name: entrance english test: masters in management july … · the alaska pipeline starts at the...

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NAME:_____________________________

Entrance English Test:

Masters in Management July 19, 2015

Duration: 1h 30min.

Part 1: Writing Assessment. Duration: 35 min (30 points)

Part 2: Reading Skill. 30 questions: 35 min (30 points)

Part 3: Grammar Skill. 20 questions: 20 min (20 points)

Part 1: Writing Assessment

Duration: 35 min (30 points) 2 pages maximum

Please use the exam sheet to write your essay. (Do not forget to indicate your first and last name

on the exam sheet!)

Directions: On your exam copy, write a clear logical and well organized response to the

following question. Your response should be in the form of a short essay. Your answer should

not exceed 2 pages. Write legibly. Essays that are illegible or are written on a topic other than

the one outlined in the question will not be scored.

According to a recent report from the Asian Development Bank, Cambodia is set to continue its

7-plus per cent expansion in 2015 and 2016, with improving export and tourism numbers,

although labor unrest in the garment industry and ballooning credit growth in the property

sector pose risks to sustained future growth. Discuss these factors, as well as any other relevant

factors and issues, in regard to the outlook for Cambodia’s economy in the immediate future.

TURN TO NEXT SECTION

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Part 2: Reading Skill

Duration: 35 min (30 points) Below are three passages. Read each passage and answer the 10 questions that follow

each passage.

PASSAGE #1:

The Alaska pipeline starts at the frozen edge of the

Arctic Ocean. It stretches southward across the largest

and northernmost state in the United States, ending at

Line a remote ice-free seaport village nearly 800 miles from

(5) where it begins. It is massive in size and extremely

complicated to operate.

The steel pipe crosses windswept plains and endless

miles of delicate tundra that tops the frozen ground. It

weaves through crooked canyons, climbs sheer

(10) mountains, plunges over rocky crags, makes its way

through thick forests, and passes over or under hundreds

of rivers and streams. The pipe is 4 feet in diameter, and

up to 2 million barrels (or 84 million gallons) of crude

oil can be pumped through it daily.

(15) Resting on H-shaped steel racks called "bents," long

sections of the pipeline follow a zigzag course high

above the frozen earth. Other long sections drop out of

sight beneath spongy or rocky ground and return to the

surface later on. The pattern of the pipeline's up-and-

(20) down route is determined by the often harsh demands

of the arctic and subarctic climate, the tortuous lay of

the land, and the varied compositions of soil, rock, or

permafrost (permanently frozen ground). A little more

than half of the pipeline is elevated above the ground.

(25) The remainder is buried anywhere from 3 to 12 feet,

depending largely upon the type of terrain and the

properties of the soil.

One of the largest in the world, the pipeline cost

approximately $8 billion and is by far the biggest

(30) and most expensive construction project ever

undertaken by private industry. In fact, no single

business could raise that much money, so eight major oil

companies formed a consortium in order to share

the costs. Each company controlled oil rights to

(35) particular shares of land in the oil fields and paid

into the pipeline-construction fund according to the

size of its holdings. Today, despite enormous

problems of climate, supply shortages, equipment

breakdowns, labor disagreements, treacherous

(40) terrain, a certain amount of mismanagement, and

even theft, the Alaska pipeline has been completed

and is operating.

QUESTIONS (CIRCLE THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSWER):

1. The passage primarily discusses the pipeline's

A. operating costs

B. employees

C. consumers

D. construction

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2. The word "it" in line 5 refers to

A. pipeline

B. ocean

C. state

D. village

3. According to the passage, 84 million gallons of oil can travel through the pipeline each

A. day

B. week

C. month

D. year

4. The phrase "Resting on" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

A. consisting of

B. supported by

C. passing under

D. protected with

5. The author mentions all of the following as important in determining the pipeline's route

EXCEPT the

A. climate

B. lay of the land itself

C. local vegetation

D. kind of soil and rock

6. The word "undertaken" in line 31 is closest in meaning to

A. removed

B. selected

C. transported

D. attempted

7. How many companies shared the costs of constructing the pipeline?

A. three

B. four

C. eight

D. twelve

8. The word "particular" in line 35 is closest in meaning to

A. peculiar

B. specific

C. exceptional

D. equal

9. Which of the following determined what percentage of the construction costs each member

of the consortium would pay?

