key midterm spvs

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CHAPTER 1: 1. A systematic grouping of people brought together to accomplish some specific purpose is call a(n): ______ B: Organization 2. Common characteristics that are found in every organization include the following except for: A: it has been organized by a union. 3. Titles of typical top management positions include the following EXCEPT: D: district manager 4. Organizations develop a systematic structure that defines the various roles of members. This may include the following EXCEPT FOR: E: creating informal cliques. 5. The Taft-Hartley Act started that any person who can do which of the following is a supervisor? A/ Lay off B/ Hire C/ Suspend C/ Transfer E/ All of the above 6. Organizations may be divided in the following distinct levels EXCEPT FOR: B: board of directors 7. The controlling function includes all of the following EXCEPT FOR: D: resolving conflicts among members. 8. The bottom level in the pyramid is occupied by: E: operative employees 9. As the role of coach, the supervisor is expected to: A: know how to listen to, guide, train, and assist. 10. Individuals who reflect a group of people responsible for establishing the organizations overall objectives and

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Page 1: Key Midterm Spvs

CHAPTER 1:

1. A systematic grouping of people brought together to accomplish some specific purpose is call a(n): ______B: Organization

2. Common characteristics that are found in every organization include the following except for:A: it has been organized by a union.

3. Titles of typical top management positions include the following EXCEPT:D: district manager

4. Organizations develop a systematic structure that defines the various roles of members. This may include the following EXCEPT FOR:E: creating informal cliques.

5. The Taft-Hartley Act started that any person who can do which of the following is a supervisor? A/ Lay offB/ HireC/ SuspendC/ TransferE/ All of the above

6. Organizations may be divided in the following distinct levels EXCEPT FOR:B: board of directors

7. The controlling function includes all of the following EXCEPT FOR:D: resolving conflicts among members.

8. The bottom level in the pyramid is occupied by:E: operative employees

9. As the role of coach, the supervisor is expected to:A: know how to listen to, guide, train, and assist.

10. Individuals who reflect a group of people responsible for establishing the organizations overall objectives and developing the policies to achieve these objectives are called:D: top-level managers

11. The management function which involves monitoring activities to ensure that targets are being met is called _______A: controlling

12. Another way to think of supervisors are:E: first-level managers

13. Even though supervisors may perform operative tasks, they are still part of management. This was made clear by the passing of the:E: 1947 Taft-Harley Act

14. The process of getting things done, effectively and efficiently, through and with other people is called: B: management

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15. In management the term representing the primary activities supervisors perform is called:D: processing

16. When supervisors are performing tasks right, and they are concerned with the relationship between inputs and outputs, this relation is called:B: efficiency

17. When a supervisor is concerned with completing activities and achieving goals, this is called:B: effectiveness

18. Being a good supervisor means being concerned with both attaining goals and: E: doing so as efficiently as possible

19. The management process consists of the following functions EXCEPT FOR:A: coordinating

20. The planning function performed by managers includes the following EXCEPT FOR:C: influencing and motivating behavior

21. The organizing function includes all of the following EXCEPT FOR:C: comparing performance against predetermined work standards.

22. The following are different viewpoints of the supervisor’s role in management EXCEPT FOR:E: a figurehead

23. Supervisory positions are recruited from all of the following EXCEPT FOR:A: board of directors

24. The following are reasons for employers to promote from within the ranks of operative employees to first-line managers EXCEPT FOR:B: opposition to management

25. The major problems nineteen new supervisors experienced in their first year on the job include the following EXCEPT FOR:A: handling customer returns

26. Researcher Robert Katz, identified the following critical management competencies EXCEPT FOR:C: division of work

27. The interpersonal competence for a first-line manager would include the ability to:A/ communicate wellB/ work well with peopleC/ understand employees needsD/ motivate othersE/ all of the above

28. The mental ability managers must have in order to analyze is called:B: conceptual

29. The mental ability managers must have in order to analyze and diagnose complex situations is called: conceptual competence

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30. The importance of conceptual competence increases as managers move up in the organization because of the:E: type of problems and decisions that managers make at different levels

31. One characteristic operative employees share is they generally don’t manage or oversee the work of any other employee. Answer: TRUE

32. Supervisors oversee the work of middle managers and sometimes do the very same tasks.Answer: FALSE

33. An organization is a systematic grouping of people brought together to accomplish some specific purpose.Answer: TRUE

34. All managers perform the functions of leading and controlling. To what degree depends on their level of management in the organization.Answer: TRUE

35. The supervisor’s job has, and will continue to have, decreasing importance and simplicity in the future because of the responsibility for introducing and implementing changes.Answer: FALSE

36. Consistent with the belief that one of the most important abilities needed by supervisors is strong interpersonal skills, we often think of them as behavioral specialists.Answer: TRUE

37. The technical demands of operative employees tend to be related to knowledge of industry and a general understanding of the organization’s process and products.Answer: FALSE

38. First-level managers perform both technical and managerial work.Answer: TRUE

39. A skill is the ability to demonstrate a system and sequence of behavior that is functionally related to attaining a performance goal.Answer: TRUE

40. Beyond loyalty to the organization, a supervisor must demonstrate coerciveness to one’s employees at all time.Answer: FALSE

41. People responsible for establishing the organization’s overall objectives and developing the policies to achieve those objectives are ________ _________Answer: top management

42. ______ _______ have job titles such as vice president for finance, director of sales, division manager, group manager, unit manager, and school principals.Answer: middle managers

43. Most _______ are employed in overseeing skilled and semi-skilled workers in industry, and manage employees in retail sales and in offices.Answer: supervisors

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44. Supervisors require ______ _______ the ability to apply specialized knowledge or expertise.Answer: technical competence

45. Since supervisors deal with input resources that are scarce money, people, equipment they must be concerned about using these resources _______Answer: efficiently

46. The management process has four functions: _____, ______, _____, and ______.Answer: planning, organizing, leading, controlling

47. It is part of a manager’s job to direct and coordinate people in the organization. Performing this activity is the ______ function management.Answer: leading

48. The process of measuring performance, comparing objectives, and correcting deviations is part of the ______ function in the management process.Answer: controlling

49. Today’s supervisors have an ambiguous role such as ______, _______, _______, ______, and ______.Answer: trainer, advisor, mentor, facilitator, coach

50. Supervisors who rule from an authoritative position are called _____ supervisors.Answer: traditional

51. To succeed in their job, supervisors must be able to understand the varied needs of their staff and be able to ______, ______, and ______.Answer: listen, motivate, lead

52. Promoting from within acts as an _____ ______ and provides incentive for employees to work hard and excel.Answer: employee motivator

53. Organizations that successfully promote from the ranks select employees with adequate ______ skills and provide them with ______ training early in their new assignments.Answer: technical, supervisory

54. A recent study of 19 salespeople becoming new supervisors found the most demanding skill to learn dealt with managing _______.Answer: people

55. Strong _______ abilities help managers make good decisions.Answer: conceptual

56. The ability of a supervisor to enhance his or her power, build a power base, and establish the “right” connections in the organization describes their ____ _____Answer: political competence

57. _______ and ______ competencies increase in importance as managerial responsibility rises, while ______ competence declines in importance as individuals rise in the organization. Answer: conceptual, political, technical

58. _______ abilities are critical to success at all levels of management.

