St Amant 2007 Drill Meet AcademicTest Bank

1. The military uniform is a symbol of the nation's defense forces. Thus the word "uniform" suggests a

a) uniform composition.b) symbol of honor.c) distinctive mode of dress.d) devotion to duty.

2. Who is the only person who can approve modifications to cadets' uniforms?

a) school principalb) Naval Science Instructorc) NJROTC Area Managerd) NJROTC Program Office

3. What articles/items may be worn exposed when in uniform?

a) cell phonesb) pensc) watch chainsd) no articles may be exposed

4. What type of facial hair is permitted to be worn by male cadets?

a) goateeb) full beardc) trimmed mustached) Muttonchop sideburns

5. What head gear is optional for officers and chiefs as part of their NJROTC uniform?

a) Combination capb) Khaki garrison capc) Black garrison capd) None of the above

6. Ribbons and aiguillettes are not authorized on which of the following male and female NJROTC uniforms?

a) Short Sleeve Summer Blueb) Service Dress Bluec) Winter Blued) Winter Working Blue

7. How is the most senior ribbon worn on the uniform shirt when more than one ribbon is worn?

a) On the bottom row and outboardb) On the top row and outboardc) On the bottom row and inboardd) On the top row and inboard

8. What is the "Rule of Thumb" when wearing a ribbon with a dark color on one end and a light color on the other end?

a) Dark color inboardb) Dark color outboardc) No rule existd) None of the above

9. The male nectie, black in color is authorized fabric measuring no more than___________ wide.

a) 2 1/2 inchesb) 4 1/4 inchesc) 3 1/2 inchesd) 3 1/4 inches

10. Which one of the following awards is awarded to one cadet in each year group with the highest overall academic achievement (GPA) in school, including all naval science courses?

a) Distinguished Cadetb) Honor Cadetc) Exemplary Cadetd) All of the above

11. What award is given to that cadet who demonstrates an exceptional dedication to the NJROTC program?

a) Honor Cadet Awardb) Distinguished Cadet Awardc) Military Aptitude Awardd) Meritorious Cadet Achievement Award

12. What device is put on a ribbon for the fourth award?

a) 2 bronze starsb) 1 Silver starc) 2 Silver stars

d) 1 Gold star

13. What award is given yearly to one cadet in each year group with the highest combined average for overall scholastic standing and aptitude in the NJROTC unit activities (academics, homework, physical fitness etc?)

a) CNET Cadet Awardb) Honor Cadet Awardc) Gilliam Awardd) Distinguished Cadet Award

14. What is the single most important factor in determining ability to survive in cold climates?

a) Foodb) Good healthc) Shelter preparationd) Fire

15. What two items are just as necessary as food and water for a stranded person?

a) Cooking utensils and a rifleb) Shelter and sleepc) Aspirin and matchesd) Map and compass

16. Which of the following is a survivor's second most urgent need in a survival situation?

a) Shelterb) Healthc) Foodd) Fire

17. A baked opossum contains how many grams of fat?

a) 8.2b) 10.6c) approximately 50d) roughly 100

18. An adequate shelter

a) serves as a place to rest, and protection from the effects of the environment.b) is vented to allow fresh air in, and is free from evergreen boughs, and is easily

transportable.c) Both A and B.d) Neither A or B.

19. Which of the following is described as being a key step to take if you know that you might be in a survival situation in a wilderness area?

a) Shelter preparationb) Prepare a survival kitc) Health maintenanced) Food preparation

20. To maintain efficiency, survivors require a minimum daily caloric intake of

a) 2,000 calories.b) 6,000 calories.c) 4,000 calories.d) 2,500 calories.

21. The 3 major constituents of foods are

a) oils, fats, proteinb) carbohydrates, fats, proteinsc) fats, protein, meatd) vegetables, fruits, breads

22. What does a survivor have to do to beat all odds against them to survive in a survival situation?

a) Attend health classesb) Attend survival trainingc) Develop a survival patternd) Build survival equipment

23. Shelters that are easy to construct and dismantle in a short period of time are called

a) three pole frame shelters.b) immediate action shelters.c) improvised shelters.d) four pole frame shelters.

24. Traveling in a jungle environment would be greatly aided by the use of a

a) club.b) machete.c) spear.d) gun.

