new vardhaman college of engineering · 2019. 11. 8. · draw the bode plot. find the gain margin...

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3602 VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS) III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15) COMPUTER GRAPHICS (Computer Science and Engineering) Date: 08 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75 Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks Unit-I 1. a) Define Random and Raster scan displays. 5M b) Consider three different raster systems with resolutions of 640 x 480, 1280 x 1024, and 2560 x 2048: i. What size is frame buffer (in bytes) for each of these systems to store 12 bits per pixel ii. How much storage (in bytes) is required for each system if 24 bits per pixels are to be stored 10M 2. a) Illustrate Beam penetration method. 6M b) Consider a raster system with the resolution of 1024 x 768 pixels and the color palette calls for 65,536 colors. What is the minimum amount of video RAM that the computer must have to support the above-mentioned resolution and number of colors? 9M Unit-II 3. a) Discuss the Midpoint Ellipse Algorithm in detail. 7M b) Consider the line from (0, 0) to (4, 6).Use DDA algorithm to rasterize this line. 8M 4. a) Discuss scan line polygon filling algorithm with suitable example. 6M b) Consider a Line segment AB. The line AB has starting point a (20, 10) and ending point B (30, 18). Now sample the line AB by using Bresenham’s Algorithm and find the intermediate points on line segment AB to draw the complete line. 9M Unit-III 5. a) With relevant diagrams discuss how line clipping is achieved in Cohen-Sutherland algorithm. 7M b) What is the importance of using homogeneous co-ordinates in Geometric transformations? Write the 2D Translation and Rotation Matrices using homogeneous co-ordinates. 8M 6. a) Derive transformation matrix for 2D rotation. 7M b) Find the transformation matrix that transforms the square ABCD whose center is at (2,2) is reduced to half of its size, with center still remaining at (2,2). The coordinate of square ABCD are A(0,0), B(0,4), C(4,4) and D(4,0). Find the co-ordinate of new square. 8M Unit-IV 7. a) List the advantages of B-Splines over Bezier Splines, with suitable diagrams demonstrate the local control characteristics of B-Splines. 9M b) How are the following quadric surfaces defined, consider both Cartesian and Parametric representations: i. Sphere ii. Ellipsoid 6M Cont…2

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  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3602

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019

    (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    COMPUTER GRAPHICS (Computer Science and Engineering)

    Date: 08 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) Define Random and Raster scan displays. 5M b) Consider three different raster systems with resolutions of 640 x 480, 1280 x 1024, and

    2560 x 2048: i. What size is frame buffer (in bytes) for each of these systems to store 12 bits per

    pixel ii. How much storage (in bytes) is required for each system if 24 bits per pixels are to

    be stored

    10M

    2. a) Illustrate Beam penetration method. 6M b) Consider a raster system with the resolution of 1024 x 768 pixels and the color palette

    calls for 65,536 colors. What is the minimum amount of video RAM that the computer must have to support the above-mentioned resolution and number of colors?

    9M

    Unit-II

    3. a) Discuss the Midpoint Ellipse Algorithm in detail.

    7M

    b) Consider the line from (0, 0) to (4, 6).Use DDA algorithm to rasterize this line.

    8M

    4. a) Discuss scan line polygon filling algorithm with suitable example. 6M b) Consider a Line segment AB. The line AB has starting point a (20, 10) and ending point B

    (30, 18). Now sample the line AB by using Bresenham’s Algorithm and find the intermediate points on line segment AB to draw the complete line.

    9M

    Unit-III

    5. a) With relevant diagrams discuss how line clipping is achieved in Cohen-Sutherland algorithm.

    7M

    b) What is the importance of using homogeneous co-ordinates in Geometric transformations? Write the 2D Translation and Rotation Matrices using homogeneous co-ordinates.

    8M

    6. a) Derive transformation matrix for 2D rotation. 7M b) Find the transformation matrix that transforms the square ABCD whose center is at (2,2)

    is reduced to half of its size, with center still remaining at (2,2). The coordinate of square ABCD are A(0,0), B(0,4), C(4,4) and D(4,0). Find the co-ordinate of new square.

    8M

    Unit-IV

    7. a) List the advantages of B-Splines over Bezier Splines, with suitable diagrams demonstrate the local control characteristics of B-Splines.

    9M

    b) How are the following quadric surfaces defined, consider both Cartesian and Parametric representations: i. Sphere ii. Ellipsoid

    6M

    Cont…2

  • ::2::

    8. a) With relevant equations demonstrate how the following 3D transformations are

    defined: i. Scaling ii. Translation

    8M

    b) How is the concept of region codes used in 2D clipping extended for 3D clipping?

    7M

    Unit-V

    9. a) With suitable examples describe the construction of animation sequences using the following specifications: i. Kinematic description of animation ii. Final State of movements in animation iii. Motion specifications of the animation

    9M

    b) How is an animation sequence designed for scenarios involving story line and multiple objects?

    6M

    10. a) Differentiate between Object Space and Image Space approaches used in visible surface detection. Also, write the Z-Buffer algorithm.

    10M

    b) How does the Depth Sorting method achieve visible surface detection using both image space and object space approaches?

    5M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3514

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    SOFTWARE ENGINEERING

    (Information Technology)

    Date: 08 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) Discuss the important characteristics of the software. 6M b) Explain the classical life cycle model of software development. Comment on its

    advantages and disadvantages.

    9M

    2. a) Identify the different framework activities of software construction. What are its types? 8M b) Define a pattern. Explain the template of the pattern as suggested by Ambler.

    7M

    Unit-II

    3. a) Explain the scrum process model in detail. 8M b) “Agility enhances productivity”. Justify the statement.

    7M

    4. a) Explain the adaptive software development process of agile in detail. 8M b) What are the phases of Dynamic System development method? Explain the same.

    7M

    Unit-III

    5. a) Distinguish between functional and non-functional requirements. 8M b) Investigate the structure of software requirements document.

    7M

    6. a) Examine the process of requirements managements. 7M b) Justify the significance of requirements elicitation and analysis in requirements

    engineering.

    8M

    Unit-IV

    7. a) What are the characteristics of well formed design classes? Explain. 6M b) Explain the following architectural styles in detail:

    i. Data Centric ii. Data flow iii. Layered architecture

    9M

    8. a) Discuss the three golden rules of user interface design. How do you achieve each of them?

    10M

    b) What are the characteristics of good error messages? Explain in brief.

    5M

    Unit-V

    9. a) Explain the different consideration for unit testing. 7M b) Explain the bottom up integration approach of testing in detail.

    8M

    10. a) What are the differences between software testing and software quality assurance? 8M b) Write a short notes on SQA. Discuss the SQA activities. 7M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3212

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    CONTROL SYSTEMS

    (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

    Date: 08 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) Distinguish between open loop and closed loop control system. 5M

    b) Draw the equivalent mechanical system if the system shown in Fig.1. Write the set of equilibrium equation. Obtain F-V and F-I analogous circuits.

    Fig.1

    10M

    2. a) Give the effects of feedback characteristics. 5M

    b) For the mechanical rotational system shown in Fig.2. i. Draw the equivalent mechanical network

    ii. Write the performance equations

    iii. Draw analogous electrical network

    Fig.2

    10M

    Unit-II

    3. a) Using block diagram reduction techniques, find the closed loop transfer functions of the following systems:

    Fig.3

    7M

    b) Using block diagram reduction techniques, find

    C s

    R s

    Fig.4

    8M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    4.

    a) For the given signal flow graph find

    C s

    R s using Mason’s gain formula:

    Fig.5

    8M

    b) Determine the T. F.

    C s

    R s for the following block diagram.

    Fig.6

    7M

    Unit-III

    5. a) Consider the unit step response of a unity feedback control system whose OLTF is

    1G s .

    s s 1

    6M

    b) For a system with

    5G s H s

    s 5

    calculate the generalized error and steady state

    error. Assume r t 6 5 t.

    9M

    6. a) Utilize the Routh Table to determine the number of roots of the following polynomials in the RH of the S-plane comment about the stability of the system:

    i. 5 4 3 2S 2 s 3 s 6 s 10s 1 5

    ii. 5 4 3 2S 6 s 1 5 s 30s 4 4 s 2 4

    9M

    b) For the system shown in Fig.7 below find: i. Kp, Ka, Kv

    ii. Find the steady slate error for an input of 2

    5u t , 5 tu t , 5 t 4 t

    iii. State the system by the numbers

    Fig.7

    6M

    Unit-IV

    7. a) Explain Nyquist stability criterion with note on Mapping theorem. 5M b) Sketch Bode plot and determine stability of the system for a unity feedback system

    with

    2

    2 4 2 5

    1 5 1 2 1

    sG s

    s s s s

    10M

    Cont…3

  • :: 3 ::

    8. a) Define the following: i. Gain cross-over frequency. ii. Phase cross-over frequency. iii. Gain Margin. iv. Phase Margin.

    6M

    b) The open loop T. F of an unity feedback system is given by

    KG s .

