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CMAT CT- 34

Test nstructions

v THIS TEST contains 100 questions to be solved in 180 minutes and is divided into

the following sections:

Section I – Quantita tive Techniques & Data Interpreta tion – 25 questions

Section II – Logical Reasoning – 25 questions

Section III – Language Comprehension – 25 questions

Section IV – General Awareness – 25 questions

v Each question has four options. You have to select the right answer by clicking on the

button beside the option.

v If you want to change any of your answers at a later stage, you can do the same by

clicking on the other option that you think is suitable. This will automatically deselect the

option that you had clicked on earlier.

v Each question carries 4 marks. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of 1 mark.

v There is no negative marking for not attempting a question.

v Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these

directions carefully and answer the questions by selecting the appropriate button.

v Since the test does not have sectional time limits, you can move across sections and answer

questions according to your comfort level.

v After you finish taking the test, click on ‘Submit’ button to end the test. Once you click

on ‘Submit’, you will not have the opportunity to go back to the test.

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Bandra (E), Mumbai - 400 051

Tel.: +91 22 6668 0005 Fax: +91 22 6668 0006.E-mail : [email protected] Website: www.imsindia.com

© IMS Learning Resources Pvt. Ltd., Mumbai.

All copyrights to this material vests with IMS Learning Resources Pvt. Ltd.

No part of this material either in part or as a whole shall be copied, printed, electronically

reproduced, sold or distributed without the written consent of IMS Learning Resources

Pvt. Ltd. and any such violation would entail initiation of suitable legal proceedings.

mailto:[email protected]

http://www.imsindia.com/

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mailto:[email protected]

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SECTION-I

DIRECTIONS for ques tions 1 to 21: Choose thecorrect alternative.

1. A father has to distribute an amount (in INR)

equal to the square of 1268 among his daugh-

ters. What can be the possible number of daugh-

ters, such that the amount left with him after

equal distribution is only 1 rupee?

1] 3 2] 5

3] 4 4] None of these

2. If S is sum of the squares of the sides of a

triangle and Q is sum of the product of the

sides of a triangle taken two at a time. Whichof the following is true?

1] S > Q 2] S > 2Q3] S < 2Q 4] S = 2Q

3. In the figure given below, ST is a tangent to

the circle with centre O and ÐORQ = 57o.

What is the measure of ÐTQR?

P

S

T

O

R

Q

1] 33o 2] 66o

3] 57o 4] 43o

4. A company produces only two types of toys:

A and B. A total of 5500 toys were produced

in March. In the month of April, the production

of toy A increased by 11% and the production

of toy B increased by 20%. Because of this,

the total number of toys produced in April became 6,330. How many toys of the type A

were produced in the month of March?

1] 2,735 2] 1,600

3] 3,000 4] 2,335

5. What is the maximum value of (x2 × y3), if x,

y satisfy the condition 5x + 6y = 30 and y

is a whole number?

1] (12/5)2 × 27 2] (6/5)2 × 64

3] (18/5)2 × 8 4] None of these

6. Find the area of the shaded reg ion in the

following diagram:

12

4

1 : 2 : 1

1] 6 – p 2] 12 – p

3] 6 – 2 p 4] 12 – 2 p

7. Jack and Jill appear in an interview for two

vacancies. The probability of Jack’s selection

is1

4 and that of Jill’s selection is

1

3. What

is the probability that only one of them will

be selected?

1]5

122]

1

2

3]7

124]

1

12

8. In triangle ABC, D and E are two points lying

on sides AB and AC respectively. The per-

pendicular distance of both the points D and

E from BC is the same. AD = 4 cm, AE = 8

cm, DB = (x – 4), EC = (3x – 19). What is the

value of x?

1] 9 2] 11

3] 13 4] 5

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9. 12 memebrs of a team (including two people

A and B) are made to stand in a line in a such

way that A and B are never together. What

is the number of ways in which these 12 peoplecan be made to stand together?

1] 10(11!) 2] (2!)×(12!)

3] 12! – 10! × 2! 4] 12! / 2!

10. y = x3 – x2 + 6

Find the value of y, when x can be written

as the product of two prime factors and 10

< x < 15.

1] 4552 2] 404

3] 2554 4] 504.867

11. A man sells 20 articles for Rs.120 with a gain

percent of 20%. How many articles can he buy

for Rs.60.

1] 12 2] 15

3] 10 4] 20

12. What is the value of the following expression:

7 3

10 3+ –

2 5

6 5+ –

3 2

15 3 2+

1] 0 2] –3

3] 1 4] –2

13. If f(x) = |2 –2x

9|, then what is the sum of

all possible values of x for which f(x) = 8?

1] 14 2] 18

3] 16 4] 23

14. If f(x) = ( )2

1

x –1 and g(x) =( )( )

x 1

x 2

+

+, then the

value of ( )( ) ( )( ) ( )( ){ }( )( )

f g 0 f g 2 f g 3f g –2

+ + is

1]196

72

2]22363

3]273

81

4] an indefinite value

15. The sum of the cubes of first 10 natural numbers

is given by x; the sum of the squares of the

first 15 natural numbers is given by y; the sum

of the first 20 natural numbers is given by z.

