Current Affairs MCQs [ 8 and 9 December 2017 ] PIB TheHindu IndianExpress & Other leading newspapers

Sumant Kumar, B.Tech NIT Allahabad sumant.magadh@gmail.com https://www.facebook.com/SumantKM/

Which of the following authorities falls under the purview of RTI ACT, 2005? 1. A body established

under constitution 2. An authority established

by state legislature 3. NGO substantially

financed by the Central Government

4. Central ministers Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes: 1. 1, 2 and 3 only 2. 2, 3 and 4 only 3. 1, 3 and 4 only

• A “public authority” is any authority or body or institution of self government established or constituted by or under the Constitution; or by any other law made by the Parliament or a State Legislature; or by notification issued or order made by the Central Government or a State Government.

• The bodies owned, controlled or substantially financed by the Central Government or a State Government and non-Government organisations substantially financed by the Central Government or a State Government also fall within the definition of public authority.

• The financing of the body or the NGO by the Government may be direct or indirect.

• Recently Delhi High Court has set aside the Central Information Commission order declaring Ministers

4. All of the above Ans A as “public authorities” and answerable under the Right to Information law.

With reference to Right to Information act, 2005, consider the following statements: 1. It can be used by the Non-

resident Indians (NRIs). 2. It is applicable for the entire

country. 3. Under the act, the information

can be obtained in vernacular language. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans C

• Under RTI act,2005 the term ‘information’ include all the material in written or digital form(e-mails etc.) with the public authority for whom the information is being asked.

• The right is applicable to all the states of India except J&K.

• Under the act, the information can be obtained by writing in English, Hindi or official language of the area.

• Information can be accessed by citizens (NRI part of it) and third party including public authority.

• Third party is defined in the act as person other than citizens.

Adherence by public authorities to Section 4 of the Right to Information Act can ensure/lead to which one of the following outcomes? a) Non-disclosure of any information that is regarded as ‘sensitive’ by the Government of the day b) Every officer appointed as Chief Information Commission will have a five year tenure regardless of his or her age at the time of appointment c) Enhancement of citizens’ participation in governance and lending transparency to Government functioning d) Timely designation of officers as Information Officers in all administrative units Solution: c.

‘Proactive disclosure provisions’ are provided for under which one of of the following sections of the Right to Information Act, 2005? a) Section 4 b) Section 8 c) Section 12 d) Section 24 Solution: a. Section 4 deals with voluntary disclosure by public authorities. In April 2017, the Commission directed the Environment Ministry that all biosafety data pertaining to GM Mustard and all other GMOs in pipeline be released as that is part of voluntary disclosure under Section 4 of the Right to Information Act.

Section 4 of the RTI Act contains the proactive disclosure norms (suo moto disclosure).

• Exceptions to disclosure (Section 8) • Constitution of CIC (Section 12) • Authorities exempted from the act to be listed in second schedule of the act (Section 24)

Which of the following bodies submit their annual report to the President? 1. Central Information

Commission 2. National Human Rights

Commission 3. Central Vigilance

Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only Ans C

• CIC submits an annual report to the Central Government which places the report before each houses of the parliament.

• NHRC submits its annual or special report to the Central Government and to the State Government concerned.

• These reports are laid before respective legislatures, along with a memorandum of action taken on the recommendations of the commission and the reasons for non-acceptance of any such recommendations.

• CVC = presents its annual report to the President.

CIC Central Information Commission & issues • established in 2005 under RTI Act (2005).

• a statutory body.

o not a constitutional body.

• not only advisory but also an action body.

• a high-powered independent body.

• looks into the complaints made to it and decide the appeals.

• It entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions, public sector undertakings, etc., under the Central Government and the Union Territories.

Which of the following are true about Israel :

1. Modi will be the first Indian Prime Minister to visit Israel.

2. the State of Israel, is a country in the Middle East, on the southeastern shore of the Mediterranean Sea and the northern shore of the Red Sea.

3. Israel has land borders with Lebanon to the north, Syria to the northeast, Jordan on the east, the Palestinian territories of the West Bank and Gaza Strip to the east and west, respectively, and Egypt to the southwest.

4. Israel's economy and technology center is Tel Aviv, while its seat of government and proclaimed capital is Jerusalem

Options : 1. 1, 2 and 3 Only 2. 1 and 2 only 3. 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. 3 and 4 Only

Ans : c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

UPSC Prelims 2003 Israel has common borders with: (a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt (b) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan (c) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt (d) Turkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen 46. (a) Israel has common borders with Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt.

The UN Security Council Resolution (UNSC) 478 1.Declared null and void the Israeli claim that Jerusalem “complete and united” is its capital 2.Provided a roadmap for the two-state solution 3.Was adopted unanimously by the UNSC Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Solution: a

That the presiding officer, while deciding a question under the Tenth Schedule, function as a tribunal was provided for by a) The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 b) The Supreme Court in the Kihoto Holohan case c) The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 d) The Supreme Court in the Krishna Kumar Singh case Solution: b • Any question regarding disqualification arising out of

defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House.

