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Assistant Regional Transport Officer/Assistant Director of Transport, Class-2 |

74/2018-19

Preliminary Test Held On 30-12-2018

Que. No.

Publish Date

Last Date To Send Suggestion (S)

001-300(G.S. & Concerned Subject)

04-01-2019

11-01 -2019

Note:-

(1) All Suggestions are to be sent with reference to website published Question paper with Provisional Answer Key Only.

(2) All Suggestions are to be sent in the given format only. (3) Candidate must ensure the above compliance.

(૧) ઉમેદવાર� વાધંા-�ચૂનો ર�ૂ કરવા વેબસાઇટ પર પ્રિસધ્ધ થયેલ િનયત ન�નૂાનો ઉપયોગ કરવો.

(૨) ઉમેદવારોએ પોતાને પર�ક્ષામા ંમળેલ સીર�ઝની પ્ર���ુસ્તકામા ંછપાયેલ પ્ર� ક્રમાકં �જુબ વાધંા-�ચૂનો

ર�ૂ ન કરતા તમામ વાધંા-�ચૂનો વેબસાઇટ પર પ્રિસધ્ધ થયેલ પ્રોિવઝનલ આન્સર ક�ના પ્ર� ક્રમાકં

�જુબ અને તે સદંભર્મા ંર�ૂ કરવા

(૩) ઉમેદવારોએ ઉક્ત �ચૂના�ુ ંઅ�કૂ પાલન કર�ુ ંઅન્યથા વાધંા-�ચૂનો �ગે કર�લ ર�ૂઆતો ધ્યાને

લેવાશે નહ�.

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY

AGM (MECH)

AGM (Mech) 2 [Contd.

MPART – A

GENERAL STUDIES

001. [íkwÚko çkkiØ Ãkrh»kË Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt rðÄkLk Mkk[wt Au ?

(A) íku Ãkrh»kË Ãkkxr÷Ãkwºk{kt ÞkuòE níke. (B) íku yòíkþºkwLke MknkÞÚke hksøk]n{kt ÞkuòE níke.

(C) íku frLk»fLke MknkÞÚke fkÂ~{h{kt ÞkuòE níke. (D) íku yòíkþºkwLke MknkÞÚke fkÂ~{h{kt ÞkuòE níke.

002. øktÄkh yLku {Úkwhk þi÷eLke f¤k Lke[uLkk Ãkife fkuLkk Þwøk{kt þY ÚkE níke ?

(A) yþkuf (B) frLk»f (C) Mk{wÿøkwÃík (D) n»ko

003. MkÞkShkð økkÞfðkz ík]ríkÞLkk Mkt˼o{kt Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?

1. íkuykuyu çkUf ykìV çkhkuzkLke MÚkkÃkLkk fhe níke.

2. íkuykuyu Mkki «Úk{ rLk:þwÕf yLku VhSÞkík «kÚkr{f rþûkýLke þYykík fhe níke.

3. íkuykuyu {nkhkò MkÞkShkð ÞwrLkðŠMkxe ykìV çkhkuzkLke MÚkkÃkLkk fhe níke.

4. íkuykuyu 1916 {kt ðzkuËhk hkßÞ «ò{tz¤Lke MÚkkÃkLkk fhe níke.

(A) Võík 2 (B) Võík 3 yLku 4 (C) Võík 1, 2 yLku 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4

004. MkhËkh ðÕ÷¼¼kE Ãkxu÷Lkk Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?

1. íku{Lkku sL{ fh{MkË{kt ÚkÞku níkku.

2. íkuykuLke økktÄeS MkkÚku «Úk{ {w÷kfkík økkuÄhk {wfk{u ÚkE níke.

3. Ëktze MkíÞkøkún ËhBÞkLk íkuykuLke hkMkÚke ÄhÃkfz fhðk{kt ykðe níke.

4. íkuyku y{ËkðkË{kt LkøkhÃkkr÷fkLkk «{w¾ íkhefu [kh ð¾ík [qtxkÞk níkk, yLkw¢{u 1922, 1924, 1927

yLku 1929{kt

(A) Võík 1, 3 yLku 4 (B) Võík 2

(C) Võík 2 yLku 4 (D) Võík 1, 2, yLku 4

005. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?

1. þkr÷¼ÿ f]ík ¼híkuïh çkknwçkr÷ økwshkíke MkkrníÞLke «Úk{ rðrþü f]rík Au.

2. Lkh®Mkn {nuíkkyu økwshkík{kt ði»ýð ¼Âõík yktËku÷LkLkwt «ríkrLkrÄíð fÞwO.

3. «u{kLktË ¼è íku{Lke MkkrníÞ f]rík{kt rð»kÞ yLku MðYÃkLkk ðirðæÞLku fkhýu økwshkíke MkkrníÞLkk Mkðofkr÷Lk MkkiÚke

{nkLk frð Au.

(A) Võík 2 (B) Võík 1 yLku 2 (C) Võík 2 yLku 3 (D) 1, 2, yLku 3

AGM (Mech) 3 [P.T.O.

M

006. ¼khík{kt rçkúrxþ MkðkuoÃkrhíkk Mkk{uLkku £uL[ ÃkzfkhLkku .......... MkkÚku ytík ykÔÞku.

(A) ðktzeðkþLkk ÞwØ (B) çkfMkhLkk ÞwØ

(C) Ã÷kMkeLkk ÞwØ (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

007. rçkúxeþhkuyu ¼khík{kt Lkðk «Ëuþku {u¤ððk {kxu Lke[uLkk Ãkife fE rðrðÄ ÔÞqnh[LkkykuLkku / ÃkØríkykuLkku WÃkÞkuøk fÞkuo ?

1. niËhkçkkË nMíkøkík fhðk {kxu MknkÞfkhe ÞkusLkk.

2. Mkíkkhk nMíkøkík fhðk {kxu ¾k÷Mkk Lkerík.

3. {hkXkykuLke s{eLk Ãkzkðe ÷uðk ÞwØ.

4. økuhðneðxLkk {k{÷u yðÄLku fçksu fhe ÷uðwt.

(A) Võík 1 yLku 2 (B) Võík 2 yLku 3 (C) Võík 1, 2 yLku 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4

008. Lke[uLke Ãkife fE økktÄeLkk hk»xÙðkËe rð[khLke rðþu»kíkk LkÚke ?

(A) MknkLkw¼qríkþe÷ ð÷ý (B) Mkrn»ýwíkk

(C) ykæÞkÂí{fíkk (D) rçkLk-«uhýkí{f yLku rçkLk Mk{kÄkLkfkhe

009. .......... Lkk «&™u økku¤{uS Ãkrh»kËLkwt çkeswt Mkºk ¼ktøke Ãkzâwt.

(A) økktÄeSLkk yk{hý WÃkðkMk

(B) ÷½w{íke {kxu y÷øk {íkËkh-{tz¤

(C) hkòLkk «ríkrLkrÄyku Mk{kLk økktÄeSLke økýíkhe fhðk{kt ykðe Lk níke

(D) ík{k{ hksfeÞ fuËeykuLku {wõík fhðkLke MkhfkhLke yrLkåAk

010. «k[eLk MktMf]ík økútÚkku{kt ‘ÞðLkr«Þ’ þçË fkuLkk {kxu «Þkusðk{kt ykÔÞku Au ?

(A) íku÷ (B) fk¤e {he

(C) nkÚkeËktík (D) W¥k{ ¼khíkeÞ {ÂM÷Lk

011. Lke[uLkk rðÄkLkku æÞkLku ÷ku.

1. {tr[fk WÃkh íkkMkf nhÃÃkLk MktMf]ríkLkwt rðrþü ðkMký Au.

2. nhÃÃkLk ÷kufkuLkku {wÏÞ ¾kuhkf ½ô níkku.

(A) Võík 1 Mkk[wt Au. (B) Võík 2 Mkk[wt Au.

(C) 1 yLku 2 çktLku Mkk[kt Au. (D) 1 yLku 2 çktLku ¾kuxkt Au.

012. AtËkuøÞkuÃkrLk»kË fÞk ðuËLkwt WÃkrLk»kË Au ?

(A) ÉøðuË (B) Mkk{ðuË (C) ÞswðuoË (D) yÚkðoðuË

AGM (Mech) 4 [Contd.

M

013. WÃkËuþfkuLku íkuykuLkk rðMíkkh / fkÞoûkuºk MkkÚku ÞkuøÞ heíku òuzku.

WÃkËuþf rðMíkkh-fkÞoûkuºk

1. [iíkLÞ a. {nkhk»xÙ

2. Lkk{Ëuð b. Ãktòçk

3. LkkLkf Ëuð c. çktøkk¤

4. hk{kLktË d. W¥kh «Ëuþ

(A) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - c (B) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - d

(C) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a (D) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c

014. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞku rMkæÄktík siLkkuLkk híLkºkÞ (rºkhíLk) MktçktrÄík LkÚke ?

(A) MkBÞf ËþoLk (B) MkBÞf ¿kkLk (C) MkBÞf [rhºk (D) MkBÞf íkÃk

015. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk Mkku÷tfe hkòyu Mkku{LkkÚk Þkºkk¤wykuLkku fh {kV fÞkuo níkku ?

(A) fw{khÃkk¤ (B) fýo (C) ¼e{-«Úk{ (D) sÞ®Mkn rMkØhks

016. ‘ðLkhks [kðzk’ Lkð÷fÚkkLkk ÷u¾f fkuý Au ?

(A) Ëwøkkohk{ {nuíkk (B) {rnÃkíkhk{ YÃkhk{

(C) hýrsíkhk{ {nuíkk (D) çk¤ðtík {nuíkk

017. fÞk Þwøk{kt økwshkík{kt MkhkÞ MÚkkÃkíÞLke þYykík ÚkE níke ?

(A) {æÞ Þwøk (B) ÞwhkurÃkÞLk Mk{Þ (C) {wøk÷ Mk{Þ (D) {hkXk Mk{Þ

018. ¼khíkeÞ þk†eÞ MktøkeíkLkku fÞku hkøk {æÞhkºkeyu økðkÞ Au ?

(A) hk{fn (B) {k÷fkiþ (C) ÷r÷ík (D) ¼e{Ãk÷kMke

019. “òu MktMf]ík ¼økðkLk îkhk f]ík Au, íkku þwt «kf]ík [kuhku yLku Äqíkkuo îkhk rLkŠ{ík Au ?” yk rðÄkLk fkuLkwt Au ?

(A) ¼økðkLkËkMk (B) íkwfkhk{ (C) yufLkkÚk (D) fçkeh

020. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk MÚk¤u {kxefk{ WÃkh Ãkqðo nzÃÃkLk, nzÃÃkLk y™u ÃkAeLkk nzÃÃkLk ÞwøkLke MktMf]ríkLkk «¼kðLkku Ãkwhkðku {¤u Au ?

(A) fkÞÚkk (B) {k÷ðk (C) yhý (D) òuðo

021. Lke[uLke Ãkife fE ykf]rík nzÃÃkLk {kxefk{Lke MkÃkkxe WÃkh Ëþkoðkíke Lk níke ?

(A) Ëuðe yLku Ëuðíkkyku (B) ðLkMÃkrík yLku «kýeyku

(C) {Lkw»Þku yLku r{r©ík nMíkeyku (D) ¼kir{ríkf YÃkhu¾k

AGM (Mech) 5 [P.T.O.

M

022. ÿrðrzÞLk MÚkkÃkíÞLke {wÏÞ rðþu»kíkk .......... Au.

(A) rþ¾h (B) ÃkeZk (C) {tzÃk (D) rð{kLk

023. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ heíku òuzkÞu÷e LkÚke ?