A. How much oil field land each company owned

B. How long each company had owned land in the oil fields

C. How many people worked for each company

D. How many oil wells were located on the company's land

10. Where in the passage does the author provide a term for an earth covering that always

remains frozen?

A. Line 4

B. Line 15

C. Line 23

D. Line 37

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PASSAGE #2:

"The evolution of the banana, star of the Western fruit bowl" By Rosie Mestel

Did you hear? The genome of the banana has been sequenced, an important development in

scientist's efforts to produce better bananas.

A look at that genome has revealed curious things, said Pat Heslop-Harrison, a plant geneticist

at the University of Leicester in England who was a coauthor of the report published this week

in the journal Nature.

For example, there are regions of the banana genome that don't seem to be involved in making

proteins but are shared by many different species of plants, far beyond bananas. What, he

wonders, are they doing?

There are remnants of bits of banana streak virus spliced into the banana genome (too broken-

up to cause disease, however).

There are whole sets of DNA repeats that plants normally have but bananas do not. And,

intriguingly, three times since this genus of giant herbs took an evolutionary turn away from

its relatives -- the grasses -- it has duplicated its entire set of chromosomes.

Two of the doublings took place at the Cretaceous-Tertiary boundary 65 million years ago,

back when the dinosaurs and lots of other species went extinct, Heslop-Harrison noted.

Duplications like this are known to have happened in other plant groups at this same time but

haven't occurred since, Heslop-Harrison said. Scientists don't know why, but they believe

having extra copies of genes may have imparted some stability to plants during a time of rapid

climate change after an asteroid hit Earth.

Having more than one gene of each type means that if one gene of a set loses function, the

plant still has another one that works. And there's more room for adaptability to new

circumstances, because one gene could be altered and co-opted for new purposes and there

would still be the other one left to perform the original job.

"Perhaps it's the reason [bananas have] done so well in the subsequent millions of years,"

Heslop-Harrison said. "One can ask, will changes occurring in the world's climate now mean

there's going to be a whole set of new genome duplications that will enable plants to survive?

We don't know that, but it's interesting to consider."

The banana genome sequenced by the French scientists was from the Pahang, a wild

Malaysian banana of the species Musa acuminata. It's a key species in the complicated

evolution of the bananas and plantains people eat around the world, including the Cavendish

banana that we buy at the supermarket.

The sterile Cavendish is a so-called triploid: It has three sets of chromosomes instead of the

normal two. One of those genomes came from Pahang. The others came from other subspecies

of Musa acuminata.

The changes occurred stepwise, and went something like this:

Thousands of years ago, two wild banana species from different parts of the islands of

Southeast Asia were brought into the same range by people. They formed hybrids. A bit like

mules, the hybrids were vigorous but fairly sterile.

The hybrids were kept going without sex through propagation of their shoots.

At some point, the hybrids developed the ability to set fruit without being fertilized.

Then (for most bananas, including the Cavendish) came another chance event that caused the

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hybrids to end up with three sets of chromosomes. Every now and again, the few viable eggs

and pollen that they made would mistakenly contain two sets of chromosomes instead of just

one.

When a double-chromosome pollen combined with a single-chromosome egg (or vice versa),

the result was a hopelessly sterile plant with even more vigorous fruit.

Events like this happened more than once and sometimes included other types of ancestral

banana species.

Some scientists, in fact, have made a whole study of banana domestication and movement

around the world. They've pieced the story together using quite different strands of

information, including the genomes of wild and cultivated bananas, the microscopic relics of

banana leaf material found at archaeological sites, and even the word for "banana" in different

languages.