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Answer: interpersonal59. The higher one climbs the organization’s hierarchy, the more critical _____ _____

becomes because resource allocation decisions are made at higher levels in an organization.Answer: political competence

60. A _____ is a system of behavior that can be applied in a wide range of situations.Answer: skill

CHAPTER 2

1. Planning for change would constitute the following EXCEPT FOR :As E: stagnating operations

2. Many North American companies have changed dramatically in the 1990s by improving quality and reducing costs. This is direct response to :As D: global competition

3. Organizations have become increasingly global in their perspectives and accept the reality that national borders no longer define: As A: corporations

4. A specific challenge for supervisors is recognizing the differences that might exist among people. One the first issues supervisors must deal with is the perception of :As D: foreigners

5. The concept of when we see things slowly through our own eyes and within our perspectives called:As C: parochialism

6. Critical to the success of supervising others in the global village is understanding:As A: cultural environment

7. Research undertaken by Geert Hofstede found that country’s culture had a major effect on employees’ work related:As C: values and attitudes

8. Hofstede’s findings allow supervisors to group countries according to the following cultural variables EXCEPT FOR :

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As C: norming differences

9. According to the Hofstede, a strong individualistic U.S supervisor may have difficulties if sent to the Pacific Rim country where:As E: collectivism dominates

10. In dealing with employees, supervisors must recognize that they must be:As D: flexible and adaptable

11. Today’s supervisor must recognize the following individual differences among employees EXCEPT FOR :As B: employee homogeneity

12. Hofstede found that supervisors and employees vary on the following dimensions on natural culture EXCEPT FORAs D: supervisor and employees homogeneity

13. A loosely knit social framework in which people are supposed to look after their own interests, and those of their immediate family is referred to as:As D: individualism

14. A tight social framework in which people expect others in groups which they are part of to look after them and protect them when they are in trouble is referred to as:As D: collectivism

15. Technological developments impact the role of the supervisor in the following ways EXCEPT FOR:B: Increase the face to face meetings

16. Any high- tech equipment, tools or operating methods that are designed to make work more efficient are calledB. Technology

17. The method of linking a worker’s computer and modern with coworker and management at an office, making it possible for employees to be located anywhere in the global village is called:E. Telecommuting

18. Individuals comprised of males, females, whites, blacks, Hispanics, Asians, Native Americans, the disabled, homosexuals, straights, and the elderly are called:E. Work force diversity

19. The largest group in the workforce, regarded as career climbers, is called:

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D. Baby – boomer

20. American companies working to become “learn and mean” organizations by cutting their staffs and reshaping organizations are called:E. Downsizing

21. A philosophy of management that is driven by customer needs and expectations that is taking place in both business and the public sector is called:C. Continuous improvement

22. A radical or quantum change in an organization’s work process is commonly referred to as :E. Work process engineering

23. An obligation organizations have to the public going beyond the law and profit making is:D. Social responsibility

24. The foundation of a business’s public involvement is calledC. Social obligation

25. The addition of a moral element to the organization’s public obligation to do those things that make society better and not to do those things that could make it worse is:B. Social responsiveness

26. Some of the most recent changes are as follows EXCEPT FOR :A. Upsizing

27. Parochialism means:A. Seeing things solely our through own eyes

28. E-business includes the following EXCEPT B. The challenge of finding unskilled people to build and operate Intranets and

Wed sites

29. Which group will make up a lager share of workforce in the futureA. Minorities and women

30. The primary goals of continuous improvement are all of the below EXEPTC. Strive to improve the quantity of the work

31. A company’s national origin is no longer a very good gauge of where it does business or the nation origin of its employees.

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TRUE

32. Parochialism leads to viewing practices in other cultures as being better than our practices.FALSE

33. Power distance is a measure of extend to which a society accepts the fact that power institutions and organizations distributed unequallyTRUE

34. The key to success for a supervisor is to never make any adjustments to the planning of improving technologyFALSE

35. Technology is making it possible to better customers serve in many industriesTRUE

36. Employees set aside their cultural values and life-style preferences when they come to work; therefore, supervisors do not have to remake organizations to accommodate these difference lifestyles, family needs, and work styles.FALSE

37. Organizations downsize to accomplish two primary goals to create greater efficiency and reduce cost. TRUE

38. Individualism refers to a loosely knit social framework in which people are supposed to look after their own interests and those of their immediate family

TRUE

39. Continuous improvement is concern with radical or quantum change where work process engineering focuses on ongoing incremental changeFASLE

40. In situations involving ethics, supervisors will never know what they will face; therefore, supervisors should prepare ahead of time and anticipate what they would doTRUE

41. In an__________ society, people are primarily concerned with their own “family”; and in a _________ society, people care for all individuals that are part of their group.Answer: individualistic, collective

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42. A _______ __________ distance society accepts wide differences in power in organizations.Answer: high power

43. A________ _________ distance society plays down inequalities as much as possible; supervisors still have authority, but employees are not fearful or in awe of the boss.Answer: low power

44. Cultures emphasizing the _______ of life value things like assertiveness and the acquisition of money and material goods; while other cultures emphasizing the __________ of life, plane importance on relationships and showing sensitivity and concern for the welfare of others.Answer: Quantity, quality

45. The Japanese term for an organization committed to continuous improvement is ________Answer: kaizen

46. _________ is a term that refers to lost productivity time as a result of an employee using the Internet at work for personal reasons.Answer: cyber loafing

47. The objective of continuous improvement is to create an organization committed to ______ _____ ______ _______ ______ _______Answer: improved quality of goods and services

48. _______ _________ ______________ requires organizational members to rethink what work should be done, how it is to be done, and how to best implement these decisions.Answer: work processing engineering

49. ________ ___________ can generate a positive outcome for supervisors and employees in their units because everyone involved may now have input into how work is best done.Answer: continuous improvement

