NBDE -1 MOCK EXAM TEST 1TIME 9.00 AM TILL 12.00 PM INDIAN TIME 2706-2014CONTAINS 200 QUESTIONSANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS Dr. ARAVINDHAN KARUNAKARANREADER AND HEAD OF THE DEPARTMENTASAN MEMORIAL DENTAL COLLEGE AND HOSPITALBEST OF LUCK______________________________________________________________________________

1, Optic nerve is considered to be a part of the central nervous system because,A, It is derived from out-pouching of the Diencephalon during embryogenesis.B, Its fibers are covered with Oligo-dendrocytes rather than Schwann cells.C, They are encased with in the meninges.D, Guillain-Barr syndromedo not affect the optic nerve.E, All of the above

2, Damage to theoptic tractposteriorto the chiasm causes loss of vision in the visual fieldA, on the side opposite to the damageB, on the same side of the damageC, does not have any effect upon visionD, on both sidesE, none of the above

3, the most common injuries to the optic nerve is/are fromA, GlaucomaB, optic neuritisC, anterior ischemic optic neuropathy D, all of the aboveE, none of the above

4, The motor division of the trigeminal nerve is derived fromA, thebasal plateof theembryonicponsB, thecranial neural crestC, both of the aboveD, none of the aboveE, rathkes pouch

5, In Wallenberg syndrome, a stroke causesA, loss of pain/temperature sensation fromoneside of the face and thesameside of the bodyB, loss of pain/temperature sensation fromoneside of the face and theotherside of the bodyC, loss of pain/temperature sensation frombothsides of the faceD, loss of pain/temperature sensation frombothsides of the bodyE, loss of motor innervation frombothsides of the face

6, 95% of the brains blood supply goes to theA, grey matterB, white matterC, A and B togetherD, ponsE, cerebellum

7, tidal volume in a normal healthy adultA, 500 mlB, 750 mlC, 1500 mlD, 250 mlE, 150 ml

8, Vibrio choleraeis aA,Gram positive facultative anaerobic organismB, Gram-negativefacultative anaerobic organismC, Gram negative aerobic organismD, Gram positive obligatory anaerobic organismE, Gram positive diplo-cocci organism

9, the type of flagellum shown in the picture marked B and C below are

A, monotrichous and peritrichous respectivelyB, lophotrichous and peritrichous respectivelyC, amphitrichous and peritrichous respectivelyD, lophotrichous and amphitrichous respectivelyE, monotrichous and phimotrichous respectively

10, Thesternocleidomastoid muscle is supplied byA, Occipital arteryand thesuperior thyroid arteryB, Occipital arteryand themiddle thyroid arteryC, Occipital arteryand theinferior thyroid arteryD, sternocleidoid arteryand thesuperior thyroid arteryE, none of the above

11, Theaccessory nerveis acranial nervethat controlsA, platysma and sternocleidomastoid musclesB, sternocleidomastoidandtrapezius musclesC, platysma and trapezius musclesD, platysma, trapezius and sternocleidomastoid musclesE, inferior belly of digastric and trapezius muscles

12, Theabducens nerveA, is asomaticafferent nerveB, is asomaticefferent nerveC, is avisceralefferent nerveD, is avisceralafferent nerveE, is asomatic and visceralefferent nerve

13, The hypoglossal canalis located inA, sphenoid boneB, temporal boneC, junction of temporal and occipital boneD, occipital boneE, ethmoid bone

14, the foramen magnum transmits all of the below exceptA, vertebral arteriesB, anteriorspinal arteryC, middle spinal arteryD, superior spinal artery E, membrana tectoria

15, Which is also known as the "check ligament of the odontoid."A, Thealar ligamentsB, The occipital ligamentsC, The odontoid ligamentsD, The check ligament of atlasE, Planar bi-occipital ligaments

16, Sharpey's fibersA, are part of the outer fibrous layer of periosteumB, are part of the inner cellular layer of periosteumC, are part of both the inner and outer layers of periosteumD, are part of the attaching muscles E, are mainly composed of elastic fibers

17, A large cell with multiple nuclei, a "foamy" cytosol and associated with Howships lacuna shown in the picture below is a

A, osteoblastB, macrophageC, osteoclastD, fibroblastE, giant cell seen in tuberculous granuloma

18, Regarding hepatitis D virus1. RNA virus2. it can propagate only in the presence of thehepatitis B virus3. The vaccine for hepatitis B will not give protection against hepatitis D virus4. DNA virus5. It can replicate independently inside the host cellA, all the above statements are trueB, the first 3 statements are trueC, the first 2 statements are trueD, only statements 4 and 5 are trueE, the last 4 statements are true

19, Regarding the following statements about interferon,1. The interferon- proteins are produced byleukocytes2. The interferon- proteins are produced in large quantities byfibroblasts3. Limitin is a type of interferon4. The IFN- proteins are involved in immunity against viral infections5. The interferon- proteins have anti-viral propertyA, all the above statements are trueB, the first 3 statements are trueC, the first 2 statements are trueD, only statements 4 and 5 are trueE, the first 4 statements are true

20, the lesions in the below picture are characteristic of

A, lichen planusB, erythema multiformaeC, epidermolysis bullosaD, psoriasisE, pemphigoid

21, Gelatin is a derivative ofA, keratinB, vimentinC, collagenD, vitamin KE, glycogen

22, Proline1. is an -amino acid2. It is not anessential amino acid3. the amine nitrogen is bound to one alkyl group4. isbiosyntheticallyderived from the amino acidL-glutamate5. it is asecondary amine

A, all the above statements are trueB, the first 3 statements are trueC, the first 2 statements are trueD, only statement 3 is falseE, the last 4 statements are true

23, Which of these amino acids is not aliphaticA, AlanineB, ValineC, LeucineD, IsoleucineE, Tyrosine

24, which is a precursor of the neurotransmitterserotoninA, AlanineB, ValineC, LeucineD, TryptophanE, Tyrosine

25, Mastocytosis indicatesA, increase in the number of mast cellsB, increase in the size of breastsC, acute infection and abcess formation of breastsD, abnormal enlargement of mastoid processE, pathological apoptosis of mast cells

26, The mast cell is very similar in both appearance and function to theA, basophilB, neutrophilC, monocyteD, T- lymphocyteE, osteoclast

27, This Giemsa-stained peripheralblood smearshows blue colored ________ surrounded byred blood cells

A, mast cellsB, plateletsC, basophilsD, monocytesE, neutrophils

28, which muscle is shown in this picture with a pointer?