(A) ðh÷e r[ºkf¤k – {nkhk»xÙ (B) Úkktfk r[ºkf¤k – rMkr¬{

(C) {tsq»kk r[ºkf¤k – rçknkh (D) f÷{fkhe r[ºkf¤k – fuh¤

024. Þ{Ãkwhe yu .......... Lkwt f¤kMðYÃk Au.

(A) ÞwØf¤k (B) ÷kufLk]íÞ (C) fXÃkqík¤e (D) ÷kufMktøkeík

025. ¼khíkeÞ LÞkÞíktºk ÃkkMku fkÞËkLku økuhçktÄkhýeÞ ònuh fhðkLke Mk¥kk Au, òu .....

(A) fkÞËku çktÄkhýLke fkuEÃký òuøkðkELkwt WÕ÷t½Lk fhíkku nkuÞ.

(B) fkÞËku hk»xÙLkk {q¤ ykí{kLkwt WÕ÷t½Lk fhíkku nkuÞ.

(C) fkÞËku hk»xÙÃkríkLkk rðrþü nfLke rðYæÄ{kt nkuÞ.

(D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

026. Lkkýkt rðÄuÞf Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt Mkk[wt LkÚke ?

(A) hkßÞMk¼k{kt Lkkýk rðÄuÞf hsq fhðk{kt ykðþu Lknª.

(B) ÷kufMk¼k{kt ÃkMkkh fÞko ÃkAe, íkuLku hkßÞMk¼k{kt ÃkMkkh fhðk{kt ykðþu.

(C) hkßÞMk¼k íkuLke ¼÷k{ýku MkkÚku íkuLku ºkeMk rËðMkLkk Mk{Þøkk¤k{kt Ãkhík fhþu.

(D) òu ÷kufMk¼k hkßÞMk¼kLke fkuE ¼÷k{ýku Mðefkhu Lknª, íkku Lkkýk rðÄuÞf ÃkMkkh ÚkÞu÷wt økýkþu.

027. ¼khíkLkk hk»xÙÃkríkLke [qtxýe «r¢Þk Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt Mkk[wt LkÚke ?

(A) rLkðko[f {tz¤ îkhk [qtxkÞ Au.

(B) yuf s MÚkkçkkt¥kh {ík îkhk «{kýMkh «ríkrLkrÄíð.

(C) ¾wÕ÷k {íkËkLk îkhk [qtxýe.

(D) Ãkkt[ ð»ko {kxu fkÞofk¤ hnuþu.

028. hkr»xÙÞ {kLkð yrÄfkh ykÞkuøk .......... Au.

(A) çktÄkhýeÞ MktMÚkk (B) ðiÄkrLkf MktMÚkk

(C) yÄo LÞkrÞf MktMÚkk (D) MktMÚkk ð¤íkh [qfððk hkßÞLku rLkËuoþ ykÃke þfu.

AGM (Mech) 6 [Contd.

M

029. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞku {q¤¼qík yrÄfkh rLkðkhý yxfkÞík Äkhk îkhk rLkÞtrºkík ÚkkÞ Au ?

(A) Ä{oLkku yrÄfkh (B) MðíktºkíkkLkku yrÄfkh

(C) çktÄkhýeÞ WÃkkÞkuLkku yrÄfkh (D) Mk{kLkíkkLkku yrÄfkh

030. hkßÞ ÃkwLkøkoXLk yrÄrLkÞ{ (LkðuBçkh 1956) Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt rðÄkLk Mkk[wt LkÚke ?

(A) fåA yLku Mkkihk»xÙ hkßÞkuLkku Mk{kðuþ fheLku çkkuBçku hkßÞLkwt rðMík]íkefhý.

(B) niËhkçkkËLkk {hkXe çkku÷íkk rðMíkkhkuLkku Ãký çkkuBçku hkßÞ{kt Mk{kðuþ.

(C) niËhkçkkËLkku íku÷tøkkýk rðMíkkh yktÄú{kt MÚkkçkkt¥kh ÚkÞku.

(D) {ÿkMkLkk fLLkz çkku÷íkk rðMíkkhkuLkku niËhkçkkË{kt Mk{kðuþ.

031. rçkúxeþ Mk{Þ ËhBÞkLk fÞk yrÄrLkÞ{ îkhk ¼khík{kt MktMkËeÞ «Úkk þY ÚkE ?

(A) [kxoh yuõx, 1853 (B) ELzeÞLk fkWLMke÷ yuõx, 1861

(C) økðLko{uLx ykìV ELzeÞk yuõx, 1919 (D) økðLko{uLx ykìV ELzeÞk yuõx, 1935

032. ÷kufMk¼k{kt þqLÞfk¤ (Zero hour)Lke {n¥k{ yðrÄ .......... nkuE þfu.

(A) 30 r{rLkx (B) yrLkŠËü (C) yuf f÷kf (D) çku f÷kf

033. ¼khíkLkk ÷kufþkne rðfuLÿefhýLkk fuLÿ íkhefu økk{zkykuLku ÷uðk çkkçkíkLkk MkkiÚke økt¼eh xefkfkh Lke[uLkk Ãkife fkuý níkk ?

(A) sÞ«fkþ LkkhkÞý (B) çke. ykh. yktçkuzfh

(C) ÷k÷ çknkËqh þkMºke (D) hk{ {Lkkunh ÷kurnÞk

034. LkkøkrhfkuLke VrhÞkËkuLkk rLkðkhý {kxu ‘÷kufÃkk÷’ yLku ‘÷kufkÞwõík’ suðe ¾kMk yrÄf]íkíkkLke MÚkkÃkLkkLke ¼÷k{ý fkuýu fhe ?

(A) «Úk{ ðneðxe MkqÄkhýk ykÞkuøk (B) MkktÚk{T Mkr{rík - ¼úük[kh rLkðkhý

(C) rîríkÞ ðneðxe MkqÄkhýk ykÞkuøk (D) ¼úük[kh rðYØ Mðíktºk ykÞkuøk

035. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?

1. r{þLk ELÿÄLkw»k yuðk ík{k{ çkk¤fkuLku ykðhe ÷u Au fu suykuLku yktrþf heíku hMke ykÃkðk{kt ykðe Au yÚkðk hMke

ykÃkðk{kt ykðe LkÚke.

2. hk»xÙeÞ þnuhe ykSrðfk r{þLk yLku hk»xÙeÞ økúk{eý ykSrðfk r{þLkLku yufef]ík fhe íkuLkwt rËLkËÞk÷ ytíÞkuËÞ

ÞkusLkk íkhefu Lkk{kr¼ÄkLk fhðk{kt ykÔÞwt Au.

3. «ÄkLk{tºke MðkMÚÞ Mkwhûkk ÞkusLkkLkku nuíkw ykhkuøÞ MkuðkykuLke WÃk÷çÄíkk{kt «kËurþf yMktíkw÷LkLku MkwÄkhðkLkku Au.

(A) Võík 1, 2 yLku 3 (B) Võík 1 yLku 2 (C) Võík 2 yLku 3 (D) Võík 3

AGM (Mech) 7 [P.T.O.

M

036. ¼khíkLkk çktÄkhý{kt MÚkkrÃkík ¼khíkLke Ä{orLkhÃkuûkíkk Lke[uLkk rð[khkuÚke «urhík Au. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt ¾kuxwt Au íku sýkðku.

(A) çkÄk Ä{kuoLkku ykËh yLku hûký. (B) hkßÞ çkÄk Ä{kuoÚke Mk{kLk ytíkh Ähkðu Au.

(C) Ä{oLkk ykÄkhu fkuELke Mkk{u ¼u˼kð Lknª. (D) WÃkhkuõík{ktÚke fkuE Lknª

037. .......... hkßÞ, ffoð]¥k îkhk rð¼kSík Úkíkwt LkÚke.

(A) ykurzþk (B) økwshkík (C) Ãkrù{ çktøkk¤ (D) hksMÚkkLk

038. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ heíku òuzkÞu÷ LkÚke ?

(A) «kuxku ykMxÙu÷kìRzTMk - {æÞ yLku Ërûký ¼khíkLkk {kuxk¼køkLkk ykrËòríkLkk ÷kufkuLkku Mk{kðuþ ÚkkÞ Au.

(B) {kUøkku÷kìRzTMk - íkuyku ¼khíkLkk W¥kh ÃkqðeoÞ ¼køkku{kt ÃkðoíkeÞ rðMíkkh{kt ðMkðkx fhu Au.

(C) rLkrøkúxkuMk - íkuyku MkkiÚke sqLkk hnuðkMkeyku {kLkðk{kt ykðu Au.

(D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª.

039. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞku ¼khíkLkku MkkiÚke ÷ktçkku hk»xÙeÞ Äkuhe{køko Au ?

(A) hk»xÙeÞ Äkuhe{køko - 6 (B) hk»xÙeÞ Äkuhe{køko - 14

(C) hk»xÙeÞ Äkuhe{køko - 44 (D) hk»xÙeÞ Äkuhe{køko - 24

040. økwshkíkLke ykrËðkMke ðMíke Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?

1. ËuþLke yLkwMkqr[ík ykrËòríkLke ðMíkeLkk 8.1% økwshkík{kt Au.

2. økwshkíkLke ðMíke{kt ykrËðkMkeLke ðMíke 14.8% Au.

3. MkkiÚke {kuxe ykrËòíke ¼e÷ Au su hkßÞLke ykrËðkMke ðMíke{kt 47.89% Au.

4. 2011Lke ðMíke økýíkhe {wsçk ykrËòrík{kt Mkkûkhíkk Ëh 43.22% Au.

(A) Võík 1 yLku 3 (B) Võík 2, 3 yLku 4

(C) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4 (D) Võík 1, 2 yLku 3

041. ¼khík{kt MkkûkhíkkLke xfkðkhe çkkçkíku ðMíke økýíkhe 2011 yLkwMkkh Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?

1. økúk{eý fhíkk þnuhe rðMíkkhku{kt Lke[e

2. ÃkwY»kku{kt Mºke yku fhíkkt ðÄkhu

(A) 1 yLku 2 çktLku (B) Võík 1

(C) Võík 2 (D) 1 yLku 2 Ãkife fkuE Lknª

AGM (Mech) 8 [Contd.

M

042. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt rðÄkLk ¾kuxwt Au ?

(A) rîÃkfÕÃk ¼khík Aqxkt Ãkzu÷k ykìMxÙur÷ÞkLkku ¼køk Au.

(B) ykr£fk y™u ÷urxLk y{urhfk økkUzðkLkk ÷ìLzLkku ¼køk Au.

(C) LkqíkLkSðe {nkfÕÃk / Þwøk{kt (MkìLkkuòuEf) økkUzðkLkk ÷ìLzLkku rðåAuË þY ÚkÞku.

(D) {æÞSðe {nkfÕÃk / Þwøk{kt ({ìMkkuòuuEf) økkUzðkLkk ÷ìLzLkku rðåAuË þY ÚkÞku.

043. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk «fkhLkk støk÷ku{kt MkkiÚke ðÄw òríkykuLkwt ðiirðæÞ òuðk {¤u Au ?

(A) Mk{þeíkku»ý støk÷ (B) W»ýfrxçktÄeÞ støk÷

(C) Mk{þeíkku»ý ÃkkLk¾h støk÷ku (D) Mk{þeíkku»ý ½kMkLkk {uËkLkku

044. økwshkíkLkk {uËkLk yLku Ãknkze ¾uík-ykçkkunðeÞ WÃkûkuºk (Gujarat Plain and Hill Agro-Climatic Zone) Mk{økú økwshkíkLku ykðhe ÷u Au. íkuLkk fux÷k Ãkuxk ykçkkunðk WÃkûkuºk (Sub-Climatic Zone) Au ?