QUESTIONS (CIRCLE THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSWER): 1. In paragraph 2, the word "curious" is closest in meaning to

A. inquisitive

B. peculiar

C. nosy

D. intricate

2. What does paragraph 5 suggest about bananas?

A. The banana genus may not yet be classifiable into a traditional category

B. Bananas are actually a species of grass

C. Bananas may now be categorized as "herbs" in supermarkets

D. Because banana chromosomes duplicate themselves, they have better potential for successful

cloning

3. Why does the author use "intriguingly" to describe the phenomenon in paragraph 5?

A. To imply that bananas are far more interesting than other fruits

B. To make readers doubt the claims scientists are making about bananas

C. To suggest that duplication of chromosomes is a rare and interesting occurrence in the plant

world

D. To encourage questions about whether bananas are grasses or herbs

4. Why is the observation in paragraph 6 important?

A. It suggests that the banana mutated its genetic structure for survival

B. It shows that bananas can be traced as far back as dinosaurs

C. It suggests that bananas were fatal to dinosaurs and other species

D. It proves that bananas are immune to atmospheric changes

5. The word "co-opted" in paragraph 8 is closest in meaning to

A. decided upon together

B. argued against

C. removed from the study

D. adopted

6. The quote in paragraph 9 most closely suggests

A. Bananas may be an example of ways that species might alter their genetics to survive changes

in the earth's climate and atmosphere

B. That the genetic mutations of bananas have no implications for other species

C. That genetic structure is the only factor that should be considered when predicting survival

D. Though bananas have made it this far, there is no proof that they will survive the next wave of

significant atmospheric changes.

6 7. According to the article, all are steps in the evolution of the banana EXCEPT

A. Some banana hybrids began to develop three sets of chromosomes

B. The merging of two different banana species

C. Bananas reproduced widely and easily through fertilization

D. Bananas developed the ability to develop fruit without fertilization

8. The word "chance" in paragraph 16 is closest in meaning to

A. random

B. gamble

C. risky

D. opportune

9. All are variations of banana mentioned in the article EXCEPT

A. the Cavendish

B. Dolus mundi

C. Musa acuminata

D. plantains

10. The word "domestication" in the final paragraph is closest in meaning to>

A. housebroken

B. well-controlled

C. adapted for human consumption

D. accepted within the culture

PASSAGE #3:

Since the world has become industrialized, there has been an increase in the number of animal species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300, and by the year 2025 their population is estimated to be down to zero. What is alarming about the case of the (Line 5) Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is part of what is causing the problem of extinction. Animals like the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are a valuable part of the world's ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival, (Line 10) and the survival of our planet. Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in order to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then charge admission to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. With the money they get, they (Line 15) can invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another solution that is an attempt to stem the tide of animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This seems fairly effective, but it will not, by itself, prevent animals from being hunted and killed. QUESTIONS (CIRCLE THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSWER): 1. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. the Bengal tiger

B. international boycotts

C. endangered species

D. problems with industrialization

2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "alarming" in line 4?

A. dangerous

B. serious

C. gripping

D. distressing

7 3. Which of the following could best replace the word "case" as used in line 4?

A. act

B. situation

C. contrast

D. trade

4. The word "poachers" as used in line 5 could be best replaced by which of the following?

A. illegal hunters

B. enterprising researchers

C. concerned scientists

D. trained hunters

5. The word "callousness" in line 7 could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. indirectness

B. independence

C. incompetence

D. insensitivity

6. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast

A. a problem and a solution

B. a statement and an illustration

C. a comparison and a contrast

D. specific and general information

7. What does the word "this" refer to in line 6?

A. endangered species that are increasing

B. Bengal tigers that are decreasing

C. poachers who seek personal gratification

D. sources that may not be accurate

8. Where in the passage does the author discuss a cause of extinction?

A. Since the world . . . down to zero.

B. What is alarming . . . personal gratification.

C. Country around . . . for support.

D. With the money . . . endangered species.

9. Which of the following could best replace the word "allocated" in line 12?

A. set aside

B. combined

C. organized

D. taken off

10. The word "defray" in line 13 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. lower

B. raise

C. make a payment on

D. make an investment toward

TURN TO NEXT SECTION

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Part 3: Grammar Skill

Duration: 20 min (20 points)

The sentences in this section contain errors in grammar, usage, choice of words, or idioms.