A, lateral pterygoidB, medial pterygoidC, masseterD, superior belly of the digastricE, buccinators

29, the features shown in the picture is that of

A, maxillary right first premolarB, maxillary left first premolarC, maxillary right second premolarD, maxillary left secondpremolarE, mandibular right first premolar

30, which of the following symptoms are associated with thrombophlebitis A, pain in the part of the body affectedB, skin redness or inflammationC, palpable cord-like veinsD, all of the aboveE, none of the above

31, regarding Pannus1. is an abnormal layer of fibrovascular tissue orgranulation tissue2. In people suffering fromrheumatoid arthritis,pannus tissueeventually forms in thejointaffected by the disease3. Common sites for pannus formation include over the cornea, over a joint surface or on aprosthetic heart valve.4. It can induce normal bone formation A, all the above statements are trueB, only the first statement is trueC, the first 2 statements are trueD, only statement 3 is falseE, the last statement is false

32, the Hyoid boneA, lies at the level of the base of themandiblein the front and the secondcervical vertebra behind.B, lies at the level of the base of themandiblein the front and the thirdcervical vertebra behind.C, lies at the level of the base of themandiblein the front and the second and thirdcervical vertebrabehind.D, lies at the level of the mid-ramus of themandiblein the front and the thirdcervical vertebrabehind.E, lies at the level of the base of themandiblein the front and the thirdand fourth cervical vertebrabehind.

33, the Hyoglossus muscleA, origins from hyoid, inserts to the side of the tongue and depresses and retracts the tongueB, origins from hyoid, inserts to the floor of the tongue and depresses the tongueC, origins from hyoid, inserts to the tip and base of the tongue and depresses and retracts the tongueD, origins from hyoid, inserts to the side of the tongue and elevates and retracts the tongueE, origins from hyoid, inserts to the side of the tongue and protrudes the tongue

34, The sublingual salivary glands appear firstA, in the sixth week of prenatal developmentB, in the eighth week of prenatal developmentC, in the seventh week of prenatal developmentD, in the tenth week of prenatal developmentE, in the third month of prenatal development

35, Crescents of Gianuzzi are related toA, lacrimal glandsB, salivary glandsC, Brunner glandsD, pancreasE, islets of Langerhans

36, TheABO blood group systemis determined byA, what type of glucuronyltransferases are expressed in the bodyB, what type of aminotransferases are expressed in the bodyC, what type of glucosyltransferases are expressed in the bodyD, what type of carboxytransferases are expressed in the bodyE, what type of aldotransferases are expressed in the body

37, the methyl donor used by the DNA methyltransferasesA, ALPHA-adenosyl methionineB, S-phosphatyll methionineC, C-adenosyl methionineD, S-adenosyl methionineE, S-adenosyl cystine

38, Intercalated discsare microscopic identifying features ofA, cardiac muscleB, skeletal muscleC, cortical boneD, liverE, gall bladder

39, The most common type of melanin isA, yucromelaninB, phytomelaninC, neuromelaninD, pheomelaninE, eumelanin

40, first branch of AortaA, posterior coronary arteryB, anterior coronary arteryC, right and left coronary arteriesD, carotid arteryE, middle coronary artery

41, Regarding coronary sinus1, is a collection ofveinsjoined together to form a large vessel2, collects blood from theheart muscle3, It delivers oxygenated blood to theright atrium4, Theanterior cardiac veins drain into the coronary sinus5, The coronary sinus orifice is guarded by theThebesian valve.A, all statements are trueB, 3 and 4 are falseC, 3, 4 and 5 are falseD, only 2 is trueE, only 3 is false

42, The normal tricuspid valve usually has A, three leaflets and threepapillary musclesB, three leaflets and twopapillary musclesC, three leaflets and fourpapillary musclesD, two leaflets and threepapillary musclesE, three leaflets and fivepapillary muscles

43, Destruction to the olfactory bulbA, results in bilateralanosmia.B, results in ipsilateralanosmia.C, results in contralateralanosmia.D, results in destruction of olfactory cortexE, A and D

44, neurogenesishas been found to occur in the adult mammalian brain inA, subventricular zoneB, dentate gyrusof thehippocampusC, amygdalaD, all of the aboveE, A and B

45, regarding Rhodopsin1. also known asvisual purple2. belong to theG-protein-coupled receptor family3. Rhodopsin of therodsmost strongly absorbs green-blue light4. It is responsible formonochromaticvision in the dark5. Rhodopsin consists of opsin and retinalA, all statements are trueB, 3 and 4 are falseC, 3, 4 and 5 are falseD, only 2 is trueE, only 3 is false

46, Each transferrin molecule has the ability to carry A, three iron ions in theferricformB, two iron ions in theferrousformC, two iron ions in theferricformD, four iron ions in theferricformE, three iron ions in theferrousform

47, majority of thiamine in blood is in theA, erythrocytesB, leukocytesC, plasma D, plateletsE, A and D

48, Left atrial enlargementis suggested by anelectrocardiogram(ECG) that has a pronounced notch in theA, R waveB, T waveC, Q waveD, P waveE, L wave

49, In the fetalheart, theforamen ovaleA, allows blood to enter the rightatriumfrom the left atriumB, allows blood to enter the leftatriumfrom the left ventricleC, allows blood to enter the leftatriumfrom the right atriumD, allows blood to enter the right ventriclefrom the right atriumE, allows blood to enter the leftatriumfrom the aorta

50, the only human internal organ capable of naturalregenerationof losttissueA, kidneysB, pancreasC, liverD, adrenal glandsE, ovary

