicantly GFEATER than for the alkali metal ions because of

(A) larger size and smailer charge (B) larger size and greater charge (C) smalIer size and smaller charge @) smder size and greater charge

13. The order of increasing Lewis acidity of the silicon halides is

(A) SE, c SiC4 < SiBr4 < SiL (B) SiC4 < SiBr4 < S& < SiF4 (C) SiBr4 < Si4 < SiF4 < SiCk @)SiI, < SiBr4 < SiC4 < Sf i

14. The effects on the non-metai when i t combines with a metai are

(A) Gain in electrons and increase in size (B) Loss o f electrons and increase in size (C) Gain in elec trons and decrease in size @) Loss of electrons and decrease in size

15. The hybridization of the xenon atom in XeF4 is

(4 SP; (B) SP (C) sp3d (D) sp3d2

16. The quatemary stnicture of human hemoglobin is best described as a

(A) Dimer of two myoglobin dimers (B) Tetramer of identicd subunits (C) Tetramer of two different subunits (D) Tetramer of four differen t subuni ts

17. Inverse crown ethers act as hosts for:

(A) Cations (B) Anions (C) Alkali metals (D) Lanthanides

19. The ioaic radius is srnaller than !he atomic radius for

(A) neon (B) nirrogen (C) sodium 0 sulfur

20. C h n monoxide DOES NOT act as a reducing agent in

(A)2CO(g) + 02(g) = 2COz(g) IB)CO(g) + HzOk) = COz(g) + Hz(g) (C) 3CO(g) + F@O3(s) = 3CO2(g) + 3Fe(s) (D) 4CO(g) + Ni(s) = Ni(C0)4 (g)

21. Phosphoric and phosphorous acid

{A) Have zero and one P-H bond (B) have no P-H bonds (C) are both tripotic (D) are bo th dipro tic

22. A t 2 5 ° C , ~ = 6 . 8 x 1 0 5 f o r N p ( g ) +3Hz(g) + 2NH3(g).TheK,fortl-1is reaction is

23. Wbich of the foiiowing has the smallest bond enthalpy

(A) Si-H @) c-EI (C) Ge-H @) Pb-H

24. The structure of CsCl transforms to NaC1 under high pressure. During this process the coordination number of Cs and C1 change fiom

(A) 8:8 @) 6:6 (C) 12:12 (D) 8:6

25. The symmerry elements present in p-difluorobenzene are

26. A powder diffraction pattern has the first three peaks at 28 = 9.66, 12.54 and 28-39', respectively, when recorded using MoKa radiation (h = 0.7107A). If the wavelength is changed to CuKa (h = 1.542A), the ihree peaks will

(A) Shift to lower angles (B) Shift to higher angles (C) Stay at the same position @)The first two shifts to lower angles and the third shifts to higher.angles

27. For the presumed equilibrium at 25OC, CH4 (g) + 202 (g) <=> CO2 ( g ) ~ 2Hz0 (g), AH= - 802 ki. The equilibriurn constant of this process would be

(A) shifted to the right by increasing the temperature (B) shifted to the left by increasing pressure (C) unaffected by change in pressure (D) shifted to h e right by increasing pressure

28. The number of radial nodes in the 4s orbital of the H-atom in a finite distance 6om the nucleus is

29. If a compound is fomed in a FCC lattice with M atoms at ihe corners of the unit cell N atoms at the face centers, the formula of h e compound will be

30. Bulk CdS has a band gap of 2.6 eV and its op tical absorp tion edge lies G-475 nm. What wiI1 happen to h e absorption edge when you make CdS in nanometer dimensions?

(A) The absorption edge will shift to smailer wavelengths @) The absorption edge wiii shift to longer wavelengths (C) There will be no change in the position of the absorption edge (D) The absorption edge w ill disappear

3 1. Which of the folIowing pair of 4f elements can exhibit +2 oxidation State

(A) La & Lu (B) Ce & Gd (C) Eu & Yb (II) Sm & Tm

32. CaicuIate h e lattice enthalpy of RCl(s) in kllmole using a Born-Haber cycle (AH for the foiiowing are given in kJlmol: sublimation of K(s) = 49, inonization of K(g) = -1425; dissociation of C12(g) = +244, electron gain by CI(g) = -355, formation of KCl(s) = 438).

(A) o(zer0) P) 719 (C) -719 @) 1438

33. Indicate the suitable reagent to carry out the fouowing transfonnation:

(A) P d - C I ' P) L m 3 (C) DDQ @) HBr

34. Idenhfy the MAJOR product in the following reaction.

PhNHNH, - CH,CO,H, heat

35. The MAJOR product in the reaction between o-hydroxyacetophenone and benzaldehyde in the presence of NaOH is

36. Which reagent is suitable to carry ou t the folIowing transformation

37. Identify the MAJOR product in the foliowing transformation:

i) MeMgBr ii) H,O+

iii) H2S04

38. - The MAJOR product in the following reaction is

NaH -

39. Identify the produc ts (X, Y) iu the following sequence:

40. How rnany signals will be observed in the proton decoupIed 'k C for hexameihylbenzene?

41. Identify the MAJOR product obiained when the compound shown below is treated with HCI.

42. The 'II NMR Spectrum of an organic compound of moIecular formula C4H8 exhibited only a singlet at 6 = 1.9 ppm. The compound is:

(A) 1-butene (B) cis-2- butene (C) trans-2-butene @) cyclobutane

43. Idenbfy the MAJOR product fomed in ihe following reaction:

44. Which reagent would facilitate the foiiowing transforrnation.

Ql- m o

(4 L W 3 (B) n-BuLi (C) dii. NaOH D) TMS1

45. Iden tify the MAJOR product in the following reaction:

46. What is the product of the following reactioii

a O H ' CHO H2021uH-

(A) catechol (13) salicylic acid (C) o-benzoquinone (D) salicyl alcohol

47. Which reapnt is used for Uie conversion of benzil io benzilic acid?

(A) conc. HCl (B) conc. KOH (C) TiC14 (Dl -4

48. Which of the following molccules are NOT oplically active?

49. Which technique would you use to quickly distinguish methyl beiizoate from plienyl acetate?

(A) ' H NMR (B) Mass spectrometry (C) Vapor pressure osinometry (Dl Elemental annlysis

50. Acetone and acetoiie-ci6 fiexadeuterated acetone) may be readily distinguished hy:

(A) Thin laycr cl~romatography (B) W-Visible (absorption) spectroscopy (C) I3c NMR spectroscopy (D) Mass spectrometry

51. In a Grignard reaction, which of the following dry solvents CAN tie used as replacement for anhydrous ether

(A) Acetone (B) Ethyl acetate (C) Tetrahydrofurm (D) Tsoprupanol

52. In which polymer is -(-CFz-CF2-1,- he rcpeating unit'?

(A) Polys tyrene (B) Polyvinyl chloride (C) Tefion (D) Hyaluronic acid

53. The swengih of the coupling betwen geminal protons in the foiiowing molecules

(A) Increases as the size of the ~g increases (B) Decreases as the size of the ring increases (C) Remains the same @) No relation between the size of the ring and the coupling

54. The expected spectral pattern in ihe proton coupled 13c NMR spectrurn of a rnixture of equal weights of CHC13 and l3c~cl3 would be

