93 physics mcq and answers ias exam

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Reflection of Light - Multiple Choice Test Question 1 Question: Light is a form of energy produced by a ______. 1 . luminous object 2 . transparent object 3 . non-luminous object 4 . opaque object 1.luminous object2.transparent object3.non-luminous object4.opaque object Answer: 1 Question 2 Question: An example for non-luminous object is ___________. 1 . a candle 2 . the sun 3 . an electric bulb 4 . the moon Answer: 4 Question 3 Question: The phenomenon by which the incident light falling on a surface is sent back into the same medium is known as ________. 1 . polariza tion 2 . reflecti on 3 . refracti on 4 . absorpti on

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Page 1: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Reflection of Light - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1Question:   Light is a form of energy produced by a ______.

1. luminous object2. transparent object3. non-luminous object4. opaque object1.luminous object2.transparent object3.non-luminous object4.opaque object Answer:    1Question 2Question:   An example for non-luminous object is ___________.

1. a candle2. the sun3. an electric bulb4. the moon

Answer:    4Question 3Question:   The phenomenon by which the incident light falling on a surface is sent back into the same medium is known as ________.

1. polarization2. reflection3. refraction4. absorption

Answer:    2Question 4Question:   When light is incident on a polished surface ___________ reflection takes place.

1. regular2. irregular3. diffused4. normal

Answer:    1Question 5Question:   An object becomes invisible when it undergoes ______ reflection.

1. regular2. irregular3. diffused4. normal

Answer:    1Question 6Question:   According to the laws of reflection,

1. i = r2. i > r

Page 2: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

3. r > i4.

Answer:    1Question 7Question:   The image formed by a plane mirror is always _______.

1. real and erect2. virtual and erect3. real and inverted4. virtual and inverted

Answer:    2Question 8Question:   The centre of the sphere of which the spherical mirror forms a part is called ____________.

1. centre of curvature2. focus3. pole4. vertex

Answer:    1Question 9Question:   The focus of a concave mirror is ________.

1. real2. virtual3. undefined4. at the pole

Answer:   2Question 10Question:   A converging mirror is known as ________.

1. convex mirror2. plane mirror3. concave mirror4. cylindrical mirror

Answer:    3Question 11Question:   The relation between the focal length and radius of curvature of a mirror is _______.

1.

2. R + 2 = f3. f = R/24. f = 2 R

Answer:    3

Page 3: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Question 12Question:   Radius of curvature of a concave mirror is always _____ to the mirror.

1. parallel2. perpendicular3. inclined at 60o

4. inclined at 45o

Answer:    2Question 13Question:   An image formed by a convex mirror is always ________.

1. virtual, erect and diminished2. virtual, real and magnified3. real, inverted and diminished4. real, erect and magnified

Answer:    1Question 14Question:   If the image formed by a concave mirror is virtual, erect and magnified, then the object is placed __________.

1. between the pole of the mirror and the focus2. beyond the centre of curvature3. at the centre of curvature4. at the focus

Answer:    1Question 15Question:   Dentists use a _____________ to focus light on the tooth of a patient.

1. concave mirror2. convex mirror3. plane mirror4. cylindrical mirror

Answer:    1Question 16Question:   An object is placed 1.5 m from a plane mirror. How far is the image from the person?

1. 3 m2. 1.5 m3. 2 m4. 1 m

Answer:    1Question 17Question:   An object placed 2m from a plane mirror is shifted by 0.5 m away from the mirror. What is the distance between the object and its image?

1. 2 m2. 1.5 m3. 5 m

Page 4: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

4. 3 m

Answer:    3Question 18Question:   What is the value of q in the following diagram?

1. 30o

2. 45o

3. 90o

4. 60o

Answer:    4Question 19Question:   What is the angle between the incident and reflected rays when a ray of light is incident normally on a plane mirror?

1. 90o

2. 45o

3. 180o

4. 0

Answer:    4Question 20Question:   Name the type of image that can be obtained on a screen.

1. Virtual2. Real3. Diverging4. Converging

Answer:    2Question 21Question:   A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror and the angle of incidence is 25o. What is the angle of reflection?

1. 02. 50o

3. 90o

4. 25o

Answer:    4

Page 5: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Question 22Question:   A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror and the angle of reflection is 50o. Calculate the angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray.

1. 50o

2. 25o

3. 90o

4. 100o

Answer:    4Question 23Question:   Which of the following is used to make a periscope?

1. Concave mirror2. Convex mirror3. Plane mirror4. Lens

Answer:    3Question 24Question:   Which mirror has a wider field of view?

1. Convex mirror2. Concave mirror3. Plane mirror4. Cylindrical mirror

Answer:    1Question 25Question:   The focal length of a concave mirror is 15 cm. What is its radius of curvature?

1. 15 cm2. 30 cm3. 7.5 cm4. 45 cm

Answer:    2Question 26Question:   The focal length of a mirror is 15 cm. Identify the type of mirror.

1. Concave mirror2. Plane mirror3. Convex mirror4. Cylindrical mirror

Answer:    3Question 27Question:   A ray of light passing through the _______ retraces its path.

1. focus2. centre of curvature3. pole4. vertex

Page 6: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Answer:    2Question 28Question:   When an object is placed at the focus of a concave mirror, the image will be formed at ________.

1. infinity2. focus3. centre of curvature4. pole

Answer:    1Question 29Question:   Butter paper is an example for _______ object.

1. a transparent2. a translucent3. an opaque4. a luminous

Answer:    2Question 30Question:   An object of size 2.0 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror. The distance of the object from the mirror equals to the radius of curvature. The size of the image will be ______________.

1. 0.5 cm2. 1.5 cm3. 1.0 cm4. 2.0 cm

Answer:    4Question 31Question:   If an incident ray passes through the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror, the reflected ray will __________________.

1. pass through the focus2. pass through the centre of curvature3. pass through the pole4. retrace its path

Answer:    4Refraction of Light - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1Question:   The bending of a beam of light when it passes obliquely from one medium to another is known as _______.

1. reflection2. refraction3. dispersion4. deviation

Page 7: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Answer:    2Question 2Question:   The part of the lens through which the ray of light passes without suffering deviation is called ________.

1. optical centre2. focus3. centre of curvature4. pole Answer:    1Question 3Question:   Convex lens always gives a real image if the object is situated beyond _______.

1. optical centre2. centre of curvature3. focus4. radius of curvature

Answer:   3Question 4Question:   Parallel rays of light entering a convex lens always converge at _______.

1. centre of curvature2. the principal focus3. optical centre4. the focal plane

Question 5Question:   Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of the same size is obtained, using a convex lens?

1. Between O and F2. At F3. At 2 F4. At infinity

Answer:    3Question 6Question:   SI unit of the power of a lens is ___________.

1. dioptre2. cm3. metre4. watt

Answer:    1Question 7Question:   1 D is the power of the lens of focal length of ______ cm.

1. 1002. 103. 1/1004. 1/10

Page 8: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Answer:    1Question 8Question:   In a simple microscope lens used is __________.

1. biconvex2. biconcave3. plano convex4. cylindrical

Answer:    1Question 9Question:   Reciprocal of focal length in metres is known as the ______ of a lens.

1. focus2. power3. power of accommodation4. far point

Answer:    2Question 10Question:   A convex lens is called _________.

1. converging lens2. diverging lens3. both converging and diverging lens4. refracting lens

Answer:    1Question 11Question:   A positive magnification greater than unity indicates _____________________.

1. real image2. virtual image3. neither real not virtual image4. distorted image

Answer:    2Question 12Question:   The power of a convex lens of focal length 50 cm is ______.

1. + 2D2. - 2D3. 50 D4. - 5D

Answer:    1Question 13Question:   The focal length of a lens whose power is -1.5 D is _______.