51, in NiemannPick diseaseA, uric acid accumulates inlysosomesB, plasmalogens accumulates inlysosomesC, sphingomyelin accumulates inlysosomesD, glucocerebroside accumulates inlysosomesE, cholesterol accumulates inlysosomes

52, Major factor in renal stone formation A, Crohn's diseaseB, hyperparathyroidismC, High dietary intake of animalproteinD, Dehydrationfrom low fluid intakeE, distal renal tubular acidosis

53, fructose is metabolized primarily in theA, pancreasB, liverC, kidneysD, small intestineE, brain cells

54, which of the following is not related to middle cranial fossaA, foramen ovaleB, foramen lacerumC, foramen spinosumD, jugular foramenE, foramen rotundum

55, the first branch of theinternal carotid arteryA, ophthalmic arteryB, anterior cerebral arteryC, lacrimal arteryD, choroidal arteryE, posterior communicating artery

56, The internal carotid plexus communicates with all of the below exceptA,trigeminal ganglionB, hypoglossal nerveC, glossopharyngeal nerve.D, pterygopalatine ganglionE, abducent nerve

57, Meckel's cave containsA, carotid plexusB, otic ganglionC, pterygopalatine ganglionD, trigeminal ganglionE, A and C

58, Thecerebellopontine angle containsA, facial NB, vestibulocochlear NC, abducent ND, all of the aboveE, A and B

59, largestneuronsin the humanbrain areA, Lugaro cellsB, Purkinje cellsC, Betz cellsD, Marr cellsE, Megaloneurons

60, The platysma is supplied byA, sub-mental and supra-scapular arteriesB, sub-mental and infra-scapular arteriesC, occipital and supra-scapular arteriesD, occipital and infra-scapular arteriesE, posterior auricular and supra-scapular arteries

61, In which syndrome pectoralis major on one side of the body will be absentA, Scotlands syndromeB, Midlands syndromeC, Jutlands syndromeD, Englands syndromeE, Polands Syndrome

62, Supporting cusps A, are the maxillary buccal cusps and the mandibular buccal cuspsB, are the maxillary lingual cusps and the mandibular lingual cuspsC, are the maxillary lingual cusps and the mandibular buccal cuspsD, are the maxillary buccal cusps and the mandibular lingual cuspsE, none of the above

63, The right and left temporomandibular joints and their suspensory ligaments as well as the right and left condyles of the mandible.A, are the posterior determinants of occlusion and are variable.B, are the posterior determinants of occlusion and are fixed.C, are the anterior and posterior determinants of occlusion and are fixed.D, are the anterior determinants of occlusion and are fixed.E, are the anterior determinants of occlusion and are variable.

64, Curve of Spee and Curve of Wilson form a plane termed as theA, Jackson curveB, Hutchinson curveC, wilkinson curveD, robinson curveE, Monson Curve

65, The length of the junctional epithelium ranges from A, 1.25 to 1.35 mmB, 0.25 to 3.35 mmC, 0.25 to 1.35 mmD, 0.75 to 1.35 mmE, 0.55 to 1.35 mm

66, In the periodontal ligament, Ruffini like mechano-receptors are primarily seen in A, cervical regionB, Apical regionC, Midroot regionD, near the junctional epitheliumE, B and C

67, primary role of Glycolipids is as A, cell membrane receptorsB, enzymesC, hormonesD, transport moleculesE, cell cytoskeleton molecules

68, Each maxilla articulates with A, eight bonesB, nine bonesC, ten bonesD, seven bonesE, eleven bones

69, Thesphenopalatine foramen contains all of the below exceptA, Thesphenopalatine veinB, Thesphenopalatine arteryC, superior nasal nerveD, middle nasal nerveE, nasopalatine nerve

70, which is commonly known as theartery of epistaxisA, sphenopalatine arteryB, nasopalatine arteryC, superficial nasal arteryD, superior nasal arteryE, A and B

71, Pancreatic secretion per day isA, 1.5 litresB, 2.5 litresC, 0.5 litresD, 4.5 litresE, 3.5 litres

72, Streptococcus mitis is mainly implicated inA, Dental cariesB, endocarditisC, pharyngitisD, meningitisE, urinary tract infections

73, group A beta-hemolytic streptococci is involved in all of the below exceptA, impetigoB, scarlet feverC, toxic shock syndromeD, necrotizing fascitisE, strangles

74, What is shown in this photomicrograph ?

A, cap stage of tooth developmentB, early bell stage of tooth developmentC, late bell stage of tooth developmentD, early thickening of oral ectomesenchymeE, thickened dental lamina

75, What is shown in this photomicrograph ?

A, pseudostratified ciliated columnar epitheliumB, staratified squamous epitheliumC, transitional epitheliumD, serous salivary gland aciniE, esophageal lining epithelium

76, which enzyme plays a role in the first step in the decomposition of starchesA, pancreatic amylaseB, salivary beta-amylaseC, salivary alpha-amylaseD, pro-starchylase in salivaE, alpha glucosidase

77, Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is caused byA, endotoxins produced by Treponema pallidumB, activation of eosinophils in response to lipoproteins released from rupturing syphilis bacteriaC, abnormal activation of the coagulation cascade with in the vesselsD, cytokinesreleased by the immune system in response to lipoproteins released from rupturing syphilis bacteriaE, A and C

78, plasmacytoma can be differentiated clinically from multiple myeloma by looking for A, increasedblood calciumB, renal insufficiencyC, multiple bone lesionsD, Bence Jones proteinsE, none of the above

79, Facial nerve gives _____ innervation to the ethmoid air cellsA, preganglionicympatheticnerve fibersB, preganglionicparasympatheticnerve fibersC, postganglionicsympatheticnerve fibersD, postganglionicparasympatheticnerve fibersE, sensory nerve fibers

80, Vidian nerve is formed by the A, junction of thelesser petrosal nerveand thedeep petrosal nervewithin thepterygoid canalB, junction of thegreater petrosal nerveand thedeep petrosal nervewithin thepterygoid canalC, junction of thegreater petrosal nerveand thesuperficial petrosal nervewithin thepterygoid canalD, junction of theposterior auricular nerveand thedeep petrosal nervewithin thepterygoid canalE, junction of thegreater petrosal nerveand the emissary nervewithin thepterygoid canal