Each sentence contains just one error. Some words or phrases are underlined and lettered;

everything else in the sentence is correct.

Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to

be correct

CIRLCE THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSWER UNDER THE SENTENCE:

1. Washington Irving, one of America’s most (A) famous (B) authors, was a lawyer, a

businessman, and (C) a United States (D) diplomatic to England and Spain.

A B C D

2. The main boyhood (A) interesting of (B) psychologist Jean Piaget (C) was observation of

animals (D) in their natural habitat.

A B C D

3. Because (A) its (B) gravitationally bound to the Milky Way, the Andromeda galaxy is (C)

currently (D) approaching Earth.

A B C D

4. Dams may (A) be built for multiple purposes: (B) providing water for irrigation, aid flood

control, furnish (C) hydroelectric power, and improve the (D) passability of waterways.

A B C D

5. (A) As soon as psychologists developed ways to measure human (B) attributes, they discovered

that most characteristics (C) of the human beings seem to be distributed in (D) the form of a bell-

shaped curve.

A B C D

6. On (A) the bottom of (B) the New York Metro Card (C) have three arrows and little white letters

(D) that say: "Insert this way/This side facing you." What is it about that instruction that is

so impossible to understand?

A B C D

7. The (A) increase population, and (B) rapid economic growth in recent years, have put (C) a large

and growing stress on (D) the water resources and environment in Ho Chi Minh City, Vietnam.

A B C D

8. For decades the food industry (A) has been known serving up (B) sugary or fat-laden products,

(C) promoted with (D) ceaseless advertising.

A B C D

9. (A) Most of the large industries in (B) the country are well organized and structured and (C) are

sometimes (D) backed up internationally reputable mother companies.

A B C D

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10. All of the east-west interstate highways in the United States (A) has even (B) numbers, while

(C) north-south interstate highways (D) are odd-numbered.

A B C D

11. As two nuclei move (A) closer together, their mutual electrostatic potential energy (B) becomes

(C) more large and (D) more positive.

A B C D

12. The economy is (A) heavy dependent on (B) industry, and economic growth (C) has always

been of greater concern (D) than environmental preservation.

A B C D

13. Aspen, where (A) the limousines have (B) four-wheel drive and an empty plot can cost ten

million dollars, (C) has been declared the (D) more expensive town in America.

A B C D

14. The old system (A) of paying road taxes in labor has proved (B) inefficient and is (C)

been rapidly discarded for the better plan of (D) requiring all road taxes to be paid in cash.

A B C D

15. (A) The fractional rig is preferred for all sizes of racing (B) craft, from The Lightning all the

way up to (C) the highly complex, (D) fifty-feet-long offshore racing dinghies.

A B C D

16. Because genetic researchers already (A) will find the blueprint of the human genome, many

scientists (B) believe that (C) cures to most of the major diseases will soon (D) be found.

A B C D

17. Malaria, once thought (A) to be completely (B) eradicated, (C) remained today a source of

sickness through the (D) developing world.

A B C D

18. (A) Progesterone, the (B) femaled sex hormone, (C) is secreted in the body by the corpus

luteum, the adrenal cortex, or by the placenta during (D) pregnancy.

A B C D

19. (A) Ideal purity of thought, simplicity of means, (B) simplicity and wise orchestration, (C) all

contribute to the freshness and (D) ingenuousness of Haydn's cantatas.

A B C D

20. Every open space in (A) the targeted area that (B) has grass and a few bushes (C) are (D)

occupied by the white-crowned sparrow.