    S 1 0 .0 2 s 1 0 .0 4 s

    Draw the Bode plot. Find the gain Margin and phase

    margin. Hence find the value of open loop gain so that the system has a phase margin of 450.

    9M

    Unit-V

    9. a) Obtain a state representation of the system shown in Fig.8 below.

    Fig.8

    8M

    b) Find the transfer function for the system which is represented in state space representation follows:

    1 1

    2 2

    1 0 0

    0 2 1

    x xu

    x x

    1

    2

    1 2x

    y tx

    7M

    10. a) Explain PID controller with a block diagram. 8M b) A linear second order single input continuous time system is described by the following

    set of differential equations:

    i. 1 1 22 4X t x t x t

    ii. 2 1 22X t x t x t u t

    Comment on the controllability and stability of the system.

    7M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3219

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019

    (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    ADVANCED CONTROL SYSTEMS (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

    Date: 08 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) Define state transition matrix. What are the properties of state transition matrix? 6M

    b) For a system represented by a state equation .X t A X t The response of

    2

    22

    t

    t

    eX t

    e

    when 1

    02

    X

    and

    t

    t

    eX t

    e

    when 1

    0 .1

    X

    .

    Determine the matrix A and state transition matrix.

    9M

    2. a) Define and explain: i. Transfer function ii. State space analysis iii. State variable iv. State vector

    8M

    b) A linear time invariant system is described by the following state model.

    1 1

    2 2

    3 3

    0 1 0 0

    0 0 1 0

    6 1 1 6 2

    x x

    x x U

    x x

    and

    1

    2

    3

    1 0 0

    x

    y x

    x

    Transform this state model into a canonical state model.

    7M

    Unit-II

    3. a) Define Controllability and Observability. Explain the principle of duality between controllability and observability.

    7M

    b) Evaluate whether the following system is completely state controllable and completely state observable.

    1 1

    2 2

    3 3

    0 1 0 1

    0 0 1 0

    6 1 1 6 1

    X X

    X X u

    X X

    and

    1

    2

    3

    1 0 5 1

    X

    Y X

    X

    8M

    4. a) Discuss the basic features of the following non-linearities: i. Non-linear friction ii. On-Off controllers iii. Backlash

    9M

    b) State the properties of non-linear system.

    6M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit-III

    5. a) What is a phase plane plot? Describe delta method or any other method of drawing phase plan trajectories.

    9M

    b) What are singular points? Explain different singular points with respect to stability of non-linear systems.

    6M

    6. a) Explain the concept of: i. Stability in the sense of Liapunov ii. Asymptotic stability iii. Instability

    9M

    b) Determine the stability of a non-linear system governed by the equations using Lypanov method.

    i. 21 1 1 2

    2X X X X

    ii. 2 2

    X X

    6M

    Unit-IV

    7. a) What is reduced order observer? Explain. 5M

    b) Consider the system =AX+Bu and Y= CX, where

    0 1 0 0

    0 0 1 0 1 0 0

    6 1 1 6 1

    A B C

    Determine the observer gain matrix using Ackermann’s method. The desired eigen values

    are 2 j3.4 6 4 1 and – 5.

    10M

    8. a) Briefly explain Euler- Lagrange equation. 7M b) Briefly discuss about control and state variable inequality constraints.

    8M

    Unit-V

    9. a) Write a short notes on minimum-time, minimum energy and minimum fuel problems? 8M

    b) Explain the formulation of optimal control problem using state variable approach.

    7M

    10. a) Explain about the tracking problem. 7M

    b) Obtain the control law which minimizes the performance index

    2 2

    10

    J x u d t

    for the system 1 1

    2 2

    0 1 0.

    0 0 1

    x xu

    x x

    8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3333

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    OPERATIONS RESEARCH

    (Mechanical Engineering)

    Date: 08 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) State the objectives of Operations research. 7M b) A manufacturer produces two types of models M1 and M2. Each model of type M1

    requires 4 hr of grinding and 2 hr of polishing. Whereas each model of the type M2 requires 2 hr of grinding and 5 hr of polishing. The manufacturer has 2 grinders and 3 polishers. Each grinder works 40 hr a week and each polisher works 60 hr a week. Profit on model M1 is Rs 3.00 and on model M2 is Rs 4.00. Whatever is produced in a week is sold in the market. How should the manufacturer allocate his production capacity to the two types of models, so that he may make the maximum profit in a week?

    8M

    2. Solve by Big M method. Maximize Z = x1 + 2x2 + 3x3 – x4 Subject to, x1 + 2x2 + 3x3 = 15 2x1 + x2 + 5x3 = 20 x1 + 2x2 + x3 + x4 = 20

    15M

    Unit-II

    3. a) Explain the following in the context of transportation problem: i. Degenerate transportation problem ii. Modified distribution method

    5M

    b) Determine the optimum transportation cost for the following transportation problem. Use VAM for initial feasible Solution and MODI method for optimal solution.

    Unit cost (Rs) of transportation to destination Supply units

    Sou

    rce

    D1 D2 D3 D4

    S1 21 16 25 13 11

    S2 17 18 14 23 13

    S3 32 27 18 41 19

    Demand, units 6 10 12 15

    10M

    4. a) What is the objective of the travelling salesman problem? What is the difference between assignment problem and travelling salesman problem?

    5M

    b) Certain equipment needs 5 repair jobs which have to be assigned to 5 machines. The estimated time (in hours) that a machine requires to complete the repair job is given in the table. Assuming that each machine can be assigned only one job, determine the minimum time assignment.

    Jobs

    Machines J1 J2 J3 J4 J5

    M1 7 5 9 8 11

    M2 9 12 7 11 10

    M3 8 5 4 6 9

    M4 7 3 6 9 5

    M5 4 6 7 5 11

    10M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit-III

    5. a) Arrivals at a telephone booth are considered to be Poisson, with an average time of 10 minutes between one arrival and the next. The length of a phone call is assumed to be distributed exponentially with mean three minutes: i. What is the probability that a person arriving at the booth will have to wait? ii. What is the average length of the queue that forms from time to time? iii. The telephone department will install a second booth when convinced that an

    arrival would have to wait at least three minutes for the phone. By how much time must the flow of arrivals be increased in order to justify a second booth?

    8M

    b) There are five jobs, each of which must go through machines A, B and C in the order ABC. Processing times are given below:

    Job i Processing times

    Ai Bi Ci

    1 8 5 4

    2 10 6 9

    3 6 2 8

    4 7 3 6

    5 11 4 5

    Determine a sequence for five jobs that will minimize the elapsed time T.

    7M

    6. a) Give Johnson’s procedure for determining an optimal sequence for processing n items on two machines.

    7M

    b) In a railway marshalling yard, goods trains arrive at a rate of 30 trains per day. Assuming that inter - arrival time and service time distribution follows an exponential distribution with an average of 30 minutes, calculate the following: i. The mean queue size. ii. The probability that queue size exceeds 10. iii. If the input of the train increases to an average of 33 per day, what will be the

    changes in i. and ii

    8M

    Unit-IV

    7. a) What is replacement of item? What are the categories into which the replacements of items are classified?

    5M

    b) An automobile fleet owner has the following direct operation cost (Petrol and oil) and increased maintenance cost (repairs, replacement of parts etc). The initial cost of the vehicle is Rs. 70, 000. The operation cost, the maintenance cost and the resale price are all given in following table for five years.

    Year of service 1 2 3 4 5

    Annual Operating costs (Rs.) 10000 15000 20000 26000 32000

    Annual Maintenance Cost (Rs.) 6000 8000 12000 16000 20000

    Resale value (Rs.) 40000 20000 15000 10000 10000

    Determine at what age is a replacement due.

    10M

    8. a) What do you mean by Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) Model? What are its Limitations? 6M b) A factory uses annually 24000 units of raw materials which costs Rs.1.25 per unit.

    Placing each order costs Rs.25and carrying cost is 6% per year of the average inventory. Find the EOQ and the total inventory cost including the cost of material.

    9M

    Cont…3

  • :: 3 ::

    Unit-V

    9. a) Define with respect to Game Theory: i. Saddle point, ii. Pure Strategy, iii. Zerosum game iv. Maximin-Minimax Principle

    5M

    b) Solve using Dynamic Programming Maximize Z= 3x1+ 5x2

    S.T. x1 4

    x2 6

    3x1+2x218

    x1, x2 0

    10M

    10. a) What is dynamic programming problem? List the advantages and applications of dynamic programming.

    6M

    b) Solve the game whose pay-off matrix is given below.

    2 0 0 5 3

    3 2 1 2 2

    4 3 0 2 6

    5 3 4 2 6

    9M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3115

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019

    (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    DESIGN OF REINFORCED CONCRETE STRUCTURES (Civil Engineering)

    Date: 08 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) Explain the terms Balanced, Under-reinforced and Over-reinforced sections. 7M b) Determine Stress Block parameters for Singly Reinforced beam under Flexure.