81, cavernous sinus drains to A, superior petrosal sinus and inferior petrosal sinusB, superior petrosal sinus and middle petrosal sinusC, anterior petrosal sinus and inferior petrosal sinusD, superior petrosal sinus and posterior petrosal sinusE, middle petrosal sinus and inferior petrosal sinus

82, syphilitic Gummas are most commonly found in theA, heartB, spleenC, palateD, liverE, kidneys

83, coenzyme R isA, BiotinB, thiamineC, niacinD, folic acidE, uracil

84, whichis a key element of thelymphatic systemA, ThymusB, red bone marrowC, lymph vesselsD, lymph nodesE, spleen

85, normal blood pH isA, 7.347.45B, 7C, 6.45 7.85D, 7 - 10E, 5.5 6.5

86, which of the following regarding Erythropoietin is falseA, it enhances the hormone hepcidinB, it is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidneyC, Also calledhematopoietinD, is aglycoproteinhormoneE,It is acytokine

87, Biliverdin is A, yellowB, greenC, blueD, redE, purple

88, Hofbauer cell is a tissue macrophage located in A, boneB, liverC, kidneysD, medulla oblongataE, placenta

89, which statement is trueA, Indirect bilirubin is fat-solubleB, Indirect bilirubin is water-solubleC, direct bilirubin is fat-solubleD, direct bilirubin is water-solubleE, A and D

90, Each transferrin molecule has the ability to carryA, two iron ions in theferrousform B, two iron ions in theferricformC,three iron ions in theferrousformD, five iron ions in theferricformE,four iron ions in theferricform

91, this peripheral blood smear is characteristic of

A, hemolytic anemiaB, normoblastic anemiaC, sickle cell diseaseD, megaloblastic anemiaE, sickle cell disease

92, palatine aponeurosis 1. serves as the insertion for theTensor veli palatini2. serves as the origin for the Levator veli palatini3. serves as the origin for theMusculus uvulae4. serves as the insertion for the Palatopharyngeus, andPalatoglossus

A, all statements are trueB, 1 and 4 are trueC, 1 and 3 are trueD, 3 and 4 are trueE, 2 and 4 are true

93, HistidineA, is an -amino acidwith animidazolefunctional group.B,is anessential amino acidin humansC, is a precursor forhistamineD, all are true E, only A and B are true

94,most abundantproteininhumanblood plasmaA, fibrinogenB, albuminC, globulinD, plasminE, IgG

95, fetal production ofthyroxine(T4) reaches a clinically significant level atA, 810 weeksB, 2830 weeksC, 3540 weeksD, 1820 weeksE, 1113 weeks

96, which virus crosses the placenta1. herpes2. HIV3. Rubella4. cytomegalovirusA, all of the aboveB, the first 3C, the last 3D, the first 2E, the last 2

97, SomatostatinA, is produced by the hypothalamusB, reduces the pituitary production of TSHC, enhances the pituitary production of TSHD, A and BE, A and C

98, What is the function of ATP, adenosine triphosphate?A, message carrierB, make proteins C, store and transport energy D, breakdown sugars E, A and C

99, In humans, the Barr body is an(A) active X chromosome in females (B) active X chromosome in males (C) inactive Y chromosome in males (D) inactive Y chromosome in females (E) inactive X chromosome in females

100, Which of the following types of molecules is always found in virions? (A) Lipid (B) Protein (C) Carbohydrate (D) DNA (E) RNA

101, Which enzyme is activated by phosphorylation? (A) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase (B) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase (C) Glycogen synthase (D) Pyruvate kinase (E) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase

102, The karyotype of a triploid plant contains 72 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would the karyotype of a diploid plant of the same species contain? (A) 24 (B) 48 (C) 49 (D) 71 (E) 96

103, The principal site of peptide neurohormone biosynthesis is the (A) nucleus (B) rough endoplasmic reticulum (C) dendrite (D) postsynaptic density (E) synaptic vesicle

104, Proline disrupts -helical structure in proteins because it is (A) an acidic amino acid (B) an aromatic amino acid (C) an imino acid (D) a basic amino acid (E) a sulfur-containing amino acid

105, which is false regarding the predisposing factors for intravascular thrombosis1. myocardial infarction2. factor VIII deficiency3. bed rest4. thrombophilia5. heart failureA, allB, only 2C, 1 and 3D, noneE, only 5

106, The following may cause right heart failure1. essential hypertension2. chronic lung disease3. left heart failure4. atherosclerosis5. ventricular septal defectA, all except 5B, allC, all except 4D, noneE, 2 and 3

107, Which of the following are benign neoplasms?1. hepatoma2. melanoma3. sarcoma4. adenoma5. papillomaA, the last twoB, the first threeC, all of the aboveD, 2 and 3E, 1, 4 and 5

108, The following are tumour suppressor genes1. Rb2. ras3. myc4. BRCA15. APCA, allB, 2 and 5C, 1, 4 and 5D, 3 and 5E, 2 and 3

109, A family history of colon carcinoma is elicited from a 32 year old man. He has three colonic polyps, one of which is found tohave a focus of adenocarcinoma. Inheritance of which genes is likely to be involved?1. growth factor receptors2. growth factors3. DNA mismatch repair4. cyclins5. inhibitors of apoptosisA, allB, noneC, only 3D, 4 and 5E, 3 and 5

110, regarding human carcinogenesis1. translocations involving c-myc are common in Burkitts lymphoma2. Ki-ras activation is usually effected by point mutation3. p53 inactivation is frequently associated with aneuploidy4. errors in mismatch repair are characteristic of aneuploid tumours5. both alleles of p53 must be altered to produce a phenotypeA, only 4 is falseB, 4 and 5 are trueC, all are trueD, all are falseE, 2 and 4 are false