50. _________ ___________ is an attempt by companies to become more responsive to customers and more efficient in their operations.Answer: Corporate downsizing

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51. Tomorrow’s successful supervisors will be those who have learned to thrive on ______ and _______.Answer: Change, uncertainty

52. Every organization has one simple goal. It wants to __________Answer: Survive

53. ________ ________tries to align organizational long –term goals with what is good for societyAnswer: Social responsibility

54. A business has fulfilled its social obligation when it meets its______ and ____ responsibilities and no more.Answer: Economic, legal

55. __________ __________ requires businesses to determine what is right or wrong and thus seek fundamental truths guided by societal norms.Answer: social responsiveness

56. When company meets pollution control standards established by the federal government, or doesn’t discriminate against employees on the basis of their race in a promotion decision, the organization is fulfilling its ______ ________.Answer: social obligation

57. When a company packages its products in recycled paper, this firm is being _____ because it is providing something society desires without having to be told to do so by law.Answer: socially responsive

58. Management’s ______ standards are interpreted by employees through the actions of their supervisor’s comments and behavior.Answer: ethical

59. ______ commonly refers to the rules or principles that define right and wrong conduct.Answer: ethics

60. A ____ ______ _____ is a formal document that states an organization’s primary values and the ethical rules it expects employees to follow.Answer: code of ethics

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CHAPTER 3

1. Formalized planning became very popular in the:A/ 1980s B/1990s C/1970 D/1960s

2. Informal planning the following are major arguments EXCEPT FOR:A/planning may create rigidityB/formal plans can’t replace intuition and creativity.C/planning focuses supervisor’s attention on today’s survival, not on tomorrow’s competition.D/plans can’t be developed for a dynamic environment.

3. In most any discussion of performance by supervisors in an organization, the focus will generally turn to the topic of:A/ productivity.B/ informal discussion.C/ Strategic planning.D/ strategic objectives.E/ acquisitions and mergers.

4. The ratio of output divided by labor + capital+ material is called:A/ productivity.B/ re-engineering of work.C/employee empowerment.D/bottom-up planning.E/span of control.

5. Strategic planning deals with a lot of the following EXCEPT FOR:A/ entire organizations. B/taking corrective action.C/product and service positioning. D/overall goals.

6. Tactical planning for management is defined as:A/ specific policies fir the overall operation of the firm.B /procedures for broad applications for line managers.C/specific applications or rules for plant operations.D/broad details on specific goals to be achieved.E/specific details on how overall goals are to be achieved.

7. Long-term plans cover a period of in excess of five years and tend to be developed by:A/supervisors.B/sales directors.C/top executives.D/operative employees.E/middle-level managers.

8. The time dimension of intermediate-term planning is approximately:A/10-15 years.B/0-30 days.

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C/1 month to 1 year.D/0-5 years.E/5-10 years.

9. Plans that can be used over and over again by managers faced with recruiting activities are:A/production bottlenecks.B/procedural.C/standing.D/self-directing and self-controlling applications.E/single-use.

10. Standing plans allow managers to:A/ create downsizing.B/ create production bottlenecks.C/promote narrow spans-of-control.D/save time.E/ be ineffective.

11. “We promote from within whenever possible” is a:A/policy. B/rule. C/mission statement. D/procedure.

E/single-use-plan12. The series of steps a supervisor would utilize in responding to a recurring problem with

employees is a:A/ rule. B/Procedure. C/single-use plan D/policy.E/mission statement.

13. When supervisors are confronted by recurring problems, because they are simple to follow and ensure consistency, a _________ is created.A/standard B/policy C/procedure D/rule E/program

14. Single-use plans are designed for a:A/ critical event and activity. B/broad event and activity.C/specific activity or time period. D/broad activity or time period.D/ specific event and activity.

15. Supervisors frequently have to create programs for their department that are nonrecurring undertakings requiring a set of integrated plans to:A/achieve fair standards. B/accomplish their objectives.C/achieve budgetary control. D/perform repetitive tasks.E/perform routine decision making.

16. The following are types of budgets that supervisors are expected to implement EXCEPT FOR:A/capital expenditures. B/employee work hours.C/ revenue forecasts. D/environmental scanning.

17. A bar graph with time on the horizontal axis activities to be scheduled on the Vertical axis is a:

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A/Gantt chart. B/graphic analysis. C/Quality control checkpoint.D/PERT diagram. E/flow chart.

18. The following are all characteristics of an effective goal setting program EXCEPT FOR:A/works from the “bottom up” as well as “top down”B/rewards are allocated on the basis of their progress.C/ employees jointly determine specific performance objectives with their supervisors.D/progress toward objectives is periodically reviewed.E/ individuals have the responsibility to design the goal setting program..

19. Goal setting makes objective:A/standing B/unattainable. C/operational.

D/specific. E/positive.20. The following are common ingredients in a goal setting program EXCEPT FOR:

A/ standing plans. B/time limits. C/performance feedback.D/goal specificity.

21. The following are basic rules that should guide a supervisor in defining and setting goals EXCEPT FOR:A/ specific deadlines for each goal. B/ indentify an employee’s key job tasks.C/establish specific and challenging goals for each task.D/build in feedback mechanisms to assess goal progress.E/permitting frivolous thinking.

22. Goal setting is the responsibility of the:A/ supervisor. B/supplier. C/employee. D/competitor.

D/customer.23. One of the statements below is NOT not an argument against formal planning:

A/Planning focuses supervisor’s attention on today’s competition, not on tomorrow’s survival.B/planning may create rigidity.C/planning requires that specifics goals be formulated.D/Plans can’t be developed for a dynamic environment.E/Formal plans can’t replace intuition and creativity.

24. Which factor is not a component in the productivity formula?A/labor B/Capital C/Output D/Materials E/Input

25. The following are factors as to why productivity in America has risen over the last 20 years EXCEPT:A/more quality. B/reducing inefficiencies. C/downsizing D/less customer oriented.

26. Tactical planning for management is done at what level?A/Sales directors B/Middle-level managers.C/Supervisors D/Top ExecutiveE/Operative employees.

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27. Planning occurs in three time frames which are listed below EXCEPT:A/quick-term plans. B/short-term plans.C/intermediate-term plans. D/ long term plans.

28. The process of initiating a business venture, organizing the necessary resources, and assuming the risks and rewards is referred to as:A/ strategic planning B/business planningC/entrepreneurship D/leadership

29. The evidence on entrepreneurial personalities leads to all of the following conclusion EXCEPT:A/The cultural context in which individuals were raised will have an effect.B/People with this personally thrive under the rules, regulations and controls imposed by bureaucracies.C/people with this personally are not likely to be contented , productive employees in the typical large corporation.D/The challenges and conditions inherent in starting one’s own business mesh well with this personality.