25. What are the four principle types of tropical jungle?

a) Mangrove, primary jungle, secondary jungle, rain forestb) Primary jungle, secondary jungle, tertiary jungle, mangrovec) Mangrove, primary jungle, secondary jungle, high mountain jungle forestd) Rain forest, mangrove, primary jungle, high mountain jungle forest

26. Which of the following jungle types is probably the most difficult type of terrain in which to travel and find food?

a) Mangrove jungleb) Secondary junglec) High mountain jungled) Primary jungle

27. What percent of the Earth is covered by water?

a) 50b) 70c) 65d) 85

28. A cadet Lieutenant (Junior Grade) is designated by a collar device of

a) three attached gold bars.b) two attached gold bars.c) five attached gold bars.d) four attached gold bars.

29. Which one of the following used as a food source must be used with a sufficient supply of water.

a) Seaweedsb) Dogweedsc) Seabirdsd) Plankton

30. How many gold stripes are on the Blue Service coat sleeve of a Captain in the Navy?

a) 4b) 3c) 1 wided) 2

31. Naval science instructors and school officials can learn the condition of many aspects of training, morale, and leadership that exists in their unit by the cadets'

a) self-discipline.b) appearance.c) outstanding academic performance.d) pride.

32. Personnel inspections often require a lot of

a) spit and polish.b) self-discipline.c) planning and preparation.d) starch.

33. What are the colors of the collar insignia of a Chief Warrant Officer Three (CWO3)?

a) blue and grayb) blue and goldc) blue and silverd) blue and black

34. One of the positive things that personnel inspection promotes for the cadet is

a) pride in their units.b) attention to detail.c) self-discipline.d) All of the above.

35. What item is NOT inspected at a personnel inspection?

a) neck properly shavedb) good posturec) clothes that are fit properlyd) sword

36. What is the collar insignia of a Navy Commander?

a) two silver barsb) oak leafc) silver eagled) acorn

37. Which concept below refers to a person who develops a set of beliefs, ideals, interests, likes and dislikes that govern behavior?

a) Heredityb) Ethics

c) Moralityd) Value system

38. Puberty usually occurs between what ages in girls?

a) Fourteen to fifteen years oldb) Nine to Thirteen years oldc) Thirteen to sixteen years oldd) None of the above

39. What is the third greatest cause of death among people aged fifteen to twenty-four?

a) Drinking and drivingb) Drowningc) Freak accidentsd) Suicide

40. Regarding national flag, which statement is NOT correct?

a) Our flag is our companion around the worldb) Never display the flag in or near a polling placec) The flag should be displayed on all daysd) The flag is a living thing. There is magic in its folds.

41. What are the Five Food Groups?

a) poultry, meat, fish, vegetable, fruitb) red meat, citrus, vegetable, oils, fruitc) milk, meat, vegetable, fruit, graind) grain, poultry, rice, juice, vegetable

42. Before you start a vigorous exercise, you should

a) warm-up.b) cool-down.c) check your heart rate.d) just go straight into exercising.

43. ___________ is the ability to keep upright while you are standing still or moving.

a) Coordinationb) Balancec) Speedd) Reaction Time

44. Which of the following areas is NOT one of the four areas of total fitness?

a) Mental fitnessb) Physical fitnessc) Emotional fitnessd) Cardiovascular fitness

45. For exercise to be beneficial, you need to increase the amount you do over a period of time. This is called

a) Principle of Overloadb) Principle of Progressionc) Principle of Specificityd) Principle of Good Judgment

46. Which one of the following is NOT a purpose of first aid?

a) To gain insights on safety preventionb) To prevent further injuryc) To save a lifed) To minimize or prevent infection

47. What first aid measure should be taken after determining the extent of the patient's injury?

a) Check for breathingb) Check for shockc) Check for bleedingd) Check for pulse

48. What are the three basic types of heat casualties?

a) Heat Cramps, Heat Exhaustion, Heat Strokeb) Heat Exhaustion, Heat Emergency, Heat Exercisec) Heat Cramps, Heat Loss, Heat Stroked) Heat Stroke, Heat Emergency, Heat Cramps

49. Which of the following is the most common cause of airway obstruction in a casualty who is unconscious?

a) The throatb) The handsc) The stomachd) The tongue

50. Which one of the following methods is NOT used to control bleeding?

a) Direct pressureb) Tourniquetc) Castd) Elevation

51. What is the type of bleeding in which blood flow is slow and blood oozes from the wound?

a) Arterial bleedingb) Bleeding from the veinsc) Capillary bleedingd) Outward bleeding

52. What is the type of bleeding in which the bleeding is bright red, and the blood spurts from the wound? This type of bleeding is life threatening and difficult to control.

a) Capillary bleedingb) Bleeding from the veinsc) Inward bleedingd) None of the above

53. What is the type of bleeding that is dark red, and flows in a steady stream?

a) Dark colored bleedingb) Capillary bleedingc) Bleeding from veinsd) Arterial bleeding

54. What is the basic position for treating shock?

a) Stand the victim uprightb) Lay victim on his/her right sidec) Position victim in a curled positiond) Position victim's head lower than the feet

55. The two main threats with soft tissue injuries are

a) veinal punctures and collapse of lungs.b) bleeding and infection.c) amputation and gangrene.d) bleeding and shock.

