class: mz2-a neet model date: 21-06-20 time: 3hrs wtn-03 ... · 06. given n is positive 1) lies in...
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: 040-45009999(360/341) : [email protected] : http://www.narayanagroup.com
Class: MZ2-A NEET MODEL Date: 21-06-20
Time: 3hrs WTN-03 Max. Marks: 720
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
➢ Section I- Physics (1 to 45)
➢ Section II- Chemistry (46 to 90)
➢ Section III- Biology (Botany & Zoology) (91 to 180) Total Number of
Questions: 180.
➢ The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions.
Each question carries 4marks. For each correct response, the candidate
will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be
deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
➢ The answers to these questions should be answered in single OMR sheet
only.
-:Note:-
Physics : 01 to 45
Chemistry : 46 to 90
Botany : 91 to 135
Zoology : 136 to 180
MZ2-A_NEET_WTN-03_Exam.Dt.21-06-20
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01. Find the ratio in which y – axis divides the line segment joining (2,1)
and (-1,4)
1) 1:2 2) 2:1 3) 4:1 4) 1:4
02. Find the distance of point (3,4,5) from z – axis
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 5
03. Angle between straight lines represented by 1 1y m x c= + and
2 2y m x c= + is
1) 1 1 2
1 2
tan1
m m
m m − +=
− 2) 1 1 2
1 2
tan1
m m
m m − −=
+
3) 1 1 2
1 2
tan1
m m
m m − +=
+ 4) 1 2
1
tanm
m − =
04. Find the equation of the line passing through (0,1) and (1,0).
1) 1 0x y− − = 2) 2 0x y− − =
3) 2 0x y+ − = 4) 1 0x y+ − =
05. Angle subtended by the complete circumference on the centre
1) Radian 2) 2 Radian
3) 4 Radian 4) n Radian
06. Given sinθ is positive
1) θLies in 1st quadrant 2) θLies in 2nd quadrant
3) θDoes not lies in 4th quadrant 4) All of these
07. Simplify 3π
sin + θ2
1) sinθ 2) - sinθ 3) - cosθ 4) cosθ
08. Consider the following statements
a) 2
cos3
is negative
b)
5cot
3
is negative
c) 15
sec8
is positive
1) b,c are incorrect 2) a,b,c are true
3) a,c are true 4) c is incorrect
MZ2-A_NEET_WTN-03_Exam.Dt.21-06-20
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09. Find the value of 0sin120 =_____________
1) 3
2 2)
1
2 3) 1 4) 0
10. ( )sin A B− =
1) sin .cos cos .sinA B A B+ 2) sin .sin cos .cosA B A B+
3) sin .cos cos .sinA B A B− 4) sin .sin cos .cosA B A B−
11. The value of ( )0 0sin 360 45+ =_______
1) 1
2 2) 1 3)
1
2 4) 0
12. 120Tan =
1) 3 2) 1
3 3)
1
3− 4) 3−
13. If A, B are supplementary angles then 2 2cos sinA B+
1) 0 2) 1
2 3) 2 4) 1
14. ( )2 2cosec 1 tan− =
1) 1− 2) 0 3) 2 4) 1
15. If cosec 1n = + , then cos =
1) 1
2
n
n
+
− 2)
1
1
n
n
+
− 3)
1
n
n − 4)
1
n
n +
16. The value of ( )0sin 30− is____
1) 1 2) 1
2 3)
1
2− 4)
1
3
17. sin60 .cos30 cos60 sin30 + is equal to
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 1