1. -66.66 cm2. + 1.5 m3. + 66.66 cm4. -1.5 m

Answer:    1

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Question 14Question:   Real images formed by single convex lenses are always ________________.

1. on the same side of the lens as the object2. inverted3. erect4. smaller than the object

Answer:    2Question 15Question:   An object is placed 12 cm from a convex lens whose focal length is 10 cm. The image must be.

1. virtual and enlarged2. virtual and reduced in size3. real and reduced in size4. real and enlarged

Answer:    4Question 16Question:   When a person uses a convex lens as a simple magnifying glass, the object must be placed at a distance.

1. less than one focal length2. more than one focal length3. less than twice the focal length4. more than twice the focal length

Answer:    1Question 17Question:   The image produced by a concave lens is ________.

1. always virtual and enlarged2. always virtual and reduced in size3. always real4. sometimes real, sometimes virtual

Answer:    2Question 18Question:   A virtual image is formed by _______.

1. a slide projector in a cinema hall2. the ordinary camera3. a simple microscope4. telescope

Answer:    3Question 19Question:   An object is placed 25 cm from a convex lens whose focal length is 10 cm. The image distance is ________ cm.

1. 50 cm2. 16.66 cm3. 6.66 cm

Page 10: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

4. 10 cm

Answer:    2Question 20Question:   The least distance of distinct vision is ______.

1. 25 cm2. 25 m3. 0.25 cm4. 2.5 m

Answer:    1Question 21Question:   A convex lens has a focal length of 20 cm. Its power in dioptres is ___________.

1. 22. 53. 0.54. 0.2

Answer:    2Question 22Question:   An object is placed before a concave lens. The image formed _____________-.

1. is always erect2. may be erect or inverted3. is always inverted4. is always real

Answer:    1Question 23Question:   A ray of light travels from a medium of refractive index n1 to a medium of refractive index n2. If angle of incidence is i and the angle of refraction is r.

Then is equal to

1. n1

2. n2

3. n21

4. n12

Answer:    3Question 24Question:   Two thin lenses of power +5 D and -2 D are placed in contact with each other. Focal length of the combination is

1. +3 m2. -3 m3. 0.33 m4. -0.33 m

Answer:    3Question 25Question:   The lens formula in cartesian frame is ______________.

Page 11: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

1.

2.

3.

4.

Answer:   3The Human Eye and the Colourful World - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1Question:   The change in focal length of an eye lens to focus the image of objects at varying distances is done by the action of ________.

1. pupil2. ciliary muscles3. retina4. blind spot

Answer:    2Question 2Question:   Far point of a normal eye is situated at _________.

1. 25 cm2. infinity3. 50 cm4. 400 cm

Answer:    2Question 3Question:   A long-sighted person cannot see objects nearer to his eye than 50 cm. To enable him to read a book 25 cm away, he should use spectacle lenses whose power in dioptres is ____.

1. -62. -43. -24. + 4

Answer:   4Question 4Question:   The process by which a beam of white light splits into its constituent colours is known as _________.

1. reflection2. dispersion3. divergence4. convergence

Answer:    2

Page 12: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Question 5Question:   The band of colours obtained due to dispersion is known as ______________.

1. spectrum2. rainbow3. image4. mirage

Answer:   Question 6Question:   Power of a lens is expressed in

1. dioptre2. cm3. metre4. millimetre

Answer:   1Question 7Question:   1 D is the power of a lens of focal length ______ cm.

1. 1002. 103. 1/1004. 1/10

Answer:   1Question 8Question:   Hypermetropia is rectified by using

1. convex lens2. concave lens3. cylindrical lens4. progressive lens

Answer:   1Question 9Question:   Reciprocal of focal length in metres is known as the ______ of a lens.

1. focus2. power3. power of accommodation4. far point

Answer:   2Question 10Question:   The power of a convex lens of focal length 50 cm is ______.

1. + 2 D2. - 2 D3. 50 D4. - 5 D

Answer:   1Question 11

Page 13: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Question:   Two lenses having powers +2D and -4D respectively are put together. Power of the combination would be

1. -2 D2. +2 D3. -4 D4. +4 D

Answer:   1Question 12Question:   The fluid between the retina and the lens is called _______.

1. aqueous humour2. vitreous humour3. aqua4. humus

Answer:   2Question 13Question:   Two thin lenses of power +5D and -2D are put in contact with each other. Focal length of the combination is

1. +3 m2. -3 m3. 0.33 m4. -0.33 m

Answer:   3Question 14Question:   The least distance of distinct vision for infants is _________.

1. 15 cm2. 20 cm3. 25 cm4. 5 cm

Answer:   4Question 15Question:   The focal length of a lens whose power is -1.5 D is _______.

1. -66.66 cm2. + 1.5 m3. + 66.66 cm4. -1.5 m

Answer:   1Sound - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1Question:   When a wave travels through a medium ______.

1. particles are transferred from one place to another2. energy is transferred in a periodic manner

Page 14: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

3. energy is transferred at a constant speed4. none of the above statements is applicable

Answer:   3Question 2Question:   The minimum distance between the source and the reflector, so that an echo is heard is approximately equal to ______.

1. 10 m2. 17 m3. 34 m4. 50 m

Answer:   2Question 3Question:   Bats detect the obstacles in their path by receiving the reflected ______.

1. infrasonic waves2. radio waves3. electro-magnetic waves4. ultrasonic waves

Answer:   4Question 4Question:   When sound travels through air, the air particles ______.

1. vibrate along the direction of wave propagation2. vibrate but not in any fixed direction3. vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation4. do not vibrate

Answer:   1Question 5Question:   The relation between wave velocity 'v', frequency 'f ', and wavelength 'l' is ______.

1.

2.

3.

4.

Answer:   2Question 6Question:   The frequency of a wave travelling at a speed of 500 ms-1 is 25 Hz. Its time

period will be ______.

1. 20 s2. 0.05 s

Page 15: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

3. 25 s4. 0.04 s

Answer:   4Question 7Question:   The amplitude of a wave is ______.

1. the distance the wave moves in one second2. the distance the wave moves in one time period of the wave3. the maximum distance moved by the medium particles on either side of the mean position4. the distance equal to one wave length

Answer:   3Question 8Question:   Which of the following is not a characteristic of a musical sound?

1. Pitch2. Wavelength3. Quality4. Loudness

Answer:   2Question 9Question:   Sound waves do not travel through

1. solids2. liquids3. gases4. vacuum

Answer:   4Question 10Question:   The physical quantity, which oscillates in most waves, is

1. mass2. energy3. amplitude4. wavelength

Answer:   3Question 11Question:   Sound waves are

1. longitudinal2. transverse3. partly longitudinal and partly transverse4. sometimes longitudinal and sometimes transverse

Answer:   1Question 12Question:   The frequency which is not audible to the human ear is

1. 50 Hz2. 500 Hz

Page 16: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

3. 5000 Hz4. 50000 Hz

Answer:   4Question 13Question:   The speed of sound in medium depends upon

1. amplitude2. frequency3. wavelength4. properties of the medium

Answer:   4Question 14Question:   Which of the following will remain unchanged when a sound wave travels in air or in water?

1. Amplitude2. Wavelength3. Frequency4. Speed

Answer:   3Question 15Question:   A sound source sends waves of 400 Hz. It produces waves of wavelength 2.5 m. The velocity of sound waves is

1. 100 m/s2. 1000 m/s3. 10000 m/s4. 3000 km/s

Answer:   2Question 16Question:   The time period of a vibrating body is 0.05 s. The frequency of waves it emits is

1. 5 Hz2. 20 Hz3. 200 Hz4. 2 Hz

Answer:   2Question 17Question:   A source of frequency of 500 Hz emits waves of wavelength 0.4 m, how long does the waves take to travel 600 m?