    8M

    2. A singly reinforced rectangular beam is 300mm wide, 600mm deep is reinforced with 4 numbers of 20mm diameter on tension side. Determine the ultimate moment of resistance of the section. Use M20 concrete and Re 415 steel.

    15M

    Unit-II

    3. Find the reinforcement required for a rectangular beam section for the following data. Size of the beam=300mmx600mm, Factored Moment Mu=115kNm, Factored Torsion Tu=45kN/m, Factored shear Vu=95kN, Grade of concrete =M20, Grade of steel=Fe415.

    15M

    4. A simply supported reinforced concrete beam is 250mm wide and 500mm deep to the centre of the tensile reinforcement and is reinforced with 5 bars of 15mm diameter as tensile steel. If the beam is subjected to a factored shear of 105kN at the support, design the shear reinforcement consisting of stirrups. Use M20 concrete and Fe 250 steel.

    15M

    Unit-III

    5. Design a simply supported slab for s span of 3.5m carries a live load of 3.5kN/m2 and finishes = 1kN/m2. Use concrete M20 and steel Fe 415.

    15M

    6. Design an Interior panel of 2-way slab 5mx5m using IS Code .The corners are prevented from

    lifting .Live load= 3000N/m2.Adopt M-20 grade concrete and Fe-415 steel.

    Assume, Bearing=300mm,Dia of bar = 12mm in both the directions and Clear cover=20mm.

    15M

    Unit-IV

    7. A reinforced concrete short column 400mm x 400mm has to carry an axial load of 1200kN. Find the area of the steel required. Use M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel.

    15M

    8. Design the reinforcement in a Short column of size 400mm by 600mm subjected to an

    Ultimate axial load of 1600kN together with ultimate moments of 120kN-m and 90kN-m

    about the major and minor axis respectively. Adopt M-20 grade concrete and Fe-415 steel.

    15M

    Unit-V

    9. Design a suitable rectangular footing for a column 230mm x 400mm size subjected to an factored service load of 800kN. Consider SBC of soil as 175kN/m2. Use M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel. Sketch the reinforcement details.

    15M

    10. The main stair of an office building has to be located in a stair measuring 3.5m x5.5m. The vertical distance between the floors is 3.75m. Design the stairs, allowing a live load of 3kN/m2. Use M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel.

    15M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2604

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT (Common to Computer Science and Engineering and Information technology)

    Date: 08 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) What are the features of Android? 5M b) With a neat block diagram, explain the architecture of Android.

    10M

    2. a) Describe mobile ecosystem with its various layers. 10M b) What are the types of Mobile Applications?

    5M

    Unit – II

    3. a) How to deploy android app on USB connected Android device. 8M b) How to run android apps on the Emulator.

    7M

    4. a) Explain the Core Building Blocks in Android. 8M b) Write about Android SDK and launching Android virtual device.

    7M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Explain the life cycle of an Activity and its various stages. 8M

    b) With an example, explain briefly the Intent Object and intent types.

    7M

    6. a) Explain the layouts supported in Android. 8M

    b) How to listen for UI notifications? 7M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Explain briefly fragments in Android. Give examples of activities with fragments. 8M b) Write about code for using camera in android application.

    7M

    8. a) Explain the life cycle of a fragment. 8M b) Explain briefly the menus in Android.

    7M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Explain briefly SQLite database. 5M b) Write a SQLite snippet program to insert, update and delete a record.

    10M

    10. a) Explain the procedure to connect to a SQLite database. 5M b) Write a SQLite snippet program to query a record and display. 10M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2508

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING THROUGH JAVA (Common to Electronics and Communication Engineering &

    Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Date: 08 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Define class. Write a java program to accept the ‘n’ student details such as name, rollno, subject marks etc., and display student details along with total marks using class.

    10M

    b) Describe about scope and life time of variables with an example.

    5M

    2. a) What is JVM? Explain the architecture of JVM in detail. 9M b) What is the difference between String and StringBuffer Class?

    6M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Demonstrate with a program how overridden method is resolved at runtime. 7M b) Interfaces can be used to support multiple inheritance? Justify your answer with an

    example.

    8M

    4. a) Illustrate the use of keyword final in inheritance. 7M b) What is meant by a stream? With suitable classes, demonstrate Byte and Character

    streams.

    8M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Describe synchronization and inter thread communication concepts in multithreaded programming.

    8M

    b) Design a Java program by writing your own exception handling mechanism which checks employee age in the range 18 to 60 years in employee management system.

    7M

    6. a) What are exceptions? How does Java handle exceptions? Explain the keywords and general structure of an exception handling block with suitable example program.

    7M

    b) With a suitable code snippet, illustrate the usage and function of a following methods in multithreaded programming: run(), isAlive(), setPriority(), currentThread().

    8M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) With suitable code snippets, describe MouseListener interface and MouseMotionListener interface.

    8M

    b) Illustrate with example handling various key events.

    7M

    8. a) Explain flow layout with suitable code snippet. 7M b) What are adapter classes? Demonstrate an adapter class with a suitable program. 8M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Compare and contrast applets and applications in Java. 7M b) Develop a Java program to create a table using JTable with column heading RegNo,

    Name, Semester and insert at least five records in the table and display.

    8M

    10. a) What is an Applet? What are the different stages of an Applet life cycle? Explain. 7M b) Write a Java Swing Applet which accepts a text from a JTextField and displays the same

    text with selected font size and font color using JLabel. 8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2419

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    MICROPROCESSORS AND INTERFACING (Common to Computer Science and Engineering, Information Technology &

    Electronics and Communication Engineering) Date: 11 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) What is Pipeline architecture? How it is implemented in 8086? 7M b) Calculate the physical addresses represented by:

    i. 1234H: 0002H ii. 2670H: 2222H iii. F2F2H: 1234H iv. 0ABCDH:4567H

    8M

    2. a) Explain register organization of 8086 and explain typical application of each register. 8M b) Compare the two modes of operation in 8086 microprocessor.

    7M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Discus the following instructions of 8086 with an example for each: i. LDS ii. SCAS iii. REPE iv. IMUL

    8M

    b) Write an assembly language program in 8086 to sort five numbers stored in consecutive memory locations starting from location X, in an ascending order.

    7M

    4. a) Differentiate between inter and intra call procedure in 8086, with a suitable example 7M b) Write an assembly language program to perform the following:

    Main program should check the content of a location ‘X’. If the content of that location is ‘1’, it should call a procedure to add two 8 bit numbers else if ‘X’ contains any other number it should quit the program.

    8M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Explain mode 0 and mode 1 operation of 8255. 8M b) Interface two 16KB RAM chips and two 32KB ROM chips to 8086 microprocessor. Select

    RAM and ROM addresses suitably. 7M

    6. a) What is DMA? Why is it needed? Explain how 8086 can be used for DMA operation. 7M b) Design a stepper motor controller and write an ALP to rotate a 2000 teeth, 4-phase

    stepper motor 5 rotations clockwise and 2 rotations anticlockwise.

    8M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Draw and explain the block diagram of 8259A. 8M b) Discuss DOS function call and BIOS function call with one example of each. 7M 8. a) Write interrupt sequence in 8086. 8M b) Write in detail about Asynchronous data transfer.

    7M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Draw the block diagram of 8051 and explain each block in detail. 7M b) Draw the block schematic of ADC interfaced to 8051 at port P1 and write an 8051

    program to generate square wave. 8M

    10. a) What is ISR? Explain interrupt handling structure of 8051 MCU. 7M b) Write an assembly language program to interface 4*4 matrix keypad with 8051. 8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3612

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019

    (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    SOFTWARE TESTING METHODOLOGIES (Computer Science and Engineering)

    Date: 11 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) What is Software Testing? Describe the difference between testing and debugging. 8M b) List and explain the phases in a tester’s mental life. 7M 2. a) What are various categories in structural bugs? Explain the same with example. 8M b) Describe the various Interface, integration, and system bugs in testing.

    7M

    Unit-II

    3. a) Describe Transaction. Give Transaction steps and flow diagram for online information retrieval System.

    10M

    b) Discuss ADUP data flow testing strategies based on program’s control flow graph. 5M 4. a) Describe Domain. Give schematic representation of domain testing. 8M b) List all and explain any two important properties of nice domains.

    7M

    Unit-III

    5. a) Draw the Decision table for the triangle program, for the below condition and output. Input: 1

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3419

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    MICROPROCESSORS AND MICROCONTROLLERS

    (Common to Information Technology & Electronics and Communication Engineering)

    Date: 11 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) With reference to 8086 CPU, explain the role of the following: i. Instruction queue ii. Segment registers iii. General purpose registers

    10M

    b) Write and explain with relevant timing diagram a memory read operation.

