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FOR UPSC & MPSC

Mahesh Shinde’s RMahesh Shinde’s

Dnyanadeep's IAS (For UPSC - IAS / IPS / IFS)

Mahes

h Shi

nde’s

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adee

p's IA

S For U

PSC - IA

S / IPS / I

FS

INSTRUCTIONS

Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECKTHAT THIS BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES ORITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on theTest Booklet in the Box provided alongside.Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

3. This Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each itemscomprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the AnswerSheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you considerthe best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in theAnswers Sheet.

5. All items carry equal marks.6. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have

to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet.7. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded,

you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you theTest Booklet.

8. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.9. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE INTHE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong

answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deductedas penalty.

ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one of the givenanswers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for thatquestion.

Mahesh Shinde’s

Dnyanadeep's IASFor UPSC - IAS / IPS / IFS

TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES

(India year book; Economic Survey, PIB; Agenda of Niti Ayog)

Test No. 4A

Test Booklet Series

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

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FOR UPSC & MPSC

Mahesh Shinde’sR

Office Add- 847, Bhalchandra Height, 1stfloor, above AnarseSamosewale, Near Jnanaprabodhini, Sadashiv Peth Pune – 30. Ph. 020-24447879, Mob. 8806277677 Page 1

Q 1 Consider following statements

1. The All India Coordinated Project on Capacity Building in Taxonomy (AICOPTAX) project

was launched in 1999.

2. The prime objectives include survey, collection and maintenance of collections of taxonomic

groups including microbes for which no information is available and of unexplored and under-

explored areas; taxonomic analysis of collections made; biosystematics research for the groups

which require modern tools for refinement of taxonomy especially of economically important

groups

Which of the above are correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) None

Q 2 The National Zoological Park is located in

a) Uttarakhand b) Himaachal Pradesh

c) Delhi d) Rajasthan

Q 3 Which of the below given come under the mandate of National Forest policy?

1. Indian Forest Act, 1927 2. UNFCC

3. UNCCD 4. UNCBD

a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 1, 3 and 4 d) All of the above.

Q. 4 Consider following statements:

1. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) is a non-statutory body.

2. The Bureau has its headquarters in New Delhi and four regional offices at Delhi, Kolkata,

Mumbai and Chennai.


A) 1 only B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2 D) None of the above

Q 5 The National Air Quality Index (AQI) was launched in 2015 covering 10 cities. Presently AQI

of 43 Continuous Ambient Air Quality Monitoring Stations covering 24 cities in 10 states is

released. The AQI Bulletin is published:

a) Every week. c) Every Month

b) Every day d) Fortnightly.


1. The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and

their Disposal was adopted in 1989 in Basel, Switzerland.

2. Its scope of application covers a wide range of wastes defined as “hazardous wastes” based on

their origin and/or composition and their characteristics except the household waste and

incinerator ash.


a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above.


Q 7 The Rotterdam Convention on the prior informed consent procedure for certain Hazardous

Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade came into force in 2004. India acceded to the

convention a year later.

1. The Designated National authorities (DNAs) for India are in Ministry of Environment, Forest

and Climate Change.

2. The Official Contact Points (OCPs) are designated in Ministry of Agriculture.


a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above

Q 8 The Stockholm Convention on persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) is a global treaty to

protect human health and the environment from POPs. Which of the below given are the

designated national authorities for Stockholm Convention?

1. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

2. Ministry of Agriculture and Cooperation

3. Ministry of Chemicals and Petrochemicals.

a) 1 and 2. b) 2 and 3.

c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above

Q. 9 The Minnamata convention covers which of the below given Hazardous substance?

1. Arsenic 2. Lead.

3. Mercury.

a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 3

c) 2 only d) 3 only.


1. As a commitment for conserving potential wetlands, India became a signatory to the Ramsar

Convention in 1992.

