quest ii final with answer keys compatibility

7/28/2019 Quest II Final With Answer Keys Compatibility

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Quest II

Instructions

The test is for2.30 hours and carries 180 marks. The Quest II booklet contains 100 (Part A 15 + Part B 50 + Part C 35)Multiple

ChoiceQuestions(MCQs)out of which 70 questions has to be answered.

Part A consists of15 questions on general mental ability, out of which candidate

SHOULD answer ALL the 15 questions. Each question carries 2 marks.

Part B consists of 50 questions, out of which candidate can answer any 35

questions. Each question carries 2 marks. Part C consists of 35 questions, out of which candidate can answer any 20

questions. Each question carries 4 marks.

There will be negative marking @ 25% for each wrong answer.

Answer sheet has been provided separately. Write your name, batch and date on

the answer sheet in the space provided. Also put your signature in the space

identified. Candidates found copying or resorting to any unfair means are liable to be

disqualified from this and future examinations.

Candidates should not write anything anywhere except on the answer

sheet.

Candidate has to answer questions from all the parts. If he/she leaves any part

unanswered, results will not be counted.

Candidate will be declared pass, if he scores minimum 50% marks in all sections

together.

Use of calculator is not permitted.


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Quest II April 16, 2013

Part A (Answer ALL, Compulsory)1. Nikita starts her journey from Delhi to Bhopal and

simultaneously Nishita starts from Bhopal to delhi.After crossing each other they finish theirremaining journey in 49/9 hours and 9 hours,

respectively. What is the Nishitas speed if Nikitasspeed is 36kmph?

A. 30B. 35C. 28D. 25

2. ( ? /18) x (? / 162 ) = 1A. 64B. 34C. 54D. 94

3.A man selling a chocolate at 5% profit. If he hadbought it at 5% less and sold it for Re.1 less, he

would have gained 10%. The cost price of thearticle is

A. Rs. 200B. Rs. 150C. Rs. 250D. Rs. 240

4. The driving wheel of a locomotive engine 2.1 m inradius makes 75 revolutions in one min. Find thespeed of the train in km/h

A. 60 kmphB. 59.4 kmphC. 61.5 kmph

D. None of the above5. You travel from Biotecnika office to electronic cityin 15 min with no traffic problems on Sundays, iftraffic is very thick, then you will need 30 min toreach electronic city. If you start any day fromBiotecnika office, what is the probability that youwill reach electronic city in 15 min?

A. 2/3B. 1/7C. 2/7D. 6/7

6. If the radius of base and height of a cone areincreased by 10%, find the percentage of increase

of its volume.A. 30%B. 33.1%C. 50%D. 10%

7. If log10x = 98 x log 107 find xA. 10B. 12.25C. 15.55D. 12.75

8. (x+5) (x-5) = 39, x = ?A. +/- 4B. +/- 8C. +/- 5

D. +/- 109. Find the common ration in a G.P. whose sum to

is 9/2 and whose 2nd term is 2.A. -1/3B. +1/3C. 2/3D. -2/3

10. How many terms of the series 5 + 7 + 9 + musbe taken in order that the sum may be 480?

A. 10B. 20C. 30D. 40

11. x covers a distance of 60 km in 6 hrs partly onfoot at the rate of 4 km/hr and partly on a cycle a14 km/hr. Find the distance traveled on foot.

A. 2 kmB. 2.4 kmC. 5 kmD. 2.9 km

12.A man left Rs.1750 to be divided among his twodaughters and four sons. Each daughter was toreceive three times as much as a son. How muchdid each son receive?

A. 175/-

B. 275/-C. 523/-D. 525/-

13. In a family, eleven times the number of childrenis greater by 12 than twice the square of thenumber of children. How many children are therein the family?