Find the remainder of( )x – 2 y – 2 z

1000

.

1] 325 2] 250

3] 125 4] 225

16. In the figure given below, a circle is inscribed

inside a quadrilateral ABCD such that E, F,

G and H are the points where the circle touches

the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively.

AD = 7 cm, BC = 13 cm, AE = 3x, EB = 4x,

DG = y, and GC = 5y. How many values of

x are possible?

D

E

F

G

HO

A B

C

1] 13 2] Infinite

3] 5 4] None of these

17. If it is known that n is a natural number, then

the expression (n + 1)3 – 3n2 – 4n – 1 is

always divisible by:

1] 4 2] 9

3] 6 4] 8

18. An office has three compartments: one has a

capacity to house only one person, second

one has a capacity to seat only two persons

and the third one can accommodate four

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persons. In how many ways can these com-

pa rtments be al lotted to seven persons ?

1] 7C3 2] 105

3] (7!)( 7C3) 4] 7!

19. On a plane there are 15 points out of which

5 are collinear. How many straight lines can

be drawn using this points.

1] 96 2] 100

3] 106 4] 101

20. A person moving with a speed of 10 m/s covers

a distance of 1 km. During the return journey,

his speed is 25 m/s but still he takes the same

time to cover that 1 km distance. This is so,

because he makes a few stops while travelling.What is the total number of stops he makes

during the return journey, if each stop is of

15 second duration?

1] 4 2] 12

3] 15 4] 0

21. In the figure given below, PQR is a triangle

right angled at Q. QS is perpendicular to PR.

PQ = 3 cm, QR = 4 cm, and SR = 3.2 cm. What

is the perimeter of the triangle PQS?

P

3.2

4

3

S

RQ

1] 7.2 cm 2] 8.4 cm

3] 6 cm 4] 9.6 cm

DIRECTIONS for question 22: Answer the question

based on the data given below.

A company manufactured a total of 2,160 electronic

items and the quantity wise split ( in degrees) for them

is given in the following pie chart:

Electr onic Items

PlayStations, 30

Laptop s, 45

Tablets, 60

I-pods, 75 Digital

clocks, 15

Calculators,

45

M obiles, 90

22. What is the ratio of (the number of I-pods +

the number of play stations) to the (number

of laptops – the number of digital clocks)?

1] 7 : 4 2] 5 : 23] 7 : 2 4] 5 : 4

DIRECTIONS for question 23: Answer the quest ion

based on the data given below.

The following distribution shows the number of guitars

sold by YAMAHA in six years:

0

50

100

150

200

250

300

350

2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

Series2

23. If guitar prices were INR 6000 per guitar till

2007, and INR 3500 per guitar after 2007,

then in which year were the company’s rev-

enues the highest?

1] 2007 2] 2006

3] 2009 4] 2008

Direc tions for question 24: The following quest ion

is followed by information in three statements. Read

the statement carefully and decide that information

in which of the statement/s is/are NOT REQUIRED

to answer the question and hence can be dispensed

with. Choose the correct alternative in the question.

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24. How many students appeared in the examina-

tion in year 2007?

I. 82% of the students who appeared in theexamination in the year 2007, passed the

examination.

II. The number of students who pass theexamination increases by 100 every year.

III. 620 students passed the examination in

the year 2005.

1] Only I

2] Only II

3] Only III

4] None can be dispensed with

DIRECTIONS for question 25: The question below

is followed by two statements I and II.

Mark [1], if either of the statements alone is suf-

fic ien t to answer the question.

Mark [2], if only one of the statements alone but

not the other statement is sufficient to answer the

question.

Mark [3], if the quest ion can be answer ed with the

help of both statements together but not with the

help of either statement alone.

Mark [4], if the question cannot be answered unless

more information is provided.

25. Given a parallelogram PQRS with SM and QN perpend iculars on PQ and SP r e s p e c -

tively. What is the length of SP?

I. SM = 8 cm, PQ = 6 cm

II. QN = 10 cm

SECTION-II

DIRECTIONS for quest ion 26 to 35: Choose the

correct alternative

26. Eight monkeys A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are

hanging on two vertical and parallel poles P1

and P2 of equal length with 4 monkeys on each pole and monkeys on both poles directly facing

each other. The distance between two adjacent

monkeys on P1 is the same as the distance

between any two ad jacen t mon keys on P2.

Distance between two poles is much larger than

distance between any two monkeys on a pole.

Distance between H and C is maximum as is

the case for F and B. F and C are at the largest

distance from the ground. G is closest to C,while D is closest to H. A is hanging exactly

in front of G while D is hanging exactly in front

of E. Which of the following options is correct?

1] H is closest to F, G is closest to B, A and

D are adjacent to each other.

2] H is adjacent to D, E is adjacent to B, A

is adjacent to H.

3] A is closest to D, G is closest to E, D

is closest to H.

4] A is adjacent to H, G is adjacent to B and

A is adjacent to D.