18. sin cos
3sin 2 4cos 23 4
= + =
1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 1
MZ2-A_NEET_WTN-03_Exam.Dt.21-06-20
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19. What is the slope of the line 3 2 4x y− =
1) 3
2 2)
3
2− 3)
2
3− 4)
4
3
20. ( )3
2
0
_________ax bx c dx− − =
1) − −9
9 32
ba c 2)
99 3
2
ba c+ +
3) + −9
9 32
ba c 4)
99 3
2
ab c+ +
21. sin20 .cos40 cos20.sin40 + =
1) 3
2 2)
3
2 3)
3
2 4) 1
22. If the distance between the points ( )5, 2− ( )1,a is 5, then the value
of a is (in units)
1) 5 2) 2 3) 4 4) 1
23. The nearest point from the origin is
1) ( )2, 3− 2) ( )5,0 3) ( )0, 5− 4) ( )1,3
24. If cosec , cotx a y b= = then
1) 2 2 2 2x y a b+ = + 2)
2 2
2 21
x y
a b+ =
3)
2 2
2 21
x y
a b− = 4)
2 2 2 2x y a b− = −
25. If 22cos 1A− is equal to____
1)cos2A 2) sin2A 3) tan2A 4) cot2A
MZ2-A_NEET_WTN-03_Exam.Dt.21-06-20
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26. If 23 2y x x= + then dy
dx is
1) 6 2x + 2) 6x 3) 3 2x + 4) 26 2x +
27. If ( )( )3 2 2 1y x x= + − then dy
dx is
1) ( ) ( )3 2 2 3x x+ − 2) 12 1x +
3) 12 1x − 4) 6 2x +
28. If 2siny x= then dy
dx is
1) cos2x 2) 2cos x
3) sin2x− 4) sin2x
29. The value of 0sin 90 equal to
1) 1 2) 3) 0 4) None
30. If 23 5y t t= − then dy
dt
at 1t = is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 1 4) 0
31. If 2 1
y xx
= − then integral of y w.r.t. x is
1)
3
log3
e
xx c− + 2)
3 2
3 2
x xc− +
3)
2
log2
e
xx c− + 4)
3
log3
e
xx c+ +
32.
2
2
cos . __________x dx−
=
1) 1 2) 2 3) 0 4) 1−
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33. _________
b
a
x dx =
1) ( )2 2 constantb a− + 2) ( )2 2
4
b a−
3) ( )2 21
2b a− 4) None
34. ( )3
2
0
__________ax bx c dx+ − =
1) 9
9 32
ba c+ − 2)
99 3
2
ba c+ +
3) 9
9 32
ba c− − 4)
99 3
2
ab c+ +
35. 21
_________2
dx
dx
=
1) 2x 2) 1
x 3) x 4) None
36. 9 __________x dx =
1) 10
10
xc+ 2)
9
9
xc+ 3)
11
11
xc+ 4) None
37. sin . ________ax dx =
1) cosax
ca
− + 2) sinax
ca
+
3) cosax
ca
+ 4) sinax
ca
− +
38. . _________xe dx =
1) e + constant 2) xe + constant
3)
1
1
xe
x
+
+ + constant 4) constant
MZ2-A_NEET_WTN-03_Exam.Dt.21-06-20
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39. Solve the integral 2
0sin xdx
.
1) 2) 2
3) 2 4) 0
40. If 4 3,x at y bt= = , then find dy
dx at t=1sec.
1) 3
4
b
a 2)
4
3
b
a 3)
4
3
a
b 4) 0
41. If 2cosy x= then find dy
dx
1) sin x− 2) sin 2x 3) sin2x− 4) sin x
42. Evaluate 21 .2y ydy+ .
1) ( )3/2
221
3y C+ + 2) ( )
3/221 y C+ +
3) ( )5/2
221
5y C+ + 4) ( )
5/221 y C+ +
43. Find the area bounded by siny x= with x-axis from x=0 to x =
1) 0 2) 1unit 3) 2units 4) 3units
44. The velocity v of a particle is given by the equation 2 36 6v t t= − .
(where t is time). The velocity can attain
1) Maximum value 2) Minimum value
3) Both maxima & minima 4) No maxima & no minima
45. If sin
cos
xy
x x=
+, then find
dy
dx at x=0.
