395Pharmacy

1. Micro, nano, atto, and mega are prefixes associated with which of the following measuring systems?

I. avoirdupoisII. metric III. systeme International

A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only

D

2. One hundred (100) micrograms equals I. 100,000ngII. 0.1MgIII. 0.001g

A. I onlyB. III only C. I & II only D. II & III only

C

3. A nurse adds a 4-mL Tubex unit containing 2.4M units pencillin suspension to a 20-mL vial containing 10mL of normal saline. What is the new concentration of penicillin expressed as units/ml?

A. 170B. 240C. 170,000D. 240,000

C

4. A patient’s serum cholesterol value is reported as 4mM/L. What is this concentration expressed in terms of mg/dL? (mol.wt. of cholesterol=386)

A. 0.154mg/dL B. 1.54mg/dL C. 154mg/dL D. 596mg/dL

C

5. What is the minimum amount of a potent drug that may be weighed on a prescription balance with a sensitivity requirement of 6mg if at least 95% accuracy is required?

A. 6mg B. 120mg C. 180mg D. 200mg

B

6. Which of the following occur(s) when the sensitivity requirement of a balance increases?

I. the accuracy of the balance increases. II. The minimum mass that may be weighed

with a certain degree of accuracy increases.

III. The potential error in any given weighing increases

A. I only B. III only

B

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396Pharmacy

C. I and II only D. II and III only

7. The upper therapeutic drug concentration for a drug is considered to be 40µg /mL. Express this value in terms of mg/dL.

A. 0.04mg/dL B. 0.4mg/dL C. 4mg/dL D. 40mg/dL

C

8. Calculate the dose of a drug to be administered to a patient if the dosing regimen is listed as 2mg/kg/day. The patient weight 140lb.

A. 65mg B. 130mg C. 300mg D. 350mg

B

9. A package insert lists a drug dose for a neonate as being 10µg/kg/day. The age range for a neonate is considered to be

A. birth to 1month B. 1 month to 6 months C. 1 month to 1 year D. birth to 1 week

A

10. A child’s dose of a drug is reported as 1.2 mg/kg body weight. What is the appropriate dose for a child weighing 60lb?

A. 6mg B. 9mg C. 32mg D. 72mg

C

11. The dose of a drug is 0.5mg/kg. How many mL of a solution containing 20mg per teaspoon should be administered to a man weighing 175lb?

A. 10B. 20C. 40D. 50

A

12. The hospital protocol calls for additional dosing when the tough level of tobramycin (mol.wt.=470) approaches 2µg/mL. The concentration may also be expressed as how many umol/L?

A. 2.1B. 4.2C. 6.4D. 8.5

B

13. A hospital pharmacy technician adds by syringe 20mL of a concentrated serile 2%w/v dye solution to a 250-mL commercial bag of sterile normal saline. What is the concentration of the dye in the final solution?

A. 0.15%B. 0.16%C. 0.8%D. 1.6%

A

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397Pharmacy

15. How many mg of codeine phosphate are being consumed daily by a

A. 6.25mg B. 8.25mg C. 19mg D. 33mg

D

16. How many mg of codeine base is in each dose of the cough product used in Question 15? (mol.wt:codeine=299; codeine phosphate=406)

A. 6mg B. 8mg C. 11mg D. 16mg

A

17. The adult dose of a drug is 250mg. What would be the approximate dose for a 6-year-old child weighing 60lb?(use young’s rule)

A. 60mg B. 85mg C. 100mg D. 125mg

B

18. The USP contains nomograms for estimating body surface are (BSA) for both children and adults. Which of the following measurements must be known in order to use these nomograms?

A. age and height B. age and weight C. height and creatinine clearance D. height and weight

D

19. The adult dose of a drug is 200mg. What is the appropriate dose for an 8-year-old child whose BSA is calculated to be 0.6m2?

A. 25mg B. 40mg C. 50mg D. 70mg

D

20. The usual dose for paclitaxel intravenous (IV) is 135mg/m2. How many mg should be administered to a 40-year-old female weighing 120lb if her BSA was calculated to be 1.5m2?

A. 110B. 120C. 135D. 200

D

RxCodeine phosphate 200mgDimetapp Elix qs 120mL

Sig: 1 tsp t.i.d.p.c. and h.s.

14. A

patient taking the following prescription as directed?