(A) 5 WÃkûkuºk (Sub Zone) (B) 8 WÃkûkuºk (Sub Zone)

(C) 3 WÃkûkuºk (Sub Zone) (D) 7 WÃkûkuºk (Sub Zone)

045. ¼khíkLkk Ãkrù{ ½kx .......... Lkk áüktík Au.

(A) økuz Ãkðoík (B) þu»k Ãkðoík (C) ¾tzÃkqðoík Ãkðoík (D) fk¤k Ãkðoík

046. ¼khíkLkk Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt çktËh fwËhíke çktËh LkÚke ?

(A) {wtçkE (B) fku[eLk (C) ÃkkhkËeÃk (D) {whøkktð

047. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?

1. ¼khík{kt ¾heV {kuMk{ Ëhr{ÞkLk {kuxk ¼køku ðhMkkËe ÂMÚkrík nuX¤ {økV¤eLkku Ãkkf Wøkkzðk{kt ykðu Au.

2. ¼khík{kt ík{kfw Võík fk¤k fÃkkMkLke s{eLk{kt s Wøkkzðk{ktt ykðu Au.

(A) Võík 1 (B) Võík 2

(C) 1 yLku 2 çktLku (D) 1 yLku 2 Ãkife fkuE Lknª

048. ¼khík{kt MkkiÚke {kuxw yçkh¾ (Mica) WíÃkkËLk fhíkw hkßÞ .......... Au.

(A) rçknkh (B) Íkh¾tz (C) yktÄú«Ëuþ (D) hksMÚkkLk

049. Þw.yuMk.yu. yLku òÃkkLkLkk ði¿kkrLkfkuLku r[rfíMkk rð¿kkLk{kt (Medicine) .......... Lkk W{Ëk MktþkuÄLk {kxu 2018 Lkwt Lkkuçku÷ Ãkkrhíkkur»kf yuLkkÞík ÚkÞu÷ Au.

(A) AIDS WÃk[kh (B) fìLMkh WÃk[kh

(C) ûkÞ hkuøk WÃk[kh (D) rÍfk ðkÞhMk WÃk[kh

AGM (Mech) 9 [P.T.O.

M

050. MkwLkk{eLke ykÃkr¥kÚke yMkhøkúMík .......... Lke {ËË {kxu ¼khík Mkhfkhu nk÷{kt ykìÃkhuþLk “Mk{wÿ {iºke” þY fÞwO.

(A) RLzkuLkurþÞk (B) {÷urþÞk (C) ©e÷tfk (D) {k÷ËeÔMk

051. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk WíÃkkËLkku ¼khíkLkk ¼kiøkkur÷f Mktfuík (Geographical Indication) Ähkðu Au ?

1. ËkŠs®÷øk [k 2. {nkçk¤uïh MxÙkuçkuhe

3. sÞÃkwhLke ç÷q Ãkkìxhe 4. rðsÞðkzkLkk ÷kzw

(A) Võík 1 yLku 2 (B) Võík 2 yLku 4

(C) Võík 1, 2 yLku 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4

052. ¼khík{kt rþûkf rËLk 5th MkÃxuBçkhu {Lkkððk{kt ykðu Au, yktíkhhk»xÙeÞ rþûkf rËLk .......... Lkk hkus {Lkkððk{kt ykðu Au.

(A) ykuõxkuçkh 5th (B) LkðuBçkh 5th (C) rzMkuBçkh 5th (D) sqLk 5th

053. nk÷{kt RBI yu Lkðe çkUfLke MÚkkÃkLkk {kxu hkßÞ MkhfkhLku {tsqhe ykÃke Au, íku çkUf .......... Au.

(A) yktÄúk çkUf (B) íku÷tøkkýk çkUf (C) økwshkík çkUf (D) fuh¤ çkUf

054. ¼khík-òÃkkLk rîÃkûkeÞ ËrhÞkE fðkÞíkLkwt ºkeswt MktMfhý JIMEX-18 .......... {kt ÞkuòÞwt níkwt.

(A) fkur[Lk (B) rðþk¾kÃkèLk{ (C) ftz÷k (D) {wtçkE

055. ¼khík MkhfkhLkk ÃkÞkoðhý {tºkk÷ÞLkwt «Úk{ hk»xÙeÞ ÃkÞkoðhý Mkðuoûký .......... {kt þY ÚkLkkh Au.

(A) òLÞwykhe, 2019 (B) {k[o, 2019 (C) òLÞwykhe, 2020 (D) {k[o, 2020

056. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk Mk{wËkÞLke MºkeykuLku rî[¢eÞ ðknLk [÷kðíke ð¾íku nu÷{ux Ãknuhðk{ktÚke {wÂõík Au ?

(A) rnLËw Mºkeyku (B) {wÂM÷{ Mºkeyku (C) þe¾ Mºkeyku (D) WÃkhkuõík ík{k{

057. økehLkk støk÷ rðMíkkh{kt ®MknkuLkk {]íÞw {kxu Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk ðkÞhMk / çkuõxuheÞk sðkçkËkh níkk ?

(A) yUÚkúkõMk (Anthrax)

(B) H7N9 ðkÞhMk (H7N9 virus)

(C) fuLkkELk rzMxUÃkh ðkÞhMk (Canine distemper virus)

(D) fu÷ux MxeBÃkh ðkÞhMk (Kalet Stimper virus)

058. nk÷{kt ¼khík UN {kLkð yrÄfkh fkWLMke÷{kt MkkiÚke ðÄw {íkÚke [qtxkÞwt, Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk Ëuþku UNHCR Lkk çkeò MkÇÞku Au ?

1. çkktø÷kËuþ 2. ¤unrhLk

3. VeS 4. rVr÷rÃkLMk

(A) Võík 1, 2 yLku 3 (B) Võík 2, 3 yLku 4

(C) Võík 1, 3 yLku 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4

AGM (Mech) 10 [Contd.

M

059. nk÷{kt [kh rn{k÷Þ rþ¾hkuLkwt Ãkqðo «ÄkLk{tºke yx÷ rçknkhe ðksÃkuÞeLkk Lkk{u Lkk{kr¼ÄkLk ÚkÞwt Au íku .......... ø÷urþÞh{kt ÂMÚkík Au.

(A) øktøkkuºke ø÷urþÞh (B) rMkÞk[eLk ø÷urþÞh

(C) (A) yLku (B) çktLku (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

060. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk yr¼Lkuíkkyu ¼khíkLke rVÕ{ yLku xur÷rðÍLk MktMÚkk (FTII){ktÚke hkSLkk{wt ykÃÞwt Au ?

(A) LkkLkk Ãkkxufh (B) yLkwÃk{ ¾uh (C) Ãkhuþ hkð÷ (D) rð¢{ rËðkMk

061. ¼khíkeÞ MkuLkkLke MkŠsf÷ MxÙkEfLke çkeS sÞtíke .......... íkhefu {Lkkððk{kt ykðe.

(A) rð¢{ Ãkðo (B) Ãkhk¢{ Ãkðo (C) rðsÞ rËðMk (D) rð¢{ rËðMk

062. ykŠÚkf Mkðuoûký 2017-18 yLkwMkkh {k÷ yLku MkuðkykuLkku yktíkrhf ðuÃkkh (Internal trade in goods and services) GDP Lkk .......... xfk Au.

(A) 35 (B) 45 (C) 55 (D) 60

063. Mknfkhe Mkt½eÞíkk (Co-operative federalism) yux÷u ..........

(A) fuLÿ yLku hkßÞku ðå[u Mk{Míkh Mknfkh (Horizontal Co-operation)

(B) çku hkßÞku ðå[u Mk{Míkh Mknfkh (Horizontal Co-operation)

(C) fuLÿ yLku hkßÞku ðå[u ÷tçkYÃk Mknfkh (Vertical Co-operation)

(D) rð¥k ykÞkuøk yLku ykÞkusLk Ãkt[ ðå[u ÷tçkYÃk Mknfkh (Vertical Co-operation)

064. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?

1. ¼khík{kt f]r»k ûkuºk{kt Mkþõík {rn÷kfhý Au.

2. ¼khík{kt økúk{eýÚke þnuhe rðMíkkhku{kt ÃkwY»kkuLkk ðÄíkk síkk MÚk¤ktíkhLkku fkuE Ãkwhkðku LkÚke.

(A) Võík 1 (B) Võík 2

(C) 1 yLku 2 çktLku (D) 1 yLku 2 Ãkife fkuE Lknª

065. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fE MktMÚkk ¼khík{kt økheçkeLkk ytËks {kxu sðkçkËkh Au ?

(A) økúk{eý rðfkMk {tºkk÷Þ (B) Mkk{kSf LÞkÞ yLku MkþÂõíkfhý {tºkk÷Þ

(C) rð¥k ykÞkuøk (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

066. hk»xÙeÞ økkufw¤ r{þLkLkku {wÏÞ nuíkw .......... Au.

(A) ZkuhZkt¾hk yLku ½uxkt / çkfhkLke nkEçkúez rðrðÄíkkLku «kuíMkknLk ykÃkðkLkku.

(B) MðËuþe økkuðtþ (çkkuðkELk) òríkykuLkwt MkthûkýLkku.

(C) ËwøÄk÷Þ (zuhe) ¾uzqíkkuLke Mkk{krsf MkwhûkkLku MkwrLkrùík fhðkLkku.

(D) WÃkhkuõík ík{k{

AGM (Mech) 11 [P.T.O.

M

067. MkeÄku fhðuhku ðÄw Mkkhku fhðuhku Au fkhý fu .....

(A) íku ðÄw ykðf {u¤ðe ykÃku Au.

(B) íku ðÄw Mkh¤íkkÚke yufrºkík fhe þfkÞ Au.

(C) íku{kt f{kýe yLkwMkkh fhðuhkLke ÃkæÄrík fhe þfkÞ Au.

(D) íku{kt ðÄw fh yLkwÃkk÷Lk (xuõMk fkuBÃ÷kEÞLMk) ÚkkÞ Au.

068. KYC (Know your customer) rLkÞ{Lk LkkýktfeÞ ÔÞðnkhku{kt .......... rðrLkÞ{ nuX¤ þY fhðk{kt ykÔÞwt Au.

(A) çkU®føk ftÃkLke yrÄrLkÞ{ (Banking Company Act)

(B) yÚkoþkuÄLk rLkðkhý yrÄrLkÞ{ (Prevention of Money Laundering Act)

(C) ¼khíkeÞ rhÍðo çkUf yrÄrLkÞ{ (Reserve Bank of India Act)

(D) ftÃkLke yrÄrLkÞ{ (Companies Act)

069. ¾kLkøkefhýLke MkV¤íkk {kxuLke sYhe Ãkqðoþhík .......... Au.

(A) yÚkoíktºkLkwt WËkhefhý yLku ytfwþ{wÂõík

(B) {qze çkòhkuLkku Ãkqhíkku rðfkMk

(C) (A) yLku (B) çktLku

(D) (A) yLku (B) Ãkife fkuE Lknª

070. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞku y«íÞûk fh Au ?

(A) WÃknkh fh (røk^x xuûk) (B) fkuÃkkuohux ELf{ xuûk

(C) GST (D) MktÃkr¥k fh (ðuÕÚk xuûk)

071. ðMíke rð»kÞf Mkt¢{ýLkk rMkØktík{kt AuÕ÷k íkçk¬k{kt .....

(A) sL{ Ëh ðÄu Au, {]íÞw Ëh Ãký ðÄu Au.

(B) sL{ Ëh ðÄu Au, ßÞkhu {]íÞw Ëh{kt ½xkzku ÚkkÞ Au.

(C) sL{ Ëh ½xu Au, ßÞkhu {]íÞw Ëh{kt ðÄkhku ÚkkÞ Au.

