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1. Among the following revolt which is

not from Bengal and Eastern India?

A. Kol Rising

B. Chuar and Ho Risings

C. The Ahom’s Revolt

D. Koli Risings

2. With which objective, CR Das and

Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj

Party within the Congress?

A. Spearhead the mass struggles

B. Forge Hindu-Muslim unity

C. Participate in elections to the

provincial council

D. Organise legislative protests

against Rowlatt

3. Consider the following statements:

1. The Non-cooperation Movement

sought to bring the working of the

Government to a standstill by not

cooperating with the

administration.

2. The Civil disobedience

movement’s aim was to paralyse

the administration by performance

of specific illegal acts.

3. The Non-cooperative movement

was started by Gandhij through

Dandi March.

Choose the correct options:

A. Only 1 and 2

B. Only 2

C. Only 1

D. All of the above

4. Consider the statements:

1. Gandhi Irwin Pact was effected

on 5 March 1931

2. The pact declared that Dominion

status was the goal of India’s

constitutional development.

3. Gandhijee attended the Second

Round Table Conference, and the

conference was successful.

Choose the correct statement:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. 1 and 2

D. All


1. Demand for Purna Swaraj was

made in 1929 in Karachi Session.

2. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru presided

over the Congress Session in1929

3. Tricolour Flag of Indian

Independence was unfurled by the

Congress President Pt. Jawahar Lal

Nehru in Karachi Session.

Choose the correct statements

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. 1,2 and 3

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6. Consider the statements regarding

INA (Indian National Army):

1. INA was organised by Capt.

Mohan Singh.

2. Subhash Chandra Bose re-

organised INA as Azad Hind Fauj.

3. The captured INA soldiers were

tried by the British Govt. of India.

4. Jawahar Lal Nehru was the

Defence Counsel for the INA heroes.

Choose the correct statements:

A. 1 and 3

B. 2 and 3

C. 1,2 and 3

D. All the above

7. Match List I with List II.

List I

(Association)

List II

(Founder/Member

)

I East India

Associatio

n

1 Justice Ranade

II Poona

Sarvajanik

Sabha

2 Dada Bhai

Naoroji

II

I

Madras

Mahajan

Sabha

3 M. Veer

Raghvachari

IV Bombay

Presidency

4 Firozshah

Mehta

I II III IV

A 1 2 3 4

B 2 1 4 3

C 4 2 1 3

D 3 4 1 2

8. Identify the incorrect statements

about B.M.Malabari

a. A parsi social reformer who

advocated for widow remarriage

b. His relentless efforts led to the

enactment of The Age Consent

Act in 1891 which forbade the

marriage for girls below age of 12

c. He founded Seva Sadan in 1885

which specialized in taking care

of exploited women

d. He himself married a widow and

proved to be an inspiration to his

followers.

9. The slogan “One religion, one caste,

one god for mankind” was coined by

A. E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker

B. Sri Narayan Guru

C. Sahadaran Ayyappan

D. Swami Dayanand Saraswati

10. Which was the first newspaper

published by Gandhi?

A. Harijan

B. Young India

C. Indian Opinion

D. Navjivan

11. Dr B R Ambedkar clashed with

Mahatma Gandhi at the 2nd Round

Table Conference demanding

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A. Reservation for Dalits in

Government jobs

B. Reservation for Dalits in Ministries

C. Separate citizen status for Dalits

D. Separate Electorate for Dalits

12. Which of the following were the

salient features of the government of

India Act, 1935?

I. Provided for bicameral

federation legislature

II. Provided provincial autonomy

III. Provided for a federal court

IV. Diarchy in Sind and Orissa was

maintained

Select the correct answer using the

code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2,3 and 4

13. The doctrine of ‘suleh kul’ among

the Sufis represents

A. Internal purification

B. Universal brotherhood

C. Salvation

D. Bond of love between God and

individual soul

14. Who among the following was

known as ‘Prachanna Buddha’?

A. King Ashoka

B. Shankaracharya

C. Ramanujachraya

D. Siddhartha Gautama

15. Ajithantha purana was composed by

A. Ranna

B. Ponna

C. Pampa

D. Bhoja

16. Choose the correct statements about

Hyder Ali

I. He was the commander in chief

in the army of Dalawyi Nanjayya

II. He lost the first Anglo Mysore

war against the British in 1767

III. He was killed in the second Anglo

Mysore war in 1782

IV. He built Dariya daulat and

lalbagh gardens at Srirangapatna

A. Only 1 is correct

B. 1 and 2 are correct

C. 1,3 and 4 are correct

D. All are correct

17. Who was the founder of Arvidu

dynasty

A. Achyuta Raya

B. Sadasiva Raya

C. Krishnadeva Raya

D. Tirumala Raya

18. Who rose in revolt against the

British during the 1857-58 uprising

A. Raja Venkatappa Nayaka of

Surapur

B. Dhondiya Wagh

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C. Kittur Rani Chennamma

D. Krishshnappa Nayaka of Balam

19. The kodagu uprising was led by

A. Budibasappa in 1830-31

B. Swamy Aparamara in 1835-37

C. Sardar Gurusiddappa in 1833

D. Sangolli Rayanna in 1829

20. Which of the following are kannada

journals that spread nationalistic spirit

among the people of Karnataka

A. Vrittanta chintamani

B. Kesari

C. Suryakanta

D. Jaimini bharata

21. Who shifted the capital of Mysore

state to Bangalore?

A. Lewin Bowring

B. Mark Cubbon

C. John Briggs

D. Sir Richard Meade

22. ‘Mysore Chalo ‘ movement was

A. Demand for responsible

government

B. Demand for karnataka

unification

C. No tax campaign in Mysore state

D. Quit India movement in

Karnataka

23. Hyderabad State Congress was

started by

A. Swamy ramananda teerta

B. Sir Mirza Ismail

C. Nizam of Hyderabad

D. janardan Rao Desai

24. The integral principles of India”s

foreign policy “Non Alignment and Five

principles for peaceful existence” was

propogated by

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Lal Bahadur Shastri

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. IndiraGandhi

25. Justice Miller Committee was

formed in 1918 for

A. To look into the grievances of

ivory canal peasants

B. To recommend for the upliftment

of Backward classes in Mysore

C. To look into the causes of

Ganapathi disturbances

D. To set up a strong institution

against the congress dominance

in Mysore

26. Identify the correct statements

about Praja Mitra Mandali in Mysore

state

I. It was inspired by The Justice

Party of Madras

II. It opposed the demand for

responsible government in

Mysore

III. It demanded expansion of

educational facilities of backward

classes by opening hostels and

extending scholarships

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IV. It was successful in becoming a

strong force against the Congress

dominance in Mysore

A. Only 1 and 2

B. Only 1, 2 and 3

C. All the above

D. None of the above

27. Nagar Insurrection that led to the

annexation of Mysore by the East India

company during 1831 was during the

period of

A. Krishnaraja wodeyar II

B. Krishnaraja Wodeyar III

C. Chamaraja VIII

D. Chamarajendra

Question 28 and 29 contain two

statements I and II. Answer these using

the following codes to identify the “True

statements:

Code:

A. Both the statements are true

B. Only statement I is true

C. Only statement II is true

D. Both statement are false

28. I. Representative assembly was

convoked in 1881 when Sheshadri Iyer

was the dewan of Mysore

II. Rangacharlu was the first Diwan

of Mysore

29. I. Mysore Rule during the period of

Krishnaraja odeyar is called the Golden

age of Mysore

II. Krishnaraja odeyar III was called

the Morning star of Renaissance in

Karnataka


I. The Dakshinadi school is the

Karnataka school of music

II. The Taphe dance form in

temples which was banned gave

a blow to traditional dance in

Mysore

III. The rule of Krishnaraja Odeyar

IV encouraged the development

of independent Mysore School of

Painting

IV. The Gudigars of north west

Karnataka are famous sculptors

known for their intricate work

on ivory or wood

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 4 only

31. Gandhara School of Art developed in

the reign of

A. Chandra Gupta Maurya

B. Ashoka

C. Chandra Gupta

D. Kanishka

32. In which of the following places rock

cut architecture is not found

A. Aihole

B. Badami

C. Ajanta

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D. Pattadkal

33. Which of the following is called the

‘tajmahal of Deccan’

A. Gol gumbaz

B. Jami masjid

C. Ibrahim rouza

D. Rangin mahal

34. With respect to the Mysore

legislative council, which of the

following statement is true?

I. It was established when V.P

Madhavarao was the Dewan of Mysore

II. At that time of its formation the

Council consisted of not less than 10

and not more than 15 additional

members to be nominated by the

Government, out of which not less than

two-fifths were required to be non-

officials.

Select the correct answer using the code

given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

35. Which of the following significant

events occurred during Belgaum

session of Congress in 1924

I. The state anthem of Karnataka

was sung for the first time

II. State Karnataka Unification

Conference was also held

III. Praja Samyukta Paksha was

merged with Congess

IV. Gandhiji presided the Congress

session

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 4 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. All the above

36. Consider the following statements

about Constituent Assembly of India:

I. It was set up as a result of

negotiations between the Indian

Leaders and Cripps Mission

II. Its members were directly

elected

III. It worked as India’s parliament

till the first election were carried

out

Which among the above statements is/

are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2 & 3

C. Only 3

D. None of them

37. The Directive Principles of State

policy, though attractive, are not

enforceable by law. But there is one

among the given options, which has

been so far made enforceable by a

Supreme Court fiat. Identify that DPSP

from the given options:

A. Uniform Civil Code

B. Free Education till the children

complete age of 6 years (provision

after 86th amendment act)

C. Equal pay for equal work

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D. Prohibition of intoxicating drinks

and of drugs which are injurious to

health

38. Which is the smallest parliament

constituency in India?

A. Sikkim

B. Goa

C. Anandaman & Nicobar

D. Lakshadweep


in context with Legislative procedures

at Center:

1. A Money bill can be referred to a

Joint Committee of the Houses

2. A motion for introduction of a

Finance Bill or an Appropriation

Bill in either house of Parliament

Which among the above statements is/

are correct?


B. Only 2 is correct

C. Both 1 & 2 are correct

D. Both 1 & 2 are incorrect

40. The salary and allowances of Chief

Justice of India and Other judges can be

reduced only if approval comes from:

A. President

B. Parliament

C. Supreme Court

D. None of them

41. Part IV of the Constitution of India

deals with

A. Civil rights

B. Political Rights

C. Economic Social and Cultural

rights

D. All of the above

42. Consider the following:

1. Chief Justice of India

2. Other Judges of Supreme Court

President may consult the Judges of

the Supreme Courts for

appointment of which among the

above?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 & 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

43. The C & AG of India does not audit

the receipts and expenditure of—

A. Municipal undertakings

B. State Governments

C. Government companies

D. Central Government

44. A member of a State Public Service

Commission can be appointed and

removed respectively by __:

A. Governor, Governor

B. Governor, President

C. President, Governor

D. President, President

45. With reference to the executive

power in a state in India, which among

the following statements is / are

correct?

1. Executive power of the state is

vested in Governor

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2. Real executive authority in a

state is Council of Ministers

3. All executive decisions in a state

are taken in the name of Chief

Minister

Choose the correct option from the

codes given below:

A. Only 1 & 2

B. Only 2 & 3

C. Only 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

46. With reference to the State

Legislative Council in India, which

among the following statements is / are

correct?

I. The Legislative Council is a

continuing House & two-third of

the members retire in two years.

II. Members of local bodies elect

one-third of the total number of

members of the legislative

council

III. If a state legislative council is to

be created or abolished , a

resolution to that effect is to be

first passed by the State

legislature by a two-third

majority


codes given below:

A. Only 1 & 2

B. Only 2 & 3

C. Only 1 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

47. How long a person should have

practiced in a High Court to be eligible

to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme

Court of India?

A. 10 Years

B. 15 Years

C. 12 Years

D. 5 Years

48. Who among the following is known

as ‘the father of local self government’

in India ?

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Lord Canning

C. Lord Ripon

D. Lord Wellesley

49. The power to vote money for public

expenditure rests in India with ___:

1. Lok Sabha

2. Rajya Sabha

3. Legislative Assembly

4. Legislative Council


codes given below:

A. Only 1 & 2

B. Only 1 & 3

C. Only 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2, 3 & 4

50. With respect to the President of

India, which among the following

statements is / are correct?

1. A person who has been president of

India is eligible for immediate re-

election

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2. A person can not hold the office of

president of India for more than two

consecutive terms


codes given below:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 & 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

51. The Sarkaria Commission was set

up to review the relation between

A. Prime Minister and the President

B. Executive and Judiciary

C. Legislative and Executive

D. Centre and the State

52. One of the following members was

not included in the drafting Committee

of the Indian Constitution

A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

B. Jawaharlal Nehru

C. Shri N Madhava Rao

D. Shri KM Munshi

53. The question asked orally after the

question hour in the House is called

A. Supplementary question

B. Short notice question

C. Starred question

D. Unstarred question

54. Under the term ‘Double Jeopardy’

implied in Clause 2 of Article 20 of the

Constitution of India, a person

A. convicted by a court of law

cannot be punished under

departmental proceedings for the

same offence

B. punished departmentally cannot

be prosecuted in a court of law

for the same offence

C. shall not be prosecuted and

punished for the same offence

more than once

D. cannot be subjected to

proceedings in civil courts for

disobedience of an injunction

along with criminal proceedings

55. According to the Constitution, the

Lok Sabha must meet at least

A. thrice each year with no more

than two months between

sessions

B. twice each year with no more

than three months between

sessions

C. twice each year with no more

than four months between

sessions

D. twice each year with no more

than six months between

sessions

56. Provisions of the Indian

Constitution relating to the formation of

new States can be amended by

A. two-third majority of the

members present and voting in

each House of the Parliament

provided they also constitute the

majority of the total membership

in each House

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B. a Parliamentary resolution which

should be ratified by a majority

of State Legislatures

C. a simple majority in each House

of Parliament

D. a three-fourth majority in each

House of Parliament

57. The quorum requirement in the

Rajya Sabha is

A. 25

B. 50

C. 100

D. 126

58. A proclamation of failure of the

constitutional machinery (president

rule) in a State is valid in the first

instance for

A. One month

B. Three months

C. Four months

D. Six months

59. The Tenth Schedule of the

Constitution of India deals with the

A. languages of the Union

B. lists of legislative business

C. anti-defection law

D. special status of Jammu and

Kashmir

60. For removal of a Governor from

office, the President seeks advice from

______:

A. Council of Ministers

B. Supreme Court

C. Chief Minister of the concerned

state

D. None of them

61.With reference to the procedure of

the Mercy petitions in India, consider

the following statements:

i. A mercy petition can be filed only by

Indian Citizens

ii. There is no time limit for the

president to respond on the mercy

petition

iii. The mercy petition is subject to

Judicial Review

iv. In India, the only authority to decide

on mercy petitions is the President

Which among the above statements

is/are correct?

A. Only 1 & 2 are correct

B. Only 1, 2 & 3 are correct

C. Only 2 & 3 are correct

D. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct

62. In Lok Sabha of India, the “Leader of

the House” is nominated by ___:

A. President

B. Lok Sabha Speaker

C. Prime Minister

D. Deputy Speaker

63. In the Indian context, the term ‘De-

notified tribes’ refers to

A. Tribes which are aboriginals

B. Nomadic tribes

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C. Tribes practising shifting

cultivation

D. Tribes which were earlier

classified as criminal tribes

64. Which one of the following is not

explicitly stated in the Constitution of

India but followed as a convention?

A. The Finance Minister is to be a

member of the Lower House

B. The Prime Minister has to resign

if he loses majority in the Lower

House

C. All the parts of India are to be

represented in the Council of

Ministers

D. In- the event of both the

President and the Vice President

demitting office simultaneously

before the end of their tenure, the

Speaker of the Lower House of

Parliament will officiate as the

President

65. The Appellate jurisdiction of the

Supreme Court does not involve

A. civil cases

B. criminal cases

C. disputes arising out of pre-

Constitution treaties and

agreements

D. cases involving interpretation of

the Constitution

66. Who administers the Oath of Office

to the President?

A. The Chief Justice of India

B. The Speaker

C. The Prime Minister

D. The Vice-President

67. Which of the following is not in the

State List under the Constitution of

India?

A. Fisheries

B. Agriculture

C. Insurance

D. Betting and Gambling

68. The power to promulgate

ordinances during recess of Parliament

is vested with

A. The Council of Ministers

B. The Parliamentary Standing

Committee on Urgent Enactment

C. The President

D. The Prime Minister

69. Who is non-member who can

participate in the debate of Lok Sabha?

A. Vice President

B. Chief Justice of India

C. Attorney General of India


70. In which among the following

cases, the Supreme Court of India

propounded the theory of basic

structure of the Constitution?

A. Gopalan vs. State of Madras

B. Golak Nath

C. Keshvanand Bharati

D. Minerva Mills

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71. Of the various ways of financing

government’s investment expenditure,

the least inflationary is:

A. foreign aid

B. deficit financing

C. taxation

D. public borrowing

72. ‘Devaluation’ means:

A. converting rupee into gold

B. lowering of the value of one

currency in comparison of some

foreign currency

C. making rupee dealer in comparison

to some foreign currency

D. None of these

73. Monetary policy is regulated by:

A. money lenders

B. Central Bank

C. private entrepreneurs

D. Government policy

74. Which of the following comes under

non-plan expenditure?

I. Subsidies

II. Interest payments

III. Defence expenditure

IV. Maintenance expenditure for the

infrastructure created in the previous

plans

A. I,II

B. I, III

C. II, IV

D. I, II, III, IV

75. Which one of the following is the

basic objective of monetary policy?

A. To control deficit of the budget

B. To control deficit in the balance of

payment

C. To control cost and availability of

money

D. To control public expenditure

76. Consider the following actions by

the government

i. cutting the tax rates

ii. increasing the government

spending

iii. abolishing the subsidies

In context of economic recession,

which of the above actions can be

considered a part of fiscal stimulus

package?

A. i only

B. i and ii only

C. i and iii only

D. i, ii and iii

77. When the reserve bank of India

announces an increase in the Cash

Reserve Ratio, what does it mean?

A. The commercial banks will have

more money to lend

B. The reserve Band of India will have

less money to lend

C. The commercial banks will have less

money to lend

D. The Union government will have less

money to lend

78. In order to comply with TRIPS

Agreement, India enacted the

geographical indication of Goods Act,

1999. The difference between a Trade

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Mark and a Geographical Indication

is/are:

i. A trade Mark is an individual or a

company right whereas a

geographical Indication is a

community right

ii. A Trade mark can be licensed

whereas a GI cannot be licensed

iii. A TM is assigned to the agricultural

good/products and handicraft only.

A. i only

B. ii and iii only

C. i and ii only

D. i, ii and iii

79. The Government has been making

efforts for 100% Financial Inclusion in

recent times. What does Financial

Inclusion comprise?

i. Access to Credit

ii. Access to Financial Advice

iii. Access to Insurance

iv. Access to savings account

A. i only

B. iv only

C. i and iv only

D. all the above

80. Deficit financing means that the

government borrows money from the

A. RBI

B. Local bodies

C. Big businessmen

D. IMF

81. Governing council of the NITI Aayog

includes

i. Prime minister

ii. Finance minister

iii. Chief ministers of all states

Answer choices

A. Only 1 and 2

B. Only 2 and 3

C. Only 1 and 3

D. all of them

82. If five year planning was continued,

the period of 13th five year plan would

be

A. 2013-2018

B. 2015-2020

C. 2017-2022

D. None of above

83. The Goods and Services Tax (GST)

will subsume which among the

following central and state taxes?

i. Excise duty

ii. Sales tax

iii. Income tax

iv. Value added tax (VAT)

v. Luxury tax

Choose the correct option:

A. i, ii and iii

B. i, ii, iv and v

C. ii, iii, iv and v

D. i, ii, iii and iv

84. Which of the following is/are the

major objectives of MGNREGA?

i. Wage employment

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ii. Create durable community assets

iii. Empower Gram Panchayats

Choose the correct option:

A. i only

B. i and ii

C. i and iii

D. i, ii and iii

85. Which among the following states

has maximum number of Special

Economic Zones (SEZ) as on February

2015?

A. Karnataka

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Telangana

86. With respect to Anti-Dumping Duty

which of the following statement is

incorrect?

A. It is duty imposed by government

on imported products which

have prices less than their

normal values or domestic price.

B. Usually countries initiate anti-

dumping probes to check if

domestic industry has been hurt

because of a surge in below-cost

imports.

C. Anti-Dumping Duty is imposed

under the multilateral WTO

regime and vary from product to

product and from country to

country.

D. In India, anti-dumping duty is

recommended by the Union

Finance Ministry, while the Union

Ministry of Commerce imposes it.