A. 4B. 2C. 3D. 1

14. If Air = cheater; cheater = Water; Water = Sky;sky = stone; stone = tiger then

A. Tiger is animalB. Tiger is non livingC. Tiger is airD. Tiger is water

15. I have a certain number of apples to be dividedequally among 18 children. If the number of applesand the number of children were increased by 2each child would get 5 apples less. How manyapples have to distribute

A. 918

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B. 900C. 818

D. 800

Part B

16. Which one of the following pairs of genes islinked on a single chromosome?

A. V gene for lambda chain and C genefor kappa chain

B. C gene for gamma chain and C genefor kappa chain

C. V gene for lambda chain and V genefor heavy chain

D. C gene for gamma chain and C genefor alpha chain

17.An Rh-negative woman married to aheterozygous Rh-positive man has threechildren. The probability that all three of theirchildren are Rh-positive is

A. 1:2B. 1:4

C. 1:8D. Zero

18. The molecules mediating signal transductionfollowing antigen binding to cell surfaceimmunoglobulin on a B-cell are called:

A. Ig FcB. Ig-alpha and Ig-betaC. MHC class IID. CD4+

19. Facilitated diffusion:

A. Requires a transmembrane proteinB. Requires ATPC. Can move molecules against a

concentration gradientD. Is typically used to transport small

nonpolar molecules

20. The processing of cytosolic protein involves:A. Transport into late endosomes.B. Proteasome-mediated cleavageC. Displacement of invariant chainD. Displacement of beta2-microglobulin

21. For vaccination against mycobacterialdiseases such as tuberculosis, the mostimportant facet of the immune response to bestimulated is:

A. A high titer of antibodyB. Macrophage-activating cell-mediated

immunityC. Cytotoxic T-cells

D. Neutrophils

22. Which of the following procedures or testsallows the identification and collecting of aparticular type of cell that has been recognizedby labeled antibody?

A. Western blotB. ElectrophoresisC. Fluorescence-activated cell sortingD. Immunofluorescence

23.An immunochemist determines the amino acidsequence of the entire light chain of a purifiedmyeloma protein. This sequence:

A. represents the entire Fab fragmentB. is sufficient to determine the class o

the myeloma proteinC. includes all of the structure contributing

to the idiotypeD. is sufficient to determine the light chain

isotype

24. Which of the following penicillins is resistant toStaphylococcus aureus beta lactamases?

A. AmoxicillinB. MethicillinC. Penicillin VD. Penicillin G

25.A bacterium is examined and is found to lacksuperoxide dismutase, catalse and peroxidaseWhich of the following statements besdescribes this bacterium?

A. This bacterium is an aerotolerananaerobe

B. This bacterium does not producesuperoxide radicals

C. This bacterium is an obligate anaerobeD. This bacterium is a microaerophile

26.An abortive infection is one in which:

A. The infected cells are killedB. Progeny virus is not producedC. Transplacental infection of the fetus

occursD. Episodes of virus multiplication

alternate with periods when noinfectious virus is present and nomultiplication occurs

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27. The main target structure damaged inRheumatoid arthritis is:

A. Skin and dendritic cellsB. CartilageC. SynoviumD. Blood vessels

28.An individual was found to be heterologous forIgG1 allotypes 3 and 1 The different possibleIgG1 antibodies produced by this individual will

never haveA. two H chains of allotype 1B. two L chains of either or C. two H chains of allotype 3D. two H chains, one of allotype 3 and one

of allotype 1

29. Cold sterilization isA. Sterilization by Sonic vibrationB. Sterilization by Gamma-irradiationC. Sterilization by -196C temperature in

liquid nitrogen

D. Sterilization by placing the culture in icecrystals

30.An immunologic adjuvant is a substance thatA. Reduces the toxicity of the immunogenB. Enhances the immunogenicity of

haptensC. Enhances immunologic cross-reactivityD. Enhances the immune response

against the immunogen

31. The three-dimensional structure of

macromolecules is formed and maintainedprimarily through noncovalent interactions.Which of the following is not considered anoncovalent interaction?

A. Hydrogen bondB. Van der Waals interactionC. Disulphide bondD. Hydrophobic interaction

32.Among the many molecules of high-energyphosphate compounds formed as a result of thefunctioning of the citric acid cycle, one molecule

is synthesized at the substrate level. In which ofthe following reactions does this occur?