111, Which of the following is true of p53?1. an inherited mutation is the basis of Li Fraumeni syndrome2. an inherited mutation is the basis of retinoblastoma3. is the site of the commonest mutation in human cancers4. is activated by binding to Mdm25. binds to and is inactivated by the early gene product E7 in HPV infectionA, all are trueB, 4 and 5 trueC, 1 and 3 trueD, all are falseE, only 3 is true

112, which of the following are true1. activation of ras oncogene usually occurs by point mutation2. myc oncogene products are located predominantly in the cell membrane3. many proto-oncogenes code for tyrosine kinases4. all known cellular proto-oncogenes have retroviral homologues5. some oncogenes encode cell cycle regulatory proteins such as cyclinsA, 1, 3 and 5B, 3 and 5C, 2 and 5D, allE, 4 and 5

113, The following mechanisms may cause a qualitative change in the expression of a gene1. gene amplification2. chromosomal rearrangement3. point mutation4. promotional insertion5. gene deletionA, allB, 3 and 4C, 2 and 3D, 4 and 5E, 2 and 5

114, regarding Antibiotic resistance in bacteria1. Is always caused by degradation of the drug by bacteria2. Is found only in Gram positive bacteria3. Can be transferred between bacteria by conjugation4. Is only encoded by plasmids5. Is not transferred between bacterial speciesA, only 3 is trueB, all are falseC, 3 and 5 are trueD, 3 and 4 are trueE, 1 and 3 are true

115, Virulence factors in Neisseria gonorrhoeae1. IgA protease2. Polysaccharide capsule3. Highly variable cell surface proteins4. Adhesion pili5. Prone to transformationA, all except 2B, allC, only 4 and 5D, only 2 and 4E, none

116, Virulence factors in Streptococcus pyogenes1. Hylauronic acid capsule2. Superantigen3. C5a peptidase4. M protein5. Lipotechoic acidA, all except 4B, allC, only 4 and 5D, only 2 and 4E, 1, 3 and 5

117, Travellers diarrhoea what is true1. Is usually accompanied by marked mucosal inflammation and ulceration of the intestine2. Is caused by infection with Salmonella typhimurium3. Is usually transmitted by contaminated water supplies4. May cause death from electrolyte imbalance and dehydration5. Is caused by a toxin which reduces adenylate cyclase activityA, all except 4B, allC, only 3D, only 2 and 4E, 1, 3 and 5

118, Which bacteria can survive inside phagocytes?1. Strep. pneumoniae2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis3. Yersinia enterocolitica4. Salmonella typhi5. Shigella flexneriA, all except 4B, allC, only 3D, only 2, 3 and 4E, 1, 3 and 5

119, The following are cytolysins1. Cholera toxin2. Clostridial toxin3. Strep. pneumoniae pneumolysin4. Strep. pyogenes streptolysin O5. E. coli enterotoxin

A, all except 4B, allC, only 3D, only 2, 3 and 4E, 1, 3 and 5

120, The following are Gram negative rods1. Escherichia coli2. Corynebacterium diphtheriae3. Pseudomonas vulgaris4. Bordetella pertussis5. Neisseria meningitidesA, all except 4B, allC, only 3D, only 1, 3 and 4E, 1, 3 and 5

121, The following diseases are caused by prions1. Alzheimers disease2. Kuru3. Creuzfeld Jacob disease4. Familial fatal insomnia5. Aleutian disease of Mink

A, all except 4B, allC, only 3D, only 2, 3 and 4E, 1, 3 and 5

122, The following viruses are acquired by the respiratory route1. Rhinovirus2. Respiratory syncytial virus3. Poliomyelitis4. Measles5. Varicella ZosterA, all except 3B, allC, only 3D, only 2, 3 and 4E, 1, 3 and 5

123, which of the following viruses have a helical capsid1. Rabies virus2. Rous sarcoma virus3. Rubella4. Poliovirus5. Foot and mouth disease virus

A, all except 3B, noneC, only 3D, only 2, 3 and 4E, 1, 3 and 5

124, Which viruses cause hepatitis?1. Hepatitis C2. Epstein Barr virus3. Yellow fever4. Cytomegalovirus5. Coxsackie virusA, all of the above except 5B, noneC, only 3D, only 2, 3 and 4E, 1, 3 and 5

125, The following are enveloped viruses1. Rubella2. Human papilloma virus3. Feline leukaemia virus4. Mumps5. Influenza virus

A, all of the above except 2B, noneC, only 3D, only 2, 3 and 4E, 1, 3 and 5

126, problems in bile secretion may lead toA, steatorrheaB, deficiencies infat-soluble vitaminsC, deficiencies inessential fatty acidsD, only A and CE, A, B, and C

127, Pathology of malaria may include1. anaemia due to red cell destruction2. red blood cell sequestration3. fever correlated with synchronous parasite release4. recurrent disease due to cryptic infections in the liver5. cerebral inflammation due to over production of TNFA, all of the above except 2B, all of the aboveC, only 3 and 5D, only 2, 3 and 4E, 1, 3 and 5

128, Macrophages have Fc receptors for which of the following antibodies?1. IgM2. IgG13. IgA4. IgD5. IgEA, all of the above except 2B, all of the aboveC, only 3 and 5D, only 2, 3 and 4E, 2, 3 and 5

129, Which of the following cells originate in the bone marrow?1. T lymphocytes2. B lymphocytes3. Macrophages4. follicular dendritic cells5. interdigitating dendritic cellsA, all of the above except 4B, all of the aboveC, only 3 and 5D, only 2, 3 and 4E, 2, 3 and 5

130, Which of the following conditions represents a type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reaction?1. haemolytic anaemia2. myasthenia gravis3. transfusion reaction4. Graves disease5. extrinsic allergic alveolitisA, all of the above except 5B, all of the aboveC, only 3 and 5D, only 2, 3 and 4E, 2, 3 and 5

131, In response to infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a granuloma forms in the lung. Within the granuloma are cells expressing class II MHC antigens. These cells elaborate cytokines that promote fibroblastic proliferation. From which of the following peripheral blood cells are these cells derived?A, NeutrophilB, MonocyteC, B CellD, NK cellE, Basophil

