aiims major test

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014

Path to Success

CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

FORM NUMBER

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(ACADEMIC SESSION 2013-2014)

PAPER CODE

AIIMS (FULL Syllabus)

0 1 C M 2 1 3 0 8 3

DATE : 19 - 02 - 2014

MAJOR TEST # 06

ENTHUSIAST COURSETARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the

correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be

removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

3. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

4. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

5. Each correct answer carries 1 marks, while one third mark will be deducted from the total of individual subject for each

incorrect answer.

1

Corporate Office

CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005Trin : +91 - 744 - 2436001 Fax : +91-744-2435003

E-Mail: [email protected] Website: www.allen.ac.in

Kota | Chandigarh | Ahmedabad

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.

Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail

INSTRUCTIONS ()

19–02–2014PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE

1/35Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 201401CM213083

MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. 2 gm of O2 gas is taken at 27°C and pressure 76cm.

of Hg. Then find out volume of gas - (in litre)

(1) 1.53 (2) 2.44 (3) 3.08 (4) 44.2

2. Two uniform rods of equal length but different

masses are rigidly joined to form an L-shaped

body which is then pivoted as shown. If in

equilibrium the body is in shown configuration,

ratio M/m will be

90°

30°

m M

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3

3. Masses m and 3 m are attached to the two ends

of a spring of spring constant k. If the system

vibrates freely, the period of oscillation will be:-

(1) m

k (2)

3m2

k

(3)3m

k (4)

m2

k

4. A long, straight, hollow conductor (tube) carrying

a current has two sections A and C of unequal

cross-sections joined by a conical section B.

1, 2 and 3 are points on a line parallel to the axis

of the conductor. The magnetic fields at 1, 2 and

3 have magnitudes B1, B

2 and B

3 respectively,

then :

3

2

1A

B

C

(1) B1 = B

2 = B

3

(2) B1 = B

2 B

3

(3) B1 < B

2 < B

3

(4) B2 cannot be found unless the dimensions of

the section B are known

1. 2 27°C 76 cm Hg ()(1) 1.53 (2) 2.44 (3) 3.08 (4) 44.2

2.

L-

M/m

90°

30°

m M

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3

3. m 3 m k :-

(1) m

k (2)

3m2

k

(3)3m

k (4)

m2

k

4. A

CB

1, 2 3 1, 23

B1, B

2 B

3

3

2

1A

B

C

(1) B1 = B

2 = B

3

(2) B1 = B

2 B

3

(3) B1 < B

2 < B

3

(4) B2 B

19–02–2014TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014

2/35 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 01CM213083

MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

5. Two spheres of radii in the ratio 1 : 3 and densities

in the ratio 2 : 1 and of same specific heat are

heated to same temperature and left in the same

surrounding. Their rate of falling temperature will

be in the ratio :-

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4

6. A particle is given an initial speed u inside a

smooth spherical shell of radius R = 1 m that itis just able to complete the circle. Accelerationof the particle when its velocity is vertical is -

u

R

(1) g 10 (2) g (3) g 2 (4) 3g

7. A wire is 4 m long and has a mass 0.2 kg. The

wire is kept horizontally. A transverse pulse is

generated by plucking one end of the taut (tight)

wire. The pulse makes four trips back and forth

along the wire in 0.8 sec. The tension in the wire

will be -

(1) 80 N (2) 160 N (3) 240 N (4) 320 N

8. The significance of self inductance L is the same

as of that of……in the linear motion -

(1) mass (2) velocity

(3) acceleration (4) displacement

9. A B – C

= 0 and A + B – C = 0. What is the

angle between A

and B

?

(1) 90° (2) 0° (3) 45° (4) tan FHGIKJ

1 BA

10. The I-V characteristic of an LED is :

(1)

Red

Yel

low

(R) (Y) (G) (B)

Gre

en

Blu

e

O

I

V

(2) (R)

(Y)

(G)

(B)

O

I

V

(3)

O

I

V

(4) (R)

(Y)

(G)

(B)

O

I

V

5. 1 : 3

2 : 1

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4

6. R = 1m u

u

R

(1) g 10 (2) g (3) g 2 (4) 3g

7. 4 m 0.2 kg

0.8

(1) 80 N (2) 160 N (3) 240 N (4) 320 N

8. L -

(1) (2) (3) (4)

9. A B – C

= 0 A + B – C = 0. A

B

(1) 90° (2) 0° (3) 45° (4) tan FHGIKJ

1 BA

10. LED I-V

(1)

Red

Yel

low

(R) (Y) (G) (B)

Gre

en

Blu

e

O

I

V

(2) (R)

(Y)

(G)

(B)

O

I

V

(3)

O

I

V

(4) (R)

(Y)

(G)

(B)

O

I

V



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

11. A positive point charge is placed at P in front of an

earthed metal sheet S. Q & R are two points between

P & S as shown in figure. If the electric field strength

at Q & R are respectively EQ & E

R and potential at

Q & R are respectively VQ & V

R . Then-

P.

.Q

.R

.S

(1) EQ = E

R(2) E

Q < E

R

(3) VQ > V

R(4) V

Q < V

R

12. Consider the situation shown in figure. If the

current I in the long straight wire XY is increased

at a steady rate then the induced emf’s in loops

A and B will be-

B A I

X

Y

(1) clockwise in A, anticlockwise in B

(2) anticlockwise in A, clockwise in B

(3) clockwise in both A and B

(4) anticlockwise in both A and B

13. The curves shown represent adiabatic curves for

monoatomic, diatomic & polyatomic ( = 4/3)

gases. The slopes for curves 1,2,3 respectively at

point A are–

1 2 3

P

P

A

TT

(1) 2.5 T

P, 3. 5

T

P, 4.5

T

P

(2) 2.5 T

P, 3

T

P, 4

T

P

(3) 2.5 T

P, 3.5

T

P, 4

T

P

(4) 4 T

P, 3.5

T

P, 2.5

T

P

11. S P P S Q R Q R E

Q E

R Q R

VQ V

R

P.

.Q

.R

.S

(1) EQ = E

R(2) E

Q < E

R

(3) VQ > V

R(4) V

Q < V

R

12. XY I AB

B A I

X

Y

(1) A B

(2) A B

(3) A B

(4) A B

13. ( = 4/3)

A

1, 2, 3

1 2 3

P

P

A

TT

(1) 2.5 T

P, 3. 5

T

P, 4.5

T

P

(2) 2.5 T

P, 3

T

P, 4

T

P

(3) 2.5 T

P, 3.5

T

P, 4

T

P

(4) 4 T

P, 3.5

T

P, 2.5

T

P



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

14. The ouput of an OR gate is connected to both the

inputs of a NAND gate. The combination will

serve as a :

(1) OR gate (2) NOT gate

(3) NOR gate (4) AND gate

15. In an electromagnetic wave, the direction of the

magnetic field induction

B is-

(1) parallel to electric field

E

(2) perpendicular to electric field

E

(3) antiparallel to Poynting vector

S

(4) random

16. A transformer transforms 220 volts to 11 volts.

If the current strength in the primary coil is 5 amp.

and that in the secondary, 90 amp, what is the

efficiency of the transformer is -

(1) 90% (2) 100% (3) 211% (4) 150%

17. Ratio of minimum kinetic energies of two

projectile of same mass is 4 : 1. The ratio of the

maximum height attained by them is also 4 : 1.

The ratio of their ranges would be :

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1

(3) 8 : 1 (4) 16 : 1

18. In the middle of the depletion layer of reverse

biased p-n junction, the-

(1) electric field is zero

(2) potential is maximum

(3) electric field is maximum

(4) potential is zero

19. When the switches are arranged so that the current

through the battery is minimum, what is the

voltage across points A and B –

6

1

24 V

9

6 3

1 1

A

B

(1) 4 V (2) 0 V

(3) 1 V (3) 2 V

14. OR NAND :(1) OR (2) NOT

(3) NOR (4) AND

15.

B

(1)

E

(2)

E

(3)

S

(4)

16. 220 volts 11 volts 5 amp 90 amp -(1) 90% (2) 100% (3) 211% (4) 150%

17.