27. If G is coded as 10, THINK is coded as 77,then how will PONDER be coded?

1] 102 2] 90

3] 84 4] 96

28. Find the incorrect number in the series given

below

–1, 5, 13, 23, 35, 49, 66

1] 66 2] 35

3] 23 4] 13

29. Five hackers A, B, C, D and E are attemptingto crack the password of an antivirus. At one

time, only one hacker is attempting the hack.

The one who attempts first gives up, after whom

C takes over. The one who attempts last had

taken the process up after A had given it a

try. E was not the first or the last to attempt

the hack. Two people attempted between B and

A. Which of the following options is correct?

1] E attempted before A and B was the last

to attempt.

2] C attempted after B and E had attempted

the last

3] A attempted before E and B was first to

attempt

4] C attempted after B and D had attempted

last

30. In a certain code language, ’SIM GSM’ is written

‘*/’, ‘GPRS CDMA’ is written as ‘+ %’ and

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‘GSM GPRS’ is written as ‘*+’.Then, what is

the code for ‘SIM’?

1] % 2] *

3] + 4] /

31. In a family, there are seven members: A, B,

C, D, E, F, and G. Each couple has 2 kids. A

is the father of B, but B is not his son. C is

married to G and is A’s son. G is the mother

of E but E is not her daughter. F is the daughter

of C. Then B is E’s _______.

1] Uncle 2] Sister

3] Aunt 4] None of these

32. Find the next term in the series.

–3, 2, 20, 58, 123, ____ 1] 219 2] 196

3] 245 4] 222

33. In a city, there are two shopping malls: A and

B. 50 people go to mall A and 50 people go

to Mall B for shopping. 50 people do not go

to any of the shopping malls and 20 people

go to both the shopping malls. If 20 people

from those who do not go to any of the malls

start visiting malls, such that 10 people go to

both the malls, 5 go to only mall A and 5 go

to only mall B, then find the number of people

who visit only mall A.1] 55 2] 25

3] 35 4] 45

34. A , B, C, D and E are five professors in a college.

One of them is a historian, one is a physicist,

one is a mathematician, one of them is a

geologist and one teaches computer science.

Three of them - A, C and the one who teaches

computer science prefer Wikipedia over books

and two of them - B and the mathematician

prefer books over Wikipedia. The geologist,

D and A are friends but two of them prefer

book s over Wikipedia. The historian is C’s

brother.

Who is the physicist?

1] C 2] E

3] A 4] B

35. If the Republic Day of India was on a Wednes-

day in the year 2000, then on which day did

India’s Independence Day occur in the year

2002?

1] Wednesday 2] Friday

3] Saturday 4] Thursday

DIRECTIONS for question 36: In the fol lowing

question, three figures are given that form a se-

quence. From the options given, choose the one that

completes the sequence.

36.

1]

2]

3]

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4]

DIRECTIONS for quest ion 37 to 39: Choose the

correct alternative.

37. Four people use four devices: Laptop, Tablet,

Iphone and Ipod. Only three of them use a

laptop. A doesn’t use a Tablet or an Iphone.

B doesn’t like the Laptop. B and C both sharea likeness of two of the devices. A and B prefer

to use Ipods, while C doesn’t like the Ipod.

Only three of them use an Iphone. D uses only

2 of the devices.

Which of the following options is correct?

1] All like Iphones except A, and D uses a

tablet

2] A and C both use Laptop and Ipods

3] B and D have two devices in common that

they both like/use

4] B and C both use Tablet and Iphone while

D uses Laptop and Iphone.

38. Three people Abhay, Sumit, Anil from 3 dif-

ferent countries: India, America and Africa

gathered for a business conference. During the

introduction, they made the following state-

ments about their nationality:

Anil : I am not an American; Abhay is an

African.

Sumit: Abhay is not an African; I am an

American.

Abhay: Anil is not an Indian; I am an Ameri-

can.

If it is known that one of them always speaks

the truth, one of them always lies and the third

one first speaks a lie and then the truth, then

who is the person who always speaks the truth?

1] Anil

2] Sumit3] Abhay

4] Cannot be determined

39. There is a machine which follows these steps:

Step 1: Get the number N. Assign S = 0

Step 2: Change the value of N to (N + 3). Changethe value of S to (S + 1)

Step 3: If 20 > N > 12, then change the valueof N to (N/3). Move to step 5 by skippingstep 4.

Step 4: Change the value of N to N + 7

Step 5: If N is a prime number, then STOPotherwise MOVE to step 2.

If the input number is 9, then which of the

following options is correct when the machinestops?

1] S = 2, N = 5 2] S = 3, N = 73] S = 5, N = 13 4] S = 4, N = 19

DIRECTIONS for questions 40 and 41: The follow-

ing statements are followed by two arguments. You

have to classify them into strong and weak argu-

ments. Strong Arguments must be both important

and directly related to the question. Weak Argu-

ments may not be directly related or may be related

to only trivial aspects of the question and may beof minor importance.

Mark [1], if only argument I is strong.

Mark [2], if only argument II is strong.

Mark [3], if neither I nor II is strong.

Mark [4] , if both I and II are strong.

40. Statement: Is it necessary to understand level

1 booklet before moving on to level 2?