A doctor prescribes 2.5 mg Zestril once daily for a period of 30 days. How many tablets will be dispensed to this patient with the dosage form available in Oman? A. 15 B. 30C. 45D. 60

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398Pharmacy

When reviewing this formula, the pharmacist should comment upon which of the following expressions?

I. 0.5II. grIII. qs

A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only

22. Blood pressure measurements were made for 1 week on five patients with the following averages:

Patient 1 2 3 4 5

B.P. 140/70 160/84 180/88 190/90 150/70

what is the median systolic pressure? A. 80B. 83C. 84D. 160

D

23. Using the above data, determine the approximate mean diastolic blood pressure value.

A. 80B. 84C. 100D. 115

A

24. A

Codeine sulfate 0.5grAspirin 1.6grHydrocortisone 120mgLactose qs 6 grams

Mix and make 30 capsules

21. A hospital pharmacy technician has written the following formula for inclusion into the master manufacturing formula book.

C

How much of the active ingredient is available in a solution of 10% w/v ?

A. 10g

B. 10mg

C. 100 g

D. 100 mg

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399Pharmacy

26. A hospital pharmacy needs 1qt of an antibacterial solution containing 92% v/v alcohol. How many mL of alcohol USP will be needed?

A. 458mL B. 870mL C. 916mL D. 920mL

C

27. A prescription calls for the dispensing of a 4% Pilocar solution with the directions of “gtt I OU TID.” How many mg of pilocarpine hydrochloride is being used per day? Assume that the dropper is calibrated to deliver 20 drops to the mL.

A. 4mg B. 6mg C. 12mg D. 24mg

C

28. The infusion rate of theophylline established for an infant is 0.08mg/kg/h. How many mg of drug are needed for a 12-h infusion bottle if the body weight is 16lb?

A. 0.58mg B. 14mg C. 7mg D. 150mg

C

29. The adult IV dose of zidovudine is 2mg/kg q4th six times daily. How many mg will a 180-lb patient receive daily?

A. 12mg B. 164mg C. 650mg D. 980mg

D

30. A pharmacist dilutes 100mL of Clorox with sufficient water to make 1qt of solution. Express the concentration of sodium hypochlorite in the final dilution as a w/v ration. Commercial Clorox contains 5.25% w/v sodium hypochlorite.

A. 1/10B. 1/90C. 1/100D. 1/180

D

25. A pharmacist adds 1 pt of alcohol USP to 1L of a mouthwash formula. What is the new percentage of alcohol present if the original mouthwash was labeled as 12% v/v ethanol?

A. 30%B. 38%C. 45%

B

D. 57%

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400Pharmacy

Which one of the following is an example of Chromatographic techniques A. HPLC B. Potentiometry C. IR D. NMR

A 1 litre solution is prepared by dissolving 4 gm of NaOH in water. What will be the concentration of solution? A. 0.1 M B. 1.0 M C. 0.01M D. 2 M

Two organic compounds are found to have similar chemical properties but different physical properties. Both are optically active and are non superimposable mirror images of each other. They areA. Enantiomers B. Rotamers C. Metamers D. Structural isomer

Hardness of water is determined by A. Precipitation method B. Complexometric method C. Acid base titration D. Diazotization titration

All are strong bases except A. Sodium Hydroxide B. Potassium Hydroxide C. Ammonium Hydroxide D. Calcium Hydroxide

Levothyroxine is assayed by A. Iodimetry B. Iodometry C. Permanganometry D. Cerimetry

A

A

A

B

C

B

C

C NMR stands for A. Nuclear mono resonance B. New Motor Resonance C. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance D. New Magnetic Resonance

EDTA stands for A. Ethylene diamine tri acetic acid B. Ethinyl diamine tetra acetic acid C. Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid D. Ethyl diamine tri acetic acid

2564.