4 : 1

4 : 1 :

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1

(3) 8 : 1 (4) 16 : 1

18. p-n (1) (2) (3) (4)

19.

A B

6

1

24 V

9

6 3

1 1

A

B

(1) 4 V (2) 0 V

(3) 1 V (3) 2 V



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

20. The lateral shift produced by the slab is :–

60°

30° 3 m

(1) 0.5 m (2) 1m (3) 1.5 m (4) 2 m

21. A point moves with uniform acceleration and its

initial speed and final speed are 1 m/s and

2 m/s respectively then, the space average of

velocity over the distance moved is. (in m/s) :-

(1)14

m / s9

(2) 3

m / s2

(3)5

m/s2

(4) None of these

22. The mass of a spaceship is 1000 kg. It is to be

launched from the earth's surface out into free

space. The value of 'g' and 'R' (radius of earth)

are 10 m/s2 and 6400 km respectively. The

required energy for this work will be :-

(1) 6.4 × 1010 Joules

(2) 6.4 × 1011 Joules

(3) 6.4 × 108 Joules

(4) 6.4 × 109 Joules

23. In a series LC circuit, the applied voltage is

V = V0 sin t. If is very low, then the voltage

drop across the inductor VL and capacitor VC are:-

L C

V= V sin t0

(1)0 0

L C

V VV ;V

2 2 (2) V

L = 0; V

C = V

0

(3) VL = V

0; V

C = 0 (4)

0L C

VV V

2

20.

60°

30° 3 m

(1) 0.5 m (2) 1m (3) 1.5 m (4) 2 m

21.

1m/s 2 m/s

(1)14

m / s9

(2) 3

m / s2

(3)5

m/s2

(4) None of these

22. 1000 kg

'g'

'R' ( ) 10 m/s2

6400 km :-(1) 6.4 × 1010 (2) 6.4 × 1011 (3) 6.4 × 108 (4) 6.4 × 109

23. L–C V = V0 sin t VL

VC :-

L C

V= V sin t0

(1)0 0

L C

V VV ;V

2 2 (2) V

L = 0; V

C = V

0

(3) VL = V

0; V

C = 0 (4)

0L C

VV V

2

Key Filling



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

24. The figure shows a combination

4°

µ2

µ1

°

of two thin prism producing

dispersion without deviation

(µ1 = 1.54, µ2 = 1.72).

The value of is

(1) 1° (2) 2°

(3) 3° (4) 4°

25. In the given arrangement, n number of equal

masses are connected by strings of negligible

masses. The tension in the string connected to

nth mass is

m

n

m

3

m

2

m

1

M

4….. m

(1) Mnm

mMg

(2)

nmM

mMg

(3) mg (4) mng

26. A block of wood is floating in water in a closedvessel as shown in the figure. The vessel isconnected to an air pump. When more air ispushed into the vessel, the block of wood floats

with (neglect compressibility of water) :-

(1) larger part in the water

(2) smaller part in the water

(3) same part in the water

(4) at some instant it will sink

27. Two identical batteries, each of emf 2V and

internal resistance r = 1 are connected as shown.

The maximum power that can be developed

across R using these batteries is :-

1

1

R

2V

2V

(1) 3.2 W (2) 8.2 W

(3) 2 W (4) 4W

24.

4°

µ2

µ1

°

gS r ks (µ

1 = 1.54, µ

2 = 1.72).

(1) 1°(2) 2°(3) 3°

(4) 4°

25. n

n

m

n

m

3

m

2

m

1

M

4….. m

(1) Mnm

mMg

(2)

nmM

mMg

(3) mg (4) mng

26.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 27. emf 2V

r = 1 R

:-

1

1

R

2V

2V

(1) 3.2 W (2) 8.2 W

(3) 2 W (4) 4W



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

28. An interference is observed due to two coherent

sources ‘A’ & ‘B’ having zero plase difference

separated by a distance 4 along the y-axis where

is the wavelength of the source. A detector D

is moved on the positive x-axis. The number of

points on the x-axis excluding the points x = 0

& x = at which maximum will be observed is.

A

y

B D

x

(1) three (2) four (3) two (4) infinite

29. A block of mass m placed on a rough inclined

plane of inclination = 30° can be just prevented

from sliding down by applying a force F1 up the

plane and it can be made to just slide up the plane

by applying force F2 up the plane. If the

coefficient of friction between the block and the

inclined plane is 1/2 3 , the relation between F1

and F2 is :-

(1) F2 = F1 (2) F2 = 2F1

(3) F2 = 3F

1(4) F

2 = 4F

1

30. A vertical glass capillary tube, open at both ends,

contains some water. Which of the following

shapes may be taken by the water in the tube?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

31. A voltmeter connected in series with a resistanceR

1 to a circuit indicates a voltage V

1 = 198 V.

When a series resistor R2 = 2R1 is used, thevoltmeter indicates a voltage V2 = 180 V. If theresistance of the voltmeter is RV = 900 then, the

applied voltage across A and B is:-

V V198V 180V

B B

A A

R1 R = 2R2 1

(1) 210 V (2) 200 V (3) 220 V (4) 240 V

28. y-4

A B

Dx x = 0

x = x

A

y

B D

x

(1) (2) (3) (4) 29. m = 30°

F1

F2

1/2 3 , F1 F2 :-

(1) F2 = F1 (2) F2 = 2F1

(3) F2 = 3F1 (4) F2 = 4F1

30. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

31. R1

V1 = 198 V

R2 = 2R1 V2 = 180 V R

V = 900 A B

:-

V V198V 180V

B B

A A

R1 R = 2R2 1

(1) 210 V (2) 200 V (3) 220 V (4) 240 V

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

32. A single slit Fraunhofer diffraction pattern is

formed with white light. For what wavelength of

light the third secondary maximum in the

diffraction pattern coincides with the second

secondary maximum in the pattern for red light

of wavelength 6500 Å :-

(1) 4400 Å (2) 4100 Å

(3) 4642.8 Å (4) 9100 Å

33. A block of mass 3kg is pulled up on a smooth

incline of angle 37° with the horizontal. If the

block moves with an acceleration of 2m/sec2, then

the power delivered by the pulling force at t = 5sec

after the start of motion –

(1) 120 W (2) 240 W

(3) 60 W (4) 480 W

34. Length of a spring of force constant k in its

unstretched condition is . The spring is cut into

two parts which have their unstretched lengths in

the ratio 1 : 2 = q : 1. Force constants of the two

parts k1 and k2 are then:-

(1) k(q + 1), kq

(2) k (q 1)

q

, kq

(3) k(q 1)

q

, k(q + 1)

(4) k(q 1)

q

, k

(q 1)

q

35. A wire cd of length and mass m is sliding

without friction on conducting rails ax and by as

shown. The vertical rails are connected to each

other with a resistance R between a and b. A

uniform magnetic field B is applied perpendicular

to the plane abcd such that cd moves with a

constant velocity of :-

(1) mgR

B

(2) 2 2

mgR

B

Ra b

c d

x y

(3) 3 3

mgR

B

(4) 2

mgR

B

32. (single slit

diffraction pattern )

(third

secondary maxima )6500 Å

:-

(1) 4400 Å (2) 4100 Å

(3) 4642.8 Å (4) 9100 Å

33. 3kg 37° 2m/sec2 t = 5sec –(1) 120 W (2) 240 W

(3) 60 W (4) 480 W

34. k

1 : 2 = q : 1 k1 k2

:-(1) k(q + 1), kq

(2) k (q 1)

q

, kq

(3) k(q 1)

q

, k(q + 1)

(4) k(q 1)

q

, k

(q 1)

q

35. m cd ax by

a b R

abcd

B cd

:-

(1) mgR

B

(2) 2 2

mgR

B

Ra b

c d

x y

(3) 3 3

mgR

B

(4) 2

mgR

B



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

36. The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E1

and E2 respectively. Two atoms of X fuse to give

one atom Y and an energy Q is released then :-

(1) Q = 2E1 – E2 (2) Q = E2 – 2E1

(3) 2E1 + E2 (4) Q = 2E2 + E1

37. If the system is released from rest then speed of

mass m when it has travelled a distance d on a

rough surface is :

m

2m

µ = 1/2

(1) gd (2) gd

2

(3) 2gd (4) gd

2

38. A particle is executing SHM of time period

24 sec and amplitude 20 cm. At t = 0, its

displacement is + 20 cm. Shortest time taken by

the particle in moving from x = + 10 cm to

x = – 10 cm is :-

(1) 4 sec (2) 2 sec (3) 8 sec (4) 3 sec

39. An electric field of 1500 V/m and a magnetic field

of 0.40 weber/metre2 act on a moving electron.