A B C D

END OF TEST

ANSWER SHEET

Name: Applied Master: M1‐EPM M1‐RMIBF M1‐GEB

PART 2: Reading Skill PART 3 ‐ Grammar Skill

Question #

Passage 1 Question #

1 A B C D 1 A B C D

2 A B C D 2 A B C D

3 A B C D 3 A B C D

4 A B C D 4 A B C D

5 A B C D 5 A B C D

6 A B C D 6 A B C D

7 A B C D 7 A B C D

8 A B C D 8 A B C D

9 A B C D 9 A B C D

10 A B C D 10 A B C D

Passage 2 11 A B C D

1 A B C D 12 A B C D









10 A B C D

Passage 3

1 A B C D

2 A B C D

3 A B C D

4 A B C D

5 A B C D

6 A B C D

7 A B C D

8 A B C D

9 A B C D

10 A B C D

French Department of Economics and Management

Entrance Exam July 19th, 2015 Duration 1h30

No document allowed – No calculator allowed – Please switch off your mobile phone

Part 4: Problem solving & Quantitative reasoning 20 points - Indicative time: 45 minutes Part 5: General Knowledge in Management & Foundations of Economics 20 points - Indicative time: 45 minutes

Please write your answers on the answers sheet.

PreahMonivong Blvd., SangkatTonleBassac, Khan Chamkamon, PO Box 842, Phnom Penh, CAMBODIA. Tel: (855) 23 726471 - Email: [email protected] - Website: www.rule.edu.kh

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Part 4: Problem solving & Quantitative Reasoning

1. If is positive, which of the following is true?

a. a > 0 b. b > 0 c. a / b > 0 d. a – b > 0 e. a + b > 0

2. Amongst the following sets, which one belongs to the real number R? a. [1 ; 2 ; 5i ; 7 ; 9.5 ; 15] b. [1 ; 5 ; 9 ; 2+5i ; 20]

c. [1 ; 5 ; 7 ; 9+i2 ; √15] d. [-5 ; 0 ; 5 ; 5.5i ; 10] e. [-2+i ; 1 ; 5 ; 9 ; 12 ]

3. The sum of prime numbers that are between 110 and 125 is: a. 113 b. 119 c. 232 d. 240 e. 353

4. If S is an integer, which of the following must be odd? a. S + 1 b. 2S – 1 c. S2 + 2 d. S + 2 e. 2S

5. If abc> 0, then which of the following must be true?

a. < 0

b. a > 0

c. > 0

d. bc< 0 e. a >bc

6. Tom and Jerry were avid comic book collectors. The number of comic books that Tom and Jerry owned was in the ratio of 5:3, respectively. After Tom sold Jerry 10 of his comic books, the ratio of the number of comic books Tom had to the number that Jerry had was 7:5. As a consequence, Tom had how many more comic books than Jerry did after the sale?

a. 30

b. 40

c. 60

d. 90

e. 150

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7. If x is an odd integer and y is an even integer, which of the following must be true? a. y is not a factor of x b. xyis an odd integer c. x2is an even integer d. y – x is an even integer e. x is a prime number

8. The mean ( ) of a distribution of 10 ; 20 ; 15 ; 20 ; 10 ; 25 ; 100 ; 20 ; 25 and 20 is : a. 25.5 b. 26 c. 26.5 d. 27 e. 27.5

9. If the sum of 5, 8, 12, and 15 is equal to the sum of 3, 4, x, and x+3, what is the value of x?

a. 14 b. 15 c. 16 d. 17 e. 18

10. The probability of drawing a Seven of Hearts in the Cards game is equal to: a. 4/52 b. 1/52 c. 1 d. 0 e. 13/52

11. The probability of rolling two dies to get two “1” is equal to: a. 2/6 b. 1/6 c. 1 d. 1/36 e. 1/3

12. An economy’s gross domestic product (GDP) increased annually for three years by 5%, 6%, and 7%, respectively. What is the overall growth rate of the GDP?

a. 6% b. 18% c. 18.50% d. 19.09% e. 20.09%

13. What is the average growth rate of a salary which increased by 80% for the first year, and by 50% for the second year?