55. Identify the product of h e reaction

56. What is the product of the following reac tion:

57. Tlie increasing order of the chemical shift of the indicated proton in the following series of cornpounds is:

(A) 1 c ii < TiI

(B) III < ii < 1

(C)I<LIi<II

(D)Ti<III<I

58. What is [he sequence for the rate of oxidarion in the following reaction

59. Tdentify tlie product of the reaction

(i) Et2NH.HCI -

E t N . Formalin

(ii) Me[

(iii) Et3N

CHO I

60. The relative ease of the reduction of the following substrate with N2H4

61. Identify the MAJOR product of the reaction

62. The product of the following reaction is

63. The product of the above reaction (Q. N0.62) undergoes further reaction with BrdAcOH, followed by reaction with LiOWDMF to give another product, which exhibits characteristic IR peaks at 1732 and 1680 cm-'. This product is:

64. Identify the MAJOR product of the reaction

t

AIBN

65. The selection rules for the allowed rotation Rarnan Iines is

(A) AJ = 0, k2 (B) N=*1 (C) bJ= 0 @)AJ=O,&land52

66. The defect that results when eIectrons are trapped in an ionic crystal latiice in place of an anion vacancy is known as

(A) Frenkel defect (B} Schottky defect (C) F-Center @) Dislocations

67. Coiloidal particles in soap solution carry

(A) Negative charge (I3) Positive charge (C) No charge (D) Eiiher positive or negative charge

68. Whicb of the following DOES NOT contain any asymmetric carbon but cm show enantiomerism

(A) Lactic acid. ; (B) 1,3-pentadiene

. (C) Tartaric acid (D) 2,3-pentadiene

69. The vibrational sketching frequency of N2 can be determined ising

(A) Infrared Spectroscopy (B) Microwave spectroscopy (C) Raman Spectroscopy (Dl NMR S p e c ~ O S ~ P Y

70. Consider a reaction: A + products. It is experimentally found to follow first order kinetics with respect to the reactant [A]. Which of the foiiowing statements need not be TRUE

(A) The rate of he reaction wii i increase linearly with [Aj . (B) The reac tion is unimolecular. (C) The concen trat ion of [A] wiIi decay exponentially wi th time. @) The h e taken for [A] to reduce by a factor of 2 wili tie independent of

[Al

71. If the concentration vs time plot is found to be linear with a negative slope, the order of the reaction is

72. In collision theory for chernicai reactions, which of the folIowing statement is TRUE?

(A) The molecules are assumed to have 3N - 6 vibrational degrees of freedorn one of which leads to the reaction

(B) The molecules have onIy Iranslational degrees of M o m and ody the relative mslational energy of the two colliding partners is important for the reaction

(C)One of the rotational degrees of fiexiom for the mklecule leads to the reaction

(D) Motion of the electrons in the reac tants lead to the reaction

73. What is rhe pH of an aqueous solution of H+ concenmtioii equal to 5.4 x 10'~ mol litre-'

(A) 5.4 @) 9.0 (C) 8.3

9.5

74. Electrdysis of a solution of CuSQ for 60 rnin using 10.0 Arnp current results in 1 1.20 g of Cu metal on the cathode. The eficienc y of this elecirodeposition process is (Atomic mass of Cu = 63.5)

(A) 9.45 % @) 94.5 % (C) 47.25 % (Dl 100 9%

75. Standard reduc tion potentialc at 25 OC are: CuI + e- = Cu +i (EO=-0.17V); Zn2+ +2e' = Zn ( E 0 = - 0 . 7 6 ~ The voltage of the celi ~n lzn~' ( l~ ) / l f ( l M)ICIII is

(A) 0.42 V (B) 0.59 V (C) 1.35 V (D) 1.18 v

76. Standardreductionpotentialof~e~'+e' = ~ e ~ + i s 0 . 7 7 V . Whatisthe potential of a Pt electrode immersed in an aqueous solution contahing 2.0 M ~ e ~ ' and 0.2 M ~ e ~ +

(A) 0.71 V @) 0.071 V (C) 7.1 V (D) 0.355 V

77. Using classical equipartition of energy between different modes, the ratio V C , of the heat capacities at constant pressure and voIume, respectively of an ideal diatomic gas, wii i be

(A) 513 @) 7f5 (C) 3/2 P) 9n

78. The total entropy (S) and Helmholtz free energy (A) changes in a spontaneous process at a constant temperature and volume wouId be

(A)AS<OandAA>O (B) AS>OandAA=O (C) AS>Oand A A c O @)AS=OandAA=O

79. One mol of an ideai gas at 300 K and 2.4618 am is isothermaily and reversibly expanded 10 twice its volume. The change in enmpy for this process is

(4 0 (B) 5.76 JK-' (C) 2.88 JK" (D) 8.64 JK-'

80. Five moles of an idea1 gas at P = 10 am. and T = 300 K expanded irreversibIy and isothemally against an external pressure of 2 atm. until equilibrium is attained. The work done in the process is

(A) -9.86 litre atm (B) -98.8 litre atm (C) -19.7 liire atm @) -39.4 litre atrn

8 1. The number of IR active vibrationai modes in ammonia is

82. Replacement of hydrogen by deuterium atom bound to a heavy atom X in a polyatomic molecule would reduce the vibrational frequency of the ... X-H stretching by a factor of

83. The solubility of Fe(OH)3 in an aqueous solution of pH 7 is, (&, of Fe(OH)3 = 1.0 x 1v3q

(A) 1 . 0 ~ ~ o ' ' ~ M (B) 1.0 x 104 M (c) 1.0 10-~ M (D) 1.0 x 1 0 ~ M

84. How rnany electrons per second pass through a cross section of a metal wire carrying a current of W9 ampere ?

(A) 625 e Isec (B) 625 x 107 dsec (c) 1 109 elsec @) 1.6 x 10'' dsec

85. The vapor pressure of crystalline zirconium chioride follows the equation log p (in mm) = -54M)R + 11.766. The heat of sublirnation (in kcal mol-') at 4 3 7 ' ~ is

(A) 24700 (B) 24.7 (C) 103.2 @) 4-7

86. CS2 mol. wt. 76) has a dielectric constant of 2.64 and a density of 1.26 gcm-3 6 at 20 C. The molar refraction of CS2 is

(A) 0.213 cm3

(B) 2.13 cm3

(C) 21.3 cm3

(D) 213 cm3

87. The s ecific conductivity of a saturated solution of AgCl at 2 5 ' ~ is 3 . 4 1 ~ 1 0 ~ P S .cm- and that of water is 1.60~10~ S-cm-'. The molar conductivis at W t e dilution is 138.3 s.cm2, What is the soIubility of AgC1 in water in rnoles/I at 2 5 ' ~

(A) 1.3~10" (B) 1.15 x10-' (C) 1.15 xlo5 @) 1.31 x105

88. The van der Waai's equation of state for a real gas can be expressed in the "reduced" form

where n: = PIP,, T = T/Tc and cp = VN, with P, T and V denoting the pressure, temperature and volume respectively, and ihe subscript c refers to ihe corresponding critical vaiues. With reference to the a b v e equation which of the following statement is NOT TRUE.

(A) Two gases at the same reduced ternperature and under the same reduced pressure occupy the same reduced volume

@) If a gas obeying Equation (1) occupies a volume three times its critical volume at some T and P, its reduced temperature exceeds its reduced pressure by 113

(C) If a gas obeying Equation (1) is at its cntical temperature and volume, it has the rernaining degree of freedom, viz, the pressure

@) When a gas obeying Equation (1) is at its critical temperature and pressure, ((p-1)3 = o

89. The working of an automobiie engine cm be approximated by a four-step thermodynamic cycle in which a gaseous mixture of fueI and air undergoes two adiabatic steps in alternation wiih two constant volurne steps as shown in the Figure below.