132, During the induction of type I (immediate) hypersensitivity response, which of the following cells secrete cytokines that stimulate IgE production by B cells, promotes mast cell growth, recruits and activates mast cells.A, CD4+ lymphocytesB, Natural killer (NK) cellsC, MacrophagesD, Dendritic cellsE, Neutrophils

133, Factors that influence the induction of tolerance include1. the solubility of the antigen2. the route of administration of antigen3. the dose of antigen4. maturity of immune system5. chimerism

A, all of the above except 5B, all of the aboveC, only 3 and 5D, only 2, 3 and 4E, 2, 3 and 5

134, Central tolerance takes place inA, thymusB, lymph nodesC, spleenD, liverE, pancreas

`135, A patient with congenital heart disease with a ventricular septal defect presents with fever and headache. CT head scan showed a parietal lobe abscess in the brain. Which of the following accounts for abscess formation?A, Formation of nitric oxide by macrophagesB, Production of interferon by T lymphocytesC, Formation of TGF by macrophagesD, Generation of prostaglandins by endotheliumE, Release of lysosomal enzymes by neutrophils

136, The following are oxygen-dependent killing mechanisms in neutrophils1. Lysozyme2. Lactoferrin3. Myeloperoxidase4. Cationic proteins5. Hydrogen peroxidaseA, all of the above except 5B, all of the aboveC, only 3 and 5D, only 2, 3 and 4E, 2, 3 and 5

137, The anti-inflammatory properties of aspirin affectsA, VasodilatationB, ChemotaxisC, PhagocytosisD, Leucocyte emigrationE, Release of leukocytes from the bone marrow

138, Complement products are involved in all of the following exceptA, ChemotaxisB, Increased vascular permeabilityC, Neutrophil activationD, PhagocytosisE, Killing of bacteria in the phagocytic vacuole

139, The mylohyoid muscle is derived from A, third pharyngeal arch.B, first pharyngeal arch.C, second pharyngeal arch.D, A and BE, A and C

140, The nasal septum comprises A, four bones and one cartilageB, five bones and one cartilageC, three bones and one cartilageD, five bones and two cartilagesE, six bones and one cartilage

141 regarding the location of drainage of the ethmoid sinuses , which is a wrong match1. Anterior - Hiatus semilunaris2. !Middle - Ethmoidal bullae3. !Posterior - Superior meatus4. Middle superior meatus5. Posterior hiatus semilunarisA, the first 3 are correctB, the last 3 are correctC, only 1 and 2 are corrrectD, all are trueE, all are false

142, This is the space entered with a lumbar puncture (spinal tap).A, sub-dural spaceB, epi-dural spaceC, sub-arachnoid spaceD, sub-piamater spaceE, B and C

143, which contains the occipital sinusA, Tentorium ceribriB, Diaphragma sellaC, Falx cerebriD, Falx cerebelliE, Tentorium cerebelli

144, CIRCLE OF WILLIS is composed of1. Posterior cerebral artery2. Middle cerebral artery3. ! Posterior communicating artery4. ! Internal carotid artery5. ! Anterior cerebral artery6. Middle communicating artery7. ! Anterior communicating arteryA, all of the above except 2 and 6B, all of the aboveC, the first 5 arteriesD, the last 5 arteriesE, the middle 5 arteries

145, which of the following cranial nerves participate in the taste sensation of the tongue1. 5th cranial nerve2. 6th cranial nerve3. 7th cranial nerve4. 8th cranial nerve5. 9th cranial nerve6. 10th cranial nerveA, 1, 3 and 6B, 3, 5 and 6C, 4, 5 and 6D, 3 and 5E, 3 and 6

146, von Ebners glands are A, fully serousB, fully mucousC, partially serous and partially mucousD, predominantly serousE, drain near the foliate papillae

147, Which of the following among the tongue muscles is unique regarding nerve supplyA, styloglossusB, genioglossusC, palatoglossusD, hypglossusE, C and D

148, the sensory and motor innervation of the constrictor muscles of the pharynx are supplied by cranial nervesA, 9 and 10 respectivelyB, 11 and 10 respectivelyC, 10 and 11 respectivelyD, 8 and 9 respectivelyE, 9 and 11 respectively

149, Nasolacrimal duct empty underneath theA, superior nasal conchaB, middle nasal conchaC, posterior nasal conchaD, inferior nasal conchaE, anterior nasal concha

150, postganglionic parasympathetic supply to the lacrimal gland is from ____ of ______ which is regulated at _________A, lacrimal nerve, 6th cranial nerve, Superior salivatory nucleusB, lacrimal nerve, 5th cranial nerve, Superior salivatory nucleusC, lacrimal nerve, 6th cranial nerve, inferior salivatory nucleusD, lacrimal nerve, 7th cranial nerve, Superior salivatory nucleusE, lacrimal nerve, 4th cranial nerve, Superior salivatory nucleus

151, Temporomandibular ligamentA, also called as posterior ligamentB, the outer oblique portion prevents posterior and inferior displacementC, the inner horizontal portion prevents lateral and posterior displacementD, the outer oblique portion prevents lateral or mesial displacementE, the inner horizontal portion prevents posterior and inferior displacement

152, Relaxation of inspiratory muscles causes1. Increased intrapleural pressure2. Decreased alveolar pressure3. Pressure gradient from alveoli to mouth4. Gas flow down pressure gradientA, only 2 is falseB, 2 and 3 are falseC, all are trueD, 1 and 4 are falseE, only 1 is false

153, Dead space of lungs usually isA, 500 mlB, 150 mlC, 350 mlD, 250 mlE, 400 ml

154, during embryogenesis the BILAMINAR DISCA, Occurs in the second weekB, Occurs in the first weekC, Occurs in the third weekD, Occurs in the fourth weekE, none of the above

155, what is false about features of Nephrotic syndrome1. Proteinuria 2. Hypoalbuminemia3. Generalized edema4. Hypolipidemia5. HypercholesterolemiaA, only 5 is falseB, only 4 is falseC, all are trueD, 4 and 5 are falseE, only the first 3 statements are true