56. The most common injuries in a first aid situation are

a) injuries to the bones and joints.b) soft tissue injuries.c) dislocation of internal organs.

d) cranial obstruction

57. Which of the following burns result from exposure to acids, alkalies, or other strong chemicals?

a) Thermal burnsb) Chemical burnsc) Electrical burnsd) None of the above

58. The first Naval JROTC programs began in

a) 1995b) 1911c) 1964d) 1975

59. Where is NSTC (Naval Service Training Command) located?

a) Great Lakes, ILb) Pentagon, Washington D.C.c) Pearl Harbor, HId) San Diego, CA

60. Which NJROTC competition below is similar to a timed treasure hunt?

a) Obstacle courseb) Orienteeringc) Marksmanshipd) Rappelling

61. Which one of the following statements is NOT an objective of the Leadership Academy?

a) To promote orderliness and precision, and develop respect for constituted authority.b) To challenge and motivate cadets to push toward their physical and intellectual limits.c) To instill a high degree of personal honor, self-reliance, and confidence in each cadet.d) To enhance basic attitude, knowledge and skills required to participate at all levels of

high school athletic activities.

62. Maritime Geography is the study of

a) oceans and seas of the world.b) weather.c) study of the universe.d) study of land.

63. What is the "major" training goal of the NJROTC Program?

a) Develop friendshipsb) Develop orienteering skillsc) Develop self-disciplined) Develop military drill skills

64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four R's in the study method referred to as OK4R?

a) Recallb) Readc) Reflectd) Respect

65. Which of the following is NOT a part of the study method referred to as PQRST?

a) Presentb) Questionc) Readd) Test

66. Meteorology is the science of

a) the ocean.b) comets and meteors.c) weather.d) the atmosphere.

67. Where is the U.S. Naval Academy located?

a) Pensacola, FLb) Washington D.C.c) Jacksonville, FLd) Annapolis, MD

68. A student who has three years as an NJROTC Cadet can enlist as an E-3 in all services except the

a) Navyb) Armyc) Marinesd) Air Force

69. What are values?

a) Deeply held ideals, beliefs, customs and principals

b) Opinions we grow up with c) That which we consider worthwhile

e) Judgments about others

70. Astronomy is the study of

a. Earth.b. weather.c. the ocean.d. the universe beyond Earth.

71. What should you do when operating in a moral or ethical gray area?

a) Ask your instructor what to do.b) Use the Navy core values to help you navigate the gray areas.c) Follow the suggestions of your fellow cadets.d) Do what seems best at the time.

72. Which one of the following is NOT a trait of an independent follower?

a. Carries out assigned tasks in a responsible mannerb. Offers appropriate suggestions for improvement up the chain-of-commandc. Seeks out responsibilityd. Takes a passive approach to his/her role of follower

73. Which of the following is NOT true about dependent followers?

a. They seek out responsibilityb. They go along with anything suggestedc. They are the "yes" people or the "sheep"d. They do not contribute, they just "do"

74. Which of the following aircraft serves as the Navy's communication relay for fleet ballistic missile submarines and airborne command post for strategic forces?

a. E-6A Mercuryb. P-3C Orionc. S-3B Vikingd. C-2A Greyhound

75. Which of the following is a twin engine cargo/passenger aircraft whose primary mission is carrier on-board delivery (C.O.D)?

a. P-3C Orionb. C-2A Greyhoundc. S-3B Viking

d. C-130 Hercules

76. Which of the following is a two-seat turboprop trainer whose mission is to provide "primary" flight training for Navy and Marine Corps student pilots?

a. E-6A Mercuryb. C-12F Huronc. C-9 Skytraind. T-34C Turbomentor

77. Which of the following is a twin-engine helicopter whose primary mission is to detect and destroy enemy submarines.

a. MH-53E Sea Dragonb. TH-57 Rangerc. SH-60 Seahawkd. V-22A Osprey

78. Which of the following is a joint service multi-mission aircraft with vertical take-off and landing (VTOL) capabilities?