2. At present there are 36 Ramsar sites in India.


a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above

Q 11 The World Wetland Day-2017 with the theme ‘Wetlands for Disaster Risk Reduction’ was

celebrated at

a) New Delhi b) Cuttack

c) Bhopal d) Udaipur

Q 12 The circuit benches of the NGT are located at :

1. Pune 2. Kolkata.

3. Shimla 4. Shillong

5. Jodhpur.

a) 1,2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 3, 4 and 5 d) All of the above.


Q 13 Which of the below given conventions deal with Ozone Depletion?

1. Nagoya Convention 2. Kyoto Protocol

3. Montreal Protocol 4. Vienna Convention.

a) 3 only b) 2,3 and 4.

c) 3 and 4 d) All of the above.

Q 14 Consider following statements

1. India is a founder member of Global Environment Facility (GEF).

2. GEF is the designated multilateral funding mechanism of 183 countries to provide incremental

finance for addressing global environmental benefits.

3. The GEF has a set mandate for environmental conservation and protection.


a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3 d) all of the above

Q 15 Which of the below given institutes celebrated a centenary year in 2016?

a) Central Water and Power Research Station

b) Central Soil and Materials Research Station

c) National Water Academy,

d) Central Water Commission

Q 16 The National Register of Large Dams is maintained by

a) Central Water and Power Research Station

b) Central Soil and Materials Research Station

c) National Water Academy,

d) Central Water Commission

Q 17 The DRIP project managed by CWC is for:

a) Micro irrigation b) Repairs of Dam

c) Ground Water augmentation d) Surface Water augmentation

Q 18 The Rajiv Gandhi National Ground Water Training and Research Institute (RGNGWTRI)

located at

a) New Delhi b) Raipur

c) Bhopal d) Ranchi

Q 19 Consider following statements:

1. National Water Mission is one of the missions under NAPCC (National Action Plan on Climate

Change).

2. The Union Minister of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation is the

Vice-Chairman of the National Water Resources Council


a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both A and B d) None of the above



1. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP) was launched in 1996-97 to provide

central assistance to Minor irrigation projects in the country.

2. The Command Area Development programme is being implemented under Pradhan Mantri

Krishi Sinchai Yojana (PMKSY) -Har Khet Ko Pani - from 2015-16


a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) both 1 and 2 d) none of the above.

Q 21 The Ganga Task Force is

a) An empowered committee overlooking Clean Ganga Mission

b) A territorial Army unit

c) A Civil society collective

d) NCC and NSS collective

Q 22 Consider following matches:

1. Botanical Survey of India- Kolkata

2. Zoological Survey of India- Dehradun

3. Forest Survey of India- Kolkata

Which are incorrectly matched?

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3

c) 3 only d) 2 only

Q 23 Match the following

1. Sunderban a. Orissa

2. Bhiterkanika b. West Bengal

3. Vembanad c. Andhra Pradesh

4. Krishna Estuary d. Kerala

a) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

b) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d

c) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

d) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d


1. Mangroves In india account for 5% of world’s moangroves.

2. The National Mangrove Genetic Resources Centre is in Orissa.

Which are correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both d) None.

Q 25 Which of the below given was designated as 15th Biosphere Reserve recently?

a) Kutchh b) Khambat

c) Mannar d) Chilka


Q 26 Consider following matches:

1. Forest Research Institute- Dehradun

2. Arid Forest Research institute- Jaipur

Which are correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both d) None.

Q27 Institute for forest productivity is located at

a) Raipur b) Ranchi

c) Kolkata d) Hyderabad


1. The impact of climate change will be more on unirrigated areas than irrigated ones.

2. Sardar Patel warned about the dangers of romanticizing rural India. He famously derided the

village as “a sink of localism, a den of ignorance, narrow mindedness and communalism”.

Which are correct of the above?

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both d) None.


1. crops grown in rainfed areas— pulses in both kharif and rabi—are relatively more to weather

shocks while the cereals—both rice and wheat—are Vulnerable.

2. The impact of rainfall shocks in yields remains unchanged, but the effect of temperature shock

has increased.


a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) both d) none.

Q 30 The models of climate change predict an increase in the variability of rainfall in the long-run,

with-

1. More Dry Days Spells

2. More Heavy Rainfall Spells.

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) both d) None.