1. 3 s2. 6 s3. 9 s4. 12 s

Answer:   1Question 18Question:   Sound and light waves both

Page 17: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

1. have similar wavelength2. obey the laws of reflection3. travel as longitudinal waves4. travel through vacuum

Answer:   2Question 19Question:   The method of detecting the presence, position and direction of motion of distant objects by reflecting a beam of sound waves is known as _____.

1. RADAR2. SONAR3. MIR4. CRO

Answer:   2Question 20Question:   The technique used by bats to find their way or to locate food is _______.

1. SONAR2. RADAR3. Echolocation4. Flapping

Answer:   3Question 21Question:   An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that the time interval between the sending and receiving of the wave is 1.6 s. What is the depth of the sea, if the velocity of sound in the seawater is 1400 m/s?

1. 1120 m2. 560 m3. 1400 m4. 112 m

Answer:   1Question 22Question:   An example for mechanical wave.

1. Radio wave2. Light wave3. Infrared radiation4. Sound wave

Answer:   4Question 23Question:   Which of the following quantities is transferred during wave propagation?

1. Speed2. Mass3. Matter4. Energy

Answer:   4Question 24

Page 18: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Question:   If a vibrator strikes the water 10 times in one second, then the frequency of wave is _________.

1. 10 Hz2. 0.5 Hz3. 5 Hz4. 0.1 Hz

Answer:   1Question 25Question:   Unit of wavelength is __________.

1. newton2. erg3. dyne4. angstrom

Answer:   4Question 26Question:   The distance between a compression and the next rarefaction of a longitudinal wave is __________.

1.

2. 2l

3.

4.

Answer:   3Question 27Question:   SI Unit of time period is __________.

1. second2. hour3. minute4. nanosecond

Answer:   1Question 28Question:   The vibrations or the pressure variations inside the inner ear are converted into electrical signals by the_________.

1. cochlea2. tympanic membrane3. pinna4. anvil

Answer:   1

Page 19: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Question 29Question:   Vibrations inside the ear are amplified by the three bones namely the _________ in the middle ear.

1. hammer, anvil and stirrup2. hammer, anvil and pinna3. hammer, cochlea and stirrup4. auditory bone, anvil and stirrup

Answer:   1Question 30Question:   The persistence of audible sound due to the successive reflections from the surrounding objects even after the source has stopped to produce that sound is called _________.

1. reflection2. echo3. reverberation4. rarefaction

Answer:   3Force and Laws Of Motion - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1Question:   Inertia is ________

1. a property of matter2. a type of force3. the speed of an object4. none of the above

Answer:   1Question 2Question:   A and B are two objects with masses 100 kg and 75 kg respectively, then ________ .

1. both will have the same inertia2. B will have more inertia3. A will have more inertia4. both will have less inertia

Answer:   3Question 3Question:   The resultant of balanced forces is ________

1. non zero2. equal to zero3. not equal to zero4. equal to the acceleration produced in the body

Answer:   2Question 4Question:   The physical quantity, which is the measure of inertia, is ________

1. density

Page 20: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

2. weight3. force4. mass

Answer:   4Question 5Question:   The sparks produced during sharpening of a knife against a grinding wheel leaves the rim of the wheel tangentially. This is due to ________

1. inertia of rest2. inertia of motion3. inertia of direction4. force applied

Answer:   3Question 6Question:   The law that gives a qualitative definition of force is ________

1. Newton's second law of motion2. Law of inertia3. Newton's third law of motion4. Law of gravitation

Answer:   2Question 7Question:   Name the property of matter due to which a body continues in its state of rest or uniform motion unless an external force acts on it.

1. Inertia2. Elasticity3. Viscosity4. Density

Answer:   1Question 8Question:   The S.I. unit of force is

1. erg2. joule3. newton4. dyne

Answer:   3Question 9Question:   When a force of 1N acts on a mass of 1kg that is free to move, the object moves with

1. a speed of 1 m/s2. a speed of 1 km/s3. an acceleration 10 m/s2

4. an acceleration of 1 m/s2

Answer:   4Question 10

Page 21: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Question:   The acceleration in a body is due to

1. balanced force2. unbalanced force3. mass4. electrostatic force

Answer:   2Question 11Question:   When an object undergoes acceleration

1. its speed always increases2. its velocity always increases3. it always falls towards the Earth4. a force always acts on it

Answer:   4Question 12Question:   A force of 10 N is acting on an object of mass 10 kg. What is the acceleration produced in it?

1.

2.3. 100 m/s2

4. 100 m/s

Answer:   1Question 13Question:   What is the force acting on an object of mass 10 kg moving with a uniform velocity of 10 m/s ?

1. 100 N2. 10 N3. 04. 1 N

Answer:   3Question 14Question:   An athlete can take a longer jump if he comes running from a distance as compared to that when he jumps suddenly. Identify the type of inertia.

1. Inertia of rest2. Inertia of motion3. Inertia of direction4. Inertia of position

Answer:   2Question 15Question:   1 newton = ________

1.

2.

3.

Page 22: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

4.

Answer:   2Question 16Question:   The physical quantity, which is equal to change in momentum, is

1. force2. impulse3. acceleration4. velocity

Answer:   2Question 17Question:   The physical quantity, which is equal to rate of change of momentum, is

1. displacement2. acceleration3. force4. impulse

Answer:   3Question 18Question:   1kg m/s = _________.

1. 1 N s2. 1 N3. 1 N m4. 10 N s

Answer:   1Question 19Question:   An example for a vector quantity is __________

1. speed2. momentum3. distance4. length

Answer:   2Question 20Question:   Impulse = _________.

1.2.3.

4.

Answer:   2Question 21Question:   SI unit of impulse is ___________.

1.N sN s

2. N s2

Page 23: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

3.

4.

Answer:   1Question 22Question:   The momentum of a toy bus of 0.01 kg moving with a velocity of 5 m/s is

1. 0.005 kg m/s2. 0.05 kg m/s3. 0.005 N s4. 0.5 kg m/s

Answer:   2Question 23Question:   The product of mass and velocity is known as ____________ .

1. acceleration2. force3. momentum4. velocity

Answer:   3Question 24Question:   What is the momentum of a man of mass 100 kg when he walks with a uniform velocity of 2 m/s?

1.2. 200 N

3.

4.

Answer:   1Question 25Question:   The two factors on which the momentum of a body depends are ______ and _________ .

1. velocity, time2. mass, weight3. mass, distance4. mass,velocity

Answer:   4Question 26Question:   The gravitational force of earth acting on a body of mass 1 kg is _______.

1. 8.9 N2. 9.8 N3. 980 N4. 1 N

Answer:   2Question 27

Page 24: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Question:   Momentum of a massive object at rest is _______.

1. very large2. very small3. zero4. none of the above

Answer:   3Question 28Question:   The resultant of action and reaction forces is _______.

1. greater than zero2. less than zero3. zero4. none of the above

Answer: 1Work and Energy - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1Question:   Work done = Force x _______

1. distance2. acceleration3. velocity4. speed

Answer:   1Question 2Question:   1 joule = 1 _______

1. N m2

2.

3. N m4. N2 m2

Answer:   3Question 3Question:   Which form of energy does the flowing water possess?

1. gravitational energy2. potential energy3. electrical energy4. kinetic energy

Answer:   4Question 4Question:   A body of mass 2 kg is dropped from a height of 1m. Its kinetic energy as it touches the ground is _______

1. 19.6 N2. 19.6 J3. 19.6 kg

Page 25: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

4. 19.6 m

Answer:   2Question 5Question:   The unit of power is _______

1. watt per second2. joule3. kilojoule4. joule per second

Answer:   4Question 6Question:   3730 watts = ______h.p.