Arguments:

I. No. Level 1 booklet is only an introductory

text and hence can be skipped.II. Yes. An introductory text like Level 1 booklet

is important for first time readers.

41. Statement: Should Typing Practice be made

mandatory for clerical jobs?

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Arguments:

I. Yes. Typing helps improve hand – eye co-ordination.

II. No. In the initial phase, clerical jobs donot involve typing.

DIRECTIONS for question 42: The question below

is followed by two statements I and II.

Mark [1], if either of the statements alone is suf-

fic ien t to answer the question.

Mark [2], if only one of the statements alone but

not the other statement is sufficient to answer the

question.

Mark [3], if the question can be answer ed with the

help of both statements together but not with the

help of either statement alone.

Mark [4], if the question cannot be answered unless

more information is provided.

42. Where i s Ma tt?

Statements:

I. Matt lived in his house at 38, Marker St.Finnsbury, Manchester.

II. Matt has been missing for the last seven

days

Directions for question 43: The following question

is followed by information in three statements. Read the statement carefully and decide that information

in which of the statement/s is/are NOT REQUIRED

to answer the question and hence can be dispensed

with. Choose the correct alternative in the question.

43. Six boys are standing in a row in ascending

order of their heights from left to right. Who

is the third tallest?

I. Ballu is taller than Babloo who is taller

than Billu who in turn is taller than Bunty.

II. Bittu is shorter than Ballu and taller than

Banku who in turn is taller than Bunty.

III. Billu is taller than Banku and shorter than

Bittu who in turn is shorter than Babloo.

1] Either II or III

2] Either I or II

3] Either I or III

4] Only III

DIRECTIONS for questions 44 and 45: Choose the


44. If IMIATE is coded as IMIETA and OZONAE

is coded OZOEAN, then from the given

options, how will NOTEBOOK be coded?

1] NOTECOOL 2] NOTEBAAK 3] NOTEKOOB 4] NOETKOOB

45. Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around

a circular table. The distance between any two

pers ons is the sam e. P is thi rd to the right

of T. There are two persons sitting between

U and Q. Q is closest to T. Which of the

following options is definitely true?

1] If S is closest to Q, then R is closest toP.

2] R is adjacent to P; P is on second seat

to the right of U.

3] If U is on the left side of P, then R and

S are diagonally opposite.

4] P is diagonally opposite to T, Q is diago-

nally opposite to U and R is closest to

P.

DIRECTIONS for que st ions 46 and 47: In the

following questions, three statements are given and

these statements are followed by two conclusions

numbered (I) and (II). You have to take the givenstatements to be true even if they seem to be at

variance with commonly known facts. Read the

conclusions and then decide which of two given

statements, and:

Mark [1] , if only conclu sion I fol lows.

Mark [2], if only conc lusion II fol lows.

Mark [3] , if both I and II fol low.

Mark [4], if neither I nor II foll ows.

46. Statements : Some shoes are sandals

All sandals are slippers

Conclusion

I: Some shoes are sl ippers

II: Some slippers are sandals

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47. Statements : All things frosty are groovy

: Some groovy things are savory

ConclusionI: Some things that are frosty are savory

II: All Things that are savory are groovy

DIRECTIONS for questions 48 to 50: Choose the


48. Find the next term in the given series:

9, 29, 67, 129, 221, ___

1] 349 2] 296

3] 316 4] 412

49. There are six celebrities A, B, C, D, E, and

F who were interviewed by a news channel.

Every day one celebrity was interviewed for

six days of a week. The following information

is known about them: D is interviewed just

before A, E is interviewed after B, C is inter-

viewed on a Saturday, and 2 people are in-

terviewed between B and D. Then who was

pos sibly in terviewed on Tuesd ay?

1] B 2] E

3] D 4] None of these

50. In a reality show, from amongst six kids: Aaron,Bill, Craig, Daniel, Ema, Freeda and five senior

citizens: Paul, Queeny, Ramon, Stuart and Ted,

a team of six is to be selected. Aaron and Daniel

have a good understanding, so they have to

be together. Craig and Stuart hate each other,

so they don’t work together. Stuart and Ted

have to be together. Bill cannot be teamed with

Ema. Daniel cannot go with Paul. Bill and Ramon

have to be together. Craig and Queeny have

to be together. If four members of the team

are senior citizens, the members of the team

are

1] Bill, Craig, Paul, Queeny, Ramon, Stuart

2] Bill, Freeda, Paul, Ramon, Stuart, Ted

3] Bill, Craig, Queeny, Ramon, Stuart, Ted

4] Bill, Craig, Paul, Queeny, Ramon, Ted

SECTION-III

DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 62: Read the fol-lowing short passages and answer the question that

follows each passage.

“Zero Dark Thirty” chronicles a long trail of frus-

tration, leading to fragmentary gains and, at last, to

success, on the night of May 1, 2011: Operation

Neptune’s Spear, a Navy SEALS’ siege of bin Laden’s

hideout in Abbottabad, which is so perfectly executed

that it almost defies normal skepticism about the way

life works. The virtue of “Zero Dark Thirty,” however,

is that it pays close attention to the way life does

work; it combines ruthlessness and humanity in a

manner that is paradoxical and disconcerting yet

satisfying as art. In attempting to show, in a main-stream movie, the reprehensibility of torture, and what

was done in our name, the filmmakers seem to have

conflated events, and in this they have generated

a sore controversy.