1

Vol 0)

Pressure (atm .)

In the first step of the cycle the gaseous mixture is compressed, in the second step it is ignited, in the third step it performs mechanicai work and in the fourth s tep it is released ac exhaust and replaced with a fresh fueyair mixture. Which step would MOST CLDSELY wrrespond to the ignition process

(A) Step A (B) Step B (C) S tep C (Dl Step D

90. The figure shows rhe phase diagram of COz (not to scale)

Which of the following statement about this diagram is NOT TRUE?

(A) h the shaded region rnarked 3, CO2 exists as a gas (B) Aiong the Line QR, liquid and vapour coexist in equilibrium (C) Along the line PQ, h e condition of equilibrium is defined by the relation

= ~lg where p is the chemical potentia1 and the subscript refers to solid (s) and gas (g), respectively

(D) Gibbs phase mle predicts that hvo intensive variables can be varied independently along QS

91. Two colorless liquids X and Y can react reversibly in equilibrium to fonn a colored cornpound Z releasing protons. The reaction can be written as:

At equilibrium @H = 8) and after 5 min., a smaii quantity of HC1 is added. The pH vs. time graph that best describes this systern over a period of time is

92. Cdcuiate the fraction of the volurne of Al (f.c.c) occupied by its atoms

(A) 0.255 (B) 0.740 (C) 0.414 @)0.875

93. The composition of a sample of iron oxide is Fe.0~~30. What percentage o f Fe is in 3-t?

(A) 0.07 % @) 7.0% (C) 30% @)15.1 9%

94. Among, the folIowing wave functions, which one is acceptable for an eleciron, bound to a nucleus? (r, 4 #) denote the spherical polar coordinates of the electron, with respect to the nucleus, r is in atomic units.

(4 IN exp(-r)llr (B) N exp(-r)cos($l2) (C) N exp(-r)cos(2$) @l Nexp(r)cos(2+)

95. A particle is coniined to a one dimensional box, aud is in the lowest possible stationary state. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) It has a nonzero energy and hence its average value of momentum is not zero.

(B) It has a zero energy and hence its average value of momentum is zero. (C) It has a non zero energy and its average value of momentum is zero. (D) It has a zero of energy bu t i ts average value of momenturn is no t zero.

96. Among the pictures, chose the one that you think is he best representation of the wave hnction for the first excited state of a harmonic oscillator. The wave function is plotted in h e veriicai direction and is represented by a thicker line.

97. A n elecbon (mass m) in a naphthalene may be modeled as a particie in a TWO DIMENSIONAL box of dimensions a and 20. The expression for the al1owe.d energy levels of the particle are (nl and nz are quantum numbers that take values 1,2,3.. .):

98. The wave function for a particle P confined to a ring of radius r = a (see Figure) is Nexp(i#, q5 being the angle CO-ordinate representing its position along the ri ng. The value of N is

99. The partition function for bmslational motion of a pariicle of mass rn, confined to a one dimensional box of length L, at a ternperature T is:

100. Which of the follo wing pair of 4f elements c m exhibi t +2 oxida tion state

(A) La & Lu (B) Ce & Gd (C) Eu & Yb @) Sm&Tm

End of the Ouestion P a ~ e r

INDIAN INSmrITUTE OF SCIENCE BANGALORE - 560012

Program : Research Entrance Paper : Ecological Sciences

Paper Code - : ES

Day & Date SUNDAY, 27TH APRIL 2008

Time 9.00 A.M. TO 12.00 NOON

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

This paper consists of 100 questions and carries a total of 100 marks, one mark for each question.

Answers to all the questions shouid be marked only on the OMR sheet provided.

For each question, darken the appropriate bubble to indicate your answer.

Use only HE pencils for bubbling answers.

Mark only one bubble per question. If you rnark more than one bubble, the answer will be evaluated as incorrect.

If you wish to change your answer, please erase the existing mark completely before making the o ther bubble.

There will be no negative marking for wrong answers.

Candidates should fi11 in the required fields on the OMR sheet attached.

ECOLOGICAL SCIENCES

1. Allopatric speciation is a speciation event that arises kom

(A) Temporal separation of two populations. (B) Geographic separation of two popuIations. (C) An individual having parents of different species. (D) Reproductive isolation of two populations.

2. Supposing a genetic analysis was carried out on populations of saltwater crocodiles along the east coast of India and freshwater crocodiles in the rivers along the same coast. Theoretically, one would expect to fmd

(A) Greater genetic differences between the saltwater crocodiie populations. (B) Greater genetic differences between the freshwater crocodile populations. (C) Lower mutation rates in fieshwater populations. @) Higher mutation rates in fieshwater popula tions.

3. Becently, a new species of fiog was discovered in the Western Ghats whose closest relatives are in Seychelles and Madagascar. This ptoves that

(A) India was connected to these islands in the past. (B) Frogs are good at dispersing across oceans. (C) Frogs are iiving fossils. @) hdia was a part of Gondwanaland.

4. The deIetion of a DNA sequence does not lead to any change in an organism's traits. This means that the sequence may have

(A) Been non-functional. (B) Coded for RNA but not a protein. (C) Been part of an enhancer. @) Been part of an exon.

5. Which of the following molecules is a key player in h e formation of short-tem memory ?

(A) cGMP (cyclic guanosine monophosphate) (B) cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate) (C) ATP (adenosine triphosphate) @) GTP (guanosine triphosphate)

6. The tirne spent scanning for predators by a gazelle in grassland habitats is explained well by h e size of the group in which it is and the height of the grass in the vicinity. The following equation describes this relationship:

where V = time spent scanning for predators in seconds; N = number of individuals in a group; G = grass height in cm. Using the above equation, for a gazelle in a group of 50. individuals, what would you predict at two Iocations LI and L2 where grass height measures 1 cm and 5 cm respectively?

(A) V at LI> V at L2. (B) VatLl= YatL2. (C) V a t L l < VatL2. (D) The information given is insufficient.

7. One of the cnteria that conservationists typically use to identify habitats for conservation is high species diversi ty. This may not always be a good criterion because

(A) Low diversity areas are common. (B) Some common habitats have high diversity. (C) Some unique habitats have low diversity. @) High div-enity areas are unique.

8. The two important causal agents of evolutionary change are

(A) Selection and genetic drift. (13) Selection and migration. (C) Genetic drifi and migration. @) Genetic drift and mutation.

9. A species of moth feeds on nectar fiom the white fiowers of a particuiar pIant species. In an experiment, individual moths were presented with white model flowers mimicking real ones and scent extracts of the fiowers presented separately on paper. The two cues were separated by different distances in different treatrnents. The cues were placed at the end of a fl ight tunne1 in the labratory and moths were released one at a time and their behaviour observed. Moths were scored as showing a positive response if they attempted to feed fiom either the visual or the scent cue. The results are shown below:

This experiment shows that

Distance between visual and scent cues (cm)

0 2 10 50

(A) Visual and olfac tory cues from flowers are equalIy effective in attracting moths.

(B) Visual cues are more effective than olfactory ones for fiower recognition. (C) Olfactory cues are more effective than visual6nes for fiower recogni tion .

Moths integrate visual and olfactory cues in the process of fiower recognition.