1. 52. 23. 7464. 6

Answer:   1Question 7Question:   A coolie carries a load of 500 N to a distance of 100 m. The work done by him is

1. 5 N2. 50,000 Nm3. 04. 1/5 N

Answer:   3Question 8Question:   The P.E. of a body at a certain height is 200 J. The kinetic energy possessed by it when it just touches the surface of the earth is

1. > P.E.2. < P.E.3. = P.E.4. cannot be known

Answer:   1Question 9Question:   Power is a measure of the _______

1. rate of change of momentum2. force which produces motion3. change of energy4. rate of change of energy

Answer:   4Question 10Question:   Two objects of masses 1 x 10-3 kg and 4 x 10-3 kg have equal momentum. What is the ratio of their kinetic energies?

1. 4:12. 2:1

Page 26: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

3. 16:1

4.

Answer:   1Question 11Question:   A 40 newton object is released from a height of 10 m. Just before it hits the ground, its kinetic energy, in joules is _______

1. 4002. 39203. 28004. 4000

Answer:   1Question 12Question:   If the speed of an object is doubled then its kinetic energy is _______

1. doubled2. quadrupled3. halved4. tripled

Answer:   2Question 13Question:   1.5 kW = ______ watts

1. 15002. 1503. 150004. 15

Answer:   1Question 14Question:   A man of mass 50 kg jumps to a height of 1 m. His potential energy at the highest point is (g = 10 m/s2)

1. 50 J2. 60 J3. 500 J4. 600 J

Answer:   3Question 15Question:   The type of energy possessed by a simple pendulum, when it is at the mean position is

1. kinetic energy2. potential energy3. potential energy + kinetic energy4. sound energy

Answer:   1Question 16

Page 27: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Question:   An iron sphere of mass 30 kg has the same diameter as an aluminium sphere whose mass is 10.5 kg. The spheres are dropped simultaneously from a cliff. When they are 10 m from the ground, they have the same _______.

1. acceleration2. momentum3. potential energy4. kinetic energy

Answer:   1Question 17Question:   A 1 kg mass has a kinetic energy of 1 joule when its speed is

1. 0.45 m/s2. 1 m/s3. 1.4 m/s4. 4.4 m/s

Answer:   3Question 18Question:   If air resistance is negligible, the sum total of potential and kinetic energies of a freely falling body _______

1. increases2. decreases3. becomes zero4. remains the same

Answer:   4Question 19Question:   Name the physical quantity which is equal to the product of force and velocity.

1. work2. energy3. power4. acceleration

Answer:   3Question 20Question:   An object of mass 1 kg has potential energy of 1 joule relative to the ground when it is at a height of _______.

1. 0.102 m2. 1 m3. 9.8 m4. 32 m

Answer:   1Electricity - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1Question:   Which of the following statements does not represent ohm's law?

1. current / potential difference = constant2. potential difference / current = constant

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3. potential difference = current x resistance4. current = resistance x potential difference

Answer:    4Question 2Question:   The unit of current is _____________.

1. ampere2. watt3. volt4. coulomb

Answer:    1Question 3Question:   The potential difference required to pass a current 0.2 A in a wire of resistance 20W is ____.

1. 100 V2. 4 V3. .01 V4. 40 V

Answer:    2Question 4Question:   The resistance of an electric bulb drawing 1.2 A current at 6.0 V is ___________.

1. 0 .5 W2. 5 W3. 0.2 W4. 2 W

Answer:    2Question 5Question:   The unit of resistivity is ____________.

1. ohm2. ohm / m3. ohm-m4. mho

Answer:    3Question 6Question:   Two resistances of 100 W and zero ohm are connected in parallel. The overall resistance will be

1. 100 W2. 50 W3. 25 W4. zero ohm

Answer:   1Question 7Question:   Three resistors 2 W , 3 W and 4 W are connected so that the equivalent resistance is 9 W . The resistors are connected _________.

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1. all in series2. all in parallel3. 2 W and 3 W in parallel and the combination in series with 4 W4. 2 W and 3 W in series and the combination in parallel to 4 W

Answer:    1Question 8Question:   In the figure,

1. 6 W , 3 W and 9 W are in series2. 9 W and 6 W are in parallel and the combination is in series with 3 W3. 3 W , 6 W and W are in parallel4. 3 W , 6 W are in parallel and 9 W is in series

Answer:    4Question 9Question:   The resistance across AB is

1. 4 2. 1 3. 2 4. 0 .5

Answer:    2Question 10Question:   When a current 'I' flows through a resistance 'R' for time 't' the electrical energy spent is given by ___________.

1. I R t2. I2 R t3. I R2 t4. I 2 R / t

Answer:    2

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Question 11Question:   Kilowatt - hour is the unit of ______________.

1. potential difference2. electric power3. electrical energy4. charge

Answer:    3Question 12Question:   When a fuse is rated 8 A, it means _____________.

1. it will not work if current is less than 8 A2. it has a resistance of 8 W3. it will work only if current is 8 A4. it will melt if current exceeds 8 A

Answer:    4Question 13Question:   The device used for measuring potential difference is known as _____________.

1. potentiometer2. ammeter3. galvanometer4. voltmeter

Answer:    4Question 14Question:   The work done in moving a unit positive charge across two points in an electric circuit is a measure of ___________.

1. current2. potential difference3. resistance4. power

Answer:    2Question 15Question:   The potential at a point is 20 V. The work done to bring a charge of 0.5 C from infinity to this point will be ________.

1. 20 J2. 10 J3. 5 J4. 40 J

Answer:    2Question 16Question:   Joule / Coulomb is same as ______________.

1. watt2. volt3. ampere

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4. ohm

Answer:    2Question 17Question:   The free electrons of a metal _____________.

1. do not collide with each other2. are free to escape through the surface3. are free to fall into the nuclei4. are free to move anywhere in the metal

Answer:    4Question 18Question:   The path of a free electron in a metal is ___________.

1. parabolic2. circular3. a straight line4. zig zag

Answer:    4Question 19Question:   Heat produced in a current carrying wire in 5s is 60 J. The same current is passed through another wire of half the resistance. The heat produced in 5 s will be _____________.

1. 60 J2. 30 J3. 15 J4. 120 J

Answer:    2Question 20Question:   The current in a wire ______________.

1. depends only on the potential difference applied2. depends only on the resistance of the wire3. depends on both resistance and potential difference4. does not depend on resistance and potential difference

Answer:    3Question 21Question:   When there is an electric current passing through a wire, the particles moving are _____________.

1. electrons2. protons3. atoms4. ions

Answer:    1Question 22Question:   A positive charge released from rest __________.

1. moves towards the regions of lower potential2. moves towards the regions of higher potential

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3. moves towards the regions of equal potential4. does not move

Answer:    1Question 23Question:   Three equal resistances when combined in series are equivalent to 90 W . Their equivalent resistance when combined in parallel will be __________.

1. 270 W2. 30 W3. 810 W4. 10 W

Answer:    4Question 24Question:   An battery is used to ________________.

1. maintain a potential difference2. measure electric current3. measure electric potential4. safeguard against short - circuit

Answer:    1Question 25Question:   Ohm's law relates potential difference with ___________.

1. power2. energy3. current4. time

Answer:    3Question 26Question:   Which of the following is an ohmic resistor?

1. Diode2. Germanium3. Nichrome4. Diamond

Answer:    3Question 27Question:   The resistivity of a wire depends on ____.

1. length2. material3. area of cross- section4. length, material and area of cross- section

Answer:   4Question 28Question:   For which of the following substances, resistance decreases with temperature?

1. Copper

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2. Platinum3. Mercury4. Carbon

Answer:    4Question 29Question:   Four cells each of e.m.f 'E' are joined in parallel to form a battery. The equivalent e.m.f of the battery will be _______.

1. 4 E2. E3. E / 44. E = 0

Answer:    2Question 30Question:   Two electric bulbs have resistances in the ratio 1:2. If they are joined in series, the energy consumed in them are in the ratio _________.