A. Citrate a-ketoglutarate

B. -ketoglutarate succinate

C. Succinate Fumarate

D. Fumarate Malate

33. The entry point into the citric acid cycle forisoleucine, valine, and the product of odd-chainfatty acids is

A. Succinyl CoAB. FumarateC. PyruvateD. Oxaloacetate

34. When transketolase acts on fructose 6phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, the

products areA. 3-phosphoglycerate and

glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

B. 3-phosphoglycerate and two moleculesof glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

C. dihydroxyacetone phosphate andglucose 6-phosphate.

D. xylulose 5-phosphate and erythrose 4-phosphate

35. Which of the following causes pyruvate

dehydrogenase kinase to catalyze thephosphorylation and inactivation of E1 in thepyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

A. elevated concentration of ATP, NADHAcetyl CoA

B. Elevated concentration of NAD+ andADP

C. Ca2+D. Insulin

36. If electron transfer in tightly coupledmitochondria is blocked (with antimycin Abetween cytochrome b and cytochrome c1, thenwhich of the following is likely to occur?

A. ATP synthesis will continue, but theP/O ratio will drop to one.

B. electron transfer from succinate to O2will continue unabated.

C. all ATP synthesis will stopD. energy diverted from the cytochromes

will be used to make ATP, and the P/Oratio will rise.

37. Lipoamide is a disulfhydryl containing cofactorused by certain oxidoreductases. Each moleculeof lipoamide is oxidized by the same molecule ofenzyme that reduces it. This indicates thalipoamide is:

A. Metal cofactorB. Loosely bound cofactorC. Prosthetic groupD. Product

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38. The activity of pyruvate carboxylase isdependent upon the positive allosteric effector?

A. SuccinateB. CitrateC. Aectyl CoAD. Isocitrate

39. Which of the following occurs during prolongedfasting (starvation)?

A. As a fast progresses, tissues relypredominantly on fuels derived fromadipose triacylglycerols

B. Blood ketone levels decreasedramatically after 3-5 days of fasting

C. Tissues use the same amount ofglucose that they use during a brief fast

D. After 3-5 days of fasting, the brainincreases its utilization of glucose andthe rate of gluconeogenesis and theproduction of urea increases

40.Antimycin A blocks electron transfer betweencytochrome b and c1. If intact mitochondria wereincubated with antimycin A, excess NADH, anadequate supply of oxygen, which of thefollowing would be found in the oxidized state?

A. Cytochrome a3B. Coenzyme QC. Cytochrome bD. Cytochrome e

41.Asians and Native Americans may flush andfeel ill after drinking small amounts of ethanol in

alcoholic beverages. This reaction is due togenetic variation in an enzyme that metabolizesthe liver metabolite of alcohol, which is:

A. MethanolB. AcetoneC. AcetaldehydeD. Glycerol

42. Familial fructokinase deficiency causes nosymptoms because

A. Hexokinase can phosphorylate fructoseB. Most tissues will utilize fructose

C. Excess fructose does not escape in theurine

D. Excess fructose spills into the boweland is eliminated in feces

43.After a well-rounded breakfast, which of thefollowing would be expected to occur?

A. Increased activity of pyruvatecarboxylase

B. Decreased activity of acetyl CoAcarboxylase

C. Decreased rate of glycogenolysisD. Increased activity o

phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

44. Which of the following statements concerningthe b oxidation of fatty acids is true?

A. About 1,200 ATP molecules are

ultimately produced per 20-carbon fattyacid oxidized.

B. One FADH2 and two NADH areproduced for each acetyl-CoA.

C. The free fatty acid must becarboxylated in the b position by abiotin-dependent reaction before theprocess of b oxidation commences.

D. The free fatty acid must be convertedto a thioester before the process of boxidation commences.

45. Before traveling to the rest of the body, alabsorbed nutrients or toxins must pass throughthe

A. LiverB. PancreasC. Gall bladderD. Colon

46. Dynein hydrolyzes molecules of ATP and canconvert the released chemical energy into themechanical energy that propels the sperm. Theindividuals lack dynein, makes the sperm

immotile. Such individuals with the geneticsyndrome are called

A. Kartagener triadB. Drown syndrowC. Dappled metaphysis syndromeD. Cystic fibrosis

47. The mammalian egg is surrounded bya layer of ovarian follicularcells that werenurturing the egg at the time of its release fromthe ovary are called

A. the vitelline envelope

B. the zona pellucidC. the cumulusD. the corona radiate

48. Mammalian sperm bind to the zona pellucidabefore undergoing the acrosome reaction. In themouse, this binding is mediated by

____________ and one or many sperm proteinsthat recognize it.

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A. ZP3 (zona protein 3)B. ZP2 (zona protein 2)C. ZP1 (zona protein 1)D. ZP4 (zona protein 4)

49. Hans Spemann and colleagues developed theconcept of the primary organizer in amphibianembryos while studying the

A. medial cells between the optic cups.B. anterior terminus of the notochord.C. posterior edge of the dorsal ectoderm.D. dorsal lip of the blastopore.