87. Consider the following:

i. Market borrowing

ii. Treasury bills

iii. Special securities issued to RBI

Which of these is/are components(s) of

internal debt?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 only

D. 1,2 and 3

88. In India, the interest Rate on savings

accounts in all the nationalized

commercial banks is fixed by

A. Union Ministry of Finance

B. Union Finance Commission

C. Indian Banks’ Association

D. None of the above.

89. Which of the statements given

below is/are correct?

1. The Finance minister declared in

the Budget for 2015-16 that

General Anti-Avoidance (GAAR)

will be implemented with the

effect from 1 April 2015

2. The provisions of GAAR were

aimed at checking tax avoidance

by overseas investors


given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

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D. Neither 1 nor 2

90. Government of India recently

announced constitution of NITI Aayog

as a policy think-tank replacing

Planning Commission. NITI stands for

A. National Institution for

Transforming India

B. It is not an acronym, but only a

Sanskrit word for Policy

C. National Initiative for

Technological India

D. New Initiative for Transforming

India

91. Which of the following indices is

not considered while calculating

Human Development Index (HDI)?

A. Life expectancy

B. Education

C. Housing

D. Income

92. Yellow Revolution in India refers to

growth of

A. Militancy in the north-east

B. Oilseeds production

C. Advertising industry

D. Jaundice outbreak

93. Which of the following statement

is/are true about Pradhan Mantri Jan

Dhan Yojana?

I. Credit Guarantee fund will be

created in the first phase of the

Programme

II. Mera Khata – Bhagya Vidhaata is

the slogan of the mission

III. Micro Insurance will be provided

in the second phase of the

programme


given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

94. Which one among the following

sectors in India has the highest share

of employment?

A. Agriculture and allied activities

B. Manufacturing

C. Construction

D. Tertiary sector


items has maximum weight in

wholesale price index in India?

A. Primary article

B. Fuel and power

C. Manufactured product

D. Food item

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96. If we deduct grants for creation of

capital assets from revenue deficit, we

arrive at the concept of

A. primary deficit

B. net fiscal deficit

C. budgetary deficit

D. effective revenue deficit

97. Privatization includes

A. sale of public enterprises to

private sector

B. disinvestment of public

enterprise equity

C. participation of private sector in

management in public sector

enterprises

D. All of the above

98. What is/are the facility/facilities

the beneficiaries can get from the

services of Business Correspondent

(Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?

1. It enables the beneficiaries to

draw their subsidies and social

security benefits in their villages.

2. It enables the beneficiaries in the

rural areas to make deposits and

withdrawals.


given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

99. Who is the current director general

of World Trade organisation?

A. Roberto Azevêdo

B. Pascal Lamy

C. Jim Yong Kim

D. Christine Lagarde

100. The Union government has

recently given its approval for setting

up of the first ESDM (electronic system

design and manufacturing) in which

city?

A. Mumbai

B. Bangalore

C. Mysore

D. Kochi

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roberto_Azev%C3%AAdo

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pascal_Lamy

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jim_Yong_Kim

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christine_Lagarde

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©www.nammakpsc.com

Direction: (Q. No. 1 to 15) Read the five

passages given below and answer the

fifteen questions that follow based on

the information given in the passage.

Passage 1

Brain drain, which is the action of having

highly skilled and educated people leaving

their country to work abroad, has become

one of the developing countries concern.

What makes those educated people leave

their countries should be seriously

considered and a distinction between

push and pull factors must be made. The

push factors include low wages and lack of

satisfactory working and living conditions.

Social unrest, political conflicts and wars

may also be determining causes. The pull

factors, however, include intellectual

freedom and substantial funds for

research.

1. Which of these conditions most likely

would lead to brain drain from a country

according to the passage?

A. New programmes like Skill India and

the Make in India Programmes will

make India the manufacturing hub of

the World

B. Policy of Housing for all aims to

build 2 crore houses in Urban areas

and 4 crore houses in Rural areas

C. The government spends a meagre

amount for research in science and

technology compared to other

countries


2. Brain drain results in movement of

A. People from one country to another

B. Educated professionals from one

country to another

C. Goods from one country to another

D. All the above

Passage 2

The best definition of Sustainable

development was presented by the report

Our Common Future (also known as the

Brundtland Report):

"Sustainable development is development

that meets the needs of the present

without compromising the ability of future

generations to meet their own needs."

Green development is generally

differentiated from sustainable

development in that Green development

prioritizes what its proponents consider

to be environmental sustainability over

economic and cultural considerations. In

addition to that, sustainable development

has underlying concepts: the concept of

'needs', in particular the essential needs of

the world's poor, to which overriding

priority should be given; and the idea of

limitations imposed by the state of

technology and social organization on the

environment's ability to meet present and

future needs. There is an additional focus

on the present generations' responsibility

to improve the future generations' life by

restoring the previous ecosystem damage

and resisting to contribute to further

ecosystem damage.

3. Sustainable development stresses upon:

A. The relationship between man and

development,

B. A development that takes into

consideration the needs of future

generations.

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C. The luxuries of the world’s poor

D. Only preventing any further damage

to the ecosystem as much as possible

4. The word proponent in the passage

most nearly means

A. one who denies the existence of a

deity or of divine beings

B. one who believes it impossible to

know anything about God

C. the leader or principal person in a

movement, cause, etc.

D. a person who advocates a theory,

proposal, or course of action

5. Green development in the passage

means

A. Eco system centric approach to

development

B. Culture centric approach to

development

C. Development considering the needs

of the poor and marginalized

D. Maximum monetary benefits is the

main concern

Passage 3

International Women's Day (IWD) is

marked on March 8 every year. Countries

around the world celebrate IWD to give

credit to the economic, political and social

achievements of women and to show

respect to their contributions in the

development of their countries. The IWD

was first celebrated on 19 March 1911 in

Germany following a declaration by the

Socialist Party of America. It's only in the

beginning of the 20th century that the day

was officially and internationally

acknowledged due to the rapid

industrialization and the social protest

that it accompanied.

On this day women are usually given

flowers and small gifts. It is also

celebrated as an equivalent of Mother's

Day in some countries. Children also give

small gifts to their mothers and

grandmothers. In countries like Portugal,

it is customary, at the night of 8 March, for

groups of women to celebrate the holiday

with women-only dinners and parties. In

1975, the United Nations gave official

sanction to and started financing

International Women's Day.

Although, women are becoming more

powerful in business, entertainment,

politics and many more areas, there are

still a lot of inequalities around the world

which call for the mobilization of

everybody to grant women the proper

status they merit.

6. When was the first IWD celebrated?

A. In the end of the 20th century

B. In the middle of the 20th century

C. Early in the 20th century.

D. In the 19th century

7. Which of the statement is true according

to the passage?

A. Social unrest and industrialization

were some of the causes that led to

IWD

B. IWD is officially celebrated all over

the world

C. Women are restricted only to

domestic spheres all over the world

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D. There is no monetary support for the

international women’s day across

the world

Passage 4

The chief claim for the use of science in

education is that it teaches a child

something about the actual universe in

which he is living, in making him

acquainted with the results of scientific

discovery, and at the same time teaches

him how to think logically and inductively

by studying scientific method. A certain

limited success has been reached in the

first of these aims, but practically none at

all in the second. Those privileged

members of the community who have

been through a secondary or public school

education may be expected to know

something about the elementary physics

and chemistry of a hundred years ago, but

they probably know hardly more than any

bright boy can pick up from an interest in

wireless or scientific hobbies out of school

hours. As to the learning of scientific

method, the whole thing is palpably a

farce. Actually, for the convenience of

teachers and the requirements of the

examination system, it is necessary that

the pupils not only do not learn scientific

method but learn precisely the reverse,

that is, to believe exactly what they are

told and to reproduce it when asked,

whether it seems nonsense to them or not.

The way in which educated people

respond to such quackeries as spiritualism

or astrology shows that fifty years of

education in the method of science in

Britain or Germany has produced no

visible effect whatever.

8. The word ‘palpably’ most nearly means

A. empirically

B. obviously

C. tentatively

D. markedly

9. The author blames all of the following

for the failure to impart scientific method

through the education system except

A. poor teaching

B. examination methods

C. the social and education systems

D. lack of interest on the part of

students

10. If the author were to study current

education in science to see how things

have changed since he wrote the piece, he

would probably be most interested in the

answer to which of the following

questions?

A. Do students spend more time in

laboratories?

B. Can students apply their knowledge

logically?

C. Have textbooks improved?

D. Do they respect their teachers?

11. Astrology is mentioned as an example

of

A. a science that needs to be better

understood

B. a belief which no educated people

hold

C. something unsupportable to those

who have absorbed the methods of

science

D. an acknowledged failure of science

Passage 5

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It begins the moment you set foot ashore,

the moment you step off the boat's

gangway. The heart suddenly, yet vaguely,

sinks. It is no lurch of fear. Quite the

contrary. It is as if the life- urge failed, and

the heart dimly sank. You trail past the

benevolent policeman and the inoffensive

passport officials, through the fussy and

somehow foolish customs - and we get

into the poky but inoffensive train, with

poky but utterly inoffensive people, and

we have a cup of inoffensive tea from a

nice inoffensive boy, and we run through

small, poky but nice and inoffensive

country, till we are landed in the big but

unexciting station of Victoria, when an

inoffensive porter puts us into an

inoffensive taxi and we are driven through

the crowded yet strangely dull streets of

London to the cosy yet strangely poky and

dull place where we are going to stay. And

the first half-hour in London, after some

years abroad, is really a plunge of misery.

This life here is one vast complex of

dullness! I am dull! I am being dulled! My

spirit is being dulled! My life is dulling

down to London dullness. This is the

nightmare that haunts you the first few

weeks of London. No doubt if you stay

longer you get over it, and find London as

thrilling as Paris or Rome or New York.

12. ‘It’ in line 1 refers to a feeling of

A. foreboding

B. fear

C. depression

D. malaise

13. The author of passage one makes his

point mainly by the use of

A. metaphor and simile

B. repetition and exclamation

C. accumulation of details

D. irony and satire

14. The extensive use of the pronoun ‘you’

in passage one indicates that the author

A. is speaking to one particular person

B. is describing the experience of

someone else

C. believes that his feelings will be

shared by many others

D. wishes to add variety to his style

15. The author apparently believes that

the ‘nightmare’ is

A. uniquely caused by city life

B. only over when he leaves the country

C. made worse by the weather

D. dispelled by a longer stay in London

16. Pointing at a girl, Ramesh (male) said “ She is the daughter of my mother’s only brother”. How is Ramesh related to the girl?

A. Cousin brother

B. Maternal uncle

C. Brother

D. Data inadequate

17. Pointing to a man on the stage, Priya

said “He is the brother of the daughter of

the wife of my husband.” How is the man

on the stage related to Priya?

A. Son

B. Husband

C. Cousin

D. Nephew

18. Looking at a portrait of a man, Rajesh

said, “His mother is the wife of my father’s

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son. Brothers and sisters I have none.” At

whose portrait was Rajesh looking?

A. His son

B. His cousin

C. His uncle

D. His nephew

19. Avinash walks 10 km towards North.

From there he walks 6km towards South.

Then he walks 3 km towards East. How far

and in which direction is he with reference

to his starting point?

A. 5 km West

B. 7km West

C. 7km East

D. 5km North-east

20. A watch reads 4:30 O’clock. If minute

hand points towards the East, in which

direction does the hour hand point?

A. North-East

B. South-East

C. North-West

D. North

21. Priya walked from P to Q in North, 100

m. Then, she turned to the left and walked

30 m. Again, she turned to left and walked

140 m. Now, how far is she from the

starting point?

A. 30m

B. 50m

C. 20m

D. 40m

22. In a row of boys, Pavan is seventh from

the start and eleventh from the end. In

another row of boys, Vikas is tenth from

the start and twelfth from the end. How

many boys are there in both the rows

together?

A. 36

B. 37

C. 39

D. None of these

23. In a class of 35 children, Maanya’s rank

is sixth from the top. Annie is seven ranks

below Maanya. What is Annie’s rank from

the bottom?

A. 22

B. 20

C. 19

D. 23

24. In the Venn diagram given below,

circle represents sportspersons, square

represents unmarried persons, triangle

represents women and rectangle

represents educated persons. Each section

is number. Study this diagram to answer

the following question.

Which sections are represented by the

region numbered 11?

A. Married educated sportswomen

B. Unmarried uneducated women

sportspersons

C. Married educated sportsmen

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D. Unmarried educated sportswomen

Direction (Qs 25 to 26): These

questions are based on the diagram

given below:

25. Which number is inside all the three

figures?

A. 2

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

26. What is the sum of the numbers which

belong to two figures only?

A. 10

B. 14

C. 18

D. None of these

Direction (Qs 27 to 29): In following

three questions below is given a

statement followed by conclusions. You

have to assume everything in the

statement to be true, then consider the

conclusions together and decide which

of them logically follows beyond a

reasonable doubt from the information

given in the statement and mark the

appropriate option.

27. Statement: All windows are doors. All

buildings are doors. All doors are boats.

Conclusion:

I. All windows are boats

II. All buildings are boats

III. Some boats are doors

Answer choices:

A. I and II follow

B. I and III follow

C. II and III follow

D. All follow

28. Statements: All belts are rollers. Some

rollers are wheels. All wheels are mats.

Some mats are cars.

Conclusion:

I. Some mats are rollers

II. Some mats are belts

III. Some cars are rollers

IV. Some rollers are belts

Answer choices:

A. I and II follow

B. I, III and IV follow

C. I and IV follow

D. II, III and IV follow

29. Statements

i. All poets are intelligent

ii. All singers are intelligent.

Conclusion

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I. all singers are poets

II. some intelligent persons are not

singers

Answer choices

A. Only conclusion one follows

B. Only conclusion two follows

C. Either conclusion one or conclusion

two follows

D. Neither follows


diagrams illustrates relationship among

animals, cows and horses?

31. What will be the next figure in this series?

32. Which one among the following boxes

are similar to the box formed from the

given sheet of of paper (x)?

33. Find the Number of triangles in the

figure below.

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 14

34. Find the number of square in the

figure below.

A. 8

B. 12

C. 15

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D. 18

35. The six faces of a dice have been

marked with alphabets A, B, C, D, E and F

respectively. This dice is rolled down

three times. The three positions are shown

as:

Find the alphabet opposite A:

A. C

B. D

C. E

D. F

36. A, B, C, D and E when arranged in descending order of there weight from the top. A becomes third, E is between D and A, while C and D are not at the top. Who among them is the second?

A. C B. B C. E D. Data inadequate

Direction (Qs 37 to 41): Each of these

questions are based on the information

given below:

1. 8 persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are

seated around a square table - two

on each side.

2. There are 3 ladies who are not

seated next to each other.

3. J is between L and F.

4. G is between I and F.

5. H, a lady member is second to the

left of J.

6. F, a male member is seated opposite

to E, a lady member.

7. There is a lady member between F

and I

37. Who among the following is to the

immediate left of F ?

A. G

B. I

C. J

D. H

38. What is true about J and K ?

A. J is male, K is female

B. J is female, K is male

C. Both are female

D. Both are male

39. How many persons are seated

between K and F ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

40. Who among the following are three

lady members ?

A. E, H And J

B. E, F and G

C. E,H and G

D. C, H and J

41. Who among the following is seated

between E and H ?

A. F

B. I

C. K

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D. Cannot be determined

42. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a

rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell

to gain 20%?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

43. A is two years older than B who is

twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of

A, B and C be 27, then how old is B?

A. 7

B. 8

C. 9

D. 10

44. A train running at the speed of 60

km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is

the length of the train?

A. 120mts

B. 180mts

C. 324mts

D. 150mts

45. Sakshi can do a piece of work in 20

days. Tanya is 25% more efficient than

Sakshi. The number of days taken by

Tanya to do the same piece of work is:

A. 15

B. 16

C. 18

D. 25

46. The age of father 10 years ago was

thrice the age of his son. Ten years hence,

father's age will be twice that of his son.

The ratio of their present ages is:

A. 5:2

B. 7:3

C. 9:2

D. 13:4

47. The average weight of A, B and C is 45

kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40

kg and that of B and C be 43 kg, then the

weight of B is:

A. 17

B. 20

C. 26

D. 31

48. The average monthly income of P and

Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly

income of Q and R is Rs. 6250 and the

average monthly income of P and R is Rs.

5200. The monthly income of P is:

A. 3500

B. 4000

C. 4050

D. 5000

49. 36 men can complete a piece of work

in 18 days. In how many days will 27 men

complete the same work?

A. 12

B. 18

C. 22

D. 24

50. In what ratio must a grocer mix two

varieties of pulses costing Rs. 15 and Rs.

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20 per kg respectively so as to get a

mixture worth Rs. 16.50 kg?

A. 3:7

B. 5:7

C. 7:3

D. 7:5

51. A man completes a journey in 10

hours. He travels first half of the journey

at the rate of 21 km/hr and second half at

the rate of 24 km/hr. Find the total

journey in km.

A. 220km

B. 224km

C. 230km

D. 234km

52. The percentage increase in the area of

a rectangle, if each of its sides is increased

by 20% is:

A. 40%

B. 42%

C. 44%

D. 46%

53. The difference between the length and

breadth of a rectangle is 23 m. If its

perimeter is 206 m, then its area is:

A. 1520m2

B. 2420 m2

C. 2480m2

D. 2520m2

54. One evening before Sunset, Rupesh

was standing facing a pole. The shadow of

the pole fell exactly to his left. To which

direction was he facing?

A. East

B. North

C. South

D. West

55. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 7 and 8 h

respectively. When they were opened

together, due to a leakage, the cistern took

16 min more to fill. The leakage alone can

empty the cistern in

A. 42h

B. 14h

C. 56h

D. 28h

Direction (Qs 56 to 60): Study the

diagram given below and answer each

of the following questions.

56. How many persons who take tea and

wine but not coffee ?

A. 20

B. 17

C. 25

D. 15

57. How many persons are there who take

both tea and coffee but not wine ?

A. 22

B. 17

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C. 7

D. 20

58. How many persons take wine ?

A. 100

B. 82

C. 92

D. 122

59. How many persons are there who

takes only coffee ?

A. 90

B. 45

C. 25

D. 20

60. How many persons takes all the three ?

A. 20

B. 17

C. 25

D. 15

61. Which number replaces the question?

A. 9

B. 11

C. 13

D. 15

62. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar

and Anthony is 80 years. What was the

total of their ages three years ago ?

A. 71

B. 72

C. 74

D. 77

63. There are deer and peacocks in a zoo.

By counting heads they are 80. The

number of their legs is 200. How many

peacocks are there ?

A. 20

B. 30

C. 50

D. 60

64. If you write down all the numbers

from 1 to 100, then how many times do

you write 3 ?

A. 11

B. 18

C. 20

D. 22

65. The number of boys in a class is three

times the number of girls. Which one of

the following numbers cannot represent

the total number of children in the class ?

A. 48

B. 42

C. 44

D. 52

66. A sum of Rs. 12,500 amounts to Rs.

15,500 in 4 years at the rate of simple

interest. What is the rate of interest?

A. 3

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B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

67. A library has an average of 510 visitors

on Sundays and 240 on other days. The

average number of visitors per day in a

month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday

is:

A. 250

B. 276

C. 280

D. 285

68. A man has Rs. 480 in the

denominations of one-rupee notes, five-

rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The

number of notes of each denomination is

equal. What is the total number of notes

that he has?

A. 45

B. 60

C. 70

D. 90

69. A rectangular field is to be fenced on

three sides leaving a side of 20 feet

uncovered. If the area of the field is 680 sq.

feet, how many feet of fencing will be

required?

A. 34

B. 40

C. 68

D. 88

70. Choose the correct mirror image of the

given figure (X) from amongst the four

alternatives.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Direction (Qs 71 to 75): Examine the

following graph and answer the

questions that follow.

71. Which month showed the highest

difference in inflation rate over the

previous month?

A. March

B. April

C. May

D. June

72. Which month showed the highest

percentage difference in the inflation rate

over the previous month?

A. March

B. April

C. May

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D. July

73. For how many months was the

inflation rate greater than 16?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. None of these

74. In how many month was there a

decrease in the inflation rate?

A. Zero

B. One

C. Two

D. Three

75. The difference in the number of

months in which there was an increase in

the inflation rate and the number of

months in which there was a decrease,

was

A. Four

B. Three

C. Two

D. One




76. In the case of how many years was

the production below the average

production of the given years?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

77. What was the percentage drop in

production from 1996 to 1997?

A. 100

B. 50

C. 65

D. 40

78. In which year was the production 50%

of the total production in 1993 and 1998

together?

A. 1994

B. 1995

C. 1996

D. 1997

79. If the production in 1999 will be above

the average production of the given years,

which of the following could be the

minimum production for 1999?