1. 1:22. 2:13. 4:14. 1:1

Answer:    2Magnetic Effects of Electric Current - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1Question:   A magnetic field line is used to find the direction of

1. south-north

2. a bar magnet

3. a compass needle

4. magnetic field

Answer:    4Question 2Question:   An electric current passes through a straight wire in the direction of south to north. Magnetic compasses are placed at points A and B as shown in the figure.

What is your observation?

1. The needle will not deflect

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2. Only one of the needles will deflect

3. Both the needles will deflect in the same direction

4. The needles will deflect in the opposite directions

Answer:    4Question 3Question:   The magnetic field lines due to a straight wire carrying a current are

1. straight

2. circular

3. parabolic

4. elliptical

Answer:    2Question 4Question:   Magnetic field produced at the centre of a current carrying circular wire is

1. directly proportional to the square of the radius of the circular wire

2. directly proportional to the radius of the circular wire

3. inversely proportional to the square of the radius of the circular wire

4. inversely proportional to the radius of the circular wire

Answer:    4Question 5Question:   The magnetic field lines inside a long, current carrying solenoid are nearly

1. straight

2. circular

3. parabolic

4. elliptical

Answer:    1Question 6Question:   A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid

1. will become zero

2. will decrease

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3. will increase

4. will remain unaffected

Answer:    3Question 7Question:   The direction of the force on a current-carrying wire placed in a magnetic field depends on

1. the direction of the current

2. the direction of the field

3. the direction of current as well as field

4. neither the direction of current nor the direction of field

Answer:    3Question 8Question:   The direction of induced curent is obtained by

1. Fleming's left-hand rule

2. Maxwell's right-hand thumb rule

3. Ampere's rule

4. Fleming's right-hand rule

Answer:    4Question 9Question:   Who first discovered the relationship between electricity and magnetism?

1. Faraday

2. Newton

3. Maxwell

4. Oersted

Answer:    4Question 10Question:   In an electric motor, the energy transformation is from

1. electrical to chemical

2. chemical to light

3. mechanical to electrical

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4. electrical to mechanical

Answer:    4Question 11Question:   A commutator changes the direction of current in the coil of

1. a DC motor

2. a DC motor and an AC generator

3. a DC motor and a DC generator

4. an AC generator

Answer:    3Question 12Question:   Which of the following devices works on the principle of electromagnetic induction?

1. Ammeter

2. Voltmeter

3. Generator

4. Galvanometer

Answer:    3Question 13Question:   A device used for measuring small currents due to changing magnetic field is known as

1. galvanometer

2. ammeter

3. voltmeter

4. potentiometer

Answer:    1Question 14Question:   An electric generator actually acts as

1. source of electric charge

2. source of heat energy

3. an electromagnet

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4. a converter of energy

Answer:    4Question 15Question:   Electromagnetic induction is the

1. charging of a body with a positive charge

2. production of current by relative motion between a magnet and a coil

3. rotation of the coil of an electric motor

4. generation of magnetic field due to a current carrying solenoid

Answer:    2Question 16Question:   For making a strong electromagnet, the material of the core should be

1. soft iron

2. steel

3. brass

4. copper

Answer:    1Question 17Question:   Magnetic field inside a long solenoid carrying current is

1. same at all points (uniform)

2. different at poles and at the centre

3. zero

4. different at all points

Answer:    1Question 18Question:   You have a coil and a bar magnet. You can produce an electric current by

1. moving the magnet but not the coil

2. moving the coil but not the magnet

3. moving either the magnet or the coil

4. using another DC source

Answer:    3

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Question 19Question:   Which of the following describes the common domestic power supplied in India?

1. 220 V, 100 Hz

2. 220 V, 50 Hz

3. 110 V, 100 Hz

4. 100 V, 50 Hz

Answer:    2Question 20Question:   A fuse in an electric circuit acts as a

1. current multiplication

2. voltage multiplication

3. power multiplier

4. safety device

Answer:    4Question 21Question:   The magnetic lines of force inside a current carrying solenoid are

1. along the axis and parallel to each other

2. perpendicular to the axis and parallel to each other

3. circular and do not intersect each other

4. circular and intersect each other

Answer:    1Question 22Question:   When the main switch of the house is put off, it disconnects

1. live wire

2. neutral wire

3. earth wire

4. live and neutral wires

Answer:    4Question 23Question:   Kilowatt-hour is the unit of

1. potential difference

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2. electric power

3. electrical energy

4. charge

Answer:    3Question 24Question:   When a fuse is rated 8A, it means

1. it will not work if current is less than 8A

2. it has a resistance of 8

3. it will work only if current is 8A

4. it will burn if current exceeds 8A

Answer:    4Gravitation - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1Question:   SI unit of gravitational constant is __________.

1. N m2kg2

2. N m2kg-2

3. N m2s-2

4. N mkg-2

Answer:   2Question 2Question:   What is the value of gravitational constant?

1. 6.6734x10-11N m2/kg2

2. 6.6734x10-10N m2/kg2

3. 6.6734x10-11N m/kg2

4. 6.6734x10-11N m2/kg

Answer:   1Question 3Question:   If the distance between two bodies is doubled, the force of attraction F between them will be _______

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1. 1/4 F

2. 2 F

3. 1/2 F

4. F

Answer:   1Question 4Question:   The force of gravitation between two bodies in the universe does not depend on

1. the distance between them

2. the product of their masses

3. the sum of their masses

4. the gravitational constant

Answer:   3Question 5Question:   Name the fundamental force which holds the planets in their orbits around the sun.

1. Gravitational force of attraction

2. Electrostatic static force of attraction

3. Nuclear force of attraction

4. Electro static force of attraction

Answer:   1Question 6Question:   When an object is thrown up, the force of gravity _________.

1. is opposite to the direction of motion

2. is in the same direction as the direction of motion

3. becomes zero at the highest point

4. increases as it rises up

Answer:   1Question 7Question:   What is the final velocity of a body moving against gravity when it attains the maximum height?

1. Zero

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2.

3.

4. 2gh

Answer:   1Question 8Question:   A stone is dropped from a cliff. Its speed after it has fallen 100 m is

1. 9.8 m/s

2. 44.2 m/s

3. 19.6 m/s

4. 98 m/s

Answer:   2Question 9Question:   A ball is thrown up and attains a maximum height of 100 m. Its initial speed was

1. 9.8 m/s

2. 44.2 m/s

3. 19.6 m/s

4. 98 m/s

Answer:   2Question 10Question:   A stone dropped from the roof of a building takes 4 seconds to reach the ground. What is the height of the building?

1. 19.6 m

2. 39.2 m

3. 156.8 m

4. 78.4 m

Answer:   4Question 11Question:   The acceleration due to gravity is zero at ______.

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1. the equator

2. poles

3. sea level

4. the centre of the earth

Answer:   4Question 12Question:   If acceleration due to gravity on earth is 10 m/s2 then, the acceleration due to gravity on moon is ________.

1. 1.66 m/s2

2. 16.6 m/s2

3. 10 m/s2

4. 0.166 m/s2

Answer:   1Question 13Question:   The second equation of motion for a freely falling body starting from rest is _______.

1.

2.

3.

4.

Answer:   3Question 14Question:   The acceleration due to gravity of a body moving against gravity is

1. 9.8 m/s2

2. -9.8 m/s2

3.

4. 9.6 m/s

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Answer:   2Question 15Question:   A feather and a coin released simultaneously from the same height do not reach the ground at the same time because of the _______.

1. resistance of the air

2. force of gravity

3. force of gravitation

4. difference in mass

Answer:   1Question 16Question:   The weight of an object of mass 10 kg on earth is_______.

1. 9.8 N

2. 9.8 kg

3. 98 N

4. 98 kg

Answer:   3Question 17Question:   The weight of an object of mass 15 kg at the centre of the earth is _____.