Percentage of tested moths attempting to feed on either models or scented paper

95 95 50 0

10. Consider a population that shows exponential growth over time: Nt = N& where NO is initial population size at time = 0, iVr is population size at time t, r is the intrinsic rate of increase, and e is the constant 2.7 i 8. . . In such a population

(A) Popuiation growth rate is highest when the population is smalI and declines over time.

) Population growth rate is smallest when the population is smaU, increaces with time and reaches an asymptote.

(C) Population growth rate is smailest when the population is smali and increases with time. B

(D) Population growth rate is constant.

1 1. At a locus with two alleles with fiequencies p and q, assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, ?he genetic diversity (measured as heterozygosity) is the bighest when

12. Mass extinction of the dinosaurs occurred at ihe boundary of which geological periods?

(A) Jurassic and Cretaceous (B) Creiaceous and Tertiary (C) Tertiary and Quaternary @) Pleis tocene and Holocene

13. The glow emitted by a firefly is due to

(A) Iridescence (B) ~&andescence (C) Bioluminescence 0) Fluorescence

14. Batesian rnimicry is an example of:

(A) assortative mating. (8) heterozygote advantage. (C) stabi liPng selection. @) fiequency-dependent selection.

15. Bacterial genes are transferred by v&es via the process of

B (A) Transduction (B) Trans formation (C) Conjugation IDI Syngamy

16. The figure beiow shows the distribution of tai1 lengths in a population of birds.

For such a distribution, measures of central tendency will show the following pattern:

5. s s 2 Crc

(A) mean > median > mode @) median > mode > mean (C) mode median > mean (D) mode = median = mean

40

20 10

0

N ~ . w ~ T ~ ~ ~ . ~ ~ ~ ~ Q ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ w . ~ Q T F ( ~ NNNNNNNN~ mmmmmnmmm w u w

Tai1 length (cm)

17. Conservationists argue over whether reserves should be set aside in single Iarge blocks or several smaii blocks. Single large reserves may be better because larger areas support mare species. However, srnall areas may have advantages as well. Qne of the arguments proposed in favour of several small patches concerns

(A) Habitat loss. (B) Global climate change. (C) Minimum viable populations.

isease. 0 D.

18. A forest patch has 100 deer on Sunday, May 1,2007. Hunting season opens on May 8,2007. Hunters kill20 deer every Sunday. Each deer eats 1 kg of grass per day. If none of these populations are reproducing, how much grass would there need to be for the hunters to wipe out the deer population before the grass is wiped out?

(A) 700 kg (B) 1.4 tonnes (C) 2. l tonnes (D) 1.8 tonnes

19. Bird species A and B both nest in marshes. Species A is dominant over B when they are found together. Species B will occupy the entire marsh if Species A is absent, but if Species A is present, it will exclude Species B fiom the rnarsb center, and reshict Species B to the edge of the marsh. For Species B, the entire marsh would represeot its

(A) real4ed niche. (B) babitat. (C) range. @) fundarnental niche.

20. Marsupials are found in

(A) Australia and South America. (B) Ausiralia alone. (C) Australia and Madagascar. (D) Ausimlia and Africa.

21. Which of the following traits is not characteristic of all vascular plants?

(A) Presence of seeds (B) Altemation of generations (C) Presence of xylem and phloem (D) Presence of lignio in ce11 walls

22. A genome consists of four distinct DNA sequences. Assuming that any subset of these sequences can determine a trait, he maximum number of possibIe hits is

23. In a classical conditioning experiment, it was found that rats could be trajned ta avoid food that made them sick a few hours after ingestion if the food was paired with a specific odour during presentation. The aversive conditioning did not, however, work if the food was paired wi th a sound rather than an odour. This experiment shows that

(A) Rats are not as sensitive to sound stimuli as they are to odours. ) Both sound and odours need to be presented simultaneously with the food for

successful conditioning. (C) The efficacy of taste aversion conditioning varies for different kinds of stirnuli. @) Taste aversion is harder to condition than other behaviours.

24. Mongooses belong to the Family

(A) Mustelidae (B) Vrverridae (C) Herpes tidae (13) Hystricidae

25. Due to globd' wanning, species of plants and anirnals can generally be expec ted to migrate fiom

(A) EIigheraltitudestoloweraltitudes. (B) h w e r dtitudes to higher altitudes. (C) West to East aIong a given 1 atitude. (D) East to West along a given latitude.

26. The graph below shows the distribution of body masses in two populations PZ and P2. Which of these two populations needs a larger sample size to accurately estimate the rnean?

Mess

(A) PT (B) p2 (C) The information provided is no t suficient . @) S i milar sample sizes are needed for both populations.

27. The foiiowing scientist is associated with both the field of sociobioIogy and the theory of island biogeography

(A) Konrad Lorenz (B) Joseph Comell (C) Stephen Hub bell (D) E. 0. Wilson

28. Tn a population of 100 dipioid individuals, the kquencies of niutra~ alleles Al and A2 are 0.4 and 0.6 respectively. h s u m i n g Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and no change in population size, the fiequency of heterozygotes after five generations is

(A) 0.24 (333 (0.43)~ (C) 0.48 (D) 0.5 ,

29. Climate change, habitat loss, ulbaviolet radiation, fungal disease, overexploitation and invasives have been implicated in the decline of

(A) Frogs (B) Vultures (C) Tigers (D) Snakes

30. Which of the following is not a source of genetic variation?

(A) Base substitution (B) Genetic drift (C) Recombinaiion @) Base insertion

3 1. In a certain species of insect, larger-bodied individuals are better competitors for food, but Iarge bodies also need more food for growth and maintenance. The graph beiow shows the relationship between body size and i. food gained in competi tion; i i . food required for growth and maintenance. What is the optimum body size according to this graph if we assume that individuals are maximizing net food gained after taking care of growth and maintenance?

food g e M Imi used bp Cthroligh 0 - l n g r o w h a n d

h - mwemma2 m u 2-15 i -

body size in cm (A) 1 cm (B) 2.5 cm (C) 2.25 cm (D) 1.5 cm

32. Two resources may be described as antagonistic when

(A) Consurning both kills the animal. (B) One can repIace the other in an animal's diet. (C) The animal requires proportionately more resources when both are consumed

togeiher. (D) The animal cannot consume both simultaneously.

33. Chimpanzees are more closely reIated to hurnans than they are to gorillas, yet chimpanzees and gorillas appear morphologically very similar to each other. This is because

(A) Morp hological characters have evolved convergentiy in chimpanzees and gorillas.

(B) Chimpanzees and gorillas have retained ancestral iraits. (C) Ctiimpanzees and gorillas are apes. (D) Chimpanzees and gorillas hybridize.

34. The Shannon's index of diversity is calculated as H' = - C pi ln p , where pi is ihe proportion of the ih species. From the table below, we may conclude that

(A) Community A has a higher index of diversity. (B) Community B has a higher index of diversity. (C) The index of diversity is equal for the two communities. (D) It is not possible to calcuIate this.

35. Starting fiom the outside of a cell and moving towards the inside, which of the foilowing components of a 'typical' plant ceii are organized correctIy?

(A) Middle lamela => primary celI wall -> secondary cell wal=> plasma membrane => cytoplasm

) Plasma membrane => primary cell wall -> secondaq cell wall=> middle lameIla~cytoplasm

(C) Cytoplasm => plasma membrane => middle lamella => secondary cell wall => priinary cell wall

(D) Middle lameI1a -> secondary cell wall=> primary cell wall=> plasma membrane => ,cytoplasm

36. The cross between a mutant mother and a normal father gives rise to offspring that are ali mutant; the reciprocal cross gives nse to offspring that are all normal. This means that the mutation is likely to be

(A) Tn the mitochondrial genome. ) In the nuclear genome. (C) Dominant. (D) Recessive.