a. –10% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50% e. 100%

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14. A water lily has doubled its size for 3 years. What is its annual growth rate? a. 20.50% b. 26% c. 33.33% d. 50% e. 67%

15. Fred’s age is 5 more than twice Janet’s age. In 20 years, Janet’s age tripled will be 7 more than Fred’s age doubled. How old will Janet be 10 years from now?

a. 10 b. 13 c. 21 d. 30 e. 31

16. If 27x+2. 25y = 39 . 5x-3, what is the value of y? a. – 3 b. – 2 c. – 1 d. 0.5 e. 2

17. What is √ 2 ?

a. √2

b. 2√2 c. 8

d. 8√2 e. 16

18. Which of the following equation is NOT equivalent to 9a2 = (b – 3) (b + 3) ? a. a2 = (b2 – 9) / 9

b. (3a – b) (3a + b) = – 9

c. 18 a2 – 2b2 + 18 = 0

d. 27 a2 = (√3b – 3√3) (√3b + 3√3)

e. 3 a2 + 6 = b2 19. The function f(x) is equal to the square of a number lessened by 5. The function g(x) is

equal to a number tripled. What is f ?

a. 4 b. 7 c. 13 d. 22 e. 31

20. What is the lowest positive integer that is divisible by each of the integers 1 through 8, inclusive?

a. 420 b. 840 c. 2520 d. 5040 e. 40,320

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21. In the infinite sequence a1, a2, a3, …, an, each term after the first is equal to triple the previous term. If a4 – a3 = 36, what is the value ofa1?

a.

b. 1 c. 2

d.

e. 4

22. What is the sum of x and y given that 2x + y = 10, and x – 2y = 15 ? a. – 2 b. 0 c. 2 d. 3 e. 5

23. If x is a product of all integers from 2 to 24, inclusive, what is the greatest integer y for which 35y is a factor of x?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. 9

24. What are the measures of angles w, x, y and z, respectively given that a // b and c // d ? a. 70o, 70o, 110o, 110o

b. 110o, 110o, 70o, 70o

c. 110o, 70o, 70o, 110o

d. 70o, 110o, 110o, 70o

e. 110o, 70o, 110o, 70o

25. Triangle ABC is shown in the figure above. What is its perimeter given that BC is half of AB, and AB is length 6 and is perpendicular to BC ?

a. 9 + √5

b. 9 + 3√3

c. 9 + 5√3

d. 9 + 3√5

e. 9 + 5√5

26. What is the sum of the measures of the angle , and ? a. 180o

b. 250o

c. 270o

d. 300o

e. 320o

w y

x z

70o

A

B C

D

E B

A C

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27. The median of the four terms a, b, a + b, and b – a is 4. If a >b> 0, what is the arithmetic mean (average) of the four terms ?

a. 4

b.

c. + a

d. 3 +

e. 4 +

28. Which of the following statement is not true? a. 0!= 1

b. = n

c. = 0

d. = 1

Below is the table representing the number of students enrolled in the Masters programs in the year N at the RULE’s French Department (you will use it to answer the questions 27 to 28).

Sex\Programs EPM RMIBF GEB Male 22 5 15

Female 12 19 5

29. What is the probability of getting from the malepopulation by random a student from the program EPM?

a. 25.57%

b. 28.20%

c. 28.57%

d. 52.38%

e. 55.38%

30. What is the probability of getting by randomwithout replacement from the institution 2 students enrolled in the EPM and RMIBF programs?

a. 0.12%

b. 2.56%

c. 13.41%

d. 13.58%

e. 15.41%

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Part 5: General Knowledge in Management & Foundations of Economics

31. Which of the following is the central problem of every economy?

a. Abundance of resources b. Scarcity of economic resources c. Poverty d. Moral and ethical values

