Current Affairs MCQs [ 4 and 5 Nov 2017 ] PIB TheHindu IndianExpress & Other leading newspapers

Sumant Kumar, B.Tech NIT Allahabad sumant.magadh@gmail.com https://www.facebook.com/SumantKM/

Article 35A of the Constitution relating to A. special rights

and privileges of

Consider the following statements regarding Article 35A? A. It was added through the Constitution (Application to

Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954, issued under Article 370.

permanent residents of Jammu and Kashmir

B. Right to Life C. Right to

Privacy D. Special

status to Nagaland Ans A

B. Article 35A protects certain provisions of the J&K Constitution which denies property rights to native women who marry from outside the State. The denial of these rights extend to her children also.

C. Article 35A also empowers the State’s legislature to frame any law without attracting a challenge on grounds of violating the Right to Equality of people from other States or any other right under the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans D

With reference to Collegium System, consider the following statements: (Change both statements) A. The system is not mentioned in

the Indian Constitution. B. There are separate collegiums for

both Supreme Court and High Courts under this system.

Which of the statement(s) is/correct? A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans C

With reference to Public Distribution System, consider the following statements : A. Public Distribution System falls

under Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution.

B. Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS) aims to provide benefits to Co-operative Societies.

Which of the following statement is incorrect? A. only 1 B. only 2 C. both 1 and 2 D. neither 1 or 2

Ans B

The Collegium system is one where the Chief Justice of India and a forum of four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court recommend appointment and transfers of judges. It has no place in the Indian Constitution. Members of the Collegium System: • The Supreme Court collegium is headed

by the Chief Justice of India and comprises four other senior-most judges of the court.

• A High Court collegium is led by its Chief Justice and four other senior most judges of that court.

Public Distribution System was established by the Government of India under Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution and is managed jointly by state governments in India. (Revamped PDS) focuses on the poor families, especially in the far-flung, hilly, remote and inaccessible areas.

Which country has hosted the International Conference on “Ramayan Circuit and Mithila-Awadh Relations”? A. Nepal B. India C. Sri Lanka D. Myanmar

The International Conference on “Ramayan Circuit and Mithila-Awadh Relations” has started at Janakpur in Nepal on November 3, 2017. • Eminent experts from India and Nepal

are participating in 2 day event.

The joint training exercise “PRABAL DOSTYK – 2017″ has started between India and which of the following country? A. Israel B. Iran C. Myanmar D. Kazakhstan

The 14-day joint training exercise “PRABAL DOSTYK – 2017” has started between the Indian Army and the Kazakhstan Army at Bakloh, Himachal Pradesh. • The purpose of the joint exercise is to

enhance the military ties between the two countries as also at achieving interoperability between the two armies.

• The training contingents comprise of platoon strength from the 11th Gorkha Rifles of the

Indian Army and a similar strength of the Kazakhstan Army.

With reference to The Debts Recovery Tribunals (DBT), consider the following statements: A. DRTs take cases from

banks for disputed loans above Rs 20 Lakhs.

B. DBT was established to facilitate the debt recovery involving banks and other financial institutions.

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 or 2

Ans A The Debts Recovery Tribunals (DBT) take cases from banks for disputed loans above Rs 10 Lakhs. Debt Recovery Tribunals were established to facilitate the debt recovery involving banks and other financial institutions with their customers. DRTs were set up after the passing of Recovery of Debts due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act (RDBBFI), 1993.

Consider the following statement A. National parks in India are IUCN category II

protected areas. B. Activities like grazing, hunting, forestry or

cultivation etc. are partially prohibited in national parks.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans A • A National park is an area with enough ecological,

geo-morphological and natural significance with rich fauna and flora, which is designed to protect and to develop wildlife or its environment. National parks in India are IUCN category II protected areas.

• Activities like grazing, hunting, forestry or cultivation etc. are strictly prohibited. No human activity is permitted inside the national park except for the ones permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state.

With reference to the Model Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee (APMC) Act, consider the following statements: A. Under the act, it is compulsory for farmers to

sell their produce through existing markets administered by the APMCs.

B. It aims to promote contract farming. C. It provides for imposition of single point levy

of market fee on the sale of notified agricultural commodities in any market area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans C

The Model APMC Act, 2003 provided for the freedom of farmers to sell their produce. The farmers could sell their produce directly to the contract-sponsors or in the market set up by private individuals, consumers or producers. The Model Act also increases the competitiveness of the market of agricultural produce by allowing common registration of market intermediaries.

Salient Features of the Model APMC Act: • The Preamble of the Act is to provide for development of efficient marketing system, promotion of agri-processing and

agricultural exports and to lay down procedures and systems for putting in place an effective infrastructure for the marketing of agricultural produce.

• Legal persons, growers and local authorities are permitted to apply for the establishment of new markets for agricultural produce in any area. Under the existing law, markets are setup at the initiative of State Governments alone. Consequently, in a market area, more than one market can be established by private persons, farmers and consumers.