The minimum uniform speed along a straight line

the electron could have is :-

(1) 1.6 × 1015 m/s (2) 6 × 10–16 m/s

(3) 3.75 × 103 m/s (4) 3.75 × 102 m/s

40. The activity of a sample reduces from A0 to 0A

3

is one hour. The activity after 3 hours more

will :-

(1) 0A

3 3(2)

0A

9

(3) 0A

9 3(4)

0A

27

36. X Y E1 E

2

X Y

Q :-

(1) Q = 2E1 – E2 (2) Q = E2 – 2E1

(3) 2E1 + E2 (4) Q = 2E2 + E1

37. m d :

m

2m

µ = 1/2

(1) gd (2) gd

2

(3) 2gd (4) gd

2

38. 24 sec 20 cm

SHM t = 0 + 20 cm.

x = + 10 cm x = – 10 cm

:-

(1) 4 sec (2) 2 sec (3) 8 sec (4) 3 sec

39. 1500 V/m

0.40 /2

:-

(1) 1.6 × 1015 m/s (2) 6 × 10–16 m/s

(3) 3.75 × 103 m/s (4) 3.75 × 102 m/s

40. A0 0A

3

:-

(1) 0A

3 3(2)

0A

9

(3) 0A

9 3(4)

0A

27



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

41. For the complete combustion of 0.2 moles of the

sugar, how many moles of oxygen is required ?

(1) 1.2 (2) 0.24 (3) 2.4 (4) 0.12

42. Select the correct order of acidic strength of

oxides :-

(1) SO2 > SO3 > CO2

(2) Cs2O > K2O > Na2O

(3) CO2 > N

2O

5 > B

2O

3

(4) SO3 > CO2 > B2O3

43. The variation of extent of adsorption with

pressure at a given constant temperature is given

in following figure :

Pressure

xm

T3

T2

T1

Which of the following relation between

temperature of isotherms is correct?

(1) T1 = T

2 = T

3(2) T

1 < T

2 < T

3

(3) T3 < T

2 < T

1(4) T

1 < T

2 > T

3

44. Which of the following is an amino acid ?

(1) H2N – COOH (2) CH – CH – COOH3

CONH2

(3)NH – C – COOH2

O

(4) COOHN

H45. 10 g of CaCO

3 contains :-

(1) 6 × 1022 atoms of Ca

(2) 0.1 gm eqv. of Ca

(3) 10 moles of CaCO3

(4) 1 gm. atom of calcium

46. Which alkali metal forms bicarbonate only in

aqueous solution ?

(1) Lithium (2) Sodium

(3) Potassium (4) Caesium

47. Which expansion will produce more change in

entropy during reversible & isothermal process?

(1) 1 mole H2 at 300 K from 2 litre to 20 litre

(2) 1 mole N2 at 400 K from 1 litre to 10 litre

(3) 1 mole O3 at 500 K from 3 litre to 30 litre

(4) All have same S

41. 0.2(1) 1.2 (2) 0.24 (3) 2.4 (4) 0.12

42. :-(1) SO2 > SO3 > CO2

(2) Cs2O > K2O > Na2O

(3) CO2 > N

2O

5 > B

2O

3

(4) SO3 > CO

2 > B

2O

3

43.

Pressure

xm

T3

T2

T1

(1) T

1 = T

2 = T

3

(2) T1 < T

2 < T

3

(3) T3 < T

2 < T

1

(4) T1 < T

2 > T

3

44. ?

(1) H2N – COOH (2) CH – CH – COOH3

CONH2

(3)NH – C – COOH2

O

(4) COOHN

H45. 10 CaCO3 :-

(1) 6 × 1022 (2) 0.1 Ca(3) 10 CaCO

3

(4) 1 Ca 46.

?(1) (2) (3) (4)

47. ?(1) 300 K 1 H

2 2 20

(2) 400 K 1 N2 1 10

(3) 500 K 1 O2 3 30

(4) S



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

48. Which of the following is not correctly matched :-

(1) Peracetamole

N 3H – C – CH

O

OH

(2)PHBV—O–C 2H–CH –C–O–CH–CH –C—2

OCH3 CH –CH2 3 On

(3) Peptide bond – C – NH –

O

(4) Anti Histamines Al(OH)3

49. Five valence electrons of nitrogen are shown as :

2p2s

AB C D E

If the spin quantum number of B and E is

–1/2. The group of electrons with three same

quantum numbers are :-

(1) Only AB (2) Only CDE

(3)Both the above (4) None of these

50. Aqueous ammonia can be used to separate which

of the following pair of ions ?

(1) Al3+ and Pb2+ (2) Ni2+ and Cu2+

(3) Zn2+ and Cr3+ (4) Al3+ and Zn2+

51. In any natural process :-

(1) The entropy of the universe remains const.

(2) The entropy of the universe tends towards

maximum

(3) The entropy of the universe tends towards

minimum

(4) Any of the above can happen

52. Wrong data for the first order reaction are :-

(1) t50%

= 100 sec, t75%

= 200 sec

(2) t75%

= 32 min, t50%

= 16 min

(3) Both the above

(4) t50% = 100 sec, t75% = 150 sec

53. Electron moving with a velocity of 'V' has a

certain value of de-Broglie wave length. The

velocity of neutron having the same wavelength

would be ?

(1) 1840

V(2) 1840 V (3)

V

1840 (4) V

48. :-

(1)

N 3H – C – CH

O

OH

(2)PHBV—O–C 2H–CH –C–O–CH–CH –C—2

OCH3 CH –CH2 3 On

(3) – C – NH –

O

(4) Al(OH)3

49.

2p2s

AB C D E

B E –1/2

:-

(1) AB (2) CDE

(3) (4) 50. NH

3 ?(1) Al3+ Pb2+ (2) Ni2+ Cu2+

(3) Zn2+ Cr3+ (4) Al3+ Zn2+

51. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

52. :-(1) t50%

= 100 , t75%

= 200 (2) t

75% = 32 , t

50% = 16

(3) (4) t50% = 100 , t75% = 150

53. 'V'

:-

(1) 1840

V(2) 1840 V (3)

V

1840 (4) V



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

54. Cl can be oxidised by :-

(1) MnO2 (2) KMnO4

(3) CuCl2 + O

2(4) All

55. In the following reaction 3A + B 2C + D

Initial mole of B is double of A. At equilibrium

mole of A and C are equal. Hence % dissociation

of B is

(1) 60% (2) 10%

(3) 40% (4) 33.33%

56. For the cell, Mn(s)|Mn+2

(aq)(0.4M)||Sn+2(aq)(0.04)|Sn

(s),

Calculate free energy change (G) at 298 K.

Given : E°Mn+2|Mn = –1.18 V; E°Sn+2|Sn = –0.14 volt

2.303RT

F = 0.06

(1) 180.93 KJ (2) –194.93 KJ

(3) –180.93 KJ (4) None of these

57. Acetic acid exists as dimer in a benzene solution.

vant's Hoff factor was found to be 0.52. What is

the degree of association ?

(1) 0.48 (2) 0.88 (3) 0.96 (4) 0.52

58. Common hydrolysis so products of XeF2 & XeF

4

are :-

(1) Xe (2) O2

(3) HF (4) All

59. For the reaction 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g) the

degree of dissociation () of HI(g) is related to

equilibrium constant KP by the expression :–

(1) 1 2

2

KP(2)

1 2

2

KP

(3) 2

1 2

K

KP

P(4)

2

1 2

K

K

P

P

60. If Au / Au

E

is 1.69 volt and 3Au / AuE

is 1.40 volt.