156, In ERYTHROBLASTOSIS FETALISA, Occurs in cases where Mother = Rh negative and fetus = Rh negativeB, Mother produces antibodies against fetal RBCsC, Occurs in cases where Mother = Rh positive and fetus = Rh negativeD, Destruction of fetal RBCs will not happen because of protection conferred by placental barrier.E, mother becomes anemic

157, which is false about FOLATE DEFICIENCYA, Hypersegmented neutrophils.B, Lack of folate results in delayed DNA replicationC, Folate deficiency has no neurologic abnormalitiesD, Dilantin will not induce folate deficiencyE, Pregnancy may induce folate deficiency

158, in Myeloproliferative disorders1. Myeloid stem cells develop and reproduce abnormally in bone marrow2. Peak incidence in middle age3. Reduced blood basophils4. Increased serum uric acid5. SplenomegalyA, all statements are trueB, 4 is falseC, 3 is falseD, 3 and 4 are falseE, 2 and 4 are false

159, If Sebasteyn's Canal is present then A, the facial nerve courses through thisB, the maxillaryl nerve courses through thisC, the ophthalmic nerve courses through thisD, the hypoglossal nerve courses through thisE, the lacrimal nerve courses through this

160, DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION is featured by1. Reduced platelet count.2. Increased PT.3. Increased PTT.4. Hypofibrinogenemia 5. Reduced levels of all clotting factors.6. Reduced levels of fibrinolytic proteins.A, all statements are trueB, 4 is falseC, 3 is falseD, 3 and 4 are falseE, 2 and 4 are false

161, which clotting factors are affected by vitamin K deficiencyA, 3, 7, 9, 10B, 4, 7, 8, 10C, 2, 6, 7, 9, 10D, 2, 7, 9, 10E, 2, 8, 9, 11

162, Bainbridge Reflex A, may lead to pulmonary edema.B, Mediated by stretch receptors in ventricleC, Mediated by stretch receptors in atriaD, Mediated by vagal (CN X) efferents to the ponsE, leads to the Pumping of less blood out of pulmonary system to the systemic system

163, clinically cyanosis will be appreciated only when there is more thanA, 0.5 g of deoxygenated Hb per 100 mL of blood B, 10 g of deoxygenated Hb per 100 mL of bloodC, 2 g of deoxygenated Hb per 100 mL of bloodD, 15 g of deoxygenated Hb per 100 mL of bloodE, 5 g of deoxygenated Hb per 100 mL of blood

164, Thespinal trigeminal nucleusis anucleusin themedullathat receives information fromA, theTrigeminal Nerve(CN V); thefacial(CN VII),glossopharyngeal(CN IX), andvagus nerves(CN X)B, theTrigeminal Nerve(CN V); thefacial(CN VII),glossopharyngealnerves (CN IX), C,theTrigeminal Nerve(CN V); thefacial(CN VII), andvagus nerves(CN X)D, theTrigeminal Nerve(CN V); and thefacial nerves(CN VIIE, theTrigeminal Nerve(CN V)

165, Following emigration from blood vessels, leucocyte migration to the site of infection or injury is mediated by1. Bradykinin2. Chemokines3. Complement C5a4. Histamine5. ProstaglandinsA, all of the aboveB, 4 and 5C, 2 and 5D, 2 and 3E, 2, 3 and 5

166, Leucocyte emigration from venules is influenced by1. Selectins2. Integrins3. Chemokines4. Complement C3a5. Prostaglandins

A, all of the aboveB, 4 and 5C, 2 and 5D, 2 and 1E, 2, 3 and 5

167, Which cause pain in acute inflammation?1. C3a2. C5a3. LTB44. PGE5. BradykininA, all of the aboveB, 4 and 5C, 2 and 5D, 3 and 5E, 2, 3 and 5

168, Epstein Barr virus is associated with1. glandular fever2. nasopharyngeal carcinoma3. gastric carcinoma4. Burkitts lymphoma5. the common coldA, all of the aboveB, 1, 2 and 4C, 2 and 5D, 1 and 4E, 2, 3 and 5

169, Which of the following viruses are associated with tumours?1. cytomegalovirus2. rubella3. human papilloma virus4. Mareks disease virus5. hepatitis CA, all of the aboveB, 3, 5 and 4C, 2 and 5D, 1, 2 and 4E, 2, 3 and 5

170, vagus nerve is mainly composed ofA, afferent fibersB, efferent fibersC, equally afferent and efferentD, sympathetic nervesE, motor fibers

171, Thethoracic ductdrains into A, left subclavian vein, near its junction with the rightinternal jugular veinB, right subclavian vein, near its junction with the rightinternal jugular veinC, left subclavian vein, near its junction with the posteriorinternal jugular veinD, left subclavian vein, near its junction with the leftinternal jugular veinE, left brachiocephalic vein, near its junction with the leftinternal jugular vein

172, Cerebral infarction may follow all of the following exceptA, pulmonary embolismB, internal carotid artery thrombosisC, myocardial infarctionD, left ventricular failureE, protein C deficiency

173, if we Match the antibiotics with their target which of the following is correct1. Cephalosporins2. Chloramphenicol3. Rifampicin4. Trimethoprim5. AminoglycosidePeptidoglycan crosslinkingmRNA/ribosome interactionPeptidyl transferaseDNA dependent RNApDihydrofolate reductase

A, all are falseB, 1 is correctC, 1 and 2 correctD, 1 and 3 correctE, all are correct

174, Lobar pneumonia1. Resolves by crisis after six or seven days2. Is usually caused by Haemophilus influenzae3. Is the result of blood borne infection4. May be associated with alcoholism5. Is a common complication of chronic bronchitis (smoking related)A, all are falseB, 1 is correctC, 1 and 4 correctD, 1 and 5 correctE, all are correct

175, The following bacteria regularly cause meningitis1. Staph. aureus2. E. coli3. Strep. pneumoniae4. Bordetella pertussis5. Neisseria gonorrhoeaeA, all are falseB, 1 and 2 is correctC, 2 and 3 correctD, 2 and 5 correctE, all are correct

