Spec II Rotation 2 Oph MCQ  

1 pointQuestion 1 Retinitis Pigmentosa can be: Answer   a. an inherited condition with a “bone spiculed” fundus appearance causing loss of central vision

  b. a sporadic condition with a “salt and pepper” fundus appearance causing loss of peripheral vision   c. an inherited condition with a “bone spiculed” fundus appearance causing loss of peripheral vision   d. a sporadic condition with a "bone spiculed fundus" appearance causing loss of peripheral vision   e.  an inherited condition with a “salt and pepper” fundus appearance causing loss of central vision

1 pointQuestion 2 A neutropenic patient undergoing induction chemotherapy for acute leukaemia grows Candida albicans on routine blood culture taken after a fever. Whilst the culture has been proceeding the patient begins to complain of floaters in one eye. The most important reason for requesting a specialist ophthalmic consultation is: Answer   a. To exclude retinal detachment

  b. To exclude fungal endophthalmitis   c. To exclude fungal keratitis   d. To exclude lymphoma   e. To exclude autoimmune uveiti

1 pointQuestion 3 A 78 year old patient presents to accident and emergency complaining of sudden loss of the superior visual field in one eye. On ophthalmoscopy, a yellow plaque is noted in the arterioles of the inferior temporal arcade and the inferior retina appears white and swollen. The investigations most likely to identify the source of this problem are: Answer   a. Carotid doppler ultrasound and echocardiography

  b. CRP and ESR   c. Ocular coherence tomography (OCT)   d. MRI brain and orbits   e. Thyroid function testing

1 points Question 4 A 54 year old woman has had type 1 diabetes for 40 years and presents to the ophthalmology clinic for retinopathy screening by the resident. On dilated fundus examination the resident notes the patient has scattered microaneurysms, several dot haemorrhages and a small area of new blood vessels at an A-V crossing. The resident is likely to: Answer   a. Diagnose no retinopathy and follow the patient up in a year

  b. Diagnose background diabetic retinopathy and follow the patient up in a year   c. Diagnose clinically significant macula oedema and seek the advice of an ophthalmologist   d. Diagnose proliferative diabetic retinopathy and seek the advice of an ophthalmologist   e. Diagnose vitreous haemorrhage and seek the advice of an ophthalmologist

1 points Question 5 A 21 year old student attends the university health service complaining of slowly worsening vision over the last year, and she is now unable to see the front of the lecture theatre. However her near vision remains perfect. The examination most likely to diagnose the cause of this problem is: Answer   a. Pupil reaction testing

  b. Ocular motility testing   c. Confrontation visual field testing   d. Refraction   e. Slit lamp examination

1 points Question 6 Dry (atrophic) age related macular degeneration: Answer   a. Is characterised by new vessel formation at the macula

  b. Is treatable with intravitreal injections   c. Is rapidly progressive, leading to loss of central vision   d. Is rapidly progressive, leading to loss of central and peripheral vision

  e. Is characterised by hard drusen at the early stages

1 points Question 7 Wet (exudative) age related macular degeneration Answer   a. May be treatable with intravitreal injections

  b. Is slowly progressive, leading to loss of central vision over many years   c. Is a type of ocular diabetic complication   d. Commonly follows toxoplasmosis infection   e. Is characterised by flame shaped haemorrhages

1 points Question 8 A 45 year old man who has worn thick glasses since childhood presents to his GP complaining of flashing lights in his right eye and no history of trauma. The most likely serious cause of these symptoms that must be considered for this patient is: Answer   a. Retinal detachment

  b. Temporal arteritis   c. Subarachnoid haemorrhage   d. Uveitis   e. Blow out fracture of the orbit

1 points Question 9 The most common cause of flashes and floaters is: Answer

  a. Posterior vitreous detachment   b. Retinal detachment   c. Endophthalmitis   d. Temporal Arteritis   e. Optic neuritis

