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1. Among the following revolt which is
not from Bengal and Eastern India?
A. Kol Rising
B. Chuar and Ho Risings
C. The Ahom’s Revolt
D. Koli Risings
2. With which objective, CR Das and
Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj
Party within the Congress?
A. Spearhead the mass struggles
B. Forge Hindu-Muslim unity
C. Participate in elections to the
provincial council
D. Organise legislative protests
against Rowlatt
3. Consider the following statements:
1. The Non-cooperation Movement
sought to bring the working of the
Government to a standstill by not
cooperating with the
administration.
2. The Civil disobedience
movement’s aim was to paralyse
the administration by performance
of specific illegal acts.
3. The Non-cooperative movement
was started by Gandhij through
Dandi March.
Choose the correct options:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2
C. Only 1
D. All of the above
4. Consider the statements:
1. Gandhi Irwin Pact was effected
on 5 March 1931
2. The pact declared that Dominion
status was the goal of India’s
constitutional development.
3. Gandhijee attended the Second
Round Table Conference, and the
conference was successful.
Choose the correct statement:
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. 1 and 2
D. All
5. Consider the following statements:
1. Demand for Purna Swaraj was
made in 1929 in Karachi Session.
2. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru presided
over the Congress Session in1929
3. Tricolour Flag of Indian
Independence was unfurled by the
Congress President Pt. Jawahar Lal
Nehru in Karachi Session.
Choose the correct statements
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. 1,2 and 3
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6. Consider the statements regarding
INA (Indian National Army):
1. INA was organised by Capt.
Mohan Singh.
2. Subhash Chandra Bose re-
organised INA as Azad Hind Fauj.
3. The captured INA soldiers were
tried by the British Govt. of India.
4. Jawahar Lal Nehru was the
Defence Counsel for the INA heroes.
Choose the correct statements:
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1,2 and 3
D. All the above
7. Match List I with List II.
List I
(Association)
List II
(Founder/Member
)
I East India
Associatio
n
1 Justice Ranade
II Poona
Sarvajanik
Sabha
2 Dada Bhai
Naoroji
II
I
Madras
Mahajan
Sabha
3 M. Veer
Raghvachari
IV Bombay
Presidency
4 Firozshah
Mehta
I II III IV
A 1 2 3 4
B 2 1 4 3
C 4 2 1 3
D 3 4 1 2
8. Identify the incorrect statements
about B.M.Malabari
a. A parsi social reformer who
advocated for widow remarriage
b. His relentless efforts led to the
enactment of The Age Consent
Act in 1891 which forbade the
marriage for girls below age of 12
c. He founded Seva Sadan in 1885
which specialized in taking care
of exploited women
d. He himself married a widow and
proved to be an inspiration to his
followers.
9. The slogan “One religion, one caste,
one god for mankind” was coined by
A. E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
B. Sri Narayan Guru
C. Sahadaran Ayyappan
D. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
10. Which was the first newspaper
published by Gandhi?
A. Harijan
B. Young India
C. Indian Opinion
D. Navjivan
11. Dr B R Ambedkar clashed with
Mahatma Gandhi at the 2nd Round
Table Conference demanding
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A. Reservation for Dalits in
Government jobs
B. Reservation for Dalits in Ministries
C. Separate citizen status for Dalits
D. Separate Electorate for Dalits
12. Which of the following were the
salient features of the government of
India Act, 1935?
I. Provided for bicameral
federation legislature
II. Provided provincial autonomy
III. Provided for a federal court
IV. Diarchy in Sind and Orissa was
maintained
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2,3 and 4
13. The doctrine of ‘suleh kul’ among
the Sufis represents
A. Internal purification
B. Universal brotherhood
C. Salvation
D. Bond of love between God and
individual soul
14. Who among the following was
known as ‘Prachanna Buddha’?
A. King Ashoka
B. Shankaracharya
C. Ramanujachraya
D. Siddhartha Gautama
15. Ajithantha purana was composed by
A. Ranna
B. Ponna
C. Pampa
D. Bhoja
16. Choose the correct statements about
Hyder Ali
I. He was the commander in chief
in the army of Dalawyi Nanjayya
II. He lost the first Anglo Mysore
war against the British in 1767
III. He was killed in the second Anglo
Mysore war in 1782
IV. He built Dariya daulat and
lalbagh gardens at Srirangapatna
A. Only 1 is correct
B. 1 and 2 are correct
C. 1,3 and 4 are correct
D. All are correct
17. Who was the founder of Arvidu
dynasty
A. Achyuta Raya
B. Sadasiva Raya
C. Krishnadeva Raya
D. Tirumala Raya
18. Who rose in revolt against the
British during the 1857-58 uprising
A. Raja Venkatappa Nayaka of
Surapur
B. Dhondiya Wagh
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C. Kittur Rani Chennamma
D. Krishshnappa Nayaka of Balam
19. The kodagu uprising was led by
A. Budibasappa in 1830-31
B. Swamy Aparamara in 1835-37
C. Sardar Gurusiddappa in 1833
D. Sangolli Rayanna in 1829
20. Which of the following are kannada
journals that spread nationalistic spirit
among the people of Karnataka
A. Vrittanta chintamani
B. Kesari
C. Suryakanta
D. Jaimini bharata
21. Who shifted the capital of Mysore
state to Bangalore?
A. Lewin Bowring
B. Mark Cubbon
C. John Briggs
D. Sir Richard Meade
22. ‘Mysore Chalo ‘ movement was
A. Demand for responsible
government
B. Demand for karnataka
unification
C. No tax campaign in Mysore state
D. Quit India movement in
Karnataka
23. Hyderabad State Congress was
started by
A. Swamy ramananda teerta
B. Sir Mirza Ismail
C. Nizam of Hyderabad
D. janardan Rao Desai
24. The integral principles of India”s
foreign policy “Non Alignment and Five
principles for peaceful existence” was
propogated by
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. IndiraGandhi
25. Justice Miller Committee was
formed in 1918 for
A. To look into the grievances of
ivory canal peasants
B. To recommend for the upliftment
of Backward classes in Mysore
C. To look into the causes of
Ganapathi disturbances
D. To set up a strong institution
against the congress dominance
in Mysore
26. Identify the correct statements
about Praja Mitra Mandali in Mysore
state
I. It was inspired by The Justice
Party of Madras
II. It opposed the demand for
responsible government in
Mysore
III. It demanded expansion of
educational facilities of backward
classes by opening hostels and
extending scholarships
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IV. It was successful in becoming a
strong force against the Congress
dominance in Mysore
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1, 2 and 3
C. All the above
D. None of the above
27. Nagar Insurrection that led to the
annexation of Mysore by the East India
company during 1831 was during the
period of
A. Krishnaraja wodeyar II
B. Krishnaraja Wodeyar III
C. Chamaraja VIII
D. Chamarajendra
Question 28 and 29 contain two
statements I and II. Answer these using
the following codes to identify the “True
statements:
Code:
A. Both the statements are true
B. Only statement I is true
C. Only statement II is true
D. Both statement are false
28. I. Representative assembly was
convoked in 1881 when Sheshadri Iyer
was the dewan of Mysore
II. Rangacharlu was the first Diwan
of Mysore
29. I. Mysore Rule during the period of
Krishnaraja odeyar is called the Golden
age of Mysore
II. Krishnaraja odeyar III was called
the Morning star of Renaissance in
Karnataka
30. Identify the incorrect statements
I. The Dakshinadi school is the
Karnataka school of music
II. The Taphe dance form in
temples which was banned gave
a blow to traditional dance in
Mysore
III. The rule of Krishnaraja Odeyar
IV encouraged the development
of independent Mysore School of
Painting
IV. The Gudigars of north west
Karnataka are famous sculptors
known for their intricate work
on ivory or wood
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 4 only
31. Gandhara School of Art developed in
the reign of
A. Chandra Gupta Maurya
B. Ashoka
C. Chandra Gupta
D. Kanishka
32. In which of the following places rock
cut architecture is not found
A. Aihole
B. Badami
C. Ajanta
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D. Pattadkal
33. Which of the following is called the
‘tajmahal of Deccan’
A. Gol gumbaz
B. Jami masjid
C. Ibrahim rouza
D. Rangin mahal
34. With respect to the Mysore
legislative council, which of the
following statement is true?
I. It was established when V.P
Madhavarao was the Dewan of Mysore
II. At that time of its formation the
Council consisted of not less than 10
and not more than 15 additional
members to be nominated by the
Government, out of which not less than
two-fifths were required to be non-
officials.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
35. Which of the following significant
events occurred during Belgaum
session of Congress in 1924
I. The state anthem of Karnataka
was sung for the first time
II. State Karnataka Unification
Conference was also held
III. Praja Samyukta Paksha was
merged with Congess
IV. Gandhiji presided the Congress
session
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All the above
36. Consider the following statements
about Constituent Assembly of India:
I. It was set up as a result of
negotiations between the Indian
Leaders and Cripps Mission
II. Its members were directly
elected
III. It worked as India’s parliament
till the first election were carried
out
Which among the above statements is/
are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2 & 3
C. Only 3
D. None of them
37. The Directive Principles of State
policy, though attractive, are not
enforceable by law. But there is one
among the given options, which has
been so far made enforceable by a
Supreme Court fiat. Identify that DPSP
from the given options:
A. Uniform Civil Code
B. Free Education till the children
complete age of 6 years (provision
after 86th amendment act)
C. Equal pay for equal work
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D. Prohibition of intoxicating drinks
and of drugs which are injurious to
health
38. Which is the smallest parliament
constituency in India?
A. Sikkim
B. Goa
C. Anandaman & Nicobar
D. Lakshadweep
39. Consider the following statements
in context with Legislative procedures
at Center:
1. A Money bill can be referred to a
Joint Committee of the Houses
2. A motion for introduction of a
Finance Bill or an Appropriation
Bill in either house of Parliament
Which among the above statements is/
are correct?
A. Only 1 is correct
B. Only 2 is correct
C. Both 1 & 2 are correct
D. Both 1 & 2 are incorrect
40. The salary and allowances of Chief
Justice of India and Other judges can be
reduced only if approval comes from:
A. President
B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court
D. None of them
41. Part IV of the Constitution of India
deals with
A. Civil rights
B. Political Rights
C. Economic Social and Cultural
rights
D. All of the above
42. Consider the following:
1. Chief Justice of India
2. Other Judges of Supreme Court
President may consult the Judges of
the Supreme Courts for
appointment of which among the
above?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
43. The C & AG of India does not audit
the receipts and expenditure of—
A. Municipal undertakings
B. State Governments
C. Government companies
D. Central Government
44. A member of a State Public Service
Commission can be appointed and
removed respectively by __:
A. Governor, Governor
B. Governor, President
C. President, Governor
D. President, President
45. With reference to the executive
power in a state in India, which among
the following statements is / are
correct?
1. Executive power of the state is
vested in Governor
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2. Real executive authority in a
state is Council of Ministers
3. All executive decisions in a state
are taken in the name of Chief
Minister
Choose the correct option from the
codes given below:
A. Only 1 & 2
B. Only 2 & 3
C. Only 3
D. 1, 2 & 3
46. With reference to the State
Legislative Council in India, which
among the following statements is / are
correct?
I. The Legislative Council is a
continuing House & two-third of
the members retire in two years.
II. Members of local bodies elect
one-third of the total number of
members of the legislative
council
III. If a state legislative council is to
be created or abolished , a
resolution to that effect is to be
first passed by the State
legislature by a two-third
majority
Choose the correct option from the
codes given below:
A. Only 1 & 2
B. Only 2 & 3
C. Only 1 & 3
D. 1, 2 & 3
47. How long a person should have
practiced in a High Court to be eligible
to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme
Court of India?
A. 10 Years
B. 15 Years
C. 12 Years
D. 5 Years
48. Who among the following is known
as ‘the father of local self government’
in India ?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Lord Canning
C. Lord Ripon
D. Lord Wellesley
49. The power to vote money for public
expenditure rests in India with ___:
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. Legislative Assembly
4. Legislative Council
Choose the correct option from the
codes given below:
A. Only 1 & 2
B. Only 1 & 3
C. Only 1, 2 & 3
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
50. With respect to the President of
India, which among the following
statements is / are correct?
1. A person who has been president of
India is eligible for immediate re-
election
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2. A person can not hold the office of
president of India for more than two
consecutive terms
Choose the correct option from the
codes given below:
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
51. The Sarkaria Commission was set
up to review the relation between
A. Prime Minister and the President
B. Executive and Judiciary
C. Legislative and Executive
D. Centre and the State
52. One of the following members was
not included in the drafting Committee
of the Indian Constitution
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Shri N Madhava Rao
D. Shri KM Munshi
53. The question asked orally after the
question hour in the House is called
A. Supplementary question
B. Short notice question
C. Starred question
D. Unstarred question
54. Under the term ‘Double Jeopardy’
implied in Clause 2 of Article 20 of the
Constitution of India, a person
A. convicted by a court of law
cannot be punished under
departmental proceedings for the
same offence
B. punished departmentally cannot
be prosecuted in a court of law
for the same offence
C. shall not be prosecuted and
punished for the same offence
more than once
D. cannot be subjected to
proceedings in civil courts for
disobedience of an injunction
along with criminal proceedings
55. According to the Constitution, the
Lok Sabha must meet at least
A. thrice each year with no more
than two months between
sessions
B. twice each year with no more
than three months between
sessions
C. twice each year with no more
than four months between
sessions
D. twice each year with no more
than six months between
sessions
56. Provisions of the Indian
Constitution relating to the formation of
new States can be amended by
A. two-third majority of the
members present and voting in
each House of the Parliament
provided they also constitute the
majority of the total membership
in each House
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B. a Parliamentary resolution which
should be ratified by a majority
of State Legislatures
C. a simple majority in each House
of Parliament
D. a three-fourth majority in each
House of Parliament
57. The quorum requirement in the
Rajya Sabha is
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 126
58. A proclamation of failure of the
constitutional machinery (president
rule) in a State is valid in the first
instance for
A. One month
B. Three months
C. Four months
D. Six months
59. The Tenth Schedule of the
Constitution of India deals with the
A. languages of the Union
B. lists of legislative business
C. anti-defection law
D. special status of Jammu and
Kashmir
60. For removal of a Governor from
office, the President seeks advice from
______:
A. Council of Ministers
B. Supreme Court
C. Chief Minister of the concerned
state
D. None of them
61.With reference to the procedure of
the Mercy petitions in India, consider
the following statements:
i. A mercy petition can be filed only by
Indian Citizens
ii. There is no time limit for the
president to respond on the mercy
petition
iii. The mercy petition is subject to
Judicial Review
iv. In India, the only authority to decide
on mercy petitions is the President
Which among the above statements
is/are correct?
A. Only 1 & 2 are correct
B. Only 1, 2 & 3 are correct
C. Only 2 & 3 are correct
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct
62. In Lok Sabha of India, the “Leader of
the House” is nominated by ___:
A. President
B. Lok Sabha Speaker
C. Prime Minister
D. Deputy Speaker
63. In the Indian context, the term ‘De-
notified tribes’ refers to
A. Tribes which are aboriginals
B. Nomadic tribes
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C. Tribes practising shifting
cultivation
D. Tribes which were earlier
classified as criminal tribes
64. Which one of the following is not
explicitly stated in the Constitution of
India but followed as a convention?
A. The Finance Minister is to be a
member of the Lower House
B. The Prime Minister has to resign
if he loses majority in the Lower
House
C. All the parts of India are to be
represented in the Council of
Ministers
D. In- the event of both the
President and the Vice President
demitting office simultaneously
before the end of their tenure, the
Speaker of the Lower House of
Parliament will officiate as the
President
65. The Appellate jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court does not involve
A. civil cases
B. criminal cases
C. disputes arising out of pre-
Constitution treaties and
agreements
D. cases involving interpretation of
the Constitution
66. Who administers the Oath of Office
to the President?
A. The Chief Justice of India
B. The Speaker
C. The Prime Minister
D. The Vice-President
67. Which of the following is not in the
State List under the Constitution of
India?
A. Fisheries
B. Agriculture
C. Insurance
D. Betting and Gambling
68. The power to promulgate
ordinances during recess of Parliament
is vested with
A. The Council of Ministers
B. The Parliamentary Standing
Committee on Urgent Enactment
C. The President
D. The Prime Minister
69. Who is non-member who can
participate in the debate of Lok Sabha?
A. Vice President
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Attorney General of India
D. None of the above
70. In which among the following
cases, the Supreme Court of India
propounded the theory of basic
structure of the Constitution?
A. Gopalan vs. State of Madras
B. Golak Nath
C. Keshvanand Bharati
D. Minerva Mills
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71. Of the various ways of financing
government’s investment expenditure,
the least inflationary is:
A. foreign aid
B. deficit financing
C. taxation
D. public borrowing
72. ‘Devaluation’ means:
A. converting rupee into gold
B. lowering of the value of one
currency in comparison of some
foreign currency
C. making rupee dealer in comparison
to some foreign currency
D. None of these
73. Monetary policy is regulated by:
A. money lenders
B. Central Bank
C. private entrepreneurs
D. Government policy
74. Which of the following comes under
non-plan expenditure?
I. Subsidies
II. Interest payments
III. Defence expenditure
IV. Maintenance expenditure for the
infrastructure created in the previous
plans
A. I,II
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
75. Which one of the following is the
basic objective of monetary policy?
A. To control deficit of the budget
B. To control deficit in the balance of
payment
C. To control cost and availability of
money
D. To control public expenditure
76. Consider the following actions by
the government
i. cutting the tax rates
ii. increasing the government
spending
iii. abolishing the subsidies
In context of economic recession,
which of the above actions can be
considered a part of fiscal stimulus
package?
A. i only
B. i and ii only
C. i and iii only
D. i, ii and iii
77. When the reserve bank of India
announces an increase in the Cash
Reserve Ratio, what does it mean?
A. The commercial banks will have
more money to lend
B. The reserve Band of India will have
less money to lend
C. The commercial banks will have less
money to lend
D. The Union government will have less
money to lend
78. In order to comply with TRIPS
Agreement, India enacted the
geographical indication of Goods Act,
1999. The difference between a Trade
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Mark and a Geographical Indication
is/are:
i. A trade Mark is an individual or a
company right whereas a
geographical Indication is a
community right
ii. A Trade mark can be licensed
whereas a GI cannot be licensed
iii. A TM is assigned to the agricultural
good/products and handicraft only.
A. i only
B. ii and iii only
C. i and ii only
D. i, ii and iii
79. The Government has been making
efforts for 100% Financial Inclusion in
recent times. What does Financial
Inclusion comprise?
i. Access to Credit
ii. Access to Financial Advice
iii. Access to Insurance
iv. Access to savings account
A. i only
B. iv only
C. i and iv only
D. all the above
80. Deficit financing means that the
government borrows money from the
A. RBI
B. Local bodies
C. Big businessmen
D. IMF
81. Governing council of the NITI Aayog
includes
i. Prime minister
ii. Finance minister
iii. Chief ministers of all states
Answer choices
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. all of them
82. If five year planning was continued,
the period of 13th five year plan would
be
A. 2013-2018
B. 2015-2020
C. 2017-2022
D. None of above
83. The Goods and Services Tax (GST)
will subsume which among the
following central and state taxes?
i. Excise duty
ii. Sales tax
iii. Income tax
iv. Value added tax (VAT)
v. Luxury tax
Choose the correct option:
A. i, ii and iii
B. i, ii, iv and v
C. ii, iii, iv and v
D. i, ii, iii and iv
84. Which of the following is/are the
major objectives of MGNREGA?
i. Wage employment
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ii. Create durable community assets
iii. Empower Gram Panchayats
Choose the correct option:
A. i only
B. i and ii
C. i and iii
D. i, ii and iii
85. Which among the following states
has maximum number of Special
Economic Zones (SEZ) as on February
2015?
A. Karnataka
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Telangana
86. With respect to Anti-Dumping Duty
which of the following statement is
incorrect?
A. It is duty imposed by government
on imported products which
have prices less than their
normal values or domestic price.
B. Usually countries initiate anti-
dumping probes to check if
domestic industry has been hurt
because of a surge in below-cost
imports.
C. Anti-Dumping Duty is imposed
under the multilateral WTO
regime and vary from product to
product and from country to
country.
D. In India, anti-dumping duty is
recommended by the Union
Finance Ministry, while the Union
Ministry of Commerce imposes it.
87. Consider the following:
i. Market borrowing
ii. Treasury bills
iii. Special securities issued to RBI
Which of these is/are components(s) of
internal debt?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 only
D. 1,2 and 3
88. In India, the interest Rate on savings
accounts in all the nationalized
commercial banks is fixed by
A. Union Ministry of Finance
B. Union Finance Commission
C. Indian Banks’ Association
D. None of the above.
89. Which of the statements given
below is/are correct?