• Originally, the act provided that the decision of the presiding officer is final and cannot be questioned in any court.

• However, in Kihoto Hollohan case (1993), the Supreme Court declared this provision as unconstitutional on the ground that it seeks to take away the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts. It held that the presiding officer, while deciding a question under the Tenth Schedule, function as a tribunal. Hence, his decision like that of any other tribunal, is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala fides, perversity, etc. But, the court rejected the contention that the vesting of adjudicatory powers in the presiding officer is by itself invalid on the ground of political bias.

Consider the following statements about the Anti-Defection Law: 1.The President of India is constitutionally obliged to make rules for giving effect

The presiding officer of a house is empowered to make rules to give effect to the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. The Anti-Defection law has come to be criticised on the following grounds: • It does not make a differentiation between dissent and defection. It curbs the

legislator ’s right to dissent and freedom of conscience. • Its distinction between individual defection and group defection is irrational. • It does not provide for the expulsion of a legislator from his party for his

activities outside the legislature. • Its discrimination between an independent member and a nominated member

is illogical. If the former joins a party, he is disqualified while the latter is allowed to do the same.

• Its vesting of decision-making authority in the presiding officer is criticised on two

to the provisions of the Tenth Schedule 2.The law does not make a differentiation between dissent and defection Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b

o Firstly, he may not exercise this authority in an impartial and objective manner due to political exigencies.

o Secondly, he lacks the legal knowledge and experience to adjudicate upon the cases.

The Supreme Court of India’s famous judgement in the Kedar Nath Singh vs State of Bihar (1962) case is related to a) Inclusion of Property related legislations in the 9th Schedule b) Anti - defection activities c) Sedition law d) Right to property Solution: c)

Commonly referred to as the Anti-Defection Law, which one of the following amendments to the Constitution provided for the disqualification of the members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection from one political party to another? a) 44th Amendment Act of 1977 b) 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 c) 71st Amendment Act, 1992

d) 91st Amendment Act of 2003 Solution: b. The 91st Amendment Act modified the Tenth Schedule and made certain other amendments that strengthened the Anti-Defection Law.

A member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House if the Member under the Anti-Defection Law? 1. Joins a political party after being elected as an independent candidate 2. Abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his /her political party 3. Voluntarily gives up his/her membership of the political party from which

he/she had been elected to the House 4. Is expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected to the

House Upon expulsion from a political party, there is no automatic disqualification under the 10th Schedule of the Constitution from legislative assembly or Parliament and that member will continue as an unattached member as per the direction of the Speaker. However, if there is any overt act of either joining any other political party voluntarily or defies any whip of any political party then he will attract the provision of the 10th Schedule and action can be taken against him by the Speaker.

Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation (ALIMCO) is a

Which is the main aim of the National Skill Development Mission?

a) A private MNC specializing in providing affordable artificial limbs b) Public Sector Undertaking under Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment c) A government of Rajasthan undertaking d) None of the above Solution: b) The main objective of the UJALA scheme is to a) Provide affordable lighting to BPL families b) Promote efficient lighting c) Provide light for all villages d) None of the above Solution: b)

a) To provide outcome-based skill training to youth at village level b) To provide a strong institutional framework at the Centre and States for implementation of skilling activities in the country c) To provide skill training aligned to international standards for overseas employment in European and Gulf countries etc d) All of the above Solution: b) UDAAN scheme aims to a) Provide flight connectivity to small cities b) Upgrade small airports to enable them to handle commercial flight operations c) Encourage more people to fly by providing affordable flight choices d) None of the above Solution: d) UDAAN aims to develop skills of youth in J&K UDAN is a cheap airfare scheme.

UDAAN Ministry / Department : Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), State Government (Jammu & Kashmir), Corporates and National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) Scheme: • The programme aims to provide

skills training and enhance the employability of unemployed youth of J&K.

• The scheme covers graduates, post graduates and three year engineering diploma holders.

• Udaan Scheme provides exposure to youth of J&K to best of

UDAN - Regional Connectivity Scheme Ministry/Department: Ministry of Civil Aviation UDAN stands for Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik Objective: To get more people to fly in the smaller towns. To boost regional air connectivity and provide various incentives to airlines. Aims that at least half the seats on every flight should have a fare cap of Rs2,500 per seat per hour of flying. Scheme: • The UDAN scheme seeks to provide connectivity to un-served and under-

served airports of the country through revival of existing air-strips and airports.

• This first-of-its-kind scheme will ensure affordability, connectivity, growth and development.