Then 3Au / AuE

will be :-

(1) 0.19 V (2) 1.255 V

(3) – 1.255 V (4) None of these

61. Total number of sulphur atoms in H2S(n)O

6 which

form covalent bond in their ground state :-

(1) n (2) n – 1

(3) n – 2 (4) n + 1

54. Cl :-(1) MnO2 (2) KMnO4

(3) CuCl2 + O

2(4) All

55. 3A + B 2C + D B

A A C

B

(1) 60% (2) 10%

(3) 40% (4) 33.33%

56. Mn(s)

|Mn+2(aq)(0.4M)||Sn+2

(aq)(0.04)|Sn(s)

298 K (G)

: E°Mn+2|Mn

= –1.18 V; E°Sn+2|Sn

= –0.14 volt

2.303RT

F = 0.06

(1) 180.93 KJ (2) –194.93 KJ

(3) –180.93 KJ (4)

57.

0.52

:-(1) 0.48 (2) 0.88 (3) 0.96 (4) 0.52

58. XeF2 XeF

4

:-(1) Xe (2) O2

(3) HF (4) 59. 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g) HI(g)

() KP :–

(1) 1 2

2

KP (2) 1 2

2

KP

(3) 2

1 2

K

KP

P(4)

2

1 2

K

K

P

P

60. Au / Au

E

= 1.69 3Au / AuE

= 1.40

3Au / AuE

:-

(1) 0.19 V (2) 1.255 V

(3) – 1.255 V (4) 61. H2S(n)O6 S atom

covalent bonds :-(1) n (2) n – 1

(3) n – 2 (4) n + 1

Take it Easy and Make it Easy



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

62. Which of the following will be redox change :-

(1) NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + C.H2SO4 red vapours

(2) KCl + C.H2SO

4 Acid

(3) NaNO3 + C.H

2SO

4 Acid

(4) None

63. In Friedel-Craft's alkylation besides AlCl3, the

other reactants are :-

(1) C6H6 + NH3 (2) C6H6 + CH3COCl

(3) C6H6 + CH3Cl (4) C6H6 + CH4

64. Chromium metal crystallises in body centred

cubic lattice. The edge length of unit cell is found

to be 287 pm. Atomic radius of chromium will

be :-

(1) 87 pm (2) 62.135 pm

(3) 124.27 pm (4) None of these

65.

Strong ligand (octahedral field)

CFSE = x1

Weak ligand (octahedral field) CFSE = x2

(CFSE = Crystal Field stasilisation energy )

dMetal ion

3

The correct relation of x1 and x2 are :-

(1) x1 > x

2(2) x

2 > x

1

(3) x1 = x

2(4) x

2 = 1.6 x

1

66. Which of the following is correct :-

Reaction Product

(1) Cu + C.HNO3 NH3

(2) Zn + dil HNO3 NO2

(3) NaBr + C.H2SO

4 HBr

(4) KI + F2 KF + I2

67. Match the following :

Set I Set II

(a) 2 4Conc. H SO2 5 170ºC

C H OH (i) Methane

(b) 3 Ag (Powder )CHI (ii) Ethylene

(c) Electrolysis3CH COONa(aq) (iii) Benzene

(d) NaOH

3 CaO,CH COONa

(iv) Acetylene

(v) Ethane

The correct match is :-

(1) a - ii, b - iv, c - v, d - i

(2) a - ii, b - iv, c - v, d - iii

(3) a - iv, b - ii, c - v, d - i

(4) a - iv, b - ii, c - v, d - iii

62. redox :-(1) NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + C.H2SO4 red vapours

(2) KCl + C.H2SO

4 Acid

(3) NaNO3 + C.H

2SO

4 Acid

(4) 63. AlCl3

:-(1) C6H6 + NH3 (2) C6H6 + CH3COCl

(3) C6H6 + CH3Cl (4) C6H6 + CH4

64.

287 pm. :-

(1) 87 pm (2) 62.135 pm

(3) 124.27 pm (4)

65.

ligand (

)

CFSE = x1

ligand ( )CFSE = x2

(CFSE = Crystal Field stasilisation energy )

d3

x1 x2 :-

(1) x1 > x

2(2) x

2 > x

1

(3) x1 = x

2(4) x

2 = 1.6 x

1

66. :-

(1) Cu + C.HNO3

NH3

(2) Zn + dil HNO3

NO2

(3) NaBr + C.H2SO

4 HBr

(4) KI + F2 KF + I2

67. :Set I Set II

(a) 2 4Conc. H SO2 5 170ºC

C H OH (i) Methane

(b) 3 Ag (Powder )CHI (ii) Ethylene

(c) Electrolysis3CH COONa(aq) (iii) Benzene

(d) NaOH

3 CaO,CH COONa

(iv) Acetylene

(v) Ethane :-(1) a - ii, b - iv, c - v, d - i

(2) a - ii, b - iv, c - v, d - iii

(3) a - iv, b - ii, c - v, d - i

(4) a - iv, b - ii, c - v, d - iii



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

68.–Br

NO2

Mg

Ether A 2 2CO / H O

Dry ice B; B is:-

(1)

–CHO

NO2

(2)

–CH –OH2

NO2

(3) –COOH

NO2

(4) –OH

NO2

69. Correct Match is :-

Attack of ligand on d-orbital of metal

Metal ion having max-energy

(1) Square planar dxz, dyz

(2) Tetrahedral 2zd

(3) Octahedral dxz

, dyz

, dxy

(4) Triagonal 2zd

Bipyramidal

70. Give the correct reaction :-

(a) NaNO2 2 4

4

dil.H SO

FeSONO(g)

(b) HNO3 4 10P O

N2O5

(c) P4 + NaOH PH3 + Na3PO4

(d) (NH4)2Cr

2O

7 D N

2O + Cr

2O

3 + H

2O

Correct option are :-

(1) a & b (2) a & c

(3) b & c (4) b & d

71. 3-phenylpropene on reaction with HBr gives (as

a major product) :-

(1) C6H5CH2CH(Br)CH3

(2) C6H5CH(Br)CH2CH3

(3) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br

(4) C6H5CH(Br)CH==CH2

72. CH3COOH 3NH

X

NaOBr Y

2NaNO HCl Z . What is Z ?

(1) CH –C–H3

O

(2) CH3–CH2–OH

(3) CH3–O–CH3 (4) CH3–CH2–Cl

68.–Br

NO2

Mg

Ether A 2 2CO / H O

Dry ice B; B :-

(1)

–CHO

NO2

(2)

–CH –OH2

NO2

(3) –COOH

NO2

(4) –OH

NO2

69. :-

ligand

d-

(1) dxz, dyz

(2) 2zd

(3) dxz

, dyz

, dxy

(4) 2zd

70. :-

(a) NaNO2 2 4

4

dil.H SO

FeSONO(g)

(b) HNO3 4 10P O

N2O5

(c) P4 + NaOH PH3 + Na3PO4

(d) (NH4)

2Cr

2O

7 D N

2O + Cr

2O

3 + H

2O

:-(1) a b (2) a c(3) b c (4) b d

71. 3-HBr :-(1) C6H5CH2CH(Br)CH3

(2) C6H5CH(Br)CH2CH3

(3) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br

(4) C6H5CH(Br)CH==CH2

72. CH3COOH 3NH

X

NaOBr Y

2NaNO HCl Z ; Z ?

(1) CH –C–H3

O

(2) CH3–CH2–OH

(3) CH3–O–CH3 (4) CH3–CH2–Cl



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

73. In which molecule all X-O bond length present in

molecule are equal (X = central atom) :-

(1) N2O

5(2) P

4O

6

(3) H2CO

3(4) P

4O

10

74. A gas X diffuses three times faster than another

gas Y. The ratio of their densities is :-

(1)1/3 (2) 1/9

(3) 1/6 (4) 1/12

75. Which of the following carbocations is most

stable?

(1)

NO2

H

X

(2)

NO2

H

X

(3)

O N2

H

X

(4)

NO2

H

X

76. Which of the following will not lose asymmetryon reduction with LiAlH4 :-

(1)

CHO

CH –CH2 3HO–CH2

CH=CH2

(2)

CH3

COOH

C CH

HO–CH2

(3)

CH3

CHO

CH –CH2 3

CH =CH2 –O

(4)

CH3

Cl

CH –CH2 3

H

73. X-O

(X = )

(1) N2O

5(2) P

4O

6

(3) H2CO

3(4) P

4O

10

74. X Y

(1)1/3 (2) 1/9

(3) 1/6 (4) 1/12

75. ?