50. Which is the most commonly used constitutivepromoter for high levels of gene expression indicot plants

A. Cauliflower mosaic virus promoterB. 35S, opine promoterC. ubiquitin promoterD. alcohol dehydrogenase 1 promoter

51. Differential centrifugation is a process that:A. separates different components of the

cell that function differently.B. separates components of the cell that

have a different chemical makeup.C. analyzes the chemical components of

the cell.D. separates components of the cell that

have different densities.

52. Particular RNAs that are important for

development are located in distinct regions ofthe Drosophila embryo. This is most directlydemonstrated by using

A. western blottingB. northern blottingC. in situ hybridizationD. in vitro translation

53. When separating proteins using gel filtrationchromatography, the first proteins to be elutedwill be ________________.

A. smallest

B. largestC. negatively chargedD. positively charged

54. Edman reagent cleaves polypeptides_________________.

A. after lysin residuesB. after positively charged residuesC. at the C-terminus

D. at the N-terminus

55.Among existing technologies, which of thefollowing vector system would you prefer to usefor generating a library for 140kb eukaryoticgenomic DNA fragments, while giving dueconsideration to size as well as stability of theinsert?

A. Phage

B. CosmidC. Bacterial artificial chromosomeD. Yeast artificial chromosome

56. ELISA assay usesA. an enzyme which can react with

secondary antibody.B. an enzyme which can react with the

antigen.C. a substrate which gets converted into a

colored product.D. a radiolabelled secondary antibody

57. Defective alleles are eliminated rapidly from apopulation if they are

A. Recessive.B. dominant.C. co dominant.D. in multiple copies.

58. The movement of a single cell was required tobe continually monitored during developmentThe cell was marked with a reporter gene. Tovisualize this movement one would use

A. Phase contrast microscopyB. Bright field microscopyC. Fluorescence microscopyD. Atomic force microscopy

59. If the GC content of an organisms genome is28%, this means that, in the organisms genomicDNA,

A. 28% of one strand of DNA is C and28% of the same strand is G

B. 28% of one strand of DNA is C and28% of the other strand is G

C. the total number of Cs and Gs in onestrand is 28% of the total number ofnucleotides in both strands

D. 28% of all the base-pairs are GC or CGbase-pairs

60. When a PCR reaction is performed usinggenomic DNA as a template, a 1.5-kb product isamplified. When the same reaction is set up

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using cDNA as a template, a 0.8-kb product isamplified. A likely explanation for the different-sized products is that

A. primers always bind to differentsequences in different templates.

B. there is a mutation in the genomicDNA.

C. there is an intron in the gene.D. the cDNA is degraded.

61. ForAgrobacterium tumefaciens to be used tointroduce foreign DNA into a plant cell, that DNAmust first be:

A. Inserted into the T-DNA region of the Tiplasmid of A. tumefaciens.

B. Inserted into the main chromosome ofA. tumefaciens.

C. Inserted in an A. tumefaciens plasmidother than the Ti plasmid.

D. Isolated from the crown gall using theappropriate restriction enzyme.

62. Detect the mode of inheritance in the followingpedigree chart is most convincing

A. Autosomal recessive and the individual2 is homozygous dominant

B. Autosomal dominant and the individual2 is homozygous recessive

C. Autosomal recessive and the individual1 is homozygous dominant

D. Autosomal recessive and the individual2 is homozygous recessive

63. In messelson and stall experiment, what was

the clue which led to the discovery of semiconservative mode of replication?