1. 147 N

2. 147 kg

3. zero

4. 150 N

Answer:   3Question 18Question:   Mass remains ______ throughout the universe.

1. varies

2. zero

3. constant

4. negative

Answer:   3Question 19

Page 44: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Question:   SI unit of weight is ______.

1. newton

2. kg

3. Wt

4. kg.wt

Answer:   1Question 20Question:   100 kg.wt=________ .

1. 980 N

2. 9.800 N

3. 1000 N

4. 0.98 N

Answer:   1Question 21Question:   How much would a man, whose mass is 60 kg weigh on the moon?

1. 9.8 N

2. 600 N

3. 60 N

4. 98 N

Answer:   4Question 22Question:   What is the mass of an object whose weight on earth is 196 N?

1. 20 kg

2. 0.20 kg

3. 1960 kg

4. 2 kg

Answer:   1Question 23Question:   The upward force acting on an object submerged in a liquid is ______.

1. thrust

2. buoyant force

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3. pressure

4. force of friction

Answer:   2Question 24Question:   The normal force per unit area is called _______.

1. pressure

2. thrust

3. balanced force

4. pascal

Answer:   1Question 25Question:   If the mass of a ball is 5 kg on earth, then what would be its mass on Jupiter?

1. 5 kg

2. 5000 kg

3. 40000 kg

4. 50 kg

Answer:   1Motion - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1Question:   1 km/h = _____ m/s

1.

2.

3.

4.

Answer:   1Question 2Question:   The distance (s) in metres travelled by a particle is related to time (t) in seconds by the equation of motion -S = 10t + 4t2. What is the initial velocity of the body?

1. 10 m/s2. 6 m/s

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3. 4 m/s4. 10 m/s2

Answer:   1Question 3Question:   For the equation - S = 10t + 4t2 what is the acceleration of the body?

1. 8 m/s2

2. 10 m/s2

3. 4 m/s2

4. 8 m/s

Answer:   1Question 4Question:   A body moving along a straight line at 20 m/s decelerates at the rate of 4 m/s2. After 2 seconds its speed will be equal to

1. 8 m/s2. 12 m/s3. 16 m/s4. - 12 m/s

Answer:   2Question 5Question:   Give the equation of motion connecting u, v, a and s where the symbols have their usual meaning

1. v = u + at

2.

3. v2 - u2 = 2aS

4.

Answer:   3Question 6Question:   An object moving with a speed of 5 m/s comes to rest in 10 s, after the brakes are applied. What is the initial velocity?

1. zero2. 5 m/s3. 15 m/s4. 50 m/s

Answer:   2Question 7Question:   A body moving along a straight line at 40 m/s undergoes an acceleration of 4 m/s2. After 10 seconds its speed will be

1. 20 m/s2. 28 m/s3. 16 m/s4. 80 m/s

Page 47: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Answer:   4Question 8Question:   SI unit of acceleration is __________.

1.

2.

3.

4.

Answer:   1Question 9Question:   Retardation is __________.

1. negative acceleration2. positive acceleration3. uniform acceleration4. variable acceleration

Answer:   1Question 10Question:   When an object is moving with uniform velocity, what is its acceleration?

1. zero2. uniform3. non-uniform4. negative

Answer:   1Question 11Question:   In the case of a rectilinear uniform motion, distance-time graph is a

1. parabola2. straight line3. curved line4. rectangle

Answer:   2Question 12Question:   Speed of 90 km/h when expressed in m/s is .

1. 2.52. 253. 2504. 90000

Answer:   2Question 13Question:   When a graph of one quantity versus another results in a straight line, the quantities are .

1. directly proportional2. constant

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3. inversely proportional4. independent of each other

Answer:   1Question 14Question:   What does the following S-t graph indicate?

1. uniform speed2. body is at rest3. non-uniform speed4. variable speed

Answer:   2Question 15Question:   What do you infer, if S-t graphs of two cyclists meet at a point?

1. They collide2. They pass each other3. They are at rest4. They are starting from rest

Answer:   2Question 16Question:   Name the physical quantity which we get from a S-t graph.

1. Speed2. Displacement3. Distance4. Time

Answer:   1Question 17Question:   What is the SI unit of speed?

1. km/h2. m/s3. m/min4. km/s

Answer:   2Question 18Question:   What is the distance covered by a car in 5 h if it is moving with a speed of 35 km/h?

1. 175 km

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2. 150 km3. 7 km4. 1750 km

Answer:   1Question 19Question:   The S-t graph for uniform speed is

1.

2.

3.

4.

Answer:   2Question 20Question:   The average speed of a car which covers half the distance with a speed of 20 m/s and other half with a speed of 30 m/s in equal intervals of time is _________.

1. 25 m/s2. 0 m/s3. 24 m/s

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4. 2.4 m/s

Answer:   1Question 21Question:   Displacement is a ________ quantity.

1. scalar2. vector3. derived4. linear

Answer:   2Question 22Question:   km / h2 is a unit of ________ .

1. velocity2. speed3. acceleration4. distance

Answer:   3Question 23Question:   The speed-time graph for a particle moving at constant speed is a straight-line ________ to the time axis.

1. parallel2. perpendicular3. aligned4. inclined

Answer:   1Question 24Question:   When an object moves in a fixed direction with uniform acceleration, the speed-time graph is a ________.

1. parabola2. straight line3. ellipse4. curve

Answer:   2Question 25Question:   The area under the speed-time graph gives the ________.

1. distance2. velocity3. time4. acceleration

Answer:   1Question 26Question:   A speed of 90 km/h, expressed in cm s-1 is ________.

1. 2.5

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2. 25003. 3004. 90

Answer:   2Question 27Question:   When an object of mass 5 kg starts from rest, what is its initial velocity?

1. 02. - 5 m/s

3.variable5

4. 1 m/s

Answer:   1Question 28Question:   Identify the v- t graph representing uniform velocity.

1.

2.

3.

Page 52: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

4.

Answer:   2Question 29Question:   Name the physical quantity that is defined as the rate of change of displacement.

1. velocity2. acceleration3. distance4. speed

Answer:   1Question 30Question:   An object moves with a constant velocity of 9.8 m/s, its acceleration in m s-2 is ________.

1. 9.8 m/s2

2. zero3. 0.98 m/s4. 98 m/s2

Answer:   2Question 31Question:   In 12 minutes a car whose speed is 35 km/h travels a distance of

1. 7 km2. 3.5 km3. 14 km4. 28 km

Answer:   1Question 32Question:   A body moving along a straight line at 20 m/s undergoes an acceleration of 4 m/s2. After two seconds its speed will be ________.

1. 8 m/s2. 12 m/s3. 16 m/s4. 28 m/s

Answer:   4Question 33Question:   A car increases its speed from 20 km/h to 50 km/h in 10 seconds. Its acceleration is ________.

1. 30 m/s2

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2. 3 m/s2

3. 18 m/s2

4. 0.83 m/s2

Answer:   4Question 34Question:   When the distance covered by an object is directly proportional to time, it is said to travel with ________.

1. zero velocity2. constant speed3. constant acceleration4. uniform acceleration

Answer:   2Question 35Question:   Negative acceleration means an object is moving with ________ .

1. increasing speed2. decreasing speed3. uniform speed4. constant speed

Answer:   2Question 36Question:   Motion along a straight line is called __________ motion.

1. rectilinear motion2. circular motion3. oscillatory motion4. parabolic

Answer:   1Question 37Question:   Distance-time graph is a straight line for __________ motion.

1. variable2. non uniform3. rectilinear4. circular

Answer:   3Question 38Question:   A car is moving with a speed of 36 km/h. Its speed in m/s is _______.

1. 102. 1003. 24. 1

Answer:   1Question 39Question:   A car starts from rest and covers a distance of 100 m in one second with uniform acceleration. Its acceleration is _________.