1 points Question 10 Toxoplasmosis: Answer   a. Is most damaging to the vision when contracted in adult life

  b. Is caused by exposure to sheep faeces   c. Is one of the most significant visual problems in the developing world   d. Is caused by infection with a helminth   e. Is a reason pregnant women should avoid cats

1 points Question 11 A patient presents with severe eye pain to the GP 4 days following cataract removal. On examination with a torch, the eye is red and inflamed with ciliary injection and a layer of pus in the anterior chamber. The most likely diagnosis is: Answer   a. Normal postoperative inflammation

  b. HLA-B27 associated uveitis   c. Adenoviral conjunctivitis   d. Endophthalmitis   e. Herpetic keratitis

1 points

Question 12 Presentation of a central retinal vein occlusion is characterised by: Answer   a. Sudden onset loss of vision with masses of dot haemorrhages in the fundus

  b. Gradual loss of vision with masses of dot haemorrhages in the fundus   c. Sudden onset loss of vision with masses of flame haemorrhages in the fundus   d. Gradual loss of vision with masses of flame haemorrhages in the fundus   e. None of the above

1 points Question 13 Physiological aniscoria: unequal pupil sizes

Answer   a. Is often associated with relative afferent pupillary defect   b. Typically results from traumatic mydriasis   c. Is associated with normal light and near reflex   d. Generally worsens with age   e. Is typically a sign of a serious neurological disorder

1 points Question 14 Papilloedema can be associated with: Answer   a. Swelling of the optic nerve head

  b. venous dilation   c. absent spontaneous venous pulsation   d. retinal exudates   e. all of the above

1 points Question 15 Optic neuritis can be associated with: Answer   a. Pain with eye movement

  b. Vision loss   c. Colour vision compromise   d. Macular oedema   e. All of the above

1 points Question 16 Bitemporal hemianopia can be localized to: Answer   a. Optic chiasm

  b. Optic nerve   c. Occipital cortex   d. Parietal lobe   e. Temporal lob

1 points Question 17 Homonymous hemianopia can be localized to: Answer a. Optic nerve

b. Ipsilateral parietal lobe c. Ipsilateral temporal lobe d. Contralateral occipital lobe e. Ipsilateral occipital lobe

1 points

Question 18 In testing visual acuity, if the patient is unable to identify any letters on the Snellan chart you should next test for the ability to: Answer a.  Count fingers

b.  Identify direction of hand movements c.  Identify position of a stationary light d.  Identify presence of a stationary light

1 points Question 19 A 30 year old woman notices that her left pupil is smaller than the right pupil. Her left eyelid droops intermittently. The lesion might be located in: Answer a.  Left orbit

b.  Left neck c.  Left third cranial nerve d.  Left mediastinum

1 points Question 20 In normal subjects, the ratio of the horizontal diameter of the physiologic cup to the diameter of the optic disc should be no more than:Answer a.  0.5

b.  0.7 c.  0.1 d.  0.3

1 points Question 21 Flouroquinolones Answer   a. can cause tendonitis

  b. can adversely affect musculoskeletal growth in children   c. Routinely used in children   d. Stains teeth   e. A and B are correct

1 points Question 22 Which of the following can be a side effect of systemic or topical steroid? Answer   a. Glaucoma

  b. Mood instabilit   c. Cataract   d. Eyelid skin atrophy   e. All of the above

1 points Question 23 Hydroxychloroquine Answer   a. Is an antimalarial agent

  b. Causes vortex keratopathy – whorl-like corneal epithelial deposits   c. Causes maculopathy - bulls eye  d. Rarely causes ocular toxicity   e. All of the above

1 points

Question 24 Ethambutol bacteriostatic antimycobacterial drug prescribed to treat tuberculosisAnswer   a. Can lead to optic neuropathy

  b. Typically presents with binasal hemianopia   c. Responds well to systemic steriod treatment   Is not dose dependent   None of the above

1 points Question 25 A handy way to screen for visual field defects is: Answer a.  Amsler grid test

b.  Pinhole test c.  Red reflex test d.  Tumbling E's test

1 points Question 26 In the swinging light pupil test, if the right pupil dilates as the light is swung in its direction, the interpretation is:

Answer a.  Right afferent pupil defect b.  Faulty technique c.  Left afferent pupil defect d.  Normal result

1 points Question 27 A 64 year old woman complains of photophobia, foreign body sensation, and blurred vision in her right eye for several days. What is the diagnosis? Answer a.  Acute angle-closure glaucoma

b.  Blepharitis c.  Uveitis d.  Keratitis

1 points Question 28 The proper management of a suspected bacterial conjunctivitis of one day's duration in an immunocompetant adult is: Answer a.  Culture conjunctiva treat with topical antibiotic, empirically until culture results come back, then

switch if necessary. b.  Treat with topical antibiotic empirically without culturing. c.  Smear conjunctiva, treat with topical antibiotics appropriate to results. d.  Refer immediately to an ophthamologist without intervening.

1 points Question 29 You diagnose orbital cellulitis in an otherwise healthy 5 year old. The correct management is:  Answer a.  No imaging, treat with intravenous antibiotics

b.  Orbital imaging, treat with oral antibiotics c.  Orbital imaging, treat with intravenous antibiotics d.  No imaging, treat with oral antibiotics

1 points Question 34 Nystagmus in a child: Answer   a. Is always associated with a serious systemic disorder when present in an infant

  b. Can present as an isolated, idiopathic condition   c. Is not typical of albinism   d. Always portends a poor visual outcome (worse than visual acuity of 6/60)   e. All of the above

1 points Question 35 A patient presenting with Amaurosis Fugax: (is loss of vision in one eye due to a temporary lack of blood flow to the retina.) nswer   a. May have a retinal embolus

  b. Needs cardiovascular work up   c. Always needs to be hospitalized   d. A and B   e. All of the above

1 points Question 36 Dacryocystitis (infection of nasolacrimal sac)Answer   a. Is always managed by surgery as the first line of treatment

  b. Is typically managed with systemic antibiotics as the first line of treatment   c. Can lead to orbital cellulitis   d. Rarely presents with a dacryocystocoele   e. All of the above

1 points Question 37 Upper eye lid retraction is typically a sign of Answer   a. Entropion

  b. Ptosi   c. Orbital fracture   d. Thyroid eye disease   e. None of the above

1 points Question 38 Optic nerve glioma is typically associated with Answer   a. sudden loss of vision

  b. proptosis   c. retinoblastoma   d. enophthalmos   e. All of the above

1 points Question 39 Neurofibromatosis can be associated with: Answer   a. Proptosis

  b. Lisch nodules   c. Pseudo-ptosis   d. Cafe au lait spots   e. All of the above

1 points Question 40 The best way to manage a primary malignancy involving the eyelid generally is: Answer   a. Initially with topical and systemic antibiotics

  b. Cryotherapy   c. Surgical excision with clear margins   d. Radiotherapy   e. Chemotherapy

1 points Question 41 Differential Diagnosis for proptosis in an adult would include: Answer   a. Thyroid Eye Disease

  b. Neurofibromatosis   c. Optic nerve glioma   d. Optic nerve meningioma   e. All of the above

1 points Question 42 A 14 year old boy presents to you in ED with blurred vision after being hit in the eye with a cricket ball. On exam, you see a layered haemorrhage within the anterior chamber. Which of the following is NOT true about hyphaema? Answer   a. Often results from blunt ocular trauma

  b. Severe hyphema can be associated with glaucoma.   c. Rebleeding is most common after the third week of presentation   d. Typically treated with bed rest and topical medication   e. Surgical intervention is needed in severe cases

1 points Question 43 Hyphaema may be caused by each of the following EXCEPT: Answer   a. Trauma

  b. Vitreous haemorrhag

  c. Iris new vessel   d. Optic neuritis   e. Cataract surgery

1 points Question 44 Which of the following histories is NOT suspicious of a penetrating eye injury? Answer   a. Hammering metal on metal, painful eye, but visual acuity is 6/6

  b. Woke with a sudden, painless loss of vision   c. Hammering metal on metal, painful eye, but wearing safety glasses   d. Hammering metal on metal, painful eye, but normal pupil reactions   e. Glass broken over head, sore eye, but without an entry wound found by referring consultant