    5M

    2. a) Explain the significance of the following pins of 8086: i. ALE ii. MN/MX iii. LOCK iv. TEST

    8M

    b) Identify the addressing mode of the following Instructions and explain: i. MOV WORD PTR [SI],20H ii. MOV ES:[1000H],10H iii. MOV CX,NUM[BX+DI] iv. MOV AX,DS:[BX+SI+1000H]

    7M

    Unit-II 3. a) Differentiate the following instructions:

    i. MOV AX, DS:35H & MOV AX, 35H ii. AND & TEST iii. SHIFT & ROTATE

    7M

    b) Write a program to generate 100ms delay using 8086 microprocessor operating at 10MHz frequency.

    8M

    4. a) Interface two 16KB RAM chips and two 32KB ROM chips to 8086 microprocessor. Select RAM and ROM addresses suitably.

    8M

    b) Write an ALP to perform the following using string instructions: i. Reverse a string ii. Check for palindrome

    7M

    Unit-III

    5. a) Use DOS Interrupt function-02 to display string on the screen. 7M b) Explain the following DOS Interrupt Functions for INT 21H instruction:

    i. Function - 01H ii. Function – 02H iii. Function – 4CH iv. Function – 09H

    8M

    6. a) With internal Architecture, explain the operations of 8259 Priority Interrupt Controller 8M b) Explain Max-232 and RS-232 Serial Communication data standard 7M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit-IV

    7. a) With example explain various addressing modes of 8051 microcontroller Instructions. 7M b) Explain the function of following 8051 Pins:

    i. RESET ii. INT0’ iii. XTAL1 & XTAL2 iv. ALE

    8M

    8. a) Explain different modes of operation of timers of 8051 microcontroller. 8M b) Write ALP to toggle P1.5 pin continuously for every 50 msec. Use Timer-0, mode-1 to

    create delay. Assume XTAL = 11.0592Mhz.

    7M

    Unit-V

    9. a) Interface 8051 Microcontroller with stepper motor and develop an assembly program to rotate stepper motor 180 degrees in anticlockwise direction. Assume motor step angle as 1.8 degree per step.

    7M

    b) Interface DAC 0808 to 8051 microcontroller at port P1 and develop an assembly language program to generate sine wave.

    8M

    10. a) Interface a 2 digit seven segment LED display to 8051 microcontroller and develop assembly language program to display down counter from 99-00.

    7M

    b) Explain the salient features of an ADC. What are the signals of importance while interfacing ADC to an 8051 microcontroller?

    8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3508

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    COMPUTER ORGANIZATION AND ARCHITECTURE (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

    Date: 11 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) Explain how the performance of a computer can be measured. What are the measures

    to be taken to improve the performance of a computer?

    7M

    b) With a neat diagram briefly explain error detection with odd parity bit, by highlighting

    the importance of parity generator and parity checker.

    8M

    2. a) Describe a 4-bit combinational circuit incrementor with a neat diagram. 7M

    b) Let A=1010, B=1100. Perform the following operation between A and B.

    i. Selectively set the LSB ii. Selectively compliment the MSB iii. Selectively clear the LSB iv. Mask

    8M

    Unit-II

    3. a) Bring out the differences between direct and indirect address instruction. How many references are needed for each type of instructions to bring an operand into a processor register?

    7M

    b) Represent X= (A+B)*(C+D) in 3-address, 2-address, 1-address and zero address instruction format.

    8M

    4. a) Briefly explain the organization of stack in the computer memory with a neat sketch. 7M b) Mention the different phases of an instruction cycle. Illustrate the register transfer for

    the fetch phase with a neat diagram.

    8M

    Unit-III

    5. a) Explain microinstruction format for control memory with proper diagram. 8M b) Define micro operation. A computer has 16 registers. An ALU with 32 operations and

    shifter with 8 operations, all connected to a common bus system. i. Formulate a control word for micro operation ii. Specify the number of bits in each of the control word and give general encoding

    scheme.

    iii. Show the bits of control word that specify the micro operation 4 5 6

    R R R

    7M

    6. a) Define and explain BCD adder with neat diagram. 8M b) Show the content of registers E, A, Q and SC during the process of multiplication of

    11111 and 10101. The signs are not included.

    7M

    Unit-IV

    7. a) Discuss schematically, representation of virtual-memory address-translation method based on the concept of fixed-length pages.

    8M

    b) With a neat diagram explain Set-associative-mapped cache with two blocks per set cache mapping function.

    7M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    8. a) Explain any non-volatile memory. 7M b) Suppose that a computer has a processor with two L1 caches, one for instructions and

    one for data, and an L2 cache. Let τ be the access time for the two L1 caches. The miss penalties are approximately 15τ for transferring a block from L2 to L1, and 100τ for transferring a block from the main memory to L2. For the purpose of this problem, assume that the hit rates are the same for instructions and data and that the hit rates in the L1 and L2 caches are 0.96 and 0.80, respectively: i. What fraction of accesses miss in both the L1 and L2 caches, thus requiring access

    to the main memory ii. What is the average access time as seen by the processor iii. Suppose that the L2 cache has an ideal hit rate of 1. By what factor would this

    reduce the average memory access time as seen by the processor iv. Consider the following change to the memory hierarchy. The L2 cache is removed

    and the size of the L1 caches is increased so that their miss rate is cut in half. What is the average memory access time as seen by the processor in this case

    8M

    Unit-V

    9. a) Discuss hypercube interconnection structure. 7M b) Explain parallel bus arbitration technique with neat diagram.

    8M

    10. a) Describe the following terminologies associated with multiprocessors: i. Mutual exclusion ii. Hardware clock iii. Synchronization iv. Critical section v. Semaphore

    5M

    b) Discuss various Dynamic Arbitration algorithms. 10M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3319

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    DYNAMICS OF MACHINERY (Mechanical Engineering)

    Date: 11 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I 1. a) Explain the stability of a four wheeler automobile and derive the necessary condition for

    stability. 7M

    b) The rotor of the turbine of a ship has a mass of 2500kg and rotates at a speed of 3200rpm counterclockwise when viewed from stern. The rotor has radius of gyration of 0.4m. Determine the gyroscopic couple and its effect when:

    i. The ship steers to the left in a curve of 80m radius at a speed of 15 knot ( 1knot =1860m/h)

    ii. The ship pitches 5 degrees above and 5 degree below the normal position and the bow is descending with its maximum velocity –the pitching motion is simple harmonic with a periodic time of 40 seconds

    8M

    2. a) Derive an expression of total friction torque in a flat collar bearing subjected to uniform pressure and uniform wear.

    7M

    b) A Flat foot step bearing 300mm in diameter supports a load of 10KN. If the coefficient of friction is 0.1 and speed of the shaft is 60rpm, find the power lost in friction, assuming: i. Uniform pressure ii. Uniform wear

    8M

    Unit-II 3. a) Explain the working principle of centrifugal clutch. 7M b) A centrifugal clutch consist of four shoes each having a mass of 1.5kg. in the engaged

    position, the radius to the center of gravity of each shoe is 110 mm, while the inner radius of the drum is 140mm. The coefficient of friction is 0.3.the preload in the spring is adjusted in such a way that the spring force at the beginning of engagement is 700N. The running speed is 1440rpm. Calculate: i. The speed at which the engagement begins ii. The power transmitted by the clutch at 1440rpm

    8M

    4. a) What are various types of brakes? Describe briefly. 6M

    b) A differential band brake has a drum with a diameter of 800mm. The two ends of the

    band are fixed to the pins on the opposite sides of the fulcrum of the lever at distances

    of 40mm and 200mm from the fulcrum. The angle of contact is 270° and the coefficient

    of friction is 0.2. Determine the brake torque when a force of 600N is applied to the

    lever at a distance of 800mm from the fulcrum.

    9M

    Unit-III 5. a) Prove that for flywheel coefficient of fluctuation of speed K=e/2E, where e= Maximum

    fluctuation of energy, E=mean kinetic energy. 5M

    b) The turning moment diagram of a four stroke engine is assumed to be represented by four triangles the area of which from the line of zero pressure are suction stroke=440mm2, Compression stroke=1600 mm2, Expansion stroke=7200mm2, Exhaust stroke =660 mm2 each mm2 of area represents 3N-m of energy. If the resistance torque is uniform, Determine the mass of the rim of a flywheel to keep the speed between 218 and 222 rpm when the mean radius of the rim is to be 1.25m

    10M

    Cont…2

  • ::2::

    6. a) Explain:

    i. Sensitiveness ii. Isochronous governors

    4M

    b) Each arm of a porter governor is 250mm long. The upper and lower arms are pivoted to links of 40mm and 50mm respectively from the axis of rotation. Each ball has a mass of 5kg and the sleeve mass is 50kg. The force of friction on the sleeve of the mechanism is 40N. Determine the range of speed of the governor for extreme radii of rotation of 125mm and 150mm.