1. The Finance minister declared in
the Budget for 2015-16 that
General Anti-Avoidance (GAAR)
will be implemented with the
effect from 1 April 2015
2. The provisions of GAAR were
aimed at checking tax avoidance
by overseas investors
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
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D. Neither 1 nor 2
90. Government of India recently
announced constitution of NITI Aayog
as a policy think-tank replacing
Planning Commission. NITI stands for
A. National Institution for
Transforming India
B. It is not an acronym, but only a
Sanskrit word for Policy
C. National Initiative for
Technological India
D. New Initiative for Transforming
India
91. Which of the following indices is
not considered while calculating
Human Development Index (HDI)?
A. Life expectancy
B. Education
C. Housing
D. Income
92. Yellow Revolution in India refers to
growth of
A. Militancy in the north-east
B. Oilseeds production
C. Advertising industry
D. Jaundice outbreak
93. Which of the following statement
is/are true about Pradhan Mantri Jan
Dhan Yojana?
I. Credit Guarantee fund will be
created in the first phase of the
Programme
II. Mera Khata – Bhagya Vidhaata is
the slogan of the mission
III. Micro Insurance will be provided
in the second phase of the
programme
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
94. Which one among the following
sectors in India has the highest share
of employment?
A. Agriculture and allied activities
B. Manufacturing
C. Construction
D. Tertiary sector
95. Which one among the following
items has maximum weight in
wholesale price index in India?
A. Primary article
B. Fuel and power
C. Manufactured product
D. Food item
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96. If we deduct grants for creation of
capital assets from revenue deficit, we
arrive at the concept of
A. primary deficit
B. net fiscal deficit
C. budgetary deficit
D. effective revenue deficit
97. Privatization includes
A. sale of public enterprises to
private sector
B. disinvestment of public
enterprise equity
C. participation of private sector in
management in public sector
enterprises
D. All of the above
98. What is/are the facility/facilities
the beneficiaries can get from the
services of Business Correspondent
(Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?
1. It enables the beneficiaries to
draw their subsidies and social
security benefits in their villages.
2. It enables the beneficiaries in the
rural areas to make deposits and
withdrawals.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
99. Who is the current director general
of World Trade organisation?
A. Roberto Azevêdo
B. Pascal Lamy
C. Jim Yong Kim
D. Christine Lagarde
100. The Union government has
recently given its approval for setting
up of the first ESDM (electronic system
design and manufacturing) in which
city?
A. Mumbai
B. Bangalore
C. Mysore
D. Kochi
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Direction: (Q. No. 1 to 15) Read the five
passages given below and answer the
fifteen questions that follow based on
the information given in the passage.
Passage 1
Brain drain, which is the action of having
highly skilled and educated people leaving
their country to work abroad, has become
one of the developing countries concern.
What makes those educated people leave
their countries should be seriously
considered and a distinction between
push and pull factors must be made. The
push factors include low wages and lack of
satisfactory working and living conditions.
Social unrest, political conflicts and wars
may also be determining causes. The pull
factors, however, include intellectual
freedom and substantial funds for
research.
1. Which of these conditions most likely
would lead to brain drain from a country
according to the passage?
A. New programmes like Skill India and
the Make in India Programmes will
make India the manufacturing hub of
the World
B. Policy of Housing for all aims to
build 2 crore houses in Urban areas
and 4 crore houses in Rural areas
C. The government spends a meagre
amount for research in science and
technology compared to other
countries
D. None of the above
2. Brain drain results in movement of
A. People from one country to another
B. Educated professionals from one
country to another
C. Goods from one country to another
D. All the above
Passage 2
The best definition of Sustainable
development was presented by the report
Our Common Future (also known as the
Brundtland Report):
"Sustainable development is development
that meets the needs of the present
without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs."
Green development is generally
differentiated from sustainable
development in that Green development
prioritizes what its proponents consider
to be environmental sustainability over
economic and cultural considerations. In
addition to that, sustainable development
has underlying concepts: the concept of
'needs', in particular the essential needs of
the world's poor, to which overriding
priority should be given; and the idea of
limitations imposed by the state of
technology and social organization on the
environment's ability to meet present and
future needs. There is an additional focus
on the present generations' responsibility
to improve the future generations' life by
restoring the previous ecosystem damage
and resisting to contribute to further
ecosystem damage.
3. Sustainable development stresses upon:
A. The relationship between man and
development,
B. A development that takes into
consideration the needs of future
generations.
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C. The luxuries of the world’s poor
D. Only preventing any further damage
to the ecosystem as much as possible
4. The word proponent in the passage
most nearly means
A. one who denies the existence of a
deity or of divine beings
B. one who believes it impossible to
know anything about God
C. the leader or principal person in a
movement, cause, etc.
D. a person who advocates a theory,
proposal, or course of action
5. Green development in the passage
means
A. Eco system centric approach to
development
B. Culture centric approach to
development
C. Development considering the needs
of the poor and marginalized
D. Maximum monetary benefits is the
main concern
Passage 3
International Women's Day (IWD) is
marked on March 8 every year. Countries
around the world celebrate IWD to give
credit to the economic, political and social
achievements of women and to show
respect to their contributions in the
development of their countries. The IWD
was first celebrated on 19 March 1911 in
Germany following a declaration by the
Socialist Party of America. It's only in the
beginning of the 20th century that the day
was officially and internationally
acknowledged due to the rapid
industrialization and the social protest
that it accompanied.
On this day women are usually given
flowers and small gifts. It is also
celebrated as an equivalent of Mother's
Day in some countries. Children also give
small gifts to their mothers and
grandmothers. In countries like Portugal,
it is customary, at the night of 8 March, for
groups of women to celebrate the holiday
with women-only dinners and parties. In
1975, the United Nations gave official
sanction to and started financing
International Women's Day.
Although, women are becoming more
powerful in business, entertainment,
politics and many more areas, there are
still a lot of inequalities around the world
which call for the mobilization of
everybody to grant women the proper
status they merit.
6. When was the first IWD celebrated?
A. In the end of the 20th century
B. In the middle of the 20th century
C. Early in the 20th century.
D. In the 19th century
7. Which of the statement is true according
to the passage?
A. Social unrest and industrialization
were some of the causes that led to
IWD
B. IWD is officially celebrated all over
the world
C. Women are restricted only to
domestic spheres all over the world
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D. There is no monetary support for the
international women’s day across
the world
Passage 4
The chief claim for the use of science in
education is that it teaches a child
something about the actual universe in
which he is living, in making him
acquainted with the results of scientific
discovery, and at the same time teaches
him how to think logically and inductively
by studying scientific method. A certain
limited success has been reached in the
first of these aims, but practically none at
all in the second. Those privileged
members of the community who have
been through a secondary or public school
education may be expected to know
something about the elementary physics
and chemistry of a hundred years ago, but
they probably know hardly more than any
bright boy can pick up from an interest in
wireless or scientific hobbies out of school
hours. As to the learning of scientific
method, the whole thing is palpably a
farce. Actually, for the convenience of
teachers and the requirements of the
examination system, it is necessary that
the pupils not only do not learn scientific
method but learn precisely the reverse,
that is, to believe exactly what they are
told and to reproduce it when asked,
whether it seems nonsense to them or not.
The way in which educated people
respond to such quackeries as spiritualism
or astrology shows that fifty years of
education in the method of science in
Britain or Germany has produced no
visible effect whatever.
8. The word ‘palpably’ most nearly means
A. empirically
B. obviously
C. tentatively
D. markedly
9. The author blames all of the following
for the failure to impart scientific method
through the education system except
A. poor teaching
B. examination methods
C. the social and education systems
D. lack of interest on the part of
students
10. If the author were to study current
education in science to see how things
have changed since he wrote the piece, he
would probably be most interested in the
answer to which of the following
questions?
A. Do students spend more time in
laboratories?
B. Can students apply their knowledge
logically?
C. Have textbooks improved?
D. Do they respect their teachers?
11. Astrology is mentioned as an example
of
A. a science that needs to be better
understood
B. a belief which no educated people
hold
C. something unsupportable to those
who have absorbed the methods of
science
D. an acknowledged failure of science
Passage 5
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It begins the moment you set foot ashore,
the moment you step off the boat's
gangway. The heart suddenly, yet vaguely,
sinks. It is no lurch of fear. Quite the
contrary. It is as if the life- urge failed, and
the heart dimly sank. You trail past the
benevolent policeman and the inoffensive
passport officials, through the fussy and
somehow foolish customs - and we get
into the poky but inoffensive train, with
poky but utterly inoffensive people, and
we have a cup of inoffensive tea from a
nice inoffensive boy, and we run through
small, poky but nice and inoffensive
country, till we are landed in the big but
unexciting station of Victoria, when an
inoffensive porter puts us into an
inoffensive taxi and we are driven through
the crowded yet strangely dull streets of
London to the cosy yet strangely poky and
dull place where we are going to stay. And
the first half-hour in London, after some
years abroad, is really a plunge of misery.
This life here is one vast complex of
dullness! I am dull! I am being dulled! My
spirit is being dulled! My life is dulling
down to London dullness. This is the
nightmare that haunts you the first few
weeks of London. No doubt if you stay
longer you get over it, and find London as
thrilling as Paris or Rome or New York.
12. ‘It’ in line 1 refers to a feeling of
A. foreboding
B. fear
C. depression
D. malaise
13. The author of passage one makes his
point mainly by the use of
A. metaphor and simile
B. repetition and exclamation
C. accumulation of details
D. irony and satire
14. The extensive use of the pronoun ‘you’
in passage one indicates that the author
A. is speaking to one particular person
B. is describing the experience of
someone else
C. believes that his feelings will be
shared by many others
D. wishes to add variety to his style
15. The author apparently believes that
the ‘nightmare’ is
A. uniquely caused by city life
B. only over when he leaves the country
C. made worse by the weather
D. dispelled by a longer stay in London
16. Pointing at a girl, Ramesh (male) said “ She is the daughter of my mother’s only brother”. How is Ramesh related to the girl?
A. Cousin brother
B. Maternal uncle
C. Brother
D. Data inadequate
17. Pointing to a man on the stage, Priya
said “He is the brother of the daughter of
the wife of my husband.” How is the man
on the stage related to Priya?
A. Son
B. Husband
C. Cousin
D. Nephew
18. Looking at a portrait of a man, Rajesh
said, “His mother is the wife of my father’s
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son. Brothers and sisters I have none.” At
whose portrait was Rajesh looking?
A. His son
B. His cousin
C. His uncle
D. His nephew
19. Avinash walks 10 km towards North.
From there he walks 6km towards South.
Then he walks 3 km towards East. How far
and in which direction is he with reference
to his starting point?
A. 5 km West
B. 7km West
C. 7km East
D. 5km North-east
20. A watch reads 4:30 O’clock. If minute
hand points towards the East, in which
direction does the hour hand point?
A. North-East
B. South-East
C. North-West
D. North
21. Priya walked from P to Q in North, 100
m. Then, she turned to the left and walked
30 m. Again, she turned to left and walked
140 m. Now, how far is she from the
starting point?
A. 30m
B. 50m
C. 20m
D. 40m
22. In a row of boys, Pavan is seventh from
the start and eleventh from the end. In
another row of boys, Vikas is tenth from
the start and twelfth from the end. How
many boys are there in both the rows
together?
A. 36
B. 37
C. 39
D. None of these
23. In a class of 35 children, Maanya’s rank
is sixth from the top. Annie is seven ranks
below Maanya. What is Annie’s rank from
the bottom?
A. 22
B. 20
C. 19
D. 23
24. In the Venn diagram given below,
circle represents sportspersons, square
represents unmarried persons, triangle
represents women and rectangle
represents educated persons. Each section
is number. Study this diagram to answer
the following question.
Which sections are represented by the
region numbered 11?
A. Married educated sportswomen
B. Unmarried uneducated women
sportspersons
C. Married educated sportsmen
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D. Unmarried educated sportswomen
Direction (Qs 25 to 26): These
questions are based on the diagram
given below:
25. Which number is inside all the three
figures?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
26. What is the sum of the numbers which
belong to two figures only?
A. 10
B. 14
C. 18
D. None of these
Direction (Qs 27 to 29): In following
three questions below is given a
statement followed by conclusions. You
have to assume everything in the
statement to be true, then consider the
conclusions together and decide which
of them logically follows beyond a
reasonable doubt from the information
given in the statement and mark the
appropriate option.
27. Statement: All windows are doors. All
buildings are doors. All doors are boats.
Conclusion:
I. All windows are boats
II. All buildings are boats
III. Some boats are doors
Answer choices:
A. I and II follow
B. I and III follow
C. II and III follow
D. All follow
28. Statements: All belts are rollers. Some
rollers are wheels. All wheels are mats.
Some mats are cars.
Conclusion:
I. Some mats are rollers
II. Some mats are belts
III. Some cars are rollers
IV. Some rollers are belts
Answer choices:
A. I and II follow
B. I, III and IV follow
C. I and IV follow
D. II, III and IV follow
29. Statements
i. All poets are intelligent
ii. All singers are intelligent.
Conclusion
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I. all singers are poets
II. some intelligent persons are not
singers
Answer choices
A. Only conclusion one follows
B. Only conclusion two follows
C. Either conclusion one or conclusion
two follows
D. Neither follows
30. Which one among the following
diagrams illustrates relationship among
animals, cows and horses?
31. What will be the next figure in this series?
32. Which one among the following boxes
are similar to the box formed from the
given sheet of of paper (x)?
33. Find the Number of triangles in the
figure below.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
34. Find the number of square in the
figure below.
A. 8
B. 12
C. 15
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D. 18
35. The six faces of a dice have been
marked with alphabets A, B, C, D, E and F
respectively. This dice is rolled down
three times. The three positions are shown
as:
Find the alphabet opposite A:
A. C
B. D
C. E
D. F
36. A, B, C, D and E when arranged in descending order of there weight from the top. A becomes third, E is between D and A, while C and D are not at the top. Who among them is the second?
A. C B. B C. E D. Data inadequate
Direction (Qs 37 to 41): Each of these
questions are based on the information
given below:
1. 8 persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are
seated around a square table - two
on each side.
2. There are 3 ladies who are not
seated next to each other.
3. J is between L and F.
4. G is between I and F.
5. H, a lady member is second to the
left of J.
6. F, a male member is seated opposite
to E, a lady member.
7. There is a lady member between F
and I
37. Who among the following is to the
immediate left of F ?
A. G
B. I
C. J
D. H
38. What is true about J and K ?
A. J is male, K is female
B. J is female, K is male
C. Both are female
D. Both are male
39. How many persons are seated
between K and F ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
40. Who among the following are three
lady members ?
A. E, H And J
B. E, F and G
C. E,H and G
D. C, H and J
41. Who among the following is seated
between E and H ?
A. F
B. I
C. K
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D. Cannot be determined
42. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a
rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell
to gain 20%?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
43. A is two years older than B who is
twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of
A, B and C be 27, then how old is B?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
44. A train running at the speed of 60
km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is
the length of the train?
A. 120mts
B. 180mts
C. 324mts
D. 150mts
45. Sakshi can do a piece of work in 20
days. Tanya is 25% more efficient than
Sakshi. The number of days taken by
Tanya to do the same piece of work is:
A. 15
B. 16
C. 18
D. 25
46. The age of father 10 years ago was
thrice the age of his son. Ten years hence,
father's age will be twice that of his son.
The ratio of their present ages is:
A. 5:2
B. 7:3
C. 9:2
D. 13:4
47. The average weight of A, B and C is 45
kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40
kg and that of B and C be 43 kg, then the
weight of B is:
A. 17
B. 20
C. 26
D. 31
48. The average monthly income of P and
Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly
income of Q and R is Rs. 6250 and the
average monthly income of P and R is Rs.
5200. The monthly income of P is:
A. 3500
B. 4000
C. 4050
D. 5000
49. 36 men can complete a piece of work
in 18 days. In how many days will 27 men
complete the same work?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 22
D. 24
50. In what ratio must a grocer mix two
varieties of pulses costing Rs. 15 and Rs.
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20 per kg respectively so as to get a
mixture worth Rs. 16.50 kg?
A. 3:7
B. 5:7
C. 7:3
D. 7:5
51. A man completes a journey in 10
hours. He travels first half of the journey
at the rate of 21 km/hr and second half at
the rate of 24 km/hr. Find the total
journey in km.
A. 220km
B. 224km
C. 230km
D. 234km
52. The percentage increase in the area of
a rectangle, if each of its sides is increased
by 20% is:
A. 40%
B. 42%
C. 44%
D. 46%
53. The difference between the length and
breadth of a rectangle is 23 m. If its
perimeter is 206 m, then its area is:
A. 1520m2
B. 2420 m2
C. 2480m2
D. 2520m2
54. One evening before Sunset, Rupesh
was standing facing a pole. The shadow of
the pole fell exactly to his left. To which
direction was he facing?
A. East
B. North
C. South
D. West
55. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 7 and 8 h
respectively. When they were opened
together, due to a leakage, the cistern took
16 min more to fill. The leakage alone can
empty the cistern in
A. 42h
B. 14h
C. 56h
D. 28h
Direction (Qs 56 to 60): Study the
diagram given below and answer each
of the following questions.
56. How many persons who take tea and
wine but not coffee ?
A. 20
B. 17
C. 25
D. 15
57. How many persons are there who take
both tea and coffee but not wine ?
A. 22
B. 17
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C. 7
D. 20
58. How many persons take wine ?
A. 100
B. 82
C. 92
D. 122
59. How many persons are there who
takes only coffee ?
A. 90
B. 45
C. 25
D. 20
60. How many persons takes all the three ?
A. 20
B. 17
C. 25
D. 15
61. Which number replaces the question?
A. 9
B. 11
C. 13
D. 15
62. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar
and Anthony is 80 years. What was the
total of their ages three years ago ?
A. 71
B. 72
C. 74
D. 77
63. There are deer and peacocks in a zoo.
By counting heads they are 80. The
number of their legs is 200. How many
peacocks are there ?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 50
D. 60
64. If you write down all the numbers
from 1 to 100, then how many times do
you write 3 ?
A. 11
B. 18
C. 20
D. 22
65. The number of boys in a class is three
times the number of girls. Which one of
the following numbers cannot represent
the total number of children in the class ?
A. 48
B. 42
C. 44
D. 52
66. A sum of Rs. 12,500 amounts to Rs.
15,500 in 4 years at the rate of simple
interest. What is the rate of interest?
A. 3
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B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
67. A library has an average of 510 visitors
on Sundays and 240 on other days. The
average number of visitors per day in a
month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday
is:
A. 250
B. 276
C. 280
D. 285
68. A man has Rs. 480 in the
denominations of one-rupee notes, five-
rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The
number of notes of each denomination is
equal. What is the total number of notes
that he has?
A. 45
B. 60
C. 70
D. 90
69. A rectangular field is to be fenced on
three sides leaving a side of 20 feet
uncovered. If the area of the field is 680 sq.
feet, how many feet of fencing will be
required?
A. 34
B. 40
C. 68
D. 88
70. Choose the correct mirror image of the
given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Direction (Qs 71 to 75): Examine the
following graph and answer the
questions that follow.
71. Which month showed the highest
difference in inflation rate over the
previous month?
A. March
B. April
C. May
D. June
72. Which month showed the highest
percentage difference in the inflation rate
over the previous month?
A. March
B. April
C. May
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D. July
73. For how many months was the
inflation rate greater than 16?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. None of these
74. In how many month was there a
decrease in the inflation rate?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
75. The difference in the number of
months in which there was an increase in
the inflation rate and the number of
months in which there was a decrease,
was
A. Four
B. Three
C. Two
D. One
Direction (Qs 76 to 80): Examine the
following graph and answer the
questions that follow.
76. In the case of how many years was
the production below the average
production of the given years?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
77. What was the percentage drop in
production from 1996 to 1997?
A. 100
B. 50
C. 65
D. 40
78. In which year was the production 50%
of the total production in 1993 and 1998
together?
A. 1994
B. 1995
C. 1996
D. 1997
79. If the production in 1999 will be above
the average production of the given years,
which of the following could be the
minimum production for 1999?
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A. 105000
B. 120000
C. 100900
D. 130000
80. What was the approximate percentage
increase in production from 1993 to
1994?
A. 60
B. 40
C. 110
D. 30
Direction (Qs 81 to 85): Examine the
following graph and answer the
questions that follow.
81. What is Gita’s average earnings over
all the days together?
A. Rs 285
B. Rs 290
C. Rs 320
D. Rs 310
82. What is the total amount earned by
Rahul and Naveen together on Tuesday
and Thursday together?