30. A written document that identifies the entrepreneur’s vision and describes the strategy and operations of a new venture by laying out the proposed goals and activities is a(n):A/operating plan. B/decision tree. C/business plan. D/strategic plan.

TRUE/FALSE. Write “T” if the statement is true and “F” if the statement is false.31. All managers’ plans will vary depending on their level within the organization. TRUE32. Formal planning means specific goals are formulated and never reduced to writing but

simply communicated. FALSE33. Strategic planning would be implemented when developing expense budgets and

employee work schedule. FALSE34. Strategic planning tends to be developed by first-level management. FALSE35. In contrast to policies, procedures are not specific, and like policies, they provide

consistency. FALSE36. A supervisor’s responsibility includes the ability to establish and set policy for the

organization.FALSE37. Budgets tend to be like a planning guide containing a control mechanism for a supervisor.

TRUE38. A Gantt chart visually shows a supervisor what has to be done to complete a job and to

assess whether it is ahead, behind, or on schedule. TRUE39. The central theme in traditional objective-setting was that objectives were set at the top

and then broken down into subgoals for each level in the organization. TRUE40. Supervisors who provide feedback on their employees’performance levels will motivate

them to higher goals and improved performance. TRUE

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SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answer the question.

41. _________ __________ is most often used in small businesses where the owner-manager visualizes his goals, writes nothing down, and does not chare his plans with others. Informal planning

42. _________ __________ covers the whole organization and is carried out by top-level managers.Strategic -planning

43. All businesses need to gather________ about their competitors in an effort to plan effectively. imformation

44. A plan that focuses on one to five years and is carried out by middle-level management is called______-_______ __________. Intermediate- term -planning

45. _________-_________ can be used ever and over by managers faced with recurring activities. Standing plans

46. Detailed courses of action used once or only occasionally to deal with problems that don’t occur repeatedly are called_______-________ plans. Single-use

47. A________ is an explicit statement that tells a supervisor what he or she ought or ought not to do. rule

48. In contrast to policies,_________ are more specific but as with policies, they provide consistency. procedures

49. A__________ is a single-use set of plans for a specific major undertaking within the organization’s overall goals. program

50. A plan in which almost every manager gets involved, and that expenses anticipated results in dollar terms for a specific period of time, is called a __________. budget

51. Two popular scheduling techniques that help prioritize activities and complete work on time are the _________and_________ charts. Gantt, PERT

52. _________are end points that represent the completion of major activities, while the _________ _________ is the longest or most time-consuming sequence of events and activities in a PERT chart. Events, critical, path

53. An example of ________ _________ _________ is where the president of a manufacturing firm would tell the production vice-president what he expected manufacturing costs to be for the coming year. Traditional, objective ,setting

54. _______ ________ works from the “bottom up” as well as the “top down,” resulting in hierarchy that links objectives at one level to those at the next level. Goal ,seting

55. The objectives in goal setting should be_________ statements of expected accomplishments. Specific

56. Goal setting replaces goals imposed by the supervisor with goals that are_________determined by both the supervisor and the employee. specific

57. Each objective in goal setting has an explicit_________ _________ in which it is to be complete. Time,limit

58. The final key component in a goal setting program is __________on performance. feedback

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59. _________-__________ strategic planning sets the direction for all other planning. Long-term

60. _________ __________ is a philosophy and measurement process that attempt to “design in " six sigma

Chapter 4

1. The process of arranging and grouping jobs, allocating resources, and assigning work in a department so that activities can be accomplished as planned is:

Answer: A. organizing

2. When an entire job is broken down into a number of steps, rather than being done by one individual, and each step is completed by a separate individual, it is called………

Answer: B. work specialization

3. Productivity, quality, and employee motivation can be increased by the following EXCEPT FOR:

Answer B. dividing work into specific, repetitive tasks

4. The number of employees a supervisor can efficiently and effectively direct is call:………..

Answer E. span of control

5. A principle that states that a subordinate has only one supervisor to whom he or she is directly responsible is called:

Answer B. unity of command

6. The concept referring to the rights inherent in a supervisory position to give orders and expect the orders to be obeyed is:

Answer C. authority

7. The process that gives the supervisor the right to direct the work of his or her employees and make certain decisions without consulting others is:

Answer C. work simplification

8. Staff authority supports line authority in all of the following EXCEPT FOR:Answer C. directing

9. A supervisor who represents rights over individuals outside one’s own direct areas of responsibility has:

Answer E. function authority

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10. Supervisors are obligated to achieve their unit’s goals, keep costs within budget, follow organizational policies, and motivate their subordinates through obligations called:

Answer D. responsibility

11. Responsibility without authority creates:Answer A. frustration and the feeling of powerlessness

12. When top management creates organizational units like divisions ,regions, territories, and departments and allocates supervisory personnel to each with specific goals to achieve and other responsibilities it must also give these supervisors enough:

Answer C. authority to successfully carry out those responsibilities.

13. The design of any organization requiring top management to make decisions is called:Answer D. centralized authority

14. Organizations have cut costs and streamlined their organizational design to respond better to customer needs by:

Answer E. pushing decision-marking authority down to the lowest level.

15. Group departments are created based on the following EXCEPT FOR the:Answer A. degree of job specialization

16. A technique that can be used for processing customers as well as products is known as:Answer D. process departmentalization

17. Creation of a dual chain of command explicitly breaking the principles of chain of command is called the:

Answer D. matrix structure

18. A matrix structure where one has authority over the functional members who are part of the team is called a:

Answer E. project supervisor.

19. Workers who work on multiple projects in a matrix structure often face a difficult issue that never arose in traditional organizational structures because they will have to report to:

Answer B. At least two bosses

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20. A nonelaborate structure, low in complexity, with little formalization, and with authority centralized in a single person ; a “flat” organization with only two or three levels is referred to as a:

Answer C. simple structure

21. A flat structure that is used primarily by small businesses is called a:Answer E. simple structure

22. An organization in which similar and related occupational specialties are grouped together is referred to as a:

Answer D. functional structure

23. One the organization structure is in place, a supervisor must identify the tasks to be done combine them into jobs, and then formalize the process through a:

Answer D. scalar chain.