(D) sL{ Ëh yLku {]íÞw Ëh çktLku{kt ½xkzku ÚkkÞ Au.

072. ßÞkhu Lkkufhe çkË÷ðkLku ÷eÄu fux÷kf fk{Ëkhku ntøkk{e Äkuhýu çkuhkusøkkh ÚkkÞ Au íÞkhu íkuLku .......... çkuhkusøkkhe fnuðkÞ Au.

(A) [¢eÞ (B) «ríkhkuòí{f (C) {kiMk{e (D) EÂåAík

AGM (Mech) 12 [Contd.

M

073. fE Ãkt[ðŠ»kÞ ÞkusLkk{kt Mk{kðuþe rðfkMk Mkki «Úk{ ð¾ík «Þkusðk{kt ykÔÞku níkku ?

(A) ËMk{e ÞkusLkk (B) yrøkÞkh{e ÞkusLkk

(C) çkkh{e ÞkusLkk (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

074. rðï Ãkkur÷Þku rËðMk Mk{økú rðï{kt 24 ykuõxkuçkhu {Lkkððk{kt ykðu Au, Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞku ðkÞhMk Ãkkur÷ÞkuLke çke{khe {kxu sðkçkËkh Au ?

(A) Ãkkur÷Þku{uÞr÷rxMk (B) Ãkkur÷ÞkurMkÞr÷rxMk

(C) Ãkkur÷Þkuçke÷erxMk (D) Ãkkur÷ÞkuhkÞr÷xMk

075. rðxk{eLk D .......... {kt UV «fkþ îkhk yuøkkuoMxhku÷ (ergosterol) Mkr¢Þ fheLku WíÃkkrËík fhðk{kt ykðu Au.

(A) Þf]ík (B) íð[k (C) MLkkÞw (D) nkzfwt

076. ÓËÞ{kt hõík ÃkwhðXku Ãkqhku Ãkkzu íkuLku .......... fnuðkÞ Au.

(A) fkuhkuLkhe (coronary)

(B) fkuhkuLkkuEz (coronoid)

(C) fkŠzÞkf (cardiac)

(D) ðkMkk ðkMkwh{ (vasa vasorum)

077. Mkk{kLÞ heíku WÃkøkúnLke MkkiÚke Lke[e Ÿ[kE fux÷e nkuÞ Au ?

(A) 600 rf÷ku{exh (B) 300 rf÷ku{exh (C) 150 rf÷ku{exh (D) 190 rf÷ku{exh

078. ¢qz íku÷Lku ½ýeðkh {eXwt (økéÞwt) fnuðk{kt ykðu Au fkhý fu .....

(A) ykuøk¤u÷e ¾ktzLku ÷eÄu íku MðkË{kt økéÞwt nkuÞ Au.

(B) MkÕVhLkk ykuAk «{kýLku fkhýu {tË {eXwt nkuÞ Au.

(C) íku ykuAw yB÷eÞ (yurMkzef) nkuÞ Au.

(D) íku ykuAw ykÕf÷kELk nkuÞ Au.

079. MkkiÚke LkkLkk yLku MkkiÚke ðÄw ËrhÞkE ykur÷ð huzT÷e fk[çkkLkk MktðLkLk yLku {k¤kLkk MÚk¤Lkk rðïLkk 50% ......... ykðu÷ Au.

(A) økkuðk Mk{wÿ rfLkkhu (B) ykurzþk Mk{wÿ rfLkkhu

(C) fåALke ¾kze{kt (D) {k÷kçkkh Mk{wÿ rfLkkhu

AGM (Mech) 13 [P.T.O.

M

080. sirðf Mk{wËkÞ íkuLkk ÃkÞkoðhý{kt suðk fu ík¤kð, Mk{wÿ, støk÷ fu òu {kA÷e½h{kt Ãký nkuÞ íkku íkuLku .......... fnuðkÞ Au.

(A) siðûkuºk (¾kÞku{) (B) Mk{wËkÞ

(C) ysirðf ÃkÞkoðhý (D) rLkðMkLkíktºk (EfkurMkMx{)

081. ðMíkwLke ðkMíkrðf Açke {u¤ððk {kxu fÞk «fkhLkk yheMkkLkku WÃkÞkuøk ÚkkÞ Au ?

(A) Mk{ík÷ yrhMkku

(B) ytíkøkkuo¤ yrhMkku

(C) çkrnøkkuo¤ yrhMkku

(D) fkuE yrhMkku ðkMíkrðf Açke WíÃkLLk fhe þfu Lknª

082. rfhýkuíMkøkeo Ãkh{kýw VuhVkhku Ëhr{ÞkLk Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk íkhtøkku / rfhýku WíÃkLLk ÚkkÞ Au ?

(A) EL£khuz rfhýku (Infrared rays)

(B) «fkþ íkhtøkku (Light waves)

(C) X - rfhýku (X rays)

(D) økk{k rfhýku (Gama rays)

083. ytíkheûk ykÄkrhík ¼khíkeÞ MktðÄoLk ÃkØrík (Space based augmentation system) GAGAN Lkku {wÏÞíðu Lke[uLkk Ãkife fE çkkçkíkLkk LkurðøkuþLkLkku Au ?

(A) WÃkøkún (B) rð{kLk (C) xÙuLkku (D) xÙfku

084. Lke[uLke Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ heíku òuzkÞu÷e LkÚke ?

(A) çkkhkf r{MkkE÷ - snksÚke nðk{kt, snksÚke MkÃkkxe WÃkh

(B) Lkkøk r{MkkE÷ - MkÃkkxeÚke MkÃkkxe yLku nðkÚke MkÃkkxe WÃkh

(C) rLk¼oÞ r{MkkE÷ - Lkkifkˤ, s{eLk, nðk

(D) WÃkhkufík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

085. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ heíku òuzkÞu÷e LkÚke ?

(A) ðkÞ {ìõMk (Wi Max) - {krníke y™u Mkt[kh xufLkkì÷kuS (Information and Communication

Technology)

(B) «kusuõx ÷wLk (Project Loon) -r{MkkE÷ xufLkku÷kuS

(C) nkEÃkh÷qÃk (Hyperloop) - ÃkrhðnLk

(D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

AGM (Mech) 14 [Contd.

M

086. òu [kh ¢r{f ƒufe ‚tÏÞkyku™ku‚hðk¤ku 164 nkuÞ Œku Œu …ife ‚kiÚke ™k™e ‚tÏÞk fE nþu ?

(A) 34 (B) 36

(C) 38 (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

087. yuf ÔÞrõŒ Yk. 5,000 {kt yuf xu… hufkuzoh ¾heË fhu Au. íÞkhƒkË Œu Œu™k he…uhª„ …h fux÷kuf ¾[o fhu Au. Úkkuzk rËð‚ ƒkË Œu yk xu… Yk. 6,440 {kt ðu[u Au. sku Œu™u …zŒh ®f{Œ …h 15% ™Vku ÚkÞku nkuÞ Œku Œuýu he…uhª„ …h fux÷ku ¾[o fÞkuo nþu ?

(A) Yk. 540 (B) Yk. 600

(C) Á 640 (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

088. yuf y…qýkOf™k ytþ y™u AuË ™ku ‚hðk¤ku 15 Au. òu Œu™k AuË{kt 1 W{uhðk{kt ykðu y™u ytþ{ktÚke 1 ƒkË fhðk{kt ykðu Œku ™ðk y…qýkOf™e ®f{Œ 2

3 ÚkkÞ Au. Œku Œu y…qýkOf fÞku nþu ?

(A) 87

(B) 78

(C) 411

(D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

089. ™e[u …ife fÞku rðfÕ… ƒkfe™k rðfÕ…ku ‚kÚku ƒtÄ ƒu‚Œku ™Úke ?

(A) …krý™e (B) ¼kMfhk[kÞo (C) hk{k™ws (D) ykÞo¼x

090. ™e[u …ife fÞku rðfÕ… ‚k[ku Au ?

(A) ðŒwo¤™k ûkuºkV¤ y™u Œu™k …rh½ ™ku „wýku¥kh Œu™k ÔÞk‚ sux÷ku nkuÞ Au.

(B) hu¾k 2x + 7y = –2 yu ®ƒËw (–1, 0) {ktÚke …‚kh ÚkkÞ Au.

(C) yu ‚t{uÞ ‚tÏÞk Au.

(D) (x + 2)3 = x3 + 23, yu x ™e fkuR…ý ðkMŒrðf ®f{Œ {kxu ‚íÞ Au.

091. 40 r÷xh™k yuf «ðkne h‚kÞý{ktÚke 4 r÷xh h‚kÞý fkZe Œu™u MÚkk™u 4 r÷xh …kýe W{uhðk{kt ykðu Au. íÞkhƒkË Œu r{©ý{ktÚke …w™: 4 r÷xh «ðkne fkZe Œu™u MÚkk™u 4 r÷xh ƒeswt …kýe W{uhðk{kt ykðu Au. Œku nðu Œu r{©ý{kt fux÷k r÷xh h‚kÞý hÌkwt nþu ?

(A) 32 r÷xh (B) 32.4 r÷xh

(C) 32.8 r÷xh (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

092 yuf [kuh‚™wt ûkuºkV¤ 400 [ku{e Au. Œu™e Ëhuf ƒksw™k {æÞ®ƒËwyku™u òuzðkÚke ƒ™Œk [kuh‚™wt ûkuºkV¤ fux÷wt nþu ?

(A) 200 [ku{e (B) 256 [ku{e

(C) 400 [ku{e (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

AGM (Mech) 15 [P.T.O.

M

093. yuf nkuze™e rMÚkh …kýe{kt Íz… 16 rfr{/f÷kf Au. òu ™Ëe™k «ðkn™e Íz… 3 rfr{/f÷kf nkuÞ Œku Œu nkuze ‚k{k «ðknu 30 r{r™x{kt fux÷wt ytŒh fk…þu ?

(A) 8 rf{e (B) 9.5 rf{e

(C) 6.5 rf{e (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

094. yuf nkus™e ÷tƒkE 10 {exh, …nku¤kE 6 {exh y™u ôzkE 1.5 {exh nkuÞ Œku Œu{kt fux÷wt …kýe ‚{kþu ?

(A) 90 r÷xh (B) 900 r÷xh

(C) 9000 r÷xh (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

095. QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU, .....?.....

(A) XYZ (B) ZYA

(C) VWX (D) YXW

096. òu fkuE „ý P = {1, 2, 3} nkuÞ Œku ™e[u …ife fÞku „ý Œu™ku W…„ý Au ?

(A) {0} (B) {0, 1}

(C) {1, 2} (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

097. yuf 500 {exh ÷ktƒe xÙu™™u Œu™e ÷tƒkE sux÷e s ÷ktƒe x™÷™u …‚kh fhŒkt 90 ‚uftz sux÷ku ‚{Þ ÷k„u Au. Œku Œu™e Íz… fux÷e nþu ?

(A) 36 rfr{/f÷kf (B) 40 rfr{/f÷kf

(C) 45 rfr{/f÷kf (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

098. yuf ‚ktfurŒf ¼k»kk{kt òu 34 + 26 = 56 y™u 21 + 56 = 33 nkuÞ Œku 75 + 27 = .....?.....

(A) 36 (B) 144

(C) 108 (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

099. òu P : Q = 4 : 7 y™u Q : R = 5 : 7 nkuÞ Œku P : Q : R fux÷k Úkþu ?

(A) 4 : 5 : 7 (B) 20 : 35 : 49

(C) 28 : 49 : 35 (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

100. 1 r{r™x yu 1 f÷kf™k fux÷k xfk Úkþu ?