A. Formation of thick heavy band in CsClcentrifuge

B. Formation of faint heavy band insubsequent generation in CsClcentrifuge

C. Formation of intermediate band in CsClcentrifuge

D. Formation of thick light band in CsCcentrifuge

64. In a dsDNA , we have 100 hydrogen bondsand GC content is 50%. Find the no. ophosphodiester bonds in the dsDNA molecule?A. 39B. 38C. 78

D. 79

65. Barney is an alien. On his ship, hidden in theStata building, you find alien bacteria thametabolize wood. You call this species A.termiticus, and call your original strain BLT (forBarneys little termiticus). You subject asample of BLT to mutagens, and isolate a newstrain that no longer metabolizes wood. Youconclude that you have succeeded in disruptingat least one gene necessary to metabolizewood. You call the mutant strain M. You mix a

sample of M with a sample of heat-killed wildtype BLT, and the resulting strain metabolizeswood. You summarize your data in the followingtable

Strains Metabolizeswood?

BLT Yes

Heat-killed BLT No

M No

Heat-killed BLT+M

Yes

A. What do you conclude about the geneticsof the bacteria?

B. The heat killed + M bacteria underwenmutation

C. The heat killed +M bacteria acquired genesby transformation

D. The heat killed +M bacteria acquired genesby conjugation

Part C

66. The major reason that antiparallel -strandedprotein structures are more stable than paralle-stranded structures is that the latter

A. Are in a slightly less extendedconfiguration than antiparallel strands

B. Have weaker hydrogen bonds laterallybetween adjacent strands

C. Do not have many disulphide crosslinks between adjacent strands

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D. Have fewer lateral hydrogen bondsthan antiparallel strands

67. In the disease sprue, vitamin B12 (cobalamin)is poorly absorbed in the intestine, resulting in Bdeficiency. If each of the following fatty acidswere in the diet, for which one would theprocess of fatty acid oxidation be most affectedin a patient with sprue?

A. CH3(CH2)10COOHB. CH3(CH2)11COOHC. CH3(CH2)14COOHD. CH3(CH2)18COOH

68. The first step in two-dimensional gelelectrophoresis generates a series of proteinbands by isoelectric focusing. In a second step,a strip of this gel is turned 90 degrees, placedon another gel containing SDS, and electriccurrent is again applied. In this second step:

A. Proteins with similar isoelectric points

become further separated according totheir molecular weight

B. The individual bands become stainedso that the isoelectric focus pattern canbe visualized

C. The individual bands becomevisualized by interacting with protein-specific antibodies in the second gel

D. The proteins in the band separate morecompletely because the secondisoelectric current is in the oppositepolarity to the first current

69. CYTKAVMWEFRDGMQKPNS You exposedthe polypeptide to cyanogen bromide. You alsoexposed the polypeptide to trypsin. Whatfragments would you expect to find?

A. AVMWEFR, CY, CYTK, DGMQK,DGMQKPNS, EF, R, PNS, TKAVMW

B. CY, CYTKAVM, DGMQKPNS, EF, R,QKPNS, TKAVMW, WEFRDGM

C. AVMWEFR, CYTK, CYTKAVM,DGMQK, PNS, QKPNS, WEFRDGM

D. CY, DGMQKPNS, EF, R, RDGM, M,

QKPNS, TKAV, TKAVMW, W

70. The term ______________ describe the logphase of a culture during which the soleproducts of metabolism like ethanol, acetoneand butanol are produced. The metabolitesproduced during this phase is refered as-

_____________.A. Idiophase, Primary metabolites

B. Idiophase, Secondary metabolitesC. Trophophase, Primary metabolitesD. Trophophase, Secondary metabolite

71. The unequal division of the cytoplasm amongfrog embryo cells during early cleavage, asshown in the diagram, results fromA. gastrulation of the embryoB. formation of the blastulaC. segregation of the maternal and paterna

cellsD. uneven distribution of yolk

72. Which of the following is (are) true of theoxidation of 1 mol of palmitate (a 16-carbonsaturated fatty acid; 16:0) by the -oxidationpathway, beginning with the free fatty acid in thecytoplasm?1. Activation of the free fatty acid requires the

equivalent of two ATPs2. Inorganic pyrophosphate (PPi) is produced.3. Carnitine functions as an electron acceptor.