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
MZ2-A_NEET_WTN-03_Exam.Dt.21-06-20
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46. Electron is a particle having a
1) negative charge of one unit and zero mass
2) positive charge of one unit and zero mass
3) negative charge of one unit and a mass of about 319.1 10 kg−
4) negative charge of one unit and a mass of about 271.67 10 kg−
47. The value of e/m for an electron is
1) 81.78 10 /c g 2) 241.6724 10 /c g−
3) 0.005486 /c g 4) 1.00866 /c g
48. A and Z can be
1) negative 2) fractional
3) zero 4) whole number
49. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons in 80
35 Br are
respectively
1) 35, 35,80 2) 35, 35, 45
3) 80, 80,35 4) 45, 45, 35
50. The nucleus of tritium consists of
1) 1 proton + 1 neutron 2) 1 proton + 3 neutrons
3) 1 proton + zero neutrons 4) 1 proton + 2 neutrons
51. Sodium ion is isoelectronic with the atom
1) 2Mg + 2) 3Al + 3) Ne 4) 3N −
52. An atom differs from its ion is
1) Nuclear charge 2) Mass number
3) Number of electrons 4) Number of neutrons
53. In 14C isotope, the number of neutrons would be
1) 6 2) 14 3) 8 4) 10
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54. When alpha particles are sent through a thin metal foil, most of
them go straight through the foil because
1) Alpha particles are much heavier than electrons
2) Alpha particles are positively charged
3) Most part of the atom is empty
4) Alpha particles move with high velocity
55. Which of the following properties of a wave is independent of the
other?
1) Wave number 2) Wave length
3) Frequency 4) Amplitude
56. Which of the following radiation has highest wave number?
1) Microwaves 2) X -rays
3) IR-rays 4) Radio waves
57. Kinetic energy of photoelectrons is independent of the __________of
incident radiation
1) Wave length 2) Wave number
3) Frequency 4) Intensity
58. The energy of a photon is 123 10 .ergs− What is its wavelength in nm?
( )27 10 16.62 10 .sec, 3 10 .h erg c cm s− −= =
1) 662 2) 1324 3) 66.2 4) 6.62
59. The frequency associated with photon of radiation having a
wavelength of 06000A is
1) 145 10 Hz 2) 105 10 Hz
3) 142 10 Hz 4) 155 10 Hz
60. Bohr’s theory is applicable to
1) 2Li+ 2) Li+
3) He+ 4) Both (1) and (3)
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61. Bohr’s theory is not applicable to
1) H 2) He+ 3) 3Be + 4) H +
62. Energy of an electron in thn Bohr orbit is given as
1) 2 2
2 24
n h
mZe−
2)
2 2 4
2 2
2 Z me
n h
− 3)
22 Ze
nh
− 4)
2 2
2 2 42
n h
Z me−
63. The energy of the electron when it is at an infinite distance from the
nucleus is
1) Infinity 2) Zero
3) Minimum 4) Can not be predicted
64. According to Bohr’s theory, when ever the electron drops from a
higher energy level to a lower energy level, the frequency of radiation
emitted is related to the energy change as
1) h
mv = 2)
2
nhmvr =
3) E
h
= 4)
h
E =
65. Radius of 3rd Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom
1) 06.529A 2) 02.116A 3) 04.761A 4) 08.464A
66. Velocity of the electron in the 1st Bohr orbit of H-atom is
1) 82.18 10 / seccm 2) 82.18 10 / secm
3) 162.18 10 / seccm 4) 836559 10 / seccm
67. If the energy of H-atom in the ground sate is ,E− the velocity of
photo-electron emitted when a photon having energy pE strikes a
stationary 2Li + ion in ground state, is given by
1) ( )2 pE E
vm
−= 2)
( )2 9pE Ev
m
+=
3) ( )2 9pE E
vm
−= 4)
( )2 3pE Ev
m
−=
MZ2-A_NEET_WTN-03_Exam.Dt.21-06-20
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68. The increasing order of e/m values for electron, proton, neutron