Page 54: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

1. 100 m/s2

2. 50 m/s2

3. 200 m/s2

4. 100 m/s

Answer:   1Question 40Question:   Which of the following is a vector quantity?

1. area2. length3. distance4. displacement

Answer:   4Question 41Question:   The slope of a v-t graph gives ________.

1. acceleration2. velocity3. speed4. distance

Answer:   3Question 42Question:   The physical quantity describing motion and whose measure is the product of distance travelled and the time taken to travel that distance is ________.

1. speed2. mass3. weight4. displacement

Answer:   1Question 43Question:   If you are travelling with a velocity of 25 m/s, how long will you take to travel 700 m?

1. 25 s2. 28 s3. 25 min4. 2.8 s

Answer:   2Question 44Question:   Name the instrument used to measure instantaneous speed of a vehicle.

1. accelerator2. speedometer3. ammeter4. multimeter

Answer:   2Question 45

Page 55: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

Question:   A body covers a distance S in time t. What is its speed?

1. S/t2. t/S3. S x t4. Zero

Answer:   1Matter In Our Surroundings - Multiple Choice Test

Question 1Question:   Matter has ___________.

1. no mass but occupies space

2. mass but occupies no space

3. mass and occupies space

4. no mass and occupies no space

Answer:    3Question 2Question:   The gaseous form of water is called as _______.

1. water gas

2. water vapour

3. fog

4. snow

Answer:    2Question 3Question:   The state of matter with only one free surface is _______.

1. liquid

2. gas

3. solid

4. plasma

Answer:    1Question 4Question:   In gases, particles vibrate _________.

1. about their mean position

2. about a vertical axis

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3. about a horizontal axis

4. in any direction

Answer:    4Question 5Question:   Mixing of gases is called ______.

1. diffusion

2. effusion

3. filtration

4. sedimentation

Answer:    1Question 6Question:   A property not possessed by a fluid is _________.

1. it can flow

2. it has mass

3. it has a definite shape

4. can be perceived by our senses

Answer:    3Question 7Question:   Which among the following is a solid at room temperature?

1. Nitrogen

2. Potassium permanganate

3. Bromine

4. Helium

Answer:    2Question 8Question:   Which of these is a characteristic property of gases?

1. Gases are not at all rigid.

2. Gases are not compressible.

3. Gases have particles in fixed positions.

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4. Gases have high density.

Answer:    1Question 9Question:   A solid has _________.

1. maximum intermolecular space

2. definite mass but no definite volume

3. very high compressibility

4. maximum intermolecular force of attraction

Answer:    4Question 10Question:   Conversion of gas to liquid is called _________.

1. condensation

2. sublimation

3. vapourisation

4. solidification

Answer:    1Question 11Question:   The process by which wet clothes dry up is called _______.

1. evaporation

2. boiling

3. condensation

4. solidification

Answer:    1Question 12Question:   A solid that sublimes on heating is _________.

1. sodium chloride

2. copper sulphate

3. lead sulphate

4. ammonium chloride

Answer:    4

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Question 13Question:   Matter changes from one state to another with change in _________.

1. density

2. temperature

3. volume

4. height

Answer:    2Question 14Question:   The process of a solid changing into liquid is called ___________.

1. liquefaction

2. melting

3. freezing

4. solidification

Answer:    2Question 15Question:   The freezing point of pure water is __________.

1. 100oC

2. 0oC

3. 5oC

4. 78.3oC

Answer:    2Question 16Question:   The force between particles of matter is called as ___________.

1. cohesive force

2. adhesive force

3. kinetic energy

4. thermal energy

Answer:    1Question 17Question:   Particles of matter are __________.

Page 59: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

1. stationary

2. vibrating in one position

3. in continuous motion

4. rotating about an axis

Answer:    3Question 18Question:   The temperature at which vapour changes into liquid is called ________.

1. freezing point

2. melting point

3. boiling point

4. liquefaction point

Answer:    4Question 19Question:   Temperature is a measure of ___________.

1. total kinetic energy of molecules

2. total potential energy of molecules

3. average potential energy of molecules

4. average kinetic energy of molecules

Answer:    1Question 20Question:   For any substance the temperature remains same during the change of state due to ___________.

1. loss of heat

2. latent heat

3. less supply of heat

4. lattice energy

Answer:    2Objective General Knowledge

Q In an atom no two electrons have all the four quantum numbers identical. This is

Page 60: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

. known as

  1 Paulis Exclusion principle

  2 Hunds Rule

  3 Aufbau Principle

  4 Avogadros Law

    Ans:1

Q.

Which of the following is a physical change?

  1 Boiling of Water

  2 Rusting of Iron

  3 Boiling of an Egg

  4 Burning of Candle

    Ans:1

Q.

Superconductors are those materials

  1 Which become non-conductors at transition point

  2 Which looses all electrical resistance when cooled below a certain temperature

  3 In which resistance rises to infinity below certain temperature

  4 Which conducts electricity in extra widths

    Ans:2

Q.

Which one of the following is not a radioactive element?

  1 Uranium

  2 Radium

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  3 Thorium

  4 Cadmium

    Ans:4

Q.

A body is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 100 m/sec. While coming back on ground, its speed at starting point will be

  1 100 m/sec

  2 1000 m/sec

  3 50 m/sec

  4 200 m/sec

    Ans:1

Q.

When 1 litre of water freezes, the volume of ice formed will be

  1 0.9 litre

  2 1.0 litre

  3 1.11 litre

  4 1.5 litre

    Ans:3

Q.

An object is placed between the pole of concave mirror and the focus of the mirror, the image formed will be

  1 Behind the mirror, virtual, erect and magnified

  2 At infinity, real inverted and highly enlarged

  3 Byond centre of curvature, real inverted and enlarged

  4 Beyond 2F, real inverted and enlarged

    Ans:1

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Q.

A hollow cylindrical rod is filled with air, to make it a resonance column. To produce a wave of length 48 cm the minimum length of rod should be

  1 12 cm

  2 24 cm

  3 48 cm

  4 96 cm

    Ans:2

Q.

In a telescope of magnification power 10, the focal length of the objective lens is 60 cm, what will be the total length of eyepiece

  1 6 cm

  2 25 cm

  3 30 cm

  4 50 cm

    Ans:1

Q.

A boy has five resistance of 1/5 ohm each. The maximum resistance that can be formed with them is

  1 0.5 ohm

  2 1 ohm

  3 1/25 ohm

  4 1/5 ohm

   

Ans:2

Q.

Each of 3 capacitors of capacity C are connected together in series. This combination is added in paralled to a capacitor of capacity C. Resultant capacity will be

  1 C

  2 3C

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  3 4C

  4 4C/3

    Ans:4

Q.

A falling drop of rain water acquires the spherical shape due to

  1 Surface Tension

  2 Gravitational force

  3 Atmospheric pressure

  4 Viscosity

    Ans:1

Q.

A periscope works by the principle of

  1 Refraction

  2 Total Internal reflection

  3 Diffraction

  4 Reflection and refraction

    Ans:2

Q.

Which of the following light waves is outside the visible spectrum?

  1 Violet

  2 Blue

  3 Yellow

  4 Ultraviolet

    Ans:4

Q.

Estimated time period of a pendulum of length 0.2m is closer to is

  1 .5 sec

  2 1 sec

  3 2 sec

  4 None of these

    Ans:2

Q.

What is the value of knee voltage of silicon diode?

  1 0.3V

  2 0.33V

  3 0.7V

  4 1.1V

    Ans:3

Q There is 20 volt accross the inductor and 15 volt across the resistance in the a.c.

Page 64: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

. supplied series R-L circuit. What would be the supply voltage?

  1 20 volt

  2 15 volt

  3 25 volt

  4 17.5 volt

    Ans:3

Q.

A transformer mainly transforms -

  1 Current

  2 Voltage

  3 Frequency

  4 Power

    Ans:2

Q.