    11M

    Unit-IV 7. a) Differentiate static balancing and dynamic balancing. 4M

    b) A shaft carries four masses in parallel planes A, B, C and D in this order along its length. The masses at B and C are 18kg and 12.5kg respectively, and each has an eccentricity of 60 mm. The masses at A and D have an eccentricity of 80 mm. The angle between the masses at B and C is 100° and that between the masses at B and A is 190°, both being measured in the same direction. The axial distance between the planes A and B is 100mm and that between B and C is 200 mm. If the shaft is in complete dynamic balance, determine : i. The magnitude of the masses at A and D ii. The distance between planes A and D iii. The angular position of the mass at D

    11M

    8. a) Explain the terms primary balancing and secondary balancing as used for balancing of

    reciprocating masses.

    4M

    b) A five cylinder in-line engine running at 750r.p.m. has successive cranks 144° apart, the distance between the cylinder centre lines being 375 mm. The piston stroke is 225mm and the ratio of the connecting rod to the crank is 4. Examine the engine for balance of primary and secondary forces and couples. Find the maximum values of these and the position of the central crank at which these maximum values occur. The reciprocating mass for each cylinder is 15kg.

    11M

    Unit-V 9. a) Explain:

    i. Over Damping ii. Critical damping iii. Under damping

    6M

    b) A machine mounted on a springs and fitted with a dash pot has a mass of 60kg.There are three springs, each of stiffness 12N/mm. The amplitude of vibrations reduces from 45 to 8mm in two complete oscillations. Assume that the damping force varies as the velocity. Determine: i. Damping coefficient ii. Ratio of frequencies of damped and un-damped vibrations iii. Periodic time of damped vibrations

    9M

    10. a) What do you mean by whirling of shaft? Explain. 6M

    b) The following data relate to a shaft held in long bearings.

    Length of shaft = 1.2m ,diameter of shaft = 14m, mass of a rotor at midpoint = 16kg

    Eccentricity of centre of mass of rotor from centre of rotor = 0.4mm, modulus of elasticity

    of shaft material = 200GN/m2, permissible stress in shaft material =70x106N/m2.

    Determine the critical speed of the shaft and the range of speed over which it is unsafe to

    run the shaft. Assume the shaft to be mass less.

    9M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1115

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019

    (Regulations: VCE-R11/11A)

    GEO TECHNICAL ENGINEERING-I (Civil Engineering)

    Date: 11 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) With the help of phase diagram, enumerate dry soil, partially saturated soil and

    saturated soil.

    7M

    b) The following refer to a liquid limit test of a soil sample, whose plastic limit is 20 %

    Number of blows 12 18 22 34

    Water content (%) 56 52 50 45

    i. Plot flow curve and obtain liquid limit, plasticity index, flow index and toughness index

    ii. Classify the soil sample as per IS

    8M

    2. a) Enumerate the significance of Atterberg’s indices. 7M

    b) 500 g of dry soil sample was subjected to a sieve analysis. The mass of soil retained on

    each sieve is as follows. Plot the Grain Size Distribution curve and determine the

    following:

    Sieve size (mm) 4.75 2 1 0.425 0.212 0.15 0.075

    Mass of soil (g) 10 165 100 85 60 30 50

    i. Percentages of gravel, sand and silt-clay fraction in the soil sample ii. Gradation of the soil sample as per IS: 1498-1970

    8M

    Unit-II

    3. a) If during a falling head permeameter test on a soil sample, equal time intervals are noted for drops of head from h1 to h2 and again from h2 to h3. Find the relationship between h1, h2 and h3.

    7M

    b) In a falling head permeability test, the length and cross section area of soil specimen are 0.17 m and 21.8 10-4 m2 respectively. Calculate the time required for the head to drop

    from 0.25 m to 0.10 m. The cross sectional area of stand pipe is 2 10-4 m2. The sample

    has three layers with permeability’s 3 10-5 m/s for first 0.06m, 4 10-5 m/s for second

    0.06m and 6 10-5 m/s for the third 0.05 m thickness. Assume flow is takes place

    perpendicular to the bedding plane.

    8M

    4. a) Explain the factors affecting the permeability of soil. 7M b) The depth of water table in a well is 3m below the ground level. Below the bottom of

    the well lies a layer of sand 5 m thick over a clay deposit. The specific gravity of the soil solids of sand and clay are 2.64 and 2.70 respectively. Their water contents are 25 % and 20 % respectively. Compute and draw the total pressure, pore water pressure and effective pressure distribution diagram at 3 m and 7 m below the bottom of the well.

    8M

    Unit-III

    5. a) Find the time required for 50% consolidation in a soil stratum, 9.0 m thick with a pervious strata on top and bottom. Also determine the co-efficient of consolidation given that k =10-9 m/sec, e0 =1.5, av=0.003m

    2/KN, Time factor = 0.2.

    8M

    b) Explain the determination of pre-consolidation pressure by e-log p curve method.

    7M

    Cont…2

  • ::2::

    6. a) Enumerate square root time and logarithm time fitting method to determining

    coefficient of consolidation. 8M

    b) A consolidation test was performed on a 25mm thick undisturbed clay sample. 50 % consolidation occurred in 5 minutes. The sample was drained both at the top and at the bottom. In the field, the clay layer is 2 m thick and is underlain by an impervious rock. Drainage is possible only at the top surface. Determine the coefficient of consolidation and time in days for 50% and 90 % consolidation to takes place in the field deposit.

    7M

    Unit-IV

    7. a) Explain the construction of Newmark's influence chart for vertical stress distribution 7M b) A footing of size 4m x 4m carries a uniformly distributed load of 150kN/m2. Compute

    vertical pressure by equivalent point load method at a depth of 6m below the centre of the footing.

    8M

    8. a) Bring out the differences between Boussinesq’s and Westergaard’s theory of stress distribution.

    7M

    b) The plan of a three legged tower forms an equilateral triangle of side 4m. If the total weight of the tower is 450kN and is equally carried by all the legs, compute the vertical stress increase caused in the soil by the tower at a depth of 4m directly below one of the leg.

    8M

    Unit-V

    9. a) Enumerate Mohr-Coulomb theory of shear strength? Draw the failure envelopes for =0, C=0, C- soils.

    7M

    b) A specimen of clean, dry, cohesionless sand is tested in shear box and the soil failed at a shear stress of 40kN/m2 when the normal stress on the specimen was 50kN/m2. Determine: i. The angle of shearing resistance ii. The principal stress during the failure

    8M

    10. a) Explain briefly how triaxial shear tests are classified based on drainage conditions. 7M b) An unconfined compression test was done on a saturated clay specimen of diameter

    40mm and height 80mm. The failure load was 400N and the axial deformation then was 7mm. Find the unconfined strength of soil? When an identical specimen of the same soil was tested in a tri-axial compression at a chamber pressure of 100kN/m2, the sample failed at a deviator stress of 390kN/m2. Determine the shear strength parameters.

    8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2116

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    GEO TECHNICAL ENGINEERING-I (Civil Engineering)

    Date: 11 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) With the help of phase diagram, enumerate dry soil, partially saturated soil and

    saturated soil.

    7M

    b) The following refer to a liquid limit test of a soil sample, whose plastic limit is 20 %

    Number of blows 12 18 22 34

    Water content (%) 56 52 50 45

    i. Plot flow curve and obtain liquid limit, plasticity index, flow index and toughness index

    ii. Classify the soil sample as per IS

    8M

    2. a) Enumerate the significance of Atterberg’s indices. 7M

    b) 500 g of dry soil sample was subjected to a sieve analysis. The mass of soil retained on

    each sieve is as follows. Plot the Grain Size Distribution curve and determine the

    following:

    Sieve size (mm) 4.75 2 1 0.425 0.212 0.15 0.075

    Mass of soil (g) 10 165 100 85 60 30 50

    i. Percentages of gravel, sand and silt-clay fraction in the soil sample ii. Gradation of the soil sample as per IS: 1498-1970

    8M

    Unit-II

    3. a) If during a falling head permeameter test on a soil sample, equal time intervals are noted for drops of head from h1 to h2 and again from h2 to h3. Find the relationship between h1, h2 and h3.

    7M

    b) In a falling head permeability test, the length and cross section area of soil specimen are 0.17 m and 21.8 10-4 m2 respectively. Calculate the time required for the head to drop

    from 0.25 m to 0.10 m. The cross sectional area of stand pipe is 2 10-4 m2. The sample

    has three layers with permeability’s 3 10-5 m/s for first 0.06m, 4 10-5 m/s for second

    0.06m and 6 10-5 m/s for the third 0.05 m thickness. Assume flow is takes place

    perpendicular to the bedding plane.

    8M

    4. a) Explain the factors affecting the permeability of soil. 7M b) The depth of water table in a well is 3m below the ground level. Below the bottom of

    the well lies a layer of sand 5 m thick over a clay deposit. The specific gravity of the soil solids of sand and clay are 2.64 and 2.70 respectively. Their water contents are 25 % and 20 % respectively. Compute and draw the total pressure, pore water pressure and effective pressure distribution diagram at 3 m and 7 m below the bottom of the well.

    8M

    Unit-III

    5. a) Explain the construction of Newmark's influence chart for vertical stress distribution 7M b) A footing of size 4m x 4m carries a uniformly distributed load of 150kN/m2. Compute

    vertical pressure by equivalent point load method at a depth of 6m below the centre of the footing.