A. Rs 1040
B. Rs 1020
C. Rs 980
D. Rs 940
83. Gita donated her earning of
Wednesday to Naveen. What was Naveen’s
total earnings on Wednesday after Gita’s
donation?
A. Rs 520
B. Rs 550
C. Rs 540
D. Rs 560
84. What is the difference between Rahul’s
earnings on Monday and Gita’s earnings
on Tuesday?
A. Rs 40
B. Rs 20
C. Rs 50
D. Rs 30
85. What is the respective ratio between
Naveen’s earnings on Monday, Wednesday
and Thursday?
A. 7:3:5
B. 8:6:5
C. 8:7:4
D. 9:3:4
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Direction (Qs 86 to 90): Examine the
following graph and answer the
questions that follow.
86. What is the difference between the
total number of employees in teaching and
medical profession together and the
number of employees in management
professions?
A. 6770
B. 7700
C. 6700
D. 7770
87. In management profession three-
fourth of the number of employees are
female. What is the number of male
employees in management profession?
A. 1239
B. 1143
C. 1156
D. 1139
88. 25% of employees from film
production profession went on a strike.
What is the number of employees from
film production who have not participated
in the strike?
A. 3271
B. 3819
C. 3948
D. 1273
89. What is the total number of employees
in engineering profession and industries
together?
A. 5698
B. 5884
C. 5687
D. 5896
90. In teaching profession if three-fifth of
the teachers are not permanent, what is
the number of permanent teachers in the
teaching profession?
A. 1608
B. 1640
C. 1764
D. 1704
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Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) Given
below are ten questions. Each question
describes a situation and is followed by
four possible responses. Indicate the
response you find the most
appropriate. Choose only one response
for each question. The responses will
be evaluated based on the level of
appropriateness for the given question.
Please attempt all the items. There is no
penalty for wrong answers for these ten
items.
91. You are being sent for an intensive
efficiency improvement training program,
which you are not interested in going for.
You will
A. Proceed for the training keeping
your interest aside
B. Inform your boss to send someone
else for the training
C. Go for the training but you will spend
most of the time roaming here and
there
D. Try on finding excuses for avoiding
the training
92. You are the head of anti-naxal
operation in the jungles. Suddenly you
spot some naxalites hiding in the bush.
You will
A. Warn them to surrender
B. Make a sudden assault on them
C. Inform your senior officers and wait
for some forces to come
D. Circle them first and ask them to
surrender. If they refuse, then order
firing
93. You are a railway officer. For an
important personal work you have to go to
your village. When the train is about to
start, you come to know that your ticket
has slipped somewhere from your pocket.
What would you do in such a situation
A. Cancel your journey and get down
from the train
B. You use your power and travel
without a ticket. Infact order the TTI
to arrange for a seat for you
C. Rush towards the window of ticket
counter to buy another ticket
D. Inform the incident to the TTI and
buy another ticket as per the rules
from the TTI
94. You are offered a heavy bribe in return
of granting profile tender relating to a
telecom services. The matter is not at all
serious and granting of tender is not going
to harm anyone. You will
A. Take legal action against the
organization offering bribes and will
strive to penalize the guilty
B. Accept the bribe
C. Try to keep yourself away from the
situation
D. Revolt against the system of bribery
and try to get the tender in a positive
way
95. You are acting as presiding officer
during the polling time. You see a
physically weak and old lady came to cast
her vote and waiting in queue for her turn.
What is your reaction
A. Go to her; tell her not to cast her vote
and advise her to go home
B. Ask someone to bring her to you and
help her to cast her vote
C. Do nothing as others may object for
doing so
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18 ©www.nammakpsc.com
D. Go to her; encourage her to cast her
vote by helping her to vote with the
help of others and ask the media to
take her photograph
96. You are the district magistrate of a
district. Sarpanch elections are going on in
the districts. During election in a village,
two leading parties had a conflict. How
will you handle the situation?
A. Direct the police to control the
situation
B. Tell the parties that you will cancel
their candidature
C. Go there and try to mediate in the
situation
D. Write to the state election
commission about the incident
97. You are a traffic police inspector. One
day, your brother was caught ina case of
while drunk and driving. What will you
do?
A. Go by the law and punish him
accordingly
B. Give him a warning and let him go
C. Let him go thinking that you will
make him understand at home
D. Warn him and let him go because
this is the first time he has done this
mistake
98. You are the police commissioner of a
state. Honour killing is very common in
your state. One or more such cases are
reported every day. What will you do to
control the situation
A. Launch a campaign to open the
minds of the people and to make
them realize that honour killing is a
crime
B. Order the police to arrest all those
people who are involved in such
heinous crimes
C. Talk to the people directly and warn
them not to get involved in honour
killings
D. Give protection to the people who
married outside their community
99. You go to your village in summer vacation. You saw fire in a nearby village and people were panicking. You
A. Pacify the people, form a team and
use sand and water to put off fire
B. Call up the fire brigade from the city
C. Wait for situation to calm down
D. Leave the village and rush away
100. You are DM of a flood prone district.
One day while on a survey of the area in a
boat with your subordinates, you found
that the boat had developed a hole in it
and water started coming in. you will
A. Order your subordinates to jump out
of the boat in order to guess the
depth of the water
B. Jump out the boat as you know how
to swim
C. Order your subordinates to plug the
leak with a cloth, threw the water by
bucket and started boating fast to
reach the destination
D. Call the disaster management
authority and tell them about the
situation
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2
1. The following sources give information
about the earth’s interior
i. Meteors
ii. Magma from Volcanic eruptions
iii. Seismic activity
iv. Magnetic surveys
v. Gravity anomoly
Select the correct answer using the code
below
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
2. Which of the following statements are
incorrect
A. Oceanic crust is thinner than
continental crust
B. Oceanic crust is lighter than
continental crust
C. Oxygen is the most abundant element
in the earth’s crust
D. The earth’s crust constitutes less than
1% of earth’s total volume
3. The main source of salinity in the ocean is:
A. Land
B. Marine life
C. Meteorites
D. Volcanoes
4. The mountain building in Himalayas
began
A. about 45 million years ago
B. when the continental plates of India
and Eurasia converged on each other
C. both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
5. Which of the following is an example of
metamorphic rocks?
A. Sandstone
B. Basalt
C. Shale
D. Slate
6. The least explosive type of volcano is
called
A. Basalt plateau
B. Cinder cone
C. Shield volcanoes
D. Composite volcanoes
7. Which of the following is true about
stratosphere?
A. Vertical winds are almost absent in
this region
B. Temperature decreases with height in
this region
C. Violent weather changes are seen in
this region
D. Aurora borealis are seen in this layer
8. Highest temperature is recorded at
A. The equator
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3
B. Slightly north of equator
C. Slightly south of equator
D. At both the tropics
9. The land-sea distribution or the positions
of the world's continents and major oceans
influences
A. the major pressure belts that develop
from the general circulation of the
atmosphere
B. the development of the mid-latitude
cyclonic depressions, at the
convergence zone between polar and
subtropical air masses
C. both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
10. The humidity of the air depends upon
A. temperature
B. location
C. weather
D. All of the above
11. Consider the following statements about
extra tropical cyclones
1. They develop in the mid and high
latitude
2. They develop due frontal situation at
the mid latitudes
3. They can originate only on seas
4. They move from west to east
Which of the above are true
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1,2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All the above
12. Match the following
Select the correct answer using the code
below
I II III IV
A 3 4 1 2
B 3 4 2 1
C 4 3 2 1
D 4 3 1 2
13. Which of the following statement is not
correct?
A. Strait of Malacca lies between
Malaysia and Sumatra
B. Strait of Malacca lies between
Sulawesi and New Guinea
I Valley
breeze
1 Violent storms over ocean
in tropical areas
II Katabatic
wind
2 Tornado over seas in mid
latitudes
III Typhoons 3 The wind moving upslope
during the day in
mountains
IV Water
sprouts
4 The cool air draining into
the valleys during night
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4
C. Strait of Makassar lies between
Sumatra and Sulawesi
D. Strait of Sunda lies between Java and
Sumatra
14. Tides are caused by
1. Gravitational attraction of the sun
2. Gravitational attraction of the moon
3. Centrifugal force
4. Centripetal force
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1,2 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. All the above
15. Consider the following statements:
1. India lies entirely in the Northern
Hemisphere
2. India is divided into two almost equal
halves by Tropic of Cancer
Which among the above statements is / are
correct?
A. Only 1 is correct
B. Only 2 is correct
C. Both 1 & 2 are correct
D. Both 1 & 2 are incorrect
16. The pass located at the southern end of
the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called
A. The Palghat gap
B. The Bhorghat pass
C. The Thalgat pass
D. The Bolan pass
17. The Radcliffe line is a boundary between
A. India and Pakistan
B. India and China
C. India and Myanmar
D. India and Afghanistan
18. Which of the following are true with
respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau?
1. The southern plateau block is formed
mainly of granite and gneiss
2. The Deccan lava plateau is an elevated
tableland consisting of horizontally
arranged lava sheets
3. The Malwa plateau dominates the
Vindhyan scraps, forming the northern
flank of the plateau
4. The trough of the Narmada and Tapti
are interposed between the Vindhyan
and the Satpura ranges
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3
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5
B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. all the above
19. The most plausible explanation for the
location of the Thar desert in western India
is
A. the obstruction caused by the Aravalis
to the rain-bearing wind that proceeds
to the Ganga Valley
B. the evaporation of moisture by heat
C. the absence of mountains to the north
of Rajasthan to cause orographic
rainfall in it
D. that the moisture carried by the South-
west monsoon is driven away by the
dry upper air current
20. Which among the following is/are the
major factor/factors responsible for the
monsoon type of climate in India?
1. Location
2. Thermal contrast
3. Upper air circulation
4. Inter-tropical convergence zone
Select the correct answer using the code
below
A. Only 1 & 2
B. Only 2 & 3
C. Only 2, 3 & 4
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
21. Landslides occur in Nilgiris for the
following reasons
1. Nilgiris are tectonically active
2. The slopes of Nilgiris are very steep
with vertical cliffs
3. They are mainly made up of
sedimentary rocks and consolidated
and semi consolidated deposits
4. They receive heavy amounts of rainfall
over short periods
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All the above
22. Which among the following in India are
known for substantial coral reef formations?
1. Gulf of Mannar
2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Andaman and Nicobar
4. Lakshadweep Islands
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. Only 1 & 2
B. Only 2 & 3
C. Only 2, 3 & 4
D. All the above
23. The state having a largest area of forest
cover in India is
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Haryana
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Assam
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6
24. Which of the following has a potential
for harnessing of tidal energy in India?
A. Gulf of Cambay
B. Gulf of Mannar
C. Backwaters of Kerala
D. Chilka lake
25. Which of the following groups
accounts for over 90 per cent of India's
annual coal production?
A. Bihar, Orissa and West Bengal
B. Bihar, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh
C. Orissa, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil
Nadu
D. West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh and
Tamil Nadu
26. The only state in India that produces
saffron is
A. Assam
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Jammu and Kashmir
D. Meghalaya
27. What is the predominant type of
Indian agriculture?
A. Commercial agriculture
B. Extensive agriculture
C. plantation agriculture
D. subsistence agriculture
28. The scarcity or crop failure of which of the following can cause a serious edible oil crisis in India?
A. coconut
B. Groundnut
C. Linseed
D. Mustard
29. Karnataka is divided administratively
into following divisions
1. Bangalore division
2. Mysore division
3. Belgaum division
4. Dharwad division
5. Gulbarga division
6. Malnad division
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1,2, 4 and 6
C. 1, 2, 3 and 5
D. 1, 2 ,4, 5 and 6
30. Sargur super crystals is the name given
to the
A. High grade metamorphic rocks in the
southern part of the state containing
economically important minerals
B. Volcanic rocks in the eastern part of
the state which are the host rocks for
gold mineralization
C. Sedimentary rocks on the northern
part with vast reserves of limestones
D. Monazite minerals found on the
coastal regions of karnataka
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7
31. Deccan traps are
1. Igneous rocks due to the volcanic
eruptions
2. Formed in the cretaceous to tertiary
periods
3. Cover substantial part of north
Karnataka
4. Acidic rocks of marine origin
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. All the above
32. Consider the following statements in
context with Coffee production in
Karnataka:
1. Karnataka is the major coffee
producing state of India, accounting
about 53% total coffee production of
the country
2. Major coffee producing districts of
Karnataka are Tumkur, Davanagere
and Shimoga
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
33. Match the protected areas with their
main focus of conservation
Protected Area Conservation
I. Bandipur national
park
1 Peacock
II. Adichunchangiri
sanctuary
2 Black buck
III. Daroji sanctuary 3 Sloth bear
IV. Ranebennur
sanctuary
4 Tiger
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
I II III IV
A 4 2 3 1
B 4 1 3 2
C 4 2 1 3
D 4 3 1 2
34. The oldest rocks in India are reported
from
A. Dharwar region, Karnataka
B. Aravalli range, Rajasthan
C. Vindhyan range, Madhya Pradesh
D. Siwalik range, Punjab
35. Which among the following river is not
an east flowing river of Karnataka?
A. Krishna
B. South pennar
C. Kali
D. Godavari
36. Which of the following is true about
Great Indian Bustard?
1. It’s found in Karnataka
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8
2. It’s listed as “critically endangered”
species list by IUCN
3. It’s threatened majorly by the presence
of wind mills, poaching and
encroachment into habitats
4. Its natural habitat is grassland
ecosystem
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. Only 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. All the above
D. None of the above
37. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the
lower latitudes as compared to the
higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients,
biodiversity is normally greater in the
lower altitudes as compared to the
higher altitudes.
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
38. Which of the following statement is true?
A. Construction of large dam will increase
the biodiversity in the area.
B. Fish and Amphibians are cold-blooded
animals.
C. Whale is a cold-blooded fish.
D. Polar bear is a cold blooded animal
because it goes in hibernation.
39. Which of the following statements are
true?
1. “Green Revolution” has increased
biodiversity in India.
2. CITES convention regulates the whale
poaching.
3. Western Himalaya and Eastern Ghats
are examples of biodiversity hotspots.
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. Only 1 and 3
B. Only 3
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
40. Which among the following result in the
conservation of the water?
1. Wastewater treatment
2. Wasteland Development
3. Watershed Protection
4. Rainwater Harvesting
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. Only 1, 2 & 3
B. Only 1, 2 & 4
C. Only 1, 3 & 4
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
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9
41. Which of the statements given below
is/are correct?
1. Chemototrops are organism that
convert organic matter into inorganic
matter
2. Autotrophs are organisms that
produce complex organic compounds
from using energy from light or
inorganic chemical reaction.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
42. Which contains the largest store of
carbon in the world?
A. Oceans
B. Atmosphere
C. Hydrosphere
D. Lithosphere
43. Which of the following levels of
organisation is arranged in the correct
sequence from most to least inclusive?
A. Ecosystem, community, population,
individual
B. Community, individual, population,
Ecosystem
C. Individual, Population, Ecosystem,
Community
D. Ecosystem , population, individual
Community
44. In India most of plant flowers during
spring or summer because
A. It is breeding season for butterflies
B. More solar radiation are available
C. Fruits and seed setting must be
completed before the onset of
monsoon
D. Environment fluctuations are low
45. Which of the following would not qualify
as an ecosystem service?
A. Rain falling to Earth
B. Squirrels burying acorns
C. Leaves falling on a forest floor
D. Blowfly larvae infesting a deer carcass
46. The first community to establish itself in
an area having no vegetation is formed by
A. Xerosere
B. Pioneers
C. Beginees
D. Climate climax
47. Which sector shows the highest Global
Green House Gas Emission?
A. Agriculture and Forestry
B. Energy supply sector
C. Industry
D. Transport
48. Question contain two statements I and
II. Answer these using the following codes
to identify the “True statements:
Code:
A. Both the statements are true
B. Only statement I is true
C. Only statement II is true
D. Both statement are false
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I Biomass accounts for the largest share in
the Renewable energy capacity in India
II India’s renewable energy sector is driven
primarily by private sector.
49. With respect to National clean Energy
Fund (NCEF) consider the following
statement
i. The scope of the NCEF has now been
expanded to include funding in the
area of clean environment initiatives.
ii. Rs 50 per tonne cess on coal is used to
fund NCEF
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
50. With respect to The Adaptation Fund
created under the UNFCCC identify the
incorrect statement
A. NABARD is India’s National
Implementing Entity (NIE) for the
Adaptation Fund created under the
UNFCCC
B. 2 of NABARD’s proposal on climate
change adaptation has been sanctioned
by the Adaptation Fund Board
C. Promoting Climate resilient agriculture
systems in West Bengal and enabling
the fisheries sector in Andhra Pradesh
are 2 of the projects proposed by
NABARD to Adaptation Fund Board
D. At present NABARD is the 2nd such
NIE in the Asia Pacific Region
51. Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT)
scheme under the National Mission on
Enhanced Efficiency is an example of
A. Carbon Tax
B. Carbon Trading
C. Carbon Research
D. Carbon Money
52. Which of the following are the by
products of composting
1. Humus
2. Water
3. methane
4. Carbon dioxide
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. Only 1
B. Only 1, 2 and 3
C. Only 1,2 and 4
D. All the above
53. The appropriate conditions for coral
growth are
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11
1. Temperature between 23-29 degree
celsius
2. Salinity
3. Calcium
4. Shallow waters
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. All the above
54. Match List I with List II.
List I
(Convention/
protocol)
List II
(Purpose)
I CITES 1 Climate change
II Nagoya
Protocol
2 Access To Genetic
resources and the fair
and equitable sharing
of Benefits arising from
their utilization
III Kyoto
Protocol
3 Ozone layer
IV Vienna
convention
4 Stop illicit trade of
wildlife
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
I II III IV
A 3 2 1 4
B 2 4 1 3
C 4 2 1 3
D 3 4 1 2
55. Consider the following statement
i. Hydroflurocarbon (HFCs) has no
harm to ozone but is a greenhouse
gas
ii. Hydrofluro carbon (HFCs) is one of
the gases to be phased out under
the Montreal Protocol.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 and 2
56. Which of the following don’t use
sunlight for synthesis of food
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12
A. Cyanobacteria
B. Rhododendrons
C. Nitrosomonas
D. Algae
57. Identify the incorrect statements
1. Phytoplanktons are present only in the
upper 200 meters of an aquatic
ecosystem
2. Eutrophication is increase in the
phytoplanktons due to increase in
nutrients in the water body
3. All animals in an aquatic eco system
solely depend upon phytoplanktons
for their nutrients
4. An aquatic ecosystem can be depicted
as an upright food pyramid of biomass
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 3 and 4
58. Grasslands are affected by increased
grazing in following ways
1. Reduced mulch cover leading to drier
conditions
2. Invasion by xerophytic plants
3. Breakdown of biogeochemical cycles
4. Creates new habitat for burrowing
animals
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. Only 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. All the above
59. Which of the following is not a desert
adaptation?
A. Succulent stems
B. Coating of wax and protected stomata
C. Plants germinate only during rainy
season
D. Pneumatophores
60. Which is the only community reserve in
Karnataka
A. Kokkarebellur
B. Ranganathittu
C. Nilgiri reserve
D. Bandipur reserve
61. The Environment (protection) act covers
the following
1. Handling of hazardous substances
2. Grassland conservation
3. Endangered wildlife
4. Forest conservation
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. All the above
62. Which of the following pollutants are not
found in automobile emissions
A. Nitrogen oxides
B. Volatile organic compounds
C. Ozone
D. Chloro flouro compounds
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63. Which of the following are incorrect
about Fly ash
1. Its very fine residue produced by
burning of solid material
2. Settles on soil and acts as a fertile
manure for growth of plants
3. Can be used as a fill material in road
embankments
4. Is a major component of vehicle
emissions
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. None of the above
64. Which of the following is not a cause for
land degradation
A. Overgrazing
B. Extractive industries
C. Zero tillage farming
D. Sea water inundation
65. Match the Wildlife Sanctuaries/ National
park of Karnataka given in the map below
with the appropriate code.
1. Bandipur National Park
2. Dandeli Wildlife sanctuary
3. Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Ranebennur Wildlife sanctuary
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
I II III IV
A 4 2 3 1
B 2 1 4 3
C 2 4 3 1
D 3 4 1 2
66. H1N1 or Swine flu is a
A. Viral infection
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14
B. Bacterial infection
C. Fungal infection
D. Parasitic infestation
67. NISAR mission is
A. Is a mission mode project to improve
renewable energy situation in the
country
B. a joint project between NASA and ISRO
to launch a dual frequency synthetic
aperture radar satellite.