51. What does the author mean by “Zero Dark

Thirty”?

1] “Zero Dark Thirty” is the name of Bin laden’shideout in Abottabad.

2] It is a term given to any mission that

combines ruthlessness and humanity in a

manner that is paradoxical.

3] “Zero Dark Thirty” is a masterly movie

depicting the reprehensibility of tortureduring operation.

4] It is a book about a long trail of frustration,

leading to fragmentary gains and, at last,to success.

The CAR has been robbed by rebel conflicts, since

the fall of dictator Bokasa in 1979. President Bozize

seized power in a coup. He has since relied on foreign

intervention to fend off ethnic tensions, spillovers

from conflicts in neighboring Chad, Sudan and the

Democratic Republic of Congo. In 2009, the Lord’s

Resistance army crossed into the troubled country.

The African Union deployed a military force to hunt

down the LRA’s founder Kony who is believed to be in the CAR.

This instability has stifled the country’s progress.

It remains the continent’s poorest nation despite its

wealth of timber, gold, uranium and diamond depos-

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its. According to a survey, the capital, Bangui, is

the world’s second worst place to live in.

52. “ It remai ns the continent’ s poo rest nati on

despite its wealth of timber, gold, uranium

and diamond deposits.” What does the ‘it’ in

the sentence refer to?

1] The CAR

2] Sudan

3] Bangui

4] The Democratic Republic of Congo

Apple suffered a major setback on Wednesday in

its fight with Amazon over the use of the term App

Store when a Federal Judge rejected Apple’s claim

that the Amazon app store for Android was com-

mitting false advertising.

“There is no evidence that a consumer who assesses

the Amazon App store would expect that it would

be identical to the Apple App store, particul arly, given

that the Apple App store sells apps solely for Apple

devices, while the Amazon App store sells apps solely

for Android and Kindle devices,” Hamilton wrote in

her order to dismiss the claim. Further, the integration

of Apple devices has more to do with Apple’s

technology than it does with the nature, character-

istics or qualities of App store.

53. What can be said about Hamilton from the pa ss ag e?

1] She is related to the Apple App store.

2] She is related to the Amazon App store.3] She is a person from the advertising De-

par tment.

4] She is a federal judge.

Mr. Niederauer, chief executive of the NYSE Euronext,

isn’t blind to the inevitable. He agreed to sell the

Big Board to IE for $8.2 billion.

While that’s a 37% premium on Wednesday’s closing

price, it’ s a quar ter less than what ICE offered in

its joint bid with NASDAQ OMX last year. With NYSE’s shares lagging the exchange sector since then,

capitulation was his best option .

In a conference call, Mr. Niederauer said that the

NYSE had fail ed to deliver value for shareholders,

either because of the unfavourable environment or

as a result of poor management. As of Wednesday’s

close, NYSE’s stock had fallen 30 percent since the

day before ICE and NASDAQ began their hostile offer in April last year. Both ICE and NASDAQ have pretty

much retained their value.

54. According to the paragraph, what best explains

Mr. Niederaurer’s decision to sell the Big Board

to IE?

1] IE was ready to buy it for $8.2 billion, which

he thought was a good price.

2] Mr. Niederaurer preferred to pursue the

tie-up with ICE and NASDAQ OMX.

3] The settled deal was offering a 37% premiumover Wednesday’s closing price.

4] Capitulation was Mr. Niederaurer’s bestoption, since NYSE’s shares were laggingin the exchange sector after rejecting last

year’s offer.

The astounding success of the Graf Zeppelin had

proven the viab ili ty of long rang e passenger trans-

porta tion by airship, and by the late 19202 s, Hugo

Eckener and the Zeppelin Company were enthusiastic

about building a fleet of ships specifically designed

for intercontinental passenger transportation.

The ship originally planned for this role was LZ-128,

which would have been 761 feet long and lifted by

5,307,000 cubic feet of hydrogen. But the fiery crashof the British airship R-101 in October, 1930 (in which

passengers and crew were killed by the hydr ogen

fire that followed the crash, rather than by the impact

itself) convinced the Zeppelin Company to alter its

plans and develop a ship capable of being lifted by

helium.

55. What prompted the Zeppel in Company to

modify its plans?

1] The astounding success of Graf Zeppelin

prompted the compan y to i nnovate by usingcheaper helium as a fuel.

2] The risks posed by hydrogen as a fuelfor air transportation.

3] The crash of the British airship R-101 dueto use of hydrogen fuel.

4] Helium is quite cheap as compared to hy-

drogen and due to its huge fuel require-

ment, the company preferred helium to

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hydrogen.

To pass the NEPC, you must know the basic rules

of grammar. Grammar helps in rendering better struc-

ture to the written text. A well written essay ensures

that your application will catch the eye of the in-

terviewer. In short, if you are well versed with your

P’s and Q’s, you will get your A’s on the NEPC.