and alpha particle is
1) , , ,e p n 2) , , ,n p e
3) , , ,n p e 4) , , ,n p e
69. The constancy of e/m ratio for electron shows that
1) Electron’s mass is 1
1837th of the mass of proton
2) Electrons are universal particles of all matter
3) Electrons are produced in discharge tubes only
4) All of these
70. The e/m of proton is
1) 81.78 10 /c g 2) 49.57 10 /c g
3) 419.14 10 /c g 4) 40.478 10 /c g
71. The charge of an electron is 191.6 10 .coulomb− What will be the value
of charge on Na+ ion
1) 191.6 10 C− 2) 193.2 10 C−
3) 192.4 10 C− 4) 1911 1.6 10 C−
72. Maximum sum of the number of neutrons and protons in an isotope
of hydrogen
1) 6 2) 5 3) 4 4) 3
73. The incorrect statement regarding cathode rays is
1) They travel in straight line
2) They depend on the nature of the gas
3) They are deflected by magnetic as well as electric fields
4) They produce mechanical effects
74. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) Particle nature of radiations can be experimentally
demonstrated by Compton effect
2) Wave nature of electrons can be experimentally demonstrated
by diffraction experiment
3) The value of Plank’s constant, h is 346.62 10 .Js−
4) Intensity of light is directly proportional to its frequency
MZ2-A_NEET_WTN-03_Exam.Dt.21-06-20
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75. Rutherford’s alpha ray scatting experiment showed for the first time
that the atom has
1) Nucleus 2) Proton
3) Electron 4) Neutron
76. In electromagnetic radiation, which of the following has greatest
wavelength than visible light?
1) U.V – rays 2) I.R – rays
3) Gamma rays 4) X- rays
77. Which of the following is not an electromagnetic radiation?
1) Gamma rays 2) Alpha rays
3) Radio waves 4) X-rays
78. The equation corresponding to the wave number of spectral lines in
Pfund series is
1) 2 2
1 1
4 5R
−
2) 2 2
1 1
3 4R
−
3) 2 2
1 1
2 3R
−
4) 2 2
1 1
5 6R
−
79. The value of Rydberg constant is
1) 1109677 cm− 2) 1 1109700 cm s− −
3) 110968 cm− 4) 10970 m
80. A spectral line of hydrogen with 04938A = belongs to the series
1) Lyman 2) Balmer 3) Paschen 4) Pfund
81. Among the first lines of Lyman, Balmar, Paschen and Bracket series
in Hydrogen atomic spectra which has higher energy?
1) Lyman 2) Balmer
3) Paschen 4) Bracket
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82. Supposing the electron is present in the 4th energy level of H-atom.
When the electron returns to ground state the possible transitions
would be
1) 4 1→ 2) 4 2, 2 1→ →
3) 4 3,3 2,2 1→ → → 4) All the above
83. The de-Broglie’s equation treats an electron to be
1) a particle 2) a wave
3) ray 4) both (1) and (2)
84. Wavelength of the wave associated with a moving electron
1) Decreases with increase in speed of electron
2) Increases with increase in speed Of electron
3) Remains same irrespective of speed of electron
4) is zero
85. Bohr's postulate that 2
nhmvr =
is proved mathematically by
1) Thomsons atomic model
2) de Broglie wave nature of the electron
3) photoelectric effect
4) Compton effect
86. Which of the following statements regarding spectral series is
correct?
1) The lines in the Balmer series correspond to the electronic
transition from higher energy level to 1n = energy level.
2) Paschen series appears in the infra-red-region
3) The lines of Lyman series appear in the visible region
4) Transition from higher energy levels to 4th energy level
produces Pfund series which fall in the infrared region.