• There will be no compulsion on the growers to sell their produce through existing markets administered by the Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC). However, agriculturist who does not bring his produce to the market area for sale will not be eligible for election to the APMC. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Separate provision is made for notification of 'Special Markets' or 'Special Commodities Markets' in any market area for specified agricultural commodities to be operated in addition to existing markets.

• A new Chapter on 'Contract Farming' added to provide for compulsory registration of all contract farming sponsors, recording of contract farming agreements, resolution of disputes, if any, arising out of such agreement, exemption from levy of market fee on produce covered by contract farming agreements and to provide for indemnity to producers' title/ possession over his land from any claim arising out of the agreement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Provision made for direct sale of farm produce to contract farming sponsor from farmers' field without the necessity of routing it through notified markets.

• Provision made for imposition of single point levy of market fee on the sale of notified agricultural commodities in any market area and discretion provided to the State Government to fix graded levy of market fee on different types of sales. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Licensing of market functionaries is dispensed with and a time bound procedure for registration is laid down. Registration for market functionaries provided to operate in one or more than one market areas.

• Commission agency in any transaction relating to notified agricultural produce involving an agriculturist is prohibited and there will be no deduction towards commission from the sale proceeds payable to agriculturist seller.

• Provision made for the purchase of agricultural produce through private yards or directly from agriculturists in one or more than one market area.

• Provision made for the establishment of consumers'/farmers' market to facilitate direct sale of agricultural produce to consumers.

• Provision made for resolving of disputes, if any, arising between private market/ consumer market and Market Committee.

• State Governments conferred power to exempt any agricultural produce brought for sale in market area, from payment of market fee.

• Market Committees permitted to use its funds among others to create facilities like grading, standardization and quality certification; to create infrastructure on its own or through public private partnership for post-harvest handling of agricultural produce and development of modern marketing system.

Which of the following agencies is the Central Coordinating Authority for cleaning up efforts, after an oil spill at sea, in India? (a) National Coast Guard (b) Ministry of Shipping (c) Central Pollution Control Board (d) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas Ans A

As per the National Oil Spill Disaster Contingency Plan (NOSDCP) of 1993, the Director General of the Coast Guard is the Central Coordinating Authority (CCA) for the clean up effort necessitated by an oil spill at sea. He must bring together such diverse agencies as the Ministry of Shipping, the Department of Ocean Development, the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, oil companies, port authorities, and state law enforcement agencies.

Recently the term ‘white shipping agreement’ was in the news. What does it mean? A. It is an information network protocol that

allows the navies of two countries to exchange information about ships in their oceanic territories.

B. It is an information network protocol that allows the merchants of two countries to exchange information about their cargo in the ships.

White Shipping Agreement (WSA) is an information network protocol that allows the navies of two countries to exchange information about ships in their oceanic territories. Ships would be classified into white (commercial ships), grey (military vessels), and black (illegal vessels)

C. It is an security network protocol that allows the coast guard of two countries to exchange information about ships in their oceanic territories.

D. It is an security network protocol that allows the navies of two countries to demarcate their maritime boundary.

Ans A

• It facilitates preventing any potential threat from sea from impinging an coastal and offshore security of the country.

• India and U.S have signed the White Shipping Agreement (WSA)

The charge of impeachment against the president of India for his removal can be initiated by: A. Either of 2 houses of

parliament B. Speaker of the lok sabha

and chairman of Rajya Sabha C. Rajya Sabha only D. Lok Sabha only

The President may also be removed before the expiry of the term through impeachment for violating the Constitution of India by the Parliament of India.The process may start in either of the two houses of the Parliament. The house initiates the process by levelling the charges against the President. The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days’ notice should be given to the President. Article 61 in the Constitution of India 1949 on grounds of proven misbehavior and inefficiency.

With reference to the “Commercial Papers”, recently in news, which of the following statement is/are correct? A. A commercial paper (CP) is an unsecured loan

raised by firms in money markets through instruments issued in the form of a promissory note.

B. Commercial papers can be issued for maturities between a minimum of 10 days and maximum of upto six months from the date of issue.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans A A commercial paper (CP) is an unsecured loan raised by firms in money markets through instruments issued in the form of a promissory note. CPs can be issued for maturities between a minimum of 7 days and a maximum of up to one year from the date of issue.

With reference to the “CERT-In”, consider the following statement A. CERT-In is an office within

the Ministry of Science and Technology.

B. It is the nodal agency to deal with cyber security threats like hacking and phishing.

Which of the above statement is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans B CERT-In is an office within the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. It is the nodal agency to deal with cyber

security threats like hacking and phishing.