(1)

NO2

H

X

(2)

NO2

H

X

(3)

O N2

H

X

(4)

NO2

H

X

76. LiAlH4 :-

(1)

CHO

CH –CH2 3HO–CH2

CH=CH2

(2)

CH3

COOH

C CH

HO–CH2

(3)

CH3

CHO

CH –CH2 3

CH =CH2 –O

(4)

CH3

Cl

CH –CH2 3

H



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

77. Pb and Sn are extracted from their chief ore

by :

(1) Carbon reduction and self reduction

respectively.

(2) Self reduction and carbon reduction

respectively.

(3) Electrolysis and self reduction respectively.

(4) Self reduction and electrolysis respectively.

78. The volume of gases NH3, CO

2 and H

2 adsorbed by

1 gram charoal at 300 K will lie in the order :

(1) CO2 > NH

3 > H

2

(2) NH3 > CO

2 > H

2

(3) NH3 > H

2 > CO

2

(4) H2 > CO

2 > NH

3

79.

HC – OH

C – OH

HOHOHH

HHO

CH OH2

, The given is enol form of :

(1) D-Sucrose (2) D-Ribose

(3) D-Glucose (4) All of there

80. CH –C–Cl + C H ONa3 2 5

––

CH3

CH3

Major product will be

(1) CH –C–O–C H3 2 5

––

CH3

CH3

(2) CH –C=CH3 2–

CH3

(3) CH –CH–CH –O–C H3 2 2 5–

CH3

(4) None of these

77. Pb Sn

:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

78. 300 K 1 NH3, CO

2 H

2

(1) CO2 > NH

3 > H

2

(2) NH3 > CO

2 > H

2

(3) NH3 > H

2 > CO

2

(4) H2 > CO

2 > NH

3

79.

HC – OH

C – OH

HOHOHH

HHO

CH OH2

,

(1) D- (2) D-

(3) D- (4)

80. CH –C–Cl + C H ONa3 2 5

––

CH3

CH3

:-

(1) CH –C–O–C H3 2 5

––

CH3

CH3

(2) CH –C=CH3 2–

CH3

(3) CH –CH–CH –O–C H3 2 2 5–

CH3

(4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

81. Consider the following four statements :-

(A) Teichoic acid present in all eubacteria

(B) Mesosomes are analogus to mitochondria

(C) Those organisms which can survive on living

and dead organic matter they are called

facultative.

(D) Rhizobium is found in root nodules of

Non-leguminous plants.

The two wrong statements are

(1) Statements A and B

(2) Statements A and C

(3) Statements A and D

(4) Statements B and C

82. Given below are four statements (A-D) each with

one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly

fill up the blanks in three statement :-

(A) M-phase starts with the.....(i)....and usually

ends with.......(ii)......

(B) In prophase initiation of the assembly of

mitotic spindle occure. In this process

......(i)...... the proteinaceouns components of

cell cytoplasm help in the process.

(C) Cell growth results in disturbing the ratio

between the .....(i)..... and the .....(ii)......

(D) The first two stages of prophase-I are

relatively.....(i)...... compared to next stage

that is ......(ii)......

(1) (A) (i) Protein synthesis, (ii) Karyokinasis

(B) (i) Microfilament

(C) (i) Nucleus, (ii) cytoplams

(2) (B) (i) Microtubules

(C) (i) Nucleus, (ii) cytoplasm

(D) (i) Long lived, (ii) Zygotene

(3) (C) (i) Nucleus, (ii) Cytoplasm

(D) (i) Short lived, (ii) pachytene

(A) (i) Karyokinasis, (ii) cytokinasis

(4) (D) (i) Long lived, (ii) Diplotene

(A) (i) Karyokinasis, (ii) cytokinasis

(B) (i) Microtublules

81. :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A B

(2) A C

(3) A D

(4) B C

82. (A-D)

:-

(A) -.....(i)....

.......(ii)......

(B)

......(i)......

(C) . ... .(i).....

.....(ii)......

(D)

.....(i)...... .....(ii)......

(1) (A) (i) (ii)

(B) (i)

(C) (i) (ii)

(2) (B) (i)

(C) (i) (ii)

(D) (i)(ii)

(3) (C) (i) (ii)

(D) (i) (ii)

(A) (i)(i)

(4) (D) (i)(ii)

(A) (i)(ii)

(B) (i)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

83. It is a diagrammatic view of human respiratory

system. Find out the a, b, c and d.

b

c

d

a

a b c d

(1) Larynx Bronchus Alveoli Diaphragm

(2) Epiglottis Larynx Bronchus Bronchiole

(3) Larynx Bronchus Bronchiole Alveoli

(4) Epiglottis Trachea Alveoli Bronchiole

84. I

II

III

1 2 3 4 5 6

What is the genotype of II (3) :-

(1) AA (2) aa

(3) x°y (4) Aa

85. Which one of the following statement correct

about Gymnosperm ?

(1) They show origin of seed habit

(2) Sporophyte are homosporous and Monoecious

(3) Gametophytes are dioecious and short lived

(4) They require water for fertilization.

86. Parbhani Kranti is a new variety of Abelanoschus

esculentm having the resistance to :-

(1) Shoot and fruit borer

(2) Bacterial blight

(3) Yellow mosaic virus

(4) Tabacco mosace virus

83. a, b, c

d

b

c

d

a

a b c d

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

84. I

II

III

1 2 3 4 5 6

II (3) :-

(1) AA (2) aa

(3) x°y (4) Aa

85.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

86.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

87. Match the column-I & column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(I) Asthma (A) Fibrosis

(II) Bronchitis (B)

Respiratorysurfacedecreased

(III) Emphysema (C)Continuecoufing

(IV)

Occupationalrespiratorydisease

(D) Wheezing

(1) I-D II-C III-A IV-B

(2) I-D II-C III-B IV-A

(3) I-A II-D III-B IV-C

(4) I-B II-C III-A IV-D

88. Select the incorrect statement from the given

statements

(1) Large holes in Swisscheese are due to

production of large amount of CO2

(2) Protease and pectinase is used to clarify the

bottled juices

(3) Penicillin was discovered by Waksman

(4) In mycorrhiza, the fungi helps in absorption

of nutrients

89. Read the following statements -

(A) The sporophyte is not free living but attached

to the photosynthetic gametophyte and derives

nourishment from it.

(B) The female gametophyte in these plants are

retained on the parent sporophyte for variable

periods.

A and B statements are related with which option

respectively.

(1) Algae, Gymnosperm

(2) Gymnosperm, Angiosperm

(3) Pteriodophytes, Bryophytes

(4) Bryophytes, Pteridophytes

90. m-RNA which is formed over DNA templet

is :-

(1) Identical to sens strand of DNA

(2) Complementary to antisense strand

(3) Complementary to sense strand

(4) None

87. -I -II :-

Column-I Column-II

(I) (A)

(II) (B)

(III) (C)

(IV) (D)

(1) I-D II-C III-A IV-B

(2) I-D II-C III-B IV-A

(3) I-A II-D III-B IV-C

(4) I-B II-C III-A IV-D

88. (1) Swiss cheese CO

2

(2) Protease and pectinase bottled juices

(3) (4)

89. (A)

(B)