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87. In a series in the line spectrum of hydrogen, the wavelength of
radiation is 06,563 .A The name of the series and the orbits in which
electron transition takes place are
1) Balmer series, 3rd to 2nd orbit
2) Lyman series, 2nd to 1st orbit
3) Pfund series, 6th to 5th orbit
4) Paschen series, 4th to 3rd orbit
88. Which of the following transitions will have minimum wavelength?
1) 4 1n n→ 2) 2 1n n→
3) 4 2n n→ 4) 3 1n n→
89. A particle X moving with a certain velocity has a debroglie wave
length of 01 .A If particle Y has mass of 25% that of X and velocity
75% that of X, debroglies wave length of Y will be
1) 03A 2) 05.33A
3) 06.88A 4) 048A
90. The radius of the atom is of the order of
1) 1010 cm− 2) 1310 cm−
3) 1510 cm− 4) 810 cm−
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91. ___________is the science of life forms and living processes
1) Geiology 2) Biology
3) Seralogy 4) Virology
92. The scientific term for biological classification categories is the
1) Species 2) Phylum
3) Taxon 4) Domain
93. Linnaeus is credited with
1) Binomial nomenclature 2) Theory of biogenesis
3) Discovery of microscope 4) Discovery of blood circulation
94. Which of the following is not a result of cell division?
1) Growth 2) Repair
3) Metabolism 4) Reproduction
95. Which f the following is incorrect for reproduction?
1) Unicellular organisms reproduce by cell division
2) Reproduction is a characteristic of all living organisms
3) In unicellular organisms, reproduction and growth are linked
together
4) Non-living objects are incapable of reproducing
96. The correct sequence of taxonomic study of a newly discovered
organism is
1) First classification than identification, nomenclature and
characterization
2) First identification then classifying organism and than
characterization and nomenclature
3) First nomenclature then characterization, identification and
classification
4) First characterisation then identification and nomenclature
then classification
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97. Which of the following criteria is/are essential and form the basis
of modern taxonomic studies?
1) Ecological information of organisms 2) Development process
3) External and internal structure 4) All of these
98. Biological names are _______ in ___________ and written in _________
1)Always, latin, italics 2) Generally, Latin, italics
3) Always, italics, latin 4) Generally, italics, Spanish
99. According to Binomial nomenclature two words used for naming a
plant or animal are
1) Genus and species 2) Family and genus
3) Class and family 4) Species and family
100. Which type of reproduction occurs in lower organisms of yeast and
hydra?
1) regeneration 2) budding
3) fragmentation 4) binary fission
101. Scientific names to the plants are given based on the principles
provided by
1) ICZN 2) BSI 3) IUB 4) ICBN
102. Who is regarded “The Darwin of the 20th century?
1) Ernst Mayr 2) Melvin calvin
3) John ray 4) Gaspard Bouhin
103. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
A) NBRI I) Indian Botanical Garden
B) ICBN II) International code of zoological Nomenclature
C) ICZN III) National Botanical Research Institute
D) IBG IV) International code for Botanical Nomenclature
1) , , ,A II B IV C I D III− − − − 2) , , ,A III B IV C II D I− − − −
3) , , ,A III B IV C I D II− − − − 4) , , ,A IV B I C II D III− − − −
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104. Human beings were, since long, not only interested in knowing
more about different kinds of organisms and their diversities, but
also the relationships among them. This branch of study was
referred to as _________________
1) Taxonomic species 2) Genetic make up
3) Systematics 4) Morphological aggregates
105. Which of the following organisms reproduce easily by
fragmentations
I) Fungi II) Filamentous algae
III) Protonema of Mosses IV) Hydra
1) I,II and IV 2) I, II and III
3) II,III and IV 4) I,II,III and IV
106. In Binomial nomenclature
1) Both in genus and species the first letter is capital
2) Both genus and species are printed in italics
3) Genus is written in small letters
4) Genus is written after the species
107. Plants differ from animals in having
1) Definite lifespan
2) Localized growth
3) Indefinite growth
4) Localized growth and indefinite growth
108. Which of the following organisms do not reproduce?
1) Mules 2) Sterile worker bees
3) Infertile human copules 4) All of these
109. Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals are twin
characterises of
1) Homeostasis 2) Paedogenesis
3) Growth 4) Asexual reproduction
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110. Who is regarded as the triple crown of Biology?