24. Supervisors increasing their employee’s involvement in their work through greater participation in decisions that control their work and by expanding responsibility fo work outcomes is called:

Answer C. empowerment

25. A written statement of what a jobholder does, how the job is done, and why it is done is called a:

Answer D. job description

26. By the 1980s, the world began to change drastically in the business world because of the following factors EXCEPT:

Answer C. less owner/entrepreneurs

27. There are many reasons why work specialization can be counter productive Except:Answer C. high productivity

28. Factors that help determine the span of control are:Answer E. all of the above

29. There are three types of authority listed except:Answer B. nonfunctional

30. The simple structure of management is used in what size business?Answer D. small

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31. In the 1920s and 1930s, as organization got bigger and more formal, supervisors felt a need to provide more coordination of activities and tighter control over operations.

Answer: TRUE

32. Individuals and groups will develop formal alliances that are informally structured and organizationally determined.

Answer: FALSE

33. Today, supervisors understand that while division of labor provides economic efficiencies, it is also an unending source of increased productivity.

Answer: FALSE

34. An important trend currently taking place in organizations is that spans of control are almost unanimously being expanded.

Answer: TRUE

35. According to the unity of command principle you should ensure that each employee has one manager to whom he or she directly reports when allocating tasks to individuals in your department.

Answer: TRUE

36. There are three different types of authority: functional, line, and unity of commandAnswer: FALSE

37. Authority without responsibility creates opportunities for abuse.Answer: TRUE

38. When top management delegates decision making authority to lower levers, you have centralized authority.

Answer: FALSE

39. Employees in matrix structure have two managers: their functional departmental supervisor, and their product or project supervisor.

Answer: TRUE

40. Once the department structure is in place supervisors need to organize the specific jobs of employees by creating job descriptions.

Answer: FALSE

41. Every organization- large and small, profit and not- for- profit- has aAnswer: Structure

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42. Means that, rather than an entire job being done by one individual, it is broken down into a number of steps, each step being completed by a separate individual.

Answer: Work specialization

43. A of means the number of subordinates a supervisor can efficiently and effectively direct.

Answer: span, control

44. Allows employees to do their work at home on computer that are linked to their offices.

Answer: Telecommuting

45. The of principles states that a subordinate should have one and only one supervisor to whom he or she is directly responsible.

Answer: Chain, command

46. Refers to rights inherent in a supervisory position to give orders and expect the orders to be obeyed.

Answer: Authority

47. The different types of authority relations are , , and .Answer: Line, staff, functional 48. Entitles a supervisor to direct the work of his or her direct reports.Answer: Line authority

49. The assistant to the department head has when acting as an extension of the department head and giving advice and suggestions, but they needn’t be obeyed by the subordinate.

Answer: Staff authority

50. It is not unusual for a supervisor in manufacturing plan to find that her immediate boss has line authority over her but that someone in cooperate headquarters has over some of her activities and decisions

Answer: functional authority

51. is a function of how much decision marking authority is pushed down to lower levels in the organization.

Answer: Centralization

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52. Pushing down decision making authority to those closest to the problem is an example of Answer: Decentralized decision marking

53. Group activities into independent unties based on functions performedAnswer: Functional departmentalization

54. When each major product area in the organization is under the authority of a supervisor who is a specialist in, and responsible for, everything having to do with his or her product line is called Answer: Product departmentalization

55) Grouping the sale function or an organization into western, southern, Midwestern, and eastern regions is an example of…………………Answer: Geographic departmentalization

56) A university that sets up departments of evening studies or continuing education to cater to working and part-time student is using……………….,……………Answer: Customer departmentalization

57) The…………..structure create a dual chain of command which explicitly violates the principle of chain command.Answer: Matrix

58) The matrix organization creates an overall structure that possesses the strengths of both…………and…………….departmentalization, while avoiding weaknesses of both.Answer: functional, product

59) An organization that has developed the capacity to adapt and change continuously is called a……….. ……………….Answer: Learning organization

60) A……………. ………………. Is a written statement of what a jobholder does, and how and why it is done?Answer: Job description

Chapter 5

1. Typically, the final hiring decision in large organizations is made by the:

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C. department supervisor

2. Legislation that requires employers to make an active effort to recruit, select, train, and

promote members of protected groups is called:

B. affirmative action

3. The Act that prohibits age discrimination against employees between the ages of 40 and

65 is called:

D. age discrimination in Employment Act

4. The Act that permits employees in organizations with fifty or more workers to take up to

twelve weeks of unpaid leave each year for family or medical reasons is called:

D. family and Medical leave Act

5. The Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972:

A/ established the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

6. Affirmative action requires employers to make an active effort to recruit, select, train, and

promote:

C/ members of protected groups

7. Proponents of the 1964 Civil Rights legislation banded together to pass the Civil Rights

Act of 1991. The act:

B/ permits women and religious minorities to seek punitive damages in intentional

discriminatory claims.

8. A set of attitudes, perceptions and behaviors of employees who survive involuntary staff

reductions is called :

A/ layoff-survivor sickness

9. Employment resource planning can be condensed into two steps. Which one of the

following is not one of these steps?

A/ assessing past human resources

10. The demand for the organization’s overall human resources is a result of:

C/ demand for the organization’s products or services

11. A database listing name, education, training, prior employer, languages spoken, and other

information for each employee in the organization is called:

E/ human resource inventory.

12. The process of locating, identifying, and attracting capable applicants is called:

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B/ recruitment

13. Nearly four out of five organizations uses this popular method to communicate to the

public that it has a vacancy:

C/ internet

14. A recruiting source that is good but may not increase the diversity and mix of employees

is:

B/ employee referral

15. Public employment agencies are perceived by prospective applicants as having few high-

skilled jobs; therefore, employers tend to see such agencies as:

B/ having few high-skilled applicants

16. An advantage of using employee referrals to fill company vacancies include all of the

following EXCEPT FOR:

C/ creates diversity in the workplace

17. An excellent source of potential employees for entry-level positions in organizations is

through:

A/ educational institutions’ placement service.

18. A downsizing option that provides temporary involuntary termination and may last only a

few days or it may extend to years is called:

A/ layoffs

19. A method for screening applicants and identifying the most appropriate candidate is:

D/ the selection process

20. Historically, what type of errors meant only that costs of selection would be increased

because more candidates would have to be screened?