A B (1) (2) (3) (4) ,

90. m-RNA :-(1) (2) (3) (4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

91. Which of the following can be used by a surgeon

for keeping a muscle relaxed during

operation :-

(1) Glutamic acid (2) Malathione

(3) Curare (4) None of these

92. A Drosophila heterozygous for both body colour

and eye colour will be :-

(1) Only male

(2) Only female

(3) Mostly male

(4) Either male or female

93. Leucocytes with least DLC are :-

(1) Lymphocyte (2) Eosinophils

(3) Monocytes (4) Basophils

94. Wobble hypothesis establishes :-

(1) Peptide chain formation

(2) Initiation of peptide chain

(3) Termination of peptide chain

(4) Economy in t–RNA molecules

95. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in :-

(1) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor in

calcium

(2) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes

(3) Fructose and calcium but has no enzymes

(4) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no

calcium

96. RNA interference (RNAi) method is used in

silencing of m-RNA at post transcriptional level

is used in :-

(1) Preventing root knot nematode damage

(2) Preventing leaf gall producing organisms

(3) Synthesis of hirudin

(4) Production of Golden rice

97. Beta-chain of haemoglobin is made up of :-

(1) 141 Amino acids

(2) 147 Amino acids

(3) 145 Amino acids

(4) 146 Amino acids

98. The change in pappered moths support :-

(1)Natural selection acts on favourable variations

which appear among individuals

(2)Environment has no role in evolution

(3)Acquired characters during life of an

individual are inherited

(4)Heritable variations arise due to the changes

is the gene complex

91. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

92. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

93. DLC :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

94. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) t–RNA

95. :-(1)

(2) (3)

(4)

96. m-RNA RNA

:-(1)

(2) (3) (4)

97. (1) 141 Amino acids

(2) 147 Amino acids

(3) 145 Amino acids

(4) 146 Amino acids

98. :–(1)

(2) (3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

99. Given below is a diagramatic sketch of a portion

of human male reproductive system. Select the

correct set of the names of the parts labelled A,

B, C, D:-

A

BCD

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Ureter Seminalvesicle

Prostate Bulbourethralgland

(2) Ureter Prostate Seminalvesicle

Bulbourethralgland

(3) Vasdeferens

Seminalvesicle

Prostate Bulbourethralgland

(4) Vasdeferens

Seminalvesicle

Bulbourethralgland

Prostate

100. Dominant phenotype/trait is produced by :-

(1) Unmodified allele only

(2) Modified alleles only

(3) Both unmodified and equivalent modified

alleles

(4) Every modified and unmodified allele.

101. Which one of the trait is not related to Mammalia

class of Tetrapoda :-

(1) Autostylic suspensorium of jaw

(2) Dicondylic skull

(3) Endothermic

(4) Three ossicles in ear

102. 'Sickle - cell - anaemia' is an example of :-

(1) Natural selection

(2) Balancing selection

(3) Both (1) & (2)

(4) Bottleneck effect

103. Parturition is induced by

(1) A complex neuroendocrine mechanism

(2) A neuro exocrine mechanism

(3) A physio-chemical mechanism

(4) None of the above

99.

A, B, C, D

:

A

BCD

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

100. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

101. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

102. (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4)

103. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

104. Identify A & B :-

Immunity

Innate Acquired

Active Passive

(A) (B)

A B

(1) ATS T. T.

(2) ADS B.C.G.

(3) B.C.G. D.P.T.

(4) T.T. A.T.S.

105. In which type of fruit pappus is found ?

(1) Amphisaraca (2) Balausta

(3) Samara (4) Cypsela

106. Coconut milk is widely used in tissue culture

experiments because :-

(1) It promotes the differentiation of root in callus

(2) It contain natural substances with cytokinin

like activities

(3) It causes the enlargement of cells

(4) It promotes the root hair formation and helps

the plant to increase their absorption surface

107. Which statement is not correct :-

(1) During pregnancy all events of menstrual

cycle stop

(2) The secretion of LH & FSH decreases

gradually during the follicular phase

(3) The menstrual flow results due to breakdown

of endometrial lining

(4) All the above

108. Which of the following technique is based on

piezoelectric effect :-

(1) PET (2) MRI

(3) Sonography (4) CT-Scan

109. Which one of the following is an example of

primary lateral meristem ?

(1) Phellogen

(2) Inter fascicular cambium

(3) Intercalary meristem

(4) Intra fascicular cambium

104. A B :-

(A) (B)

A B

(1) ATS T. T.

(2) ADS B.C.G.

(3) B.C.G. D.P.T.

(4) T.T. A.T.S.

105. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

106. :-(1) (2)

(3) (4)

107. :-(1)

(2) LH FSH

(3)

(4)

108.

:-

(1) PET (2) MRI

(3) (4) CT-

109.

?(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

110. Deficiency symptoms of some elements are visible

first in the young leaves. How many of the following

elements are related to this type of nature ?

Nitrogen, Calcium, Phosphorus, Potassium,

Magnesium, Sulphur.

(1) Two (2) Five

(3) Three (4) One

111. In Angiosperm, entry of pollen tube through the

funiculus is :-

(1) Porogamy (2) Chalazogamy

(3) Mesogamy (4) Semigamy

112. How many statements are correct regarding

biological oxygen demand :-

(A) Amount of O2 required by microbes to

decompose organic waste.

(B) Amount of O2 produced by microbes on

decomposing organic waste

(C) Amount of O2 required by microbes to survive

(1) A and B (2) Only B

(3) Only A (4) A, B & C

113. Which of the following has not a drupe fruit ?

(1) Mango (2) Guava

(3) Almond (4) Walnut

114. How many sucrose molecules are required for the

gain of 36 ATP by a yeast cell in anaerobic

conditions ?

(1) One (2) Nine

(3) Eighteen (4) Two

115. Development of fruit from unfertilized ovary is:-

(1) Parthenogenesis (2) Apospory

(3) Diplospory (4) Parthenocarpy

116. The reason for prickly pear cactus to spread in

australia is brought by :-

(1) The availability of water

(2) Human activty

(3) Absence of cactus feeding animals

(4) Availability of predator in Australia

117. Which one of the following cellular part is not

correctly described ?

(1) Nucleolus = It is a site for protein synthesis

(2) Heterochromaton = This is dark stained, thick

part of chromation

(3) Nucleoplasm = Contain nucleolus and

chromation

(4) Centriole = Play an important role in cell division

110. (1) (2) (3) (4)

111. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

112. :-(A) O2

(B) O2

(C) O2

(1) A B (2) B

(3) A (4) A, B C113. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

114. 36 ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

115. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

116. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 117.

?

(1) =

(2) =

(3) =

(4) =

Time Management is Life Management



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

118. Identify the correct match

(1) PCT - 65 to 75% reabsorption

(2) Henle's loop - ultrafilteration

(3) DCT - 4NH reabsorption

(4) Collecting duct - Glucose

119. How many types of gametes will be produced by

a tryhybrid individual, where last two genes are

completely linked ?

(1) Eight (2) Four

(3) Six (4) Two

120. Choose the correct match :-

(a) Co-evolution - endoparasite and host(b) Mutualism - Relation of plants and BGA

(c) Sexual deciet - shown by opuntia plant(d) Connell's elegant field experiement - competition

Options :-

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) a, b, d

DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180

These questions consist of two statements each,

printed as Assertion and Reason.Whileanswering these Questions you are required to

choose any one of the following four responses.

A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & theReason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason

is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False

D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.

121. Assertion :– A solid material is supplied heat at

constant rate. The temperature of the material is

changing with the heat input as shown in figure.

Specific heat of vapour of substance is three times

of specific heat of liquid of substance.

Reason :– Specific heat 1

slope

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

118. (1) PCT - 65 to 75% (2) (3) DCT -

4NH

(4)

119.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

120. :-(a) - (b) - BGA(c) - (d) - (1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) a, b, d

121 180

A.

B.

C.

D.

121.

:– 1

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

122. Assertion :- A wave can be represented byfunction y = f (kx ± t).

Reason :- Because it satisfy the differential

equation.

2 2

2 2 2

y 1 y

x v t where

vk

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

123. Assertion :– When a current flows in the coil of

transformer then its core becomes hot.

Reason :– The core of transformer is made of iron.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

124. Assertion : When temperature of a conductor is

increased its resistacne increases.

Reason : Free electrons collide more frequently

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

125. Assertion :- On a banked curved track, vertical

component of normal reaction provides the

necessary centripetal force.

Reason :- Centripetal force is not always required

for turning.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

126. Assertion : If we see along the axis of a charged

ring, the magnitude of electric field is minimum

at centre and magnitude of electric potential is

maximum.

Reason : Electric field is a vector quantity while

electric potential is scalar

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

127. Assertion :- When a body tends to slide down an

inclined plane, force of friction acts up the plane.