37,- Isolated islands such as the Hawaiian and Galapagos islands have a higher proportion of closely related endemic species occupying different niches thanthe mainiand. Which of ihe following statements is not a plausible explanafion for the above observation?

(A) Very few species fiom the mainland colonize these islands. ) Species that colonize these islands eventuaily radiate into multiple species. (C) Isolated islands often have numerous unoccupied niches. (D) These islands have higher rates of species extinction

38. C4 plants and CAM plants are sirnilar in their photosynthetic adaptations in which of these respects?

(A) In both cases, the stornata normaIly close during the day. ) Both types of plants make their sugar without the C3 (Calvin) cycle. (C) Tn both cases, an enzyme other than Rubisco carries out ihe h t step in carbon

kation. (II) Both types of plants make rnost of their sugar in the dark.

39. Soay sheep males show two types of hom phenotypes: large-homed or small- horned. The mating success of the two phenotypes shows the following pattern:

Young Old

Which of the following statements is supported by the graph?

(A) Among srnall-horned males, mating success increases with age. @) Mating success of old, small-homed males is lower than that of old, large-

homed males. (C) Large-homed morphs consisten tly have greater mating success than small-

homed morphs. (13) Mating success of the two horn morphs changes with age iu the same manner.

40. In population A, each woman bears exactly two female children, bom at maternal ages 20 and 25. Population B is the same, except that the children are bom when the mother is 25 and 30. Assume that these are the only differences between A and B. When the sizes of the two popuiations are monitored over time, we will find that

(A) Botb are stationary. (B) Both grow at the same rate. (C) B grows faster than A. @) A grows faster than B.

41. The number of individuals or biomass at each hopbic level is usuaIly depicted as an ecoIogica1 pyramid. Sometimes, inverted pyramids such as produced by a host parasite system, may be observed. These can be seen in

(A) Pyramids of numbers and biomass, but never energy. ('B) Pyramids of biomass and energy, but never numbers. (C) F'yrarnids of energy and numbers, but never biomass. II)) Aii kinds o f pyramids.

42. If the average moiecular weight of one arnino acid is 110, the molecular weight of a peptide made up of 10 amino acids is expected to be

(A) 1100 @) 938 (C) 876 (Dl 744

43. You wish to. compare the overall similarity i n h d y form between four species of insects belonging to a particular group. To this end, you perform detailed morphometric measurements using 42 different characters on ten individuals of each species. An appropriate s tatis ticaI test to quantitatively analy se morphological simiIarity wouId be

(A) A principal components analysis. (8) An analysis of variance. (C) A multiple regression analysis. @) A cluster analysis.

44. Which of the following is Ieast Iikely to explain greater bird species diversity in &he terrestrial iropics along a latitudinal gradient?

(A) Higher plant diversity (B) Greater area (C) Higher temperatures @) Higher rainfalI

45. The maximum absorbance of light for a visual pigment is at 420 nm. A point mutation in the gene encodmg this pigment s h i h the wavelength of maximum absorbance to 320 nm. This would result in a .transition in colour vision for the organism fiom

(A) Red to green sensitivity.. (l3) Green to blue sensitivity. (C) Blue to ultraviolet sensitivity. (D) BIue to green sensitivity.

46. The totgl number of species of insects in two large fields is the same. Within each of these fields are two smaller patches. In Field 1, the two patches share very few species. In the other, the two patches share mos t species. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) The individual patches in field I have more species than in field 2. (B) The individual patches in field 2 have more species than in field 1. (C) The individual patches in both fields have the same number of species. @) There is high species turnover between fields 1 and 2.

47. Species that are most likely to have atrophied vision are those that

(A) Live in caves or underground. (B) Live underwater. (C) Are noctmal. @) Live in the Arctic.

48. Which of the foliowing sets does not represent four members of Artiodactyla found in India?

(A) Chital, blackbuck wild ass, barking deer. (B) Blackbuck, chmkara, four homed antelope, gaur. (C) NiIgiri tahr, barking deer, samba., blue sheep. (D) Blue sheep, Nilgiri tahr, goral, serow.

49. Which statement about Mendel's cross of 7T peas with tt peas is nof m e ?

(A) Each,parent can produce only one type of gamete. (B) Fi individuals produce two types of gametes. (C) Three genotypes are observed in the F2 generation. (D) Three phenotypes are observed in the F2 generation.

50. The figure below shows evolutionary relationships among several species of fish. The disiribution of two traits among these species is also shown. Red+ indicates that males in this species show red colour on the throat while Red- indicates the absence of this irait. P+ indicates that females in this species prefer to mate with males with a red throat in an experimental setting. P- indicates that females do not show such a preference . Accordiag to this figure, which of the following statements about the evolution of the red colour and ihe preference is best supported according to the principle of parsirnony (simpiest explanation involving the fewest evolutionary changes)?

P - P+ P+ P+ P+ Red- Red- Red- Red+ Red+

(A) The preference evolved first followed by the evolution of the red colour. ) The red colour evoIved before the preference and was subsequently lost in

species A and B. (C) The preference q d the red colour evolved at the sarne tirne but the red colour

was subsequently lost in species A and B. @) The preference evolved independently in species A, B, C and D, while the red

colour evolved independently in species C and D.

5 1. The resolving power of the human eye is about

(A) 1 metre (B) 0.1 m (C) 1 miliimetre (D) 0.1 rnillimetres

52. Let uc suppose ihere are 10 red socks and 10 green socks in a drawer. Suppose we were to draw two socks fiom the drawer at random, one after the other, without replacement (i.e. without putting back the first sock). What is the probability of getting two green socks?

(A) 0.237 (B) 0.278 (C) 0.5 @) 1

53. Which of he foiiowing is not a shared feature of ail chordates?

(A) Pharynged slits.. (B) Notochord. (C) Dorsal nerve cord. @) Four-chambered heart.

54. In terreshial vertebrates, sounds are sensed by

(A) Ciliary cells. (l3) Hair cells. (C) Pillar cells. @) Basal epithelial cells.

55. Consider a plant with dehiscent seed podc. At what angle to the ground should the seeds be expelled if they are to travel the largest possible horizontal distance?

(A) 30 degrees. (B) 60 degrees. (C) 45 degrees. @) 90 degrees.

5 6. An island in the Indian Ocean is hs t colonized by bird species A. .Several decades later, bird species B, a close relative of species A with a similar sized beak, also arrives and establishes itself on this island. SubsequentIy, the beak sizes of the two species diverge. This is an example of

(A) Adaptive radiation. (B) Character displacemeot (C) Competitive exclusion (D) Co-evolution.

57. Marine reptiles and mammals drink seawater to satisfy their water needs. They rid themselves of excess salts

(A) By producing concentrated, hyperosmotic urine. (B) By secreting them out through specialised salt glands. (C) By sweating. (D} Tbrough the faeces.

58. Oil starts to smell bad afier being stored for a long time. This is because of

(A) A process of adaptation in our sense of smeii. (B) Glycolysis. (C) Sedimentation . @) The conversion of hydrocarbon double hnds to single bonds.

59. Individuals of a bird species that sings at dawn were captured and kept singly in complete darhess for two months and their singing activity was continuously monitored. Each bird typically produced song everyday but, with time, the singing period no longer coincided with the dawn. When exposed to normal light the birds, within a couple of &ys, synchronised their singing activity with the &wn. Which of the foIlowing statements is false?