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A. 105000

B. 120000

C. 100900

D. 130000

80. What was the approximate percentage

increase in production from 1993 to

1994?

A. 60

B. 40

C. 110

D. 30




81. What is Gita’s average earnings over

all the days together?

A. Rs 285

B. Rs 290

C. Rs 320

D. Rs 310

82. What is the total amount earned by

Rahul and Naveen together on Tuesday

and Thursday together?

A. Rs 1040

B. Rs 1020

C. Rs 980

D. Rs 940

83. Gita donated her earning of

Wednesday to Naveen. What was Naveen’s

total earnings on Wednesday after Gita’s

donation?

A. Rs 520

B. Rs 550

C. Rs 540

D. Rs 560

84. What is the difference between Rahul’s

earnings on Monday and Gita’s earnings

on Tuesday?

A. Rs 40

B. Rs 20

C. Rs 50

D. Rs 30

85. What is the respective ratio between

Naveen’s earnings on Monday, Wednesday

and Thursday?

A. 7:3:5

B. 8:6:5

C. 8:7:4

D. 9:3:4

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86. What is the difference between the

total number of employees in teaching and

medical profession together and the

number of employees in management

professions?

A. 6770

B. 7700

C. 6700

D. 7770

87. In management profession three-

fourth of the number of employees are

female. What is the number of male

employees in management profession?

A. 1239

B. 1143

C. 1156

D. 1139

88. 25% of employees from film

production profession went on a strike.

What is the number of employees from

film production who have not participated

in the strike?

A. 3271

B. 3819

C. 3948

D. 1273

89. What is the total number of employees

in engineering profession and industries

together?

A. 5698

B. 5884

C. 5687

D. 5896

90. In teaching profession if three-fifth of

the teachers are not permanent, what is

the number of permanent teachers in the

teaching profession?

A. 1608

B. 1640

C. 1764

D. 1704

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Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) Given

below are ten questions. Each question

describes a situation and is followed by

four possible responses. Indicate the

response you find the most

appropriate. Choose only one response

for each question. The responses will

be evaluated based on the level of

appropriateness for the given question.

Please attempt all the items. There is no

penalty for wrong answers for these ten

items.

91. You are being sent for an intensive

efficiency improvement training program,

which you are not interested in going for.

You will

A. Proceed for the training keeping

your interest aside

B. Inform your boss to send someone

else for the training

C. Go for the training but you will spend

most of the time roaming here and

there

D. Try on finding excuses for avoiding

the training

92. You are the head of anti-naxal

operation in the jungles. Suddenly you

spot some naxalites hiding in the bush.

You will

A. Warn them to surrender

B. Make a sudden assault on them

C. Inform your senior officers and wait

for some forces to come

D. Circle them first and ask them to

surrender. If they refuse, then order

firing

93. You are a railway officer. For an

important personal work you have to go to

your village. When the train is about to

start, you come to know that your ticket

has slipped somewhere from your pocket.

What would you do in such a situation

A. Cancel your journey and get down

from the train

B. You use your power and travel

without a ticket. Infact order the TTI

to arrange for a seat for you

C. Rush towards the window of ticket

counter to buy another ticket

D. Inform the incident to the TTI and

buy another ticket as per the rules

from the TTI

94. You are offered a heavy bribe in return

of granting profile tender relating to a

telecom services. The matter is not at all

serious and granting of tender is not going

to harm anyone. You will

A. Take legal action against the

organization offering bribes and will

strive to penalize the guilty

B. Accept the bribe

C. Try to keep yourself away from the

situation

D. Revolt against the system of bribery

and try to get the tender in a positive

way

95. You are acting as presiding officer

during the polling time. You see a

physically weak and old lady came to cast

her vote and waiting in queue for her turn.

What is your reaction

A. Go to her; tell her not to cast her vote

and advise her to go home

B. Ask someone to bring her to you and

help her to cast her vote

C. Do nothing as others may object for

doing so

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D. Go to her; encourage her to cast her

vote by helping her to vote with the

help of others and ask the media to

take her photograph

96. You are the district magistrate of a

district. Sarpanch elections are going on in

the districts. During election in a village,

two leading parties had a conflict. How

will you handle the situation?

A. Direct the police to control the

situation

B. Tell the parties that you will cancel

their candidature

C. Go there and try to mediate in the

situation

D. Write to the state election

commission about the incident

97. You are a traffic police inspector. One

day, your brother was caught ina case of

while drunk and driving. What will you

do?

A. Go by the law and punish him

accordingly

B. Give him a warning and let him go

C. Let him go thinking that you will

make him understand at home

D. Warn him and let him go because

this is the first time he has done this

mistake

98. You are the police commissioner of a

state. Honour killing is very common in

your state. One or more such cases are

reported every day. What will you do to

control the situation

A. Launch a campaign to open the

minds of the people and to make

them realize that honour killing is a

crime

B. Order the police to arrest all those

people who are involved in such

heinous crimes

C. Talk to the people directly and warn

them not to get involved in honour

killings

D. Give protection to the people who

married outside their community

99. You go to your village in summer vacation. You saw fire in a nearby village and people were panicking. You

A. Pacify the people, form a team and

use sand and water to put off fire

B. Call up the fire brigade from the city

C. Wait for situation to calm down

D. Leave the village and rush away

100. You are DM of a flood prone district.

One day while on a survey of the area in a

boat with your subordinates, you found

that the boat had developed a hole in it

and water started coming in. you will

A. Order your subordinates to jump out

of the boat in order to guess the

depth of the water

B. Jump out the boat as you know how

to swim

C. Order your subordinates to plug the

leak with a cloth, threw the water by

bucket and started boating fast to

reach the destination

D. Call the disaster management

authority and tell them about the

situation

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1. The following sources give information

about the earth’s interior

i. Meteors

ii. Magma from Volcanic eruptions

iii. Seismic activity

iv. Magnetic surveys

v. Gravity anomoly


below

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. All of the above


2. Which of the following statements are

incorrect

A. Oceanic crust is thinner than

continental crust

B. Oceanic crust is lighter than

continental crust

C. Oxygen is the most abundant element

in the earth’s crust

D. The earth’s crust constitutes less than

1% of earth’s total volume

3. The main source of salinity in the ocean is:

A. Land

B. Marine life

C. Meteorites

D. Volcanoes

4. The mountain building in Himalayas

began

A. about 45 million years ago

B. when the continental plates of India

and Eurasia converged on each other

C. both (a) and (b)


5. Which of the following is an example of

metamorphic rocks?

A. Sandstone

B. Basalt

C. Shale

D. Slate

6. The least explosive type of volcano is

called

A. Basalt plateau

B. Cinder cone

C. Shield volcanoes

D. Composite volcanoes

7. Which of the following is true about

stratosphere?

A. Vertical winds are almost absent in

this region

B. Temperature decreases with height in

this region

C. Violent weather changes are seen in

this region

D. Aurora borealis are seen in this layer

8. Highest temperature is recorded at

A. The equator

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3

B. Slightly north of equator

C. Slightly south of equator

D. At both the tropics

9. The land-sea distribution or the positions

of the world's continents and major oceans

influences

A. the major pressure belts that develop

from the general circulation of the

atmosphere

B. the development of the mid-latitude

cyclonic depressions, at the

convergence zone between polar and

subtropical air masses

C. both (a) and (b)


10. The humidity of the air depends upon

A. temperature

B. location

C. weather

D. All of the above

11. Consider the following statements about

extra tropical cyclones

1. They develop in the mid and high

latitude

2. They develop due frontal situation at

the mid latitudes

3. They can originate only on seas

4. They move from west to east

Which of the above are true

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1,2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. All the above

12. Match the following


below

I II III IV

A 3 4 1 2

B 3 4 2 1

C 4 3 2 1

D 4 3 1 2

13. Which of the following statement is not

correct?

A. Strait of Malacca lies between

Malaysia and Sumatra

B. Strait of Malacca lies between

Sulawesi and New Guinea

I Valley

breeze

1 Violent storms over ocean

in tropical areas

II Katabatic

wind

2 Tornado over seas in mid

latitudes

III Typhoons 3 The wind moving upslope

during the day in

mountains

IV Water

sprouts

4 The cool air draining into

the valleys during night

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C. Strait of Makassar lies between

Sumatra and Sulawesi

D. Strait of Sunda lies between Java and

Sumatra

14. Tides are caused by

1. Gravitational attraction of the sun

2. Gravitational attraction of the moon

3. Centrifugal force

4. Centripetal force

Choose the correct option from the codes

given below:

A. Only 1 and 2

B. Only 1,2 and 3

C. Only 2 and 3

D. All the above


1. India lies entirely in the Northern

Hemisphere

2. India is divided into two almost equal

halves by Tropic of Cancer

Which among the above statements is / are

correct?


B. Only 2 is correct

C. Both 1 & 2 are correct

D. Both 1 & 2 are incorrect

16. The pass located at the southern end of

the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called

A. The Palghat gap

B. The Bhorghat pass

C. The Thalgat pass

D. The Bolan pass

17. The Radcliffe line is a boundary between

A. India and Pakistan

B. India and China

C. India and Myanmar

D. India and Afghanistan

18. Which of the following are true with

respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau?

1. The southern plateau block is formed

mainly of granite and gneiss

2. The Deccan lava plateau is an elevated

tableland consisting of horizontally

arranged lava sheets

3. The Malwa plateau dominates the

Vindhyan scraps, forming the northern

flank of the plateau

4. The trough of the Narmada and Tapti

are interposed between the Vindhyan

and the Satpura ranges


given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3

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5

B. 1 and 2

C. 1, 2 and 4

D. all the above

19. The most plausible explanation for the

location of the Thar desert in western India

is

A. the obstruction caused by the Aravalis

to the rain-bearing wind that proceeds

to the Ganga Valley

B. the evaporation of moisture by heat

C. the absence of mountains to the north

of Rajasthan to cause orographic

rainfall in it

D. that the moisture carried by the South-

west monsoon is driven away by the

dry upper air current

20. Which among the following is/are the

major factor/factors responsible for the

monsoon type of climate in India?

1. Location

2. Thermal contrast

3. Upper air circulation

4. Inter-tropical convergence zone


below

A. Only 1 & 2

B. Only 2 & 3

C. Only 2, 3 & 4

D. 1, 2, 3 & 4

21. Landslides occur in Nilgiris for the

following reasons

1. Nilgiris are tectonically active

2. The slopes of Nilgiris are very steep

with vertical cliffs

3. They are mainly made up of

sedimentary rocks and consolidated

and semi consolidated deposits

4. They receive heavy amounts of rainfall

over short periods


given below:

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. All the above

22. Which among the following in India are

known for substantial coral reef formations?

1. Gulf of Mannar

2. Gulf of Kachchh

3. Andaman and Nicobar

4. Lakshadweep Islands


given below:

A. Only 1 & 2

B. Only 2 & 3

C. Only 2, 3 & 4

D. All the above

23. The state having a largest area of forest

cover in India is

A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Haryana

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Assam

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6

24. Which of the following has a potential

for harnessing of tidal energy in India?

A. Gulf of Cambay

B. Gulf of Mannar

C. Backwaters of Kerala

D. Chilka lake

25. Which of the following groups

accounts for over 90 per cent of India's

annual coal production?

A. Bihar, Orissa and West Bengal

B. Bihar, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh

C. Orissa, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil

Nadu

D. West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh and

Tamil Nadu

26. The only state in India that produces

saffron is

A. Assam

B. Himachal Pradesh

C. Jammu and Kashmir

D. Meghalaya

27. What is the predominant type of

Indian agriculture?

A. Commercial agriculture

B. Extensive agriculture

C. plantation agriculture

D. subsistence agriculture

28. The scarcity or crop failure of which of the following can cause a serious edible oil crisis in India?

A. coconut

B. Groundnut

C. Linseed

D. Mustard

29. Karnataka is divided administratively

into following divisions

1. Bangalore division

2. Mysore division

3. Belgaum division

4. Dharwad division

5. Gulbarga division

6. Malnad division


given below:

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 1,2, 4 and 6

C. 1, 2, 3 and 5

D. 1, 2 ,4, 5 and 6

30. Sargur super crystals is the name given

to the

A. High grade metamorphic rocks in the

southern part of the state containing

economically important minerals

B. Volcanic rocks in the eastern part of

the state which are the host rocks for

gold mineralization

C. Sedimentary rocks on the northern

part with vast reserves of limestones

D. Monazite minerals found on the

coastal regions of karnataka

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31. Deccan traps are

1. Igneous rocks due to the volcanic

eruptions

2. Formed in the cretaceous to tertiary

periods

3. Cover substantial part of north

Karnataka

4. Acidic rocks of marine origin


given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. All the above

32. Consider the following statements in

context with Coffee production in

Karnataka:

1. Karnataka is the major coffee

producing state of India, accounting

about 53% total coffee production of

the country

2. Major coffee producing districts of

Karnataka are Tumkur, Davanagere

and Shimoga

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 & 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

33. Match the protected areas with their

main focus of conservation

Protected Area Conservation

I. Bandipur national

park

1 Peacock

II. Adichunchangiri

sanctuary

2 Black buck

III. Daroji sanctuary 3 Sloth bear

IV. Ranebennur

sanctuary

4 Tiger


given below:

I II III IV

A 4 2 3 1

B 4 1 3 2

C 4 2 1 3

D 4 3 1 2

34. The oldest rocks in India are reported

from

A. Dharwar region, Karnataka

B. Aravalli range, Rajasthan

C. Vindhyan range, Madhya Pradesh

D. Siwalik range, Punjab

35. Which among the following river is not

an east flowing river of Karnataka?

A. Krishna

B. South pennar

C. Kali

D. Godavari


Great Indian Bustard?

1. It’s found in Karnataka

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8

2. It’s listed as “critically endangered”

species list by IUCN

3. It’s threatened majorly by the presence

of wind mills, poaching and

encroachment into habitats

4. Its natural habitat is grassland

ecosystem


given below:

A. Only 2

B. Only 2 and 3

C. All the above


37. Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the

lower latitudes as compared to the

higher latitudes.

2. Along the mountain gradients,

biodiversity is normally greater in the

lower altitudes as compared to the

higher altitudes.


given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

38. Which of the following statement is true?

A. Construction of large dam will increase

the biodiversity in the area.

B. Fish and Amphibians are cold-blooded

animals.

C. Whale is a cold-blooded fish.

D. Polar bear is a cold blooded animal

because it goes in hibernation.


true?

1. “Green Revolution” has increased

biodiversity in India.

2. CITES convention regulates the whale

poaching.

3. Western Himalaya and Eastern Ghats

are examples of biodiversity hotspots.


given below:

A. Only 1 and 3

B. Only 3

C. All of the above


40. Which among the following result in the

conservation of the water?

1. Wastewater treatment

2. Wasteland Development

3. Watershed Protection

4. Rainwater Harvesting


given below:

A. Only 1, 2 & 3

B. Only 1, 2 & 4

C. Only 1, 3 & 4

D. 1, 2, 3 & 4

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9

41. Which of the statements given below

is/are correct?

1. Chemototrops are organism that

convert organic matter into inorganic

matter

2. Autotrophs are organisms that

produce complex organic compounds

from using energy from light or

inorganic chemical reaction.


given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

42. Which contains the largest store of

carbon in the world?

A. Oceans

B. Atmosphere

C. Hydrosphere

D. Lithosphere

43. Which of the following levels of

organisation is arranged in the correct

sequence from most to least inclusive?

A. Ecosystem, community, population,

individual

B. Community, individual, population,

Ecosystem

C. Individual, Population, Ecosystem,

Community

D. Ecosystem , population, individual

Community

44. In India most of plant flowers during

spring or summer because

A. It is breeding season for butterflies

B. More solar radiation are available

C. Fruits and seed setting must be

completed before the onset of

monsoon

D. Environment fluctuations are low

45. Which of the following would not qualify

as an ecosystem service?

A. Rain falling to Earth

B. Squirrels burying acorns

C. Leaves falling on a forest floor

D. Blowfly larvae infesting a deer carcass

46. The first community to establish itself in

an area having no vegetation is formed by

A. Xerosere

B. Pioneers

C. Beginees

D. Climate climax

47. Which sector shows the highest Global

Green House Gas Emission?

A. Agriculture and Forestry

B. Energy supply sector

C. Industry

D. Transport

48. Question contain two statements I and

II. Answer these using the following codes

to identify the “True statements:

Code:

A. Both the statements are true

B. Only statement I is true

C. Only statement II is true

D. Both statement are false

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10

I Biomass accounts for the largest share in

the Renewable energy capacity in India

II India’s renewable energy sector is driven

primarily by private sector.

49. With respect to National clean Energy

Fund (NCEF) consider the following

statement

i. The scope of the NCEF has now been

expanded to include funding in the

area of clean environment initiatives.

ii. Rs 50 per tonne cess on coal is used to

fund NCEF


given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

50. With respect to The Adaptation Fund

created under the UNFCCC identify the

incorrect statement

A. NABARD is India’s National

Implementing Entity (NIE) for the

Adaptation Fund created under the

UNFCCC

B. 2 of NABARD’s proposal on climate

change adaptation has been sanctioned

by the Adaptation Fund Board

C. Promoting Climate resilient agriculture

systems in West Bengal and enabling

the fisheries sector in Andhra Pradesh

are 2 of the projects proposed by

NABARD to Adaptation Fund Board

D. At present NABARD is the 2nd such

NIE in the Asia Pacific Region

51. Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT)

scheme under the National Mission on

Enhanced Efficiency is an example of

A. Carbon Tax

B. Carbon Trading

C. Carbon Research

D. Carbon Money

52. Which of the following are the by

products of composting

1. Humus

2. Water

3. methane

4. Carbon dioxide


given below:

A. Only 1

B. Only 1, 2 and 3

C. Only 1,2 and 4

D. All the above

53. The appropriate conditions for coral

growth are

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11

1. Temperature between 23-29 degree

celsius

2. Salinity

3. Calcium

4. Shallow waters


given below:

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. All the above

54. Match List I with List II.

List I

(Convention/

protocol)

List II

(Purpose)

I CITES 1 Climate change

II Nagoya

Protocol

2 Access To Genetic

resources and the fair

and equitable sharing

of Benefits arising from

their utilization

III Kyoto

Protocol

3 Ozone layer

IV Vienna

convention

4 Stop illicit trade of

wildlife


given below:

I II III IV

A 3 2 1 4

B 2 4 1 3

C 4 2 1 3

D 3 4 1 2

55. Consider the following statement

i. Hydroflurocarbon (HFCs) has no

harm to ozone but is a greenhouse

gas

ii. Hydrofluro carbon (HFCs) is one of

the gases to be phased out under

the Montreal Protocol.


given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 and 2

56. Which of the following don’t use

sunlight for synthesis of food

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12

A. Cyanobacteria

B. Rhododendrons

C. Nitrosomonas

D. Algae


1. Phytoplanktons are present only in the

upper 200 meters of an aquatic

ecosystem

2. Eutrophication is increase in the

phytoplanktons due to increase in

nutrients in the water body

3. All animals in an aquatic eco system

solely depend upon phytoplanktons

for their nutrients

4. An aquatic ecosystem can be depicted

as an upright food pyramid of biomass


given below:

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. 3 and 4

58. Grasslands are affected by increased

grazing in following ways

1. Reduced mulch cover leading to drier

conditions

2. Invasion by xerophytic plants

3. Breakdown of biogeochemical cycles

4. Creates new habitat for burrowing

animals


given below:

A. Only 1

B. 1 and 3

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. All the above

59. Which of the following is not a desert

adaptation?

A. Succulent stems

B. Coating of wax and protected stomata

C. Plants germinate only during rainy

season

D. Pneumatophores

60. Which is the only community reserve in

Karnataka

A. Kokkarebellur

B. Ranganathittu

C. Nilgiri reserve

D. Bandipur reserve

61. The Environment (protection) act covers

the following

1. Handling of hazardous substances

2. Grassland conservation

3. Endangered wildlife

4. Forest conservation


given below:

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. All the above

62. Which of the following pollutants are not

found in automobile emissions

A. Nitrogen oxides

B. Volatile organic compounds

C. Ozone

D. Chloro flouro compounds

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13

63. Which of the following are incorrect

about Fly ash

1. Its very fine residue produced by

burning of solid material

2. Settles on soil and acts as a fertile

manure for growth of plants

3. Can be used as a fill material in road

embankments

4. Is a major component of vehicle

emissions


given below:

A. 1 and 3

B. 2 and 4

C. 1, 3 and 4


64. Which of the following is not a cause for

land degradation

A. Overgrazing

B. Extractive industries

C. Zero tillage farming

D. Sea water inundation

65. Match the Wildlife Sanctuaries/ National

park of Karnataka given in the map below

with the appropriate code.