    8M

    Cont...2

  • ::2::

    6. a) Bring out the differences between Boussinesq’s and Westergaard’s theory of stress distribution.

    7M

    b) The plan of a three legged tower forms an equilateral triangle of side 4m. If the total weight of the tower is 450kN and is equally carried by all the legs, compute the vertical stress increase caused in the soil by the tower at a depth of 4m directly below one of the leg.

    8M

    Unit-IV

    7. a) Find the time required for 50% consolidation in a soil stratum, 9.0 m thick with a pervious strata on top and bottom. Also determine the co-efficient of consolidation given that k =10-9 m/sec, e0 =1.5, av=0.003m

    2/KN, Time factor = 0.2.

    8M

    b) Explain the determination of pre-consolidation pressure by e-log p curve method.

    7M

    8. a) Enumerate square root time and logarithm time fitting method to determining coefficient of consolidation.

    8M

    b) A consolidation test was performed on a 25mm thick undisturbed clay sample. 50 % consolidation occurred in 5 minutes. The sample was drained both at the top and at the bottom. In the field, the clay layer is 2 m thick and is underlain by an impervious rock. Drainage is possible only at the top surface. Determine the coefficient of consolidation and time in days for 50% and 90 % consolidation to takes place in the field deposit.

    7M

    Unit-V

    9. a) Enumerate Mohr-Coulomb theory of shear strength? Draw the failure envelopes for =0, C=0, C- soils.

    7M

    b) A specimen of clean, dry, cohesionless sand is tested in shear box and the soil failed at a shear stress of 40kN/m2 when the normal stress on the specimen was 50kN/m2. Determine: i. The angle of shearing resistance ii. The principal stress during the failure

    8M

    10. a) Explain briefly how triaxial shear tests are classified based on drainage conditions. 7M b) An unconfined compression test was done on a saturated clay specimen of diameter

    40mm and height 80mm. The failure load was 400N and the axial deformation then was 7mm. Find the unconfined strength of soil? When an identical specimen of the same soil was tested in a tri-axial compression at a chamber pressure of 100kN/m2, the sample failed at a deviator stress of 390kN/m2. Determine the shear strength parameters.

    8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3117

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019

    (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    GEO TECHNICAL ENGINEERING-I (Civil Engineering)

    Date: 11 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) With the help of phase diagram, enumerate dry soil, partially saturated soil and

    saturated soil.

    7M

    b) The following refer to a liquid limit test of a soil sample, whose plastic limit is 20 %

    Number of blows 12 18 22 34

    Water content (%) 56 52 50 45

    i. Plot flow curve and obtain liquid limit, plasticity index, flow index and toughness index

    ii. Classify the soil sample as per IS

    8M

    2. a) Enumerate the significance of Atterberg’s indices. 7M

    b) 500 g of dry soil sample was subjected to a sieve analysis. The mass of soil retained on

    each sieve is as follows. Plot the Grain Size Distribution curve and determine the

    following:

    Sieve size (mm) 4.75 2 1 0.425 0.212 0.15 0.075

    Mass of soil (g) 10 165 100 85 60 30 50

    i. Percentages of gravel, sand and silt-clay fraction in the soil sample ii. Gradation of the soil sample as per IS: 1498-1970

    8M

    Unit-II

    3. a) If during a falling head permeameter test on a soil sample, equal time intervals are noted for drops of head from h1 to h2 and again from h2 to h3. Find the relationship between h1, h2 and h3.

    7M

    b) In a falling head permeability test, the length and cross section area of soil specimen are 0.17 m and 21.8 10-4 m2 respectively. Calculate the time required for the head to drop

    from 0.25 m to 0.10 m. The cross sectional area of stand pipe is 2 10-4 m2. The sample

    has three layers with permeability’s 3 10-5 m/s for first 0.06m, 4 10-5 m/s for second

    0.06m and 6 10-5 m/s for the third 0.05 m thickness. Assume flow is takes place

    perpendicular to the bedding plane.

    8M

    4. a) Explain the factors affecting the permeability of soil. 7M b) The depth of water table in a well is 3m below the ground level. Below the bottom of

    the well lies a layer of sand 5 m thick over a clay deposit. The specific gravity of the soil solids of sand and clay are 2.64 and 2.70 respectively. Their water contents are 25 % and 20 % respectively. Compute and draw the total pressure, pore water pressure and effective pressure distribution diagram at 3 m and 7 m below the bottom of the well.

    8M

    Unit-III

    5. a) Explain the construction of Newmark's influence chart for vertical stress distribution 7M b) A footing of size 4m x 4m carries a uniformly distributed load of 150kN/m2. Compute

    vertical pressure by equivalent point load method at a depth of 6m below the centre of the footing.

    8M

    Cont...2

  • ::2::

    6. a) Bring out the differences between Boussinesq’s and Westergaard’s theory of stress

    distribution. 7M

    b) The plan of a three legged tower forms an equilateral triangle of side 4m. If the total weight of the tower is 450kN and is equally carried by all the legs, compute the vertical stress increase caused in the soil by the tower at a depth of 4m directly below one of the leg.

    8M

    Unit-IV

    7. a) Find the time required for 50% consolidation in a soil stratum, 9.0 m thick with a pervious strata on top and bottom. Also determine the co-efficient of consolidation given that k =10-9 m/sec, e0 =1.5, av=0.003m

    2/KN, Time factor = 0.2.

    8M

    b) Explain the determination of pre-consolidation pressure by e-log p curve method.

    7M

    8. a) Enumerate square root time and logarithm time fitting method to determining coefficient of consolidation.

    8M

    b) A consolidation test was performed on a 25mm thick undisturbed clay sample. 50 % consolidation occurred in 5 minutes. The sample was drained both at the top and at the bottom. In the field, the clay layer is 2 m thick and is underlain by an impervious rock. Drainage is possible only at the top surface. Determine the coefficient of consolidation and time in days for 50% and 90 % consolidation to takes place in the field deposit.

    7M

    Unit-V

    9. a) Enumerate Mohr-Coulomb theory of shear strength? Draw the failure envelopes for =0, C=0, C- soils.

    7M

    b) A specimen of clean, dry, cohesionless sand is tested in shear box and the soil failed at a shear stress of 40kN/m2 when the normal stress on the specimen was 50kN/m2. Determine: i. The angle of shearing resistance ii. The principal stress during the failure

    8M

    10. a) Explain briefly how triaxial shear tests are classified based on drainage conditions. 7M b) An unconfined compression test was done on a saturated clay specimen of diameter

    40mm and height 80mm. The failure load was 400N and the axial deformation then was 7mm. Find the unconfined strength of soil? When an identical specimen of the same soil was tested in a tri-axial compression at a chamber pressure of 100kN/m2, the sample failed at a deviator stress of 390kN/m2. Determine the shear strength parameters.

    8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3520

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    COMPILER DESIGN

    (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

    Date: 14 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) Write the concept of Bootstrapping of compiler. 5M b) What is the structure of LEX program? Write LEX program that accepts the keywords:

    “begin, if, else” and identifier: “abc”. 10M

    2. a) Compute FIRST and FOLLOW for the following grammar S→A, A→aB│Ad B→bBC│ f C→g.

    5M

    b) Concstruct predictive parsing table for the following grammar and verify the string (a, a) is accepting or not S→(L)│a L→L, S│S

    10M

    Unit-II

    3. a) Discuss the merits of LR parsing. 4M b) Construct LR(0) automata and SLR(1) parsing table for the following grammar. Also

    show the moves made by the parser for the input string: “aabb” SAA A->aA/b

    11M

    4. a) Explain the need of closure and goto operations. 5M b) Write the complete algorithm for the construction of canonical LR parsing table.

    10M

    Unit-III

    5. a) How can SDD used to generate code for Boolean expressions and flow of control statements?

    6M

    b) Write the quadruple, triple and indirect triple for the following expression. -(a+b)*(c+d)+(a+b+c)

    9M

    6. a) Write syntax directed definition for simple desk calculator. Using this definition draw annotated parse tree for 3*5+4n.

    8M

    b) Generate Three address code for the following segment code C=0 do { If (a

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit-IV

    7. a) Describe rules for Type Checking. 5M b) What is Activation record? How the activation record created for the following

    recursive code segment? Main( ) { int n; readarray( ) quicksort(1, n); } Quicksort (int m, int n) { int i=partition(m, n); quicksort (m, i- 1); quicksort (i+1, n); }

    10M

    8. a) Illustrate type-checking rule for overloaded functions with example. 8M b) Explain about static and dynamic storage allocation for any program segment.