C. Is a research project to study the
vulnerabilities of the coastal cities of
the country
D. Addresses the state of nutrition among
the particularly vulnerable tribal
groups
68. In which among the following states, the
government is proposing a Neutrino-based
Observatory?
A. Rajasthan
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Karnataka
D. Kerala
69. Recently, the government of India has
launched a new initiative called MeghRaj.
What is this MeghRaj?
A. Its a new Monsoon prediction system
B. It’s a new project related to Cloud
Computing
C. It’s a new service under Department of
Posts
D. It’s a new scheme for India’s Rainfed
areas
70. Rashtriya Vigyan Diwas is celebrated on
February 28 of every year to mark
A. the discovery of Raman Effect by
Indian physicist C. V. Raman
B. the birthday of Indian physicist C. V.
Raman
C. the launch of first Indian satellite into
space
D. to launch of Mars Mission into its orbit
71. Bioprinting refers to
A. The use of 3D printing technology with
materials that incorporate viable living
cells.
B. Use of eco friendly materials for
printing like natural dyes etc
C. Imprinting of genetic code on the
individual’s DNA during gamete
formation
D. Imprinting of cancer markers on
normal cells
72. Vishing refers to
A. using phone calls or voice messages to
trick people in revealing sensitive
information.
B. group wishing for occasions on social
media
C. is unauthorized access to another
person's or company's data limited to
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15
gaining access to data during its
transmission
D. casual observance of an e-mail that
appears on another's computer screen
or watching what someone else is
typing.
73. In terms of percentage, which of the
following metals has highest composition in
Polymetalic nodules?
A. Manganese
B. Iron
C. Nickel
D. Copper
74. In which of the following crop Azolla-
Anabaena biofertilizer is used?
A. wheat
B. rice
C. maize
D. Egyptian cotton
75. When viewed in white light, soap bubble
shows colour because of
A. Interference
B. Polarisation
C. Refraction
D. Diffraction
76. MDR-TB is
A. Tuberculosis which is not treatable
B. Tuberculosis resistant to all known
drugs
C. Tuberculosis resistant to first line
antibiotics
D. None of the above
77. What is renewable kerosene
A. A type of bio fuel produced by bagasse
B. Fuel formed by using artificial sunlight,
water and carbon dioxide
C. Normal kerosene used in fuel efficient
stoves
D. A byproduct of refining of petroleum
78. Which of the following is true about
Super heavy elements
1. They have atomic number more than
104
2. They are not found In nature
3. They are formed by fusion of nuclei
4. They have a very short half life
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. Only 1
B. 1 and 2 only
C. All the above
D. None of the above
79. Hydrogen bomb is based on the
following principle
A. Controlled nuclear fusion
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B. Controlled nuclear fission
C. uncontrolled nuclear fission
D. uncontrolled nuclear fusion
80. Consider the following
1. The volume of water is minimum at 4
degree Celsius
2. If the expansion of water had not been
anamolous, the ponds and the lakes
would have frozen from top to bottom
3. Ice is a bad conductor of heat
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. All are correct
B. 1 and 2 are correct
C. 1 and 3 correct
D. 2 and 3 are correct
81. Weightlessness experienced while
orbiting the earth is due to
A. Acceleration
B. Zero gravity
C. Inertia
D. Centre of gravity
82. Ball pen functions on which of the
following principle
A. Viscosity
B. Boyle’s law
C. Gravitational force
D. Surface tension
83. If a star emitting yellow light starts
moving towards the earth, its colours as
seen from the earth will
A. Turn gradually red
B. Turn gradually blue
C. Remain yellow
D. Turn bright yellow
84. A man is standing between two plane
mirrors inclined at an angle of 60 degree the
number of images formed are
A. 4
B. 6
C. 2
D. 5
85. If a magnet is left to itself, it will lead to
A. Increase in its magnetic property
B. No change in its magnetic property
C. Decrease in its magnetic property
D. Its magnetic properties will first
increase and then decrease
86. Consider the following statements.
Which of these is incorrect
A. Laser is a technique to produce light of
same wavelength, in a single direction
and in phase
B. Light produced by laser is incoherent
whereas that of an incandescent bulb
is cohernt
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C. Laser beams are used to remove
unhealthy tissue from the body
D. Laser is also used to weld a detached
retina back into space
87. The phenomenon of emission of light in
certain bacteria and fishes is due to
presence of
A. Amylase
B. Luciferase
C. Serinace
D. Valinifin
88. Concave mirror is not used for which of
these
A. Shaving mirror
B. Reflection in search lights
C. Examination of internal parts of the
ear
D. Rear view mirror
89. Identify the incorrect statements
A. Pasteurization is a technique of
preservation by sterilization of fluid
foods only
B. It helps destroy all microorganisms
like virus yeast bacteria etc in the food
C. The food is heated to temperature
slightly below boiling point of water
then suddenly cooled to chilling
temperatures
D. This technique is useless for TB
bacteria as it is heat resistant
90. The reason for stainless steel being rust
proof is
A. High chromium content
B. High nickel content
C. High molybdenum content
D. High carbon content
91. Which of the following are reactions
to noise pollution
1. Increase in heart rate
2. Constriction of blood vessels
3. Digestive spasms
4. Dilation of pupil of the eye
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. All the above
D. None of the above
92. Which of the following is incorrect
A. Cholesterol is a component of cell
membranes in human body
B. Cholesterol is essential for synthesis
of hormones
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18
C. Pure cholesterol is liquid at room
temperature and is insoluble in
water
D. Excess cholesterol is deposited in
arteries resulting in atherosclerosis
Instruction for question 93 to 95
In the following questions select the
correct code
A. Both 1 and 2 are correct
B. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
C. Only 1 is correct
D. Only 2 is correct
93.
i. LPG contains ethane, propane butane
and pentane
ii. The leakage can be detected by the
typical smell of these above
hydrocarbons
94.
i. Microwave oven can heat all
materials irrespective of the water
content in them
ii. Heat is not supplied from outside in
the oven but is generated within the
food materials
95.
i. Artificial sweeteners are nutritious
agents
ii. Aspartame is used as artificial
sweetener as it produces less calories
than per gram of sucrose
96. Satellites used for telecommunication
relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A
satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:
1. The orbit is geosynchronous
2. The orbit is circular
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the earth’s
equator
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236km
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 1,3 and 4
C. 2 and 4
D. 1,2,3 and 4
97. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
A. Arjun: Indigenously produced Main
Battle Tank (MBT)
B. Phalcon: Cruise missile supplied by
Russia to India
C. Saras: Indigenously developed civilian
passenger aircraft
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D. Operation seabird: New Indian Naval
base at Karwar
98. In case of a nuclear disaster which of the
following options for cooling the nuclear
reactors may be adopted?
1. Pumping of water to the reactors
2. Use of boric acid
3. Taking out the fuel rods and keeping
them in a cooling pond
Choose the correct option from the codes
given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
99. Use of biology in industrial process and
for improving quality of life is called
A. Genetic engineering
B. Eugenics
C. Microbiology
D. Biotechnology
100. Bluetooth technology allows
A. Wireless communications between
equipments
B. Signal transmission on mobile phones
only
C. Landline to mobile phone
communication
D. Satellite television communication
[Type text]
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1. Identify the incorrect statement with
respect to the recently launched Sansad
Adarsh Gram Yojana.
A. It encourages MPs or Sansads to
identify and develop one village
from their respective constituency
as a model village by 2016 and
two more by 2019
B. MPs are required to pick one
village with a population of 3000-
4000 in plains and 1000-3000 in
hills within a month of the launch
C. It is applicable only to the elected
members of Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha.
D. MPs cannot pick villages which
belong to themselves or their
spouses.
2. Find correct statements about Beti
bachao-beti padhaao (BBBP)
A. It’ll be implemented through
ministry of human resource
Development.
B. Sukanya Samriddhi account is a
sub-component of BBBP.
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
3. Identify the incorrect statement with
respect to Unnat Bharat Abhiyan
A. It is an initiative of the Ministry of
Rural Development.
B. This programme will be launched
in collaboration with the Indian
Institutes of Technology (IIT) and
the National Institutes of
Technology (NITs) across the
country which will prepare a
roadmap for holistic rural
development.
C. Each IIT will identify 10 villages in
its neighbourhood and work out
technologies to solve the most
pressing issues of the region.
D. Once the solution is identified then
they will involve the industry in
this to solve the problem.
4. Bachpan Bachao Andolan (Save the
Childhood Movement) is an initiative
started by
A. Kailash Satyarthi
B. The Indian Red cross
C. Ministry of women's and child
development
D. Bill and Malinda Gates Foundation
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5. With respect to programmes aimed at
bringing minorities into mainstream
development Match List I with List II.
List I
(Programme)
List II
(purpose)
I Manzil 1 Leadership
training
programme for
women
II USTAAD 2 Upgrading
entrepreneurial
skills of
minority youths
III Nai Roshni 3 Education and
skill
development of
dropouts
IV MANAS 4 Build capacity of
traditional
artisans and
craftsmen
belonging to
minority
communities
I II III IV
A 1 2 3 4
B 2 1 4 3
C 4 2 1 3
D 3 4 1 2
6. Paying heed to the Prime Minister’s
exhortation during his address to UN
General Assembly in September 2014,
the UN has declared to celebrate which
day as International Yoga Day?
A. 21 June
B. 16 September
C. 12 August
D. 17 December
7. Government recently re-launched
Kisan Vikas Patra scheme (KVP). It is a
certificate saving scheme available for
A. Any Farmer
B. Women Farmer
C. General citizen
D. Member of farmer cooperative
8. Which Disease is not covered under
the Government scheme Indradhanush?
A. Diphtheria
B. whooping cough
C. tetanus
D. rotavirus
9. With respect to Motion of Thanks to the
President for his address in the parliament.
Consider the following statement
i. If an Amendment to Motion of Thanks
to the President for his address is
passed in the Lok Sabha, it will lead to
censure of the government
ii. So far the Motion of Thanks to the
President for his address has been
amended 4 times in the Lok Sabha.
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Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
10. Which is the first state to make voting
compulsory in the Local body elections?
A. Kerala
B. Karnataka
C. Jammu and Kashmir
D. Gujarat
11. Identify the incorrect statement with
respect to National Lok Adalat (people’s
courts)?
A. It is aimed at reducing the backlog of
cases in the courts
B. It settles dispute through conciliation
and compromise
C. It adjudicates matters based on
ancient Indian customary laws
D. It was organized by the National Legal
Service Authority (NALSA)
12. what is the name of the documentary by
the British film-maker Leslee Udwin about
the Delhi Gang rape victim?
A. India’s Daughter
B. In Cold Blood
C. Mind of the Rapist
D. Death of a Princess
13. Which Indian boxer was provisionally
suspended by the AIBA for refusing to
accept the bronze medal won after losing
the semi-final fight over a controversial
decision at the 2014 Asian Games?
A. Mary Kom
B. Sarita Devi
C. Kavita Goyat
D. Sarjubala Devi
14. 31st October, will be celebrated as
National Integration Day or Rashtriya Ekta
Divas to celebrate the Birth Anniversary of
A. Lal Bahadur Shastri
B. Indira Gandhi
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. lala lajpat rai
15. As per Census 2011 data, which among
the following States has higher sex ratio
than the national average?
A. Nagaland
B. Delhi
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Tripura
16. Professor Arvind Panagariya was
recently appointed as
A. Chairman, University Grants
Commission
B. Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog
C. Economic Advisor to the Prime
Minister
D. Governor, Reserve Bank of India
17. The government in the Budget 2015-
16 has decided to extend visa on arrival
from the existing ___ countries to ____
countries in Phased manner. Fill the
Blank by choosing the appropriate
option.
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A. 43/150
B. 56/119
C. 34/119
D. 52/148
18. Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS)
is an integrated bill payment system
offering inter-operable and accessible bill
payment service to customers. Which
institute has been appointed as the nodal
agency for its implementation?
A. Reserve Bank of India
B. NABARD
C. State Bank of India (SBI)
D. The National Payment Corporation
of India (NPCI)
19. Which Company was accused by the
Income Tax department for under-
pricing the shares in a rights issue to the
parent firm for fiscal 2009-2010?
A. Airtel India
B. Vodafone India
C. Tata Indicom
D. Reliance Infocomm
20. Which of the following is not a
feature required for granting special
status to a state by Finance Commission
A. Economic and infrastructural
backwardness
B. Strategic location along borders
with neighbouring countries
C. Low Female Sex Ratio in the state
D. Hilly and difficult terrain
21. Which variable has been included by
the Fourteenth Finance commission in
the Horizontal Devolution Formula?
A. Fiscal discipline
B. Forest Cover
C. Area
D. Education
22. In the General Budget 2015-16 8
centrally sponsored schemes were delinked
from support of the central government. It
includes all except
A. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban
Renewal Mission (JNNURM)
B. National e-Governance Plan
C. Backward Regions Grant Funds
D. Rajiv Gandhi Panchayat
Sashaktikaran Abhiyaan (RGPSA)
23. What constitutional amendment bill has
been introduced in the Lok Sabha on 19th
December, 2014, which provides for levy of
a Goods and Services tax (GST)?
A. 122nd constitutional amendment Bill
B. 112th constitutional amendment Bill
C. 119th constitutional amendment Bill
D. 118th constitutional amendment Bill
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6
24. Which of the following are not
recommended by Shanta Kumar Committee
on FCI restructuring
i. Coverage of National food security act
should be widened.
ii. Priority households under NFSA
should be given more grain allotment
iii. Antyodaya households should be
given grains at 50% below the MSP
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. None of them
25. With respect to Internet.org consider
the following statement
i. It is an initiative by Bill and
Melinda gates foundation
ii. It aims to make internet more
accessible and affordable to all
people around the world.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 and 2
26. Indentify the incorrect statement
with respect to IRNSS 1C
A. IRNSS 1C was launched on a PSLV
C26 from Sriharikota.
B. It is the third satellite in its series
C. It was placed into a sun
synchronous Polar orbit
D. It was launched using an XL
version of the PSLV rocket
27. Consider the following statement
with respect to Nirbhay
i. It is India’s first indigenously
designed and developed long
range sub-sonic cruise missile.
ii. It is capable of carrying only
conventional warhead
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 and 2
28. Consider the following statement
with respect to Ebola Virus
i. Camels are believed to be the
natural Host of this virus
ii. The virus is spread through contact
with body fluids of inflected
persons such as blood, urine and
saliva
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. 1 only
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7
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 and 2
29. Identify the incorrect statement with
respect to SpaceX
A. It is a private space transport
services company
B. It has developed two reusable
launch vehicles: the Falcon 1 and
Falcon 9 and a spacecraft called
Dragon
C. It was responsible for the first
privately funded, liquid-fuelled
rocket to reach orbit
D. It is the first private company to
send a satellite in to Martian orbit
30. Recently the Defence Research
Development Organisation (DRDO) has
developed herbal drug Lukosin, for
treatment of
A. Leucoderma
B. Leukaemia
C. Malaria
D. Kala Azar
31. Long Range Surface-to-Air Missile
(LRSAM) {Barak-8} which was recently
tested successfully is co-developed by
India and
A. Russia
B. France
C. Israel
D. United states
32. What is GreenPHABLET?
A. It is a device that provides farmers
precise information related to
agriculture
B. It is a device used to calculate the
Carbon foot print
C. It is a device used by forest
department to keep track of forest
cover
D. It is a device which uses solar energy
to power itself
33. Which state of India received its first
train in the year 2014?
A. Meghalaya
B. Sikkim
C. Tripura
D. Manipur
34. For the first time Voter Verifiable Paper
Audit Trail (VVPAT) with Electronic Voting
Machines was used for
A. Leh district of J&K
B. Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan
C. Tuensang district of Nagaland
D. Thiruvananthapuram district of
Kerala
35. Operation Kali was launched in Delhi
Metro for better protection of Women
commuters. Which central armed Police
force launched this operation?
A. BSF
B. CISF
C. CRPF
D. ITBP
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36. Which of the following countries are
member of Shanghai Cooperation
Organisation?
A. China, Belarus, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan
B. China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan,
Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan
C. China, Kazakhstan, Ukraine, Russia,
Afghanistan and Uzbekistan
D. Russia, Belarus, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan and
Uzbekistan
37. Exercise MALABAR 2014 was a
trilateral naval exercise involving the
navies of India and which other 2
Nations?
A. United states and Japan
B. United states and Australia
C. Srilanka and Maldives
D. Singapore and Australia
38. The defence deal under negotiation
involving the ShinMaywa US-2
amphibious aircraft is between India and
which other country?
A. South Korea
B. Japan
C. United States
D. Israel
39. According to the Land Boundary
Agreement (LBA between India and
Bangladesh, India will exchange ___ enclaves
measuring 17,160 acres with Bangladesh
and receive____ enclaves covering 7,110
acres
A. 121,61
B. 131,71
C. 111, 51
D. 101,41
40. Among the following who is not a part of
the New Development Bank (NBD)
A. India
B. Russia
C. China
D. Japan
41. The maritime dispute involving the
South Talpatti or New Moore island decided
by United Nations tribunal was between
India and
A. Pakistan
B. Sri Lanka
C. Bangladesh
D. Myanmar
42. Recently, a loose pro-democracy political
movement referred to as ‘umbrella
movement’ took place in 2014 at
A. Singapore
B. Hong Kong
C. Thailand
D. Russia
43. Which of the following is true about
ISIL?
i. is a Salafi extremist group
ii. The proclaimed goal of ISIL is to
establish itself as a Caliphate, an
Islamic state worldwide
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9
iii. ISIL is destroying Iraq's cultural
heritage
iv. India is a party to the Coalition to
Counter the ISIL
A. Only 1
B. Only 1 and 2
C. 1,2 and 3 only
D. All the above
44. What does CLMV countries stand for
A. Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Vietnam
B. Cambodia, Laos, Malaysia, Vietnam
C. China, Laos, Myanmar, Vietnam
D. China, Laos, Malaysia, Vietnam
45. The 13th amendment of Srilankais
significant as it guarantees
A. Devolution of powers to the provinces
by creation of Provincial Councils
B. Peace accord between LTTE and
SriLankan government
C. Rehabilitation of the war affected
Tamils
D. Independent investigation of the war
crimes
46. Which of these is party to Treaty of
Nuclear Non Proliferation?
A. India
B. Israel
C. Iran
D. Pakistan
47. Which Indian company was granted
permission by Australian government to
extract coal in Queensland?
A. Vedanta Resource
B. Adani Mining Ltd
C. Coal India Ltd
D. Hindalco Industries
48. Which country returned a Bronze
Nataraj Idol to India that was sold illegally
by one subash Kapoor?
A. United Kingdom
B. United States
C. Norway
D. Australia
49. With respect to 6th BRICS summit
consider the following statement
i. It was held in Fortaleza, Brazil
ii. BRICS countries agreed to set up a
new development bank
iii. Deal on $100 billion Currency
Reserve Arrangement (CRA) was
agreed upon
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
50. What was India’s total medal tally in
the 2014 Asian Games, Incheon?
A. 57
B. 62
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10
C. 45
D. 71
51. With respect to the Bidaai Scheme
launched by Government of Karnataka,
consider the following statement
i. It is a financial assistance scheme to
poor women belonging to only
Muslim community
ii. Under the scheme Rs 50000/- will
be given to the Beneficiaries at the
time of their marriage.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
52. What is the use of the recently launched
'Dhruv' category helicopter called Garuda
Vasudha from the Hindustan Aeronautics
(HAL) Complex, Bangalore?
A. It will be used by the police for traffic
management and crowd control in
Bangalore Urban
B. It will be used for ferrying VIPs from
Bangalore international airport
C. It will be used by the Geological Survey
of India for detecting deep seated
mineral deposits
D. It will be used by District Health
Department for the transportation of
Heart from Donors
53. In which Tiger Reserve of Karnataka the
Forest Department launched the habitat
tracking device called ‘HEJJE’?
A. Bandipur Tiger Reserve
B. Bhadra Tiger Reserve
C. Dandeli-Anshi Tiger Reserve
D. Nagarhole Tiger Reserve
54. The state government launched ‘Mythri’ a
pension scheme for
A. Old aged
B. Destitute women
C. Street Vendors
D. Sexual Minorities
55. Yettinahole is a tributary of which River?
A. Tungabhadra
B. Kabini
C. Netravati
D. Hemavati
56. The Union Government Launched the
Nirbhaya scheme in the state. Who will this
scheme benefit?
A. Victims of Endosulphan Poisoning
B. Victims of Rape
C. Victims of Acid attack
D. Victims of Domestic Violence
57. Who won the 2015 Hero I-League
Football cup?