1) Calvin 2) Ernst Mayr
3) Robert Brown 4) G.J Mendel
111. Which of the following organisms exhibits metabolism?
I) Plants II) Animals
III) Fungi IV) Microbes
1) I,II,III only 2) II,III, IV only
3) I,II,III,IV 4) I,III,IV only
112. Which one of the following is Linnaeus Publication?
1) Systema Naturae 2) Genera plantaram
3) Species of Angiosperms 4) The flora of British Indica
113. The number of species that are known and described range between
__________
1) 1.8 – 2.0 million 2) 1.7 – 1.8 million
3) 1.5 – 1.7 million 4) 2.0 – 2.8 million
114. The Indian Botanical Garden and the National Botanical Research
Institute are located respectively at
1) Pune and Howrah 2) Darjeeling and Lucknow
3) Shimla and Dehradun 4) Howrah and Lucknow
115. Felidae does not have
1) Dogs 2) Cats
3) Tiger 4) Leopard
116. Polymoniales includes
1) Liliaceae only 2) Convolvulaceae
3) Solanaceae 4) Both (3) and (4)
117. The label of herbarium sheet does not carry information on
1) date of collection 2) name of collector
3) local names 4) hight of the plant
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118. Which of the following combination is correct for wheat?
1) Genus – Triticum, Family–Poaceae, order – poales,
class – dicotyledonae
2) Genus – Triticum, Family–Poaceae, order – sapindales,
class – monocotyledonae
3) Genus – Triticum, Family–Poaceae, order – poales,
class – Monocotyledonae
4) Genus – Triticum, Family–Anacardiaceae, order – poales,
class – Monocotyledonae
119. What do A, B and C represent in the given scientific name
respectively?
C → Mangifera, B → indica, A → Linn
1) Generic name, Specific name and author’s name
2) Specific name, genetic name and author’s name
3) Author’s name, Specific name and generic name
4) Generic name, author’s name and specific name
120. Fill in the blanks A and B.
Kingdom →Phylum →A →Order →B
1) A – Genus, B – Species 2) A – Family, B – Class
3) A – Class, B – Family 4) A –Species, B – Division
121. Three different genera solanum, petunia and Datura are placed in
the family
1) Poaceae 2) Solanaceae
3) Anacardiaceae 4) Hominidae
122. A place used for storing, preservation and exhibition and both
plants and animals is known as
1) Herbaria 2) Botanical garden
3) Museum 4) Zoos
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123. National Botanical Research Institute consists of
1) Dried and preserved plant specimens only
2) Collection of preserved plant and animal specimens
3) Flora, manuals and monographs only
4) Collection of living plants for reference
124. Given organisms belongs to how many genera?
Wheat, Brinjal, Potato, Lion, Dog, Tiger
1) Three 2) Two 3) Four 4) Five
125. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
A) Man I) Musca domestica
B) Mango II) Triticum aestivum
C) House fly III) Homo sapiens
D) Wheat IV) Mangifera indica
1) , , ,A III B IV C I D II− − − − 2) , , ,A II B IV C III D I− − − −
3) , , ,A II B IV C III D I− − − − 4) , , ,A IV B I C II D III− − − −
126. Which one of the following contain information on any one taxon?
1) lead 2) key
3) manuals 4) monographs
127. Each statement of a key is called
1) Lead 2) Couplet
3) Manual 4) Monograph
128. Plant specimens that are dried pressed and preserved on sheets are
found in
1) Floras 2) Museum
3) Botanical garden 4) Herbarium
129. Museums have
1) plants and animals specimens preserved in solution
2) stuffed and preserved birds and mammals
3) skeletons of animals
4) all of these
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130. A taxonomic aid called key is
1) Useful in classification of plants and animals
2) Based on similarities and dissimilarities
3) Common for identification of taxonomic categories ie family
4) An index of a flora of a particular area
131. Plant families like Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included in the
order ___________x__________ mainly based on the ____y_____.