1. Bandipur National Park

2. Dandeli Wildlife sanctuary

3. Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary

4. Ranebennur Wildlife sanctuary


given below:

I II III IV

A 4 2 3 1

B 2 1 4 3

C 2 4 3 1

D 3 4 1 2

66. H1N1 or Swine flu is a

A. Viral infection

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14

B. Bacterial infection

C. Fungal infection

D. Parasitic infestation

67. NISAR mission is

A. Is a mission mode project to improve

renewable energy situation in the

country

B. a joint project between NASA and ISRO

to launch a dual frequency synthetic

aperture radar satellite.

C. Is a research project to study the

vulnerabilities of the coastal cities of

the country

D. Addresses the state of nutrition among

the particularly vulnerable tribal

groups

68. In which among the following states, the

government is proposing a Neutrino-based

Observatory?

A. Rajasthan

B. Tamil Nadu

C. Karnataka

D. Kerala

69. Recently, the government of India has

launched a new initiative called MeghRaj.

What is this MeghRaj?

A. Its a new Monsoon prediction system

B. It’s a new project related to Cloud

Computing

C. It’s a new service under Department of

Posts

D. It’s a new scheme for India’s Rainfed

areas

70. Rashtriya Vigyan Diwas is celebrated on

February 28 of every year to mark

A. the discovery of Raman Effect by

Indian physicist C. V. Raman

B. the birthday of Indian physicist C. V.

Raman

C. the launch of first Indian satellite into

space

D. to launch of Mars Mission into its orbit

71. Bioprinting refers to

A. The use of 3D printing technology with

materials that incorporate viable living

cells.

B. Use of eco friendly materials for

printing like natural dyes etc

C. Imprinting of genetic code on the

individual’s DNA during gamete

formation

D. Imprinting of cancer markers on

normal cells

72. Vishing refers to

A. using phone calls or voice messages to

trick people in revealing sensitive

information.

B. group wishing for occasions on social

media

C. is unauthorized access to another

person's or company's data limited to

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15

gaining access to data during its

transmission

D. casual observance of an e-mail that

appears on another's computer screen

or watching what someone else is

typing.

73. In terms of percentage, which of the

following metals has highest composition in

Polymetalic nodules?

A. Manganese

B. Iron

C. Nickel

D. Copper

74. In which of the following crop Azolla-

Anabaena biofertilizer is used?

A. wheat

B. rice

C. maize

D. Egyptian cotton

75. When viewed in white light, soap bubble

shows colour because of

A. Interference

B. Polarisation

C. Refraction

D. Diffraction

76. MDR-TB is

A. Tuberculosis which is not treatable

B. Tuberculosis resistant to all known

drugs

C. Tuberculosis resistant to first line

antibiotics


77. What is renewable kerosene

A. A type of bio fuel produced by bagasse

B. Fuel formed by using artificial sunlight,

water and carbon dioxide

C. Normal kerosene used in fuel efficient

stoves

D. A byproduct of refining of petroleum


Super heavy elements

1. They have atomic number more than

104

2. They are not found In nature

3. They are formed by fusion of nuclei

4. They have a very short half life


given below:

A. Only 1

B. 1 and 2 only

C. All the above


79. Hydrogen bomb is based on the

following principle

A. Controlled nuclear fusion

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16

B. Controlled nuclear fission

C. uncontrolled nuclear fission

D. uncontrolled nuclear fusion

80. Consider the following

1. The volume of water is minimum at 4

degree Celsius

2. If the expansion of water had not been

anamolous, the ponds and the lakes

would have frozen from top to bottom

3. Ice is a bad conductor of heat


given below:

A. All are correct

B. 1 and 2 are correct

C. 1 and 3 correct

D. 2 and 3 are correct

81. Weightlessness experienced while

orbiting the earth is due to

A. Acceleration

B. Zero gravity

C. Inertia

D. Centre of gravity

82. Ball pen functions on which of the

following principle

A. Viscosity

B. Boyle’s law

C. Gravitational force

D. Surface tension

83. If a star emitting yellow light starts

moving towards the earth, its colours as

seen from the earth will

A. Turn gradually red

B. Turn gradually blue

C. Remain yellow

D. Turn bright yellow

84. A man is standing between two plane

mirrors inclined at an angle of 60 degree the

number of images formed are

A. 4

B. 6

C. 2

D. 5

85. If a magnet is left to itself, it will lead to

A. Increase in its magnetic property

B. No change in its magnetic property

C. Decrease in its magnetic property

D. Its magnetic properties will first

increase and then decrease

86. Consider the following statements.

Which of these is incorrect

A. Laser is a technique to produce light of

same wavelength, in a single direction

and in phase

B. Light produced by laser is incoherent

whereas that of an incandescent bulb

is cohernt

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17

C. Laser beams are used to remove

unhealthy tissue from the body

D. Laser is also used to weld a detached

retina back into space

87. The phenomenon of emission of light in

certain bacteria and fishes is due to

presence of

A. Amylase

B. Luciferase

C. Serinace

D. Valinifin

88. Concave mirror is not used for which of

these

A. Shaving mirror

B. Reflection in search lights

C. Examination of internal parts of the

ear

D. Rear view mirror


A. Pasteurization is a technique of

preservation by sterilization of fluid

foods only

B. It helps destroy all microorganisms

like virus yeast bacteria etc in the food

C. The food is heated to temperature

slightly below boiling point of water

then suddenly cooled to chilling

temperatures

D. This technique is useless for TB

bacteria as it is heat resistant

90. The reason for stainless steel being rust

proof is

A. High chromium content

B. High nickel content

C. High molybdenum content

D. High carbon content

91. Which of the following are reactions

to noise pollution

1. Increase in heart rate

2. Constriction of blood vessels

3. Digestive spasms

4. Dilation of pupil of the eye


given below:

A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 3

C. All the above


92. Which of the following is incorrect

A. Cholesterol is a component of cell

membranes in human body

B. Cholesterol is essential for synthesis

of hormones

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18

C. Pure cholesterol is liquid at room

temperature and is insoluble in

water

D. Excess cholesterol is deposited in

arteries resulting in atherosclerosis

Instruction for question 93 to 95

In the following questions select the

correct code

A. Both 1 and 2 are correct

B. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect

C. Only 1 is correct

D. Only 2 is correct

93.

i. LPG contains ethane, propane butane

and pentane

ii. The leakage can be detected by the

typical smell of these above

hydrocarbons

94.

i. Microwave oven can heat all

materials irrespective of the water

content in them

ii. Heat is not supplied from outside in

the oven but is generated within the

food materials

95.

i. Artificial sweeteners are nutritious

agents

ii. Aspartame is used as artificial

sweetener as it produces less calories

than per gram of sucrose

96. Satellites used for telecommunication

relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A

satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:

1. The orbit is geosynchronous

2. The orbit is circular

3. The orbit lies in the plane of the earth’s

equator

4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236km


given below:

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 1,3 and 4

C. 2 and 4

D. 1,2,3 and 4

97. Which one of the following pairs is not

correctly matched?

A. Arjun: Indigenously produced Main

Battle Tank (MBT)

B. Phalcon: Cruise missile supplied by

Russia to India

C. Saras: Indigenously developed civilian

passenger aircraft

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19

D. Operation seabird: New Indian Naval

base at Karwar

98. In case of a nuclear disaster which of the

following options for cooling the nuclear

reactors may be adopted?

1. Pumping of water to the reactors

2. Use of boric acid

3. Taking out the fuel rods and keeping

them in a cooling pond


given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only

99. Use of biology in industrial process and

for improving quality of life is called

A. Genetic engineering

B. Eugenics

C. Microbiology

D. Biotechnology

100. Bluetooth technology allows

A. Wireless communications between

equipments

B. Signal transmission on mobile phones

only

C. Landline to mobile phone

communication

D. Satellite television communication

[Type text]

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1. Identify the incorrect statement with

respect to the recently launched Sansad

Adarsh Gram Yojana.

A. It encourages MPs or Sansads to

identify and develop one village

from their respective constituency

as a model village by 2016 and

two more by 2019

B. MPs are required to pick one

village with a population of 3000-

4000 in plains and 1000-3000 in

hills within a month of the launch

C. It is applicable only to the elected

members of Lok Sabha and Rajya

Sabha.

D. MPs cannot pick villages which

belong to themselves or their

spouses.

2. Find correct statements about Beti

bachao-beti padhaao (BBBP)

A. It’ll be implemented through

ministry of human resource

Development.

B. Sukanya Samriddhi account is a

sub-component of BBBP.

C. Both A and B

D. Neither A nor B


respect to Unnat Bharat Abhiyan

A. It is an initiative of the Ministry of

Rural Development.

B. This programme will be launched

in collaboration with the Indian

Institutes of Technology (IIT) and

the National Institutes of

Technology (NITs) across the

country which will prepare a

roadmap for holistic rural

development.

C. Each IIT will identify 10 villages in

its neighbourhood and work out

technologies to solve the most

pressing issues of the region.

D. Once the solution is identified then

they will involve the industry in

this to solve the problem.

4. Bachpan Bachao Andolan (Save the

Childhood Movement) is an initiative

started by

A. Kailash Satyarthi

B. The Indian Red cross

C. Ministry of women's and child

development

D. Bill and Malinda Gates Foundation

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5. With respect to programmes aimed at

bringing minorities into mainstream

development Match List I with List II.

List I

(Programme)

List II

(purpose)

I Manzil 1 Leadership

training

programme for

women

II USTAAD 2 Upgrading

entrepreneurial

skills of

minority youths

III Nai Roshni 3 Education and

skill

development of

dropouts

IV MANAS 4 Build capacity of

traditional

artisans and

craftsmen

belonging to

minority

communities

I II III IV

A 1 2 3 4

B 2 1 4 3

C 4 2 1 3

D 3 4 1 2

6. Paying heed to the Prime Minister’s

exhortation during his address to UN

General Assembly in September 2014,

the UN has declared to celebrate which

day as International Yoga Day?

A. 21 June

B. 16 September

C. 12 August

D. 17 December

7. Government recently re-launched

Kisan Vikas Patra scheme (KVP). It is a

certificate saving scheme available for

A. Any Farmer

B. Women Farmer

C. General citizen

D. Member of farmer cooperative

8. Which Disease is not covered under

the Government scheme Indradhanush?

A. Diphtheria

B. whooping cough

C. tetanus

D. rotavirus

9. With respect to Motion of Thanks to the

President for his address in the parliament.

Consider the following statement

i. If an Amendment to Motion of Thanks

to the President for his address is

passed in the Lok Sabha, it will lead to

censure of the government

ii. So far the Motion of Thanks to the

President for his address has been

amended 4 times in the Lok Sabha.

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4


given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

10. Which is the first state to make voting

compulsory in the Local body elections?

A. Kerala

B. Karnataka

C. Jammu and Kashmir

D. Gujarat


respect to National Lok Adalat (people’s

courts)?

A. It is aimed at reducing the backlog of

cases in the courts

B. It settles dispute through conciliation

and compromise

C. It adjudicates matters based on

ancient Indian customary laws

D. It was organized by the National Legal

Service Authority (NALSA)

12. what is the name of the documentary by

the British film-maker Leslee Udwin about

the Delhi Gang rape victim?

A. India’s Daughter

B. In Cold Blood

C. Mind of the Rapist

D. Death of a Princess

13. Which Indian boxer was provisionally

suspended by the AIBA for refusing to

accept the bronze medal won after losing

the semi-final fight over a controversial

decision at the 2014 Asian Games?

A. Mary Kom

B. Sarita Devi

C. Kavita Goyat

D. Sarjubala Devi

14. 31st October, will be celebrated as

National Integration Day or Rashtriya Ekta

Divas to celebrate the Birth Anniversary of

A. Lal Bahadur Shastri

B. Indira Gandhi

C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

D. lala lajpat rai

15. As per Census 2011 data, which among

the following States has higher sex ratio

than the national average?

A. Nagaland

B. Delhi

C. Arunachal Pradesh

D. Tripura

16. Professor Arvind Panagariya was

recently appointed as

A. Chairman, University Grants

Commission

B. Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog

C. Economic Advisor to the Prime

Minister

D. Governor, Reserve Bank of India

17. The government in the Budget 2015-

16 has decided to extend visa on arrival

from the existing ___ countries to ____

countries in Phased manner. Fill the

Blank by choosing the appropriate

option.

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5

A. 43/150

B. 56/119

C. 34/119

D. 52/148

18. Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS)

is an integrated bill payment system

offering inter-operable and accessible bill

payment service to customers. Which

institute has been appointed as the nodal

agency for its implementation?

A. Reserve Bank of India

B. NABARD

C. State Bank of India (SBI)

D. The National Payment Corporation

of India (NPCI)

19. Which Company was accused by the

Income Tax department for under-

pricing the shares in a rights issue to the

parent firm for fiscal 2009-2010?

A. Airtel India

B. Vodafone India

C. Tata Indicom

D. Reliance Infocomm

20. Which of the following is not a

feature required for granting special

status to a state by Finance Commission

A. Economic and infrastructural

backwardness

B. Strategic location along borders

with neighbouring countries

C. Low Female Sex Ratio in the state

D. Hilly and difficult terrain

21. Which variable has been included by

the Fourteenth Finance commission in

the Horizontal Devolution Formula?

A. Fiscal discipline

B. Forest Cover

C. Area

D. Education

22. In the General Budget 2015-16 8

centrally sponsored schemes were delinked

from support of the central government. It

includes all except

A. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban

Renewal Mission (JNNURM)

B. National e-Governance Plan

C. Backward Regions Grant Funds

D. Rajiv Gandhi Panchayat

Sashaktikaran Abhiyaan (RGPSA)

23. What constitutional amendment bill has

been introduced in the Lok Sabha on 19th

December, 2014, which provides for levy of

a Goods and Services tax (GST)?

A. 122nd constitutional amendment Bill

B. 112th constitutional amendment Bill

C. 119th constitutional amendment Bill

D. 118th constitutional amendment Bill

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24. Which of the following are not

recommended by Shanta Kumar Committee

on FCI restructuring

i. Coverage of National food security act

should be widened.

ii. Priority households under NFSA

should be given more grain allotment

iii. Antyodaya households should be

given grains at 50% below the MSP


given below :

A. Only 1 and 2

B. Only 2 and 3

C. Only 1 and 3

D. None of them

25. With respect to Internet.org consider

the following statement

i. It is an initiative by Bill and

Melinda gates foundation

ii. It aims to make internet more

accessible and affordable to all

people around the world.


given below

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 and 2

26. Indentify the incorrect statement

with respect to IRNSS 1C

A. IRNSS 1C was launched on a PSLV

C26 from Sriharikota.

B. It is the third satellite in its series

C. It was placed into a sun

synchronous Polar orbit

D. It was launched using an XL

version of the PSLV rocket


with respect to Nirbhay

i. It is India’s first indigenously

designed and developed long

range sub-sonic cruise missile.

ii. It is capable of carrying only

conventional warhead


given below

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 and 2


with respect to Ebola Virus

i. Camels are believed to be the

natural Host of this virus

ii. The virus is spread through contact

with body fluids of inflected

persons such as blood, urine and

saliva


given below

A. 1 only

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B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 and 2


respect to SpaceX

A. It is a private space transport

services company

B. It has developed two reusable

launch vehicles: the Falcon 1 and

Falcon 9 and a spacecraft called

Dragon

C. It was responsible for the first

privately funded, liquid-fuelled

rocket to reach orbit

D. It is the first private company to

send a satellite in to Martian orbit

30. Recently the Defence Research

Development Organisation (DRDO) has

developed herbal drug Lukosin, for

treatment of

A. Leucoderma

B. Leukaemia

C. Malaria

D. Kala Azar

31. Long Range Surface-to-Air Missile

(LRSAM) {Barak-8} which was recently

tested successfully is co-developed by

India and

A. Russia

B. France

C. Israel

D. United states

32. What is GreenPHABLET?

A. It is a device that provides farmers

precise information related to

agriculture

B. It is a device used to calculate the

Carbon foot print

C. It is a device used by forest

department to keep track of forest

cover

D. It is a device which uses solar energy

to power itself

33. Which state of India received its first

train in the year 2014?

A. Meghalaya

B. Sikkim

C. Tripura

D. Manipur

34. For the first time Voter Verifiable Paper

Audit Trail (VVPAT) with Electronic Voting

Machines was used for

A. Leh district of J&K

B. Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan

C. Tuensang district of Nagaland

D. Thiruvananthapuram district of

Kerala

35. Operation Kali was launched in Delhi

Metro for better protection of Women

commuters. Which central armed Police

force launched this operation?

A. BSF

B. CISF

C. CRPF

D. ITBP

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8

36. Which of the following countries are

member of Shanghai Cooperation

Organisation?

A. China, Belarus, Kazakhstan,

Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan

B. China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan,

Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan

C. China, Kazakhstan, Ukraine, Russia,

Afghanistan and Uzbekistan

D. Russia, Belarus, Kazakhstan,

Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan and

Uzbekistan

37. Exercise MALABAR 2014 was a

trilateral naval exercise involving the

navies of India and which other 2

Nations?

A. United states and Japan

B. United states and Australia

C. Srilanka and Maldives

D. Singapore and Australia

38. The defence deal under negotiation

involving the ShinMaywa US-2

amphibious aircraft is between India and

which other country?

A. South Korea

B. Japan

C. United States

D. Israel

39. According to the Land Boundary

Agreement (LBA between India and

Bangladesh, India will exchange ___ enclaves

measuring 17,160 acres with Bangladesh

and receive____ enclaves covering 7,110

acres

A. 121,61

B. 131,71

C. 111, 51

D. 101,41

40. Among the following who is not a part of

the New Development Bank (NBD)

A. India

B. Russia

C. China

D. Japan

41. The maritime dispute involving the

South Talpatti or New Moore island decided

by United Nations tribunal was between

India and

A. Pakistan

B. Sri Lanka

C. Bangladesh

D. Myanmar

42. Recently, a loose pro-democracy political

movement referred to as ‘umbrella

movement’ took place in 2014 at

A. Singapore

B. Hong Kong

C. Thailand

D. Russia


ISIL?

i. is a Salafi extremist group

ii. The proclaimed goal of ISIL is to

establish itself as a Caliphate, an

Islamic state worldwide

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9

iii. ISIL is destroying Iraq's cultural

heritage

iv. India is a party to the Coalition to

Counter the ISIL

A. Only 1

B. Only 1 and 2

C. 1,2 and 3 only

D. All the above

44. What does CLMV countries stand for

A. Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Vietnam

B. Cambodia, Laos, Malaysia, Vietnam

C. China, Laos, Myanmar, Vietnam

D. China, Laos, Malaysia, Vietnam

45. The 13th amendment of Srilankais

significant as it guarantees

A. Devolution of powers to the provinces

by creation of Provincial Councils

B. Peace accord between LTTE and

SriLankan government

C. Rehabilitation of the war affected

Tamils

D. Independent investigation of the war

crimes

46. Which of these is party to Treaty of

Nuclear Non Proliferation?

A. India

B. Israel

C. Iran

D. Pakistan

47. Which Indian company was granted

permission by Australian government to

extract coal in Queensland?

A. Vedanta Resource

B. Adani Mining Ltd

C. Coal India Ltd

D. Hindalco Industries

48. Which country returned a Bronze

Nataraj Idol to India that was sold illegally

by one subash Kapoor?

A. United Kingdom

B. United States

C. Norway

D. Australia

49. With respect to 6th BRICS summit

consider the following statement

i. It was held in Fortaleza, Brazil

ii. BRICS countries agreed to set up a

new development bank

iii. Deal on $100 billion Currency

Reserve Arrangement (CRA) was

agreed upon


given below

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

50. What was India’s total medal tally in

the 2014 Asian Games, Incheon?

A. 57

B. 62

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10

C. 45

D. 71

51. With respect to the Bidaai Scheme

launched by Government of Karnataka,

consider the following statement

i. It is a financial assistance scheme to

poor women belonging to only

Muslim community

ii. Under the scheme Rs 50000/- will

be given to the Beneficiaries at the

time of their marriage.


code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

52. What is the use of the recently launched

'Dhruv' category helicopter called Garuda

Vasudha from the Hindustan Aeronautics

(HAL) Complex, Bangalore?

A. It will be used by the police for traffic

management and crowd control in

Bangalore Urban

B. It will be used for ferrying VIPs from

Bangalore international airport

C. It will be used by the Geological Survey

of India for detecting deep seated

mineral deposits

D. It will be used by District Health

Department for the transportation of

Heart from Donors

53. In which Tiger Reserve of Karnataka the

Forest Department launched the habitat

tracking device called ‘HEJJE’?

A. Bandipur Tiger Reserve

B. Bhadra Tiger Reserve

C. Dandeli-Anshi Tiger Reserve

D. Nagarhole Tiger Reserve

54. The state government launched ‘Mythri’ a

pension scheme for

A. Old aged

B. Destitute women

C. Street Vendors

D. Sexual Minorities

55. Yettinahole is a tributary of which River?

A. Tungabhadra

B. Kabini

C. Netravati

D. Hemavati

56. The Union Government Launched the

Nirbhaya scheme in the state. Who will this

scheme benefit?