1 points Question 45 Which of the following steps should NOT be taken in the event of a ruptured globe? Answer   a. Place a hard plastic shield over the eye

  b. Tape a Styrofoam cup over the affected eye   c. Give tetanus vaccine   d. Test visual acuity with a pinhole   e. Pad the eye

1 points Question 46 Surgery to remove an intraocular foreign body is reasonable in which situation: Answer   a. Waiting for surgery for 36 hours will not increase the likelihood of infection

  b. Should be performed within hours, but there is still a risk of infection   c. If inert substance, will not pose problems if left in the eye   d. The eye should be removed immediately due to the risk of sympathetic ophthalmia

1 points Question 47 An orbital fracture is not associated with: Answer   a. An eye injury, because the orbit protects the globe from injury

  b. Ruptured globe   c. Hyphaema   d. Optic neuropathy   e. Lacrimal tumours

1 points Question 48 Which of the following statements about traumatic optic neuropathy is TRUE: Answer   a. Occurs in end-stage glaucoma

  b. Generally worse in diabetics   c. Is present whenever there is loss of vision associated with orbital fractures   d. Is associated with visual acuity at nil perception of light   e. If the other eye is normal, it will cause a relative afferent pupillary defect

1 points Question 49 A foreign body under the upper eyelid should be looked for in the following situations: Answer   a. Unilateral red eye of unknown cause

  b. Corneal abrasion   c. Chemical splash injury to cornea   d. History of "conjunctivitis" for the past 4 weeks   e. All of the above

1 points Question 50 Which of the following statements is TRUE about choroidal melanoma: Answer   a. It is synonymous with conjunctival melanoma

  b. It does not occur because the choroid doesn t contain melanin

  c. It may transform from a choroidal naevus   d. The only safe option is to treat by enucleation

1 points Question 51 Retinoblastoma is a genetic disease with the following characteristics, EXCEPT: Answer   a. There is always a family history

  b. It may be associated with a pinealoma   c. Children treated for bilateral retinoblastoma may get sarcomas later in life   d. Often bilateral in a germline mutation    e. Generally lethal if not treated

1 points Question 52 You are a country relieving GP. A very worried mother with a family history of congenital glaucoma brings her 2 months old baby son and anxiously asks you if her son has the same condition. What would you look for in the baby? Answer   a. Corneal clouding but not buphthalmos - abnormally narrow angle between the

cornea and iris blocks the outflow of aqueous humor  b. Buphthalmos but not corneal clouding   c. Lines or breaks in corneal Descemet s membrane   d. Optic nerve cupping   e. All of the above

1 points Question 53 You are in the middle of a well-child check in your rooms and note that the pupil reflex in a 13 month old child you are examining is not red but white. You think back to your Ophthalmology rotation in your final year of medical school and try to remember the possible ocular conditions that may present with a white pupil reflex. What would be the most important of the differential diagnosis to consider for leukocoria? Answer   a. Retinoblastoma

  b. Congenital cataract   c. Corneal scar   d. Toxocariasis   e. None of the above

1 points

Question 54 Ocular involvement in Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis typically presents as Answer   a. Iritis

  b. Proptosis   c. Hemangioma   d. Optic disc Drusen   e. All of the above

1 points Question 55 Myopia (nearsightedness)Answer   a. is easily corrected with plus lenses

  b. can be corrected with LASIK surgery   c. is also known as long sightedness   d. has no hereditary component

1 points Question 56 Hyperopia (farsightedness)Answer   a. is corrected with minus lenses

  b. is known as short sightedness   c. is the common refractive state in newborns   d. is related to outdoor activity as a child   e. is related to increased reading as a child

1 points Question 57 Astigmatism Answer   a. is related to the size of the pupil

  b. is always the same between the two eyes   c. can be corrected with contact lens or spectacles   d. cannot be accounted for in cataract surgery   e. cannot be surgically corrected