A/ Reject errors

21. For selection purposes, it is critical that application items have a proven relationship

between a selection device and some relevant criterion. This is called:

A/ validity

22. The interview is most valid in determining all of the following about an applicant

EXCEPT FOR:

A/ honesty

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23. An expansion on information a new employee obtained during the recruitment and

selection stages, an attempt to familiarize new employees with the job, the work unit, and

the organization as a whole is called:

B/ employee orientation

24. Interviews can be reliable and valid selection tools as long as they are:

D/ all of the above

25. Employee training involves all of the following EXCEPT FOR:

B/ changing employees hours

26. The Mandatory Retirement Act of 1978 prohibits forced retirement before the age of:

D/ 70 years of age

27. What type of recruitment source is near extinction?

C/ Newspaper advertisements

28. Which one is not a supervisor’s downsizing option?

B/ Late retirements

29. Rejection errors account for all the mentioned costs EXCEPT:

B/ increase in profits

30. All of the following are typical methods used for training EXCEPT:

B/ observation

31. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 required disabled employees to have reasonable

accommodations for every job in the office.

False

32. The objective of affirmative action is to ensure the hiring of individuals from certain

protected groups, while still permitting discrimination.

False

33. Less than 10 thousand sexual harassment complaints are filed each year with the Equal

Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC).

False

34. Sexual harassment can be regarded as any unwanted activity of a sexual nature that

affects an individual’s employment.

True

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35. Employment planning is the process by which supervisors ensure that they have the right

number and kinds of people in place to help the organization to achieve its overall goals.

True

36. Studies find that employee referrals produce the best candidates.

True

37. The source used to recruit potential employees should reflect the local labor market, the

type and level of position, and the size of the organization.

True

38. The majority of studies have found that advertisements produce the best candidates.

False

39. The law prohibits supervisors from using any selection device that cannot be shown to be

directly related to successful job performance.

True

40. The interview, along with the application form, is an almost universal selection device.

True

41. Requiring employers to make an active effort to recruit, select, train and promote

members of protected groups is called ________ ________ affirmative action

42. ________ _______ ________ ________ ________ prohibits age discrimination

against employees between ages 40 and 65.

Age Discrimination in Employment Act

43. Employers will institute ________ ________ programs to increase the number of

women and minorities in their organizations.

Affirmative action

44. The _______ with ________ _________ makes it illegal to offer training courses at

locations inaccessible to disabled candidates.

Americans, Disabilities Act

45. The United States courts have generally used guidelines from the Equal Employment

Opportunity Commission to define ______ ________.

Sexual harassment

46. ________ is a Web page used as a resume.

Websume

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47. An _______ _________ provides a limited set of candidates.

Internal search

48. __________ are an excellent means for disseminating information on a vacancy to a wide

audience.

Advertisements

49. The best source of individuals who will perform effectively on the job is a

recommendation from a _______ ________.

Current employee

50. Having employees, typically two part-times, share one full-time position is called

_______ _______.

Job sharing

51. A disadvantage of this type of hiring agency is the high cost although it does provide

careful screening.______

private employment agencies

52. ______ ________ is the process of determining a cost-effective pay structure that will

attract and retain competent employees.

Compensation administration

53. ______ ______ ______ establishes requirements for proper financial record keeping for

public companies and penalties for non-compliance.

Sarbanes-Oxley Act

54. Selection techniques that result in _______ _______ can open the organization to charges

of discrimination, especially if applicants from ______ ______ are disproportionately

rejected.

Reject errors; protected groups

55. ______ ________ have very obvious costs to the organization, including the cost of

training the employee, lost productivity, cost of severance, and costs of further recruiting

and selection screening.

Accept errors

56. __________ indicates whether the instrument measures the same thing consistently.

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Reliability

57. A selection device that a supervisor uses, such as application forms, test, and interviews,

must demonstrate ________.

validity

58. The best known performance simulation test is called ______ ________.

Work sampling

59. The best known ______ _______ include written tests, performance-simulation tests and

interviews.

Selection devices

60. Once a job candidate has been selected, he or she needs to be introduced to the job and

the organization through an ________ _______.

Orientation procedure

CHAPTER 6

1. The following are steps in the control process except for:C. Developing standing plans

2. The management function that is concerned with monitoring activities to ensure that they are being _________ accomplished as planned and correcting any significant deviation is:

E. Controlling

3. In the control function, the type of measure that offers a greater comprehensiveness and conciseness is:D. Written Reports

4. In the control application, what supervisors measure determines what:

C. Employees will attempt to emphasize

5. The step in the control function that determines the degree of variation between actual performance _______ and the standard is the:B. comparing step

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6. The type of diagrams that used to depict the cause of a certain problem and for grouping them _________ according to common categories such as machinery, arterials, methods, personnel, finances, or management are:

B. cause-effect diagrams

7. Visual representations of the sequence of events for a particular process are called:D. flow-charts

8. The type of diagrams that illustrate the relationship between two variables such as height and weight or the hardness of a ball bearing and its diameter are:

B. scatter diagrams

9. Run charts of sample averages with statistically determined upper and lower limits are:B. control charts

10. The final step in the control process is:

E. correcting deviations

11. A type of action that asks how and why performance deviated is called:

E. basic corrective action

12. The type of control that anticipates and prevent undesirable outcomes is:A. Preventive control

13. The following are examples of preventive controls except for:

E. break-even analysis

14. The type of control that is enacted while the work is being done where management can correct problems before they get out of hand or become too costly is:A. Concurrent control

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15. The type of control that provides feedback, after an activity is finished, in order to prevent any future deviation is:B. Corrective control

16. Supervisors control the following areas except for:C. Employer attendance

17. A primacy concern for supervisors is to control the following costs except for:D. Break-even analysis

18. Expenditures for labor that are directly applied in the creation or delivery of the product or service ________ are called:

C . direct labor costs

19. Expenditures for materials that go directly into the creation of a product or service are called:

D . raw material costs

20. An important component for supervisors in running an effective department is:

E . budge planning

21. A system where inventory items arrive when they are needed in the production process instead of_______ being stored in stock is called:E . just-in-time inventory

22. A concept where Japanese supplies ship parts to manufactures in containers with a card slipped ________ into a side pocket is called:

D . Re-engineering of the work process

23. A process that emphasizes identifying mistakes that may have already occurred is called:

B . quality control

24. A six-step program that can guide supervisors to reduce costs in their department includes the _____following except for:

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D . do not update equipment

25. The characteristics of an effective control system include the following except for:

A . inflexibility criteria

26. For supervisors to benefit from the control information provided by computer monitoring systems and yet minimize the potential behavioral and legal drawbacks experts suggest that organizations do the following:

D . all of the above

27. All the following are charts used to measure the statistical process except:

C . pie charts

28. Which corrective action is described as “putting out fires”?

C . Immediate corrective action

29. The following are areas of control efforts for management except:

D . Quantity

30. The following checklist is used by supervisor’s in designing their unit’s control system except for:

A . Unreasonable criteria

31. Planning must precede application of the control process.

TRUE

32. Personal observation provides after the fact, personal insight of the actual activity being reviewed.

FALSE

33. Information acquired through statistical reports, that is, through conferences, meeting, one-to-one conversations, or e- and voice mail, help supervisors measure actual performance.