    7M

    Unit-V

    9. a) Construct DAG for the following basic block and generate code from DAG d=b*c e=a+b b=b*c a=e-d

    5M

    b) Consider the following loop, generate three address code and draw the flow graph Begin Prod=0 i=1 do Begin Prod=Prod+a[i]*b[i] i=i+1 End While (i≤20) End

    10M

    10. a) Write about characteristics of Peephole optimization. 8M b) Generate code for the following expression and compute its cost

    X=(a+b)*(c-d)+((e/f)*(a+b)). 7M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3420

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019

    (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS AND INTEGRATED CIRCUITS (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

    Date: 14 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) Explain the general characteristics of negative feedback amplifiers 7M b) Draw the circuit of RC phase shift oscillator and explain its operation.

    8M

    2. a) Analyze the functioning of a Hartley’s oscillator. 7M b) Draw the voltage series feedback amplifier circuit and derive an expression for output

    resistance. 8M

    Unit-II

    3. a) Explain the response of high pass RC circuit for pulse input. 7M

    b) Design the diode clipping circuit to obtain the transfer curve shown in Fig.1 and explain its working. Sketch the input and output waveform for a sinusoidal input. (Assume

    V=0.7V).

    Fig.1

    8M

    4. a) Explain the response of low pass RC circuit for step voltage input. 8M

    b) Design a clamping circuit to clamp positive peak of the square wave input to +3V. Explain the working of the circuit and sketch input and output waveform. (Assume

    V=0.7V).

    7M

    Unit-III

    5. a) With the help of circuit diagram explain the operation of fixed bias bistable multivibrator.

    7M

    b) Design a collector coupled astable multivibrator to generate a square wave of frequency 1 KHz, duty cycle = 60%, given Vcc=12V, IC(max) = 2mA, hfe=30.

    8M

    6. a) With the help of neat circuit diagram explain the operation of self bias bistable multivibrator.

    8M

    b) With the help of neat circuit and waveform, explain the operation of emitter coupled monostable multivibrator.

    7M

    Unit-IV

    7. a) Define the following electrical parameters: i. Input offset voltage ii. Input resistance iii. CMRR iv. Output voltage swing v. Slew rate

    7M

    b) Obtain an expression for the output voltage of an instrumentation amplifier.

    8M

    Cont…2

  • ::2::

    8. a) Analyze the equivalent circuit of a non-inverting amplifier. 7M b) A Schmitt Trigger with upper threshold level VUT=0V and hysteresis width VH=0.2V

    converts a 1kHz sine wave of amplitude 4Vpp into a square wave. Calculate the time duration of the negative and positive portion of the output waveform.

    8M

    Unit-V

    9. a) With an appropriate block diagram, explain the working of a PLL. 8M b) If fs=100kHz, the voltage to frequency transfer coefficient of VCO, KV=2 MHz/V, fo the

    VCO frequency is 5 MHz and N=100 in the frequency multiplier. What is the dc control voltage at lock?

    7M

    10. a) With the help of neat block diagram explain the working of voltage controlled oscillator (IC566).

    7M

    b) Explain the working of Monostable multivibrator using 555 timer. 8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3320

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY-II

    (Mechanical Engineering)

    Date: 14 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) With reference to orthogonal cutting, explain the following terms: i. Rake angle ii. Cutting Speed iii. Properties of Work material iv. Friction on rake face

    8M

    b) Write Taylors tool life equation. Explain each term. State the factors affecting tool life. 7M 2. a) Discuss briefly the different types of chips with neat sketches. 8M b) Differentiate between orthogonal cutting and oblique cutting.

    7M

    Unit-II

    3. a) Discuss any four operations that can be performed in Lathe. 10M b) Describe the various methods of applying cutting fluids at the cutting zone. 5M 4. a) Enumerate with the diagram, the principal parts of Capstun and Turret lathe. 9M b) Describe the working of multi spindle automats in lathes.

    6M

    Unit-III

    5. a) Sketch and explain hydraulic mechanism used in shaper. 5M b) A cast iron plate measuring 300mmX100mmX40mm is to be rough shaped along its

    wider face. Calculate the machining time, consider approach=25mm, over travel=5mm, cutting speed=12m/min, return speed=20m/min, allowance on either side of the plate width = 5mm and feed per cycle=1mm.

    10M

    6. a) Explain nomenclature of milling cutter with a neat sketch. 5M b) List indexing methods; explain any three methods in detail.

    10M

    Unit-IV

    7. a) What is boring? Explain with a sketch. 5M b) Explain deep hole drilling machine with illustration and state its applications. 10M 8. a) List abrasives used in grinding wheel preparation and explain process of making

    grinding wheel using vitrified bond. 7M

    b) Differentiate between cylindrical and surface grinding machines with a neat sketch and its application.

    8M

    Unit-V

    9. a) Explain briefly the Grinding fixtures and Milling fixtures. 8M b) What are the different types of clamping and work holding devices? Explain them with

    neat sketches. 7M

    10. a) Describe the Horizontal continuous broaching machine with a sketch. 8M b) Explain the principle of Six point location in Jigs and fixtures. 7M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3119

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

    WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING-I (Civil Engineering)

    Date: 14 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) Enumerate the methods to determine the missing rainfall data. 7M b) A catchment has five rain gauge stations. In a year, the annual rainfall recorded by the

    gauges are 78.8cm, 90.2cm, 98.6cm, 102.4cm and 70.4cm. For a 6% error in the estimation of the mean rainfall, determine the additional number of gauge needed.

    8M

    2. a) Enumerate the factors affecting runoff. 8M

    b) The total observed runoff volume during a 6 hour storm with a uniform intensity of 1.5cm/hr is 21.6X106m3. If the area of the basin is 300km2, find the average infiltration rate of the basin.

    7M

    Unit-II

    3. a) With neat illustration explain typical hydrograph and their salient features. 7M b) The hourly coordinates of a two – hour unit hydrograph are given below. Derive a 6–hours

    unit hydrograph for the same catchment.

    Time (Hrs) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

    Discharge

    (Cumecs) 0 1 2.7 5 8 9.8 9 7.5 6.3 5 4 2.9 2.1 1.3 0.5 0

    8M

    4. a) What is unit hydrograph? Discuss its use and limitations. 7M b) The ordinates of a 3-hour Unit Hydrograph (UH) are as below. Derive the ordinates of a 6-hr

    unit hydrograph for the same basin. Also sketch this unit hydrograph.

    Time- hr 0 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24 27 30

    Ordinates of 3-hr UH

    0 10 25 20 16 12 9 7 5 3 0

    8M

    Unit-III

    5. a) Derive the discharge equation for steady radial flow to a well in unconfined aquifer. 8M b) A confined aquifer has a thickness of 40m and a permeability of 30m/day. It is known

    that the radius of influence is 500m. Determine the discharge from a completely penetrating well of diameter 50cm, when the steady state drawdown is 7.5m.

    7M

    6. a) Explain the following: i. Aquifer ii. Aquitard iii. Aquifuge iv. Aquiclude

    8M

    b) A 30cm diameter well was penetrating 25m below the static water table. After 24 hours of pumping of 5400lpm, the water level in a test well at 90m is lowered by 0.53m and in a well 30m away the drawdown is 1.11m. What is the transmissibility of the aquifer?

    7M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit-IV

    7. a) Explain the following methods of Irrigation with a neat sketch: i. Border strip method ii. Furrow method

    8M

    b) After how many days will you supply water to soil (clay loam) in order to ensure efficient irrigation of the given crop, if: i. Field capacity of soil = 27% ii. Permanent wilting point = 14% iii. Dry density of soil = 15KN/m3 iv. Effective depth of root zone = 75cm v. Daily consumptive use of water for the given crop = 11mm

    7M

    8. a) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of drip irrigation. 7M b) A water course has a culturable commanded area of 1200 hectares. The intensity of

    irrigation for crop A is 40% and for B is 35%, both the crops being Rabi crops. Crop A has a kor period of 20 days and crop B has kor period of 15 days. Calculate the discharge of the water course if the kor depth for crop A is 10cm and for B it is 16cm.

    8M

    Unit-V

    9. a) Explain the classification of canal based on alignment. 7M b) Design an irrigation channel in alluvial soil by Lacey’s silt theory, given the following

    data: Full supply discharge=15m3/sec Lacey’s silt factor, f=1.0 Channel side slopes = ½ :1.

    8M

    10. a) Describe the procedure of designing a channel with Lacey’s theory. 7M b) Design an irrigation channel to carry a discharge of 5cumec. Assume N=0.0225 and

    m=1. The channel has a bed slope of 0.2m per kilometer. 8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1514

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019

    (Regulations: VCE-R11/11A)

    UNIX PROGRAMMING (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

    Date: 14 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Explain the relationship between kernel and shell in the architecture of Unix Operating System.

    7M

    b) Discuss the importance of the following regular expression character sub set: * . [pqr] [^abc] ^pqr pqr$ [c1-c2] ^abc$

    8M

    2. a) Explain the unique features of egrep. 6M b) Explain the following commands with suitable syntax and example:

    i. head ii. sort iii. du

    9M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Write a shell script to find the biggest of 3 numbers passed on command line. If there are no appropriate number of parameters display the error.