(A) 1% (B) 1.33%

(C) 1.66% (D) 2%

AGM (Mech) 16 [Contd.

MPART – B

MECHANICAL

101. Nitrogen at 25 atm and 37°C is contained in a cylinder of volume 10 m3. The cylinder is placed in a large container of 150 times the cylinder volume. The container is perfectly evacuated and insulated. The nitrogen gas is allowed to discharge and fill the container. Calculate the final pressure after the system has reached equilibrium.

(A) 0.267 atm (B) 0.322 atm (C) 0.259 atm (D) 0.167 atm

102. Determine the final stored energy of a mass of water that has an initial stored energy, E= 200kJ, and then undergo a process during which 10kJ of work is done on the water and 3kJ of heat is removed from it.

(A) 33 kJ (B) 45 kJ (C) 27 kJ (D) 60 kJ

103. Compute the power required to drive a reversible refrigerator if 100kJ/min is absorbed from the cold region and the isothermal process occurs at 40°C and -5°C.

(A) 17 kJ/min (B) 35kJ/min (C) 51kJ/min (D) 25kJ/min

104. A new temperature scale say °M, the boiling and freezing point of water at 1 atm are 100°M and 300°M respectively. Correlate this scale with Centigrade scale. The reading of 0°M on centigrade scale is

(A) 0°C (B) 50°C (C) 100°C (D) 150°C

105. An ideal gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till the volume becomes three times. The temperature of the gas will then be

(A) 81°C (B) 900°C (C) 627°C (D) 927°C

106. During steady flow compression process of a gas with mass flow rate of 2 kg/s, increase in specific enthalpy is 15kJ/kg and decrease in kinetic energy is 2kJ/kg. The rate of heat rejection to the environment is 3 kW. The power needed to drive the compressor is

(A) 23kW (B) 26kW (C) 29kW (D) 37kW

107. For steady flow through an insulated horizontal constant diameter pipe, which property remains constant?

(A) Enthalpy (B) Internal energy (C) Entropy (D) Volume

108. For a heat engine operating on the Carnot cycle, the work output is ¼ of the heat transferred to the sink. The efficiency of the engine is

(A) 20% (B) 33. 3% (C) 40% (D) 50%

AGM (Mech) 17 [P.T.O.

M109. A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from

0.3kJ/kg K to 0.4kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surrounding decreases from 80kJ/K to 75kJ/K . The process is

(A) Reversible and isothermal (B) Irreversible

(C) Reversible only (D) Isothermal only

110. The thermal efficiency of the hypothetical cycle shown is

300

1 3 5

700

T (K)

S (kJ/K)

(A) 0.6 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.3

111. Starting from the same initial conditions, an ideal gas expands from volume V1 to V2 in three different ways, the work done by the gas is W1 if the process is purely isothermal, W2 if purely isobaric and W3 if purely adiabatic, then

(A) W2 > W1 > W3 (B) W2> W3> W1

(C) W1 > W2 > W3 (D) W1 > W3 > W2

112. A house refrigerator with its door open is switched on in a closed room. The air in the room is

(A) Cooled

(B) Remains at same temperature

(C) Heated

(D) Heated or cooled depending on atmospheric pressure

113. A steel ball of mass 1 Kg and specific heat 0.4 KJ/Kg is at a temperature of 60°C. It is dropped into 1 Kg water at 20°C. The final steady state temperature of water is

(A) 23.5°C (B) 30°C

(C) 35°C (D) 40°C

AGM (Mech) 18 [Contd.

M114. A gas having a negative Joule-Thomson effect (µ<0), when throttled will

(A) Become cooler

(B) Become warmer

(C) Remain in the same temperature

(D) Become Cooler or warmer depending upon the type of gas

115. The difference between two specific heats Cp-Cv=R/J. This relation is valid for

(A) Any gas (B) Perfect gas (C) Ideal gas (D) Pure gas

116. Three metal walls of the same cross sectional area having thermal conductivities in the ratio 1:2:4 transfer heat at the rate of 6000KJ/hr. For the same wall thickness, the temperature drops will be in the ratio

(A) 1:2:4 (B) 1:1/2:1/4 (C) 1/4 :1/2:1 (D) 1:1:1

117. A grey body is defined such that

(A) Monochromatic emissivity of the body is independent of temperature

(B) Monochromatic emissivity of the body is dependent on temperature

(C) Monochromatic emissivity of the body is independent of wave length

(D) Monochromatic emissivity of the body is dependent on wave length

118. A flat plate of length 1 m and width 50 cm is placed in an air stream at 30°C is blowing parallel to it. The convective heat transfer coefficient is 30 W/(m2K). The heat transfer if the plate is maintained at a temperature of 400°C is__________

(A) 5.55 kW (B) 4.05 kW (C) 55.5 kW (D) 6 kW

119. It is required to insulate a kitchen oven with cork board (K=0.043 W/(mK) so that the heat losses from the oven does not exceed 400 W/m2 when the inner surface of the oven is at 225°C and the outer surface of the oven is at 40 °C. The thickness of insulation required is nearly

(A) 1cm (B) 2cm (C) 3cm (D) 4cm

120. A furnace is made of a red brick wall of thickness 0.5 m and conductivity 0.7 W/mK. For the same heat loss and temperature drop, this can be replaced by a layer of diatomite earth of conductivity 0.14W/mK and thickness

(A) 0.05m (B) 0.1m (C) 0.2m (D) 0.5m

AGM (Mech) 19 [P.T.O.

M121. A plane wall is 25 cm thick with an area of 1 m2, and has a thermal conductivity of 0.5 W/mK.

If a temperature difference of 60°C is imposed across it, what is the heat flow?

(A) 120W (B) 140W (C) 160W (D) 180W

122. Which one of the following expresses the thermal diffusivity of a substance in terms of thermal conductivity (k), mass density (ρ) and specific heat (c)?

(A) k2ρc (B) 1/ρkc (C) k/ρc (D) ρc/k2

123. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same material and size are heated to the same temperature and allowed to cool in the same surroundings. If the temperature difference between the body and that of the surroundings is T, then

(A) Both spheres will cool at the same rate for small values of T

(B) Both spheres will cool at the same rate for high values of T

(C) The hollow sphere will cool at a faster rate for all the values of T

(D) The solid sphere will cool at a faster rate for all the values of T

124. A steel steam pipe 10 cm inner diameter and 11 cm outer diameter is covered with insulation having the thermal conductivity of 1 W/mK. If the convective heat transfer coefficient between the surface of insulation and the surrounding air is 8 W / m2 K, then critical radius of insulation is

(A) 10 cm (B) 11 cm (C) 12.5 cm (D) 15 cm

125. Which one of the following is correct? The effectiveness of a fin will be maximum in an environment with

(A) Free convection

(B) Forced convection

(C) Radiation

(D) Convection and radiation

126. The flash chamber in a single stage simple vapour compression system

(A) increases the refrigerating effect

(B) decreases the refrigerating effect

(C) increases the work of compression

(D) has no effect on refrigerating effects

AGM (Mech) 20 [Contd.

M127. Which one of the following statements is correct? The non-dimensional parameter known as

Stanton number (St) is used in (A) Forced convection heat transfer over flat plate (B) Condensation heat transfer with laminar film layer (C) Natural convection heat transfer over flat plate (D) Unsteady heat transfer from bodies in which internal temperature gradients cannot be

neglected

128. Which substance has minimum value of thermal conductivity

(A) Air (B) Water (C) Plastic (D) Rubber

129. What is hunting of thermostatic expansion valve? (A) A variation of evaporative load with degree of superheat (B) A variation of pressure of the evaporator with variation of load (C) Alternate overfeeding and starving of refrigerant flow in the evaporator (D) This is used in connecting with expansion valve

130. In VCRS plant, the refrigerant leaves the compressor and evaporator with enthalpy of 205kJ/kg and 177kJ/kg respectively. Enthalpy of leaving the condenser is 105kJ/kg . If the mass flow rate of the refrigerant is 0.2kg/sec, then the refrigerant effect will be

(A) 12.2kW (B) 14.4kW (C) 16.4kW (D) 20.2kW

131. Ozone depletion by CFC occurs by breakdown of (A) Chlorine atoms from refrigerant by UV radiation and reaction with Ozone in troposphere (B) Fluorine atoms from refrigerant by UV radiation and reaction with Ozone in troposphere (C) Chlorine atoms from refrigerant by UV radiation and reaction with Ozone in stratosphere (D) Fluorine atoms from refrigerant by UV radiation and reaction with Ozone in stratosphere

132. Maximum possible COP of a solar absorption refrigeration system with generator temperature of 360K, absorber temperature of 300K, condenser temperature of 300K and evaporator temperature of 270K is

(A) 9 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 1.5

133. Two air streams with mass flow rates of 36 kg/min and 14 kg/min with respective enthalpies of 36 kJ/kg and 50kJ/kg are mixed. The enthalpy of mixture is nearly

(A) 64kJ/kg (B) 55kJ/kg (C) 46kJ/kg (D) 40kJ/kg

AGM (Mech) 21 [P.T.O.

M134. The latent heat load in an auditorium is 25% of sensible heat load. The value of sensible heat

factor is

(A) 0.3 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.8 (D) 1.0

135. In psychometric charts, what does a vertical downward line represent?

(A) Sensible cooling process (B) Adiabatic saturation process

(C) Humidification process (D) Dehumidification process

136. In milk chilling plants, the usual secondary refrigerant is

(A) Ammonia solution (B) Sodium silicate

(C) Glycol (D) Brine

137. Which of the non-dimensional number relates the thermal boundary layer and hydrodynamic boundary layer?

(A) Rayleigh number (B) Peclet number

(C) Grashoff number (D) Prandtl number

138. In two stage gas turbine plants, with intercooling and reheating

(A) Both work ratio and thermal efficiency increase

(B) Work ratio increases but thermal efficiency decreases

(C) Thermal efficiency increases but work ratio decreases

(D) Both work ratio and thermal efficiency decrease

139. The maximum net specific work obtained in an ideal Brayton cycle for max temperature 900 K and minimum temperature 400 K is given by

(A) 100Cp (B) 500Cp (C) 800Cp (D) 700Cp

140. An open cycle pressure gas turbine uses a fuel of calorific value 40000kJ/kg with air fuel ratio of 80:1 and develops a net output of 80kJ/kg of air. The thermal efficiency of cycle is

(A) 12% (B) 16% (C) 20% (D) 18%

141. The surface imperfection which separates crystal of different orientation in a poly crystalline aggregate is called

(A) Edge dislocation (B) Stacking fault

(C) Grain boundary (D) Screw dislocation

AGM (Mech) 22 [Contd.

M142. Out of which cannot be removed from structure of a material?

(A) Point defect (B) Line defect (C) Grain boundary (D) Dislocation

143. At eutectic point, two items are completely

(A) Insoluble in solid and liquid state (B) Soluble in liquid state

(C) Soluble in solid state (D) Insoluble in liquid state

144. Pearlite consists of

(A) 6.67%C and 93.3% ferrite (B) 13% Fe and 87% cementite

(C) 12%C and 87% ferrite (D) 13% cementite and 87% ferrite

145. Alloy containing 65-70% of nickel is called as

(A) Monel metal (B) White cast iron

(C) Stainless steel (D) Brass

146. Cupola is used to make

(A) pig iron (B) wrought iron (C) steel (D) cast iron

147. Which of the following process needs no quenching

(A) induction hardening (B) flame hardening

(C) nitriding (D) carburizing

148. The Jominy test is used to find

(A) Young’s modulus (B) hardenability

(C) yield strength (D) thermal conductivity

149. The crystalline structure of aluminum is

(A) body centered cubic (B) face centered cubic

(C) closed packed hexagonal (D) body centered tetragonal

150. The process of reheating the martensitic steel to reduce its brittleness without any significant loss in its hardness is

(A) normalizing (B) annealing

(C) quenching (D) tempering

AGM (Mech) 23 [P.T.O.