56. Which of the following is an assumption made

by th e Au th or?

1] Hard work is the only possible way tosucceed on the NEPC.

2] Selecting the correct option will help in

scoring good grades on Exams.

3] Writing prowess is an integral determinant

of success on the NEPC.4] A well written essay is the highlight of

one’s performance.

Increasing crime rate compels people to stay cautious

and make security a priority. The police force is

engaged in catching criminals. If there are no crimi-

nals, there will be no crime and no need for paranoia

on the part of the citizens.

57. Which of the following most closely parallels

the reasoning in the above passage?

1] A balanced diet keeps you healthy. In order

to be healthy, always opt for a nutritivediet which provides you with essential

supplements.

2] Scientists are regularly experimenting which

results in new inventions. Job oriented edu-cation kills scientific temperament in kids.

No scien tis ts would mean no experiments

and finally no new inventions.

3] Hard work and success go hand in hand.

If you want to be successful, you shouldwork hard. Not working hard results in

failure.4] A dormant seed tends to germinate in ap-

propriate climat ic condi tions. In absence

of suitable climatic conditions, the seed

growth is inhibited.

“ Bett er late than never ”: Most of us have seen this

sign while travelling on the highway. It shows that

a single mistake can be a matter of life and death.

Bad driving habits often lead to accidents. However,

if more people drive below the prescribed speed limits,

many accidents can be prevented.

58. The passage introduces a phrase and then

explains what it means. Which of the following

best capt ur es th e mean in g of th e st ar ti ng

ph ra se?

1] “Couch potato”- Regularly eating healthy

food makes you appear like a potato couch.

2] “Once in a blue moon”- The phenomenonof day following night happens once in

a blue moon.

3] “Strike the iron when it is hot”- The traders

at the Wall Street are notoriously quick

at identifying an opportunity and strikingthe iron when it is hot.

4] “At an arm’s length”- Children are so fond

of ice creams and chocolates that they

always want them at an arm’s length.

The innate nature of a person defines his daily

behaviour . This behaviour is an important determi-

nant of the individual’s opinions and beliefs. Behaviour

of an individual can be rewarding or unrewarding.

It is upon the individual to choose between the two.

59. Which of the following does not show the same

reasoning as shown above?

1] Good dancing depends on the teaching

you have received from your teacher.Good dancing helps in formation of good

pos ture. A good teach er is one wh o

pinpoints your mistakes and supports you

whenever you need it.

2] What you are in your present life dependson the deeds done by you in your past

life. Present life sets your future life. Deeds

can be good or bad, it totally depends

upon you.

3] In order to make the company profitable,it has to reduce staffing levels. A scrutiny

in the HR Department of the company canhelp in determining the excess staff pre-

vailing in the company.

4] Deforestation is one of the reasons for Global warming. Global warming results inirreparable loss to mankind. Global warm-

ing can also cause skin cancer.

It is not that hard to find out what season it is. There

is a cold breeze blowing and the temperature has fallen

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throughout the plateau. The mercury has hit an all-

time low because of the strong winds. Moreover, we

can see that the reptiles have started hibernating.

This must be the cold and windy winter.

60. Which of the following uses the same reason-

ing as used in the above paragraph?

1] School is a social institution where children

not only receive knowledge, but alsogerminate the seed of learning which helps

them to become good citizens in the future.

2] A company has performed remarkably last

year and its Balance Sheet shows that it

has retained good profit. It has alsodistributed Dividend to its share holder

which is a good management practice.

3] Due emphasis on vaccina tion by the

Government Health care department has

led to successful eradication of Polio. Thisshows that awareness within the country

can possibly uproot such diseases.

4] It is quite surprising that from a populationof 1.2 billion, the Indian Cricket Board finds

it difficult to search a few talented bowlers.

Newspaper readers eagerly await the newspaper every

morning. Apart from the news, nowadays, newspa-

pers also feature a lot of mental exercises in the form

of crosswords, Sudoku puzzles etc. A crossword

requires a mix of good vocabulary and general

knowledge. On the other hand, Sudoku is just a logical

game, which most newspaper readers do not enjoy.

Hence it would be better if the newspapers utilized

this space for something else.

61. Which one of the following is a flaw in the

argument?

1] Sudoku enhances mental skills; it must not

be considered as a mere fil ler .

2] The author mistakenly assumes that most

newspaper readers are averse to logicalgames.

3] Sudoku is not just a logical game. It also

helps in stimulating the right part of the bra in.

4] All newspaper readers are not crossword

fans.

Men who are always grumbling, and have a com-

plaining att itude towar ds life, miss the pleasur e of

it. You should always look at the greener side of

the grass. Then you will realize that life is not astough as it appears. Learn to live life to the fullest.

If we negate the bad patches, then the road will look

all rosy. Remember we all have one life to live, so

live life king size.

62. What is the flaw in the argument?

1] Man has the power to tu rn unhappy

situations into happy situations.

2] Life is important because we just have one

life.

3] The author is considering the importanceof happiness in life.