Q 31 “A recent key finding—and one with significant implications as climate change looms—is that

the impact of temperature and rainfall is felt only in the extreme.” The “extreme” here

means:

a) when temperatures are much higher, rainfall significantly lower,

b) when temperatures are much lower, rainfall significantly higher,

c) When both temp and rainfall are higher

d) When both temp and rainfall are lower.


Q 32. 1. There are 15 SDGs which have 169 targets to be achieved by 2030.

2. The Voluntary National Reviews (VNRs) focused on all SDGs.


a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) both d) none.

Q 33 The Term PPA is related to:

a) Processing Industry b) power Sector

c) Water resources d) Climate Change

Q 34 Zero Effect, Zero Defect is –

a) Quality Control Norms for Export goods.

b) A policy initiative to enhance energy efficiency and resources efficiency in Medium & Small

Industries

c) High Precision Medical Procedures

d) A Nanotechnology related term

Q .35 1. The Global Climate Risk Index 2018 has put India amongst the six most vulnerable countries

in the world.

2. The ranking index is released by the Germanwatch, an independent Berlin-based development

and environmental organisation,

Which are correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) both d) none.

Q 36 The Mihir shah committee is related to.

a) power crisis b) banking crisis

c) Water crisis d) environmental Crisis

Q 37 Which of the following authority has the mandate of bulk procurement in Minor Forest

Produce (MFP) and surplus Agricultural Produce (SAP) from Tribals in India?

a) Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India Limited (TRIFED)

b) Food Corporation of India (FCI)

c) State-level Tribal Cooperatives Societies and Federations

d) None of the above

Q 38 Consider the following about the National Water Resources Council (NWRC).

1. The council is chaired by the Prime Minister with Chief Minister of states as its members.

2. The council has the authority to approve National Water Policy (NWP) which is later

considered by Cabinet.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None


Q 39 Which of the following is NOT correct with reference to the National Water Policy, 2012?

(a) Water should be seen as a free good that is naturally available and no discrimination should be

made in its allotment

(b) There is need for a comprehensive legislation for optimum development of inter-state rivers

and river valleys

(c) Water resources projects and services should be managed with community participation.

(d) Systems like water footprints and water auditing should be developed to ensure efficient use of

water

Q 40 National Crop Insurance Programme is approved by merging the following Programmes

1. National Agriculture Insurance scheme(NAIS)

2. Modified National Agriculture Insurance scheme(MNAIS)

3. Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme (WBCIS)

4. Coconut Palm Insurance Scheme(CPIS)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

Q 41 Consider the following statements

1. India is the Second largest producer of fish in the world after Japan.

2. India contributes more production of share from marine fisheries than inland fisheries and

aquaculture.

Which of the above statements is/are Not correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.42 In 2018, the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MOEF&CC) notified “Dust

mitigation norms” for the construction and infrastructure projects. It requires the builder /

developer to:

1. Setup wind-breakers and water-sprinklers at the construction site.

2. Cover all vehicles carrying construction material and waste.

3. Roads leading to construction sites must be metalled.

Answer Codes:

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of them

Q.43 Apart from Punjab and Haryana, which of the following states are given the Geographical

indicator (GI) status for cultivation of Basmati rice?

(a) Uttarakhand (b) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Telengana (d) All of the above.

Q.44 In 2018-March, ‘Nyepi’ Hindu festival was celebrated, in which an entire island of Indonesia

kept a “day of silence”, even internet and public transportation were shut down. This island

is:

a) Java

b) Sumatra

c) Bali

d) It’s a fake news, Indonesia is an Islamic country aka None of the above.


Q.45 Which of the following step(s) has/have been taken by the Union government against the

overuse of Urea in recent years?

1. Allocations for urea subsidy have been gradually reduced in the budgets of 2016, 2017 and

2018.