a. TH-57 Sea Rangerb. MH-53-Sea Dragonc. V-22A Ospreyd. T-45A Goshawk

79. Which of the following helicopters operates from carriers and other warships?

a. V-22A Ospreyb. MH-53E Sea Dragonc. SH-60 Seahawkd. TH-57 Sea Ranger

80. Which of the following is a jet-powered, twin-engine carrier-based aircraft?

a. C-2A Greyhoundb. P-3C Orionc. S-3B Vikingd. F-14 Tomcat

81. The ___________ is a four-engine turboprop aircraft that is capable of taking off and landing from short runways.

a. E-6A Mercuryb. C-130 Herculesc. C-12F Huron

d. C-9 Skytrain

82. Which of the following is the primary training helicopter for students becoming naval aviators?

a. V-22A Ospreyb. MH-53E Sea Dragonc. SH-60 Seahawkd. TH-57 Sea Ranger

83. Which one of the following statements is NOT an objective of the Leadership Academy?

a. To promote orderliness and precision, and develop respect for constituted authority.

b. To challenge and motivate cadets to push toward their physical and intellectual limits.

c. To instill a high degree of personal honor, self-reliance, and confidence in each cadet.

d. To enhance basic attitude, knowledge and skills required to participate at all levels of high school athletic activities.

84. The capital of the Byzantine Empire was at

a. Constantinople.b. Rome.c. Athens.d. Macedonia.

85. The longest period of peace in world history was known as the

a. Mare Nostrum.b. Pax Romana.c. Golden Age of Athens.d. Crusades.

86. Our alphabet is based on the alphabet of what ancient people?

a. Phoenicians.b. Greeks.c. Romans.d. Cretans.

87. What is the name of the first U. S. nuclear powered submarine, commissioned in 1955?

a. USS Polarisb. USS Trident

c. USS Aegisd. USS Nautilus

88. The term "Iron Curtain" was coined by Winston Churchill to

a. describe the boundary erected by the Soviets between the Western democracies and Communist satellites on the European continent.

b. illustrate the opposition between the East and West in the Cold War.c. proclaim the establishment of an Allied defense line in Europe against further

Soviet military advances.d. None of the above are correct. The Soviets established the Iron Curtain to prevent

Allied military advances into Eastern Europe after World War II.

89. The National Security Act of 1947 created the

a. Joint Chiefs of Staff.b. National Security Council.c. Central Intelligence Agency.d. All of the above are correct.

90. Which of the following is a member of the President's Cabinet?

a. Secretary of the Navyb. Secretary of Defensec. Chairman of the Joints Chiefs of Staffd. Secretary of the Air Force

91. In what year was the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) formed?

a. 1939b. 1949c. 1959d. 1969

92. Of the following, who became the first Secretary of Defense in 1947?

a. James Forrestalb. George Marshallc. Douglas MacArthurd. Chester Nimitz

93. Who was elected President in November 1952?

a. Harry Trumanb. Douglas MacArthurc. C. Turner Joy

d. Dwight Eisenhower

94. North Vietnam captured South Vietnam in

a. January 1973.b. February 1973.c. March 1974.d. April 1975.

95. The amount of energy or power in a sound wave in any given location is called the________________

a. Doppler Effect.b. Salinity.c. Wattage.d. Sound intensity.

96. Relative intensity or noise level, is calculated in units called _____________

a. Ohms.b. Decibels.c. Echoes.d. Reflection.

97. The unit used to measure the rate at which current flows is called

a. ohms.b. amperes.c. None of the above.d. Both A and B.

98. The portion of a ship that is above water is known as the ______________.

a. Freeboardb. Waterlinec. Buoyancyd. Buoyant force

99. The line around a boat where the surface of the water meets it when it float is known as the ____________.

a. Freeboardb. Waterlinec. Center of gravityd. Quarterdeck

100. Objects in water float because of the principle known as ______________.

a. Buoyancyb. Gravityc. Densityd. Salinity

101. The _____________________ is the geometric center of the portion of the ship's hull that is underwater.

a. Center of gravityb. Center of massc. Center of densityd. Center of buoyancy

102. The English unit for measuring work is known as _____________.

a. Foot/poundsb. Voltsc. Horsepowerd. Joules

103. A body traveling at Mach 1 is traveling how fast.

a. Speed of soundb. Speed of lightc. 6000 MPHd. 3000 MPH

104. Light travels at the rate of ____________.

a. 300,000 MPHb. 186,000 MPSc. 186 MPHd. 186 MPS

105. Chemistry is the study of

a. atmospheric behavior.b. matter and how it changes under various conditions.c. the interaction between living organisms and their environment.d. ancient cultures.