Identify x and y in this below respectively.
1) polymoniales, floral characters
2) polymoniales, vegetative characters
3) poales, floral characters
4) poales, vegetative characters
132. _____________are useful in providing information for identification
of names of species found in area
1) Museum 2) Monographs
3) Manuals 4) Flora
133. Herbarium and Museums contain_____________ specimens whereas
in Botanical gardens and zoo’s posses ______________specimens
respectively
1) Living and Living 2) Dead and Dead
3) Living and Dead 4) Dead and Living
134. Which one of the following contains actual account of habitat and
distribution of plants of a given area.
1) Flora 2) Manuals
3) Monograph 4) Catalogous
135. ______________ have colletions of preserved plant and animals
specimens for study and reference.
1) Key 2) Museum
3) Flora 4) Manuals
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136. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells
called
1) Ostia 2) Oscula
3) Choanocytes 4) Mesenchymal Cells
137. Planaria possess high capacity of
1) Metamorphosis 2) Regeneration
3) Alternation of generation 4) Bioluminscence
138. Hookworm is the common name of
1) Wuchereria 2) Ancylostoma
3) Taenia 4) Fasciola
139. Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic?
1) Flat worms 2) Sponges
3) Ctenophores 4) Corals
140. Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally
symmetrical and triploblastic?
1) Coelenterates 2) Aschelminthes
3) Ctenophores 4) Sponges
141. Metagenesis refers to
1) The presence of similar morphic forms
2) Alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of
an organism
3) Occurrence of a drastic change in form during post embryonic
development
4) The presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode
of reproduction
142. Which statement is incorrect about comb jelly?
1) They are diploblastic
2) They have tissue level organisation
3) They have comb plates
4) They show asexual and sexual reproduction
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143. In comb jellies how many rows of ciliated comb plates are present?
1) 5 2) 6 3) 8 4) 7
144. Reproduction in Ctenoplana takes place by
1) Budding 2) Sexual reproduction
3) Binary fission 4) Multiple fission
145. Which of the following group of animals are aquatic, mostly marine,
sessile or free – swimming, radially symmetrical diploblastic
animals?
1) Aschelminthes 2) Coelenterata
3) Porifera 4) Platyhelminthes
146. Bioluminescence is found in
1) Platyhelminthes 2) Porifera
3) Coelenterates 4) Ctenophora
147. Which of the following organism is correctly matched with its
common name?
1) Physalia-Portuguese man of war
2) Adamsia – sea pen
3) Gorgania – Sea anemone
4) Pennatula – sea fan
148. Which of the following is mostly endoparasites, hooks and suckers
are present in the parasitic forms and it absorb nutrients from the
host directly through their body surface?
1) Coelenterates 2) Porifera
3) Platyhelminthes 4) Ctenophora
149. Water enters into spongocoel through
1) Osculum 2) Choanocytes
3) Ostia 4) Madreporite
150. Skeleton in sponges includes
1) Spicules 2) Spongin fibres
3) Bones 4) Both (1) & (2)
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151. Digestion in sponges is
1) Binary fission 2) Intracellular
3) Outside the body 4) Intercellular
152. Digestion in coelenterates is
1) Intracellular 2) Extracellular
3) Both (1) & (2) 4) Outside the body
153. Ctenophores are commonly called
1) jelly fishes 2) sea biscuits
3) comb jellies 4) sea lions
154. Water circulation in sponges does not help in
1) Locomotion 2) food gathering
3) Respiration 4) removal of waste
155. Water transport system is seen in
1) Sycon 2) Gorgonia
3) Pennatula 4) Adamsia
156. The only phylum bearing pseudocoelom is
1) Coelenterata 2) Porifera
3) Aschelminthes 4) Platyhelminthes
157. Ascaris has all of the following features, except
1) Complete digestive system 2) Pseudocoelomate
3) External fertilisation 4) Parasitic life
158. In which of the following cnidarians skeleton is composed of
calcium carbonate?