4] The author is not considering the impor-tance of misery in life.

DIRECTIONS for question 63: Choose the option

that gives the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

63. To g ive chapter and verse

1] To prepare oneself for work

2] To give exact information

3] Well- versed with lessons

4] To be an expert

DIRECTIONS for questions 64 to 66: For the givenword at the top of the table, match the dictionary

definitions on the left (A, B, C, D) with their

corresponding usage on the right (E, F, G, H). Out

of the four possibilities given in the boxes below

the table, select the one that has all the definitions

and their usage correctly matched.

64. POWER

His power to fight made him a

winner.

Sometimes, where medicines

fail, the power of prayer saves

lives.

The president has the power to

pardon any offender.

Danger intensified his powers

of discrimination.

C. Possession of qualities G.

D. Holding an office H.

A.Possession of

controlling influence E.

B. Physical strength F.

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1] A F

B E

C H

D G

2] A H

B E

C F

D G

3] A E

B F

C G

D H

4] A F

B H

C G

D E

65. PASS

The severe pain in my

wrist eventually passed

off.

D.Make laws,

bills H.

Pass along the good

news.

Travel past

A.

C.

E.

They passed an important

ammendment which was

pending since a very long

time.

B.Transmit

information F.

The racing car passed by

all the vehicles on its

way.

Disappaear

gradually

G.

1]A F

B E

C H

D G

2] A E

B H

C F

D G

3] A F

B H

C G

D E

4] A G

B H

C F

D E

66. CHOKE

A. Be too tight E.

The Indian cricket team

could have won, but

choked, disappointing the

audience.

B.

Fail to perform

adequately due to

tension

F.She choked her anger

because of the guests .

C. Check or slow down G.

When talking about the

deaths, she choked with

emotions.

D.

Breathe with great

difficulty, as when

experiencing a

strong emotion

H.The neck bands are

choking the pets.

1] A E

B F

C G

D H

2] A E

B F

C H

D G

3] A E

B F

C G

D H

4] A H

B E

C F

D G

DI RECTIONS for ques tions 67 and 68: In th e following sentences, there is a blank space. Below

it there are four words. Find out which word can

fill up the blank in the sentences to make it gram -

matically correct.

67. Either of the two top ranked players (_______)

strong in the tournament.

1] always 2] has

3] are 4] is

68. The seminars on nutritive food habits resulted

in the recognition of the fact that (_______)

seen as the gradual improvement of the dietof the poor.

1] were 2] is

3] was 4] are

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that is closest in meaning to the capitalized word.

69. PATRIARCH

1] A highly respected old person

2] Str ings of p ity

3] Not in current use

4] A person who has recently acquired riches


that uses the given idiom/phrase in the most ap-

propriate manner.

70. Achill es Heel s

1] Several plants of the genus heels of Achilles,

native to Europe, having small white flow-ers are present in this region.

2] The mountains of Achilles are heeled by

a huge river.

3] The lawyer put on heels of Achilles towin the case.

4] She was a remorseless businesswoman but

her uncritical love for her daughter was

her Achilles heel.

DIRECTIONS for questions 71 to 73: In the fol-

lowing sentences, there is a blank space. Below it

there are four words. Find out which word can fill

up the blank in the sentences to make it grammati-cally correct.

71. My exams had (_______) the temporary wonts

of not sleeping well and not having meals on

time.

1] temporize 2] protracted

3] billet 4] implore

72. The (_______) that have smitten the world

economy are poor forecasting techniques and

prolo nged ignor ance.

1] caesium 2] maladies

3] femur 4] nevus

73. The (_______) fabric of the cardigan could

not stop the chilling winds from affecting him.

1] garish 2] abaxial

3] gossamer 4] babushka

DIRECTIONS for questions 74 and 75: The follow-

ing questions have a paragraph from which one

sentence is deleted and is shown as a blank. From

the given options, choose the sentence that com-

pletes the paragraph in the mos t appropriate way.

74. India’s political fragmentation has grown only

more complicated with economic reforms. The

new policies transferred economic power from

the centre to the states, giving more strength

to regional parties _______In the 1990s, the

right-wing Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP) formed

strategic alliances with smaller, state-based

polit ical parties and rode to power with Hindu-

nationalist rhetoric that was openly hostile to

the Muslim and Christian minorities. Thegovernments that the Congress and the BJP

have led at the centre since have been coa-

litions propped up by regional parties.

1] Since then, the complications have started

coming into control.

2] Since then, we have seen our divisions

come into high relief.

3] Since then, the formation of strategic allianceshas increased manifold.

4] Since then, the hostility among minorities

has been raised.

75. One of the features of Continuous ProcessImprovement is team involvement. A team is

a group of people working together to achieve

common goals and objectives. The members

of the team should be all those who are involved

with the process. But, not all problems can

be solved by teams, nor a re al l the people sui ted

for teamwork. _______

1] So if the people are not showing enoughinvolvement, then the results may not be

fine.

2] Continuous process improvement can still be effect ively carr ied out by these ind i-

viduals.