106. What are the units of force in the English system?

a. Newtons.b. Joules.

c. Pounds.d. Both A and C.

107. Most of the bright stars are we see at night are

a. Giant starsb. Supergiant starsc. Nova starsd. White dwarfs

108. After the Sun, what star is closest to the Earth?

a. Rigelb. Antaresc. Alpha Centaurid. The Sun

109. Asteroids are generally found between these planets.

a. Earth and Marsb. Mars and Mercuryc. Mars and Jupiterd. Saturn and Pluto

110. The most plentiful bodies in our solar system are:

a. Asteroidsb. Cometsc. Starsd. Planets

111. In 1894 Admiral Robert Peary found the largest meteorite ever found in the western hemisphere. In what country was it discovered?

a. Candorb. Greenlandc. Americad. France

112. The lowest layer of the sun's atmosphere is called the

a. photosphere.b. magnetosphere.c. chromosphere.d. coronasphere.

113. What is it called when hydrogen gases are transformed into helium?

a. Solar fusionb. Fission processc. Nuclear fusiond. Hydrogen process

114. Which is the outermost layer of the sun's atmosphere?

a. Coreb. Photospherec. Chromosphered. Corona

115. Which layer of the Sun's atmosphere is 8,000 to 10,000 miles deep composed primarily of hydrogen and gaseous calcium?

a. Coreb. Photospherec. Chromosphered. Corona

116. Sunspots have been known to last as long as

a. a year and a half.b. one year.c. half year.d. twenty days.

117. The moon's diameter is roughly ________ that of the earth's.

a. One fifthb. One thirdc. One halfd. One quarter

118. Temperatures on the moon range from:

a. 750 F to -750 Fb. 243.0 F to -261.0 Fc. 243.0 C to -261.0 Cd. 0 Kelvin to 100 Kelvin

119. The moons mountains are

a. Concentrated in the northern hemisphere

b. Considerably lower than those on earthc. Very smooth due to the constant bombardment from meter dustd. Concentrated in the southern hemisphere

120. Moonquakes

a. Cause the moon to vibrate for extended periodsb. Have severe tremors lasting only a few secondsc. Are non-existentd. Are a new to this century

121. Phases of the moon are caused by

a. Light reflected off the earthb. Relative positions of the sun, earth and moonc. The moons motion in its orbitd. Both B & C

122. The moon passing through the shadow of the earth is called

a. Lunar eclipseb. Waningc. Solar eclipsed. Blackout

123. The average distance in miles the sun is from the earth has been calculated to be nearly

a. 90700000b. 91500000c. 93000000d. 94700000

124. Astronomy is the study of _____________.

a. the atomb. the universec. the solar systemd. the zodiac

125. What year was the Geneva Conference on the Seas that gave littoral nations exclusive rights to develop all the natural resources in the continental shelf adjacent to their own shores.

a. 1932b. 1956

c. 1958d. 1967

126. What percentage of tin does the U.S. import?

a. 77b. 80c. 90d. 99

127. How many "strategic resources" are there that the United States cannot do without?

a. 20b. 40c. 60d. 80

128. What percentage of chromite does the U.S. import?

a. 90%b. 70%c. 55%d. 30%

129. What are the four main ocean areas that are of prime importance to the United States?

a. Atlantic, Pacific, Arctic, Afro-Asian.b. Atlantic, Pacific, Indian, Mediterranean.c. Atllantic, Pacific, European, Asian.d. North Atlantic, South Atlantic, North Pacific, South Pacific.

130. The Pacific Ocean extends from the Bering Strait to the

a. Suez Canal.b. Strait of Malacca.c. Strait of Gibraltar.d. Cape of Good Hope.

131. With regards to sea power, tactical mobility can be defined as the ability to

a. turn and accelerate rapidly in the water.b. project power inland with naval gunfire and aviation assets.c. easily replenish fuel, stores, and ammunition at sea.d. move naval forces quickly and disperse whenever and however necessary.

132. The Mediterranean Sea is a part of which main ocean area?

a. Atlantic.b. Pacific.c. Arctic.d. Afro-Asian.