32. Which of the following figures represents the price equilibrium on a market?

Figure (A) Figure (B) a. Figure A

b. Figure B

33. Which of the following is an advantage of the organizational structure of Option A over the structure of Option B?

a. Departments will have more functional similarity with Option A than with Option B.

b. Employees will have more opportunities for advancement with Option A than with Option B.

c. Employees will receive more guidance during new projects with Option A than with Option B.

d. Communication and decision making will be faster with Option A than with Option B

34. Microeconomics addresses which of the following issue(s)? a. Inflation b. Unemployment c. GDP Growth d. Total production volume of a company e. All of (a), (b) and (c)

Price (P) Supply Demand

P* E

Q* Quantity (Q)

Price (P) Demand Supply

E P*

Q* Quantity (Q)

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35. If a price increase of good A increases the quantity demanded of good B, then good B is :

a. Substitute good b. Complementary good c. Bargain d. Inferior good e. None of above

36. Opportunity costs are best described as the costs of:

a. Operating a business b. Choosing one alternative over others c. Developing new products d. Entering a new market with an existing product

37. Price discrimination is :

a. Usually an illegal marketing strategy

b. The fact that poor customers are not well treated

c. Charging different prices to different customers

d. Based on differences in cost elasticity of supply

e. All of the above

38. A person has comparative advantage in producing a good or service if he/she:

a. Can produce the good or service faster than others

b. Can produce the good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other people

c. Has stronger energy

d. Can produce the good or service at the lowest absolute cost

e. Have a higher opportunity cost than other

39. Assuming a restaurant sells pizzas at the rate of $6 a pizza and hires workers at $8 per hour to work an 8-hour day, how many workers should be hired in order to maximize profit?

a. 1 worker b. 2 workers c. 3 workers d. 4 workers e. 5 workers

40. Nominal GDP is : a. The total value of goods and services net of exports b. The total value of goods and services produced during periods of low unemployment c. The total value of goods and services measured at current prices d. The total value of goods and services produced at full employment e. The total value of goods and services measured at the reference prices

41. Given Real GDP of 6.5% and rate of inflation of 5.5%, the nominal GDP will be……. a. 1% b. 6.85% c. 12% d. 12.35% e. 35.75%

Number of workers Number of pizza sold

per day 1 50 2 80 3 100 4 110 5 120

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42. The belief that a firm's obligation goes beyond that required by law and economics, and includes a pursuit of long-term goals that are good for society is known as:

a. Social responsiveness b. Ethical responsibility c. Social responsibility d. Social obligation

43. The SWOT approach assesses an organization's : a. Speed, Wants, Order, Timing b. Structure, Workforce, Organization, Types c. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats d. Signs, Worries, Objectives, Techniques

44. Answer on the basis of the relationships shown in the below four figures. The amount of Y is inversely related to the amount of X in:

a. 2 only. b. Both 1 and 3 c. 3 only d. 1 only e. Both 3 and 4

45. Shares are: a. A loan contract b. Also known as bonds c. Issued by sole proprietorships. d. Titles of ownership of a corporation

46. Which of the following is a public good or service? a. Tires b. Cars c. Infrastructures d. Gasoline e. Any kinds of popular consumption goods and services

47. If you owned a small farm, which of the following would be a fixed cost?

a. Harvest labor b. Weather insurance c. Fertilizer d. Seeds

48. Which of the following countries comprise the Great Mekong Sub-region (GSM) ?

a. China, Laos PDR, Thailand, Indonesia, Cambodia and Vietnam

b. Cambodia, Laos PDR, Myanmar, Vietnam, and China

c. Mongolia, Myanmar, Laos PDR, Cambodia, Thailand and Vietnam

d. Cambodia, Thailand, Indonesia, Myanmar, Laos PDR and Vietnam

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49. What will be the date of the integration of the ASEAN Economic Community?

a. December 30, 2015 b. December 31, 2015 c. January 1st, 2016 d. January 2nd, 2016 e. No determined date yet