(A) Light is not necessary for maintenance of a daily singing rhythm. (B) Singing is controlied by a system wiih a periodicity of exactly twenty four

hours. (C) Singing is controlled by a system d t h a periodicity of approximately twenty

four hours. ) Light is necessary to reset the rhyihm of the Song conbol sys tem.

60. Which of the following is not a passerine?

(A) Magpie robin (B) Small green barbet (C) Crow pheasant @) Leaf warbler

6 1. h the h i t fly, a point mutation in one gene can causi: the ffy to develop four wings instead of two. This is likely to be because

(A) The mutation removed a piece of the chromosome. (B) The mutation added an e x h piece to fhe chromosome. (C) One gene c m reguIate the activities of many other genes. @) There is a gene for four wings.

62. The presence of living and extinct ratites (flightless birds such as the oskich) in AusiraIia, Africa, New Zealand, Madagascar and South America can be best explained by

(A) Continental drift. (B) Longdistance dispersal. (C) Convergent evolution. (D) Human-mediated hansport .

63. Which statement about aIleles is not me?

(A) They are different forms of the same gene. (B) There may be several alleles at a locus. (C) One allele might be dorninant over the other. @) They occupy different loci on the same chromosome.

64. h honeybee colonies, the leveIs of mRNA of a specific gene called period (per) were found to be elevated in foragers as opposed to non-foraging members of the colony. Foragers are typicaiiy older fhan non-foigers in bee colonies. A few young ' p ~ c i o u s ' foragers were found and their per mRNA levels were found to be as high as normai foragers. This experiment demonstrates that

(A) Foraging leads to an increase in per mRNA level. (B) Increase in per mRNA level results in foragbg behaviour. (C) Per mRNA levels are higher in older bees, who dso happen to be foragers. @) There is a positive correIation between per mRNA leveI and foraging behaviour.

65. Ears of different moth species are found on different parts of the body, including the thorax, wings, abdomen and proboscis. This suggests that

(A) Moths are evolving more rapidiy than oiher insect groups. (B) Ears in moths arose as a single event in their phylogenetic history. (C) Ears in moths arose multiple times in their phylogenetic history. @) The siructure of moth ears is different fiom those of other insect groups.

66. imagine that we were interested in the surface area of a bird's wing, divided by the body length of the bird (call this "relative wing area" or RWA). From geometrical considerations alone, what would you expect when comparing the RWA of a small bird with that of a large bird? Assume that there is a strong positive correlation between wing Iength and body length.

(A) RWA of a small bird is expected to be larger than RWA of a large bird. (B) RWA of a srnall bird is expec ted to be smaller than RWA of a large bird. (C) RWA of a srnall bird is expected to be the same as the RWA of a large bird. @) RWA does not depend on the size of the bird.

67. Miilierian mimicry is when

(A) A harmiess species mimics a dangerous species. (B) A dangerous species mimics a harmless species. (C) One h a d e s s species mimics another. @) One dangerous species mimics another.

68. A study looked at how foraging animals should distribute themselves in an area where the habitat consists of many patches that vary in the abundance of resources. Tt proposed that the foraging rate o f an individual in each resource patch should increase with the amount of resources available and decrease with the number of conspecifics in ihat patch. At equilibrium, all individuals attempt to maximise their foraging rates by moving between the patches. Which of the following assumptions is not made by this model?

(A) Individuals compete for resources. (B) The amount of resources in a patch decreases with each additional arrival. (C) Some individuals are better at competing for resources tban other individuals. (D) hdividuals behave as if they bave complete information about the resowces at

all patches.

69. In the evolution of flowers, there have been major trends towards

(A) Radial symmetry, proliferation and separation of parts and ovary above the petals.

) Radial symmeby, reduction and fwion of parts and ovary below the petals. (C) Bilateral symrnelry, reduction and fusion of parts and ovary below the petds. ) Bilateral symmefq, prolifmtion and separaiion of parts and ovary above the

petals.

70. The bacteria which cause septicaemia are fast becoming resistant to the antibiotics used for controlling them. Which one of the foIlowing explanations fits best?

(A) Each and every individual bacterium, in order to survive, develops a resistance to the antibiotic when exposed to it, and passes that resistance on to future generations.

(B) Only some bacteria, io order to survive, develop a resistance to the antibiotic when exposed to it, and pass that resistance on to future generations.

(C) A few bacteria bave a natural heritable.resistance to the antibiotic, so they survive when exposed to it, and pass that resistance on to future generations. All the bacteria have a natural heritable resistance to the an tibiotic, so they survive when exposed to it, and pass that resistance on to hture generations.

' 7 1. You carefully study populations of iwo very similar field mice, one fiom Kmataka

md one fiom Kerala. You want to know whether the populations belong to the species or to two different species. You could most confidently decide this if you could

(A) Show that the ranges of the two mice overlap without hybridization occmng ) Bring the hvo types of mice into the laboratory to see if they wiI1 mate. (C) Demonstrate that the natural ranges of the two types of mice are entirely

allopatric. (D) Show that the Karnataka mice Live in wetter habitats than the Kerala mice.

72. When plants do not receive enough water their photosynthetic rate drops significantly. This is because

(A) Water is a raw materia1 needed for the light dependent reactions. (B) The stomata close and carbon dioxide is not available. (C) Sugar builds up and inhibits photosynthesis. ) Not enough oxygen is produced to keep glycolysis running .

73. Which of the foliowing is the new species of macaque recently discovered in Aninachal Pradesh?

(A) Macaca radia ta (B) Macaca mulattu (C) Macaca munzola (D) Macaca silenus

74. In an aversive conditioning paradigm, bees were trained to associate the colour yeliow with bitter lasting KCl solution. Bees that once experienced the bitter taste for 30 seconds in the presence of a yellow card placed next to h e solution refused to sampIe any solution in the presence of the yellow card on subsequent encounters when tested 10,30,60 minutes, one day and one week afler training. If the bees were cooled to 4 degrees C for 30 minutes irnmediately afier encountering the stimuli, they no longer fomed the association. If the cooling was started 10 min after the encounter, however, they were able to make the association. This experiment shows that

(A) Short term memory formation requi res 3 0 minutes of exposure to the s timuli. (B} Long term memory formation requires 30 minutes of exposure to the stimuli. (C) Memory formation occurs within 10 rninutes of encountering the stimuli. (D) Memory forrnation begins 10 minutes afler encountering the stimuli.

75. You can see the sal k e (Shorea robusta) growing naturalIy in which of these regions?

(A) Aravallis ofRajasthan. (B) Dooars of Bengal. (C) Westem Ghats of Karnataka. @) Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

76. A one sq.km forest patch contains 1000 trees. The average gbh (girth at breast height) is 6.2 m. The area of the canopy is 100 times the cross sec tional area at breast height. If no sunIight penehtes through the canopy when the sun is overhead, what percentage of the fores t floor receives sunlight? (Take pi = 3.1)

(A) About 30% (B) About 50% (C) About 70% (D) About 90%

77. There is a small population of tiger;. A geneöc study show that there is relatively little genetic difference between individuals.. The most li kely cause for this is

(A) They have a rare genetic disease. (B) Recent heavy mortality due to poaching. (C) The population was reduced to a few individuals in its recent history. @) Low diversity of prey spwies.