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FALSE

34. If a supervisor implements a control before an activity commences, it is called correctional control.

FALSE

35. Most of the control efforts of a supervisor are directed at one of five areas: costs, inventories, quality, safety, or employee performance.

TRUE

36. Supportive supplies costs are expenditures for necessary items that become part of the finished product or service.

FALSE

37. Supervisors are routinely responsible for ensuring that adequate inventories of materials and supplies are available for activities under their jurisdiction.

TRUE

38. Shipped in a container, a kanban is returned to the supplier when the container is opened, initiating the shipment of a second container that arrives just as the first container is emptied.

TRUE

39. Effective controls must be rigid enough to adjust to adverse change or to take advantage of new opportunities.

FALSE40. In recent years, sophisticated communication systems and computer software have made

it impossible for a supervisor’s control capability to potentially interfere with an employee’s right to privacy.

FALSE

41. The control process consists of three distinct steps: ___ ___ ___, ___ ___ ___ ___, and ___ ___ ___.

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Measure actual performance, compare results with standards, and take corrective action

42. Four common sources of information used by supervisors to measure actual performance are ___ ___, ___ ___, ___ ___, and ___ ___.

Personal observation, statistical reports, oral reports, written reports

43. ____ ____ are used for measuring actual performance and can include graphs, bar charts, and numerical displays.

Statistical reports

44. What we measure is more critical to the ____ ____ than how we measure it.

Control process

45. Variation in performance can be expected in all activities; however, deviations in excess of the ____ ____ ____ become significant and require the supervisor’s attention.

Range of variation

46. There are two distinct types of corrective action: _____, which deals predominantly with symptoms, and _____, which delves into the causes.

Immediate, basic

47. The most desirable type of control and the best way to handle a deviation from standard is to see that it does not occur; this is called: ____ ____.

Preventive control

48. A supervisor’s day-to-day activities involve ______ ______, which takes place while an activity is in progress.

Concurrent control

49. Types of _____ _____ would include final inspection of finished goods, annual employee performance appraisals, financial audits, and quarterly budget reports.

Corrective control

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50. Expenditures for labor that are not directly applied in the creation or delivery of the products or service are called _____ _____ _____.

Indirect labor costs

51. If managers see costs are too high they will implement a _____ _____ program.

Cost reduction

52. _______ are responsible for ensuring that adequate inventories of materials and supplies arer available for activities under their jurisdiction.

Supervisors

53. With the possible exception of controlling ______, achieving high ______ has become a primary focus of today’s organizations.

Costs, quality

54. _____ ______ ______ system ensures that you are not overwhelmed by information on variations from standard.

Control by exception

55. _____ ______ ______ is an action that adjusts something right now and gets things back to track

Immediate corrective action

56. _______-______ _______ is a depiction of the causes of a problem that groups the causes according to common categories.

Cause-effect diagram

57. An effective control system must be _______ reasonable to operate justifying the benefits that it gives in relation to the costs it incurs.

Economically

58. A ________ by ________ system ensures that a supervisor is not overwhelmed by information on variations from standard.

Control, exception

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59. ______ ______ _______ is the process of managing the entire sequence of integrated activities and information about product flows along the entire value chain.

Value chain management

60. Signed into law in July 2002 by President Bush, the _____-_____ ______ established procedures for public companies regarding how they handle and report their financial picture.

Sarbanes-Oxley Act

Chapter 7

1. A rational and analytical way of looking at decision called the:a. Judgmental processb. Intuitive processc. Subjective instinctd. Information super highwaye. Decision making process

Answer: E2. The following are steps in the decision making process except for:

a. Collecting relevant informationb. Developing objectivesc. Selecting the best alternatived. Following up and evaluatinge. Developing alternative

Answer: B3. The first step in the decision making process is t o:

a. Identify the problemb. Interview employeec. Collect informationd. Diagram a decision treee. Evaluate alternatives

Answer: A4. A discrepancy between an existing and desired state of affairs is called a:

a. Graphic illustrationb. Problemc. Gantt chartd. Bar charte. PERT chart

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Answer: B5. One the problem has been identified in the decision making process, you will need to:

a. Evaluate each alternativeb. Gather facts relevant to the problemc. Select the best alternatived. Follow up and evaluatee. Develop alternatives

Answer: B6. A step in the decision making process where you develop your creativity is the

a. Implementation of the decisionb. Evaluation of relevant informationc. Collection of relevant informationd. Identification of the probleme. Develop alternatives

Answer: E7. Select the best alternative in the decision making process depends on the following

Excepta. The degree of risk that you are willing to takeb. The accuracy of information gatheredc. Volume of outputd. Your ingenuity in developing alternativese. The quality of your analysis

Answer: C8. The following are ways to help a supervisor properly implement the decision EXCEPT

FORa. Assigning responsibilitiesb. Allocating necessary resourcesc. Centralizing authorityd. Clarifying deadlines

Answer: C9. A decision making tool for supervisors that permits decision markers to place a monetary

value on the various consequences likely to result from the selection of a particular course of action is called the:a. Objective strategyb. Expected value analysisc. Intuitive approachd. Probability of occurrencee. Strategy formulation

Answer: B10. A useful way to analyze hiring, marketing, investment equipment purchases, pricing and

similar decisions that involve a progression of decisions is to use:

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a. PERT diagramsb. A decision treec. Marketing researchd. Just in time inventoriese. Accounting procedures

Answer: B11. The concept of marginal or incremental analysis helps decision makers to:

a. Analyze trade agreementsb. Determine global competitionc. Analyze gross national productd. Optimize returns or minimize costse. Project government expenditures

Answer: D 12. A process that deals with the additional cost in a particular decision rather than the

average cost is called:a. Net productivityb. Marginal analysisc. Net incomed. Macroeconomicse. Strategy planning

Answer: B 13. A decision tree analyzes all of the following EXCEPT FOR

a. Number of alternatives availableb. Hiringc. Marketingd. Investment

Answer: A14. People using the directive style of decision making have all of the following

characteristics EXCEPT FORa. Seek rationalityb. Low tolerance for ambiguityc. Consider many alternativesd. Logicale. Efficient

Answer: C15. People use the behavioral style of decision making have all of the following

characteristics EXCEPT FORa. Tries to avoid conflictb. Seeks lots of informationc. Seeks acceptanced. Concerned with achievement of others