4. 8 mol of acetyl-CoA are formed.A. 1 and 4 onlyB. 1, 2 and 4C. 1, 2 and 3D. 1, 3 and 4

73. Match the following with correct type ocleavage.I. Amphibian- a)holoblastic rotational

II. Reptiles - b) superficial holoblasticIII. Mammals- c) Radial HoloblasticIV. Drosophila - d) discoidal meroblastic

A. I C, II D, III A, IV BB. I A, II C, III D, IV BC. I A, II D, III C, IV BD. I D, II A, III C, IV B

74. Youve immunized a rabbit with a humanIgG4 myeloma protein and collected its serumIf you want to prepare an absorbed antiserumthat is class-specific, you would begin bypassing it over column bearing:A. IgA2B. IgG4

C. IgG4D. IgM

75. How far along the DNA would the transcription

bubble formed by RNA polymerase move in

60 seconds?

A. 3000

B. 10,000

C. 3000 5400

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D. 2000 4500

76.An Rh-negative mother had an anti-Rhresponse following the birth of her Rh-positivechild. The second fetus was also Rh+ so thematernal anti-Rh antibodies coated the fetus'serythrocytes with antibody. The isotype of theseantibodies isA. IgAB. IgGC. IgED. IgM

77. Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol(DNP) are inhibitors of mitochondrial aerobichosphorylation. Which of the followingstatements correctly describes the mode ofaction of the three inhibitors?

A. Cyanide and 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibit therespiratory chain, and oligomycin inhibits thesynthesis of ATP

B. Cyanide inhibits the respiratory chain,whereas oligomycin and 2,4-dinitrophenolinhibit the synthesis of ATP

C. Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenolcompete with O2 for cytochrome oxidase(complex IV)

D. Oligomycin and cyanide inhibit synthesis ofATP; 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibits therespiratory chain

78.A new compound isolated from mitochondria isclaimed to represent a previously unrecognized

carrier in the electron transfer chain. It is giventhe name coenzyme Z. Which line of evidencedo you feel is the least conclusive in assigningthis compound a position in the electron transferchain?

A. Removal of coenzyme Z from themitochondria results in a decreased rate ofoxygen consumption

B. The rate of oxidation and reduction ofmitochondrion-bound coenzyme is of thesame order of magnitude as the overall rateof electron transfer in mitochondria as

measured by oxygen consumptionC. When added to a mitochondrial suspension,

coenzyme Z is taken up very rapidly andspecifically by the mitochondria

D. The reduction potential of Z is between thatof two compounds known to participate inthe electron transport chain

79. During the cell interactions involved ingenerating a cytotoxic T-cell response, theThelper cell receives the necessary Signal 2from an antigen-presenting cell through which ofthe following interactions?A. IL-2 with IL-2RB. B7 with CD28C. TCR with MHC Class I

D. IgD with antigen

80. Experiments on denaturation and renaturationafter the reduction and reoxidation of the S-S-bonds in the enzyme ribonuclease (RNasehave shown that:A. folding of denatured RNase into the native

active conformation requires the input oenergy in the form of heat

B. the completely unfolded enzyme, with all S-S- bonds broken, is still enzymaticallyactive

C. the enzyme, dissolved in water, isthermodynamically stable relative to themixture of amino acids whose residues arecontained in RNase

D. the primary sequence of RNase issufficient to determine its specificsecondary and tertiary structure

81. Which of the following represents tyrosine at apH = 12?

A. AB. BC. CD. D

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82.A temperature-sensitive mutation can cause

cell death at high temperature (restrictive

condition), but might have no deleterious

consequences at a lower temperature

(permissive condition). This is an example of

A. Temperature sensitive mutation

B. Point mutation

C. Conditional mutation

D. Complementation

83.A biochemist purifies a new protein and wishesto learn something about its quaternarystructure. Treatment of this protein with thereagents listed below gives the following bandsupon SDS-PAGE electrophoresis:

The protein has:A. one polypeptide chain with at least two

disulfide (-S-S-) bonds.B. two separate polypeptide chains linked by

at least two disulfide bonds.C. three polypeptide chains linked by two or

more disulfide bonds.D. three polypeptide chains and no disulfide

bonds.