1 points Question 58 You are a relieving GP in a small country town. A 55 year old man with Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia presents 3 months after his bone marrow transplant. He tells you that his eyes have been very sore and red for the past few week, and you suspect that this may be a part ocular involvement in Graft-versus-Host Disease. What are the signs you would be looking for to confirm your clinical suspicion? Answer   a. Conjunctival erythema with epithelial sloughing

  b. Dry eyes   c. Cicatrization with symblepharon formation   d. Photophobia is common in moderate cases   e. All of the above statements are true

1 points Question 59 Diabetes Mellitus is not typically associated with the following ocular signs: Answer   a. Iris neovascularisation

  b. Hard exudates   c. Retinal neovascularisation   d. Strabismus disorder in which the two eyes do not line up in the same direction, and therefore do not look at the same object at the same time  e. b and c only

1 points Question 60 In the eye, hypertension is typically associated with Answer   a. Central retinal vein occlusion

  b. Cataracts   c. Choroidal naevus   d. Retinal neovascularisation   e. Scleritis

1 points Question 61 Ocular involvement in thyroid dysfunction develops more frequently and is more severe among Answer   a. Young adults

  b. Female smokers   c. Diabetics   d. Obese adults   e. Males

1 points Question 62 Neurofibromatosis is typically Answer   a. Autosomal recessive

  b. Autosomal dominant   c. X linked   d. Mitochondrial linked   e. None of the above

1 points Question 63 Ophthalmic features of AIDS are Answer   a. Cotton wool spots

  b. Retinitis

  c. Keratitis due to HSV or HZV   d. Kaposi sarcoma of the eye lid   e. All of the above

1 points Question 64 The most common initial site of metastasis for a choroidal melanoma is Answer   a. Bone

  b. Brain   c. Lung   d. Liver   e. None of the above

1 points Question 65 Which region of the eye is most commonly affected by Graft vs Host Disease? Answer   a. Retina

  b. iris   c. tear duct   d. conjunctiva   e. eye lid

1 points Question 66 Multiple Sclerosis is commonly associated with Answer   a. Conjunctivitis

  b. Scleritis   c. Optic neuritis   d. Uveitis   e. Keratitis

1 points Question 67 What is not a sign of allergic conjunctivitis? Answer   a. Conjunctival papilllae

  b. Lid oedema   c. symblepharon a partial or complete adhesion of the palpebral conjunctiva of the eyelid to the bulbar conjunctiva of the eyeball  d. Epiphora - an excessive tear production usually a result from an irritation of the eye  e. Inflamed conjunctival vessels

1 points Question 68 Herpes Simplex Virus can be associated with Answer   a. Conjunctivitis

  b. Keratitis   c. Uveitis   d. Retinitis   e. All of the above

1 points Question 69 Which of the following statements is incorrect. Chlamydia Answer   a. May cause unilateral or bilateral eye disease

  b. Does not cause conjunctival scarring   c. Can cause mucopurulent discharge   d. Can cause large conjunctival follicles

  e. May be acquired from the mother during birth

1 points Question 70 Gonorrhoea Answer   a. may cause a mild conjuctivitis

  b. is a gram-positive coccus   c. is capable of causing perforation of the cornea   d. is not able to be spread via genital-hand-eye contact   e. is treated with corticosteroids

1 points Question 71 Benign Intracranial Hypertension may cause Answer   a. Squint

  b. Visual field defect   c. Papilloedema   d. All of the above   e. B and C only

1 points Question 72 Down syndrome is not associated with a higher risk of Answer   a. Cataracts

  b. Optic neuritis   c. Blepharitis   d. Strabismus   e. Amblyopia (Lazy eye)

1 points Question 73 Topical beta blockers can Answer   a. Induce brochospasm in asthma and COP

  b. Precipitate heart failure   c. Inhibit the increase in heart rate and blood pressure with exertion   d. Exacerbate heart block   e. All of the above