78. The lens of manyvertebrate eyes is the crystallised form of a protein that also functions dwhg digestion as a metabolic enzyme. This is an illustration of the fact that

(A) Evolution is opporhinistic. (B) Digestion co-evolved with vision. (C) Digestion evolved afier vision. (D) Vrsion evolved afier digestion.

79. An ordered data set consists of one million DNA sequences arranged according to lengih. If you were asked to h d a sequence of desired Iength, choosing each sequence in your search at random, you should be able to find the desired sequence in about

(A) 2 s teps. (B) 20 steps. (C) 200 steps. (D) 2000 steps.

80. During a study on fish in a pond, 200 fish are caught and marked on the first day. On the second day of sampling, 1 50 fish are caught, of which 50 are aiready found to be marked. What is the estimate of the total number of fish in the pond?

(A) ' 600 @) 300 (C) 150 (D) 1200

8 1. A piant ecologist hai to s tudy the diversity of plants in a forest with a smng gradient of rainfall fiom North to South. A good sampling design would be

(A) Random placement of quadrats in the forest. (B) Placement of quadrats fiom North to South. (C) Placement of quadrats fiom East to West. (D) Enumeration of all individuals in the forest.

82. From our understanding of energy flow through various trophic levels of an ecosystem, which of the following statementc is correct?

(A) About 50% of the energy in one trophic level is passed on to the next level. (B) Primary consurners have the highest ecological efficiency. (C) Only a negligi ble amount of energy is lost along each link in the food chain. ) Producing meat is an inefficient way of obtaining energy trapped by

pbotosynthesis.

83. Which of the following is ciosest to being iso-osmoiic to its environment?

(A) A fieshwater protozoan (B) A marine jellyfish. (C) A rnarine reptile @) A freshwater bony fish.

84. In flying insects such as dragonflies, buttedies and grasshoppers, the wing beat hequency is low and each nerve impulse results in wing muscle coniraction. In flies and bees, however, the wing beat fiequency is several times the nerve impulse fiequ&ncy. Which of the following is not an adaptation to achieve this?

(A) Synchronous contraction of horizontd and vertical muscles. (B) An elastic ihorax that acls as a mechanical oscillator. (C) Aiternate confraction of horizontal and vertical flight muscles. ) Fibrillar muscles that contract in response to being stretched.

85. In humans, the genetic relatedness between first cousins is

(A) 0.5 (l3) 0.25 (C) 0.125 @) 0.0625

86. Which of the folIowing is not an exarnple of a fixed action pattern?

(A) Courtship singing by a male fruitfly (B) The headstand display of a fighting fish. (C) Goslings following their mother in single fiie. (D) Pecking behaviour of newly hatched chicks.

87. Wild pigs regularly feed on sorghum crops but ody within 1 m o f the boundary of the-crop field. Given this. crop feeding behaviour, i f a farmer wished to minimise the area dmaged by wild pigs, uShich of the following conQurations of crop fields should he prefer?

(A) One 20 X 20 m field. (33) Four 10 X 10 m fields (C) Hundred 2 X 2 m fields (II) Twenty five 4 X 4 m fields

In a simple ecological system with two competitor species A and B competing over a single resource, theory predicts that stable CO-existence of the two species is most likely when

(A) Interspecific competition is sbonger than intraspecific competition in species A. (B) Intraspecific competition is weaker tham interspecific competition in species B. (C) Inmpecific competition is shonger than interspecific competition in both

species. ) interspecific competition is stronger than intraspecific competition in both

species.

89. Mites belong to the Class

(A) Diplopoda (B) Cmtacea (C) Arthropoda (D) Arachnida

90. When the net p~imarj productivity (NPP) of a grassland is plotted as a function o f the mean annual rainfall (R), which of the following functions would best describe the relationship between them?

(A) Linear (B) Hyperbolic (C) Negative exponential (II) Positive exponential

9 1. Twenty transects were laid in an undisturbed evergreen fores t and hirty were laid in an adjoining degraded forest, and data on the number of species of snakes seen in each of them over a one ,year period were recorded. To test whether species composiiion between evergreen and degraded fores ts is significantly different, which would be the most appropriate method of statis tical analysis?

(A) Mann-Whitney U-test (B) r-test (C) Chi-square test @) Analysis of variance

92. Which of ihe following Iife history adaptations is least expected when predation pressure on a fish species that grows continuo~ly throughout its lifespan is focused on large size classes?

(A) Allocate more resources preferentially to early reproductive effort than to growth. AUocate more resources preferentially to growth than to early reproductive effori.

(C) Early age at mahirity. @) Produce many small offspring in relatively few reproductive seasons.

93. Which of the following is not an explanation for higher species richness in a community ?

(A) Species are more specialised in their use of resources. (B) Species have more overlap in their use of resources. (C) A greater range of resources is available. (D) Some species are better at utilising resources.

94. Which of the following is likely to be heard at the W e s t distance from source from the calIer (given that all calls are produced with the same loudness)?

(A) The alarm cd l of a langur. (B) The chqing of a cricket. (C) The song of a magpie robh. (D) The clicks of a bat in a roost.

95. Identical genomes can give rise to sirikingly different phenotypes. Which of ihe following is not an exampIe of this?

(A) Morphological castes within social insect species. (B) The larva and adult of a butterfly species. (C) Male and femaie peafowl. (D) Fmtemd twins.

96. The inaux of which ion is critical for neurobamsmitter release at ihe. synapse?

(A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Calcium @) Magnesium

97. PJhich of the following is a wrong expIanation for why tehperate and Arctic lakes never fieeze completely solid?

(A) The hydrogen bonds in ice make ice less dense than liquid water. (B) Water expands when it solidifies. (C) Water is denser as a solid than as a liquid. @) Floating ice insulates the liquid water below.

98. The axolotl, a species of salamander, does not metarnorphose, continues to be aquatic, and retains jwenile tmits such as extemal giIls even as

, an aduli This developmental phenomenon where juvenile traits are retained in adults is known as

(A) Embryogeny (B) Neoteny (C) Fluctuating asymrnetry ) Developmental asynchrony

99. Which of the following is least likely as a general explanation for the evoIuiion of aging?

(A) The force of selection on deleterious mubtions acting late in the lifespan is weaker.

) 13ecause of predation and stochas tic events organisms have a lower probability of living long and therefore shodd invest more in reproduction than in body maintenance and repair.

(C) Because resources are typicaiiy lirnited, older individuals should avoid competing with their ofEspring for resources and therefore selection should reduce lifespan to prevent competition across generations.

@) Pleiotropic genes that increase fitness earlier in Iife rnay have negative effects later in Me that result in ageing.

100. The least likely explanation for the extinction of dinosaurs is

(A) Competi tion wi th mammals. @) Deccan irap volcanism. (C) Climate change. (D) Meteor impact.

End of Quesiion Paper

Q

Program = = Research Entrance Paper : Management Studies

Paper Code : MG

Day & Date SUNDAY, 27'" APRIL 2008

Time 9.00 A.M. TO 12.00 NOON

C/

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. The question paper consists of three parts. PART A, PART B, AND PART C.

2. (a) Candidates seeking adrnission to Research in Management must compulsorily answer PART A and ONLY ONE of the sections in PAEtT B.

(b) Candidates with M.A. (LinguisticslGerman) seeking adrnission to Research in Languages must compuisorily answer ONLY PART C. PIease note that such candidates must not attempt PART A or PART B.