A. Mohun Bagan Athletic Club, Kolkata
B. Royal Wahingdoh Football Club,
Shillong
C. Dempo Sports club, Goa
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11
D. Bangalore Football club, Bangalore
58. With regard to Karnataka Integrated and
sustainable water Resources Management
Investment Programme (2014-22) consider
the following statement.
i. It will be executed by the Karnataka
Neeravari Nigam Ltd.
ii. The programme receiving loan from
the World Bank
iii. The project is in two phases- Gondi
Irrigation (shimoga) and Vijayanagara
canals and Tungabhadra Left bank
canals (Bellary)
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. i and ii only
B. iii only
C. i and iii only
D. i, ii and iii
59. Department of Atomic Energy undertook
aerial survey to scan for uranium and
thorium deposits at
A. Bagalkote
B. Dakshina Kannada
C. Mangalore
D. Uttara Kannada
60. The state government constituted a
commission of Inquiry, headed by H.S
Kempanna, retired judge of the High court of
Karnataka, to probe
A. The alleged denotification of land
acquired for the formation of the
Arkavathi Layout
B. The alleged sexual crime committed in
a Bangalore school
C. The growing incidence of rape in
Karnataka
D. The alleged attack on churches
61. ‘Arka Rakshak’ developed by Indian
Institute of Horticultural Research, Bangalore
is a variety of
A. Tomato
B. Brinjal
C. Ladies Finger
D. Green Grapes
62. What is the objective of the recently
launched ‘Health Adalat’, a first of its kind in
the country at Gulbarga?
A. It is a tribunal related to Health sector
B. It is a government-Citizen interface on
health issues
C. It is a grievance redressal centre for
government healthcare workers
D. It is the nodal agency for implementing
Government health schemes in
Karnataka
63. Karnataka got its first food park under
the mega food park scheme of Ministry of
Food Processing at
A. Chikkaballapur
B. Kolar
C. Doddaballapur
D. Tumkur
64. State government will observe December
29 as Rationalism Day to mark the birth
anniversary of
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12
A. G.S Shivarudrappa
B. U.R Ananthamurthy
C. Kuvempu
D. Kavi Pradeep
65. Government has set up a 14 member
search committee to choose a poet for the
title of Rashtrakavi. Who among the following
have not been awarded the title of
Rashrakavi?
A. M. Govinda Pai
B. Kuvempu
C. G. S. Shivarudrappa
D. D R Bendre
66. Suvarna gramodaya yojana is
A. State government programme focusing
on development of 1000 villages every
year by concerted efforts by the
government, NGOs private and village
communities
B. Central government programme that
aims at development of a model village
adopted by each MP by dedicating
funds
C. Achieving villages which are “open
defecation free” under the total
sanitation campaign
D. Developing village infrastructure
under the PURA scheme of central
government
67. Match the World heritage sites in
Karnataka given in the map below with the
appropriate code that follows.
1 Pattadakallu
2 Hoysala complex
3 Hampi
4 Monuments and Forts of Deccan
Sultanate
Select the appropriate code
I II III IV
A 4 1 3 2
B 4 1 2 3
C 2 4 3 1
D 4 3 1 2
68. Basava Vasathi Yojane
A. Provides housing for rural house less
poor with a component of subsidy and
along with beneficiary contribution
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B. Provides housing for urban slum
dwellers with equal contribution from
state and centre
C. Is a CSS to provide housing for rural
SCs and STs by providing built houses
at subsidized rates
D. Is a scheme of building shelter homes
for urban street vendors
69. Soura Belaku
A. aims at universal installation of roof
top solar devices in industrial
establishments
B. Aims at installation of Solar Street
Lights at grama panchayat level
C. Solar pump set will be distributed to
farmers at 50% subsidy or maximum
up to Rs.3 lakhs/solar pump set
D. Improving agricultural income of
farmers by incentivizing them to
integrate biofuel tree species into
agriculture
70. Karnataka biofuel policy has following
provisions
i. It provides for usage of oilseeds for bio
fuel production like groundnut, linseed
oil etc
ii. Oilseeds should be grown only in dry
or infertile land or land unsuitable for
cultivation
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
71. Backward Region Grants are not
provided to which of the following districts
A. Kalburgi
B. Yadgir
C. Chitradurga
D. Bagalkot
72. Major source of energy to the power
sector in Karnataka is
A. Hydel energy
B. Thermal energy
C. Wind energy
D. Biomass energy
73. Deendayal Upadhyay gram Jjyothi yojana
i. Aims to supply 24x7 uninterrupted
power supply to all homes
ii. Involves separating agricultural and
non agricultural feeders
iii. Involves strengthening sub
transmission and distribution
infrastructure in rural areas
iv. Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran
Yojana (RGGVY) has been subsumed in
the new scheme
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. 1 and 3Only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1,2 ,3 and 4
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D. All the above
74. Rural infrastructure development fund
i. Was instituted in NABARD
ii. Objective of giving low cost fund
support to State Governments for
quick completion of ongoing rural
infrastructure projects.
iii. Designed to support innovative, risk
friendly, unconventional experiments
in these sectors that would have the
potential to promote livelihood
opportunities and employment in rural
areas
iv. Banks who can’t meet their priority
sector lending targets are required to
deposit the shortfall amount in this
fund
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. 1 and 3 Only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1,2 and 3 only
D. All the above
75. Electronic benefit scheme is
implemented on a pilot basis in the
following districts
i. Ballari
ii. Chitradurga
iii. Chamarajanagar
iv. Mandya
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. 1 and 3 Only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1,2 and 3 only
D. All the above
76. Stree Shakti programme is
A. Empowering rural women by a SHG-
credit linkage programme
B. Financial Assistance to run hostels for
girls from rural areas
C. Scheme of financial assistance for
remarriage of destitute widows and
marriage of devadasis
D. Empowering victims of atrocities by
providing financial relief, temporary
shelter, protection etc to lead a normal
life
77. High Power Committee For Redressal of
Regional Imbalances (HPCFRRI) was headed
by the renowned economist
A. Dr. Nanjudappa.
B. L. G. Havanur
C. V.K. Gokak
D. Amartyasen
78. The lowest in the the ranking of
development in terms of HDI (human
Development Index) 2001
A. Raichur
B. Gadag
C. Davanagere
D. Chamarajnagar
79. The State government has identified five
facilities ie. Pancha Saulabhya under Sarva
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Shiksha Abhiyan Which of these are not
included under this
A. drinking water
B. toilets
C. school building
D. library
80. 'Naipunya Nidhi'' is set up for the
following purpose
A. Skill Training programme for all the
degree students studying in
Government First Grade colleges
across the State.
B. Provide the Human Resources and
enhance the teaching efficiency of the
staff, the teaching faculties have been
deputed to higher education
C. An aim to harness collaborative
potential of students by encouraging
innovation to solve persistent
problems of our state
D. Aims for the development of higher
education in the country by ensuring
access, equity and quality
81. Which of the following is true about
THAYI BHAGYA
A. It is implemented in all the districts
of Karnataka
B. Empanelled private hospitals are
incentivized to conduct all normal
deliveries for free
C. All surgeries in private hospitals
require part contribution from the
patients
D. BPL pregnant women (including
SC/ST) who undergo deliveries in
Government Hospitals are given
incentive for getting their
nutritional requirement
82. AYUSH Pusti programme is
A. giving AYUSH medicines given in
the form of Syrup and Biscuits to
correct malnourishment in children
aged between 3 to 6 years
B. Free health check up programmes
to popularize AYUSH system in
rural areas.
C. Training given to Medical and
Paramedical staff, General Public,
ASHA worker, Anganawadi worker
and others regarding AYUSH health
system
D. Teaching yoga to school children to
maintain mental and physical well
being
83. National Food Security Mission was
started during 11th Five Year Plan in the
state. Impact of NFSM Programme in the
state is as follows
i. 9% increase in average yield of Rice
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ii. 17% and 53% increase in area,
production and yield of pulses
respectively
iii. Farmers have taken up improved
production technologies practices
like inter cropping etc in pulses
iv. 15 % increase in average yield and
area of production of oil seeds
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. 1 and 3 Only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1,2 ,and 3 only
D. All the above
84. Implementation of Soil Health
Mission does not include
A. Collection of soil samples
B. Analysis of soil samples for macro
nutrients and micro nutrients
C. Analysis is linked to k-kissan project
D. Crop specific organic fertilizer
distribution
85. “Krishi Bhagya” is a
A. scheme that compensates the insured
farmers against losses due to financial
losses due to adverse weather
conditions
B. Scheme for improving livelihood of
rain dependent farming community by
achieving sustainable growth in
agriculture
C. Procurement of perishable agriculture
commodities through hopcoms in the
districts/taluks
D. Mission goal of increasing average
productivity of selected rainfed crops
by 20 %
86. Majority of forest cover in Karnataka
is under
A. Wet evergreen forests
B. Semi-evergreen forests
C. Deciduous forests
D. Plantations form
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87. Match the following e governance
projects of Karnataka with their importance
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
I II III IV
A 3 4 2 1
B 4 1 3 2
C 4 3 1 2
D 3 4 1 2
88. The Hyderabad-Karnataka region have
been provided the following privileges after
the enactment of Article 371(J)
A. 100% of budget of SDP is earmarked
for Hyderabad-Karnataka region.
B. Provides for reservation of 70% of the
seats in any educational institution
C. Provides for creation of a local cadre
D. Establishment of a separate
development board
89. Bhagyalakshmi scheme is
A. Deposit of fixed amount in the name of
girl child which will be paid to the girl
child after completing 18 years
B. providing shelter and counselling to
victims of domestic violence
C. Self employment training programme
for rehabilitation of sex workers
D. Extending financial assistance to
transgenders who were exploited by
the Society
90. Which of the following is true about
Sneha Shivir
i. Involves a cluster of 4-5 anganwadi
centres
List I
(Governance
project)
List II
(importance)
I Telegram 1 Unified
electronic
platform to
handle all
kinds of
agricultural
activities
II Krishi Gyan
Sagar
2 Website to
provide
timely
information
on various
schemes in
agriculture
III K-KISAN 3 Collection of
Good
Agricultural
Practices
IV Raitha Mitra 4 Application
where
farmers
groups can
exchange
progress and
problems
faced by
them
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ii. Parents of all children are given
training for 12 days in preparation
of nutrition food, feeding practices,
health and hygiene.
iii. Its taken up in 4 high burdened
districts of Bagalkote, Kolar, Bellary
and Gulbarga
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 Only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. All the above
91. Which of the following is true about
Karnataka Nuthana Javali Neethi 2013-18
i. Maximum Financial Assistance is
being provided to MSME sector
ii. Karnataka is the first State in the
Country to launch State Textile
Policy.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither of them
92. Savayava bhagya yojaneIs an
improvement over earlier organic
farming programmes as it
i. Aims at developing good marketing
linkages and market development
for the organic products of the state
ii. Brings around 100 ha. area under
organic farming in each hobli of the
taluka
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. only 1
B. only 2
C. both 1 and 2
D. none of the above
93. Custom Hire and Service Centres
primarily catering to
A. Small and marginal farmers
B. Farmers in rain fed areas
C. SC and STS
D. Farmers producing breeder seeds
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Questions 94 and 95 consists of two
statements. Determine whether
Statement A is correct and Statement B
is correct, and if Statement B is the
correct explanation for Statement A.
Choose the correct options
A. Both Statement A and Statement B are
correct and Statement B is the correct
explanation for Statement A.
B. Both Statement A and Statement B are
correct but Statement B is not the correct
explanation for Statement A.
C. Statement A is correct but Statement B
is incorrect.
D. Statement A is incorrect but Statement
B is correct.
94. A: Oil Palm is a water loving plant
B: Its cultivation is being taken up in
the farmer's fields of the districts prone
to droughts to improve farmers’ income
95. A: Fertigation delivers fertilizers at
the roots of the plant
B: Its promoted under the Central
Sponsored scheme of National Mission
on Sustainable Agriculture
96. Karnataka Biodiversity Board does
not have the authority to perform
following functions
A. Promotion of in-situ and ex-situ
conservation of biological resources
B. Provide incentives for research,
conducts awareness and training
programmes
C. Give approval to Monsanto for use
of biological resources commercial
or research purposes
D. Declaration of biodiversity Heritage
sites
97. Which of the following is true about
Annabhagya Yojane
i. It is a CSS which was launched in
July-2013
ii. It Aims to supply 30 kg of food
grains @ Rs. 1/- per kg to BPL
families across the State.
iii. It is implemented with a cost
sharing formula of 50:50 between
centre and state
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. 1 and 3 Only
B. 2 only
C. All the above
D. None of the above
98. The infant mortality rate (IMR) of
Karnataka in 2013 is about
A. 31 per 1000 live births
B. 31 per 100,000 live births
C. 10 per 1000 live births
D. 10 per 100,000 live births
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99. Which of the following is not true
about JANANI SURAKSHA YOJANE (JSY)
A. Objective is reduction in maternal and
infant mortality rate
B. Aims at increasing the institutional
deliveries of BPL and SC/ST families
C. Cash assistance is provided for
deliveries taking place only in health
institutions
D. It is implemented in both urban and
rural areas
100. MGNREGS is operational in all
districts of Karnataka since
A. 2005-06
B. 2006-07
C. 2008-09
2004-05
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1. AFSPA is currently applicable in which of the following states
i. Assam ii. Jammu and Kashmir
iii. Punjab iv. Arunachal Pradesh
Select the correct code:
A. Only i B. Only i and ii C. Only i, ii and iv D. All the above
2. Which of the following is true about Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
i. Flagship programme for universalizing elementary education
ii. Seeks to open new schools in those habitations which do not have schooling facilities
iii. Strengthen existing school infrastructure
iv. Has special focus on girl's education and children with special needs.
Select the correct code:
A. i only B. i,ii and iii only C. All the above D. None of the above
3. Under the revised Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar, which of the following categories has been included into the award criteria?
i. Identification and nurturing of budding/young talent.
ii. Employment of sportspersons and provide sports welfare measures.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. i only
B. ii only C. Both i and ii D. Neither i and ii
4. What are the salient features of Sukanya Samridhi Yojana
i. It is meant for girl child of 10 years
or above.
ii. It can be opened with nil-balance.
iii. Girl child receives free 1 lakh
accident insurance and 30,000 life
insurance tied up with her account.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only i and ii B. Only ii and iii C. Only i and iii D. None of them
5. Consider the following statement with respect to National Optical Fibre Network Project
i. It is Being implemented by Department of Telecommunications (DOT)
ii. It is aimed at connecting 22,50,000 Gram Panchayats in the country with a minimum 500Mbps bandwidth internet
iii. It is funded by Universal Service Obligation
Which of the following statement is true?
A. i and ii only B. i only C. i and iii only D. i, ii and iii
6. The recently launched programme called Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana is aimed at promoting
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A. Organic Farming B. Plantation in the North east states C. Oil seed cultivation D. Minor Irrigation
7. Identify the correct statement about the proposed Investigative Units on Crimes against Women (IUCAW)?
A. This scheme is externally funded
by the World Bank
B. Under this scheme, each state
capital / UT and all metro cities
will have dedicate police units for
crime against women
C. These units will be given
additional powers to search-seize
and arrest beyond the traditional
powers available to a police office
under CrPC.
D. These units will be on 50:50 cost
sharing basis between Union :
State
8. 121st Constitutional Amendment Bill,
2014 which got president assent on 31st
December deals with
A. Establishment of National Judicial
Appointments Commission (NJAC)
B. Goods and services Tax (GST)
C. Agreement to transfer land to
Bangladesh, on the basis of Indo-
Bangladesh Land transfer
agreement
D. Special status to Hyderabad
Karnataka region
9. Under Land ordinance 2014, who among the following can acquire private land for public purpose?
i. One person company ii. Public limited company
iii. private limited company iv. Educational trust. v. Religious charity organization
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only ii and iii B. Only i, ii and iii C. Only i, ii, iii and iv D. All of them
10. Who became the 4th Indian to enter the ICC cricket hall of fame recently?
A. Anil Kumble B. Sachin Tendulkar C. Kapil Dev D. Mahendra Singh Dhoni
11. Sec 66 A of IT Act which was recently annulled by the SC had jurisdiction over following
A. Information posted by making use of such computer resource or a communication device, causing insult, injury, criminal intimidation, enmity, hatred or ill will
B. Websites which could affect sovereignty and integrity of the country, defence, security, friendly relations with foreign states
C. Information posted online with the criminal intent in striking terror in the minds of people
D. Information posted online with the purpose of religious incitement
12. Declining oil prices will lead to increase in GDP growth by
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i. Adding to spending power of the households
ii. Increase profit margins of the corporates
iii. Increasing foreign inflows
Select from the codes below
A. Only 1 B. Only 1 and 2 C. Only 2 and 3 D. All the above
13. Which of the following natural resources garnered a whopping amount of revenue for the nation upon auctioning?
A. Coal mines B. Telecom spectrum C. Land D. Petroleum reserves
14. Disaster management is under which list in 7th schedule
A. Central list B. State list C. Concurrent list D. None of the above
Question 15 and 16 contain two statements I and II. Answer these using the following codes to identify the “True statements:
Code:
A. Both the statements are true B. Only statement I is true C. Only statement II is true D. Both statement are false
15.
I. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen
Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is a
Ministry of Rural Development
initiative for developing skills in
Rural Area
II. Swavalamban Yojana is a scheme
for Physical Rehabilitation of
disabled, which includes early
detection and intervention,
counselling & medical
interventions and provision of
aids & appliances
16
I. India has the second largest
foreign exchange reserve holder
as on 6th February, 2015
II. China has the largest foreign
exchange reserve in the world.
17. Mobile commerce service M-Pesa is an initiative of whom among the following
i. Vodafone India ii. ICICI Bank
iii. Airtel iv. HDFC
Which among the following codes are correct?
A. i and ii only B. ii and iii only C. iii and iv only D. i, ii and iv only
18. Which variable has been excluded by
the Fourteenth Finance commission in
the Horizontal Devolution Formula?
A. Fiscal discipline
B. Forest Cover
C. Area
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D. Education
19. Which of the following statement
about Goods and Services Tax (GST) is
correct?
i. Imports would be zero rated
ii. An integrated GST would be levied
on interstate supply
iii. It will be a Origin-based tax as
against the present destination-
based tax
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. i and ii only
B. i and iii only
C. ii only
D. i, ii and iii
20. The main objective of GAAR is to
A. Prevent tax avoidance
B. To recover the black money
stashed abroad
C. To prevent tax evasion
D. To strengthen bond market
21. Which of the statements given below
about Falling Global Crude Prices is/are
correct?
i. Due to weakening of demand for
crude oil in the economies of Asia,
especially china and Europe
ii. Exploration of shale gas by
countries like US and Canada has
led to lower demand for oil
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. i only
B. ii only
C. Both i and ii
D. Neither i nor ii
22. What are the functions of Food
Corporation of India (FCI)
i. public procurement of foodgrains
ii. storage of foodgrains
iii. distribution of foodgrains
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. Only i and ii
B. Only ii and iii
C. Only i and iii
D. All of them
23. Public debt management agency proposed in the recent budget will help in
i. Development of the bond market in the country
ii. Regulating government lending iii. Preventing leakages of public
funds iv. Bringing in fiscal discipline
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
A. i and ii only B. i, ii and iii only C. i, iii and iv only D. All of the above
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24. Priority sector includes lending to the following sectors
i. Agriculture ii. Micro, Small and medium
enterprises, iii. Education iv. Social infrastructure v. sanitation
vi. renewable energy
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
A. Only i and ii B. Only i, ii, iii and iv C. i, ii, iii, iv and v D. All the above
25. Which of the following is incorrect about the Forwards Market Commission?
A. It’s a statutory body B. It regulates the commodity market in
India C. It functions under the ministry of
finance D. It has powers to investigate and
prosecute cases of commodity market irregularities
26. Which of the following is not true about INS Kolkata (D63)
A. It is second largest destroyer to be operated by Indian Navy after INS Delhi
B. It was commissioned by Prime Minister on 16th August, 2014
C. It was Built at Maza Dock Limited, Mumbai
D. It fitted with advance stealth technology
27. The Aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov has been renamed and commissioned into Indian Navy as
A. INS VIRAAT B. INS VIKRANT C. INS VISHAL D. INS VIKRAMADITYA
28. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A. Akash- Surface to Surface Missile
B. Nag-Surface to Air Missile C. Brahmos-Cruise missile D. Sagarika-Submarine Launched
Ballistic Missile (SLBM)
29. Which country is set to become the
first country to legalize creation of
three-parent IVF designer babies using
Mitochondrial Donation Technique?