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e. Works well with othersAnswer: B

16. The following are style of decision making EXCEPT FORa. Conceptualb. Autocraticc. Analyticd. Behaviorale. Directive

Answer: B17. A style of decision making that has a low tolerance for ambiguity and seeks for

rationality is the:a. Self-managed teamb. Conceptual stylec. Behavioral styled. Analytic stylee. Directive style

Answer: E18. A style of decision making that characterizes managers as careful decision makers with

the ability to adapt or cope with new situations is a(an):a. Conceptual styleb. Directive stylec. Analytic styled. Behavioral stylee. Autocratic style

Answer: C19. The ethical position in which decisions are made solely on t he basic of their outcomes or

consequences is the:a. Justice view of ethicsb. Rationalization view of ethicsc. Utilitarian view of ethicsd. Rights view of ethicse. Self-value ethics

Answer: C20. The ethical position that requires individuals to impose and enforce rules fairly and

impartially so there is an equitable distribution of benefits and costs is the:a. Justice viewb. Management information systemc. Rights viewd. Intuitive approache. Utilitarian view

Answer: A

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21. There are two primary reasons for decisions increasingly being made by groups. One reas is the desire to develop more and better alternatives. The other reasona. Ambiguous responsibilityb. Pressures to conformc. Les reliance on the historical idea that departments and other organizational

units should be separate and independent decision unitsd. Group make faster decisionse. Minority domination

Answer: C22. Advantages of group decision making would include the following EXCEPT FOR

a. Providing more complete informationb. Generating more alternativesc. Permitting quick decisiond. Increasing acceptance of a solutione. Increasing legitimacy

Answer: C23. Disadvantages of group decision making would include the following EXCEPT FOR

a. Providing more complete informationb. Ambiguous responsibilityc. Pressures to conformd. Minority dominatione. Being time consuming

Answer: A24. When members of a group meet face to face and interact with one another, they create

potential for:a. Self-managed teamsb. Group conflictc. Minority dominationd. Total quality managemente. Groupthink

Answer: E25. A simple technique for overcoming pressures for conformity that retard the development

of creative alternatives is:a. The Delphi techniqueb. Group problem solvingc. Groupthinkd. Nominal group techniquee. Brainstorming

Answer: E26. What must you guard against when making a decision?

a. Non-programmed decisions

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b. Ringiseic. Biasesd. Marginal analysise. Utilitarian view of ethics

Answer: C27. Decision trees are a useful tool to analyze all EXCEPT

a. Marketingb. Quality controlc. Hiringd. Equipment purchasee. Investment

Answer: B28. Marginal analysis deals with what type of cost in a particular decision?

a. Additional costb. Direct labor costc. Marginal costd. Net incomee. Indirect labor cost

Answer: A29. Which style of decision making is very broad in their outlook and considers many

alternatives?a. Conceptual styleb. Behavioral stylec. Analytic styled. Directive style

Answer: A30. The blackjack strategy illustrates a phenomenon called:

a. Representative heuristicb. Fast breaking news eventc. Unexpected eventd. Availability heuristicse. Escalation of Commitment

Answer: E31. Solving the wrong problem perfectly is no better an outcome, and may be worse, than

coming up with the wrong solution to the right problemAnswer: True

32. In developing alternatives, the less alternatives you can generate the better your final decision will beAnswer: False

33. You can improve the final outcome in the decision making process if you acknowledge your biases and overly attempt to control them

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Answer: True34. If the follow up and evaluation indicate that the sought after results weren’t achieved, a

supervisor must still implement the final decisionAnswer: False

35. People using the directive style of decision making are efficient and logicalAnswer: True

36. Heuristics are commonly found in two forms-knowledge and representativeAnswer: False

37. Directive type decision makers procrastinate and focus on long run decisionsAnswer: False

38. The utilitarian view of ethics makes decisions solely on the basis of their outcomes or consequencesAnswer: True

39. New trend toward individual rights and social justice men that supervisors need ethical standard based on nonutilitarian criteriaAnswer: True

40. Individuals, rather than groups, tend to be making the decision in organizations todayAnswer: False

41. To correctly identify the real problem is not an easy task in the ________-____________ processAnswer: decision making

42. When evaluating all the strengths and weakness of each alternative, it is important to guard against _________Answer: biases

43. The last phase in the decision making process is to follow up and _________ outcomes of the decisionAnswer: evaluate

44. _________ ____________ is relatively simple and tends to rely heavily on previous solutionsAnswer: programmed decision

45. _________ ____________ are straight-forward, familiar and easily definedAnswer: well-structured problems

46. _________ is a relatively simple technique for overcoming pressures for conformity that retard the development of creative alternativeAnswer: brainstorming

47. People differ along two dimensions, way of ________ and a tolerance for _________, which is the basic foundation for a decision style modelAnswer: thinking, ambiguity

48. A ____________ style decision maker has a very broad outlook, will consider many alternatives, has a long-range focus, and is very good finding creative solutions to problem

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Answer: conceptual49. A ____________ style of decision maker tries to avoid conflicts, seeks acceptance, and

works well with othersAnswer: behavioral

50. An ethical perspective that tends to dominate business decision making because is consistent with goals like efficiency, productivity, and high profit is the __________ of _____________Answer: utilitarian view, ethics

51. An ethical perspective that is concerned with respecting and protecting the basic rights of individuals the right to privacy, two speech, and due process is the ______ ________ of __________Answer: right view, ethics

52. A major disadvantage of group decision making is it takes time to form a ________ and is often __________ because it take too much time to make a decisionAnswer: group, inefficient

53. Mental shortcuts is decision making that people base their judgments on information that they may have easy access to is called ___________ _________Answer: availability heuristics

54. A decision making technique where group members must be present and are required to operate independently but restricts discussion during the decision making is called the ___________ _____________ techniqueAnswer: nominal group

55. A recent approach to group decision making that blends nominal group techniques with sophisticated computer technology is called _______ ___________Answer: electronic meetings

56. The first step in the decision making process is to ______ ______ _____Answer identify the problem

57. The final step in the decision process is to ______ _________ ________Answer: followup and evaluate

58. A discrepancy between an existing and a desired state of affairs is called a _______answer: problem

59. ______ ________ __________ is a procedure that permits decision makers to place a monetary value on various consequences likely to result from the selection of a particular course of actionAnswer: expected value analysis

60. A ________ ___________ is a diagram that analyzes hiring, marketing, investment, purchasing that involve a progression of decisions.Answer: decision tree

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