2. Soil health card scheme has been launched (in 2015).

3. Size of urea bags have been reduced from 50kg to 45kg (in 2018).

Answer Codes:

a) Only 2 b) Only 2 and 3

c) Only 1 and 3 d) All of them

Q. 46 Correct statement(s) about Global Energy Transition Index 2018:

a) This index is prepared by IPCC with funding from UNFCCC’s adaptation fund.

b) It’s a simple index that ranks countries according to their ratio of renewable : non-renewable

power generation compared to previous year.

c) Finland has secured first rank, whereas India secured 100th rank.

d) None of the above.

Q.47 In 2018-March, a cloned male buffalo named “Sach-Gaurav” was born in Haryana. Which of

the following statements are correct in this regard:

a It’s India’s first cloned buffalo.

2. It was produced using the parental genes of an Assamese female buffalo.

3. Cloned offspring has better milk-yield production and disease resistance than its parent.

Answer Codes:

a) Only 1 and 2 b) Only 2 and 3

c) Only 1 and 3 d) None of them

Q 48 Consider the following Statements regarding Biodiversity Conservation:

1. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is one of the key agreements adopted during the

Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.

2. India enacted the Biological Diversity (BD) Act in 2002 to give effect to the provision of this

Convention.

Identify the correct statements:

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) All are correct d) None

Q 49 Which of following site hosts coral reefs in India:

1. Gulf of Kutch

2. Gulf of Mannar

3. Andaman and Nicobar


a) 1 & 2 only b) 2 & 3 only

c) All are correct d) 2 only


Q50. Consider the following Statements regarding Mangroves:

1. The mangrove ecosystems constitute a symbiotic link or bridge between terrestrial and marine

ecosystems.

2. Andaman and Nicobar Islands.have the maximum mangrove cover of India.


a) 1 only b) 2 only


Q51. Consider the following Statements regarding Coral Reefs:

1. The term ‘coral’ has been used to describe a variety of invertebrate animals of the Phylum

Cnidaria including hard and soft corals.

2. Coral reefs are the skeletons of stony coral polyps cemented together.


a) 1 only b) 2 only


Q52. Consider the following Statements regarding Cartagena Biosafety Protocol:

1. The main objective of the Protocol is to ensure safe transfer, handling and use of living

modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology.

2. India is not a party to the Protocol due to domestic considerations on biodiversity research.


a) 1 only b) 2 only


Q53. Consider the following Statements regarding Forest Policy of India:

1. The Indian Forest Act, 1927 (IFA), provides the legal framework for the protection and

management of forest.

2. National Forest Policy,1988 aims to have a minimum of one fourth of the total land area as

forests.


a) 1 only b) 2 only


Q54. Consider the following Statements regarding wildlife conservation in India:

1. Project Elephant (PE) was launched in 1991-92 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.

2. The Centrally Sponsored Scheme ‘Project Tiger’ was launched in 1973.


a) 1 only b) 2 only


Q55. Consider the following Statements regarding Animal Welfare Board of India:

1. The mandate of the Animal Welfare Division is to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or

suffering on animals, in terms of the provision of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act.

2. It was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known

humanitarian.



a) 1 only b) 2 only


Q56. Consider the following Statements regarding Categorization of Industrial Sectors:

1. Currently, Industries are classified on basis of pollution index under 4 categories – Red,

Orange, Green and White Category.

2. Industrial sectors having pollution index score of 60 and above—Red category.

3. The newly introduced White category of industries pertains to those industrial sectors which

are practically non-polluting.


a) 1 & 2 only b) 2 & 3 only

c) All are correct d) 1 & 3 only

Q57. Consider the following Statements regarding National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change:

1. The fund, operationalised in 2015-16, is meant to assist national and state level activities to

meet the cost of adaptation measures in areas that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse

effects of climate change.

2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is National Implementing

Entity (NIE) for fund.


a) 1 only b) 2 only


Q.58 The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change act as the nodal agency of various

United nations programme. ldentify them

1) The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

2) the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development(UNCED)

3) Global Environment Facility.

Options

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only

Q 59 Consider the following statement(s) about Botanical Survey of India-

1) It was established in 1890 with the basic objective to explore the plant resources of country

2) Sir George King was appointed as first ex-officio Honorary Director of the BSI.