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401Pharmacy

Name a halogen containing nonionic surfactant polymer used as antiseptic agent a. Halozoneb. Povidone iodine c. Tincture iodine d. Benzalkonium chloride

Chemical composition of Lugol’s solution is a. 2% iodine in 50% alcohol b. 5% iodine in water with potassium iodide c. 10% iodine in water with potassium iodide d. Liquefied phenol 5%

Which one given below is used as antiseptic in lozenges a. Benzoylperoxideb. Resorcinolc. Hexylresorcinold. Hexachlorophene

Denatured alcohol means a. Precipitation of protein by alcohol b. Alcohol unfit for use as beverage by adding methanol. c. Alcohol made from dehydrated alcohol so that it is unfit for consumption d. Alcohol obtained by azeotropic distillation of ethanol

Which one given below is not having antiseptic / disinfectant property a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Cationic surfactantc. Anionic surfactant d. Sodium hypochlorite

B

B

C

B

C

B

B

Name a disinfectant used to sterilize temperature sensitive medical equipment and drugs like surgical sutures & catgut a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Ethylene oxide c. Povidone iodine d. Benzalkonium chloride

The antiseptic preparation used for treatment of simple mouth ulcer and in dental care is a. Benzoyl peroxide b. Carbamide peroxide c. Tincture iodine d. Cresol

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402Pharmacy

Which one given below is correct statement regarding the metabolism of L-dopa to dopamine

A. L-dopa is vary water soluble and cannot cross blood brain barrier

B. L-Dopa is decarboxylated to an active catecholamine after crossing blood brain barrier.

C. L-Dopamine is highly lipophilic and cannot cross blood brain barrier

D. L-Dopa is metabolized in blood by decarboxylase enzyme before crossing blood brain barrier.

Name the prodrug of ampicillin prepared by acetone condensation product to improve oral bioavailabilityA. Becampicillin B. methicillin C. Hetacillin D. Amoxicillin

B

C

C

B

C

An example of cationic surfactant used as disinfectant is A. Chloroxyenol

B. Chlorhexidone gluconate

C. Cetylpyridinium chloride

D. Chloroazodin

What is the relevance of β-lactamase enzymes to penicillins? A. Fungi containing β-lactamase enzymes can synthesise penicillins.

B. Bacteria containing β-lactamase enzymes show resistance to penicillins.

C. Mammalian cells are unaffected by penicillins as they have β-lactamase enzymes.

D. Only bacteria containing β-lactamase enzymes are susceptible to penicillins.

Name a drug which is very effective as schizonticide and gametocide in the treatment of malaria A. Sulphadoxime

B. Pyrimethamine

C. Chloroquine

D. Proguanil

2579.

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403Pharmacy

Name the drug which inhibits reduction of dihydrofolic acid to the active tetrahydrofolate coenzyme form.

A. Sulfadoxime

B. Pyrimethamine

C. Atovaquone

D. Chloroquine

What cell structure is targeted by drugs such as the macrolides and aminoglycosides? A. Ribosomes.

B. Nucleus.

C. Cell membrane.

D. Cell wall.

B

A

D

D

B

D

The symptoms of malaria like intermittent fever and shivering is due to A. Sporozoites begin entering hepatocytes

B. Sporozoites injected into patient’s blood by mosquito bite

C. Merozoites present in systemic circulation infect patient’s erythrocytes

D. Merozoites or gametocytes burst out of infected RBC.

Name the anti-tubercular agent which catalyses the NADP-specific reduction of trans-enoylacyl carrier protein in fatty acid elongation stage of bacterial cell. A. Pyrazinamide

B. Rifamycin

C. Sodium PAS

D. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide

Neuritis caused by INH while treating tuberculosis can be counteracted byA. Alkalizing urine by sodium citrate

B. Co-administration of pyridoxine tablet

C. Replacing INH with other drugs

D. Discontinuation of INH

Name the anti tubercular drug which is contraindicated in gout and hyper uremia A. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide

B. Sodium PAS

C. Ethionamide

D. Pyrazinamide

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404Pharmacy

ylcarbamezine citrate is

Rheumatoid fever

by inhibiting topoisomerase II, an enzyme responsible for introduction of negative supercoils into circular duplex DNA.

The clinical use of dieth

A. Intestinal amebiasis

B.

C. Tropical eosinophilia

D. Lupus erythematous

Name the agent which inhibits DNA synthesis

A. Rifampicin

B. Chloramphenicol

C. Ciprofloxacin

D. Erythromycin

ation of the sulfa drugs in acidic pH of urine as one of the following metabolite is formed.