M151. If a particular Fe-C alloy contains less than 0.83% carbon it is called

(A) High speed steel (B) Hypoeutectoid steel

(C) Hypereutectoid steel (D) Cast iron

152. The crystal structure of austenite is

(A) Body centred cubic

(B) Face centred cubic

(C) Hexagonal close packed

(D) Body centred tetragonal

153. Increasing the number of reheating stages in a gas turbine to infinity, makes the expansion tending

(A) Reversible adiabatic (B) Isothermal

(C) Isobaric (D) Isochoric

154. For a ductile material toughness is a measure of

(A) Resistance to scratching

(B) Ability to absorb energy up to fracture

(C) Ability to absorb energy up to elastic limit

(D) Resistance to indentation

155. The main purpose of spheroidising treatment is to improve

(A) Hardness of low carbon steel

(B) Machinability of low carbon steel

(C) Machinability of high carbon steel

(D) Hardness of high carbon steel

156. The number of degrees of freedom of "five link mechanism" having five revolute pairs in the given figure

4

2

3

15

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1

AGM (Mech) 24 [Contd.

M157. Consider a four bar mechanism shown in the given figure. The driving link DA is rotating

uniformly at a speed of 100rpm clockwise. Velocity of point A (m/s)?

36cm

B

CD 60cm

30cm

A

600

36cm

(A) 3.00 (B) 3.14 (C) 3.25 (D) 4.00

158. As shown in the figure a mass of 100kg is held between two springs. The natural frequency of vibration of the system in cycle is

(A) 1/2π (B) 5/π (C) 10/π (D) 20/π

159. The natural frequency of a spring mass system on earth is ω the natural frequency of this system on the moon (gmoon =gearth /6) is

(A) ω (B) 0.408ω

(C) 0.204ω (D) 0.167ω

160. Critical damping is the

(A) largest amount of damping for which no oscillation occurs in free vibration

(B) smallest amount of damping for which no oscillation occur in free vibration

(C) largest amount of damping for which the motion is simple harmonic in free vibration

(D) smallest amount of damping for which the motion is simple harmonic in free vibration

100 kg

20kN/m

20kN/m

AGM (Mech) 25 [P.T.O.

M161. Two vibratory systems are shown in the given figures. The ratio of the natural frequency of

longitudinal vibration of the second system to that of the first is

4kk

Fig.1 Fig.2

m m

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.25

162. A system of masses rotating in different parallel planes is in dynamic balance if the resultant

(A) force is equal to zero

(B) couple is equal to zero

(C) force and resultant couple are zero

(D) force is numerically equal to the resultant couple but neither of them need necessarily be zero

163. Assertion (A): A dynamically balanced system of multiple rotors on a shaft can rotate smoothly at the critical speeds of the system.

Reason (R): Dynamic balancing eliminates all the unbalanced forces and couples from the system

(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) R is true but A is false

164. Starting friction is low in

(A) hydrostatic lubrication (B) hydrodynamic lubrication

(C) mixed (or semi fluid) lubrication (D) boundary lubrication

165. Spherical roller bearing are normally used

(A) for increased radial load

(B) for increased thrust load

(C) when there is less radial load

(D) to compensate for angular misalignment

AGM (Mech) 26 [Contd.

M166. Which one of the following is a criterion in the design of hydrodynamic journal bearings?

(A) Somerfield number (B) rating life

(C) Specific dynamic capacity (D) Rotation factor

167. Which one of the following is the correct expression for the Merchant's machinability constant?

(A) 2φ +γ −α (B) 2φ −γ +α (C) 2φ+ γ- α (D) φ +γ −α

(Where φ = shear angle, γ = friction angle and α = rake angle)

168. If n = 0.5 and C= 300 for the cutting speed and the tool life relation, when cutting speed is reduced by 30%, the tool life is increased by

(A) 95% (B) 104% (C) 78% (D) 50%

169. In a machining test, a cutting speed of 100 m/min indicated the tool life as 16 min and a cutting speed of 200 m/min indicated the tool life as 4 min. The values of n and C are

(A) 0.5 and 200 (B) 0.25 and 200 (C) 0.5 and 400 (D) 0.25 and 400

170. Which one of the following instruments is widely used to check and calibrate geometric features of machine tools during their assembly?

(A) Ultrasonic probe (B) Coordinate Measuring Machine (CMM)

(C) Laser interferometer (D) Vernier calipers

171. The flatness of a machine bed can be measured using

(A) Vernier calipers (B) Auto collimator

(C) Height gauge (D) Tool maker’s microscope

172. Which one of the following metal forming processes is not a high energy rate forming process?

(A) Electro-mechanical forming (B) Roll-forming

(C) Explosive forming (D) Electro-hydraulic forming

173. Magnetic forming is an example of:

(A) Cold forming (B) Hot forming

(C) High energy rate forming (D) Roll forming

AGM (Mech) 27 [P.T.O.

M174. During the execution of a CNC part program block N020 G02 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of

tool motion will be

(A) Circular Interpolation – clockwise

(B) Circular Interpolation - counter clockwise

(C) Linear Interpolation

(D) Rapid feed

175. Arrange the processes in the increasing order of their maximum material removal rate

Electrochemical Machining (ECM)

Ultrasonic Machining (USM)

Electron Beam Machining (EBM)

Laser Beam Machining (LBM) and

Electric Discharge Machining (EDM)

(A) USM, LBM, EBM, EDM, ECM (B) EBM, LBM, USM, ECM, EDM

(C) LBM, EBM, USM, ECM, EDM (D) LBM, EBM, USM, EDM, ECM

176. Which of the following processes has very high material removal rate efficiency?

(A) Electron beam machining (B) Electrochemical machining

(C) Electro discharge machining (D) Plasma arc machining

177. In Electro-Discharge Machining (EDM), the tool is made of

(A) Copper (B) High Speed Steel

(C) Cast Iron (D) Plain Carbon Steel

178. When 3-2-1 principle is used to support and locate a three dimensional work-piece during machining, the number of degrees of freedom that are restricted is

(A) 7 (B) 9

(C) 10 (D) 8

179. The Poisson’s ratio for perfectly elastic incompressible material is

(A) 0.5 (B) 1

(C) -0.5 (D) 2

AGM (Mech) 28 [Contd.

M180. A curved member with a straight vertical leg is carrying a vertical load at Z as shown in the

figure. The stress resultants in the XY segment are

Z

Y

X

(A) bending moment, shear force and axial force

(B) bending moment and axial force only

(C) bending moment and shear force only

(D) axial force only

181. A rod of length L and diameter D is subjected to a tensile load P. Which of the following is sufficient to calculate the resulting change in diameter?

(A) Young's modulus (B) Shear modulus (C) Poisson's ratio (D) Both Young's modulus and Shear modulus

182. If the value of Poisson's ratio is zero, then it means that (A) The material is rigid. (B) The material is perfectly plastic. (C) There is no longitudinal strain in the material. (D) The longitudinal strain in the material is infinite.

183. Consider the following statements:

1. Two-dimensional stresses applied to a thin plate in its own plane represent the plane stress condition.

2. Under plane stress condition, the strain in the direction perpendicular to the plane is zero.

3. Normal and shear stresses may occur simultaneously on a plane. Which of the above statements is /are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3

AGM (Mech) 29 [P.T.O.

M184. A steel hub of 100 mm internal diameter and uniform thickness of 10 mm was heated to a

temperature of 300oC to shrink-fit it on a shaft. On cooling, a crack developed parallel to the direction of the length of the hub. Consider the following factors in this regard:

1. Tensile hoop stress

2. Tensile radial stress

3. Compressive hoop stress

4. Compressive radial stress

The cause of failure is attributable to

(A) 1 alone (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4

185. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Property) List II (Testing Machine)

A. Tensile strength 1. Rotating Bending Machine

B. Impact strength 2. Three-Point Loading Machine

C. Bending strength 3. Universal Testing Machine

D. Fatigue strength 4. Izod Testing Machine

Codes: A B C D

(A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 3 2 1 4 (C) 2 1 4 3 (D) 3 4 2 1

186. Assertion (A): Poisson's ratio of a material is a measure of its ductility. Reason (R): For every linear strain in the direction of force, Poisson's ratio of the material gives the lateral strain in directions perpendicular to the direction of force.

(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

187. Which one of the following materials is highly elastic?

(A) Rubber (B) Brass

(C) Steel (D) Glass

AGM (Mech) 30 [Contd.

M188. A simply supported beam AB has the bending moment diagram as shown in the following

figure:

L L L

DM

B

MM

CA

The beam is possibly under the action of following loads (A) Couples of M at C and 2M at D (B) Couples of 2M at C and M at D (C) Concentrated loads of M/L at C and 2M/L at D (D) Concentrated loads of M/L at C and couple of 2M at D

189. If the shear force acting at every section of a beam is of the same magnitude and of the same direction then it represents a

(A) Simply supported beam with a concentrated load at the centre. (B) Overhung beam having equal overhang at both supports and carrying equal concentrated

loads acting in the same direction at the free ends. (C) Cantilever subjected to concentrated load at the free end. (D) Simply supported beam having concentrated loads of equal magnitude and in the same

direction acting at equal distances from the supports.

190. A uniformly distributed load (UDL)(in kN/m) is acting over the entire length of a 3 m long cantilever beam. If the shear force at the midpoint of cantilever is 6 kN, what is the value of UDL(in kN/m)?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

191. A cantilever beam having 5 m length is so loaded that it develops a shearing force of 20T and a bending moment of 20 T-m at a section 2m from the free end. Maximum shearing force and maximum bending moment developed in the beam under this load are respectively 50 T and 125 T-m. The load on the beam is:

(A) 25 T concentrated load at free end (B) 20T concentrated load at free end (C) 5T concentrated load at free end and 2 T/m load over entire length (D) 10 T/m uniformly distributed load over entire length

AGM (Mech) 31 [P.T.O.

M192. Assertion (A): A beam subjected only to end moments will be free from shearing force.

Reason (R): The bending moment variation along the beam length is zero.

(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

193. For the shear force to be uniform throughout the span of a simply supported beam, it should carry which one of the following loadings?

(A) A concentrated load at mid-span

(B) UDL over the entire span

(C) A couple anywhere within its span

(D) Two concentrated loads equal in magnitude and placed at equal distance from each support

194. If the wire diameter of a closed coil helical spring subjected to compressive load is increased from 1 cm to 2 cm, other parameters remaining same, then deflection will decrease by a factor of:

(A) 16 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 2

195. The spring constant of a helical compression spring DOES NOT depend on

(A) Coil diameter (B) Material strength

(C) Number of active turns (D) Wire diameter

196. If both the mean coil diameter and wire diameter of a helical compression or tension spring be doubled, then the deflection of the spring close coiled under same applied load will

(A) be doubled (B) be halved

(C) increase four times (D) get reduced to one-fourth

197. A body having weight of 1000 N is dropped from a height of 10 cm over a closed coiled helical spring of stiffness 200 N/cm. The resulting deflection of spring is nearly

(A) 5 cm (B) 16 cm (C) 35 cm (D) 100 cm

AGM (Mech) 32 [Contd.

M198. A closed coil helical spring has 15 coils. If five coils of this spring are removed by cutting, the

stiffness of the modified spring will

(A) Increase to 2.5 times (B) Increase to 1.5 times

(C) Reduce to 0.66 times (D) Remain unaffected

199. For a product, the forecast and the actual sales for December 2002 were 25 and 20 respectively. If the exponential smoothing constant (α) is taken as 0.2, then forecast sales for January, 2003 would be:

(A) 21 (B) 23 (C) 24 (D) 27

200. If the annual demand of an item becomes half, ordering cost double, holding cost one-fourth and the unit cost twice, then what is the ratio of the new EOQ and the earlier EOQ?