133. Aquaculture is defined as

a. the science of mapping the oceans' floors.b. the study of the culture of seafaring nations.c. the science of farming the sea.d. the science of water and its properties.

134. The Afro-Asian Ocean includes the

a. South Atlantic and Indian Oceans.b. North and South Pacific Oceans.c. North and South Atlantic Oceans.d. South Pacific and Indian Oceans.

135. What percentage of manganese does the U.S. import?

a. 46%b. 65%c. 85%d. 95%

136. What percentage of bauxite ore does the U.S. import?

a. 55%b. 65%c. 75%d. 85%

137. What was the five leading ports in the U.S. as of the year 2000?

a. New Orleans, Seattle, Chicago, Houston, Long Beachb. Charleston, Houston, Seattle, Los Angeles, Galvestonc. New Orleans, Mobile, Jacksonville, Portland, Corpus Christid. New York, Long Beach, Los Angeles, Charleston, Oakland

138. What is a major advantage of the RoRo ship?

a. Fuel Efficiency

b. Speedc. Cargo capacityd. Requires few facilities ashore

139. The Grand Alliance developed in World War II was composed of

a. Great Britain and United States.b. the United Sates, Great Britain, and the Soviet Union.c. the United States, Great Britain, and France.d. Germany, Italy, and Japan.

140. The strategy of Flexible Response was developed during the presidency of

a. Richard Nixonb. Lyndon Johnsonc. John F. Kennedyd. George H, W. Bush

141. What are the two categories of major naval ships?

a. special warfare and strike warfareb. combatants and auxiliariesc. tactical and strategicd. logistic and tactical

142. The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the use of conventional or nuclear weapons is called:

a. amphibious warfareb. surface warfarec. air warfared. strike warfare

143. The tools with which commanders exercise their command and control responsibilities are grouped into five subdivisions, C41 for short. The five subdivisions are:

a. Command, Chemicals, Computers, Containment and Intelligenceb. Command, Communications, Coast Guard, Chemicals and International Lawc. Control, Communications, Chemicals, Computers, and Intelligenced. Command, Control, Communications, Computers and Intelligence

144. What is a proxy war?

a. War with neighboring statesb. Naval warfare between submarines

c. Close quarter combat aboard a naval shipd. A major power using satellite states to fight another major power.

145. What is a coup de grace?

a. mortal strokeb. overthrow of a peaceful governmentc. a fall from graced. assassination of party leader

146. Limited war falls between the extremes of general war and the so-called

a. proxy war.b. gorilla war.c. revolutionary war.d. cold war.

147. General war is defined as

a. hostile activities between two or more sovereign states.b. armed conflict between the major nuclear powers in which all resources are

employed and national survival is at stake.c. conflict in which states justifiably defend their own territory and sovereignty

when attacked by aggressors.d. armed conflict, exclusive of incidents, in which one or more major powers

voluntarily exercise restraints to prevent imaginable escalation.

148. What is Pax Ballistica?

a. A new strategic submarine weaponb. A part of the Star Wars missile defense systemc. Mutually-assured Destruction (MAD)d. A missile peace

149. What is a Cold War?

a. A war in which all measures short of armed combat are usedb. A war in which the total resources of belligerents are employedc. An armed encounter in which one or more major powers voluntarily restricts

themselves in order to prevent escalation.d. A war that is fought above the Arctic Circle

150. The Vietnam War was a classic example of ______ imposed by political leaders.

a. proxy warb. pax ballistica

c. target limitationd. tactical responsibility

151. The main body of the ship is called the

a. superstructureb. mastsc. hulld. keel

152. Who chooses the name of a Navy ship?

a. Secretary of the Navyb. the Presidentc. Chief of Naval Operationsd. Secretary of Defense

153. What is the purpose of damage control?

a. To prevent, contain, or correct damage aboard a shipb. To inspect damage which has occurred aboard a vesselc. To train all individuals on how to complete required reportsd. To salvage repair parts following accidents

154. Emergency alarms include

a. general, chemical, and attack alarms.b. fire, general, and chemical alarms.c. chemical, collision, and enemy attack alarms.d. general, collision, and chemical alarms.

155. The three basic ingredients necessary for a fire are

a. fuel, heat, and light.b. oxygen, heat, and fuel.c. oil, fuel, and heat.d. light, wind, and air.