3] Thus, all the team members must be equallyand extremely influential otherwise it will

not be effective.4] It is impossible to work in a team as different

peopl e have di fferent met hod ologies .

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SECTION-IV

DIRECTIONS for questions 76 to 100: Choose thecorrect alternative.

76. The tagline ‘We bring good things to life’ is

associated with which of the following compa-

nies?

1] Philips

2] General Electric

3] S iemens

4] Cummins

77. Who amongst the following is the author of

A Clergyman’s Daughter ?

1] George Orwell

2] Roald Dahl

3] E.B. Whi te

4] Mark Twain

78. Who has been sworn in as the Chief Minister

of Goa?

1. Laxmikant Yashwant Parsekar

2. Rajiv Mehrishi

3. B.S. Gnanadesikan

4. Lokesh Chandra

79. The full form of the global entertainment retail

chain ‘HMV’ is:

1] High Music Value

2] His Musical Vision

3] His Master’s Voice

4] Highland Music Venture

80. Captain G.R. Gopinath is known as the founder

of which airlines?

1] IndiGo

2] Air Deccan

3] GoAir 4] JetKon nec t

81. Select the correct match:

1] Garnier Fructis – L’Oreal

2] Sunsilk – Marico

3] Pantene – Unilever

4] Clinic Plus – P & G

82. Pr asa r B ha r ti d ecl a red to r e- l au nch Doo r

Darshan (DD) National with the new tagline

__ ____ .

1. Desh ka sabse Bharosemand Channel

2. Desh ka Apna Channel

3. Desh Sabse Purana Channel

4. Ab naye Andaaz me

83. The common name for Graves’ disease is:

1] Thyr oi d

2] Hyp er tens io n

3] Di ab et es

4] Arthr it is

84. _______ won 10th India Social Entrepreneur of

the Year 2014 Award?

1. Mall ika Dutt

2. Chetna Vijay Sinha

3. Hanumappa Sudarshan

4. Mat thew Spacie

85. The Rajiv Gandhi National Fellowship Scheme

by the Ministry of Social Justice Empower ment

is meant for students pursuing programmes in

higher education such as M. Phil. and Ph. D

under which one of the following categories?

1] Students from Jammu and Kashmir

2] Students from low income families

3] Students with physical disabilities

4] Students from Scheduled Caste

86. Indian Rupee is also accepted as a legal tender

in which among the following countries?

A] Bangladesh B] BhutanD] Nepal D] Myanmar

1] Only B 2] Only B and C

3] Only A and B 4] All of these

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87. Which Indian film has been nominated in the

Best Picture category of the 87 th Academy

Awards, Oscars?

1. Ja l

2. Kapus Kon dyachi Goshta

3. Bhopal: A prayer fo r Rain

4. Dri shyam

88. ‘Stoma’ a pore found in the leaf and stem epi-

dermis is used for?

1] Taking in water and minerals

2] Pol lina tion

3] Ferti lization

4] Gaseous exchange

89. Bidr ohi a famous Bengali poem has been

written by?

1] Iswarchand Gupta

2] Kazi Nazrul Islam

3] Rabindranath Tagore

4] Buddhadev Bose

90. The Chairman of the Economic Advisory

Council to the Prime Minister has a rank

equivalent to a:

1] Minister of State

2] Chief Minister 3] Cabinet Minister

4] Governor of RBI

91. Which among the following cities recorded the

largest number of Internet users in India in 2014,

according to a study conducted by the In ternet &

Mobile Association of India (IAMAI)?

1. Delhi 2. Chennai

3. Mumbai 4. Bangalore

92. The government of India has announced the

observation of Good Governance Day to mark

the 90th birthday of which former Prime min-

ister?

1. H.D. Deve Gowda

2. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

3. Manmohan Singh

4. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

93. The United Nations observes February 20 as:

1] International Day of Happiness

2] World Day of Social Justice

3] World Cancer Day

4] International Day of Families

94. Who is the director of the critically acclaimed

movie ‘Elizabeth’?

1] Mira Nair

2] Ashok Amritraj

3] Shekhar Kapur

4] M. Night Shyamalan

95. Jerusalem is an important holy place for whichof the following religions?

1] Jews, Muslims and Christians

2] Buddhists, Muslims and Jews

3] Zoroastrians, Christians and Buddhists4] Muslims, Zoroastrians and Jews

96. The famous quote “You must be the changeyou wish to see in the world” belongs to:

1] Jawaharlal Nehru

2] Mahatma Gandhi

3] Subhash Chandra Bose

4] B R Ambedkar

97. W ho won the 2014 Davis Cup?

1. Argentina 2. France3. Italy 4. Switzerland

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98. Jared Leto won the 2014 Oscar – Best Supporting

Actor for which one of the following movies?

1. American Hustle2. Captain Philips

3. Dal las Buyers Club

4. The Wolf of Wall Street

99. Who is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party?

1] Ma ya wa ti

2] B.R. Ambedkar

3] Kanshi Ram

4] Satish Chandra Mishra

100. Where did the World Economic Forum (WEF)

host the 29th

India Economic Summit?1. Bangalore 2. New Delhi

3. Mumbai 4. Chennai

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