A. Victims of Endosulphan Poisoning

B. Victims of Rape

C. Victims of Acid attack

D. Victims of Domestic Violence

57. Who won the 2015 Hero I-League

Football cup?

A. Mohun Bagan Athletic Club, Kolkata

B. Royal Wahingdoh Football Club,

Shillong

C. Dempo Sports club, Goa

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11

D. Bangalore Football club, Bangalore

58. With regard to Karnataka Integrated and

sustainable water Resources Management

Investment Programme (2014-22) consider

the following statement.

i. It will be executed by the Karnataka

Neeravari Nigam Ltd.

ii. The programme receiving loan from

the World Bank

iii. The project is in two phases- Gondi

Irrigation (shimoga) and Vijayanagara

canals and Tungabhadra Left bank

canals (Bellary)


given below

A. i and ii only

B. iii only

C. i and iii only

D. i, ii and iii

59. Department of Atomic Energy undertook

aerial survey to scan for uranium and

thorium deposits at

A. Bagalkote

B. Dakshina Kannada

C. Mangalore

D. Uttara Kannada

60. The state government constituted a

commission of Inquiry, headed by H.S

Kempanna, retired judge of the High court of

Karnataka, to probe

A. The alleged denotification of land

acquired for the formation of the

Arkavathi Layout

B. The alleged sexual crime committed in

a Bangalore school

C. The growing incidence of rape in

Karnataka

D. The alleged attack on churches

61. ‘Arka Rakshak’ developed by Indian

Institute of Horticultural Research, Bangalore

is a variety of

A. Tomato

B. Brinjal

C. Ladies Finger

D. Green Grapes

62. What is the objective of the recently

launched ‘Health Adalat’, a first of its kind in

the country at Gulbarga?

A. It is a tribunal related to Health sector

B. It is a government-Citizen interface on

health issues

C. It is a grievance redressal centre for

government healthcare workers

D. It is the nodal agency for implementing

Government health schemes in

Karnataka

63. Karnataka got its first food park under

the mega food park scheme of Ministry of

Food Processing at

A. Chikkaballapur

B. Kolar

C. Doddaballapur

D. Tumkur

64. State government will observe December

29 as Rationalism Day to mark the birth

anniversary of

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12

A. G.S Shivarudrappa

B. U.R Ananthamurthy

C. Kuvempu

D. Kavi Pradeep

65. Government has set up a 14 member

search committee to choose a poet for the

title of Rashtrakavi. Who among the following

have not been awarded the title of

Rashrakavi?

A. M. Govinda Pai

B. Kuvempu

C. G. S. Shivarudrappa

D. D R Bendre

66. Suvarna gramodaya yojana is

A. State government programme focusing

on development of 1000 villages every

year by concerted efforts by the

government, NGOs private and village

communities

B. Central government programme that

aims at development of a model village

adopted by each MP by dedicating

funds

C. Achieving villages which are “open

defecation free” under the total

sanitation campaign

D. Developing village infrastructure

under the PURA scheme of central

government

67. Match the World heritage sites in

Karnataka given in the map below with the

appropriate code that follows.

1 Pattadakallu

2 Hoysala complex

3 Hampi

4 Monuments and Forts of Deccan

Sultanate

Select the appropriate code

I II III IV

A 4 1 3 2

B 4 1 2 3

C 2 4 3 1

D 4 3 1 2

68. Basava Vasathi Yojane

A. Provides housing for rural house less

poor with a component of subsidy and

along with beneficiary contribution

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13

B. Provides housing for urban slum

dwellers with equal contribution from

state and centre

C. Is a CSS to provide housing for rural

SCs and STs by providing built houses

at subsidized rates

D. Is a scheme of building shelter homes

for urban street vendors

69. Soura Belaku

A. aims at universal installation of roof

top solar devices in industrial

establishments

B. Aims at installation of Solar Street

Lights at grama panchayat level

C. Solar pump set will be distributed to

farmers at 50% subsidy or maximum

up to Rs.3 lakhs/solar pump set

D. Improving agricultural income of

farmers by incentivizing them to

integrate biofuel tree species into

agriculture

70. Karnataka biofuel policy has following

provisions

i. It provides for usage of oilseeds for bio

fuel production like groundnut, linseed

oil etc

ii. Oilseeds should be grown only in dry

or infertile land or land unsuitable for

cultivation


given below

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2


71. Backward Region Grants are not

provided to which of the following districts

A. Kalburgi

B. Yadgir

C. Chitradurga

D. Bagalkot

72. Major source of energy to the power

sector in Karnataka is

A. Hydel energy

B. Thermal energy

C. Wind energy

D. Biomass energy

73. Deendayal Upadhyay gram Jjyothi yojana

i. Aims to supply 24x7 uninterrupted

power supply to all homes

ii. Involves separating agricultural and

non agricultural feeders

iii. Involves strengthening sub

transmission and distribution

infrastructure in rural areas

iv. Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran

Yojana (RGGVY) has been subsumed in

the new scheme


given below

A. 1 and 3Only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1,2 ,3 and 4

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14

D. All the above

74. Rural infrastructure development fund

i. Was instituted in NABARD

ii. Objective of giving low cost fund

support to State Governments for

quick completion of ongoing rural

infrastructure projects.

iii. Designed to support innovative, risk

friendly, unconventional experiments

in these sectors that would have the

potential to promote livelihood

opportunities and employment in rural

areas

iv. Banks who can’t meet their priority

sector lending targets are required to

deposit the shortfall amount in this

fund


given below

A. 1 and 3 Only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 1,2 and 3 only

D. All the above

75. Electronic benefit scheme is

implemented on a pilot basis in the

following districts

i. Ballari

ii. Chitradurga

iii. Chamarajanagar

iv. Mandya


given below

A. 1 and 3 Only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 1,2 and 3 only

D. All the above

76. Stree Shakti programme is

A. Empowering rural women by a SHG-

credit linkage programme

B. Financial Assistance to run hostels for

girls from rural areas

C. Scheme of financial assistance for

remarriage of destitute widows and

marriage of devadasis

D. Empowering victims of atrocities by

providing financial relief, temporary

shelter, protection etc to lead a normal

life

77. High Power Committee For Redressal of

Regional Imbalances (HPCFRRI) was headed

by the renowned economist

A. Dr. Nanjudappa.

B. L. G. Havanur

C. V.K. Gokak

D. Amartyasen

78. The lowest in the the ranking of

development in terms of HDI (human

Development Index) 2001

A. Raichur

B. Gadag

C. Davanagere

D. Chamarajnagar

79. The State government has identified five

facilities ie. Pancha Saulabhya under Sarva

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15

Shiksha Abhiyan Which of these are not

included under this

A. drinking water

B. toilets

C. school building

D. library

80. 'Naipunya Nidhi'' is set up for the

following purpose

A. Skill Training programme for all the

degree students studying in

Government First Grade colleges

across the State.

B. Provide the Human Resources and

enhance the teaching efficiency of the

staff, the teaching faculties have been

deputed to higher education

C. An aim to harness collaborative

potential of students by encouraging

innovation to solve persistent

problems of our state

D. Aims for the development of higher

education in the country by ensuring

access, equity and quality


THAYI BHAGYA

A. It is implemented in all the districts

of Karnataka

B. Empanelled private hospitals are

incentivized to conduct all normal

deliveries for free

C. All surgeries in private hospitals

require part contribution from the

patients

D. BPL pregnant women (including

SC/ST) who undergo deliveries in

Government Hospitals are given

incentive for getting their

nutritional requirement

82. AYUSH Pusti programme is

A. giving AYUSH medicines given in

the form of Syrup and Biscuits to

correct malnourishment in children

aged between 3 to 6 years

B. Free health check up programmes

to popularize AYUSH system in

rural areas.

C. Training given to Medical and

Paramedical staff, General Public,

ASHA worker, Anganawadi worker

and others regarding AYUSH health

system

D. Teaching yoga to school children to

maintain mental and physical well

being

83. National Food Security Mission was

started during 11th Five Year Plan in the

state. Impact of NFSM Programme in the

state is as follows

i. 9% increase in average yield of Rice

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ii. 17% and 53% increase in area,

production and yield of pulses

respectively

iii. Farmers have taken up improved

production technologies practices

like inter cropping etc in pulses

iv. 15 % increase in average yield and

area of production of oil seeds


given below

A. 1 and 3 Only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 1,2 ,and 3 only

D. All the above

84. Implementation of Soil Health

Mission does not include

A. Collection of soil samples

B. Analysis of soil samples for macro

nutrients and micro nutrients

C. Analysis is linked to k-kissan project

D. Crop specific organic fertilizer

distribution

85. “Krishi Bhagya” is a

A. scheme that compensates the insured

farmers against losses due to financial

losses due to adverse weather

conditions

B. Scheme for improving livelihood of

rain dependent farming community by

achieving sustainable growth in

agriculture

C. Procurement of perishable agriculture

commodities through hopcoms in the

districts/taluks

D. Mission goal of increasing average

productivity of selected rainfed crops

by 20 %

86. Majority of forest cover in Karnataka

is under

A. Wet evergreen forests

B. Semi-evergreen forests

C. Deciduous forests

D. Plantations form

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87. Match the following e governance

projects of Karnataka with their importance


given below

I II III IV

A 3 4 2 1

B 4 1 3 2

C 4 3 1 2

D 3 4 1 2

88. The Hyderabad-Karnataka region have

been provided the following privileges after

the enactment of Article 371(J)

A. 100% of budget of SDP is earmarked

for Hyderabad-Karnataka region.

B. Provides for reservation of 70% of the

seats in any educational institution

C. Provides for creation of a local cadre

D. Establishment of a separate

development board

89. Bhagyalakshmi scheme is

A. Deposit of fixed amount in the name of

girl child which will be paid to the girl

child after completing 18 years

B. providing shelter and counselling to

victims of domestic violence

C. Self employment training programme

for rehabilitation of sex workers

D. Extending financial assistance to

transgenders who were exploited by

the Society


Sneha Shivir

i. Involves a cluster of 4-5 anganwadi

centres

List I

(Governance

project)

List II

(importance)

I Telegram 1 Unified

electronic

platform to

handle all

kinds of

agricultural

activities

II Krishi Gyan

Sagar

2 Website to

provide

timely

information

on various

schemes in

agriculture

III K-KISAN 3 Collection of

Good

Agricultural

Practices

IV Raitha Mitra 4 Application

where

farmers

groups can

exchange

progress and

problems

faced by

them

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ii. Parents of all children are given

training for 12 days in preparation

of nutrition food, feeding practices,

health and hygiene.

iii. Its taken up in 4 high burdened

districts of Bagalkote, Kolar, Bellary

and Gulbarga


given below

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 3 Only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. All the above


Karnataka Nuthana Javali Neethi 2013-18

i. Maximum Financial Assistance is

being provided to MSME sector

ii. Karnataka is the first State in the

Country to launch State Textile

Policy.


given below

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither of them

92. Savayava bhagya yojaneIs an

improvement over earlier organic

farming programmes as it

i. Aims at developing good marketing

linkages and market development

for the organic products of the state

ii. Brings around 100 ha. area under

organic farming in each hobli of the

taluka


given below

A. only 1

B. only 2

C. both 1 and 2

D. none of the above

93. Custom Hire and Service Centres

primarily catering to

A. Small and marginal farmers

B. Farmers in rain fed areas

C. SC and STS

D. Farmers producing breeder seeds

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Questions 94 and 95 consists of two

statements. Determine whether

Statement A is correct and Statement B

is correct, and if Statement B is the

correct explanation for Statement A.

Choose the correct options

A. Both Statement A and Statement B are

correct and Statement B is the correct

explanation for Statement A.

B. Both Statement A and Statement B are

correct but Statement B is not the correct

explanation for Statement A.

C. Statement A is correct but Statement B

is incorrect.

D. Statement A is incorrect but Statement

B is correct.

94. A: Oil Palm is a water loving plant

B: Its cultivation is being taken up in

the farmer's fields of the districts prone

to droughts to improve farmers’ income

95. A: Fertigation delivers fertilizers at

the roots of the plant

B: Its promoted under the Central

Sponsored scheme of National Mission

on Sustainable Agriculture

96. Karnataka Biodiversity Board does

not have the authority to perform

following functions

A. Promotion of in-situ and ex-situ

conservation of biological resources

B. Provide incentives for research,

conducts awareness and training

programmes

C. Give approval to Monsanto for use

of biological resources commercial

or research purposes

D. Declaration of biodiversity Heritage

sites


Annabhagya Yojane

i. It is a CSS which was launched in

July-2013

ii. It Aims to supply 30 kg of food

grains @ Rs. 1/- per kg to BPL

families across the State.

iii. It is implemented with a cost

sharing formula of 50:50 between

centre and state


given below

A. 1 and 3 Only

B. 2 only

C. All the above


98. The infant mortality rate (IMR) of

Karnataka in 2013 is about

A. 31 per 1000 live births

B. 31 per 100,000 live births

C. 10 per 1000 live births

D. 10 per 100,000 live births

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99. Which of the following is not true

about JANANI SURAKSHA YOJANE (JSY)

A. Objective is reduction in maternal and

infant mortality rate

B. Aims at increasing the institutional

deliveries of BPL and SC/ST families

C. Cash assistance is provided for

deliveries taking place only in health

institutions

D. It is implemented in both urban and

rural areas

100. MGNREGS is operational in all

districts of Karnataka since

A. 2005-06

B. 2006-07

C. 2008-09

2004-05

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1. AFSPA is currently applicable in which of the following states

i. Assam ii. Jammu and Kashmir

iii. Punjab iv. Arunachal Pradesh

Select the correct code:

A. Only i B. Only i and ii C. Only i, ii and iv D. All the above

2. Which of the following is true about Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?

i. Flagship programme for universalizing elementary education

ii. Seeks to open new schools in those habitations which do not have schooling facilities

iii. Strengthen existing school infrastructure

iv. Has special focus on girl's education and children with special needs.


A. i only B. i,ii and iii only C. All the above D. None of the above

3. Under the revised Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar, which of the following categories has been included into the award criteria?

i. Identification and nurturing of budding/young talent.

ii. Employment of sportspersons and provide sports welfare measures.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. i only

B. ii only C. Both i and ii D. Neither i and ii

4. What are the salient features of Sukanya Samridhi Yojana

i. It is meant for girl child of 10 years

or above.

ii. It can be opened with nil-balance.

iii. Girl child receives free 1 lakh

accident insurance and 30,000 life

insurance tied up with her account.


A. Only i and ii B. Only ii and iii C. Only i and iii D. None of them

5. Consider the following statement with respect to National Optical Fibre Network Project

i. It is Being implemented by Department of Telecommunications (DOT)

ii. It is aimed at connecting 22,50,000 Gram Panchayats in the country with a minimum 500Mbps bandwidth internet

iii. It is funded by Universal Service Obligation

Which of the following statement is true?

A. i and ii only B. i only C. i and iii only D. i, ii and iii

6. The recently launched programme called Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana is aimed at promoting

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A. Organic Farming B. Plantation in the North east states C. Oil seed cultivation D. Minor Irrigation

7. Identify the correct statement about the proposed Investigative Units on Crimes against Women (IUCAW)?

A. This scheme is externally funded

by the World Bank

B. Under this scheme, each state

capital / UT and all metro cities

will have dedicate police units for

crime against women

C. These units will be given

additional powers to search-seize

and arrest beyond the traditional

powers available to a police office

under CrPC.

D. These units will be on 50:50 cost

sharing basis between Union :

State

8. 121st Constitutional Amendment Bill,

2014 which got president assent on 31st

December deals with

A. Establishment of National Judicial

Appointments Commission (NJAC)

B. Goods and services Tax (GST)

C. Agreement to transfer land to

Bangladesh, on the basis of Indo-

Bangladesh Land transfer

agreement

D. Special status to Hyderabad

Karnataka region

9. Under Land ordinance 2014, who among the following can acquire private land for public purpose?

i. One person company ii. Public limited company

iii. private limited company iv. Educational trust. v. Religious charity organization


A. Only ii and iii B. Only i, ii and iii C. Only i, ii, iii and iv D. All of them

10. Who became the 4th Indian to enter the ICC cricket hall of fame recently?

A. Anil Kumble B. Sachin Tendulkar C. Kapil Dev D. Mahendra Singh Dhoni

11. Sec 66 A of IT Act which was recently annulled by the SC had jurisdiction over following

A. Information posted by making use of such computer resource or a communication device, causing insult, injury, criminal intimidation, enmity, hatred or ill will

B. Websites which could affect sovereignty and integrity of the country, defence, security, friendly relations with foreign states

C. Information posted online with the criminal intent in striking terror in the minds of people

D. Information posted online with the purpose of religious incitement

12. Declining oil prices will lead to increase in GDP growth by

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i. Adding to spending power of the households

ii. Increase profit margins of the corporates

iii. Increasing foreign inflows

Select from the codes below

A. Only 1 B. Only 1 and 2 C. Only 2 and 3 D. All the above

13. Which of the following natural resources garnered a whopping amount of revenue for the nation upon auctioning?

A. Coal mines B. Telecom spectrum C. Land D. Petroleum reserves

14. Disaster management is under which list in 7th schedule

A. Central list B. State list C. Concurrent list D. None of the above

Question 15 and 16 contain two statements I and II. Answer these using the following codes to identify the “True statements:

Code:

A. Both the statements are true B. Only statement I is true C. Only statement II is true D. Both statement are false

15.

I. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen

Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is a

Ministry of Rural Development

initiative for developing skills in

Rural Area

II. Swavalamban Yojana is a scheme

for Physical Rehabilitation of

disabled, which includes early

detection and intervention,

counselling & medical

interventions and provision of

aids & appliances

16

I. India has the second largest

foreign exchange reserve holder

as on 6th February, 2015

II. China has the largest foreign

exchange reserve in the world.

17. Mobile commerce service M-Pesa is an initiative of whom among the following

i. Vodafone India ii. ICICI Bank

iii. Airtel iv. HDFC

Which among the following codes are correct?

A. i and ii only B. ii and iii only C. iii and iv only D. i, ii and iv only

18. Which variable has been excluded by




B. Forest Cover

C. Area

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5

D. Education


about Goods and Services Tax (GST) is

correct?

i. Imports would be zero rated

ii. An integrated GST would be levied

on interstate supply

iii. It will be a Origin-based tax as

against the present destination-

based tax


given below

A. i and ii only

B. i and iii only

C. ii only

D. i, ii and iii

20. The main objective of GAAR is to

A. Prevent tax avoidance

B. To recover the black money

stashed abroad

C. To prevent tax evasion

D. To strengthen bond market


about Falling Global Crude Prices is/are

correct?

i. Due to weakening of demand for

crude oil in the economies of Asia,

especially china and Europe

ii. Exploration of shale gas by

countries like US and Canada has

led to lower demand for oil


given below:

A. i only

B. ii only

C. Both i and ii

D. Neither i nor ii

22. What are the functions of Food

Corporation of India (FCI)

i. public procurement of foodgrains

ii. storage of foodgrains

iii. distribution of foodgrains


given below:

A. Only i and ii

B. Only ii and iii

C. Only i and iii

D. All of them

23. Public debt management agency proposed in the recent budget will help in

i. Development of the bond market in the country

ii. Regulating government lending iii. Preventing leakages of public

funds iv. Bringing in fiscal discipline

Choose the correct option from the codes given below:

A. i and ii only B. i, ii and iii only C. i, iii and iv only D. All of the above

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24. Priority sector includes lending to the following sectors

i. Agriculture ii. Micro, Small and medium

enterprises, iii. Education iv. Social infrastructure v. sanitation

vi. renewable energy


A. Only i and ii B. Only i, ii, iii and iv C. i, ii, iii, iv and v D. All the above

25. Which of the following is incorrect about the Forwards Market Commission?

A. It’s a statutory body B. It regulates the commodity market in

India C. It functions under the ministry of

finance D. It has powers to investigate and

prosecute cases of commodity market irregularities

26. Which of the following is not true about INS Kolkata (D63)

A. It is second largest destroyer to be operated by Indian Navy after INS Delhi

B. It was commissioned by Prime Minister on 16th August, 2014

C. It was Built at Maza Dock Limited, Mumbai

D. It fitted with advance stealth technology

27. The Aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov has been renamed and commissioned into Indian Navy as

A. INS VIRAAT B. INS VIKRANT C. INS VISHAL D. INS VIKRAMADITYA

28. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

A. Akash- Surface to Surface Missile

B. Nag-Surface to Air Missile C. Brahmos-Cruise missile D. Sagarika-Submarine Launched

Ballistic Missile (SLBM)

29. Which country is set to become the

first country to legalize creation of

three-parent IVF designer babies using

Mitochondrial Donation Technique?