Reason :- Friction always opposes the relative

motion.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

128. Assertion : In an L-R series AC circuit current in

the circuit will decrease with increase in frequency.

Reason : Phase difference between current

function and voltage function will increase with

increase in frequency.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

122. :- y = f (kx ± t)

:-

2 2

2 2 2

y 1 y

x v t

v

k

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

123.

:–

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

124. :

:

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

125. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

126. :

:

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

127. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

128. : L-R AC

:

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

129. Assertion :- Two identical spherical balls are

released from two inclined plane. First is

sufficiently rough to allow pure rolling and second

is smooth. Both the balls will have same kinetic

energy on reaching to the bottom.

Reason :- Linear velocity of second ball will be

more.

hh

O O

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

130. Assertion : When unequal and opposite charge

given to two parallel metal plates then complete

charge exist on inner surface of plates.

Reason : Due to attraction complete charge comes

on inner surface of plate

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

131. Assertion :- A body of mass m1 collides head on

elastically with another stationary body of mass

m2. After the collision velocity of mass m2 is

maximum, when m1 >> m2.

Reason :- Velocity of second body is always

maximum, when its mass m2 is greater than the

mass of the hitting body.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

132. Assertion :- Free electrons always keep onmoving in a conductor, even then no magneticforce acts on them in magnetic field unless acurrent is passed through it.Reason :- The average velocity of free electronsis zero.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

133. Assertion :- Sky wave signals are used for long

distance radio communication. These signals are

in general, less stable than ground wave signals.

Reason :- The state of ionosphere varies from

hour to hour, day to day and season to season.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

134. Assertion : For a prism of refracting angle 60°

and refractive index 2 minimum deviation is

30°.

Reason : At minimum deviation, r1 = r

2 = 30

2

A.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

129. :-

:-

hh

O O

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

130. : : (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

131. :- m1 m2 m1 >> m2 m2 :- m2 m2 (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

132. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

133. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

134. : 60º 2

30º

: r1 = r

2 = 30

2

A

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

135. Assertion :- NAND & NOR are called universal

gates.

Reason :- By repetetive use of NAND and NOR

any logic gate can be constructed.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

136. Assertion : Water in a container is to be cooled

by putting an ice cube in it. Water will get cooled

fastest in case ‘A’.

A B C

Reason : In ‘A’ water is cooled through

convection only, in ‘B’ partly through convection

and partly through conduction and in ‘C’ through

conduction only.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

137. Assertion :- A needle placed carefully on the

surface of water may float, whereas the ball of the

same material will always sink.

Reason :- The buoyancy of an object depends both

on the material and shape of the object.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

138. Assertion : We cannot get diffraction pattern from

a wide slit illuminated by monochromatic light.

Reason : In diffraction pattern, all the bright

bands are not of the same intensity.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

139. Assertion :- Sound waves cannot be polarised.

Reason :- Polarisation can occur only in

transverse waves.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

140. Assertion : Energy is released when heavy nuclei

undergo fission or light nuclei undergo fussion.

Reason : For heavy nuclei, binding energy per

nucleon increases with increasing A while for

light nuclei it decreases with increasing A.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

141. Assertion :- CO2 obtained either by heating

CaCO3 or by burning carbon. The ratio of carbon

and oxygen is 3 : 8 by mass.

Reason :- This is attributed to the law of constant

proportion.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

135. :- NAND NOR :- NAND NOR (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

136. :

A

A B C

: A B

C

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

137. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

138. : : (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

139. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

140. :- :- A A (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

141. :- CaCO3

CO2

3:8

:- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

142. Assertion :- An exothermic process,

non-spontaneous at high temperature may

become spontaneous at low temperature.

Reason :- With decrease in temperature,

rendomness (entropy) increases.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

143. Assertion :- 0.1M solution of urea shows the

same depression in f.p. as shown by 0.1 M glucose

solution.

Reason :- Both have same value of Kf

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

144. Assertion :- Enthalpy of graphite is lower than

that of diamond.

Reason :- Entropy of graphite is greater than that

of diamond.

(1) A (2 ) B (3) C (4) D

145. Assertion :- Pb4+ compounds are stronger

oxidizing agents than Sn4+ compounds.

Reason :- The higher oxidation states for the

group 14 elements are more stable of the heavier

members of the group due to 'inert pair effect'.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

146. Assertion : H2O() H2O(g) low pressure is

favourable for increasing boiling point.

Reason :- On increasing pressure liquid will easily

convert into gas.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

147. Assertion :- s-p mixing is observed in N2 but not

in O2.

Reason :- Energy difference between 2s-2p is

much higher in oxygen atom than in nitrogen

atom.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

148. Assertion :- CH3–CHOHCH–OH–CH3 can have

meso form.

Reason :- There are dissimilar chiral carbon.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

149. Assertion :- Zn is produced in gaseous state when

it is extracted by

ZnO + C Zn + CO

Reason :- Reduction of ZnO by carbon is possible

at temperature which is higher than the boiling

point of Zn.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

142. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

143. :- 0.1

0.1 M

:- Kf

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

144. :- :- (1) A (2 ) B (3) C (4) D

145. :- Pb4+ Sn4+ :- 14 (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

146. :- H2O() H2O(g) :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

147. :- "s-p mixing" N2 O2

:- O2 2s-2p N2

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

148. :- CH3–CHOHCH–OH–CH3

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

149. :- ZnO + C Zn + CO

Zn

:- ZnO C

Zn

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

150. Assertion :- Diastereoisomers have different

physical properties.

Reason :- They are non-superimposable mirror

images.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

151. Assertion :- SnCl2 produces black precipitate with

Hg2Cl2.

Reason :- HgCl2 does not react with SnCl

2.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

152. Assertion :- Maltose is composed of galactose.

Reason :- Glucose and galactose are differ from

C3-position.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

153. Assertion :- In optically active octahedral

complex [Fe(EDTA)]2–, coordination number of

Fe is 6.

Reason :- EDTA–4 is hexadentate ligand and

contain chiral carbon.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

154. Assertion :- 2CO(g) +

1

2O

2(g) 2CO

2(g) ...(i)

2NO(g) + 1

2O2(g) 2NO2(g) ...(ii)

Reaction (i) is slower than reaction (ii)

Reason :- Activation energy of reaction (i) is

greater than that of (ii).

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

155. Assertion :- [Co(NH3)5NO

2]Cl and PtCl

24NH

3

can be differentiated by addition of AgNO3

quantitatively.

Reason :- [Co(NH3)5NO

2]Cl and PtCl

24NH

3 can

be differentiated by addit ion of AgNO3

qualitatively.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

156. Assertion :– During the electrolysis of water, two

fraday of charge will produce a total of

33.6 litre of gases at S.T.P. at electrodes.

Reason :– In the electrolysis of water, 2 faraday

of charge will produce 1

2 mole of H2 gas and

1

4 mole of O2 gas.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

150. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

151. :- SnCl2, Hg2Cl2 :- HgCl

2, SnCl

2

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

152. :- :- C

3-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

153. :- [Fe(EDTA)]2– Fe

6

:- EDTA–4 hexadentate chiral

carbon

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

154. :- 2CO(g)

+ 1

2O

2(g) 2CO

2(g) ...(i)

2NO(g)

+ 1

2O

2(g) 2NO

2(g) ...(ii)

(i) (ii) :- (i) (ii) (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

155. :- [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl PtCl24NH3

AgNO3

:- [Co(NH3)

5NO

2]Cl PtCl

24NH

3

AgNO3

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

156. :– 2

33.6

:– 2

1

2 H2

1

4 O2

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

157. Assertion :- Red vapours are produced when

chloride or bromide salts are heated with

K2Cr

2O

7(s) and conc. H

2SO

4

Reason :- Orange red volatile products are formed

due to redox reaction of Br– and Cl– with K2Cr

2O

7.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

158. Assertion :- Chlorobenzene undergo electrophilic

substitutions more readily than benzene.

Reason :- Chlorobenzene gives a mixture of

ortho, meta and para products.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

159. Assertion :- Lyophilic sol. are more stable then

lyophobic sol.

Reason :- Lyophilic sol. contains greater

hydration energy.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

160. Assertion :- Carbylamine reaction involves

chemical reaction between 1° amine and

chloroform in basic medium.