A. United Kingdom
B. Switzerland
C. United States of America
D. Brazil
30. Consider the following statement regarding Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB).
i. It is a multilateral development bank to provide finance to infrastructure projects in the Asia-Pacific region
ii. It has been promoted by the United States to counter the China influence in the region
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. i only
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B. ii only C. Both i and ii D. Neither i and ii
31. Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from
A. Egypt B. Lebanon C. Syria D. Tunisia
32.
REGION OFTEN IN NEWS
COUNTRY
i. Kiev Ukraine ii. Darfur Mali iii. Swat Valley Pakistan
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
A. iii only B. ii and iii only C. i and iii only D. i, ii and iii
33. Which of the following is not a party to Central Asian Nuclear-Weapon-Free-Zone (CANWFZ) treaty
A. Kazakhstan B. Kyrgyzstan C. Tajikistan D. Afghanistan
34. Houthi tribes are
A. Rebels in Yemen who caused the fall of the government in yemen
B. Particularly vulnerable tribe in Assam
C. Group of nomadic tribes in Karnataka famous for bee keeping
D. None of the above
35. ‘Maitri’ project for the co-development of a short Range Surface-to-air Missile is between India and
A. Israel B. Russia C. France D. Britain
36. Following the cancellation of more than 200 coal mines allocated by the government between 1993 and 2010, the government is preparing to auction or allocate ______ coal mines in the 1st round.
A. 110 B. 101 C. 121 D. 130
37. Cyclone Hudhud (name given by Oman) that hit the odisha and Andhra Pradesh Coast on October is named after a
A. Afro-Eurasian bird B. State dish of Oman C. The 2nd largest city of Oman D. River in Oman
38. Pekiti-Tirsia Kali is
A. A style of martial arts that has its origin in Philippines.
B. A Women self help group scheme of West Bengal
C. A form of Ancient medicine promoted under AYUSH mission
D. A new all women battalion of the BSF
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39. In which state a proposal to setup an IIT was taken in the recent union Budget?
A. Telangana B. Goa C. Karnataka D. Andrapradesh
40. What is Bitcoin?
A. It is a form of digital currency B. It is Indian domestic card scheme
conceived and launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
C. It is a new digital encrypted system to prevent forgery of currency
D. It is the first digital bank of India
41. Who of the following leader died on the day when Non-cooperation Movement was launched in 1920?
A. Pheroz shah Mehta B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale D. C.R. Das
42. Which Movement was launched along with the Khilafat Movement?
A. Swadeshi movement B. Home rule movement C. Civil Disobedience movement D. Non-cooperation Movement
43. M.K. Gandhi applied his "Satyagraha" first against?
A. The European Indigo Planters B. The mill owners of Ahmedabad C. The British Government D. The racist authorities of South
Africa
44. Gandhiji returned from South Africa on?
A. 1914 May 21 B. 1914 August 18 C. 1915 March 19 D. 1915 January 9
45. The first round table conference was held in
A. London B. Edinburgh C. Delhi D. Calcutta
46. Tripitakas are sacred books of
A. Buddhists B. Hindus C. Jains D. None of the above
47. Which Governor Generals of India is known as the father of Indian Civil Services
A. Lord Cornwallis B. Warren Hastings C. Lord Wellesley D. Lord William Bentinck
48. Who started Bhoodan Movement?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Jayaprakash Narayan
C. Swami Vivekananda
D. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
49. The National Song of India was
composed by
A. Rabindranath Tagore
B. Bankim Chandra Chatterji
C. Iqbal
D. Jai Shankar Prasad
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50. Subhas Chandra Bose organized the
Indian soldiers taken as prisoners by
an Axis power into the Azad Hind Fauj
by an agreement. The Axis power was
A. China
B. Germany
C. Italy
D. Japan
51. The Non-Cooperation Movement in
1920 was withdrawn
A. Because of Gandhiji’s ill-health
B. Due to extremist policy then
adopted by the National congress
C. On a fervent appeal from the
Government
D. Because of violence at Chauri-
Chaura
52. Krishnadevaraya was given the title
of
A. Gajabentekara
B. Bhashege tappuva rayara
ganda
C. Mooru rayara ganda
D. Yavana Rajya Sthapanacharya
53. The treaty of Srirangapatna was
signed between Tipu Sultan and
A. Robert Clive
B. Cornwallis
C. Dalhousie
D. Warren Hastings
54. Which of the following are the cause
that led to the movement for Unification in
Karnataka?
i. Renaissance in Karnataka
ii. Pro unification policies of Nizam of
Hyderabad
iii. Belgaum Congress in 1924
iv. Karnataka State Political
Conference, Dharwad in 1920
Select the correct code
A. i ii and iv only
B. i iii and iv only
C. i and iii only
D. i ii and iv ony
55. Mysore congress held its first
conference at
A. Sivapur
B. Ankola
C. Sirsi
D. Siddapur
56. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a
joint sitting of the both the houses of
Indian parliament, it has to be passed by a
A. Simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting
B. Two-third majority of the total number of members of both the houses
C. Simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses
D. Two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting
57. Which one of the following has the right to address the Parliament?
A. Attorney General of India B. Chief election commissioner of
India C. Chief justice of India
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D. National security Advisor
58. Which one of the following statements about parliament of India is not correct?
A. The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of Government
B. The foremost function of the Parliament is to provide a Cabinet
C. The membership of the cabinet is restricted to the Lower House
D. The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the Popular Chamber
59. Which one of the following is a function of the Pro-Tem speaker of the Lok Sabha?
A. Conduct of the proceedings of the House in the absence of the speaker
B. To check if the election certificates of the members of the House are in order
C. Swear in the members of the House and hold the charge till a regular Speaker is elected
D. To endorse a bill as Money bill
60. The resolution for removing the vice-president of India can be moved in the
A. Lok Sabha alone B. Either House of Parliament C. Joint sitting of Parliament D. Rajya Sabha alone
61. The supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or act
A. On its own initiative B. Only if he seeks such advice C. Only if the matter relates to the
fundamental rights of citizens
D. Only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
62. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of the Parliament
A. He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a non-confidence motion
B. He will not be able to speak on the Budget in the lower House
C. He can make statements only in the Upper House
D. He has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister
63. The President can be impeached for
A. Violating the constitution B. Disregarding parliament C. For not taking the advice of council
of minister D. All of the above
64. The name of the union given in the constitution is
A. Hindustan or Bharatavarsha B. India or Hindustan C. India or Bharat D. Bharatadesh or India
65. The purpose of the inclusion of
Directive Principles of state policy in
the Indian Constitution is to establish
A. Political democracy
B. Social democracy
C. Gandhian democracy
D. Social and economic democracy
66. The constitution of India recognizes
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A. Only religious minorities
B. Only Linguistic minorities
C. Religious and linguistic
minorities
D. Religious, Linguistic and ethnic
minorities
67. Which of the following rights are
available to Indian citizens as well as
foreigners residing in Indian territory?
i. Cultural and educational rights
ii. Right to freedom of religion
iii. Right against discrimination by
the state on grounds of religion,
race, caste, sex or place of birth
iv. Right to personal Liberty
Select the correct answer from the code
given below:
A. i and ii only
B. iii and iv only
C. ii and iv only
D. i, ii, iii and iv
68. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that
A. He obtains permission from the Principal of his college
B. He is a member of a political party C. His name figures in the voters list D. He flies a declaration owing
allegiance of the constitution of India
69. Civil and political equality gives citizens
A. Right to vote and rights to be elected without any distinction of caste, religion, sex, property etc
B. Right to vote and right to be elected without any distinction of age, caste, creed or sex
C. Equal opportunity for taking part in elections
D. The right to occupy highest office in the state irrespective of qualifications
70. The preventive Detention Act has a restraining effect on
A. Right to Equality B. Right to Freedom C. Right to Religion D. Right to constitutional Remidies
71. The duties levied on alcoholic liquors, narcotic drugs and opium comes under
A. Central Excise Duty B. CENVAT C. State Excise Duty D. General Sales Tax
72. Protection means
A. Restriction imposed on import trade
B. Protection to home goods C. No free exchange of goods and
services between countries D. All of these
73. Agricultural income-tax is a source of revenue to
A. Central Government B. State Government C. Local administration D. Central and state Government
74. Which of the following is not the instrument of fiscal policy?
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A. Bank rate B. Government expenditure C. Taxes D. Licence fees
75. Consider the following statements about SDR(Special Drawing Right):
i. It is an international financing instrument
ii. It is created in 2000 iii. It is neither paper nor gold but an
accounting entry iv. IMF is associated with it
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. i and ii only B. i, ii and iii only C. i and iii only D. i, iii and iv only
76. With referece to steps taken to
achieve financial inclusion in India,
consider the following statements:
i. Nationalisation of banks
ii. Formation of RRBs
iii. Adoption of village by bank
branches
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i and iii
D. i, ii and iii
77. Consider the following statement:
i. Fourteenth Finance commission
was set up in 2011
ii. Fourteenth Finance commission
was set under chairmanship of
Yaga Venugopal Reddy
iii. To make recommendations on
the devolution of taxes, the
Fourteenth Finance commission
has been directed to use the
census figures of 1971
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i and iii
D. i, ii and iii
78. Commercialisation of agriculture
implies
A. Cultivation of timbers
B. Plantation
C. Production of crops for sale
D. Production of crops like wheat
and rice
79. Quota (in cross border trade) is
A. Tax on imports
B. Imports of capital goods
C. Limit on quantity of imports
D. Limit on quantity of exports
80. Open market operations of the RBI
mean
A. Buying and selling of shares
B. Auctioning of foreign exchange
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C. Trading in securities
D. Transacting in gold
81. Mixed economy means
A. Co-existence of small and large
industries
B. Promoting both agriculture and
industries in the economy
C. Co-existence of public and
private sectors
D. Co-existence of rich and poor
82. Consider the following statements
regarding new Corporate Social
Resposibility (CSR) rules:
i. Companies to spend 2% of their
3 years average annual net profit
on CSR activities
ii. Surplus from CSR activities can
become a part of the profit of the
company
iii. All CSR activities will have to be
within India
iv. The new rules will not be
applicable to the foreign
companies registered in India
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A. i and ii
B. i and iii
C. i, ii and iii
D. i, ii, iii and iv
83. Too much of import of gold by India
adversely affects:
i. Trade balance
ii. Current account balance
iii. Capital account balance
Choose the correct option from the
codes given below:
A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i, ii and iii
D. i and iii
84. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I (PLAN MODEL)
List II (PROPOSER)
I Bombay plan 1 Jai Prakash Narayan
II Gandhian Plan 2 M N Roy III Peoples’s Plan 3 Sriman Narayan IV Sarvodaya Plan 4 Birla and Tata
Groups
Choose the correct option
I II III IV
A 4 2 3 1
B 4 1 2 3
C 4 3 2 1
D 4 3 1 2
85. Which of the following can be used for checking inflation temporarily?
A. Increase in wages B. Decrease in money supply C. Decrease in taxes D. None of these
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86. Which of the following is not true about sea floor spreading?
A. There is constant creation of new oceanic crust at the oceanic ridges
B. There is eruption of magma at the oceanic ridges
C. Spreading of one ocean leads to shrinking of another ocean
D. Sediments on the ocean floor are thinner than expected
87. Which of the following landforms are not formed by glaciers
A. Cirques B. Glacial troughs C. Moraines D. Playas
88. Which of the following statements are true about red soil
A. Red soil is derived from igneous rocks in area of low rainfall
B. The colour of soil is red due to mangnesium oxides
C. They are rich in nitrogen and lime D. They are moisture retentive
89. The pattern of planetary winds depends on the following
i. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating
ii. Emergence of pressure belts iii. Migration of pressure belts iv. Land and sea distribution
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
A. i only B. i,ii and iv only C. i and iii only D. All the above
90. Which among the following a line or surface drawn on a map or chart indicates connected point of equal salinity in the ocean?
A. Isotherm B. Isohaline C. Isogyre D. Isodiaphere
91. Continental drift theory was put forward by
A. Arthur Holmes B. Alfred Wegner C. Abraham Ortelius D. Mc Kenzie and Parker
92. The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India, is known as
A. Ganga B. Indus C. Brahmaputra D. Mahanadi
93. Which of the following areas or regions is most prone to earthquakes?
A. Ganga-Brahmaputra valley B. Deccan plateau C. Plains of northern India D. Western Ghats
94. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
i. It is largely practiced in Assam ii. It is referred to as 'slash and
burn' technique iii. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a
few years
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
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A. Only i & ii B. Only ii & iii C. Only i & iii D. All the above
95. The significant shifts in Indian
agriculture during green revolution
include
a. Non-food grains reported some
spectacular progress and shift in
the cropping pattern
b. Major food grains, in the eastern
regions productions decreased
and in the northern states
increased
Choose the correct option from the
codes given below:
A. Only a
B. Only b
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
96. Which of the following types of soil
are mostly confined to river basins and
coastal plains of India?
A. Alluvial soils
B. Black soils
C. Laterite soils
D. Red soils
97. Consider the diagram below.
The diagram shows the position of
the Earth, the moon and the Sun
where
A. Only situation A explains the
spring tides
B. Only situation B explains the
spring tides
C. Both A and B explains the
spring tides
D. None of these explains the
spring tides
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98. Pre monsoon showers in karnataka
are
i. Also called as mango showers
ii. Due to sea breezes over the
Maidan
iii. Develop due to low pressure
during the summer months
iv. The rainfall generally exceeds
50cms
Choose the correct option from the
codes given below:
A. Only i
B. Only i and ii.
C. Only i, ii and iii
D. All the above
99. Which of the passes of Karnataka
given below and their locations are
matched properly?
i. Kollur Ghat: Udupi district
ii. Agumbe Ghat: between
chikmagalur and Mangalore
iii. Charmadi Ghat: between
Shimoga and Udupi
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
A. i only
B. i and ii only
C. i and iii only
D. i, ii and iii
100. Which is the most common type of
soil found in Karnataka?
A. Red Soil
B. Back Soil
C. Laterite Soil
D. Alluvial Soil
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1. AFSPA is currently applicable in which of the following states
i. Assam ii. Jammu and Kashmir
iii. Punjab iv. Arunachal Pradesh
Select the correct code:
A. Only i B. Only i and ii C. Only i, ii and iv D. All the above
2. Which of the following is true about Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
i. Flagship programme for universalizing elementary education
ii. Seeks to open new schools in those habitations which do not have schooling facilities
iii. Strengthen existing school infrastructure
iv. Has special focus on girl's education and children with special needs.
Select the correct code:
A. i only B. i,ii and iii only C. All the above D. None of the above
3. Under the revised Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar, which of the following categories has been included into the award criteria?
i. Identification and nurturing of budding/young talent.
ii. Employment of sportspersons and provide sports welfare measures.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. i only
B. ii only C. Both i and ii D. Neither i and ii
4. What are the salient features of Sukanya Samridhi Yojana
i. It is meant for girl child of 10 years
or above.
ii. It can be opened with nil-balance.
iii. Girl child receives free 1 lakh
accident insurance and 30,000 life
insurance tied up with her account.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only i and ii B. Only ii and iii C. Only i and iii D. None of them
5. Consider the following statement with respect to National Optical Fibre Network Project
i. It is Being implemented by Department of Telecommunications (DOT)
ii. It is aimed at connecting 22,50,000 Gram Panchayats in the country with a minimum 500Mbps bandwidth internet
iii. It is funded by Universal Service Obligation
Which of the following statement is true?
A. i and ii only B. i only C. i and iii only D. i, ii and iii
6. The recently launched programme called Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana is aimed at promoting
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A. Organic Farming B. Plantation in the North east states C. Oil seed cultivation D. Minor Irrigation
7. Identify the correct statement about the proposed Investigative Units on Crimes against Women (IUCAW)?
A. This scheme is externally funded
by the World Bank
B. Under this scheme, each state
capital / UT and all metro cities
will have dedicate police units for
crime against women
C. These units will be given
additional powers to search-seize
and arrest beyond the traditional
powers available to a police office
under CrPC.
D. These units will be on 50:50 cost
sharing basis between Union :
State
8. 121st Constitutional Amendment Bill,
2014 which got president assent on 31st
December deals with
A. Establishment of National Judicial
Appointments Commission (NJAC)
B. Goods and services Tax (GST)
C. Agreement to transfer land to
Bangladesh, on the basis of Indo-
Bangladesh Land transfer
agreement
D. Special status to Hyderabad
Karnataka region
9. Under Land ordinance 2014, who among the following can acquire private land for public purpose?
i. One person company ii. Public limited company
iii. private limited company iv. Educational trust. v. Religious charity organization
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only ii and iii B. Only i, ii and iii C. Only i, ii, iii and iv D. All of them
10. Who became the 4th Indian to enter the ICC cricket hall of fame recently?
A. Anil Kumble B. Sachin Tendulkar C. Kapil Dev D. Mahendra Singh Dhoni
11. Sec 66 A of IT Act which was recently annulled by the SC had jurisdiction over following
A. Information posted by making use of such computer resource or a communication device, causing insult, injury, criminal intimidation, enmity, hatred or ill will
B. Websites which could affect sovereignty and integrity of the country, defence, security, friendly relations with foreign states
C. Information posted online with the criminal intent in striking terror in the minds of people
D. Information posted online with the purpose of religious incitement
12. Declining oil prices will lead to increase in GDP growth by
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i. Adding to spending power of the households
ii. Increase profit margins of the corporates
iii. Increasing foreign inflows
Select from the codes below
A. Only 1 B. Only 1 and 2 C. Only 2 and 3 D. All the above
13. Which of the following natural resources garnered a whopping amount of revenue for the nation upon auctioning?
A. Coal mines B. Telecom spectrum C. Land D. Petroleum reserves
14. Disaster management is under which list in 7th schedule
A. Central list B. State list C. Concurrent list D. None of the above
Question 15 and 16 contain two statements I and II. Answer these using the following codes to identify the “True statements:
Code:
A. Both the statements are true B. Only statement I is true C. Only statement II is true D. Both statement are false
15.
I. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen
Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is a
Ministry of Rural Development
initiative for developing skills in
Rural Area
II. Swavalamban Yojana is a scheme
for Physical Rehabilitation of
disabled, which includes early
detection and intervention,
counselling & medical
interventions and provision of
aids & appliances
16
I. India has the second largest
foreign exchange reserve holder
as on 6th February, 2015
II. China has the largest foreign
exchange reserve in the world.
17. Mobile commerce service M-Pesa is an initiative of whom among the following
i. Vodafone India ii. ICICI Bank
iii. Airtel iv. HDFC
Which among the following codes are correct?
A. i and ii only B. ii and iii only C. iii and iv only D. i, ii and iv only
18. Which variable has been excluded by
the Fourteenth Finance commission in
the Horizontal Devolution Formula?
A. Fiscal discipline
B. Forest Cover
C. Area
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D. Education
19. Which of the following statement
about Goods and Services Tax (GST) is
correct?
i. Imports would be zero rated
ii. An integrated GST would be levied
on interstate supply
iii. It will be a Origin-based tax as
against the present destination-
based tax
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
A. i and ii only
B. i and iii only
C. ii only
D. i, ii and iii
20. The main objective of GAAR is to
A. Prevent tax avoidance
B. To recover the black money
stashed abroad
C. To prevent tax evasion
D. To strengthen bond market
21. Which of the statements given below
about Falling Global Crude Prices is/are
correct?
i. Due to weakening of demand for
crude oil in the economies of Asia,
especially china and Europe
ii. Exploration of shale gas by
countries like US and Canada has
led to lower demand for oil
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. i only
B. ii only
C. Both i and ii
D. Neither i nor ii
22. What are the functions of Food
Corporation of India (FCI)
i. public procurement of foodgrains
ii. storage of foodgrains
iii. distribution of foodgrains
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. Only i and ii
B. Only ii and iii
C. Only i and iii
D. All of them
23. Public debt management agency proposed in the recent budget will help in
i. Development of the bond market in the country
ii. Regulating government lending iii. Preventing leakages of public
funds iv. Bringing in fiscal discipline
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
A. i and ii only B. i, ii and iii only C. i, iii and iv only D. All of the above
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24. Priority sector includes lending to the following sectors
i. Agriculture ii. Micro, Small and medium
enterprises, iii. Education iv. Social infrastructure v. sanitation
vi. renewable energy
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
A. Only i and ii B. Only i, ii, iii and iv C. i, ii, iii, iv and v D. All the above
25. Which of the following is incorrect about the Forwards Market Commission?
A. It’s a statutory body B. It regulates the commodity market in
India C. It functions under the ministry of
finance D. It has powers to investigate and
prosecute cases of commodity market irregularities
26. Which of the following is not true about INS Kolkata (D63)
A. It is second largest destroyer to be operated by Indian Navy after INS Delhi
B. It was commissioned by Prime Minister on 16th August, 2014
C. It was Built at Maza Dock Limited, Mumbai
D. It fitted with advance stealth technology
27. The Aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov has been renamed and commissioned into Indian Navy as
A. INS VIRAAT B. INS VIKRANT C. INS VISHAL D. INS VIKRAMADITYA
28. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A. Akash- Surface to Surface Missile
B. Nag-Surface to Air Missile C. Brahmos-Cruise missile D. Sagarika-Submarine Launched
Ballistic Missile (SLBM)
29. Which country is set to become the
first country to legalize creation of
three-parent IVF designer babies using
Mitochondrial Donation Technique?