A. United Kingdom

B. Switzerland

C. United States of America

D. Brazil

30. Consider the following statement regarding Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB).

i. It is a multilateral development bank to provide finance to infrastructure projects in the Asia-Pacific region

ii. It has been promoted by the United States to counter the China influence in the region

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. i only

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31. Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from

A. Egypt B. Lebanon C. Syria D. Tunisia

32.

REGION OFTEN IN NEWS

COUNTRY

i. Kiev Ukraine ii. Darfur Mali iii. Swat Valley Pakistan

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. iii only B. ii and iii only C. i and iii only D. i, ii and iii

33. Which of the following is not a party to Central Asian Nuclear-Weapon-Free-Zone (CANWFZ) treaty

A. Kazakhstan B. Kyrgyzstan C. Tajikistan D. Afghanistan

34. Houthi tribes are

A. Rebels in Yemen who caused the fall of the government in yemen

B. Particularly vulnerable tribe in Assam

C. Group of nomadic tribes in Karnataka famous for bee keeping


35. ‘Maitri’ project for the co-development of a short Range Surface-to-air Missile is between India and

A. Israel B. Russia C. France D. Britain

36. Following the cancellation of more than 200 coal mines allocated by the government between 1993 and 2010, the government is preparing to auction or allocate ______ coal mines in the 1st round.

A. 110 B. 101 C. 121 D. 130

37. Cyclone Hudhud (name given by Oman) that hit the odisha and Andhra Pradesh Coast on October is named after a

A. Afro-Eurasian bird B. State dish of Oman C. The 2nd largest city of Oman D. River in Oman

38. Pekiti-Tirsia Kali is

A. A style of martial arts that has its origin in Philippines.

B. A Women self help group scheme of West Bengal

C. A form of Ancient medicine promoted under AYUSH mission

D. A new all women battalion of the BSF

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39. In which state a proposal to setup an IIT was taken in the recent union Budget?

A. Telangana B. Goa C. Karnataka D. Andrapradesh

40. What is Bitcoin?

A. It is a form of digital currency B. It is Indian domestic card scheme

conceived and launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

C. It is a new digital encrypted system to prevent forgery of currency

D. It is the first digital bank of India

41. Who of the following leader died on the day when Non-cooperation Movement was launched in 1920?

A. Pheroz shah Mehta B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale D. C.R. Das

42. Which Movement was launched along with the Khilafat Movement?

A. Swadeshi movement B. Home rule movement C. Civil Disobedience movement D. Non-cooperation Movement

43. M.K. Gandhi applied his "Satyagraha" first against?

A. The European Indigo Planters B. The mill owners of Ahmedabad C. The British Government D. The racist authorities of South

Africa

44. Gandhiji returned from South Africa on?

A. 1914 May 21 B. 1914 August 18 C. 1915 March 19 D. 1915 January 9

45. The first round table conference was held in

A. London B. Edinburgh C. Delhi D. Calcutta

46. Tripitakas are sacred books of

A. Buddhists B. Hindus C. Jains D. None of the above

47. Which Governor Generals of India is known as the father of Indian Civil Services

A. Lord Cornwallis B. Warren Hastings C. Lord Wellesley D. Lord William Bentinck

48. Who started Bhoodan Movement?

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Jayaprakash Narayan

C. Swami Vivekananda

D. Acharya Vinoba Bhave

49. The National Song of India was

composed by

A. Rabindranath Tagore

B. Bankim Chandra Chatterji

C. Iqbal

D. Jai Shankar Prasad

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Card_scheme

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Payments_Corporation_of_India


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50. Subhas Chandra Bose organized the

Indian soldiers taken as prisoners by

an Axis power into the Azad Hind Fauj

by an agreement. The Axis power was

A. China

B. Germany

C. Italy

D. Japan

51. The Non-Cooperation Movement in

1920 was withdrawn

A. Because of Gandhiji’s ill-health

B. Due to extremist policy then

adopted by the National congress

C. On a fervent appeal from the

Government

D. Because of violence at Chauri-

Chaura

52. Krishnadevaraya was given the title

of

A. Gajabentekara

B. Bhashege tappuva rayara

ganda

C. Mooru rayara ganda

D. Yavana Rajya Sthapanacharya

53. The treaty of Srirangapatna was

signed between Tipu Sultan and

A. Robert Clive

B. Cornwallis

C. Dalhousie

D. Warren Hastings

54. Which of the following are the cause

that led to the movement for Unification in

Karnataka?

i. Renaissance in Karnataka

ii. Pro unification policies of Nizam of

Hyderabad

iii. Belgaum Congress in 1924

iv. Karnataka State Political

Conference, Dharwad in 1920

Select the correct code

A. i ii and iv only

B. i iii and iv only

C. i and iii only

D. i ii and iv ony

55. Mysore congress held its first

conference at

A. Sivapur

B. Ankola

C. Sirsi

D. Siddapur

56. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a

joint sitting of the both the houses of

Indian parliament, it has to be passed by a

A. Simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting

B. Two-third majority of the total number of members of both the houses

C. Simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses

D. Two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting

57. Which one of the following has the right to address the Parliament?

A. Attorney General of India B. Chief election commissioner of

India C. Chief justice of India

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D. National security Advisor

58. Which one of the following statements about parliament of India is not correct?

A. The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of Government

B. The foremost function of the Parliament is to provide a Cabinet

C. The membership of the cabinet is restricted to the Lower House

D. The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the Popular Chamber

59. Which one of the following is a function of the Pro-Tem speaker of the Lok Sabha?

A. Conduct of the proceedings of the House in the absence of the speaker

B. To check if the election certificates of the members of the House are in order

C. Swear in the members of the House and hold the charge till a regular Speaker is elected

D. To endorse a bill as Money bill

60. The resolution for removing the vice-president of India can be moved in the

A. Lok Sabha alone B. Either House of Parliament C. Joint sitting of Parliament D. Rajya Sabha alone

61. The supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or act

A. On its own initiative B. Only if he seeks such advice C. Only if the matter relates to the

fundamental rights of citizens

D. Only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country

62. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of the Parliament

A. He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a non-confidence motion

B. He will not be able to speak on the Budget in the lower House

C. He can make statements only in the Upper House

D. He has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister

63. The President can be impeached for

A. Violating the constitution B. Disregarding parliament C. For not taking the advice of council

of minister D. All of the above

64. The name of the union given in the constitution is

A. Hindustan or Bharatavarsha B. India or Hindustan C. India or Bharat D. Bharatadesh or India

65. The purpose of the inclusion of

Directive Principles of state policy in

the Indian Constitution is to establish

A. Political democracy

B. Social democracy

C. Gandhian democracy

D. Social and economic democracy

66. The constitution of India recognizes

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A. Only religious minorities

B. Only Linguistic minorities

C. Religious and linguistic

minorities

D. Religious, Linguistic and ethnic

minorities

67. Which of the following rights are

available to Indian citizens as well as

foreigners residing in Indian territory?

i. Cultural and educational rights

ii. Right to freedom of religion

iii. Right against discrimination by

the state on grounds of religion,

race, caste, sex or place of birth

iv. Right to personal Liberty

Select the correct answer from the code

given below:

A. i and ii only

B. iii and iv only

C. ii and iv only


68. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that

A. He obtains permission from the Principal of his college

B. He is a member of a political party C. His name figures in the voters list D. He flies a declaration owing

allegiance of the constitution of India

69. Civil and political equality gives citizens

A. Right to vote and rights to be elected without any distinction of caste, religion, sex, property etc

B. Right to vote and right to be elected without any distinction of age, caste, creed or sex

C. Equal opportunity for taking part in elections

D. The right to occupy highest office in the state irrespective of qualifications

70. The preventive Detention Act has a restraining effect on

A. Right to Equality B. Right to Freedom C. Right to Religion D. Right to constitutional Remidies

71. The duties levied on alcoholic liquors, narcotic drugs and opium comes under

A. Central Excise Duty B. CENVAT C. State Excise Duty D. General Sales Tax

72. Protection means

A. Restriction imposed on import trade

B. Protection to home goods C. No free exchange of goods and

services between countries D. All of these

73. Agricultural income-tax is a source of revenue to

A. Central Government B. State Government C. Local administration D. Central and state Government

74. Which of the following is not the instrument of fiscal policy?

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A. Bank rate B. Government expenditure C. Taxes D. Licence fees

75. Consider the following statements about SDR(Special Drawing Right):

i. It is an international financing instrument

ii. It is created in 2000 iii. It is neither paper nor gold but an

accounting entry iv. IMF is associated with it

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. i and ii only B. i, ii and iii only C. i and iii only D. i, iii and iv only

76. With referece to steps taken to

achieve financial inclusion in India,

consider the following statements:

i. Nationalisation of banks

ii. Formation of RRBs

iii. Adoption of village by bank

branches

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

A. i and ii

B. ii and iii

C. i and iii

D. i, ii and iii

77. Consider the following statement:

i. Fourteenth Finance commission

was set up in 2011

ii. Fourteenth Finance commission

was set under chairmanship of

Yaga Venugopal Reddy

iii. To make recommendations on

the devolution of taxes, the

Fourteenth Finance commission

has been directed to use the

census figures of 1971


is/are correct?

A. i and ii

B. ii and iii

C. i and iii

D. i, ii and iii

78. Commercialisation of agriculture

implies

A. Cultivation of timbers

B. Plantation

C. Production of crops for sale

D. Production of crops like wheat

and rice

79. Quota (in cross border trade) is

A. Tax on imports

B. Imports of capital goods

C. Limit on quantity of imports

D. Limit on quantity of exports

80. Open market operations of the RBI

mean

A. Buying and selling of shares

B. Auctioning of foreign exchange

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C. Trading in securities

D. Transacting in gold

81. Mixed economy means

A. Co-existence of small and large

industries

B. Promoting both agriculture and

industries in the economy

C. Co-existence of public and

private sectors

D. Co-existence of rich and poor


regarding new Corporate Social

Resposibility (CSR) rules:

i. Companies to spend 2% of their

3 years average annual net profit

on CSR activities

ii. Surplus from CSR activities can

become a part of the profit of the

company

iii. All CSR activities will have to be

within India

iv. The new rules will not be

applicable to the foreign

companies registered in India


is/are correct?

A. i and ii

B. i and iii

C. i, ii and iii


83. Too much of import of gold by India

adversely affects:

i. Trade balance

ii. Current account balance

iii. Capital account balance


codes given below:

A. i and ii

B. ii and iii

C. i, ii and iii

D. i and iii

84. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

List I (PLAN MODEL)

List II (PROPOSER)

I Bombay plan 1 Jai Prakash Narayan

II Gandhian Plan 2 M N Roy III Peoples’s Plan 3 Sriman Narayan IV Sarvodaya Plan 4 Birla and Tata

Groups

Choose the correct option

I II III IV

A 4 2 3 1

B 4 1 2 3

C 4 3 2 1

D 4 3 1 2

85. Which of the following can be used for checking inflation temporarily?

A. Increase in wages B. Decrease in money supply C. Decrease in taxes D. None of these

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14

86. Which of the following is not true about sea floor spreading?

A. There is constant creation of new oceanic crust at the oceanic ridges

B. There is eruption of magma at the oceanic ridges

C. Spreading of one ocean leads to shrinking of another ocean

D. Sediments on the ocean floor are thinner than expected

87. Which of the following landforms are not formed by glaciers

A. Cirques B. Glacial troughs C. Moraines D. Playas

88. Which of the following statements are true about red soil

A. Red soil is derived from igneous rocks in area of low rainfall

B. The colour of soil is red due to mangnesium oxides

C. They are rich in nitrogen and lime D. They are moisture retentive

89. The pattern of planetary winds depends on the following

i. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating

ii. Emergence of pressure belts iii. Migration of pressure belts iv. Land and sea distribution


A. i only B. i,ii and iv only C. i and iii only D. All the above

90. Which among the following a line or surface drawn on a map or chart indicates connected point of equal salinity in the ocean?

A. Isotherm B. Isohaline C. Isogyre D. Isodiaphere

91. Continental drift theory was put forward by

A. Arthur Holmes B. Alfred Wegner C. Abraham Ortelius D. Mc Kenzie and Parker

92. The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India, is known as

A. Ganga B. Indus C. Brahmaputra D. Mahanadi

93. Which of the following areas or regions is most prone to earthquakes?

A. Ganga-Brahmaputra valley B. Deccan plateau C. Plains of northern India D. Western Ghats

94. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?

i. It is largely practiced in Assam ii. It is referred to as 'slash and

burn' technique iii. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a

few years


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A. Only i & ii B. Only ii & iii C. Only i & iii D. All the above

95. The significant shifts in Indian

agriculture during green revolution

include

a. Non-food grains reported some

spectacular progress and shift in

the cropping pattern

b. Major food grains, in the eastern

regions productions decreased

and in the northern states

increased


codes given below:

A. Only a

B. Only b

C. Both (a) and (b)


96. Which of the following types of soil

are mostly confined to river basins and

coastal plains of India?

A. Alluvial soils

B. Black soils

C. Laterite soils

D. Red soils

97. Consider the diagram below.

The diagram shows the position of

the Earth, the moon and the Sun

where

A. Only situation A explains the

spring tides

B. Only situation B explains the

spring tides

C. Both A and B explains the

spring tides

D. None of these explains the

spring tides

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98. Pre monsoon showers in karnataka

are

i. Also called as mango showers

ii. Due to sea breezes over the

Maidan

iii. Develop due to low pressure

during the summer months

iv. The rainfall generally exceeds

50cms


codes given below:

A. Only i

B. Only i and ii.

C. Only i, ii and iii

D. All the above

99. Which of the passes of Karnataka

given below and their locations are

matched properly?

i. Kollur Ghat: Udupi district

ii. Agumbe Ghat: between

chikmagalur and Mangalore

iii. Charmadi Ghat: between

Shimoga and Udupi


code given below:

A. i only

B. i and ii only

C. i and iii only

D. i, ii and iii

100. Which is the most common type of

soil found in Karnataka?

A. Red Soil

B. Back Soil

C. Laterite Soil

D. Alluvial Soil

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1. AFSPA is currently applicable in which of the following states

i. Assam ii. Jammu and Kashmir

iii. Punjab iv. Arunachal Pradesh


A. Only i B. Only i and ii C. Only i, ii and iv D. All the above

2. Which of the following is true about Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?

i. Flagship programme for universalizing elementary education

ii. Seeks to open new schools in those habitations which do not have schooling facilities

iii. Strengthen existing school infrastructure

iv. Has special focus on girl's education and children with special needs.


A. i only B. i,ii and iii only C. All the above D. None of the above

3. Under the revised Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar, which of the following categories has been included into the award criteria?

i. Identification and nurturing of budding/young talent.

ii. Employment of sportspersons and provide sports welfare measures.


A. i only


4. What are the salient features of Sukanya Samridhi Yojana

i. It is meant for girl child of 10 years

or above.

ii. It can be opened with nil-balance.

iii. Girl child receives free 1 lakh

accident insurance and 30,000 life

insurance tied up with her account.


A. Only i and ii B. Only ii and iii C. Only i and iii D. None of them

5. Consider the following statement with respect to National Optical Fibre Network Project

i. It is Being implemented by Department of Telecommunications (DOT)

ii. It is aimed at connecting 22,50,000 Gram Panchayats in the country with a minimum 500Mbps bandwidth internet

iii. It is funded by Universal Service Obligation

Which of the following statement is true?

A. i and ii only B. i only C. i and iii only D. i, ii and iii

6. The recently launched programme called Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana is aimed at promoting

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A. Organic Farming B. Plantation in the North east states C. Oil seed cultivation D. Minor Irrigation

7. Identify the correct statement about the proposed Investigative Units on Crimes against Women (IUCAW)?

A. This scheme is externally funded

by the World Bank

B. Under this scheme, each state

capital / UT and all metro cities

will have dedicate police units for

crime against women

C. These units will be given

additional powers to search-seize

and arrest beyond the traditional

powers available to a police office

under CrPC.

D. These units will be on 50:50 cost

sharing basis between Union :

State

8. 121st Constitutional Amendment Bill,

2014 which got president assent on 31st

December deals with

A. Establishment of National Judicial

Appointments Commission (NJAC)

B. Goods and services Tax (GST)

C. Agreement to transfer land to

Bangladesh, on the basis of Indo-

Bangladesh Land transfer

agreement

D. Special status to Hyderabad

Karnataka region

9. Under Land ordinance 2014, who among the following can acquire private land for public purpose?

i. One person company ii. Public limited company

iii. private limited company iv. Educational trust. v. Religious charity organization


A. Only ii and iii B. Only i, ii and iii C. Only i, ii, iii and iv D. All of them

10. Who became the 4th Indian to enter the ICC cricket hall of fame recently?

A. Anil Kumble B. Sachin Tendulkar C. Kapil Dev D. Mahendra Singh Dhoni

11. Sec 66 A of IT Act which was recently annulled by the SC had jurisdiction over following

A. Information posted by making use of such computer resource or a communication device, causing insult, injury, criminal intimidation, enmity, hatred or ill will

B. Websites which could affect sovereignty and integrity of the country, defence, security, friendly relations with foreign states

C. Information posted online with the criminal intent in striking terror in the minds of people

D. Information posted online with the purpose of religious incitement

12. Declining oil prices will lead to increase in GDP growth by

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i. Adding to spending power of the households

ii. Increase profit margins of the corporates

iii. Increasing foreign inflows


A. Only 1 B. Only 1 and 2 C. Only 2 and 3 D. All the above

13. Which of the following natural resources garnered a whopping amount of revenue for the nation upon auctioning?

A. Coal mines B. Telecom spectrum C. Land D. Petroleum reserves

14. Disaster management is under which list in 7th schedule

A. Central list B. State list C. Concurrent list D. None of the above

Question 15 and 16 contain two statements I and II. Answer these using the following codes to identify the “True statements:

Code:

A. Both the statements are true B. Only statement I is true C. Only statement II is true D. Both statement are false

15.

I. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen

Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is a

Ministry of Rural Development

initiative for developing skills in

Rural Area

II. Swavalamban Yojana is a scheme

for Physical Rehabilitation of

disabled, which includes early

detection and intervention,

counselling & medical

interventions and provision of

aids & appliances

16

I. India has the second largest

foreign exchange reserve holder

as on 6th February, 2015

II. China has the largest foreign

exchange reserve in the world.

17. Mobile commerce service M-Pesa is an initiative of whom among the following

i. Vodafone India ii. ICICI Bank

iii. Airtel iv. HDFC

Which among the following codes are correct?

A. i and ii only B. ii and iii only C. iii and iv only D. i, ii and iv only

18. Which variable has been excluded by




B. Forest Cover

C. Area

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D. Education


about Goods and Services Tax (GST) is

correct?

i. Imports would be zero rated

ii. An integrated GST would be levied

on interstate supply

iii. It will be a Origin-based tax as

against the present destination-

based tax


given below

A. i and ii only

B. i and iii only

C. ii only

D. i, ii and iii

20. The main objective of GAAR is to

A. Prevent tax avoidance

B. To recover the black money

stashed abroad

C. To prevent tax evasion

D. To strengthen bond market


about Falling Global Crude Prices is/are

correct?

i. Due to weakening of demand for

crude oil in the economies of Asia,

especially china and Europe

ii. Exploration of shale gas by

countries like US and Canada has

led to lower demand for oil


given below:

A. i only

B. ii only

C. Both i and ii

D. Neither i nor ii

22. What are the functions of Food

Corporation of India (FCI)

i. public procurement of foodgrains

ii. storage of foodgrains

iii. distribution of foodgrains


given below:

A. Only i and ii

B. Only ii and iii

C. Only i and iii

D. All of them

23. Public debt management agency proposed in the recent budget will help in

i. Development of the bond market in the country

ii. Regulating government lending iii. Preventing leakages of public

funds iv. Bringing in fiscal discipline


A. i and ii only B. i, ii and iii only C. i, iii and iv only D. All of the above

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24. Priority sector includes lending to the following sectors

i. Agriculture ii. Micro, Small and medium

enterprises, iii. Education iv. Social infrastructure v. sanitation

vi. renewable energy


A. Only i and ii B. Only i, ii, iii and iv C. i, ii, iii, iv and v D. All the above

25. Which of the following is incorrect about the Forwards Market Commission?

A. It’s a statutory body B. It regulates the commodity market in

India C. It functions under the ministry of

finance D. It has powers to investigate and

prosecute cases of commodity market irregularities

26. Which of the following is not true about INS Kolkata (D63)

A. It is second largest destroyer to be operated by Indian Navy after INS Delhi

B. It was commissioned by Prime Minister on 16th August, 2014

C. It was Built at Maza Dock Limited, Mumbai

D. It fitted with advance stealth technology

27. The Aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov has been renamed and commissioned into Indian Navy as

A. INS VIRAAT B. INS VIKRANT C. INS VISHAL D. INS VIKRAMADITYA

28. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

A. Akash- Surface to Surface Missile

B. Nag-Surface to Air Missile C. Brahmos-Cruise missile D. Sagarika-Submarine Launched

Ballistic Missile (SLBM)

29. Which country is set to become the

first country to legalize creation of

three-parent IVF designer babies using

Mitochondrial Donation Technique?