3) It is headquarted in New Delhi

Options-

a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and3

c) 1 and 2 d) 3 only

Q 60 Which of the below given national institute has completed 100 years in 2016?

a) Zoological Survey of India b) Botanical survey of India

c) Forest Survey of India d) Wildlife Institute of India



1. The ZSI is headquartered at New Delhi

2. The ZSI has 12 regional centres..


a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) None.

Q 62 Consider following statements regarding Forest Survey of India

1. The Forest Survey of India succeeded the “Pre-investment Survey of Forest Resources”.

2. (PISFR), a project initiated in 1965 by Government of India with the sponsorship of FAO and

UNDP.


A) 1 only B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2 D) None.

Q 63 Consider following statements regarding India State of Forests Report.

1. It is conducted every year by Forest Survey of India through satellite.

2. India has 24.4% area under forest and tree cover as per the 2017 report.


a) 1 only b) 2 only


Q 64 Consider following statements regarding India Forest Survey Report.

1. India Ranks 9th in world in forest cover area.

2. The Forest cover increased by 0.94%


a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) None

Q 65 As per India Forest Survey Report, there has been a decrease of forest cover of 630 sq km in

the North Eastern region.What is the reason of this decrease?

a) Shifting Cultivation b) Floods in north east region

c) Forest fires and landslides d) All of the above

Q 66 Consider following statements regarding Mangrove cover in India.

1. Overall there has been an increase in the mangrove cover as compared to earlier estimate due to

the plantation and regeneration efforts.

2. None of the states with mangrove cover have shown a negative change in the mangrove cover.

a) 1 only b) 2 only


Q 67 Which of the below given states has shown highest increase in Mangrove cover?

a) Orissa b) Maharashtra

c) gujrath d) West Bengal


Q 68 The HQ of The International Tropical Timber Agreement (ITTA) is at

a) Seol b) Dhaka

c) Yokohama d) New Delhi


1. The International Tropical Timber Agreement (ITTA) was negotiated under United Nation

Conference for Trade and Development (UNCTAD’s) auspices

2. India belongs to “Consumer Country Category” of the ITTA.


A) 1 only B) 2 only

C) both 1 and 2 D) None.

Q 70 In which part or state of India people build diversion channels like ‘guls’ or ‘kuls’

(a) Arid region (b) Western Himalayas

(c) Plains of Bengal (d) Semi-arid region

Q 71 The following is the only state where roof top rain water harvesting is made compulsory

(a) Bihar (b) Assam

(c) Tamilnadu (d) Maharashtra

Q72. Consider the following Statements regarding Water related mission/mechanisms in India:

1. National Water Mission, under NAPCC., aims at “conservation of water, minimizing wastage

and ensuring its more equitable distribution.

2. The National Water Policy, 2012 lays emphasis on community participation in management of

water resources projects and services.

3. The National Water Resources Council (NWRC), setup in 1983 is chaired by PM.


a) 1 & 2 only b) 2 & 3 only

c) All are correct d) 1 & 3 only

Q73. Consider the following Statements regarding Water Resources Potential of India:

1. The average annual water availability of the country is assessed as 1869 billion cubic meters.

2. Of this, total utilizable water resource is assessed as 1123 BCM out of which 690 BCM is

surface water.


a) 1 only b) 2 only


Q74. Consider the following Statements regarding Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme:

1. It was launched in 1996-97 to provide central assistance to major/medium irrigation projects in

the country.

2. Focus was on accelerating implementation of such projects which were beyond resource

capability of the states or were in advanced stage of completion.


a) 1 only b) 2 only



Q75. Consider the following Statements regarding Command Area Development and Water

Management:

1. The Centrally Sponsored Command Area Development (CAD) Programme was launched in

1974-75 for development of adequate delivery system of irrigation.