A. United Kingdom
B. Switzerland
C. United States of America
D. Brazil
30. Consider the following statement regarding Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB).
i. It is a multilateral development bank to provide finance to infrastructure projects in the Asia-Pacific region
ii. It has been promoted by the United States to counter the China influence in the region
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. i only
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B. ii only C. Both i and ii D. Neither i and ii
31. Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from
A. Egypt B. Lebanon C. Syria D. Tunisia
32.
REGION OFTEN IN NEWS
COUNTRY
i. Kiev Ukraine ii. Darfur Mali iii. Swat Valley Pakistan
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
A. iii only B. ii and iii only C. i and iii only D. i, ii and iii
33. Which of the following is not a party to Central Asian Nuclear-Weapon-Free-Zone (CANWFZ) treaty
A. Kazakhstan B. Kyrgyzstan C. Tajikistan D. Afghanistan
34. Houthi tribes are
A. Rebels in Yemen who caused the fall of the government in yemen
B. Particularly vulnerable tribe in Assam
C. Group of nomadic tribes in Karnataka famous for bee keeping
D. None of the above
35. ‘Maitri’ project for the co-development of a short Range Surface-to-air Missile is between India and
A. Israel B. Russia C. France D. Britain
36. Following the cancellation of more than 200 coal mines allocated by the government between 1993 and 2010, the government is preparing to auction or allocate ______ coal mines in the 1st round.
A. 110 B. 101 C. 121 D. 130
37. Cyclone Hudhud (name given by Oman) that hit the odisha and Andhra Pradesh Coast on October is named after a
A. Afro-Eurasian bird B. State dish of Oman C. The 2nd largest city of Oman D. River in Oman
38. Pekiti-Tirsia Kali is
A. A style of martial arts that has its origin in Philippines.
B. A Women self help group scheme of West Bengal
C. A form of Ancient medicine promoted under AYUSH mission
D. A new all women battalion of the BSF
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39. In which state a proposal to setup an IIT was taken in the recent union Budget?
A. Telangana B. Goa C. Karnataka D. Andrapradesh
40. What is Bitcoin?
A. It is a form of digital currency B. It is Indian domestic card scheme
conceived and launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
C. It is a new digital encrypted system to prevent forgery of currency
D. It is the first digital bank of India
41. Who of the following leader died on the day when Non-cooperation Movement was launched in 1920?
A. Pheroz shah Mehta B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale D. C.R. Das
42. Which Movement was launched along with the Khilafat Movement?
A. Swadeshi movement B. Home rule movement C. Civil Disobedience movement D. Non-cooperation Movement
43. M.K. Gandhi applied his "Satyagraha" first against?
A. The European Indigo Planters B. The mill owners of Ahmedabad C. The British Government D. The racist authorities of South
Africa
44. Gandhiji returned from South Africa on?
A. 1914 May 21 B. 1914 August 18 C. 1915 March 19 D. 1915 January 9
45. The first round table conference was held in
A. London B. Edinburgh C. Delhi D. Calcutta
46. Tripitakas are sacred books of
A. Buddhists B. Hindus C. Jains D. None of the above
47. Which Governor Generals of India is known as the father of Indian Civil Services
A. Lord Cornwallis B. Warren Hastings C. Lord Wellesley D. Lord William Bentinck
48. Who started Bhoodan Movement?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Jayaprakash Narayan
C. Swami Vivekananda
D. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
49. The National Song of India was
composed by
A. Rabindranath Tagore
B. Bankim Chandra Chatterji
C. Iqbal
D. Jai Shankar Prasad
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50. Subhas Chandra Bose organized the
Indian soldiers taken as prisoners by
an Axis power into the Azad Hind Fauj
by an agreement. The Axis power was
A. China
B. Germany
C. Italy
D. Japan
51. The Non-Cooperation Movement in
1920 was withdrawn
A. Because of Gandhiji’s ill-health
B. Due to extremist policy then
adopted by the National congress
C. On a fervent appeal from the
Government
D. Because of violence at Chauri-
Chaura
52. Krishnadevaraya was given the title
of
A. Gajabentekara
B. Bhashege tappuva rayara
ganda
C. Mooru rayara ganda
D. Yavana Rajya Sthapanacharya
53. The treaty of Srirangapatna was
signed between Tipu Sultan and
A. Robert Clive
B. Cornwallis
C. Dalhousie
D. Warren Hastings
54. Which of the following are the cause
that led to the movement for Unification in
Karnataka?
i. Renaissance in Karnataka
ii. Pro unification policies of Nizam of
Hyderabad
iii. Belgaum Congress in 1924
iv. Karnataka State Political
Conference, Dharwad in 1920
Select the correct code
A. i ii and iv only
B. i iii and iv only
C. i and iii only
D. i ii and iv ony
55. Mysore congress held its first
conference at
A. Sivapur
B. Ankola
C. Sirsi
D. Siddapur
56. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a
joint sitting of the both the houses of
Indian parliament, it has to be passed by a
A. Simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting
B. Two-third majority of the total number of members of both the houses
C. Simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses
D. Two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting
57. Which one of the following has the right to address the Parliament?
A. Attorney General of India B. Chief election commissioner of
India C. Chief justice of India
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D. National security Advisor
58. Which one of the following statements about parliament of India is not correct?
A. The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of Government
B. The foremost function of the Parliament is to provide a Cabinet
C. The membership of the cabinet is restricted to the Lower House
D. The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the Popular Chamber
59. Which one of the following is a function of the Pro-Tem speaker of the Lok Sabha?
A. Conduct of the proceedings of the House in the absence of the speaker
B. To check if the election certificates of the members of the House are in order
C. Swear in the members of the House and hold the charge till a regular Speaker is elected
D. To endorse a bill as Money bill
60. The resolution for removing the vice-president of India can be moved in the
A. Lok Sabha alone B. Either House of Parliament C. Joint sitting of Parliament D. Rajya Sabha alone
61. The supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or act
A. On its own initiative B. Only if he seeks such advice C. Only if the matter relates to the
fundamental rights of citizens
D. Only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
62. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of the Parliament
A. He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a non-confidence motion
B. He will not be able to speak on the Budget in the lower House
C. He can make statements only in the Upper House
D. He has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister
63. The President can be impeached for
A. Violating the constitution B. Disregarding parliament C. For not taking the advice of council
of minister D. All of the above
64. The name of the union given in the constitution is
A. Hindustan or Bharatavarsha B. India or Hindustan C. India or Bharat D. Bharatadesh or India
65. The purpose of the inclusion of
Directive Principles of state policy in
the Indian Constitution is to establish
A. Political democracy
B. Social democracy
C. Gandhian democracy
D. Social and economic democracy
66. The constitution of India recognizes
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A. Only religious minorities
B. Only Linguistic minorities
C. Religious and linguistic
minorities
D. Religious, Linguistic and ethnic
minorities
67. Which of the following rights are
available to Indian citizens as well as
foreigners residing in Indian territory?
i. Cultural and educational rights
ii. Right to freedom of religion
iii. Right against discrimination by
the state on grounds of religion,
race, caste, sex or place of birth
iv. Right to personal Liberty
Select the correct answer from the code
given below:
A. i and ii only
B. iii and iv only
C. ii and iv only
D. i, ii, iii and iv
68. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that
A. He obtains permission from the Principal of his college
B. He is a member of a political party C. His name figures in the voters list D. He flies a declaration owing
allegiance of the constitution of India
69. Civil and political equality gives citizens
A. Right to vote and rights to be elected without any distinction of caste, religion, sex, property etc
B. Right to vote and right to be elected without any distinction of age, caste, creed or sex
C. Equal opportunity for taking part in elections
D. The right to occupy highest office in the state irrespective of qualifications
70. The preventive Detention Act has a restraining effect on
A. Right to Equality B. Right to Freedom C. Right to Religion D. Right to constitutional Remidies
71. The duties levied on alcoholic liquors, narcotic drugs and opium comes under
A. Central Excise Duty B. CENVAT C. State Excise Duty D. General Sales Tax
72. Protection means
A. Restriction imposed on import trade
B. Protection to home goods C. No free exchange of goods and
services between countries D. All of these
73. Agricultural income-tax is a source of revenue to
A. Central Government B. State Government C. Local administration D. Central and state Government
74. Which of the following is not the instrument of fiscal policy?
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A. Bank rate B. Government expenditure C. Taxes D. Licence fees
75. Consider the following statements about SDR(Special Drawing Right):
i. It is an international financing instrument
ii. It is created in 2000 iii. It is neither paper nor gold but an
accounting entry iv. IMF is associated with it
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. i and ii only B. i, ii and iii only C. i and iii only D. i, iii and iv only
76. With referece to steps taken to
achieve financial inclusion in India,
consider the following statements:
i. Nationalisation of banks
ii. Formation of RRBs
iii. Adoption of village by bank
branches
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i and iii
D. i, ii and iii
77. Consider the following statement:
i. Fourteenth Finance commission
was set up in 2011
ii. Fourteenth Finance commission
was set under chairmanship of
Yaga Venugopal Reddy
iii. To make recommendations on
the devolution of taxes, the
Fourteenth Finance commission
has been directed to use the
census figures of 1971
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i and iii
D. i, ii and iii
78. Commercialisation of agriculture
implies
A. Cultivation of timbers
B. Plantation
C. Production of crops for sale
D. Production of crops like wheat
and rice
79. Quota (in cross border trade) is
A. Tax on imports
B. Imports of capital goods
C. Limit on quantity of imports
D. Limit on quantity of exports
80. Open market operations of the RBI
mean
A. Buying and selling of shares
B. Auctioning of foreign exchange
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C. Trading in securities
D. Transacting in gold
81. Mixed economy means
A. Co-existence of small and large
industries
B. Promoting both agriculture and
industries in the economy
C. Co-existence of public and
private sectors
D. Co-existence of rich and poor
82. Consider the following statements
regarding new Corporate Social
Resposibility (CSR) rules:
i. Companies to spend 2% of their
3 years average annual net profit
on CSR activities
ii. Surplus from CSR activities can
become a part of the profit of the
company
iii. All CSR activities will have to be
within India
iv. The new rules will not be
applicable to the foreign
companies registered in India
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A. i and ii
B. i and iii
C. i, ii and iii
D. i, ii, iii and iv
83. Too much of import of gold by India
adversely affects:
i. Trade balance
ii. Current account balance
iii. Capital account balance
Choose the correct option from the
codes given below:
A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i, ii and iii
D. i and iii
84. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I (PLAN MODEL)
List II (PROPOSER)
I Bombay plan 1 Jai Prakash Narayan
II Gandhian Plan 2 M N Roy III Peoples’s Plan 3 Sriman Narayan IV Sarvodaya Plan 4 Birla and Tata
Groups
Choose the correct option
I II III IV
A 4 2 3 1
B 4 1 2 3
C 4 3 2 1
D 4 3 1 2
85. Which of the following can be used for checking inflation temporarily?
A. Increase in wages B. Decrease in money supply C. Decrease in taxes D. None of these
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86. Which of the following is not true about sea floor spreading?
A. There is constant creation of new oceanic crust at the oceanic ridges
B. There is eruption of magma at the oceanic ridges
C. Spreading of one ocean leads to shrinking of another ocean
D. Sediments on the ocean floor are thinner than expected
87. Which of the following landforms are not formed by glaciers
A. Cirques B. Glacial troughs C. Moraines D. Playas
88. Which of the following statements are true about red soil
A. Red soil is derived from igneous rocks in area of low rainfall
B. The colour of soil is red due to mangnesium oxides
C. They are rich in nitrogen and lime D. They are moisture retentive
89. The pattern of planetary winds depends on the following
i. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating
ii. Emergence of pressure belts iii. Migration of pressure belts iv. Land and sea distribution
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
A. i only B. i,ii and iv only C. i and iii only D. All the above
90. Which among the following a line or surface drawn on a map or chart indicates connected point of equal salinity in the ocean?
A. Isotherm B. Isohaline C. Isogyre D. Isodiaphere
91. Continental drift theory was put forward by
A. Arthur Holmes B. Alfred Wegner C. Abraham Ortelius D. Mc Kenzie and Parker
92. The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India, is known as
A. Ganga B. Indus C. Brahmaputra D. Mahanadi
93. Which of the following areas or regions is most prone to earthquakes?
A. Ganga-Brahmaputra valley B. Deccan plateau C. Plains of northern India D. Western Ghats
94. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
i. It is largely practiced in Assam ii. It is referred to as 'slash and
burn' technique iii. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a
few years
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
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A. Only i & ii B. Only ii & iii C. Only i & iii D. All the above
95. The significant shifts in Indian
agriculture during green revolution
include
a. Non-food grains reported some
spectacular progress and shift in
the cropping pattern
b. Major food grains, in the eastern
regions productions decreased
and in the northern states
increased
Choose the correct option from the
codes given below:
A. Only a
B. Only b
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
96. Which of the following types of soil
are mostly confined to river basins and
coastal plains of India?
A. Alluvial soils
B. Black soils
C. Laterite soils
D. Red soils
97. Consider the diagram below.
The diagram shows the position of
the Earth, the moon and the Sun
where
A. Only situation A explains the
spring tides
B. Only situation B explains the
spring tides
C. Both A and B explains the
spring tides
D. None of these explains the
spring tides
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98. Pre monsoon showers in karnataka
are
i. Also called as mango showers
ii. Due to sea breezes over the
Maidan
iii. Develop due to low pressure
during the summer months
iv. The rainfall generally exceeds
50cms
Choose the correct option from the
codes given below:
A. Only i
B. Only i and ii.
C. Only i, ii and iii
D. All the above
99. Which of the passes of Karnataka
given below and their locations are
matched properly?
i. Kollur Ghat: Udupi district
ii. Agumbe Ghat: between
chikmagalur and Mangalore
iii. Charmadi Ghat: between
Shimoga and Udupi
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
A. i only
B. i and ii only
C. i and iii only
D. i, ii and iii
100. Which is the most common type of
soil found in Karnataka?
A. Red Soil
B. Back Soil
C. Laterite Soil
D. Alluvial Soil
1. Consider the following statements
regarding the Jyothi Sanjeevini Scheme
i. It a health scheme for Government
employees
ii. The scheme also covers the
dependent spouses, parents and
dependent children
iii. It is a cashless treatment against
seven life threatening
ailments/hazards
iv. Suvarna Arogya Surakasha Trust will
administer the programme
Select the correct statement using the code
given below:
A. i only
B. i, ii and iii only
C. i and iii only
D. i, ii, iii and iv
2. Which is not a service provided by
Karnataka MobileOne?
A. Bill payments
B. Redressal of issues like road potholes
or street lights
C. Online FIR from police
D. Information to Farmers about
monsoon, market rates and subsidies.
3. Government of India has recently
launched National Heritage City
Development and Augmentation Yojana
(HRIDAY) in 12 cities across India. Which
Historical place from Karnataka is included
under this scheme?
A. Badami
B. Hampi
C. Mysore
D. Srirangapatna
4. Who is the recipient of the 2014 Sahitya
Akademi Award for Kannada?
A. Gopal Krishna Pai
B. H.S Shivaprakash
C. C N Ramachandran
D. Govindray H Nayak
5. Ricky Kej won this years Grammy Award in
the Best new Age Album category for his
collaborated album called
A. Winds of Samsara
B. Winds of change
C. Winds of winter
D. Winds of rath
6. Abhaya is a scheme lauched by Mysore
City Police for the safety of
A. Women
B. Senior citizens
C. School children
D. Tourists
7. e-Sugam is an initiative by
A. Ministry of women and child
development
B. Department of Agriculture
C. Depatment of Commercial tax
D. Ministry of Home
8. What is the objective of Suryajyothi
scheme?
A. To provide Solar lighting to Poor
farmers belonging to SC and ST
B. To provide Solar water heaters at
subsidised rates
C. To provide Solar lamp to all
government school children
D. To provide solar powered pump sets
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9. Identify the incorrect statement with
respect to Gourava Yojane
A. Under the scheme financial
assistance is provided to rural families
to construct bathroom cum toilet
B. Beneficiaries have to belong to BPL
families
C. Construction will be under NREGA
D. Beneficiaries would be shortlisted by
MLA concerned
10. Namma Bhoomi is
A. An online delivery and management
of land record project
B. Software to identify illegal
construction under akrama sakrama
C. Scheme for landless
D. Name of the textbook that has been
introduced in the Primary school
11. Consider the following statement with respect to Ksheera Bhagya Yojane
i. It is Nutritional supplementary Programme
ii. The Nodal agency is the Department of Education
iii. 150 ml of milk is provided 3 times a week to school children at Government schools only
Select the correct statement using the code given below:
A. i only
B. i, ii and iii only
C. i and ii only
D. i, and iii only
12. Consider the following statement with
respect to Vidyasiri scheme
i. It is a scheme to provide free hostel
facility to students
ii. The scheme was originally for
students belonging to OBC, has been
extended to SC/ST postgraduate
student in the 2014-15 budget.
Select the correct statement using the code
given below:
A. i only
B. ii only
C. Both i and i
D. Neither i nor ii
13. Who among the following will be the
beneficiary of Mukhyamantrigala Santhwana
Yojane?
A. Rape Victim
B. Victims of Bonded labour
C. Industrial workers who sustain
injuries during work
D. Victims of Road accident
14. Who won the best Actor award in the
62nd National film awards for his
performance in Nannau Avanalla Avalu?
A. Sanchari Vijay
B. Marasu Manjunath
C. Charuhasan
D. Bobby Simha
15. Manaswini is a scheme for
A. Unmarried or divorced women of age
40-65 age
B. Women above the age of 65
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C. Unmarried women belonging to
Minority communities
D. Working mothers
16. The beneficiary of Ashakiran includes:
A. Sports persons from the state
B. Physically challenged person
C. Children suffering from mental
disorder
D. Old aged person without home
17. Consider the following statement with
respect to Jaladhara.
i. It aims at providing drinking water
facility through tap connection
ii. It will cover all household in rural
area
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
18. Consider the following statement
regarding Kannada Sahitya Parishat
i. Its head quarter is located at
Bangalore
ii. It is under the ministry of Higher
education
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
19. Who presided over the 81st Kannada
Sahitya Sammelana?
A. Na D'Souza
B. KO.Chanabassapa
C. Siddalingaiah
D. Devanooru Mahadeva
20. What was the demand of Gokak
agitation?
A. Demand for special status to
Hyderabad-Karnataka
B. Demand to give Kannada language
first-language status in Karnataka
C. Against the verdict of Kaveri water
tribunal
D. Against Marati influence in Belgaum
21. The proposed reservoir at Mekedatu is
proposed to be built across
A. River Cauvery
B. River Nethravathi
C. River Bhima
D. River Godavari
22. Power supply in Karnataka is
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i. Free of cost for the agricultural
purposes
ii. Is provided at a subsidised cost for
agricultural purpose
iii. Provided at subsidised cost only in
rural areas
Which of the above statements are true?
Select from the codes below
A. Only 1
B. Only 1 and 2
C. Only 1 and 3
D. None of the above
23. Karnataka Legislators’ Local Area
Development Scheme involves
i. Investment in development
programmes based on a sectoral
planning process
ii. A participatory demand responsive
development approach to address
infrastructure development
requirements of the local area within
a Legislator's Constituency
Which of the above is true? Choose the
correct codes from below
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither of the above
24. Karnataka Udyog Mitra
A. Is specially meant for the
promotion and facilitation of
investments in the State.
B. Is a specially designed placement
cell for migrant population
C. Is meant for skill development
programme under skill India
programme
D. Extension centre for young
entreprenuers belonging to SC and
ST
25. Which of the following is true
i. Bengaluru, is the 4th Best
Technology Hub in the world
ii. The share of Karnataka in IT
exports is nearly 38% of the
country's exports.
Select from the codes below
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither of the above
26. Which of the following is not true
about Karnataka I4 Policy ?