A. United Kingdom

B. Switzerland

C. United States of America

D. Brazil

30. Consider the following statement regarding Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB).

i. It is a multilateral development bank to provide finance to infrastructure projects in the Asia-Pacific region

ii. It has been promoted by the United States to counter the China influence in the region

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. i only

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31. Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from

A. Egypt B. Lebanon C. Syria D. Tunisia

32.

REGION OFTEN IN NEWS

COUNTRY

i. Kiev Ukraine ii. Darfur Mali iii. Swat Valley Pakistan

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. iii only B. ii and iii only C. i and iii only D. i, ii and iii

33. Which of the following is not a party to Central Asian Nuclear-Weapon-Free-Zone (CANWFZ) treaty

A. Kazakhstan B. Kyrgyzstan C. Tajikistan D. Afghanistan

34. Houthi tribes are

A. Rebels in Yemen who caused the fall of the government in yemen

B. Particularly vulnerable tribe in Assam

C. Group of nomadic tribes in Karnataka famous for bee keeping


35. ‘Maitri’ project for the co-development of a short Range Surface-to-air Missile is between India and

A. Israel B. Russia C. France D. Britain

36. Following the cancellation of more than 200 coal mines allocated by the government between 1993 and 2010, the government is preparing to auction or allocate ______ coal mines in the 1st round.

A. 110 B. 101 C. 121 D. 130

37. Cyclone Hudhud (name given by Oman) that hit the odisha and Andhra Pradesh Coast on October is named after a

A. Afro-Eurasian bird B. State dish of Oman C. The 2nd largest city of Oman D. River in Oman

38. Pekiti-Tirsia Kali is

A. A style of martial arts that has its origin in Philippines.

B. A Women self help group scheme of West Bengal

C. A form of Ancient medicine promoted under AYUSH mission

D. A new all women battalion of the BSF

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39. In which state a proposal to setup an IIT was taken in the recent union Budget?

A. Telangana B. Goa C. Karnataka D. Andrapradesh

40. What is Bitcoin?

A. It is a form of digital currency B. It is Indian domestic card scheme

conceived and launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

C. It is a new digital encrypted system to prevent forgery of currency

D. It is the first digital bank of India

41. Who of the following leader died on the day when Non-cooperation Movement was launched in 1920?

A. Pheroz shah Mehta B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale D. C.R. Das

42. Which Movement was launched along with the Khilafat Movement?

A. Swadeshi movement B. Home rule movement C. Civil Disobedience movement D. Non-cooperation Movement

43. M.K. Gandhi applied his "Satyagraha" first against?

A. The European Indigo Planters B. The mill owners of Ahmedabad C. The British Government D. The racist authorities of South

Africa

44. Gandhiji returned from South Africa on?

A. 1914 May 21 B. 1914 August 18 C. 1915 March 19 D. 1915 January 9

45. The first round table conference was held in

A. London B. Edinburgh C. Delhi D. Calcutta

46. Tripitakas are sacred books of

A. Buddhists B. Hindus C. Jains D. None of the above

47. Which Governor Generals of India is known as the father of Indian Civil Services

A. Lord Cornwallis B. Warren Hastings C. Lord Wellesley D. Lord William Bentinck

48. Who started Bhoodan Movement?

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Jayaprakash Narayan

C. Swami Vivekananda

D. Acharya Vinoba Bhave

49. The National Song of India was

composed by

A. Rabindranath Tagore

B. Bankim Chandra Chatterji

C. Iqbal

D. Jai Shankar Prasad

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Card_scheme



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50. Subhas Chandra Bose organized the

Indian soldiers taken as prisoners by

an Axis power into the Azad Hind Fauj

by an agreement. The Axis power was

A. China

B. Germany

C. Italy

D. Japan

51. The Non-Cooperation Movement in

1920 was withdrawn

A. Because of Gandhiji’s ill-health

B. Due to extremist policy then

adopted by the National congress

C. On a fervent appeal from the

Government

D. Because of violence at Chauri-

Chaura

52. Krishnadevaraya was given the title

of

A. Gajabentekara

B. Bhashege tappuva rayara

ganda

C. Mooru rayara ganda

D. Yavana Rajya Sthapanacharya

53. The treaty of Srirangapatna was

signed between Tipu Sultan and

A. Robert Clive

B. Cornwallis

C. Dalhousie

D. Warren Hastings

54. Which of the following are the cause

that led to the movement for Unification in

Karnataka?

i. Renaissance in Karnataka

ii. Pro unification policies of Nizam of

Hyderabad

iii. Belgaum Congress in 1924

iv. Karnataka State Political

Conference, Dharwad in 1920

Select the correct code

A. i ii and iv only

B. i iii and iv only

C. i and iii only

D. i ii and iv ony

55. Mysore congress held its first

conference at

A. Sivapur

B. Ankola

C. Sirsi

D. Siddapur

56. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a

joint sitting of the both the houses of

Indian parliament, it has to be passed by a

A. Simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting

B. Two-third majority of the total number of members of both the houses

C. Simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses

D. Two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting

57. Which one of the following has the right to address the Parliament?

A. Attorney General of India B. Chief election commissioner of

India C. Chief justice of India

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D. National security Advisor

58. Which one of the following statements about parliament of India is not correct?

A. The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of Government

B. The foremost function of the Parliament is to provide a Cabinet

C. The membership of the cabinet is restricted to the Lower House

D. The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the Popular Chamber

59. Which one of the following is a function of the Pro-Tem speaker of the Lok Sabha?

A. Conduct of the proceedings of the House in the absence of the speaker

B. To check if the election certificates of the members of the House are in order

C. Swear in the members of the House and hold the charge till a regular Speaker is elected

D. To endorse a bill as Money bill

60. The resolution for removing the vice-president of India can be moved in the

A. Lok Sabha alone B. Either House of Parliament C. Joint sitting of Parliament D. Rajya Sabha alone

61. The supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or act

A. On its own initiative B. Only if he seeks such advice C. Only if the matter relates to the

fundamental rights of citizens

D. Only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country

62. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of the Parliament

A. He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a non-confidence motion

B. He will not be able to speak on the Budget in the lower House

C. He can make statements only in the Upper House

D. He has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister

63. The President can be impeached for

A. Violating the constitution B. Disregarding parliament C. For not taking the advice of council

of minister D. All of the above

64. The name of the union given in the constitution is

A. Hindustan or Bharatavarsha B. India or Hindustan C. India or Bharat D. Bharatadesh or India

65. The purpose of the inclusion of

Directive Principles of state policy in

the Indian Constitution is to establish

A. Political democracy

B. Social democracy

C. Gandhian democracy

D. Social and economic democracy

66. The constitution of India recognizes

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A. Only religious minorities

B. Only Linguistic minorities

C. Religious and linguistic

minorities

D. Religious, Linguistic and ethnic

minorities

67. Which of the following rights are

available to Indian citizens as well as

foreigners residing in Indian territory?

i. Cultural and educational rights

ii. Right to freedom of religion

iii. Right against discrimination by

the state on grounds of religion,

race, caste, sex or place of birth

iv. Right to personal Liberty

Select the correct answer from the code

given below:

A. i and ii only

B. iii and iv only

C. ii and iv only


68. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that

A. He obtains permission from the Principal of his college

B. He is a member of a political party C. His name figures in the voters list D. He flies a declaration owing

allegiance of the constitution of India

69. Civil and political equality gives citizens

A. Right to vote and rights to be elected without any distinction of caste, religion, sex, property etc

B. Right to vote and right to be elected without any distinction of age, caste, creed or sex

C. Equal opportunity for taking part in elections

D. The right to occupy highest office in the state irrespective of qualifications

70. The preventive Detention Act has a restraining effect on

A. Right to Equality B. Right to Freedom C. Right to Religion D. Right to constitutional Remidies

71. The duties levied on alcoholic liquors, narcotic drugs and opium comes under

A. Central Excise Duty B. CENVAT C. State Excise Duty D. General Sales Tax

72. Protection means

A. Restriction imposed on import trade

B. Protection to home goods C. No free exchange of goods and

services between countries D. All of these

73. Agricultural income-tax is a source of revenue to

A. Central Government B. State Government C. Local administration D. Central and state Government

74. Which of the following is not the instrument of fiscal policy?

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A. Bank rate B. Government expenditure C. Taxes D. Licence fees

75. Consider the following statements about SDR(Special Drawing Right):

i. It is an international financing instrument

ii. It is created in 2000 iii. It is neither paper nor gold but an

accounting entry iv. IMF is associated with it


A. i and ii only B. i, ii and iii only C. i and iii only D. i, iii and iv only

76. With referece to steps taken to

achieve financial inclusion in India,

consider the following statements:

i. Nationalisation of banks

ii. Formation of RRBs

iii. Adoption of village by bank

branches


is/are correct?

A. i and ii

B. ii and iii

C. i and iii

D. i, ii and iii

77. Consider the following statement:

i. Fourteenth Finance commission

was set up in 2011

ii. Fourteenth Finance commission

was set under chairmanship of

Yaga Venugopal Reddy

iii. To make recommendations on

the devolution of taxes, the

Fourteenth Finance commission

has been directed to use the

census figures of 1971


is/are correct?

A. i and ii

B. ii and iii

C. i and iii

D. i, ii and iii

78. Commercialisation of agriculture

implies

A. Cultivation of timbers

B. Plantation

C. Production of crops for sale

D. Production of crops like wheat

and rice

79. Quota (in cross border trade) is

A. Tax on imports

B. Imports of capital goods

C. Limit on quantity of imports

D. Limit on quantity of exports

80. Open market operations of the RBI

mean

A. Buying and selling of shares

B. Auctioning of foreign exchange

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C. Trading in securities

D. Transacting in gold

81. Mixed economy means

A. Co-existence of small and large

industries

B. Promoting both agriculture and

industries in the economy

C. Co-existence of public and

private sectors

D. Co-existence of rich and poor


regarding new Corporate Social

Resposibility (CSR) rules:

i. Companies to spend 2% of their

3 years average annual net profit

on CSR activities

ii. Surplus from CSR activities can

become a part of the profit of the

company

iii. All CSR activities will have to be

within India

iv. The new rules will not be

applicable to the foreign

companies registered in India


is/are correct?

A. i and ii

B. i and iii

C. i, ii and iii


83. Too much of import of gold by India

adversely affects:

i. Trade balance

ii. Current account balance

iii. Capital account balance


codes given below:

A. i and ii

B. ii and iii

C. i, ii and iii

D. i and iii

84. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

List I (PLAN MODEL)

List II (PROPOSER)

I Bombay plan 1 Jai Prakash Narayan

II Gandhian Plan 2 M N Roy III Peoples’s Plan 3 Sriman Narayan IV Sarvodaya Plan 4 Birla and Tata

Groups

Choose the correct option

I II III IV

A 4 2 3 1

B 4 1 2 3

C 4 3 2 1

D 4 3 1 2

85. Which of the following can be used for checking inflation temporarily?

A. Increase in wages B. Decrease in money supply C. Decrease in taxes D. None of these

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86. Which of the following is not true about sea floor spreading?

A. There is constant creation of new oceanic crust at the oceanic ridges

B. There is eruption of magma at the oceanic ridges

C. Spreading of one ocean leads to shrinking of another ocean

D. Sediments on the ocean floor are thinner than expected

87. Which of the following landforms are not formed by glaciers

A. Cirques B. Glacial troughs C. Moraines D. Playas

88. Which of the following statements are true about red soil

A. Red soil is derived from igneous rocks in area of low rainfall

B. The colour of soil is red due to mangnesium oxides

C. They are rich in nitrogen and lime D. They are moisture retentive

89. The pattern of planetary winds depends on the following

i. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating

ii. Emergence of pressure belts iii. Migration of pressure belts iv. Land and sea distribution


A. i only B. i,ii and iv only C. i and iii only D. All the above

90. Which among the following a line or surface drawn on a map or chart indicates connected point of equal salinity in the ocean?

A. Isotherm B. Isohaline C. Isogyre D. Isodiaphere

91. Continental drift theory was put forward by

A. Arthur Holmes B. Alfred Wegner C. Abraham Ortelius D. Mc Kenzie and Parker

92. The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India, is known as

A. Ganga B. Indus C. Brahmaputra D. Mahanadi

93. Which of the following areas or regions is most prone to earthquakes?

A. Ganga-Brahmaputra valley B. Deccan plateau C. Plains of northern India D. Western Ghats

94. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?

i. It is largely practiced in Assam ii. It is referred to as 'slash and

burn' technique iii. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a

few years


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15

A. Only i & ii B. Only ii & iii C. Only i & iii D. All the above

95. The significant shifts in Indian

agriculture during green revolution

include

a. Non-food grains reported some

spectacular progress and shift in

the cropping pattern

b. Major food grains, in the eastern

regions productions decreased

and in the northern states

increased


codes given below:

A. Only a

B. Only b

C. Both (a) and (b)


96. Which of the following types of soil

are mostly confined to river basins and

coastal plains of India?

A. Alluvial soils

B. Black soils

C. Laterite soils

D. Red soils

97. Consider the diagram below.

The diagram shows the position of

the Earth, the moon and the Sun

where

A. Only situation A explains the

spring tides

B. Only situation B explains the

spring tides

C. Both A and B explains the

spring tides

D. None of these explains the

spring tides

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98. Pre monsoon showers in karnataka

are

i. Also called as mango showers

ii. Due to sea breezes over the

Maidan

iii. Develop due to low pressure

during the summer months

iv. The rainfall generally exceeds

50cms


codes given below:

A. Only i

B. Only i and ii.

C. Only i, ii and iii

D. All the above

99. Which of the passes of Karnataka

given below and their locations are

matched properly?

i. Kollur Ghat: Udupi district

ii. Agumbe Ghat: between

chikmagalur and Mangalore

iii. Charmadi Ghat: between

Shimoga and Udupi


code given below:

A. i only

B. i and ii only

C. i and iii only

D. i, ii and iii

100. Which is the most common type of

soil found in Karnataka?

A. Red Soil

B. Back Soil

C. Laterite Soil

D. Alluvial Soil


regarding the Jyothi Sanjeevini Scheme

i. It a health scheme for Government

employees

ii. The scheme also covers the

dependent spouses, parents and

dependent children

iii. It is a cashless treatment against

seven life threatening

ailments/hazards

iv. Suvarna Arogya Surakasha Trust will

administer the programme

Select the correct statement using the code

given below:

A. i only

B. i, ii and iii only

C. i and iii only


2. Which is not a service provided by

Karnataka MobileOne?

A. Bill payments

B. Redressal of issues like road potholes

or street lights

C. Online FIR from police

D. Information to Farmers about

monsoon, market rates and subsidies.

3. Government of India has recently

launched National Heritage City

Development and Augmentation Yojana

(HRIDAY) in 12 cities across India. Which

Historical place from Karnataka is included

under this scheme?

A. Badami

B. Hampi

C. Mysore

D. Srirangapatna

4. Who is the recipient of the 2014 Sahitya

Akademi Award for Kannada?

A. Gopal Krishna Pai

B. H.S Shivaprakash

C. C N Ramachandran

D. Govindray H Nayak

5. Ricky Kej won this years Grammy Award in

the Best new Age Album category for his

collaborated album called

A. Winds of Samsara

B. Winds of change

C. Winds of winter

D. Winds of rath

6. Abhaya is a scheme lauched by Mysore

City Police for the safety of

A. Women

B. Senior citizens

C. School children

D. Tourists

7. e-Sugam is an initiative by

A. Ministry of women and child

development

B. Department of Agriculture

C. Depatment of Commercial tax

D. Ministry of Home

8. What is the objective of Suryajyothi

scheme?

A. To provide Solar lighting to Poor

farmers belonging to SC and ST

B. To provide Solar water heaters at

subsidised rates

C. To provide Solar lamp to all

government school children

D. To provide solar powered pump sets

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respect to Gourava Yojane

A. Under the scheme financial

assistance is provided to rural families

to construct bathroom cum toilet

B. Beneficiaries have to belong to BPL

families

C. Construction will be under NREGA

D. Beneficiaries would be shortlisted by

MLA concerned

10. Namma Bhoomi is

A. An online delivery and management

of land record project

B. Software to identify illegal

construction under akrama sakrama

C. Scheme for landless

D. Name of the textbook that has been

introduced in the Primary school

11. Consider the following statement with respect to Ksheera Bhagya Yojane

i. It is Nutritional supplementary Programme

ii. The Nodal agency is the Department of Education

iii. 150 ml of milk is provided 3 times a week to school children at Government schools only

Select the correct statement using the code given below:

A. i only

B. i, ii and iii only

C. i and ii only

D. i, and iii only

12. Consider the following statement with

respect to Vidyasiri scheme

i. It is a scheme to provide free hostel

facility to students

ii. The scheme was originally for

students belonging to OBC, has been

extended to SC/ST postgraduate

student in the 2014-15 budget.

Select the correct statement using the code

given below:

A. i only

B. ii only

C. Both i and i

D. Neither i nor ii

13. Who among the following will be the

beneficiary of Mukhyamantrigala Santhwana

Yojane?

A. Rape Victim

B. Victims of Bonded labour

C. Industrial workers who sustain

injuries during work

D. Victims of Road accident

14. Who won the best Actor award in the

62nd National film awards for his

performance in Nannau Avanalla Avalu?

A. Sanchari Vijay

B. Marasu Manjunath

C. Charuhasan

D. Bobby Simha

15. Manaswini is a scheme for

A. Unmarried or divorced women of age

40-65 age

B. Women above the age of 65

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C. Unmarried women belonging to

Minority communities

D. Working mothers

16. The beneficiary of Ashakiran includes:

A. Sports persons from the state

B. Physically challenged person

C. Children suffering from mental

disorder

D. Old aged person without home

17. Consider the following statement with

respect to Jaladhara.

i. It aims at providing drinking water

facility through tap connection

ii. It will cover all household in rural

area


given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


regarding Kannada Sahitya Parishat

i. Its head quarter is located at

Bangalore

ii. It is under the ministry of Higher

education


given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

19. Who presided over the 81st Kannada

Sahitya Sammelana?

A. Na D'Souza

B. KO.Chanabassapa

C. Siddalingaiah

D. Devanooru Mahadeva

20. What was the demand of Gokak

agitation?

A. Demand for special status to

Hyderabad-Karnataka

B. Demand to give Kannada language

first-language status in Karnataka

C. Against the verdict of Kaveri water

tribunal

D. Against Marati influence in Belgaum

21. The proposed reservoir at Mekedatu is

proposed to be built across

A. River Cauvery

B. River Nethravathi

C. River Bhima

D. River Godavari

22. Power supply in Karnataka is

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i. Free of cost for the agricultural

purposes

ii. Is provided at a subsidised cost for

agricultural purpose

iii. Provided at subsidised cost only in

rural areas

Which of the above statements are true?


A. Only 1

B. Only 1 and 2

C. Only 1 and 3


23. Karnataka Legislators’ Local Area

Development Scheme involves

i. Investment in development

programmes based on a sectoral

planning process

ii. A participatory demand responsive

development approach to address

infrastructure development

requirements of the local area within

a Legislator's Constituency

Which of the above is true? Choose the

correct codes from below

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither of the above

24. Karnataka Udyog Mitra

A. Is specially meant for the

promotion and facilitation of

investments in the State.

B. Is a specially designed placement

cell for migrant population

C. Is meant for skill development

programme under skill India

programme

D. Extension centre for young

entreprenuers belonging to SC and

ST

25. Which of the following is true

i. Bengaluru, is the 4th Best

Technology Hub in the world

ii. The share of Karnataka in IT

exports is nearly 38% of the

country's exports.


A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2


26. Which of the following is not true

about Karnataka I4 Policy ?