    7M

    b) Explain the following functions with prototype: i. lseek() ii. read() iii. stat() iv. fcntl()

    8M

    4. a) Explain the following with a shell script: i. set and shift ii. test and [ ] iii. for each

    9M

    b) Write a shell script to check if all the files that are passed on command line exist and if exist whether they are readable or not. Print appropriate messages when not passed with a file name.

    6M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Illustrate and outline on file locking function in UNIX system. Elaborate on mandatory and advisory locking policies in UNIX.

    7M

    b) Describe reliable signal handling mechanism in UNIX. Write a program to handle SIGALRM signal multiple times in a given process.

    8M

    Cont…2

  • ::2::

    6. a) Name any four attributes which are duplicated and which are not duplicated in a child process.

    8M

    b) How many times fork() is called in the following code fragment? Justify your answer.

    #include #include

    int main(){ fork() && fork() || fork() && fork(); printf("forked!\n"); return 0; }

    7M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Explain the working mechanism of semaphores with a small program code. 8M b) Describe the following with prototypes:

    Semget(), semop() Msgsnd() msgrcv()

    7M

    8. a) Distinguish between pipes and fifo’s with appropriate examples. 7M b) Describe the issues involved in implementing shared memory concept. Give a

    code to demonstrate how the shared memory is used.

    8M

    Unit – V

    9. a) What are sockets? Write a program to create socket and listen on a port. 8M b) Explain the following:

    i. Connect() ii. Bind() iii. Listen()

    7M

    10. a) Describe the socket attributes and their significance. 5M b) Explain the process of establishing connection between a client and server

    process using sockets. 10M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1116

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

    WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING-I (Civil Engineering)

    Date: 14 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) Enumerate the methods to determine the missing rainfall data. 7M b) A catchment has five rain gauge stations. In a year, the annual rainfall recorded by the

    gauges are 78.8cm, 90.2cm, 98.6cm, 102.4cm and 70.4cm. For a 6% error in the estimation of the mean rainfall, determine the additional number of gauge needed.

    8M

    2. a) Enumerate the factors affecting runoff. 8M

    b) The total observed runoff volume during a 6 hour storm with a uniform intensity of 1.5cm/hr is 21.6X106m3. If the area of the basin is 300km2, find the average infiltration rate of the basin.

    7M

    Unit-II

    3. a) What is unit hydrograph? Discuss its use and limitations. 7M b) The ordinates of a 3-hour Unit Hydrograph (UH) are as below. Derive the ordinates of a 6-hr

    unit hydrograph for the same basin. Also sketch this unit hydrograph.

    Time- hr 0 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24 27 30

    Ordinates of 3-hr UH

    0 10 25 20 16 12 9 7 5 3 0

    8M

    4. a) Describe the procedure of designing a channel with Lacey’s theory. 7M b) Design an irrigation channel to carry a discharge of 5cumec. Assume N=0.0225 and m=1.

    The channel has a bed slope of 0.2m per kilometer.

    8M

    Unit-III

    5. a) Derive the discharge equation for steady radial flow to a well in unconfined aquifer. 8M b) A confined aquifer has a thickness of 40m and a permeability of 30m/day. It is known

    that the radius of influence is 500m. Determine the discharge from a completely penetrating well of diameter 50cm, when the steady state drawdown is 7.5m.

    7M

    6. a) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of drip irrigation. 7M

    b) A water course has a culturable commanded area of 1200 hectares. The intensity of irrigation for crop A is 40% and for B is 35%, both the crops being Rabi crops. Crop A has a kor period of 20 days and crop B has kor period of 15 days. Calculate the discharge of the water course if the kor depth for crop A is 10cm and for B it is 16cm.

    8M

    Unit-IV

    7. a) Define Design Flood. What are the empirical formulas for determining flood discharge. 8M b) For a given river valley project, the following results were obtained from flood

    frequency analysis using Gumbel’s method.

    Return period (Years) Peak flood (Cumecs)

    40 27000

    80 31000

    Estimate the flood magnitude with a return period of 240years.

    7M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    8. a) Explain the procedure of graphical method of flood routing. 10M b) Derive the Muskingum channel routing equation Q2 = C0 I2 + C1 I1 + C2 Q1 with usual

    notations.

    5M

    Unit-V

    9. a) How do you classify soil water? Explain. 8M b) Find the field capacity of a soil for the following: Root Zone Depth -2m; Existing water

    constant -5%; Dry density of soil-15KN/m3; Water applied to the soil -500m3; Water loss due to evaporation and percolation-10%; Area of plot-1000m2.

    7M

    10. a) Define Duty, Delta and Base Period. Establish a relationship between Duty, Delta and Base Period.

    9M

    b) The left branch canal carrying a discharge of 20 cumecs has culturable command area of 20,000 hectares. The intensity of Rabi is 80%, and base period is 120days.The right branch canal carrying discharge of 8cumecs has culturable command area of 12,000hectares,intensity of irrigation of Rabi crop is 50% and the base period is 120days.Compare the efficiencies of the two canal systems.

    6M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2418

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    INTEGRATED CIRCUITS APPLICATIONS (Common to Electronics and Communication Engineering &

    Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Date: 14 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) Draw the circuit of a Dual Input Balanced Output Differential Amplifier and obtain the expression for CMRR.

    8M

    b) Define Slew Rate of Op-Amp. A square wave of peak to peak amplitude of 500mV to

    be amplified to peak to peak amplitude of 3V, with a rise time of 4s or less. Calculate the slew rate of the Op-Amp required for this application.

    7M

    2. a) Write a note on bias current compensation in Op-Amp and obtain an expression for Rcomp.

    7M

    b) Analyze the biasing of Differential Amplifier using current mirror.

    8M

    Unit-II

    3. a) Obtain an expression for the output voltage of an Instrumentation amplifier. 7M b) Design a Schmitt trigger to obtain VUT=+3V and VLT=-2V. Assume the saturation voltage

    of the Op-Amp is 14V and R1=10K. Sketch transfer characteristic curve and the input/output waveform.

    8M

    4. a) With the help of neat circuit diagram and waveform, explain the operation of sample and hold circuit.

    7M

    b) Obtain an expression for the output voltage of a three input inverting summer. Design the inverting summer to obtain an output voltage of Vo=-(2V1+3V2+V3). Assume

    Rf=10K.

    8M

    Unit-III

    5. a) Obtain the expression for the highest cut off frequency of second order low pass filter. Design the second order high pass filter for a cut off frequency of 5KHz.

    7M

    b) Show how IC 7805 can be used as a current source and boosting output current regulator.

    8M

    6. a) Draw and explain the working of series Op-Amp regulator. 7M b) Design a first order wide band pass filter to pass the signal from 5KHz to 10KHz with a

    pass band gain of 4.

    8M

    Unit-IV

    7. a) Explain working of PLL using appropriate block diagram and explain any one application of same and list the applications of PLL.

    7M

    b) With a neat circuit diagram, discuss the construction and working of LM566.

    8M

    8. a) Mention the applications of Monostable and Astable operations. 7M b) For an Astable multivibrator with 555 timer, R1=10kΩ, R2=5kΩ, C=0.1µF calculate:

    i. Charging period ii. Discharging period iii. Frequency iv. Duty cycle

    8M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit-V

    9. a) Explain the working of successive approximation ADC. 7M b) Derive an expression for the output voltage of a 4bit R-2R DAC. What is the advantage

    of R-2R DAC over weighted resistor DAC.

    8M

    10. a) Derive an expression for the output voltage of a weighted resistor DAC. 8M b) Explain the working of dual slope ADC. 7M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2517

    VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

    III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    COMPILER DESIGN

    (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

    Date: 14 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit-I

    1. a) Write the concept of Bootstrapping of compiler. 5M b) What is the structure of LEX program? Write LEX program that accepts the keywords:

    “begin, if, else” and identifier: “abc”. 10M

    2. a) Compute FIRST and FOLLOW for the following grammar S→A, A→aB│Ad B→bBC│ f C→g.

    5M

    b) Concstruct predictive parsing table for the following grammar and verify the string (a, a) is accepting or not S→(L)│a L→L, S│S

    10M

    Unit-II

    3. a) Discuss the merits of LR parsing. 4M b) Construct LR(0) automata and SLR(1) parsing table for the following grammar. Also

    show the moves made by the parser for the input string: “aabb” SAA A->aA/b

    11M

    4. a) Explain the need of closure and goto operations. 5M b) Write the complete algorithm for the construction of canonical LR parsing table.

    10M

    Unit-III

    5. a) How can SDD used to generate code for Boolean expressions and flow of control statements?

    6M

    b) Write the quadruple, triple and indirect triple for the following expression. -(a+b)*(c+d)+(a+b+c)

    9M

    6. a) Write syntax directed definition for simple desk calculator. Using this definition draw annotated parse tree for 3*5+4n.

    8M

    b) Generate Three address code for the following segment code C=0 do { If (a

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit-IV

    7. a) Describe rules for Type Checking. 5M b) What is Activation r