176, if we Match the following organisms with their vaccine, which is true1. Pseudorabies virus (pig herpes)2. Hepatitis B3. Canine distemper4. Mareks disease5. Influenza A

killed viruslive attenuated virusgenetically engineered subunitrelated live virusengineered deletion mutant

A, all are falseB, 4 is correctC, 4 and 3 correctD, 4 and 5 correctE, all are correct

177, if we Match the following pairs which is/are correct ?1. Adenoviruses2. Hepadnaviruses3. Paramyxoviruses4. Poxviruses5. Retrovirusescircular double stranded DNA genomegenomes transcribed by cellular RNA polymerasehelical capsid symmetrydownregulation of MHC class Ireplicate in the cytoplasm of infected cells

A, all are falseB, 3 is correctC, 3 and 5 correctD, 3 and 4 correctE, all are correct

178, if we Match the following viruses with their mode of transmission1. Myxoma virus2. Cytomegalovirus3. Hepatitis B4. Mareks disease5. Hepatitis Asexualfaecal-oralinsect vectorsalivary transferdust inhalation

A, all are falseB, 3 is correctC, 3 and 5 correctD, 3 and 4 correctE, all are correct

179, Prions are inactivated by the following1. heating to 90 C for 30 minutes2. heating to 145 C for 18 minutes3. DNAse treatment4. RNAse treatment5. phenolA, all are falseB, 5 is correctC, 2 and 5 correctD, 2 and 3 correctE, all are correct

180, If we Match the following pairs which is/are correct1. Helical capsid2. Latent virus3. Human herpes virus 84. Double-stranded DNA virus with RNA intermediate5. Down-regulation of Class I MHC expressionKaposis sarcomaMeasles virusHepatitis BVaricella Zoster virusAdenovirus

A, all are falseB, 5 is correctC, 3 and 5 correctD, 2 and 5 correctE, all are correct

181, The trace element that is an integral component of carbonic anhydrase, lactic dehydrogenase, and several other peptidasesA. Magnesium B. Manganese C. Zinc D. Cobalt E. Copper

182, The ion necessary in Na-K ATPaseA. Fe 3+B. Ca2+C. Mg+2 D. PO4 E. SO4 -2

183, which is/are the correct match ?1. Myxoma virus2. Parvovirus3. Poliovirus4. Rotavirus5. Influenza virusDouble-stranded DNANegative single-stranded RNADouble-stranded RNAPositive single-stranded RNASingle-stranded DNA

A, all are falseB, 1 is correctC, 1 and 5 correctD, 2 and 1 correctE, all are correct

184, Which is correct about Live attenuated virus vaccinesA, are produced by inactivating virus particles using chemical or physical treatmentsB, are used to immunise against measlesC, are used to immunise against hepatitis BD, are used solely to protect the vaccinee from infectionE, do not induce a cytotoxic T-cell response

185, if we Match the statements1. Schistosoma haematobium2. Entamoeba histolytica3. Plasmodium vivax4. Toxoplasma gondii5. Echinococcus granularisimmune complex mediated glomerulonephritiscauses bladder cancerdefinitive life cycle in the catinfects the large intestinehydatid cysts

A, all are falseB, 5 is correctC, 1 and 5 correctD, 4 and 5 correctE, all are correct

186, Relative resistance to malaria is conferred by all of the following except?A, Duffy blood group antigen negativeB, heterozygous beta thalassaemiaC, G6PD deficiencyD, HLA - B53E, HLA - DR

187, Which of the following molecules are present on the membrane of T helper cells and are involved in their co-stimulation?A, CD28B, B7C, LFA1D, ICAM1E, CD40

188, T helper cells secrete ALL THE FOLLOWING cytokines EXCEPT?A, IL2B, IL4C, IL10D, IL12E, IFN- Gamma

189, ALL of the following membrane proteins belong to the Ig superfamily EXCEPTA, IgMB, ICAM 1C, LFA1D, Fc receptorE, MHC Class I

190, Type III (immune complex mediated) hypersensitivity reactions cause the tissue lesions In all of the following EXCEPTA, polyarteritis nodesB, acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritisC, serum sicknessD, systemic lupus erythematosusE, pemphigus

191, The following LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASES are autosomal recessive except1. Hunters2. TaySachs3. Gaucher4. NeimannPick5. FabryA, 1 and 5B, 2 and 5C, 1 and 3D, 1 and 4E, 1

192, The underlying defect in MARFANS SYNDROMEA, fibrillinB, collagen -5C, lamininD, vimentinE, keratin

193, There are approximately __________ skeletal muscles in the human bodyA, 650B, 450C, 500D, 850E, 580

194, Ruffini corpuscleA, is aslowly adaptingmechanoreceptorB, are enlarged dendritic endings with elongated capsules.C, respond to sustained pressure and show very little adaptation.D, are located in the deep layers of the skinE, all of the above

195, Which of the following inhibits thrombin activity?A. Heparin cofactor IIB. Alpha 2 antitrypsinC. ChymotrypsinD. Alpha 2 macroglobulinE, B and D

196, A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in finding out base deficit/excess for blood in a given patient. An experienced senior resident advised a quick method to determine acid base composition of blood based on PCO2. Which of the following is the likely method he suggested to predict acid base composition of blood?A. Red ford nonuogramB. DuBios normogramC. Goldman constant Field equationD. Siggard Andersen normogramE, none of the above

197, The force of muscle contraction can be increased by all of the following except :A. Increasing the frequency of activation of motor unitsB. Increasing the number of motor units activatedC. Increasing the amplitude of action potentials in the motor neuronsD. Recruiting larger motor unitsD, none of the above

198, The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is:A. GlycineB. AcetylcholineC. AspartateD. GlutamateE, B and D

199, In which of the following form the Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is circulated in plasma :A. Bound to neurophysin-IB. Bound to neurophysin-IIC. Bound to plasma albuminD. Free formE, none of the above

200, Before the onset of puberty, the GnRH neurons are under the inhibitory control of :A. GlycineB. GlutamateC. Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA)D. BetaendorphinE, none of the above

____________________________NBDE-1 TEST-1 ENDS HERE______________________________

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