A. Land allotment for companies

linked to employment

generation

B. Sole focus on Bangalore rural

and urban areas

C. Start-up companies to be

provided internet at

concessional rates

D. Skill development programme

for training unemployed youth

in basic IT/BPO/ESDM/Telecom

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27. Which of these form part of

Karnataka’s exports

i. Electronics and computer

software

ii. Petroleum and petroleum

products

iii. Gems& jewellery

Select from codes below

A. Only 1

B. Only 1 and 3

C. Only 1 and 2

D. All the above

28. Which of the following schemes are

extended for the welfare of SC/STs

i. Ganga Kalyana Scheme

ii. Micro Credit Scheme

iii. Self-Employment Scheme

iv. Sandhya suraksha scheme


A. Only 1

B. Only 1,2 and 3

C. Only 1,2 and 4

D. All the above


Koushalya scheme?

i. Its extended for unemployed

women belonging to minority

communities

ii. Training in various computer

courses and plastic processing

technology


A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2


30. Match the programmes with its

objectives

Programmes Objective I Swavalambana 1 Financial

assistance for

Sports for

disabled II Prathibe 2 Financial

assistance for

Cultural

activities for

disabled III Sadhane 3 Insurance

scheme for

the disabled IV Niramaya 4 Margin Money

Loan Scheme

for minorities


below

I II III IV

A 3 4 1 2

B 3 4 2 1

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C 4 2 1 3

D 4 3 1 2

31. Grameena Punarvasathi Yojane

A. Scheme of education, training and

rehabilitation of persons with

disabilities

B. Provision of housing for SC/STs in

rural areas

C. Provision of shelter for STs

subjected to land alienation

D. Rehabilitation of migrant labour

32. Heritage Based Urban Development is

A. Aimed at better preservation the

various heritage sites of the

historical past

B. Aimed at improving the quality of

life and socioeconomic

development opportunities in

heritage towns and cities

C. Conserving the natural heritage

like various green belts, reserved

forests etc in urban areas

D. Identifying newer places of

archaeological importance and

developing them into tourist

hotspots

33. Which of the following statements is

true?

i. Karnataka is yet to implement its

first Biogas Plant unit to tackle its

Solid Waste Management

problems.

ii. Municipal Corporations

(Amendment) Act, 2013 imposes

penalties on the violators of rules

for waste disposal

iii. Karnataka doesn’t have

anIntegrated policy on Solid

Waste Management

Select from the code below

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3



Nanna Mane scheme?

i. Affordable Housing for

Belowpoverty line people

ii. Aimed at Auto drivers, Film

Industryworkers, Unorganized

sector workers,Beedi workers,

Hamals Street Vendors etc

iii. Centrally sponsored scheme


A. Only 1

B. Only 1 and 2

C. Only 2

D. Only 2 and 3

35. Which of the following are true about

Comprehensive Horticulture Development

Scheme of Karnataka

i. It aims to divert farmers from

traditional agriculture crops to

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more income fetching

Horticultural crops.

ii. It also aims to decrease the post

harvest loss from 25% to 10% by

correcting the defects in post

harvest chain

iii. But fails to provide for a market

mechanism for sale of farmers’

horticultural produce

iv. There is no thrust on the newer

technological innovations in

farming


A. Only 1 and 2

B. Only 1 and 3

C. Only 1,2 and 3

D. All the above

36. Precision Farming in banana is a scheme

directed at

A. Schedule Caste/Schedule Tribe

farmers

B. Farmers in rainfed areas

C. Farmers in hilly areas

D. BPL farmers

37. CPCB has specified water quality criteria

depending on the designated best use and

activities in the river. Which of these classes

refer to drinking water

i. Class A

ii. Class B

iii. Class C

iv. Class D

v. Class E


A. Only 1

B. Only 1 and 2

C. Only 1 and 3


38. Which of the following statements

are true about Mahatma Gandhi National

Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

i. Aimed at enhancing livelihood

security in rural areas

ii. By providing at least 100 days of

guaranteed wage employment

iii. Provides unskilled manual work to

adult members of every

household who volunteer to work.

iv. It also involves generation of

productive assets in rural areas


A. Only 1

B. Only 1 and 2

C. Only 1 and 3

D. All the above

39. Tamarind grove, Nallur; Hogrekhan,

Chikmaglur; GKVK,UAS Bangalore; and

Ambargudda, Shimoga are all example of

A. Conservation reserve

B. Botanical Garden

C. Heritage site

D. Biofuel Park

40. In Karnataka which type of irrigation

accounts for the highest proportion in

net irrigated area?

A. Tube wells/ bore wells

B. Canals

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C. Dug wells

D. Tanks

41. Horticulture is the science of

cultivation of:

1. Fruit.

2. Vegetables.

3. Flowers.


code given below:

A. 1 & 2 only.

B. 3 only.

C. 1, 2 & 3.

D. 1 & 3 only.

42. Consider the following statements with

regard to Thorium based nuclear power

plants:

Assertion: Thorium cannot be used directly

to produce nuclear energy.

Reason: Thorium does not contain any fissile

material.

A. Assertion & Reason both are

correct and Reason is the correct

explanation.

B. Assertion & Reason both are

correct but reason is not the

correct explanation.

C. Assertion is wrong, Reason is

correct.

D. Assertion is correct, reason is

wrong.

43. Which of the following statements is/are

correct with regard to the Solar cell

technologies:

1. Crystalline silicon solar cells have a

greater market share than thin film

solar cells.

2. Thin film solar cells are cheaper

than crystalline silicon solar cells.

3. Crystalline silicon cells are more

efficient than thin film solar cells.

4. Both the technology operates on

the same photovoltaic principle.

5. Crystalline silicon solar cells are

more environmental friendly to

dispose than thin film solar cells at

the end of their respective lives


given below:

A. All except 2 & 5.

B. All except 2 & 3.

C. All except 3.

D. All the above options are wrong.

44. Which of the following statements is/are

correct about Dark Matter:

1. Dark matter does not interact with

any electromagnetic radiation.

2. Dark matter interacts with ordinary

matter through gravity only.

3. The force between dark matter and

ordinary matter is repulsive.


given below:

A. 1 only.

B. 1 & 2 only.

C. 2 & 3 only.

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D. 1, 2 & 3

45. What is Kessler Syndrome ?

A. A disease where human talk while

sleeping.

B. A rare viral disease causing

respiratory problems.

C. A problem found in space launch

vehicles.

D. Proliferation of space debris in low

earth orbit.

46. Consider the following statements.

1. IRNSS is an Independent regional

navigation satellite system being

developed by India.

2. IRNSS will provide Standard

Positioning Service (SPS) only.

3. IRNSS satellites revolve round the

earth at the height of about 18,000

km from the earth’s surface.


A. 1 only

B. 1 and3

C. 2 and 3

D. 1, 2 and 3

47. In year 2014, a drug named ZMapp was

approved by World Health

Organisation(WHO) to against

A. Ebola

B. Malaria

C. Tuberculosis

D. Dengue

48. Which of the following is not a feature of

Graphene?

A. Elastic

B. Lightweight

C. Weak

D. Flexible

49. Night blindness can be corrected by the

intake of ?

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B Complex

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin D

50. The purpose of Genetically modifying

brinjal and cotton as Bt-Brinjal, Bt-Cotton

was to make them?

A. Drought resistant

B. High yielding

C. Pest resistant

D. Short-duration crops

51. The release of which one of the

following into Ponds and wells helps in

controlling mosquitoes ?

A. Crab

B. Gambusia Fish

C. Dogfish

D. Snail

52. What is a Firewall in Computer Network?

A. An operating System of Computer

Network

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B. The physical boundary of Network

C. A web browsing Software

D. A system designed to prevent

unauthorized access

53. What is the difference between a CFL

and an LED lamp?

1. To produce light, a CFL uses

mercury vapour and phosphor

while an LED lamp uses semi-

conductor material.

2. The average life span of a CFL is

much longer than that of an

LED lamp

3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as

compared to an LED lamp.


is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2

C. 1 and 3

D. All the above

54. Which of the following is used in

pencils?

A. Graphite

B. Silicon

C. Charcoal

D. Phosphorous

55. Consuming unsaturated fats reduce the

occurrence of cardiovascular problems like

stroke, heart failure and heart attacks.

Which of the following are rich sources of

unsaturated fats

1. olive oil

2. leafy greens

3. fish

4. coconut oil

5. butter

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

A. 1 and 3Only

B. 1,2 and 3 only

C. 1,2 ,3 and 4

D. All the above

56. Which of the following are biofuels

1. Biogas

2. Bioethanol

3. Syngas

4. Green diesel


given below:

A. 1 and 2

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1, 2 and 4

D. All the above

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true

1. Carbon di oxide is not a

greenhouse gas

2. Nitrogen dioxide and methane are

greenhouse gases produced from

agricultural fields

3. The greenhouse effect is due to

impermeability of long

wavelength radiations through the

atmosphere


given below:

A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 3

C. 2 and 3

D. All the above

58. Which of the following are techniques of

preventing soil erosion?

1. Terrace cultivation

2. Contour ploughing

3. Jhuming

4. Strip cropping


given below:

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1, 3 and 4


not true

1. Ultra violet rays strike on the

earth due to depletion of ozone

layer

2. Wet scrubbers method is used to

remove sulphur dioxide and

ammonia from the polluted aur

3. Compound of mercury cause

minamata disease


given below:

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. All of these

D. None of these

60. Which of the following are characteristics of persistent organic pollutants

1. Highly toxic to humans and the environment

2. Persistent in the environment, resisting bio-degradation

3. Taken up and bio-accumulated in terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems

4. Capable of long-range, transboundary atmospheric transport and deposition


A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3

D. All the above

61. Septic tank is:

A. An aerobic attached growth

treatment system

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B. An aerobic suspended growth

biological treatment system

C. An anaerobic attached growth

biological treatment system

D. An anaerobic suspended growth

treatment system

62. Biological oxygen demand of ______ is

the least.

A. sewage

B. sea water

C. pure water

D. polluted water

63. The three primary soil macronutrients

are

A. carbon, oxygen, and water.

B. copper, cadmium, and carbon.

C. potassium, phosphorus, and

nitrogen.

D. boron, zinc, and manganese.

64. Identify the correctly matched pairs

1. Basel convention-biodiversity

convention

2. Montreal protocol- ozone

conservation

3. Kyoto protocol-climate change

4. Ramsar convention-endangered

species conservation


given below:

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 1 and 4

65. A recent study taken up by a team of

researchers from the Zoological Survey of

India (ZSI), Chennai, brought to light the

serious threat of extinction the coral reef

colonies and mangrove forests in the Palk

Bay are facing. The probable reasons for this

decline are:

1. Global Warming.

2. Siltation.

3. Overgrowth of Algae.


given below:

A. 1 & 2 only.

B. 1 & 3 only.

C. 2 & 3 only.

D. 1, 2 & 3


correct with regard to Red tide – a term

used to describe Harmful Algal Blooms

(HABs) in marine coastal areas.

1. These blooms are not associated

with tides.

2. HABs tint the seawater to a

reddish color.

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3. Not all algal blooms are harmful,

even those involving red

discoloration.


given below:

A. 1 & 3 only.

B. 1 & 2 only.

C. 2 & 3 only.

D. 1, 2 & 3

67. Which of the pairs are correctly matched

1. Olive Ridley sea turtle -

Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary.

2. Dolphins-Vikramshila Sanctuary

3. Indian Rhinos-Kaziranga National

Park


given below:

A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 3

C. All of these

D. None of these

68. REDD refers to

A. Reducing Emissions from

Deforestation and Forest

Degradation

B. Reducing Deforestation and

Land Degardation

C. Reducing Environmental

Degeneration and Land

Degaradation

D. Reducing Ecological Destruction

by Deforestation

69. Global warming has the following

effects

1. Earth’s crust is moving upwards in

the Northern Antarctic Peninsula

2. Rising sea levels

3. Disrupted monsoons

4. Ozone hole formation


code given below:

A. 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2

C. 1 ,2 and 3

D. All the above


aboutThe Jawaharlal Nehru National

Solar Mission

1. It is apart of National Action Plan on

Climate Change

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2. The Mission hasset a target of

deploying 2000 MW of grid

connected solar power by 2022

3. The first phase up to 2013 focussed

on promoting off-grid systems to

serve populations without access to

electricity

4. Phase II focuses on modest capacity

addition in grid-based systems.

Which of the above statements are

correct? Choose from the codes given

below

A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 3

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. All the above

Direction: (Q. No. 71 to 77) Read the three

passages given below and answer the

seven questions that follow based on the

information given in the passage.

Passages-1

Growth fuelled by energy intensive industry, urban crowding and deforestation has added to atmospheric concentrations of carbon, warming land and oean bringing extreme weather. Societal benefits of abating high levels of emissions far outweigh

the cost of doing so. Yet economists and policy makers have not drawn the implication of this calculus for the reform agenda, be it in trade energy or infrastructure. Sadly the costs of such neglect are large. Also, no country has enough motivation to confront global problems alone. Because only a part of the benefits of addressing those problems would accrue to countries taking action, while others have a free rid. The gains are also spread over time, beyond the horizon of politician’s interest. Such situations call for collective action even if they are not easy when many diverse countries are involved.

71. Which of the following is true in the

context of the passage?

A. Pollution from vehicles is the greatest

contributor to global warming

B. The rise of middle income countries

has doubled the level of green house

gases emissions

C. Urban crowding has resulted in

extreme weather conditions


72. According to the passage, why are

politicians reluctant to formulate

environmental reforms?

1. The expenditure on implementing

environmental reform does not justify

the benefits

2. Economic stability is a more pressing

concern for countries today

3. The impact of these policies will only

be felt in the long run which does not

benefit them politically

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given below:

A. Only 3

B. Only 1

C. 1 and 3

D. 2 and 3

73. Which of the following is a means to

reduce the environmental threat to growth?

A. Governments should conduct a cost

benefit analysis of various

environmental protection measures

and implement those which are cost

efficient

B. Participation of all countries in arriving

at consensus on measures necessary

to combat environment challenges to

growth

C. Scientists, not economists should

determine the risks of climate change


Passage-2

Could Washington, Madison, and the other

framers of the Federal Constitution revisit

the earth in this year 1922, it is likely that

nothing would bewilder them more than the

recent Prohibition amendment. Railways,

steamships, the telephone, automobiles,

flying machines, submarines – all these

developments, unknown in their day, would

fill them with amazement and admiration.

They would marvel at the story of the rise

and downfall of the German Empire; at the

growth and resent greatness of the Republic

they themselves had founded. None of

these things, however, would seem to them

to involve any essential change in the beliefs

and purposes of men as they had known

them. The Prohibition Amendment, on the

contrary, would evidence to their minds the

breaking down of a principle of government

which they had deemed axiomatic, the

abandonment of a purpose which they had

supposed immutable.

74. It can be inferred that the paragraph is

intended as

A. An introduction to a discussion of a

constitutional amendment

B. A summary of social and political

change since the writing of the Federal

Constitution

C. An introduction to a history of the

Constitution

D. A clarification of the author’s view of a

controversy

75. The author apparently believes that the

“principle of government” mentioned in the

last sentence is

A. Not implicit in the original Constitution

B. To be taken as true for all time

C. Apparently violated by the Prohibition

Amendment

D. An essential change in the beliefs of

the American people

Passage-3

I have previously defined a sanctuary as a

place where man is passive and the rest of

Nature active. But this general definition is

too absolute for any special case. The mere

fact that man has to protect a sanctuary

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17

does away with his purely passive attitude.

Then, he can be beneficially active by

destroying pests and parasites, like bot-flies

or mosquitoes, and by finding antidotes for

diseases like the epidemic which periodically

kills off the rabbits and thus starves many of

the carnivora to death. But, except in cases

where experiment has proved his

intervention to be beneficial, the less he

upsets the balance of Nature the better,

even when he tries to be an earthly

Providence

76. The author implies that his first

definition of a sanctuary is

A. Totally wrong

B. Somewhat idealistic

C. Unhelpful

D. Indefensible

77. The author’s argument that destroying

bot-flies and mosquitoes would be a

beneficial action is most weakened by all of

the following except

A. Parasites have an important role to

play in the regulation of populations

B. The elimination of any species can

have unpredictable effects on the

balance of nature

C. The pests themselves are part of the

food chain

D. These insects have been introduced to

the area by human activities

Directions (Qs 78-80): Read the passage

given below. Study the graph that follows

and answer the three items given below

the figure.

During a party, a person was exposed to

contaminated water. A few days later, he

developed fever and loose motions. He

suffered for some days before going to a

doctor for treatment. On starting the

treatment, he soon became better and

recovered completely a few days later. The

following graph show shows different

phases of the person’s disease condition as

regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.

78. Which region/regions of the curve

corresponds to incubation phase of the

infection?

A. A only

B. B only

C. B and C only

D. No part of the curve indicates the

incubation Phase

79. which region of the curve indicates that

the person began showing the symptoms of

infection?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

80. Which region of the curve indicates that

the treatment yielded effective relief?

A. C

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B. D

C. E

D. The curve doesnot indicate the

treatment

81. Ayesha's father was 38 years of age

when she was born while her mother was 36

years old when her brother four years

younger to her was born. What is the

difference between the ages of her parents?

A. 2 years

B. 4 years

C. 6 years

D. 8 years

82. If the average marks of three batches of

55, 60 and 45 students respectively is 50, 55,

60, then the average marks of all the

students is:

A. 53.33

B. 54.68

C. 55

D. none of these

83. Find the ratio in which rice at Rs. 7.20 a

kg be mixed with rice at Rs. 5.70 a kg to

produce a mixture worth Rs. 6.30 a kg.

A. 1:3

B. 2:3

C. 3:4

D. 4:5

84. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of

10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km

more. The actual distance travelled by him

is:

A. 50km

B. 56km

C. 70km

D. 80km

85. A sum of money at simple interest

amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854

in 4 years. The sum is:

A. Rs 650

B. Rs 690

C. Rs 698

D. Rs 700

86. The percentage increase in the area of a

rectangle, if each of its sides is increased by

20% is:

A. 40

B. 42

C. 44

D. 46

87. In a swimming pool measuring 90m by

40m, 150 men take a dip. If the average

displacement of water by man is 8 cubic

metres, what will be the rise in water level?

A. 33.33cm

B. 30cm

C. 20cm

D. 25cm

88. The population of a town increased from

1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in a decade. The

average percent increase of population per

year is:

A. 4.37%

B. 5%

C. 6%

D. 8.75%

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89. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells

40% apples and still has 420 apples.

Originally, he had:

A. 588 apples

B. 600 apples

C. 672 apples

D. 700 apples

90. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations

of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and

ten-rupee notes. The number of notes of

each denomination is equal. What is the

total number of notes that he has ?

A. 45

B. 60

C. 75

D. 90

91. A man has some hens and cows. If the

number of heads be 48 and the number of

feet equals 140, then the number of hens

will be:

A. 26

B. 24

C. 23

D. 22

92. When the following figure is folded to

form a cube, how many dots lie opposite the

face bearing five dots?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

93. Find the number of triangles in the given

figure.

A. 16

B. 18

C. 19

D. 21

Direction for Q.No 94-96: Study the

following figure and answer the questions

given below.

94. How many doctors are neither artists nor

players ?

A. 17

B. 5

C. 10

D. 30

95. How many doctors are both players and

artists?

A. 22

B. 8

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20

C. 3

D. 30

96. How many artists are players ?

A. 5

B. 8

C. 25

D. 16

Directions for the following four (4) items:

Given below are four items. Each item

describes a situation and is followed by

four possible responses. Indicate the

response you find most appropriate.

Choose only one response for each item.

The responses will be evaluated based on

the level of appropriateness for the given

situation.

[note: KPSC notification mentions that the

negative marking for the following questions

shall be inbuilt in the form of different marks

being awarded to the most appropriate and

not so appropriate answer for such

questions]

97. You are an employee in one of the

public enterprises. You have to make a

presentation in front of your customers

with one of your co-workers. Just before

stating the presentation, you found your

partner missing. You would

A. Take the suitable substitute partner

B. Not take part in the presentation

C. Deliver the whole presentation

alone

D. Get tense and frustrated

98. You are a manager of a construction

company. There have been regular

complaints about an employee by many

customers in written. You will

A. Punish the concerned employee

instantly

B. Sack the employee from the job as

it is affecting the working conditions

of the company

C. Call the concerned employee and

discuss the matter

D. Try to enquire about the concerned

employee from his co-workers and

till then give some assurance to the

customers

99. You are returning home and you find

a sealed envelope on the street. Its fully

addressed with unused stamps on it. You

would

A. Leave it there as it was and walk

away

B. Remove the stamps and destroy the

envelope

C. Open the envelope, find out who

has dropped by mistake and send it

to him if possible

D. Post it at the nearest post office

100. You are the head of a village

panchayat. In a national level meeting on

the success of a government project, you

have to make a presentation giving all

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21

the feedbacks. You have collected all the

data and some of the data that you have

gathered for the presentation opposes

the success of the project, some of the

important ministers are attending the

conference. What should you do?

A. Make the presentation giving all the

feedbacks and data despite the risk

of losing hold

B. Make the presentation on the basis

of only favouring data

C. Exaggerate the favourite data,

without much highlighting the

opposing data

D. Modify the opposing data to make

it upto the mark

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