156. How many battleships does the U.S. Navy have in commission?

a. Threeb. Twoc. Fourd. None

157. What is the most effective weapon against a submarine?

a. Aircraftb. Another submarinec. Depth chargesd. Electrical shock

158. What are the four categories of naval ships and craft?

a. Submarines, aircraft carriers, destroyers & cruisers.b. Patrol craft, amphibious craft, harbor support craft and submarines.c. Combatants, Auxiliary ships, combatant craft and service craft.d. Mine warfare ships, amphibious ships, frigates and submarines.

159. What is the name of the first U. S. Polaris ballistic missile submarine (1958)?

a. USS Polarisb. USS George Washingtonc. USS Nautilusd. USS Albacore

160. Which fleet is responsible for the Mediterranean Sea?

a. Firstb. Thirdc. Fifthd. Sixth

161. A modern carrier battle group (CVBG) usually has how many carriers?

a. Oneb. Twoc. Threed. Four

162. What was the name of the first nuclear-powered submarine?

a. USS Nautilusb. USS George Washingtonc. USS Lexingtond. USS Enterprise

163. An attack meant to damage, seize, or destroy an objective is known as a/an

a. strike.b. assault.c. ambush.

d. raid.

164. The total number of signal flags is:

a. 36b. 68c. 128d. 256

165. International Morse code was developed for

a. All peopleb. The U.S. Armyc. The U.S. Navyd. All military personnel

166. Which of the following is not a type of pyrotechnic signal?

a. Pistol flaresb. International Morse codec. Colored shell burstsd. Roman candles

167. The best-known intelligence operations performed by the U.S. Navy during World War II were:

a. breaking of the Japanese cipher code and gathering of information for amphibious operations

b. overflights of the USSR by the U-2 and SR-71 spy planesc. satellite intelligence of the Mediterranean Sead. Unmanned aerial vehicles over flights of the Normandy coast

168. Military and political intelligence can best be defined as:

a. to centralize responsibility for the imagery and mapping needs of the U.S. government

b. the concentration on tactical intelligence unique to the Navyc. information acquired on a national scale, usually about a rival, but sometimes

about an ally or a neutral countryd. a collection of information of interest to the Marine Corps and Army

169. During the 1960s and 1970s these special secret high-speed jet aircraft were developed as "spy planes":

a. P-51 and EA-6b. U-2 and SR-71

c. P-3 and F-14d. P-3 and U-2

170. The mission of the National Imagery and Mapping Agency is:

a. to centralize responsibility for the imagery and mapping needs of the U.S. government

b. to coordinate spaceborne reconnaissance needs of the U.S. governmentc. to coordinate, direct and provide signals intelligence and information security

functionsd. to provide all-source intelligence to the U.S. armed services

171. The mission of the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) is:

a. to provide all-source intelligence to the U.S. armed services, and coordinate all military intelligence resources

b. to coordinate spaceborne reconnaissance needs of the U.S. governmentc. to coordinate, direct and provide signals intelligence and information security

functionsd. to centralize responsibility for the imagery and mapping needs of the U.S.

government

172. The National Security Agency's mission is:

a. to coordinate spaceborne reconnaissance needs of the U.S. governmentb. to coordinate, direct and provide signals intelligence and information security

functionsc. to centralize responsibility for the imagery and mapping needs of the U.S.

governmentd. to coordinate, direct and perform signals intelligence and information security

functions in support of both defense and no defense U.S. government activities

173. The mission of the National Reconnaissance Office is:

a. to coordinate, direct and provide signals intelligence and information security functions

b. to centralize responsibility for the imagery and mapping needs of the U.S. government

c. to coordinate the spaceborne reconnaissance needs of the U.S. governmentd. to coordinate, direct and perform signals intelligence and information security

functions in support of both defense and non-defense U.S. government activities

174. The National Security Council consists of

a. the president, the joint chiefs of staff, and the secretary of defense.b. the president, vice president, and the director of central intelligence.

c. the president, vice president, secretary of state, and secretary of defense.d. the national security advisor and the director of central intelligence.

175. Articles 77-134 of the UCMJ, which deal with specific infractions punishable under military law, are known as the

a. general articles.b. punitive articles.c. administrative articles.d. jurisdictional articles.

176. Strictly forbidden by article 55 of the UCMJ (prohibition of cruel and unusual punishments), but contrary to common practice in the days of sail, are

a. confinement in a brig as punishment.b. awards of diminished rations (bread and water) as punishment.c. punishments such as flogging which may injure or demean the individual.d. sentences of death in time of war.

177. The trial and punishment of offenders in the U.S. Armed Forces are covered by a set of laws named the

a. Uniform Code of Military Justice.b. Manual for Courts-Martial.c. Manual of the Judge Advocate General.d. Navy Regulations.