1 points Question 74 Which of the following statements regarding topical alpha adrenergic agonists is false? Answer   a. Interact with certain antidepressants

  b. Worsen asthma attacks   c. Should be used cautiously in severe cardiovascular disease   d. Most commonly used are alpha-2-selective agents   e. Are prone to tachyphylaxis

1 points Question 75 The correct management of acute central retinal artery occlusion is:Answer a.  Intravenous thrombolysis

b.  Intra-arterial thrombolysis c.  Heparinization d.  Reduction in intraocular pressure

1 points Question 76 A vision-threatening delayed complication of central retinal vein occlusion is Answer a.  Macular

degeneration b.  Retinal detachment c.  Retinal neovascularization d.  Neovascular

glaucoma

If the retina is ischaemic it stimualtes the formation of new vessels on the iris and subsequent neovascularisation of the angle may lead to secondary glaucoma

1 points Question 77 The major concern about a vitreous detachment is that it will lead to: Answer a.  Retinal break (tear, hole) and detachment

b.  Retinal neovascularization c.  Vitreous bleeding d.  Macular degeneration

1 points Question 78 Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with amblyopia – lazy eye? Answer a.  Congenital cataract

b.  Anisometropia - the two eyes have unequal refractive power; that is, are in different states of myopia (nearsightednessc.  Binocular myopia d.  Strabismus

1 points Question 79 A 15-year-old boy complains of worsening vision in both eyes over the past year. Visual acuity is 20/40 in each eye at distance (20 feet) and 20/20 at near (14 inches). The diagnosis is? Answer a.  Astigmatism

b.  Myopia c.  Hyperopia d.  Presbyopia

1 points Question 80 In cataract surgery, the extracted lens is replaced by an implant that is usually placed where? Answer a.  Within the iris plane

b.  Within the lens capsule c.  Within the anterior chamber of the eye d.  Between the lens capsule and the vitreous

1 points Question 81 A 5 year-old boy with an ongoing upper respiratory infection develops violaceous lid swelling and pain around both eyes. The lids are slightly and diffusely tender to touch. The eyes are slightly protuberant, but see and move normally. The likely diagnosis is?  Answer a.  Orbital tumour

b.  Stye c.  Dacryocystitis (infection of nasolacrimal sac)d.  Orbital cellulitis

1 points Question 82 A 52 year-old mechanic is drilling on a metal lathe and momentarily feels a pulling sensation in his right eye. Shortly thereafter, his vision becomes slightly blurred and he consults you in the emergency room. Your examination shows no abnormalities, but visual acuity is 20/100 in the affected eye, 20/20 in the unaffected eye. Where did the foreign body land? Answer a.  Vitreous

b.  Conjunctiva c.  Orbital soft tissues d.  Cornea

1 points Question 83 An afferent pupil defect of a lesion in the: Answer a.  Optic nerve

b.  Optic tract c.  Macula d.  Lens

1 points Question 84 In illiterate patients, one way  to test visual acuity is by use of: Answer a.  Pinhole

b.  Tumbling E's c.  Amsler grid

1 points Question 85 Choose the FALSE statement. Scleritis is characterised by: Answer a.  A deep violaceous hue better seen under the ambient light conditions than at the slit lamp

b.  Anterior and posterior variants, diffuse or sectoral variants, and necrotising or non-necrotising forms c.  Requiring urgent ophthalmic and medical work-up and treated with systemic steriods and immunosuppression d.  Responding only to topical steriod treatment e.  Severe pain

1 points Question 86 Subconjunctival haemorrhage: Answer a.  Can be caused by coughing

b.  Results in permanent brownish mottling of the conjunctiva c.  Needs to be investigated with blood tests for a bleeding diathesis at first presentation

1 points Question 87 Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (Dry eyes): Answer a.  Can be exacerbated by anti-depressant medications

b.  Is insignificant and never needs detailed assessment c.  Can be managed with permanent punctual occlusion with no significant risks