• It aims to increase ticketing volume from 80 million to 300 million by 2022.

• Under it regional connectivity will be developed on market-based mechanism under which Airlines will bid for seat subsidies.

• It will create affordable yet economically viable and profitable flights on regional routes so that flying becomes affordable to the common man even in small towns.

• Under it, airlines will have complete freedom to enter into code sharing with larger airlines for connectivity and they will be exempted from various airport charges.

corporate India and corporate India to rich talent pool available in State.

• Airlines will have exclusive rights for three years to fly on a particular regional route.

• On these routes for regional flights Airfares will be capped at 2500 rupees for an hour’s flight.

• Central and State governments and airport operators will provide a financial stimulus in the form of concessions to airlines

• The mechanism of Viability Gap Funding (VGF) will be provided to interested airlines to kick-off operations from such airports so that the passenger fares are kept affordable

• Government will provide subsidy to airlines for first three years of operations when they will have exclusive flying rights on the selected routes.

• Once the market in these routes gets jump started, it will operate on a commercial basis as per market forces of supply and demand.

In reference to Aadhaar-based Biometric Authentication (ABBA), consider the following statements: 1. An eligible individual can

become a beneficiary, if only the aadhar number is seeded into household ration card.

2. Working of the PoS machine, being used for the project, depends entirely on internet connectivity.

Which of the following statement is correct?

• An eligible individual can become a beneficiary and access the PDS system only if her Aadhaar number is correctly seeded onto the PDS database and added to the household ration card.

• Successful working of the PoS machine depends entirely on internet connectivity as verification of the ration card number and the beneficiary’s biometric fingerprint is carried out over the internet.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 or 2

Ans C

With reference to Islamic banking, consider the following statements: 1. Islamic banking

uses equity-participation systems.

2. It prohibits collection and payment of interest by lenders and investors.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 1. Only 1 2. Only 2 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans C

Islamic banking is a banking system that is based on the principles of Islamic law, also referred to as Shariah law, and guided by Islamic economics. • Two basic principles behind Islamic banking are the

sharing of profit and loss and, significantly, the prohibition of the collection and payment of interest by lenders and investors.

• Collecting interest or “riga” is not permitted under Islamic law.

• In order to earn money without charging interest, Islamic banks use equity-participation systems. This means that if a bank loans money to a business, the business pays back the loan without interest, but it gives the bank a share in its profits. If the business defaults on the loan or does not earn any profits, the bank does not receive any profit either.

INS Kalvari, a Scorpene Submarine named after a deep-sea tiger shark, is going through the final phase of trials. The selection of names of ships and submarines of the Indian Navy is done by the a) A separate nomenclature committee of the Ministry of Defence b) The President of India c) A committee consisting of the Chief of the Naval Staff and all 4-star rank naval officers d) Chiefs of Staff Committee Solution: a.

• The selection of names of ships and submarines of the Indian Navy is done by the Internal Nomenclature Committee (INC) at the Defence Ministry. • The INC is headed by the Assistant Chief of the Naval Staff

(Policy & Plans), and has representatives from the historical section of the Defence Ministry, Department of Archaeology in the Ministry of Human Resource Development, and the Ministry of Surface Transport, among others.

• As per the policy guidelines, the recommendations of this committee are approved by the Navy Chief.

• Names, crests and mottos of major war vessels require the assent of the President as well.

• To maintain uniformity in the names of vessels of one type, the Internal Nomenclature Committee follows certain broad parameters, which have been enumerated in the policy guidelines. So, a cruiser or a destroyer is named after a state capital, a large city, or a great king or warrior from India’s history — for example, INS Delhi and INS Ranjit.

• Names of vessels in a certain class begin with the same letter, and describe similar/related objects.

‘Chillai-Kalan’ is a) A violent dust storm which blows during winter in the Thar. b) A 40-day harsh winter period in Kashmir. c) A peculiar weather phenomenon observed annually in Tripura when hailstones, rain and snow falls at the same time. d) A cold wind rushing down from the Eastern Himalayas in violent gusts between 60 and a 100 kilometres per hour. Solution: b. “Chillai-Kalan … is the period of winter when the chances of snowfall are usually most frequent and maximum.”

In the world of finance and business, a ‘Unicorn’ refers to a) A start-up with a stock market valuation of more than $1 billion. b) An environment-friendly start-up with a stock market valuation of more than $100 million. c) An investor who sells his stock in a start-up the moment its value begins to plummet. d) A start-up firm which specialises in keeping a lookout for takeovers. Solution: a. A unicorn, in the world of business, is a company, usually a start-up that does not have an established performance record, with a stock market valuation or estimated valuation of more than $1 billion. • The term was first popularized by the venture

capitalist Aileen Lee, according to whom, “Those that do reach the $1 billion mark are so rare that finding one is as difficult as finding a unicorn.”