3. Candidates &e asked to fill in the required fields on the sheet attached to the answer book.

PART A

Analyticai Ability and Management Aptitude

ARE SEEKING ADMISSION TO

RESEARCH IN MANAGEMENT

1. This paper tests your analytical ability and rnanagement aptitude.

2. This section contains 50 questions and carries a weightage of 50% (50 marks).

3. Answers Co this section are to be marked in the OMR sheet provided.

4. For each question darken the appropriate bubble to indicate your-answer

5. Use only HB pencils for bubbling answers.

6. Mark ONLY ONE bubble per question. If you mark more than one bubble, he question wiU be evduated as incorrect.

7. If you wish to change your answer, please erase the existing mark completely before rnarking the o ther bubble.

1. What is the meaning of the word: Fortuitous

(A) lucky (B) powerful (C) very smart (D) enriching

2. What is the meaning of the word: Admonition

(A) Comment 031 Deep respect (C) W&g (D) Act responsibly

3. Complete the nekt hvo sentences: He wants to buy watemelons. He goes to the fruit seller and the fniits available on the seller's cm.

(A) Investigates (B) Examines

lscovers (Cl D' @) Explores

4. Spot the error: Costa Rica's parks are like islands - on wddemess a vast sea of farrnland but do not enough guards .

(4 Are 03) on (C) In @) Have

5. Spot the emr: I a snake. His eyes & not move. Neither d m he mouth, which & pded back inside a silent grimace.

(4 See (B) Do (C) 1s (D) Inside

In quesliom 6 and 7, select fhe pair of words fiom the &en option thd best expresses a rehtbnship SIMILAR b the pair in the CAPITAL letters

(A) Destroy: Group (B) Ruin: Collection (C) Cut down: Smcture @) Reduce: W c e

7. RESTLESS: AGITATED

(A) Restive: Energized @) Fidgety: Nervous (C) Twitchy : Worrying (D) Discontent: Excited

Quesrions 8 to 10 tue bmed on the informaCion given below:

Nobody likes to pay taxes - and most of us would agree that corporations a% particularly successful in minimizing their tax. In fact, corporate lawyers and accountants have made an art form of dodging through the mazes that are most countries tax systems. Last December, for exarnple, a Norwegian court of appeals ruled that painting was an art form and painters should be exempt from value added tax. Painters w o r h g in the GST Art Gallery had refused to pay the tax of 25% on their share of the entry fee, on the basis that painters were artists and not employees. Over in Europe, Romania also faces its own unique tax problems. For every oficially registered witch, who pays taxes on her mystical services, another 4000 cast their spells tax fiee, costing the treasury millions. Tn China, meanwhile, the tax office launched a drive last year. To persuade artists who eam more than $20,000 per year - a group estirnated to number in million - to pay s e ~ i c e tax. About 3000 painters volunteered in Beijing but in some cities not a single painter registered to pay. Another Chinese tax-raising idea had a very different result. Chinese, authorities in the Fujian province decided to give bonus marks in exams to schooIchildren whose parents were painters and eamed more than $20,000. This caused an outrage.

8. According to the paragraph above, the Norwegian govemment wants to consider

(A) Artists as a corporation (B) Painters aq employers (C) Artist association as corporation (D) Pain ters as corporation

9. In the light of the reading above, idenhfy the option vtrhich comes cIosest to describing he foiiowing set of words: EXEMFT: MYSTICAL: DODGiNG

(A) spare: magic: escaping (B) h e fiom; magical; evading (C) excuse: spiritual: fudging (D) excep t: supematural: avoiding

10. The main discussion in the passage is on

(A) Attitude of painters towards tax (B) Tax issues faced by various governments (C) Avoidance of tax by artis ts @) Various tax drives launched by governments

Questions 11 to 13 are based on the in formation given bebw :

Behold a perfect day in the late 21" ccentury. Your eyes open to a perfect mug of coffee made automatically by your perfect coffee maker. You work out in he gym for a perfect body, talk on the cell phone in pursuit of a perfect reception, spend 10 hours in office in perfect isolation, come back home to a perfect pizza delivered for you and go to bed for a perfect sleep. The driving force behind this perfect world we have made for ourseIves is the desire to eliminate intermediaries. Most ihings like entertainment, health and news is routinely acquired without mediation of authorities and contact with people. What was interesting about the 18' century was that with aii its efforts at human moderation it was also the great and glorious timw of political and social revoiu tions. Community was seen as a natural consequence of human impulses. Thinkers of the 1 8 ~ century asI;ed a question that applies to the people in the 21M century. How does one live b l y and comfortably in the world and at !he same tirne live in the world? With aIl the new science and technoIogies that make our lives so perfect, we have misplaced the standard of basic social usefulness. We most often refuse to make use of our common characteristics: courtesies and kindnesses, an aristocmcy of spirit which recognizes the pain of others.

I I . Which line best describes the theme of the passage

(A) The 21" century outlook is less sociable (El) 1 8h century hurnan being was more free and sociai (C) 2 lS' century human being is less sensitive 0) Despite high tech Me, we will always need each other

12. I n the light of the above passage, idenm the option which contains the set of words closest -in rneaning to the set of words in cariitals.

(A) Separation: Mediators (3) Rernoteness: Citizens (C) Lonehess: Native groups (D) Seclusion: Communities

13. In the light of the above passage, idenbfy the option which contains he set of words cIosest in meaning to the set of words in ca~itals.

MPULSE: ARISTOCRACY

(A) Urge: Nobility (J3) Fancy : Large cornmunities (C) Inclination: Upper class attitudes @) Compulsion: Decency

Read the texts carefullv and answer the questions that foliow

In Hubli, a city of about 900,000 peopIe in northwestem Kamataka, ABC realtor Company calculated that a family with Hubli's median family income of Rs.100,000 a year, could afford to buy ABC realtor's median-priced Rs.800,000 house. This calculation was based on a 12 percent mortgage interest rate and on the realtor's assumption that a family could only afford to pay up to 25 percent of itc income for housing.

14. Of the figures appearing in the passage above, which of the following four corrections given below would yield a new caiculation showing tha t even income beIow that of the median family income would enable families in Hubii to afford Hubli's median-priced house?

(A) Hubli's total population is 1,000,000. (B) Hubli's median annual farnily income is Rs.90,000. C F d e s in Hubli could only afford to pay up to 22 percent of their annual

income for housing. (D) The rate at which people in Hubli had to pay mortgage interest is only 10

percen t.

Psychological research indicates that College Footbdl and Hockey players are rnore quicldy moved to hostility md aggression than are college athletes in non-contact sports such as Sprinting and Swirnming. But the researchers' conclusion - that contact sports encourage and teach phcipants to be hostile and aggressive - is untenable. The Football and -Hockey players were probably more hostiie and aggressive to begin wi th than h e ~~rinters and Swimmers.

15. Which of the following, if me, would most strengthen the concIusion drawn by the psychological researchers?

(A) The Football and Hockey players became rnore hostiie and aggressive during the season and remained so during the off-season, whereas there was no increase in aggressiveness among the Sprinters and Swimmers.

(B) The Footbd and Hockey players, but not the Sprinters and Swimmers, were aware at the start of the experirnent that they were being tested for aggressiveness.

(C) The Sprinters and Swimmers, but not the Football and Hockey pIayers, were - aware at h e start of h e experiment that ihey were being tested for

aggressiveness. @). The same psychological research indicated that the Footbail and Hockey

players had a great respect for cooperation and team pIay, whereas the Sprinters and Swimmers were most concemed with excelling as individual cornpetitors.