50. The mix marketing (4Ps) contains the following elements:

a. Product, Price, People, and Place b. Product, Place, People and Promotion c. Product, People, Process and Promotion d. Product, Price, Place and Promotion e. Product, People, Place and Promotion

51. The names of the two companies listed on Cambodia Securities Exchange (CSX) are:

a. ACLEDA Securities Plc., and Phnom Penh Water Supply Authority (PWSA)

b. Phnom Penh Water Supply Authority (PWSA), and Sonatra Securities Plc.,

c. Phnom Penh Water Supply Authority (PWSA), and Grand Twins International (Cambodia) Plc.,

d. Canadia Securities Plc., and Phnom Penh Water Supply Authority (PWSA)

e. Canadia Securities Plc., and ACLEDA Securities Plc.,

52. Which one of the following statements in accounting is false? a. An asset has a debit account b. An asset has a credit account c. Retained earnings have a credit account d. A short-term debt has a credit account e. A short-term debt is a liability

53. The value of saving USD 5,000 at an annual of 5% for 5 years is:

a. USD 5,571 b. USD 5,581 c. USD 6,371 d. USD 6,381 e. USD 6,400

The following graph represents two investment projects proposed to an investor (A and B).

Use the graphic to answer the question 70 and 71. Note: “NPV” stands for “Net Present

Value”, a method of making an investment decision by subtracting discounted future cash

flows by its initial investment, and “IRR” stands for “Internal Rate of Return”, a discounting

rate which makes an investment project break even (for the Question 54 and 55).

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54. Following NPV rule, the investor has to invest in the project ……………….

55. The rate of i* = …………………………….. given thatthe initial investment (CF0) and returned cash flow (CF1) of the Project A are shown as (CF0 = -1000, CF1 = 1200), andproject B (CF0 = -10, CF1 = 30)

Income Statement (for the Question 56 to 60)

Tom and Jerry decided to create a new company providing entertainment services. They had put $50,000 cash in the bank account of the company, and a building valued at $360,000. They bought a new car at $80,000 which was financed by a bank loan to be repaid in 5 years by constant amortization (interest rate = 10% per year). Then, they purchased in credit drinks from suppliers for $30,000 to put in stock. After one-year activities, they recorded the following accounting information:

- Supplier debt was paid at the beginning of the year (January) - More drinks were bought for $80,000 using cash to fill the inventory. A drink bought

at $1 was resold at $2 - Drinks sales: $130,000 - Entrance tickets sales: $20,000 - Insurance expenses: $40,000 - Personnel expenses: $140,000

After the one-year operations, the equipments were depreciated. The car has a useful life of 5 years, and the building has 10 years (constant depreciation). The corporate tax is 40%.

56. What is the total amount of depreciations recorded by the company for the year 1?

a. $16,000

b. $36,000

c. $52,000

d. $56,000

e. $66,000

57. What is the total amount of revenues of the year?

a. $130,000

b. $200,000

c. $230,000

d. $330,000

e. $430,000

58. What are the total expenses recorded for the year?

a. $188,000

b. $232,000

c. $268,000

d. $298,000

e. $305,000

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59. What is the net income after tax for the year?

a. $15,000

b. $15,500

c. $19,200

d. $19,500

e. $85,200

60. What would be the value of the car after two-year operations?

a. $16,000

b. $32,000

c. $48,000

d. $64,000

e. None of above

ANSWER SHEET

Name: Applied Master: M1‐EPM M1‐RMIBF M1‐GEB

PART 4 ‐ Problem Solving & Quantitative Reasoning PART 5 ‐ General Knowledge in Management & Economics

Question # Question #

1 A B C D E 31 A B C D

2 A B C D E 32 A B

3 A B C D E 33 A B C D E



6 A B C D E 36 A B C D






12 A B C D E 42 A B C D

13 A B C D E 43 A B C D


15 A B C D E 45 A B C D


17 A B C D E 47 A B C D

18 A B C D E 48 A B C D






24 A B C D E 54 A B

25 A B C D E 55 i* = 18.18 %



28 A B C D 58 A B C D E



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