84. Hoechst 33342 is a membrane-permeant dyethatfluoresceswhen it bindsto DNAthrough anintercalatingprocess. If apopulation ofcells isincubated

briefly with Hoechst dye and sorted in a flowcytometer, the cells display various levels offluorescence in different phases of cell cycles asshown in figure below (marked as X, Y and Z).

Which of the following is correct?A. X is G1, Y is G2 + M and Z is SB. X is G1, Y is S and Z is G2 + MC. X is S, Y is G2 + M and Z is G1D. X is S, Y is G1 and Z is G2 + M

85. Four different receptors viz, A, B, C and D bindto the same lignad X.In order to determine whichreceptor has the highest ligand binding affinityfollowing experiment was carried out. Cells weretransected with green fluorescence protein(GFP)-tagged receptors (A,B,C and D)individually, then incubated with redfluorescence protein (RFP)-tagged X andsubjected to FACS analysis. Following are the

results

Which receptor has the highest ligand bindingaffinity?

A. AB. BC. CD. D

86. You have purified a new peptide hormone. Todetermine its amino acid sequence you havedigested the polypeptide with trypsin and in aseparate reaction you have cleaved thepolypeptide with cyanogen bromide.

Cleavage with trypsin yielded 5 peptides thatwere sequenced by Edman degradation asshown in the following.

1. SerLeu2. AspValArg3. ValMetGluLys4. SerGlnMetHisLys5. IlePheMetLeuCysArg

Cleavage with cyanogen bromide yielded 4peptides that were sequenced by Edmandegradation:

1. HisLysSerLeu2. AspValArgValMet3. GluLysIlePheMet4. LeuCysArgSerGlnMet

Determine the identity of the N-terminal aminoacid after reconstructing the intact protein.

A. AspB. Ser C. HisD. Glu

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87. In a double-stranded DNA molecule of randomsequence, which of the following restrictionendonucleases will cut the molecule LEASToften? (In the sequence of bases for eachrecognition site, N=any base, R=purine, andY=pyrimidine.)

A. IB. IIC. IIID. IV

88.At pH 7.0, in what order would the followingthree peptides be eluted from a column filledwith a cation-exchange polymer? Their aminoacid compositions are:

I. Protein A: Ala 10%, Glu 5%, Ser 5%, Leu10%, Arg 10%, His 5%, Ile 10%, Phe 5%,Tyr 5%, Lys 10%,Gly 10%, Pro 5%, and Trp10%.

II. Protein B: Ala 5%, Val 5%, Gly 10%, Asp5%, Leu 5%, Arg 5%, Ile 5%, Phe 5%, Tyr5%, Lys 5%,Trp 5%, Ser 5%, Thr 5%, Glu5%, Asn 5%, Pro 10%, Met 5%, and Cys5%.

III. Protein C: Ala 10%, Glu 10%, Gly 5%, Leu5%, Asp 10%, Arg 5%, Met 5%, Cys 5%, Tyr5%, Phe 5%,His 5%, Val 5%, Pro 5%, Thr5%, Ser 5%, Asn 5%, and Gln 5%.

A. Protein C, Protein B and protein AB. Protein A, Protein C and protein BC. Protein A, Protein B and protein CD. No sufficient Information

89. Two dissimilar inbred strain of mice withdifferent MHC haplotypes, H-2b and H-2k, arecrossed to yield F1 hybrid strain (H-2b/k). If a skingraft is transplanted from the F1 progeny to theH-2b parent and H-2k parent separately, which ofthe following results are seen?A. Both H-2b and H-2k parents will accept

graftsB. H-2b parent will accept the graft whereas

H-2k will reject the graftC. H-2k parent will accept the graft whereas

H-2b will reject the graftD. Neither H-2b nor H-2k parent will accept

the graft

90. Role of NER is majorly for

A. Mis matches

B. Base pair errors

C. Modifed bases

D. DNA helical distorts

91.An individual who is heterozygous for Gmallotypes contains two allelic forms of IgG in

serum, but individual lymphocytes produce onlyone of the two forms. This phenomenon, knownas "allelic exclusion," is consistent withA. Rearrangement of a heavy-chain gene on

only one chromosome in a lymphocyteB. Rearrangements of heavy-chain genes on

both chromosomes in a lymphocyteC. Rearrangement of a light-chain gene on

only one chromosome in a lymphocyteD. Rearrangements of light-chain genes on

both chromosomes in a lymphocyte

92. Uniporters and ion channels support facilitateddiffusion across biomembranes. Although bothare examples of facilitated diffusion, the rate ofion movement via a channel are roughly 104 to105 fold faster than that of molecules via auniporter. What key mechanistic differenceresults in this large difference in this largedifference in transport rates?A. Uniporters are saturable; channels are no

saturable.B. Uniporters utilize ATP; ion channels do no

require ATP.