178. Three types of courts-martial, in order from lowest level of severity to highest, are

a. special, general, and summary.b. summary, general, and special.c. summary, special, and general.d. general, special, and summary.

179. The purpose of whipping a line is to prevent the bitter end from

a. kinking.b. fraying.c. shrinking.d. stretching.

180. The five permanent members of the United Nations are

a. the United States, Great Britain, Germany, France, and India.b. the United States, Great Britain, Russia, Poland, and Japan.c. the United States, Great Britain, France, Russia, and China.

d. the United States, Japan, France, Germany, and Italy,

181. What is a fathometer?

a. a GPS componentb. a device which determines sea depthc. a device used to determine speed through waterd. also called a fix, which determines the ship's bearing

182. What three nations caused problems for the U.S. Navy between 1871 and 1875?

a. France, Spain and Koreab. England, Spain and Chinac. China, Korea and Franced. Spain, China and Korea

183. The book, The Influence Of Sea Power Upon History, 1660-1783, was written by

a. Commodore Stephen Luce, USN.b. Admiral David Porter, USN.c. Captain Alfred Thayer Mahan, USN.d. Admiral David G. Farragut, USN.

184. In 1886, Captain Alfred Mahan, USN, was appointed president of the

a. U.S. Naval Institute.b. U.S. Naval War College.c. U.S. Naval Academyd. U.S. Coast Guard Academy

185. Who has sometimes been called "the real father of all modern navies"?

a. Commodore Stephen Luce, USNb. Admiral David Porter, USNc. Captain John Paul Jones, USNd. Captain Alfred Mahan, USN

186. __________________ in American newspapers, including publication of a letter by the Spanish Ambassador calling President McKinley "weak" whipped up American support for the Spanish-American war.

a. "Yellow Journalism"b. "U.S. Military Prepares For War" essays.c. "How America Is Preparing For War" essays.d. "Ill Treatment Of Cubans By The Spanish Government" essays.

187. The F-14 aircraft flies at a top speed of Mach 2.0. How fast is Mach 2?

a. The speed of soundb. The speed of lightc. Twice the speed of soundd. 600 miles per hour

188. What countries made up the Central Powers during World War I?

a. Japan, Russia and Franceb. France, Britain and Russiac. Turkey, Germany and Austria-Hungaryd. France, Germany and Austria-Hungary

189. What countries made up the Allied Powers during World War I?

a. Germany, Britain and Franceb. France, Russia and Britainc. France, Germany and Austria-Hungaryd. Russia, Germany and Austria-Hungary

190. The main objective of the German U-boats in World War I was to

a. attack France.b. attack U. S. Navy ships.c. attack merchant ships that were headed for Britain.d. attack British ships at night in the English Channel.

191. Who was the commander of German surface forces in the Pacific when war broke out?

a. Vice Admiral Reinhard Scheerb. Vice Admiral Manfred von Richthofenc. Vice Admiral Graf von Speed. Vice Admiral Schlichter von Koenigswald

192. The deepest spot in the North Atlantic basin is the

a. Mid-Atlantic Ridge.b. South Sandwich Trench.c. Puerto Rico Trench.d. Greenland-Iceland Gap.

193. What was the first meteorological instrument?

a. Barometer

b. Hygrometerc. Thermometerd. Wind-measuring device

194. Where is the busiest and largest Atlantic port in Western Europe located?

a. London, Englandb. Cannes, Francec. Naples, Italyd. Antwerp, Belgium

195. In which body of water are most of the shrimp caught that are consumed in the United States?

a. North Atlanticb. Gulf of Mexicoc. Caribbean Sead. Gulf of Alaska

196. What sea lies between the Suez Canal and the Gulf of Aden?

a. Black Seab. White Seac. Red Sead. Yellow Sea

197. What percentage of the oil needs of the United States comes from the Persian Gulf area?

a. 40b. 50c. 30d. 60

198. Personnel at the U. S. naval base at McMurdo Sound, Antarctica are involved with

a. exploration.b. cold-weather equipment testing.c. basic research on south polar marine life and weather.d. All of the above answers are correct.

199. In 1991 Civil War Broke out in which Baltic Country?

a. Greeceb. Italy

c. Turkeyd. Yugoslavia

200. In October 1992 the UN established a no-fly zone, and safe areas around several cities in

a. Croatia.b. Serbia.c. Bosnia-Herzegovina.d. Spain.