2. The Programme is being implemented under Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana (PMKSY)

– Har Khet Ko Pani – from 2015-16.


a) 1 only b) 2 only


Q76. Consider the following Statements regarding Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA):

1. Central Ground Water Board was constituted as Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA)

under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

2. As part of streamlining the regulatory function of CGWA, district magistrates/deputy

commissioners of revenue districts have been appointed as authorized officers for grant of

permission for extraction of ground water.


a) 1 only b) 2 only


Q77. Consider the following Statements regarding Bansagar Control Board:

1. The Board was set up in 1976 in accordance with the Bansagar Agreement reached between the

Governments of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

2. It was setup for for sharing the waters of river Betwa and the cost of the Bansagar dam.


a) 1 only b) 2 only


Q78. Consider the following Statements regarding National Water Development Agency:

1. The National Water Development Agency (NWDA) was established in 1982 to study the

feasibility of the links under peninsular component of National Perspective Plan.

2. Subsequently in 1990-91, NWDA Society resolved to take up the studies of the Himalayan

Component also.


a) 1 only b) 2 only


Q79. Consider the following Statements regarding National Institute of Hydrology:

1. It is a premier R&D institute in the country to undertake, aid, promote and coordinate basic,

applied and strategic research on all aspects of hydrology.

2. The Institute has its headquarters at Kochi, Kerala.


a) 1 only b) 2 only



Q 80 Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways:

1. Soil formation

2. Prevention of soil erosion

3. Recycling of waste

4. Pollination of crops

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4


Q 81. There is a concern: over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of India. What

could be the causative factors for this phenomenon?

1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.

2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.

3. Upwelling in the seas.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 82 Assertion (A): Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast from developing countries such as India.

Reason (R): No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in biodiversity.

Code:

a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true

Q 83. Consider following statement about the estuary

I) Estuary is place where the river fresh waster meets with ocean water

II) This area is highly productive

III) This area is highly unproductive

IV) All of the above

Which of above the statements is/are true?

a) I only b) II only

c) I and II d) III only

Q 84. Consider the following statements regarding mangroves.

i. Mangroves are found only along tropical coastlines

ii. Mangroves plants are salt tolerant

iii. Mangrove forests are nesting and migratory sites for many bird species

Which of the following statements are true?

a) i and ii b) ii and iii

c) i and iii d) i, ii and iii



1. Forest Area generally refers to all the geographic areas recorded as forest in government

records.

2. Forest area denotes the legal status of the land as per the government records, whereas the term

forest cover indicates presence of trees over any land.

Which of the above statement(s) is /are incorrect?

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 86. Consider the following statements regarding Eco sensitive zones (ESZs)

1. The protected areas are based on the core and buffer model of management

2. The core area has the legal status ofbeing a national park and wildlife sanctuary.

3. The buffer area has legal status of being a reserved forest and tiger reserve.

Select the correct codes

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3 d) All the above

Q 87 Which among the following are the major reasons behind preferring EUCALYPTUS tree in

the planned forestation process?

1. plantation grows fast

2. plantation makes soil fertile

3. Wood from Eucalyptus tree is easily converted into pulp for paper industry.

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3


Q 88. The Montreaux Record is a register of

a) exotic species and ecological Hazards outside their native environment.

b) wetland sites under the threat of anthropogenic activities.

c) Endangered species of sub- tropical species.

d) Coastal cites under direct threat of consequences of global warming

Q 89. Carbon sequestration can be done in following ways

1. Afforestation 2. Wetland Restoration

3. Sustainable Agriculture

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3


Q 90. With reference to the Hydrocarbon Vision 2030 for North-East India, which of the following

statements is/are incorrect?

1. The vision statement lays out a detailed roadmap for the upstream (Exploration and

Production) sector of the hydrocarbon value chain only

2. The Vision aims at doubling Oil and Gas production by 2030 and promoting cooperation with

neighbouring countries in the hydrocarbon sector

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) Only 1 b) Only 2



Q 91. With reference to the ‘Himalayan Griffon’ or the ‘Himalayan Vulture’, which of the following

statements is/are incorrect?