C. Uniporters cannot transport 2 solutessimultaneously whereas ion channels can.

D. Uniporters are commonly monomericwhereas ion channels are commonlyoligomeric.

93.A saturated suspension of starch is enclosedin a bag formed from dialysis, a material throughwhich water can pass, but starch cannot. Thebag with the starch is placed into a beaker ofdistilled water. All of the following are expectedto occur except:

A. There will be a net movement of watefrom a region of higher water potential to aregion of lower water potential

B. There will be a net movement of waterfrom hypotonic region to hypertonic region

C. There will be net movement of solute fromhypertonic region to hypotonic region

D. The dialysis bag with its contents will gainweight

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94. The results of a FACS analysis of cells from ahuman blood sample are shown below. In whichof the quadrantswould Tc cellfraction of thehuman bloodsample fall?A. AB. B

C. CD. D

95. In a diagnostic laboratory a technicianprepared plastic assay plates for ELISA bycoating a solution of the antigen, gp120 (aglycoprotein derived from the humanimmunodeficiency virus, the etiologic agent of

AIDS), to the plastic surface. Several samples ofserum from suspected infected individuals were

tested for the presence of antibodies to gp120.When the assay was performed, all the testsamples were positive, including controlsamples that were known not to contain anti-gp120 antibodies. What explanation best fits thefacts?A. The technician forgot to "block" the plates

with a control protein.B. The technician put too much antigen on the

plates.C. The developing labeled anti-

immunoglobulin was not added.

D. The fluorescent labeling compounddissociated from the labeled antibody.

96. If an IgG antibody preparation specific for henegg lysosome (HEL) is treated with papain togenerate Fab fragments, which of the followingstatements concerning the avidity of suchfragments is true:A. They will have a lower avidity for HEL as

compared with the intact IgG.B. They will have a higher avidity for HEL as

compared with the intact IgG

C. There will have the same avidity for HELas the intact IgG.

D. They will have lost their ability to bind toHEL.

97. You want to genetically engineer a plant with

Alpha aminitin gene. The protein has a

molecular weight of 100 kDa. What should be

your minimum estimate of the length gene to be

engineered in the genome of host?

A. 3.3 x 10^5 bases

B. 3.3 x 10^3 bases

C. 3.3 x 10^2 bases

D. 3.3 x 10^6 bases

98. During activation of amino acids in

transcription ,

A. Attach of alpha phosphate occurs on

carboxy terminal of amino acid

B. Attach of beta phosphate occurs on

carboxy terminal of amino acid

C. Attach of alpha phosphate occurs on

amino terminal of amino acid

D. Attach of beta phosphate occurs on aminoterminal of amino acid

99.A child presents with low blood glucose(hypoglycemia), enlarged liver (hepatomegaly)and excess fat deposition in the cheeks(cherubic facies). A liver biopsy reveals excessglycogen in hepatocytes. Deficiency of which ofthe following enzymes might explain thisphenotype?

A. -1,1-glucosidaseB. -1,1-galactosidase

C. -1,4-glucosidaseD. -1,4-galactosidase

100.Match each features of the plasmid pBR322

I ampR

sequence

a permits selection of bacteria

containing the plasmid

II ori sequence b a sequence required invitro packin

III tetR c origin of replication

IV BamHI

sequence

d cleavage of the plasmid here

doesnt affect antibiotic resistance

V pstI

sequence

e insertion of foreign DNA here

permits identification of

recombinants

a. I. a , II c, III a, IV e, IV e

b. I. a , II c, III a, IV d, IV e

c. I. a , II e, III c, IV b, IV d

d. I. a , II b, III c, IV d, IV e

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quest ii final with answer keys compatibility

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