What is the power factor of a pure resistor circuit?

  1 One

  2 Zero

  3 Leading

  4 Lagging

    Ans:1

Q.

What is the S. I. unit of magnetic flux density?

  1 Gauss

  2 Tesla

  3 Oersted

  4 Weber

    Ans:2

Q.Which type of oscillator is most stable in simple circuit?

  1 Crystalline oscillators  2 Clapp oscillators  3 Colepitts oscillator  4 Armstong oscillator

    Ans:1

Q.

What is the proper use of signal generator?

  1 Designing

  2 Testing

Page 65: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

  3 Repairing

  4 All of the Above

    Ans:4

Q.

If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the --

  1 Exhaust will be smokey

  2 Piston rings would stik into piston grooves

  3 Scavenging occurs

  4 Engine starts overheating

    Ans:1

Q.

The information is sent by CW transmitter by -

  1 Changing the audio frequency

  2 Interrupting radio signal

  3 Using microphone

  4 Using camera

    Ans:1

Q.

Moisture can be removed from lubricating oil using -

  1 Tubular centrifugal

  2 Clarifier

  3 Sparkler filter

  4 Vacuum leaf filter

    Ans:1

Q.

Germanium possesses -

  1 Two valence electrons

  2 Three valence electrons

  3 Four valence electrons

  4 Five valence electrons

    Ans:3

Q.

Which of the following is not a property of difference amplifier?

  1 Capacitor is used in it

  2 It is used to compare two signals

  3 Difference amplifier yields more than the direct couple ampliier

  4 Frequency of difference amplifier remains flat from zero to high frequency

    Ans:1

Q Calorie value is the least of the following materials -

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.

  1 Coal gas

  2 Producer gas

  3 Steam fiery gas

  4 Oil gas

    Ans:2

Q.

For generating large currents on D.C. generators which winding is generally preferred?

  1 Progressive wave winding

  2 Lap winding

  3 Retrogressive wave winding

  4 Current depends on design

    Ans:2

Q.

A. C. servomotor is basically a/an ...

  1 Universal motor

  2 Single phase induction motor

  3 Two phase induction motor

  4 Three phase induction motor

    Ans:3

Q.Co-efficient of velocity as compared to the coefficient of discharge is -

  1 Less  2 More  3 Equal  4 Less or more depending on flow

    Ans:2

Q.

The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to -

  1 Momentum

  2 Velocity

  3 Displacement

  4 Mass

    Ans:4

Q.

...signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are equal.

  1 Input

  2 Actuating

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  3 Feedback

  4 Reference

    Ans:2

Q.

Motor-generator set for D. C. arc welding has generator of -

  1 Series type

  2 Shunt type

  3 Differentially compound type

  4 Level compound type

    Ans:3

Q.

Which of the following motors is preferred when quick speed reversal is the main consideration?

  1 Squirrel cage induction motor

  2 Wound rotor induction motor

  3 Synchronous motor

  4 D. C. motor

    Ans:4

Q.

In case of ball bearings, which part is made harder than others -

  1 Ball

  2 Outer race

  3 Inner race

  4 All are made equally hard

    Ans:4

Q.

Selectivity of the receiver can be increased by which of the following?

  1 By using more tuned circuit

  2 By decreasing number of tuned circuit

  3 By using loudspeaker

  4 By increasing gain of the receiver

    Ans:4

Q.

An electronics circuits in which different components such as Diode, Resistor and Capacitor etc. are connected separately is called -

  1 Chassis

  2 Printed board

  3 Integrated circuit

  4 Discrete circuit

    Ans:3

Q What are Ferrites?

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.

  1 Magnetic but have low resistance

  2 Magnetic but have high resistance

  3 Non-magnetic with low resistance

  4 Non-magnetic with high resistance

    Ans:2

Q.

How will a red flower appear, if it is seen through a green glass?

  1 Red

  2 Brown

  3 White

  4 Green

    Ans:2

Q. What is the unit of electrical energy?  1 Ampere  2 Volt  3 Watt  4 Kilowatt-hour

    Ans:4

Q.

A diode....

  1 Functions only in one direction

  2 Functions in both the directions

  3 Does not function at all

  4 It gets damaged, when voltage is applied

    Ans:1

Q.

What is the frequency of the receiver?

  1 488 kHz

  2 445 kHz

  3 455 kHz

  4 456 kHz

    Ans:4

Q.

What would be the expenditure in 30 days at the rate of 50 paise per unit, if a bulb of 100 W is used five hours per day?

  1 Rs. 10.50

  2 Rs. 8.50

  3 Rs. 7.50

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  4 Rs. 9.50

    Ans:3

Q.

Lever functions on which of the following principles?

  1 Crank-shaft

  2 Joining rod

  3 Crank pin

  4 Cross head

    Ans:1

Q.

Protein is not available in which of the following?

  1 Meat

  2 Milk

  3 Rice

  4 Pulse

    Ans:3

Q.

In steam turbine the action of steam is -

  1 Stable

  2 Dynamic

  3 Stable and dynamic

  4 Neither stable nor dynamic

    Ans:2

Q.

Among the following statement which is the false?

  1 Only minority impurities are added in a junction diode

  2 Higher temperature increases the leakage current of diode

  3 A simple zener diode works when connected between anode to cathode

  4 Zener is mostly used in voltage regulator

    Ans:1

Q.

In resistance heating, highest working temperature is obtained from heating elements made of...

  1 Nickel and copper

  2 Nichrome

  3 Silicon carbide

  4 Silver

    Ans:2

Q.

When the load is above ....., a synchronous motor is found to be more economical.

Page 70: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

  1 2 KW

  2 20 KW

  3 50 KW

  4 100 KW

    Ans:3

Q.To convert moving coil galvanometer into an ammeter, which of the following methods is used?

  1 Small resistance in series  2 Small resistance in parallel  3 High resistance in series  4 High resistance in parallel

    Ans:2

Q.

Which of the following can be used to control the speed of a D. C. motor?

  1 Thermistor

  2 Thyristor

  3 Thyratron

  4 Transistor

    Ans:2

Q.

Minority carrier in P-type semiconductor is -

  1 Free electrons

  2 Free holes

  3 Holes and electrons both

  4 Holes minus electrons

    Ans:2

Q.

Pulley in a belt drive acts as -

  1 Cylindrical pair

  2 Turning pair

  3 Rolling pair

  4 Sliding pair

    Ans:1

Q.

While checked with a multimeter, an open resistor reads -

  1 Zero

  2 Infinite

Page 71: 93 Physics MCQ and Answers IAS Exam

  3 High but within tolerance.

  4 Low but not zero

    Ans:2

Q.

In amplitude modulation -

  1 Amplitude of the carrier is kept constant

  2 Change occurs in carrier frequency

  3 Amplitude is varied according to the instaneous value of modelling wave

  4 None of these

    Ans:3

Q.

The blue colour of the clear sky is due to -

  1 Diffraction of light

  2 Dispersion of light

  3 Reflection of light

  4 Refraction of light

    Ans:2

Q.

Which of the following is used in semi-conductors?

  1 Aluminium

  2 Copper

  3 Silicon

  4 None of these

    Ans:3

Q.

Which one of the following allotropes of carbon is used for cutting and drilling?

  1 Diamond

  2 Graphite

  3 Activated carbon

  4 Carbon black

    Ans:1

Q.

Which one of the following is a vector?

  1 Kinetic energy

  2 Pressure

  3 Rate of change of momentum

  4 Density

    Ans:3

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Q. X-rays comprise of:  1 Electrons only  2 Protons only  3 Neutrons only

  4Electromagnetic radiations Ans:4

   

Q.

The power of lens is - 2D. What is its focal length?

  1 2m

  2 0.5m

  3 1.0m

  4 0.5m

    Ans:4