(A) 1/2 (B) 1/√2

(C) √2 (D) 2

201. Simplex method of solving linear programming problem uses

(A) All the points in the feasible region

(B) Only the corner points of the feasible region

(C) Intermediate points within the infeasible region

(D) Only the interior points in the feasible region

202. Which one of the following conditions should be satisfied for the application of optimality test on an initial solution of transportation model?

(A) Number of allocations should be less than m + n – 1

(B) Number of allocations should be equal to m + n – 1

(C) Number of allocations should be equal to m + n

(D) Number of allocations should be more than m + n

203. At a self-service store, a cashier can serve 10 customers in 5 minutes. On an average 15 customers arrive every 10 minutes. If the arrivals are as per Poisson distribution and services as per exponential distribution, the probability that the cashier would be idle is:

(A) 0.5 (B) 0.75 (C) 0.25 (D) 0

AGM (Mech) 33 [P.T.O.

M204. In an ideal impulse turbine, the

(A) Absolute velocity at the inlet of moving blade is equal to that at the outlet

(B) Relative velocity at the inlet of the moving blade is equal to that at the outlet

(C) Axial velocity at the inlet is equal to that at the outlet

(D) Whirl velocity at the inlet is equal to that at the outlet

205. In an axial flow impulse turbine, energy transfer takes place due to

(A) Change in relative kinetic energy

(B) Change in absolute kinetic energy

(C) Change in pressure energy

(D) Change in energy because of centrifugal force

206. Consider the following statements: In an impulse turbine,

1. The relative velocity of steam at inlet and outlet of moving blades are equal.

2. The moving blades are symmetrical.

3. The outlet area of the moving blades is smaller than the inlet area.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 2 and 3 are correct

(C) 1 and 2 are correct (D) 1 and 3 are correct

207. The given figure represents pressure and velocity variation for a

VELOCITYVARIATION CURVE

PRESSURE VARIATIONCURVE

STAGES

P.V

(A) Reaction type turbine

(B) Velocity compounded impulse turbine

(C) Pressure-velocity compounded impulse turbine

(D) Pressure compounded impulse turbine

AGM (Mech) 34 [Contd.

M208. Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of

(A) Enthalpy drop in moving blades to enthalpy drop in fixed blades

(B) Enthalpy drop in fixed blades to total enthalpy drop in moving and fixed blades

(C) Enthalpy drop in fixed blades to enthalpy drop in moving blades

(D) Enthalpy drop in moving blades to total enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades

209. Which one of the following cycles has the highest thermal efficiency for given maximum and minimum cycle temperatures?

(A) Brayton cycle (B) Otto cycle (C) Diesel cycle (D) Stirling cycle

210. The air standard efficiency of Diesel cycle will be less than that of Otto cycle in the case of

(A) Same compression ratio and same heat input

(B) Same maximum pressure and same heat input

(C) Same maximum pressure and same heat output

(D) Same maximum pressure and same maximum temperature

211. Assertion (A): In SI engines, as the engine speed increases, spark is required to be advanced. Reason (R): As the engine speed increases, flame velocity increases.

(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

212. At the time of starting, idling and low speed operation, the carburettor supplies a mixture which can be termed as

(A) Lean (B) slightly leaner than stoichiometric

(C) stoichiometric (D) rich

213. Assertion (A): The carburettor in a petrol engine is categorized as a closed loop control system. Reason (R): There is no method by which the air-fuel ratio is measured in the carburettor.

(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

AGM (Mech) 35 [P.T.O.

M214. Alcohols are unsuitable as diesel engine fuels because

(A) The cetane number of alcohol fuels is very low which prevents their ignition by compression

(B) The cetane number of alcohol fuels is very high which prevents their ignition by compression

(C) The octane number of alcohol fuels is very low which prevents their ignition by compression

(D) None of the above

215. What is the flash point of a liquid fuel?

(A) The temperature at which the fuel ignites spontaneously with a bang

(B) The temperature at which the fuel emits vapours at a rate which produces an inflammable mixture with air

(C) The temperature at which the fuel ignites with a clear flame

(D) The temperature at which the fuel ignites without a spark

216. In a SI Engine, which one of the following is the correct order of the fuels with increasing detonation tendency?

(A) Paraffins, Olefins, Naphthenes, Aromatics

(B) Aromatics, Naphthenes, Paraffins, Olefins

(C) Naphthenes, Olefins, Aromatics, Paraffins

(D) Aromatics, Naphthenes, Olefins, Paraffins

217. In a variable speed S.I. engine, the maximum torque occurs at the maximum

(A) Speed (B) brake power

(C) Indicated power (D) volumetric efficiency

218. In a Morse test for a 2-cylinder, 2-stroke, spark ignition engine, the brake power was 9 kW whereas the brake powers of individual cylinders with spark cut off were 4.25 kW and 3.75 kW respectively. The mechanical efficiency of the engine is

(A) 90% (B) 80%

(C) 45.5% (D) 52.5%

AGM (Mech) 36 [Contd.

M219. A 40 kW engine has a mechanical efficiency of 80%. If the frictional power is assumed to be

constant with load, what is the approximate value of the mechanical efficiency at 50% of the rated load?

(A) 45% (B) 55% (C) 65% (D) 75%

220. Which one of the following set of materials is most commonly used in catalytic converters for CI engines?

(A) Platinum, palladium and rhodium (B) Palladium, rhodium and ruthenium

(C) Rhodium, ruthenium and platinum (D) Ruthenium, platinum and palladium

221. The three way catalytic converter cannot control which one of the following?

(A) HC emission (B) CO emission (C) NOx emission (D) PM emission

222. The Vahan and Sarathi are conceptualized to capture the functionality as mandated by which Act :

(A) Central Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 (B) Central Motor Vehicle Act, 1999

(C) Central Motor Vehicle Act, 1989 (D) None of the above

223. Which rule has been amended to standardise the form and the manner in which registration numbers are displayed in the country:

(A) Central Motor Vehicle rule, 1988 (B) Central Motor Vehicle rule, 1999

(C) Central Motor Vehicle rule, 1989 (D) None of the above

224. Which Logic circuit would you use for addressing memory?

(A) Full adder (B) Multiplexer

(C) Decoder (D) Direct memory access circuit

225. A Flip-Flop circuit can be used for

(A) Counting (B) Scaling (C) Rectification (D) Demodulation

226. Library function pow() belongs to which header file?

(A) mathio.h (B) math.h (C) square.h (D) stdio.h

227. The communication between central system and the outside environment is done by:

(A) Control system (B) Logic system (C) Memory system (D) I/O subsystem

AGM (Mech) 37 [P.T.O.

M228. With respect to computer applications CISC stands for

(A) Compound Instruction Set Computers (B) Common Instruction Set Computers

(C) Complex Instruction Set Computers (D) Complex Instruction Set Compilers

229. The mechanism used in a shaping machine is

(A) a closed 4-bar chain having 4 revolute pairs

(B) a closed 6-bar chain having 6 revolute pairs

(C) a closed 4-bar chain having 2 revolute and 2 sliding pairs

(D) an inversion of the single slider-crank chain

230. The lengths of the links of a 4-bar linkage with revolute pairs only are p, q, r and s units. Given that p < q < r < s. Which of these links should be the fixed one, for obtaining a ‘double crank’ mechanism?

(A) link of length p (B) link of length q (C) link of length r (D) link of length s

231. The number of inversions for a slider crank mechanism is

(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3

232. A planar mechanism has 8 links and 10 rotary joints. The number of degrees of freedom of the mechanism using Gruebler’s criterion, is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

233. There are two points P and Q on a planar rigid body. The relative velocity between the two points

(A) should always be along PQ

(B) can be oriented along any direction

(C) should always be perpendicular to PQ

(D) should be along QP when the body undergoes pure translation

234. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (A) Grashof’s rule states that for a planar crank rocker four-bar mechanism, the sum of the

shortest and longest link lengths cannot be less than the sum of the remaining two link lengths.

(B) Inversions of a mechanism are created by fixing different links one at a time. (C) Geneva mechanism is an intermittent motion device (D) Gruebler’s criterion assumes mobility of a planar mechanism to be one.

AGM (Mech) 38 [Contd.

M235. In a spring-mass system, the mass is 0.1 kg and the stiffness of the spring is 1 kN/m. By

introducing a damper, the frequency of oscillation is found to be 90% of the original value. What is the damping coeffcient of the damper?

(A) 1.2 Ns/m (B) 3.4 Ns/m (C) 8.7 Ns/m (D) 12.0 Ns/m

236. The speed of an engine varies from 210 rad/s to 190 rad/s. During a cycle, the change in kinetic energy is found to be 400 Nm. The inertia of the flywheel in kg·m2 is

(A) 0.10 (B) 0.20 (C) 0.30 (D) 0.40

237. Global warming is caused by

(A) Ozone (B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon monoxide

238. Anti-friction bearings are

(A) sleeve bearings (B) gas lubricated bearings

(C) ball and roller bearings (D) journal bearings

239. A concentrated load of P acts on a simply supported beam of span L at a distance L/3 from the left support. The bending moment at the point of application of the load is given by

(A) PL/3 (B) 2PL/3 (C) PL/9 (D) 2PL/9

240. A simply supported laterally loaded beam was found to deflect more than a specified value. Which of the following measures will reduce the deflection?

(A) Increase the area moment of inertia

(B) Increase the span of the beam

(C) Select a different material having lesser modulus of elasticity

(D) Magnitude of the load to be increased

241. In terms of Poisson’s ratio (ν), the ratio of Young’s modulus (E) to Shear modulus (G) of elastic materials is

(A) 2(1+ν) (B) 2(1−ν) (C) (1+ν)/2 (D) (1−ν)/2

242. If the principal stresses in a plane stress problem are σ1 = 100 MPa, σ2 = 40 MPa, the magnitude of the maximum shear stress (in MPa) will be

(A) 60 (B) 50 (C) 30 (D) 20

AGM (Mech) 39 [P.T.O.

M243. A cantilever beam of length L is subjected to a moment M at the free end. The moment of

inertia of the beam cross-section about the neutral axis is I and the Young modulus is E. The magnitude of the maximum deflection is

(A) ML2 /2EI (B) ML2 /EI (C) 2ML2/ EI (D) 4ML2/ EI

244. For a long slender column of uniform cross-section, the ratio of critical buckling load for the case with both ends clamped to the case with both ends hinged is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8

245. A long thin-walled cylindrical shell, closed at both ends, is subjected to an internal pressure. The ratio of the hoop stress (circumferential stress) to longitudinal stress developed in the shell is

(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.0 (D) 4.0

246. A thin cylinder of inner radius 500 mm and thickness 10 mm is subjected to an internal pressure of 5 MPa. The average circumferential (hoop) stress in MPa is

(A) 100 (B) 250 (C) 500 (D) 1000

247. A planar closed kinematic chain is formed with rigid links PQ= 2.0 m, QR= 3.0 m, RS= 2.5 m and SP= 2.7 m with all revolute joints. The link to be fixed to obtain a double rocker (rocker–rocker) mechanism is

(A) PQ (B) QR (C) RS (D) SP

248. The element with the lowest density and smallest atomic weight is which one of the following?

(A) aluminum (B) argon (C) helium (D) hydrogen

249. The predominant phase in the iron-carbon alloy system for a composition with 99% Fe at room temperature is which of the following?