1 points Question 88 A contact lens wearer presents with a red, sore eye and a pale patch on the cornea with fluorescein uptake: Answer a.  Their eye might be in a histopathology pot in 36 hours if not managed urgently

b.  They can be given broad spectrum antibiotic drops and reviewed in 72 hours c.  They can continue to wear the contact lens in the other eye

1 points Question 89 Concerning ocular chemical injuries: Answer a.  Acid splashes are more destructive than alkaline splashes

b.  It is more important to organise rapid transport to hospital than to commence irrigation with Coca-Cola if it is the only fluid available c.  It is useful to neutralise acid injuries with an alkaline solution and vice-versa d.  Copius and urgent irrigation is the best emergency treatment

1 points Question 90 Hyphaema: Answer a.  Is a layer of white blood cells in the inferior anterior chamber

b.  Is managed with bed rest at 45 degrees, a shield, cycloplegics and oral NSAIDs c.  May be associated with traumatic iritis

1 points Question 91 Which of the following statements are FALSE. A cataract: Answer a.  Occurs when the lens of the eye becomes clouded

b.  May require an urgent operation in infants c.  Occurring in young patients requires investigation d.  May be caused by hypercholesterolaemia

1 points Question 92 Which of the following statements concerning infectious conjunctivitis is FALSE: Answer a.  Viral conjunctivitis is commonly associated with redness, foreign body sensation and watering

b.  Bacterial conjunctivitis is commonly associated with eyelashes sticking together in the mornings and purulent discharge c.  Antibiotic drops are more useful than simple lubricants for viral conjunctivitis

1 points Question 93 Which of the following statements are FALSE. Horner's syndrome can be characterized by: Answer a.  Mild contralateral ptosis

b.  Moderate ipsilateral miosis c.  Iris heterochromia (a difference in coloration, usually of the iris)d.  Normal Light and Near reaction

1 points Question 94 On your first day as the relieving consultant in the emergency department, you are asked to see a patient with a possible 3rd Cranial Nerve Palsy. Which of the following statements are FALSE about 3rd Cranial Nerve Palsy? Answer a.  Ipsilateral ptosis

b.  Ipsilateral abduction limitation c.  Ipsilateral abduction and supraduction limitation d.  Ipsilateral infraduction limitation

1 points Question 95 Choose which is true for the following statements about Temporal Arteritis Answer a.  Relative afferent pupillary defect may be present

b.  Jaw claudication not typical c.  Temporal artery biopsy is rarely indicated

1 points Question 96 Choose the statement that is FALSE. Lagophthalmos(inability to close eyelids completely)

Answer a.  Can be associated with Thyroid Eye Disease b.  Can be associated with Facial Nerve Palsy c.  Is not associated with exposure keratopathy Epithelial exposure is seen as a band-like swelling and opacification of the epithelium where the lids remained open

1 points Question 97 Choose which statement is FALSE: Answer a.  Orbital cellulitis needs imaging studies, such as CT scan

b.  Orbital cellulitis is often associated with sinusitis c.  Subperiosteal abscess often needs surgical drainage d.  Preseptal cellulitis is typically treated with surgical intervention

1 points Question 98 Choose which of the following statements is true. Amblyopia – lazy eye:Answer a.  Is always treated to 18 years of age

b.  Is typically associated with esotropia but not exotropia c.  Is typically treated with patching of the good eye d.  Is rarely successfully treated when presents in a child younger than 3 years of age e.  Always involves refractive correction with glasses first

1 points Question 99 Which is FALSE? Congenital cataract: Answer a.  Can present unilaterally or bilaterally

b.  Can be associated with a systemic condition c.  Can present with leukocoria - an abnormal white reflection from the retina of the eyed.  Can present with strabismus e.  Is different from adult cataract, as congenital cataract is not treated with lensectomy

1 points

Question 100 Which is the FALSE statement? Rhabdomyosarcoma: Answer a.  Is the most common orbital malignancy of childhood

b.  Can present with sudden proptosis c.  Is treated with surgical resection, chemotherapy and radiation therapy d.  Can be confused with orbital cellulitis e.  Is typically very slow in onset with a gradual proptosis