A. Land allotment for companies
linked to employment
generation
B. Sole focus on Bangalore rural
and urban areas
C. Start-up companies to be
provided internet at
concessional rates
D. Skill development programme
for training unemployed youth
in basic IT/BPO/ESDM/Telecom
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27. Which of these form part of
Karnataka’s exports
i. Electronics and computer
software
ii. Petroleum and petroleum
products
iii. Gems& jewellery
Select from codes below
A. Only 1
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 1 and 2
D. All the above
28. Which of the following schemes are
extended for the welfare of SC/STs
i. Ganga Kalyana Scheme
ii. Micro Credit Scheme
iii. Self-Employment Scheme
iv. Sandhya suraksha scheme
Select from codes below
A. Only 1
B. Only 1,2 and 3
C. Only 1,2 and 4
D. All the above
29. Which of the following is true about
Koushalya scheme?
i. Its extended for unemployed
women belonging to minority
communities
ii. Training in various computer
courses and plastic processing
technology
Select from the codes below
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither of the above
30. Match the programmes with its
objectives
Programmes Objective I Swavalambana 1 Financial
assistance for
Sports for
disabled II Prathibe 2 Financial
assistance for
Cultural
activities for
disabled III Sadhane 3 Insurance
scheme for
the disabled IV Niramaya 4 Margin Money
Loan Scheme
for minorities
Select the correct answer using the code
below
I II III IV
A 3 4 1 2
B 3 4 2 1
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C 4 2 1 3
D 4 3 1 2
31. Grameena Punarvasathi Yojane
A. Scheme of education, training and
rehabilitation of persons with
disabilities
B. Provision of housing for SC/STs in
rural areas
C. Provision of shelter for STs
subjected to land alienation
D. Rehabilitation of migrant labour
32. Heritage Based Urban Development is
A. Aimed at better preservation the
various heritage sites of the
historical past
B. Aimed at improving the quality of
life and socioeconomic
development opportunities in
heritage towns and cities
C. Conserving the natural heritage
like various green belts, reserved
forests etc in urban areas
D. Identifying newer places of
archaeological importance and
developing them into tourist
hotspots
33. Which of the following statements is
true?
i. Karnataka is yet to implement its
first Biogas Plant unit to tackle its
Solid Waste Management
problems.
ii. Municipal Corporations
(Amendment) Act, 2013 imposes
penalties on the violators of rules
for waste disposal
iii. Karnataka doesn’t have
anIntegrated policy on Solid
Waste Management
Select from the code below
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. None of the above
34. Which of the following is true about
Nanna Mane scheme?
i. Affordable Housing for
Belowpoverty line people
ii. Aimed at Auto drivers, Film
Industryworkers, Unorganized
sector workers,Beedi workers,
Hamals Street Vendors etc
iii. Centrally sponsored scheme
Select from codes below
A. Only 1
B. Only 1 and 2
C. Only 2
D. Only 2 and 3
35. Which of the following are true about
Comprehensive Horticulture Development
Scheme of Karnataka
i. It aims to divert farmers from
traditional agriculture crops to
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more income fetching
Horticultural crops.
ii. It also aims to decrease the post
harvest loss from 25% to 10% by
correcting the defects in post
harvest chain
iii. But fails to provide for a market
mechanism for sale of farmers’
horticultural produce
iv. There is no thrust on the newer
technological innovations in
farming
Select from codes below
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 1,2 and 3
D. All the above
36. Precision Farming in banana is a scheme
directed at
A. Schedule Caste/Schedule Tribe
farmers
B. Farmers in rainfed areas
C. Farmers in hilly areas
D. BPL farmers
37. CPCB has specified water quality criteria
depending on the designated best use and
activities in the river. Which of these classes
refer to drinking water
i. Class A
ii. Class B
iii. Class C
iv. Class D
v. Class E
Select from the codes below
A. Only 1
B. Only 1 and 2
C. Only 1 and 3
D. None of the above
38. Which of the following statements
are true about Mahatma Gandhi National
Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
i. Aimed at enhancing livelihood
security in rural areas
ii. By providing at least 100 days of
guaranteed wage employment
iii. Provides unskilled manual work to
adult members of every
household who volunteer to work.
iv. It also involves generation of
productive assets in rural areas
Select from the codes below
A. Only 1
B. Only 1 and 2
C. Only 1 and 3
D. All the above
39. Tamarind grove, Nallur; Hogrekhan,
Chikmaglur; GKVK,UAS Bangalore; and
Ambargudda, Shimoga are all example of
A. Conservation reserve
B. Botanical Garden
C. Heritage site
D. Biofuel Park
40. In Karnataka which type of irrigation
accounts for the highest proportion in
net irrigated area?
A. Tube wells/ bore wells
B. Canals
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C. Dug wells
D. Tanks
41. Horticulture is the science of
cultivation of:
1. Fruit.
2. Vegetables.
3. Flowers.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
A. 1 & 2 only.
B. 3 only.
C. 1, 2 & 3.
D. 1 & 3 only.
42. Consider the following statements with
regard to Thorium based nuclear power
plants:
Assertion: Thorium cannot be used directly
to produce nuclear energy.
Reason: Thorium does not contain any fissile
material.
A. Assertion & Reason both are
correct and Reason is the correct
explanation.
B. Assertion & Reason both are
correct but reason is not the
correct explanation.
C. Assertion is wrong, Reason is
correct.
D. Assertion is correct, reason is
wrong.
43. Which of the following statements is/are
correct with regard to the Solar cell
technologies:
1. Crystalline silicon solar cells have a
greater market share than thin film
solar cells.
2. Thin film solar cells are cheaper
than crystalline silicon solar cells.
3. Crystalline silicon cells are more
efficient than thin film solar cells.
4. Both the technology operates on
the same photovoltaic principle.
5. Crystalline silicon solar cells are
more environmental friendly to
dispose than thin film solar cells at
the end of their respective lives
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. All except 2 & 5.
B. All except 2 & 3.
C. All except 3.
D. All the above options are wrong.
44. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Dark Matter:
1. Dark matter does not interact with
any electromagnetic radiation.
2. Dark matter interacts with ordinary
matter through gravity only.
3. The force between dark matter and
ordinary matter is repulsive.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
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D. 1, 2 & 3
45. What is Kessler Syndrome ?
A. A disease where human talk while
sleeping.
B. A rare viral disease causing
respiratory problems.
C. A problem found in space launch
vehicles.
D. Proliferation of space debris in low
earth orbit.
46. Consider the following statements.
1. IRNSS is an Independent regional
navigation satellite system being
developed by India.
2. IRNSS will provide Standard
Positioning Service (SPS) only.
3. IRNSS satellites revolve round the
earth at the height of about 18,000
km from the earth’s surface.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
47. In year 2014, a drug named ZMapp was
approved by World Health
Organisation(WHO) to against
A. Ebola
B. Malaria
C. Tuberculosis
D. Dengue
48. Which of the following is not a feature of
Graphene?
A. Elastic
B. Lightweight
C. Weak
D. Flexible
49. Night blindness can be corrected by the
intake of ?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B Complex
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
50. The purpose of Genetically modifying
brinjal and cotton as Bt-Brinjal, Bt-Cotton
was to make them?
A. Drought resistant
B. High yielding
C. Pest resistant
D. Short-duration crops
51. The release of which one of the
following into Ponds and wells helps in
controlling mosquitoes ?
A. Crab
B. Gambusia Fish
C. Dogfish
D. Snail
52. What is a Firewall in Computer Network?
A. An operating System of Computer
Network
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B. The physical boundary of Network
C. A web browsing Software
D. A system designed to prevent
unauthorized access
53. What is the difference between a CFL
and an LED lamp?
1. To produce light, a CFL uses
mercury vapour and phosphor
while an LED lamp uses semi-
conductor material.
2. The average life span of a CFL is
much longer than that of an
LED lamp
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as
compared to an LED lamp.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 and 3
D. All the above
54. Which of the following is used in
pencils?
A. Graphite
B. Silicon
C. Charcoal
D. Phosphorous
55. Consuming unsaturated fats reduce the
occurrence of cardiovascular problems like
stroke, heart failure and heart attacks.
Which of the following are rich sources of
unsaturated fats
1. olive oil
2. leafy greens
3. fish
4. coconut oil
5. butter
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 3Only
B. 1,2 and 3 only
C. 1,2 ,3 and 4
D. All the above
56. Which of the following are biofuels
1. Biogas
2. Bioethanol
3. Syngas
4. Green diesel
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. All the above
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57. Which of the following statements are
true
1. Carbon di oxide is not a
greenhouse gas
2. Nitrogen dioxide and methane are
greenhouse gases produced from
agricultural fields
3. The greenhouse effect is due to
impermeability of long
wavelength radiations through the
atmosphere
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All the above
58. Which of the following are techniques of
preventing soil erosion?
1. Terrace cultivation
2. Contour ploughing
3. Jhuming
4. Strip cropping
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 3 and 4
59. Which of the following statements are
not true
1. Ultra violet rays strike on the
earth due to depletion of ozone
layer
2. Wet scrubbers method is used to
remove sulphur dioxide and
ammonia from the polluted aur
3. Compound of mercury cause
minamata disease
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. All of these
D. None of these
60. Which of the following are characteristics of persistent organic pollutants
1. Highly toxic to humans and the environment
2. Persistent in the environment, resisting bio-degradation
3. Taken up and bio-accumulated in terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems
4. Capable of long-range, transboundary atmospheric transport and deposition
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
D. All the above
61. Septic tank is:
A. An aerobic attached growth
treatment system
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B. An aerobic suspended growth
biological treatment system
C. An anaerobic attached growth
biological treatment system
D. An anaerobic suspended growth
treatment system
62. Biological oxygen demand of ______ is
the least.
A. sewage
B. sea water
C. pure water
D. polluted water
63. The three primary soil macronutrients
are
A. carbon, oxygen, and water.
B. copper, cadmium, and carbon.
C. potassium, phosphorus, and
nitrogen.
D. boron, zinc, and manganese.
64. Identify the correctly matched pairs
1. Basel convention-biodiversity
convention
2. Montreal protocol- ozone
conservation
3. Kyoto protocol-climate change
4. Ramsar convention-endangered
species conservation
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
65. A recent study taken up by a team of
researchers from the Zoological Survey of
India (ZSI), Chennai, brought to light the
serious threat of extinction the coral reef
colonies and mangrove forests in the Palk
Bay are facing. The probable reasons for this
decline are:
1. Global Warming.
2. Siltation.
3. Overgrowth of Algae.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 & 2 only.
B. 1 & 3 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3
66. Which of the following statements are
correct with regard to Red tide – a term
used to describe Harmful Algal Blooms
(HABs) in marine coastal areas.
1. These blooms are not associated
with tides.
2. HABs tint the seawater to a
reddish color.
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3. Not all algal blooms are harmful,
even those involving red
discoloration.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 & 3 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3
67. Which of the pairs are correctly matched
1. Olive Ridley sea turtle -
Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary.
2. Dolphins-Vikramshila Sanctuary
3. Indian Rhinos-Kaziranga National
Park
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. All of these
D. None of these
68. REDD refers to
A. Reducing Emissions from
Deforestation and Forest
Degradation
B. Reducing Deforestation and
Land Degardation
C. Reducing Environmental
Degeneration and Land
Degaradation
D. Reducing Ecological Destruction
by Deforestation
69. Global warming has the following
effects
1. Earth’s crust is moving upwards in
the Northern Antarctic Peninsula
2. Rising sea levels
3. Disrupted monsoons
4. Ozone hole formation
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
A. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 ,2 and 3
D. All the above
70. Consider the following statements
aboutThe Jawaharlal Nehru National
Solar Mission
1. It is apart of National Action Plan on
Climate Change
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2. The Mission hasset a target of
deploying 2000 MW of grid
connected solar power by 2022
3. The first phase up to 2013 focussed
on promoting off-grid systems to
serve populations without access to
electricity
4. Phase II focuses on modest capacity
addition in grid-based systems.
Which of the above statements are
correct? Choose from the codes given
below
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. All the above
Direction: (Q. No. 71 to 77) Read the three
passages given below and answer the
seven questions that follow based on the
information given in the passage.
Passages-1
Growth fuelled by energy intensive industry, urban crowding and deforestation has added to atmospheric concentrations of carbon, warming land and oean bringing extreme weather. Societal benefits of abating high levels of emissions far outweigh
the cost of doing so. Yet economists and policy makers have not drawn the implication of this calculus for the reform agenda, be it in trade energy or infrastructure. Sadly the costs of such neglect are large. Also, no country has enough motivation to confront global problems alone. Because only a part of the benefits of addressing those problems would accrue to countries taking action, while others have a free rid. The gains are also spread over time, beyond the horizon of politician’s interest. Such situations call for collective action even if they are not easy when many diverse countries are involved.
71. Which of the following is true in the
context of the passage?
A. Pollution from vehicles is the greatest
contributor to global warming
B. The rise of middle income countries
has doubled the level of green house
gases emissions
C. Urban crowding has resulted in
extreme weather conditions
D. None of the above
72. According to the passage, why are
politicians reluctant to formulate
environmental reforms?
1. The expenditure on implementing
environmental reform does not justify
the benefits
2. Economic stability is a more pressing
concern for countries today
3. The impact of these policies will only
be felt in the long run which does not
benefit them politically
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Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. Only 3
B. Only 1
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
73. Which of the following is a means to
reduce the environmental threat to growth?
A. Governments should conduct a cost
benefit analysis of various
environmental protection measures
and implement those which are cost
efficient
B. Participation of all countries in arriving
at consensus on measures necessary
to combat environment challenges to
growth
C. Scientists, not economists should
determine the risks of climate change
D. None of the above
Passage-2
Could Washington, Madison, and the other
framers of the Federal Constitution revisit
the earth in this year 1922, it is likely that
nothing would bewilder them more than the
recent Prohibition amendment. Railways,
steamships, the telephone, automobiles,
flying machines, submarines – all these
developments, unknown in their day, would
fill them with amazement and admiration.
They would marvel at the story of the rise
and downfall of the German Empire; at the
growth and resent greatness of the Republic
they themselves had founded. None of
these things, however, would seem to them
to involve any essential change in the beliefs
and purposes of men as they had known
them. The Prohibition Amendment, on the
contrary, would evidence to their minds the
breaking down of a principle of government
which they had deemed axiomatic, the
abandonment of a purpose which they had
supposed immutable.
74. It can be inferred that the paragraph is
intended as
A. An introduction to a discussion of a
constitutional amendment
B. A summary of social and political
change since the writing of the Federal
Constitution
C. An introduction to a history of the
Constitution
D. A clarification of the author’s view of a
controversy
75. The author apparently believes that the
“principle of government” mentioned in the
last sentence is
A. Not implicit in the original Constitution
B. To be taken as true for all time
C. Apparently violated by the Prohibition
Amendment
D. An essential change in the beliefs of
the American people
Passage-3
I have previously defined a sanctuary as a
place where man is passive and the rest of
Nature active. But this general definition is
too absolute for any special case. The mere
fact that man has to protect a sanctuary
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does away with his purely passive attitude.
Then, he can be beneficially active by
destroying pests and parasites, like bot-flies
or mosquitoes, and by finding antidotes for
diseases like the epidemic which periodically
kills off the rabbits and thus starves many of
the carnivora to death. But, except in cases
where experiment has proved his
intervention to be beneficial, the less he
upsets the balance of Nature the better,
even when he tries to be an earthly
Providence
76. The author implies that his first
definition of a sanctuary is
A. Totally wrong
B. Somewhat idealistic
C. Unhelpful
D. Indefensible
77. The author’s argument that destroying
bot-flies and mosquitoes would be a
beneficial action is most weakened by all of
the following except
A. Parasites have an important role to
play in the regulation of populations
B. The elimination of any species can
have unpredictable effects on the
balance of nature
C. The pests themselves are part of the
food chain
D. These insects have been introduced to
the area by human activities
Directions (Qs 78-80): Read the passage
given below. Study the graph that follows
and answer the three items given below
the figure.
During a party, a person was exposed to
contaminated water. A few days later, he
developed fever and loose motions. He
suffered for some days before going to a
doctor for treatment. On starting the
treatment, he soon became better and
recovered completely a few days later. The
following graph show shows different
phases of the person’s disease condition as
regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.
78. Which region/regions of the curve
corresponds to incubation phase of the
infection?
A. A only
B. B only
C. B and C only
D. No part of the curve indicates the
incubation Phase
79. which region of the curve indicates that
the person began showing the symptoms of
infection?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
80. Which region of the curve indicates that
the treatment yielded effective relief?
A. C
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B. D
C. E
D. The curve doesnot indicate the
treatment
81. Ayesha's father was 38 years of age
when she was born while her mother was 36
years old when her brother four years
younger to her was born. What is the
difference between the ages of her parents?
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years
82. If the average marks of three batches of
55, 60 and 45 students respectively is 50, 55,
60, then the average marks of all the
students is:
A. 53.33
B. 54.68
C. 55
D. none of these
83. Find the ratio in which rice at Rs. 7.20 a
kg be mixed with rice at Rs. 5.70 a kg to
produce a mixture worth Rs. 6.30 a kg.
A. 1:3
B. 2:3
C. 3:4
D. 4:5
84. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of
10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km
more. The actual distance travelled by him
is:
A. 50km
B. 56km
C. 70km
D. 80km
85. A sum of money at simple interest
amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854
in 4 years. The sum is:
A. Rs 650
B. Rs 690
C. Rs 698
D. Rs 700
86. The percentage increase in the area of a
rectangle, if each of its sides is increased by
20% is:
A. 40
B. 42
C. 44
D. 46
87. In a swimming pool measuring 90m by
40m, 150 men take a dip. If the average
displacement of water by man is 8 cubic
metres, what will be the rise in water level?
A. 33.33cm
B. 30cm
C. 20cm
D. 25cm
88. The population of a town increased from
1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in a decade. The
average percent increase of population per
year is:
A. 4.37%
B. 5%
C. 6%
D. 8.75%
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89. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells
40% apples and still has 420 apples.
Originally, he had:
A. 588 apples
B. 600 apples
C. 672 apples
D. 700 apples
90. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations
of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and
ten-rupee notes. The number of notes of
each denomination is equal. What is the
total number of notes that he has ?
A. 45
B. 60
C. 75
D. 90
91. A man has some hens and cows. If the
number of heads be 48 and the number of
feet equals 140, then the number of hens
will be:
A. 26
B. 24
C. 23
D. 22
92. When the following figure is folded to
form a cube, how many dots lie opposite the
face bearing five dots?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
93. Find the number of triangles in the given
figure.
A. 16
B. 18
C. 19
D. 21
Direction for Q.No 94-96: Study the
following figure and answer the questions
given below.
94. How many doctors are neither artists nor
players ?
A. 17
B. 5
C. 10
D. 30
95. How many doctors are both players and
artists?
A. 22
B. 8
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20
C. 3
D. 30
96. How many artists are players ?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 25
D. 16
Directions for the following four (4) items:
Given below are four items. Each item
describes a situation and is followed by
four possible responses. Indicate the
response you find most appropriate.
Choose only one response for each item.
The responses will be evaluated based on
the level of appropriateness for the given
situation.
[note: KPSC notification mentions that the
negative marking for the following questions
shall be inbuilt in the form of different marks
being awarded to the most appropriate and
not so appropriate answer for such
questions]
97. You are an employee in one of the
public enterprises. You have to make a
presentation in front of your customers
with one of your co-workers. Just before
stating the presentation, you found your
partner missing. You would
A. Take the suitable substitute partner
B. Not take part in the presentation
C. Deliver the whole presentation
alone
D. Get tense and frustrated
98. You are a manager of a construction
company. There have been regular
complaints about an employee by many
customers in written. You will
A. Punish the concerned employee
instantly
B. Sack the employee from the job as
it is affecting the working conditions
of the company
C. Call the concerned employee and
discuss the matter
D. Try to enquire about the concerned
employee from his co-workers and
till then give some assurance to the
customers
99. You are returning home and you find
a sealed envelope on the street. Its fully
addressed with unused stamps on it. You
would
A. Leave it there as it was and walk
away
B. Remove the stamps and destroy the
envelope
C. Open the envelope, find out who
has dropped by mistake and send it
to him if possible
D. Post it at the nearest post office
100. You are the head of a village
panchayat. In a national level meeting on
the success of a government project, you
have to make a presentation giving all
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the feedbacks. You have collected all the
data and some of the data that you have
gathered for the presentation opposes
the success of the project, some of the
important ministers are attending the
conference. What should you do?
A. Make the presentation giving all the
feedbacks and data despite the risk
of losing hold
B. Make the presentation on the basis
of only favouring data
C. Exaggerate the favourite data,
without much highlighting the
opposing data
D. Modify the opposing data to make
it upto the mark