With reference to United Nations High-level Political Forum on Sustainable Development (HLPF), consider the following statements: 1. HLPF replaced the Commission on Sustainable Development. 2. It aims at enhancing the integration of economic, social and environmental dimensions of sustainable development. Which of the statement(s) is/incorrect? A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans

C

HLPF replaced the Commission on Sustainable Development, which had met annually since 1993. One of the aims of HPLF is to enhance the integration of economic, social and environmental dimensions of sustainable development. The establishment of the United Nations High-level Political Forum on Sustainable Development (HLPF) was in 2012. High-level Political Forum on Sustainable Development aims to: • provide political leadership and recommendations for sustainable

development,

• follow-up and review progress in implementing sustainable development commitments,

• enhance the integration of economic, social and environmental dimensions of sustainable development,

• have a focused, dynamic and action-oriented agenda,

• consider new and emerging sustainable development challenges,

• from 2016 take on the functions of the ECOSOC Annual Ministerial Reviews on the post-MDG/Sustainable Development goals.

Which of the following is/are criteria to define Biodiversity Hotspots? A. It must contain at least

1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics.

B. It must have lost at least 70 percent of its original habitat.

C. It must be home to atleast 10 critically endangered species of animals.

Select the correct answer from the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

• A biodiversity hotspot is an area with unusual concentration of species, many of which are endemic.

• It is marked by serious threat to its biodiversity by humans.

• The concept was given in 1988 by Norman Myers.

• According to Conservation International, a region must meet two criteria to qualify as hotspot.

• It must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (> 0.5% of the world's total) as endemics, and

• it has to have lost at least 70% of its original habitat.

• India shares its territories into three biodiversity hotspots viz. Eastern Himalaya, Western Ghats and Indo-Burma. Out of them, Eastern Himalaya and

Ans A Western Ghats are mostly located within India's territory. In the Indo-Burma Biodiversity hotspot, India shares only a small part in north East India. The Indo-Burma Biodiversity hotspot includes parts of northeastern India, Bangladesh and Malaysia.

Consider the following statements: A. The United

Nations Habitat is a United Nations programme working towards a better urban future.

B. The World Habitat Day was celebrated recently with the theme ‘Housing Policies: Affordable Homes’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans C

• UN-Habitat is the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future. • Its mission is to promote socially and environmentally sustainable

human settlements development and the achievement of adequate shelter for all.

• Mandated by the UN General Assembly in 1978 to address the issues of urban growth, it is a knowledgeable institution on urban development processes and understands the aspirations of cities and their residents.

• For forty years, UN-Habitat has been working in human settlements throughout the world, focusing on building a brighter future for villages, towns, and cities of all sizes. [G7]

• The United Nations has designated the first Monday of October of every year as World Habitat Day. The theme for World Habitat Day 2 October 2017 is Housing Policies: Affordable Homes. • The purpose of World Habitat Day is to reflect on the state of our

towns and cities, and on the basic right of all to adequate shelter. • It is also intended to remind the world that we all have the power

and the responsibility to shape the future of our cities and towns.

The project of the Union government which aims at securing livelihoods, conservation, sustainable use and restoration of high range Himalayan ecosystems is called: A. SECURE B. ECOMARK C. Paryavaran Vahini D. National

Afforestation Programme

The SECURE project aims at securing livelihoods, conservation, sustainable use and restoration of high range Himalayan ecosystems. • It is meant for specific landscapes including Changthang

(Jammu and Kashmir), Lahaul – Pangi and Kinnaur (Himachal Pradesh), Gangotri – Govind and Darma – Byans Valley in Pithoragarh (Uttarakhand) and Kanchenjunga – Upper Teesta Valley (Sikkim).

• The key focus areas of the project is protection of snow leopard and other endangered species and their habitats and also securing livelihoods of people in region and enhancing enforcement to reduce wildlife crime.

• Under it, enhanced enforcement efforts and monitoring will be undertaken to curb illegal trade in some medicinal and aromatic plants which are among most threatened species in these landscapes.

Which one of the following issues the ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ report periodically? A. The United Nations Development Fund for Women B. The World Economic Forum C. The International Center for Research on Women D. The World Bank

The World Economic Forum issues the Global Gender Gap index. The WEF started measuring the gender gap. It uses four pillars — health, education, the workplace and political representation to prepare the global report on the gender gap. The World Economic Forum was established in 1971 as a not-for-profit foundation and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It is independent, impartial and not tied to any

Hornbill festival is celebrated in which of the north eastern states of India? A. Arunachal Pradesh B. Nagaland C. Mizoram D. Assam

Hornbill Festival was launched by the Government of Nagaland in December 2000 to encourage inter tribal interaction and to promote cultural heritage of the state. This celebration held every year in

special interests. The Forum strives in all its efforts to demonstrate entrepreneurship in the global public interest while upholding the highest standards of governance. The Forum engages the foremost political, business and other leaders of society to shape global, regional and industry agendas.

the first week of December, in Nagaland, North-east India. It is also called as the ‘Festival of Festivals’. The festival is named after the hornbill bird.