Reason :- In carbylamine reaction, –NH2 group

changes into –NC group.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

161. Assertion :- Diatomaceous earth is used in

polishing, filteration of oil and syrups.

Reason :- Diatomaceous earth is gritty due to

presence of silica.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

162. Assertion :- Myoglobin content is high in red

fibres.

Reason :- Red fibres depends on anaerobic

process for energy.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

163. Assertion :- Origin of seed habit was first time

found in Pteridophytes.

Reason :- Pteridophytes show successful land

habit.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

164. Assertion :- Cortisol stimulate deamination and

urea formation.

Reason :- Cortisol promotes deposition of fat in

unusual sites of the body.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

165. Assertion :- Prototherian lays youngs at an

immature stage so females are provided with a

pouch for carrying the young one.

Reason :- Prototherian are ovoviviparous with

anals & urinogenital opening are separate.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

157. :- Cl– Br– salts K2Cr

2O

7

conc. H2SO4 :- Br– Cl– K

2Cr

2O

7

Redox (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

158. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

159. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

160. :- 1°

:- –NH2

–NC

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

161. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

162. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

163. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

164. :- :-(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

165. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

166. Assertion :- Menstrual cycle is stopped during

pregnancy.

Reason :- Lack of menstruation is always

confirmation of pregnancy.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

167. Assertion :- Taenia completely depend upon

predigested nutrients absorbed from the host's

intestine.

Reason :- Complete absence of an alimentary

canal is unique parasite adaptation of Taenia.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

168. Assertion :- Foetal ejection reflex triggers release

of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.

Reason :- Signals for parturition originate from

fully developed foetus alone.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

169. Assertion :- Collenchyma is a living mechanical

tissue.

Reason :- Collenchyma is found in hypodermis

of young monocot stem

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

170. Assertion :- Anemophily considered as a wasteful

process.

Reason :- Anemophilous flowers are neither

attractive nor fragrant.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

171. Assertion :- In plasma membrane non polar tail

of saturated hydrocarbon is protected from the

aqueous environment.

Reason :- The lipid component of the membrane

mainly consists of phosphoglyceride.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

172. Assertion :- Scientifically it is correct to say that

the sex of the baby is determined by the father and

not by the mother.

Reason :- The presence of X or Y chromosome

in the sperm determines the sex of the baby.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

173. Assertion :- Charagaff equivalancy rule valid for

RNA of reovirus.

Reason :- RNA is double stranded in reovirus.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

174. Assertion :- The Probability of DNA

polymorphism would be higher in non codeing

DNA sequences.

Reason :- Mutations in these sequences have

immediate effect on an individuals reproductive ability.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

166. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

167. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

168. :- () :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

169. :- (collenchyma), :- (collenchyma), (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

170. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

171. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

172. :- :- X Y (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

173. :- :- RNA (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

174. :- DNA DNA

:- DNA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

175 Assertion :- Substances, that have hydrophilic

nature, find it difficult to pass through the cell

membrane.

Reason :- Movement of hydrophilic substances

is facilitated by membrane proteins.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

176. Assertion :- Recombinant colonies will produce blue

color in the medium having X-gal compounds

Reason :- The gal gene of vector does not show

insertional inactivation by foreign DNA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

177. Assertion :- In all photosynthetic plants first stable

fixation product during Calvin cycle is

phosphoglycerate.

Reason :- Phosphoglycerate is always the first

fixation product of dark reaction whether fixation

occurs with the help of PEPcase or RuBisCO.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

178. Assertion :- Cyclosporin is immunosuppressive

drug.

Reason :- Cyclosporin is obtained from

trichophyton.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

179. Assertion :- Hepatitis may lead to jaundice

Reason :- Hepatocytes fail to perform optimally

in hepatitis

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

180. Assertion :- Although oceans constitute 70% of

earth yet they contribute 32% of net primary

productivity.

Reason :- In ocean light is the limiting factor.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

181. Researchers have been successful in creating

genetically altered mosquitoes that cannot infect

humans with malaria, which claims over one

million lives worldwide every year. Which

species of mosquito was used by the scientists in

their research ?

(1) Anopheles albimanus

(2) Anopheles stephensi

(3) Anopheles benarrochi

(4) Anopheles apicimacula

182. The headquarters of International Cricket Council

is located at :-

(1) Dubai (2) London

(3) Sydney (4) Mumbai

175. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

176. :- X-gal :- gal gene DNA (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

177. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

178. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

179. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

180. :- 70% 32% :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

181. ?(1) Anopheles albimanus

(2) Anopheles stephensi

(3) Anopheles benarrochi

(4) Anopheles apicimacula

182. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

183. RBC ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

184. ‘2 ’ ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

185. ‘‘’’ :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

186. (1) (2) (3) (4)

187. ?(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

188. ‘’ ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

189. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 190.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

191.

?

(1) 32 (2) 40

(3) 45 (4) 51

192.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

183. Which of the following is known as the graveyard

of RBC ?

(1) Liver (2) Spleen (3) Brain (4) Heart

184. Which of the following organization has declared

October 2, as the International day of Non-violence ?

(1) United Nations General Assembly

(2) UNESCO

(3) World Peace Forum

(4) Gandhi Peace Foundation

185. The king who is described as the ‘‘Indian

Napolean’’ for his expansionist policies is :-

(1) Samudragupta (2) Kumargupta

(3) Chandragupta-I (4) Chandragupta-II

186. Spectacles used for viewing 3-Dimensional films

have :-

(1) Concave lens (2) Bifocal lens

(3) Convex lens (4) Polaroids

187. Which of the following cups is not related to

Cricket ?

(1) Scindia Gold cup

(2) Asia cup

(3) Future cup

(4) Moin-Ud-Dowlah Gold cup

188. Whose autobiography is ‘By God’s decree’ ?

(1) Kapil Dev (2) Allan Border

(3) Sunil Gavaskar (4) Geophrey Boycott

189. Which of the following is not the name of a

chemical fertilizer ?

(1) Urea

(2) Muriate of potash

(3) Sodium sulphate

(4) Diammonium phosphate

190. 'Panna' is an important place in Madhya Pradesh.

It is famous for :-

(1) Iron mines (2) Diamond mines

(3) Silver mines (4) Gold mines

191. The Panchayat Raj system in India was introduced

under the direction of which article of the

Constitution ?

(1) 32 (2) 40 (3) 45 (4) 51

192. Which of the following terms is not used in the

game of Football ?

(1) Love (2) Back Heel

(3) Far Post (4) Toe Poke



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

193.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 194.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

195.

?(1) 12 (2) 13

(3) 14 (4) 15

196.

?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

197.

?

(1)

(2)

(3) (4)

198.

(1)

(2)

(3) (4)

199.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

200. ?

(1)

(2)

(3) (4)

193. Which one of the following is not a World

Heritage Site as identified by UNESCO ?

(1) Kaziranga National Park

(2) Keoladeo National Park

(3) Bandipur National Park

(4) Manas Wildlife Sanctuary

194. The author of the book "One Night at the Call

Center" is :-

(1) Vikram Seth (2) Jhumpa Lahiri

(3) Anurag Mathur (4) Chetan Bhagat

195. How many languages feature on the language

panel of contemporary Reserve Bank of India

Currency notes ?

(1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 14 (4) 15

196. Which temple is believed to have been first built

in gold, then silver, then wood and finally

stone ?

(1) Kashi Vishwanath (2) Khajuraho

(3) Somnath (4) Lingaraj

197. Whose birthday is celebrated as 'Engineer's day'

in India ?

(1) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam

(2) John Gammon

(3) M. Visvesvarayya

(4) Kristian Toubro

198. Which premier event in India has the offical motto

'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam' ?

(1) International Film Festival of India

(2) India International Trade Fair

(3) Pravasi Bhartiya Divas

(4) Gyanpith Awards

199. Which of these states shares its border with only

one other Indian State ?

(1) Manipur (2) Nagaland

(3) Tripura (4) Sikkim

200. Which of these Constitutional positions has never

been held by a woman in India ?

(1) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(2) Chief Minister

(3) State Governor

(4) Vice President



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /

aiims major test

Documents