(A) austenite (B) cementite (C) delta (D) ferrite

250. Plain carbon steels are designated in the AISI code system by which of the following?

(A) 01XX (B) 10XX (C) 11XX (D) 12XX

251. Which of the following is not a common alloying ingredient in steel?

(A) carbon (B) chromium (C) nickel (D) molybdenum

252. Which of the following has the lowest melting point?

(A) aluminum (B) lead (C) magnesium (D) tin

AGM (Mech) 40 [Contd.

M253. Which one of the following materials is closest to diamond in hardness?

(A) aluminum oxide (B) carbon dioxide

(C) cubic boron nitride (D) silicon dioxide

254. Anisotropic means which one of the following:

(A) composite materials with composition consisting of more than two materials

(B) properties are the same in every direction

(C) properties vary depending on the direction in which they are measured

(D) strength and other properties as a function of curing temperature.

255. In white cast irons, carbon present as

(A) Graphite flakes (B) Graphite nodules

(C) Cementite (D) Carbon does not exist

256. Increased cooling rate in the heat treatment of mild steel results into

(A) Coarse pearlite

(B) Fine pearlite

(C) Heat treatment does not affect the pearlite morphology

(D) Mixture of fine and coarse pearlite

257. During heat treatment of steel, the hardness of various structures in increasing order is (A) martensite, fine pearlite, coarse pearlite, spheroidite (B) fine pearlite, coarse pearlite, spheroidite, martensite (C) martensite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, spheroidite (D) spheroidite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, martensite

258. Tool geometry of a single point cutting tool is specified by the following elements: 1. Back rake angle (αb) 2. Side rake angle (αs) 3. End cutting edge angle (φ) 4. Side cutting edge angle (ψ) 5. Side relief angle (cs) 6. End relief angle (cb) 7. Nose radius (r) The correct sequence of these tool elements used for correctly specifying tool geometry is (A) 1, 2, 3, 6, 5, 4, 7 (B) 1, 2, 6, 5, 3, 4, 7 (C) 1, 2, 5, 6, 3, 4, 7 (D) 1, 2, 6, 3, 5, 4, 7

AGM (Mech) 41 [P.T.O.

M259. Which among the NC operations given below are continuous path operations?

Arc welding (AW)

Milling (M)

Drilling (D)

Punching of sheet metal (P)

Laser cutting of sheet metal (LC)

Spot welding (SW)

(A) AW, LC and M (B) AW, D, LC and M

(C) D, LC, P and SW (D) D, LC and SW

260. Match the following:

P. M05 1. Absolute coordinate system

Q. G01 2. Dwell

R. G04 3. Spindle stop

S. G90 4. Linear interpolation

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

261. The dimensional limits on a shaft of 25 h7 are

(A) 25.000, 25.021 mm (B) 25.000, 24.979 mm

(C) 25.000, 25.007 mm (D) 25.000, 24.993 mm

262. Allowance in limits and fits refers to

(A) maximum clearance between shaft and hole

(B) minimum clearance between shaft and hole

(C) difference between maximum and minimum size of hole

(D) difference between maximum and minimum size of shaft

263. A metal disc of 20 mm diameter is to be punched from a sheet of 2 mm thickness. The punch and the die clearance is 3%. The required punch diameter is

(A) 19.88 mm (B) 19.94 mm

(C) 20.06 mm (D) 20.12 mm

AGM (Mech) 42 [Contd.

M264. A shell of 100 mm diameter and 100 mm height with the corner radius of 0.4 mm is to be

produced by cup drawing. The required blank diameter is

(A) 118 mm (B) 161 mm (C) 224 mm (D) 312 mm

265. In cold working, (A) strength, hardness and ductility increase (B) strength and hardness increase, but ductility decreases (C) strength, hardness and ductility decrease (D) strength and hardness decrease, but ductility increases

266. The word kanban is most closely associated with which one of the following?

(A) capacity planning (B) economic order quantity

(C) just-in-time production (D) master production schedule

267. A standard machine tool and an automatic machine tool are being compared for the production of a component. The following data refers to the two machines. Setup time, machining time and machine rate for standard machine tool are: 30 min, 22 min, and Rs. 200 per hour, and those for automatic machine tool are 2 hours, 5 min and Rs. 800 per hour, respectively. The break-even production batch size above which the automatic machine tool will be economical to use, will be

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 24 (D) 225

268. In a time study exercise, the time observed for an activity was 54 s. The operator had a performance rating of 120. A personal time allowance of 10% is given. The standard time for the activity, in seconds, is

(A) 54 (B) 60.8 (C) 72 (D) 58.32

269. Six sigma process has defect level below ______ defects per million opportunities.

(A) 3.4 (B) 4.5 (C) 5.6 (D) 6.7

270. The percent of the sample means will have values that are within ±3. Standard deviations of the distribution mean is

(A) 95.5 (B) 96.7 (C) 97.6 (D) 99.7

271. Gantt chart is mostly used for

(A) Routing (B) Scheduling

(C) Follow up (D) Inspection and quality control

AGM (Mech) 43 [P.T.O.

M272. When the elements of net evaluation row of simplex table are equal, the situation is known as

(A) Tie (B) Degeneracy

(C) Break (D) Shadow price

273. To solve degeneracy in the transportation problem we have to:

(A) Put allocation in one of the empty cells as zero

(B) Put a small element epsilon in any one of the empty cells

(C) Allocate the smallest element epsilon in such a cell, which will not form a closed loop with other loaded cells

(D) Allocate the smallest element epsilon in such a cell, which will form a closed loop with other loaded cells.

274. The cycle time, selected in balancing a line must be:

(A) Greater than the smallest time element given in the problem

(B) Less than the highest time element given in the problem

(C) Slightly greater than the highest time element given in the problem

(D) Left to the choice of the problem solver.

275. In queue designation A/B/S : (d/f), what does S represent?

(A) Arrival Pattern (B) Service Pattern

(C) Number of server (D) Capacity of the system.

276. In a control chart, the upper control limit is set equal to which one of the following?

(A) process mean

(B) process mean plus three standard deviations

(C) upper design tolerance limit

(D) upper value of the maximum range R.

277. Which one of the following best describes the situations for which the c chart is most suited?

(A) control of defective parts

(B) mean value of part characteristic of interest

(C) number of defects in a sample

(D) proportion of defects in a sample

AGM (Mech) 44 [Contd.

M278. A frictionless piston-cylinder device contains a gas initially at 0.8 MPa and 0.015 m3. It

expands quasi-statically at constant temperature to a final volume of 0.030 m3. The work output (in kJ) during this process will be

(A) 8.32 (B) 12.00 (C) 554.67 (D) 8320.00

279. An irreversible heat engine extracts heat from a high temperature source at a rate of 100 kW and rejects heat to a sink at a rate of 50 kW. The entire work output of the heat engine is used to drive a reversible heat pump operating between a set of independent isothermal heat reservoirs at 17°C and 75°C. The rate (in kW) at which the heat pump delivers heat to its high temperature sink is

(A) 50 (B) 250 (C) 300 (D) 360

280. Heat and work are

(A) intensive properties (B) extensive properties

(C) point functions (D) path functions

281. A pump handling a liquid raises its pressure from 1 bar to 30 bar. Take the density of the liquid as 990 kg /m3. The isentropic specific work done by the pump in kJ/kg is

(A) 0.10 (B) 0.30 (C) 2.50 (D) 2.93

282. Which of the following is an intensive property of a system?

(A) pressure (B) mass (C) enthalpy (D) volume

283. A diesel engine is usually more efficient than a spark ignition engine because

(A) diesel being a heavier hydrocarbon, releases more heat per kg than gasoline

(B) the air standard efficiency of diesel cycle is higher than the Otto cycle, at a fixed compression ratio

(C) the compression ratio of a diesel engine is higher than that of an SI engine

(D) self-ignition temperature of diesel is higher than that of gasoline

284. In an air standard Otto cycle, r is the volume compression ratio and γ is an adiabatic index (cp/cv), the air standard efficiency is given by

(A) η = 1−1/(rγ−1) (B) η = 1−1/ rγ (C) η = 1−1/r(γ−1) (D) η = 1−1/r2γ−1

285. The air–fuel ratio for idling speed of an automobile petrol engine is closer to

(A) 10:1 (B) 15:1 (C) 17:1 (D) 21:1

AGM (Mech) 45 [P.T.O.

M286. Which one of the following configurations has the highest fin effectiveness?

(A) Thin, closely spaced fins (B) Thin, widely spaced fins

(C) Thick, widely spaced fins (D) Thick, closed spaced fins

287. For an opaque surface, the absorptivity (α), transitivity (τ), and reflectivity (ρ) are related by the equation

(A) α+ρ = τ (B) α+ρ+τ = 0

(C) α+ρ = 1 (D) α+ρ = 0

288. The color of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of Freon refrigerant, will change to

(A) bright green (B) yellow

(C) red (D) orange

289. The significant advantage of using ammonia as a refrigerant is its

(A) characteristic odor (B) high latent heat

(C) solubility (D) inflammability

290. In a vapor compression refrigeration plant, the refrigerant leaves the evaporator at 195 kJ/kg and the condenser at 65 kJ/kg. For every kg of refrigerant, the plant can supply per second a cooling load of

(A) 70 kW (B) 100 kW (C) 130 kW (D) 160 kW

291. Evaporative regulation of body temperature fails when the body temperature is

(A) more than wet bulb temperature but less than dry bulb temperature

(B) more than dew point temperature but less than wet bulb temperature

(C) more than dew point temperature but less than dry bulb temperature

(D) less than dew point temperature

292. The effective temperature is a measure of the combined effect of

(A) dry bulb temperature and relative humidity

(B) dry bulb temperature and air motion

(C) wet bulb temperature and air motion

(D) dry bulb temperature, relative humidity and air motion

AGM (Mech) 46 [Contd.

M293. In a Rankine cycle, regeneration results in higher efficiency because

(A) pressure inside the boiler increases

(B) heat is added before steam enters the low pressure turbine

(C) average temperature of heat addition in the boiler increases

(D) total work delivered by the turbine increases

294. In a steam nozzle, inlet pressure of superheated steam is 10 bar. The exit pressure is decreased from 3 bar to 1 bar. The discharge rate will

(A) remain constant

(B) decrease

(C) increase slightly

(D) increase or decrease depending on whether the nozzle is convergent or convergent-divergent

295. In a steam nozzle, to increase the velocity of steam above sonic velocity by expanding steam below critical pressure

(A) a vacuum pump is added

(B) ring diffusers are used

(C) divergent portion of the nozzle is necessary

(D) abrupt change in cross-section is needed

296. In a steam condenser, the partial pressure of steam and air are 0.06 bar and 0.007 bar, respectively. The condenser pressure is

(A) 0.067 bar (B) 0.06 bar

(C) 0.053 bar (D) 0.007 bar

297. The Rateau turbine belongs to the category of

(A) pressure compounded turbine (B) reaction turbine

(C) velocity compounded turbine (D) radial flow turbine

298. The maximum blade efficiency of single stage impulse turbine in terms of nozzle angle α under ideal conditions is proportional to

(A) cos α (B) sin α

(C) sin2 α (D) cos2 α

AGM (Mech) 47 [P.T.O.

M299. The degree of reaction of a turbine is the ratio of enthalpy drop in

(A) moving blades to enthalpy drop in the stage

(B) fixed blades to enthalpy drop in the stage

(C) moving blades to enthalpy drop in fixed blades

(D) fixed blades to enthalpy drop in moving blades

300. The degree of reaction of an impulse turbine:

(A) is less than zero

(B) is greater than zero

(C) is equal to zero

(D) increases with steam velocity at the inlet

___________________________

AGM (Mech) 48 [Contd.

M