1. The IUCN has listed it as a critically endangered species

2. Apart from the Himalayas, this bird can be found in South India as well as Central Asia

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) Only 1 b) Only 2


Q 92. With reference to the chemical ‘Pyriproxyfen’, consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The World Health Organisation has recommended its introduction in drinking water

supply in disease-carrying mosquito-infested areas

Reason (R): It is a larvicide which produces malformations in mosquito larvae (it inhibits the

development of adult insect characteristics)

Select the correct answer:

a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A

b) A and R both are true but R is not the correct explanation for A

c) A is true but R is false

d) A is false but R is true

Q 93. Which of the following are ideal conditions for sugarcane production?

1. Temperature below 15 degrees Celsius.

2. Rainfall between 1100 to 1500 mm.

3. Sugarcane grows well in less sun intensity area.

Code:

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3

c) Only 2 d) 1 and 3

Q 94. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Coral reefs are vulnerable to ocean acidification

Reason (R): Any rise in acidity of water increases the susceptibility of coral skeleton to dissolve in

water


a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.

b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A.

c) A is incorrect, R is correct

d) A is incorrect, R is correct

Q 95. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Many victims of extreme hypothermia peel off most or all of their clothing

Reason (R): Extreme hypothermia causes sudden, uncontrolled and intermittent spikes in body

temperature.


a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.

b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A.

c) A is incorrect, R is correct

d) A is incorrect, R is correct


Q 96 The Fair and Remunerative Price of Sugarcane is approved by the

a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices

c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture

d) Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee

Q 97 Consider the following statements about New Waste Management Rules:

1. The Ministry of rural development have been given responsibility for implementation of rules

in the villages.

2. For the first time, the producers and brand owners have been made responsible for collecting

waste generated from their products.

3. The rules promote the use of plastic for road construction or energy recovery.

Which of the above given statement(s) is/are not true?

a) 1 and 2 b) Only 1

c) Only 3 d) 2 and 3

Q 98. Which of the following criteria will be considered for the assessment of Outstanding

Universal Value (OUV) as per UNESCO’s guidelines:

1. It the heritage site represents a masterpiece of human creative Genius.

2. If the heritage site is an outstanding example of a traditional human settlement, land use, or sea

use which is representative of a culture (or cultures), or human interaction.

3. If itcontains the most important and significant natural habitats for insitu conservation of

biological diversity.

Code:

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3


Q 99. The National Green Tribunal has suspended the Environmental Clearance (EC) granted to

the India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO). Consider the following statements regarding

the Environment clearance in India:

1. The guideline is that if any project falls within 5 km from an inter-State boundary or within a

notified national park or a sanctuary has to be considered a category ‘A’ project.

2. The Tribunal found that the Mathikettan Shola National Park was just about 4.9 km from the

proposed project site making it a Category ‘A’ project.

3. For category ‘B’ project, an Environmental Impact Assessment is necessary.

Which of the above statements is correct?

a) 1 and 3 b) 1 and 2



1. Fish ranching is a practice of keeping which fishes in captivity for the first few years in floating

cages in coastal lagoons and releasing them from captivity into water bodies.

2. Marine resources include gulfs, coral reefs, and mangroves.

Select the correct answer from the following codes

a) Only 1 b) Only 2



India Year Book

Test 4 (Answer Key)

1-c 11-c 21-b 31-a 41-a 51-c 61-d 71-c 81-d 91-a

2-c 12-c 22-b 32-d 42-d 52-a 62-c 72-c 82-c 92-c

3-d 13-c 23-a 33-b 43-a 53-a 63-b 73-c 83-c 93-c

4-d 14-a 24-c 34-b 44-c 54-c 64-b 74-c 84-b 94-d

5-c 15-a 25-a 35-c 45-b 55-c 65-a 75-c 85-c 95-d

6-a 16-d 26-a 36-c 46-d 56-c 66-c 76-c 86-c 96-a

7-d 17-b 27-a 37-c 47-d 57-c 67-b 77-a 87-b 97-b

8-b 18-b 28-a 38-c 48-c 58-a 68-c 78-c 88-b 98-d

9-d 19-a 29-b 39-a 49-c 59-c 69-a 79-a 89-d 99-b

10-d 20-b 30-c 40-d 50-a 60-a 70-b 80-d 90-b 100-c

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