1) Aurelia 2) Corals
3) Obelia 4) Physalia
159. Which animals shows radial symmetry?
1) Coelenterates 2) Ctenophores
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Sponges
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160. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of cnidarians?
1) They exhibit tissue level of organisation
2) They are purely terrestrial in nature
3) They may be sessile or free-swimming
4) They are diploblastic animals
161. The ciliated comb plates in Pleurobrachia are meant for
1) Reproduction 2) Digestion
3) Protection 4) Locomotion
162. What type of fertilization is there in sponges?
1) External fertilization 2) Internal fertilization
3) Isogamy 4) Homosexual
163. Which specialised cells are present for excretion in the phylum
Platyhelminthes?
1) Collar cells 2) Cnidoblasts
3) Flame cells 4) Nematocytes
164. True coelom appeared first in the course of evolution in
1) Aschelminthes 2) Platyhelminthes
3) Porifera 4) Annelida
165. Identify the Coelom
1) Acoelom 2) Pseudo coelom
3) Coelomate 4) Spongocoel
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166. Identify the Coelom
1) Acoelomate 2) Pseudo coelom
3) Coelomate 4) Spongocoel
167. Any plane that passes through the centre does not divide the
organism into equal halves is known as
1) Radial symmetry 2) Bilateral symmetry
3) Pentaradial symmetry 4) Asymmetrical
168. Mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm
and endoderm in
1) Annelids 2) Echinoderms
3) Molluscs 4) Aschelminthes
169. Which of the following is a diploblastic, radially symmetrical
animal?
1) Hydra 2) Earthworm
3) Roundworm 4) Liver fluke
170. What kind of symmetry occurs in Sea Anemone?
1) Bilateral 2) Radial
3) Asymmetry 4) Cylindrical
171. A true coelom is lined on all sides by
1) Ectoderm 2) Mesoderm
3) Endoderm 4) Ectoderm and endoderm
172. Animals like annelids, arthropods, etc., where the body can be
divided into identical left and right halves in only one place, exhibit
________ symmetry
1) Bilateral 2) Radial
3) Biradial 4) Asymmetry
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173. The digestive system which has only a single opening to the outside
of the body that serves as both mouth and anus is known as
1) Complete 2) Incomplete
3) Finished 4) Furnished
174. A complete digestive system is the one which has _____ and _______
1) Mouth 2) Anus
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) single pore
175. One example of phylum having a single opening to the outside that
serves both as mouth as well as anus is
1) Platyhelminthes 2) Nematoda
3) Mollusca 4) Arthropoda
176. Which of the following statements is not true?
1) All members of the kingdom Animalia are multicellular
2) Nature of coelom is used as one of the basis of animal
classification
3) There is no need of classification now as over a million species
of animals have been described till now
4) The arrangement of cells in the body is one of the classifying
feature of the animals
177. The only incorrectly matched pair in respect of Phylum and their
Level of organisation
1) Porifera – Cellular level
2) Cnidaria – Tissue level
3) Annelida – Organ level only
4) Mollusca – Organ system level
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178. In closed circulatory system
1) The cells and tissues are directly bathed in the blood pumped
out by heart
2) Arteries and veins are lacking
3) The capillaries are largest blood vessels and closed at their ends
4) Blood circulates through a series of vessels of varying diameters
179. Mesoglea is
1) A germinal layer present between ectoderm and endoderm
2) An undifferentiated layer present between ectoderm and
endoderm
3) Another name of mesoderm
4) A spongy layer of skin
180. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals
is correct?
1) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
2) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are coelomates
3) Molluscs are coelomates
4) Insects are pseudocoelomates
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