N-methyl derivative of sulfa drugs

group

Crystalluria is due to the precipit

A. N- glucuronide conjugate of sulfa drug B.C. N-acetyl derivative of sulfa drug D. Hydrolysis product on sulfonamide

C

C

C

D

A

Best drug of choice in the management of serious urinary tract infection caused by Gm-

ol

Nam the broad spectrum aminoglycoside antibiotic indicated in the management

in

ve bacilli, Klebsilla spp. Is A. Azithromycin

B. Chloramphenic

C. Tetracycline

D. Piperacillin

e

bacterial dysentery.

A. Gentamicin

B. Bacitracin

C. Erythromyc

D. Streptomycin

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405Pharmacy

Which antibiotic given below is not given orally?

Mebendazole is indicated in treatment of

infection

amebiasis

The antidote used in the management of poisoning of organoarsenic compounds

in

tartarate

A. Erythromycin

B. Amoxicillin

C. Gentamicin

D. Cephalexin

A. Microfilaria

B. Round worm

C. Malaria

D. Intestinal

A. Sodium nitrite

B. Dimercaprol

C. Sodium suram

D. Sodium potassium

C

B

B

C

A

C

Which drug is not used in the management of hepatic amebiasis A. Chloroquine

B. Didhyroemetine

C. Diloxanide

D. Metronidazole

Mechanism of action of Trimethoprim

A. Competitive inhibition of bacterial dihydrofolate reductase enzyme

B. Competitive inhibition of bacterial enzyme dihydropteroate synthase

C. Competitive inhibition of synthesis of Para aminobenzoic acid

D. competitive inhibition of enzyme for peptidoglycan synthesis

Lidocaine is not usually given orally because it is

A. Unabsorbed from gastrointestinal tract

B. Destroyed by intestinal enzymes

C. Converted into inactive form after first pass metabolism

D. Hydrolyzed in stomach by gastric enzyme and hydrochloric acid.

2595.

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406Pharmacy

Which statement is correct with reference to Halothane?

A. A gaseous inhalant anaesthetic agent B. Halogenated hydrocarbon used as inhalant anaesthetic agent C. Halogenated ether used as a inhalant anaesthetic agent D. An inflammable liquid used as general anaesthetic agent

An example of atypical antipsychotic agent is A. TrifluoperazineB. OlanzapineC. Chlorpeomazine D. Droperidol

B

B

A

A

C

D

D

Valproic acid sodium is indicated as a drug of choice in A. Mania of bipolar disorder B. Inflammatory condition C. Anxiety related insomnia D. Intravenous anaesthesia

The mechanism of action of Tranylcypromine isA. Non selective monoamine oxidase inhibitor B. Non selective inhibitor of cyclooxygenase C. Powerful agonist of neurotransmitter norepinephrine D. Serotonin uptake inhibitor.

Benzodiazepine derivatives mediate their ac tion through which one the following receptors. A. α-Adrenergic receptor B. Serotonin receptor C. GABA A receptor D. Dopamine D 2 receptor

An example of antidepressant having Dibenzazepine ring system is A. Amitriptyline B. FluoxetineC. PhenelzineD. Clomipramine

The Celecoxib produces little gastrointestinal side effect due to

A. Selective inhibitor of cyclooxygenase-1 in gastric mucosa B. Non selectively blocking of the synthesis of arachidonic acid C. Powerful inhibition cyclooxygenase -2 D. Non inhibition of cyclooxygenase -1 in gastric mucosa

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407Pharmacy

Selective Nor Epinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor(SNERI) isa. Maprotiline b. Phenelzinec. Imipramined. Pentozocine hydrochloride

Which one of the following drug is used in the treatment of overdose of pethidine? a. Apomorphineb. Dihydrocodonec. Naloxone d. Caffeine

The additional pharmacological property of cyproheptadine is

a. Anti-serotonin activity b. Mild analgesic property c. Emetic property d. Muscarinic activity

A

C

A

B

C

B

Which one given below is second generation antihistaminic agent having less sedative effect? a. Cyproheptidineb. Cetirizine c. Meclizine d. Pyrilamine

Which statement is correct in the case of pseudoephedrine? a. Erythroform alkaloid from Ephedra b. Chemically a dihydroxyphenylethylamine derivative c. Useful in the treating of nasal congestion d. Useful in the management of narcolepsy

The effect of cholinergic agonist interaction with muscarinic receptor M3 produces a. Bradycardia in heart. b. Stimulation of exocrine gland secretion c. Dilation of cerebral blood arteriesd. Modulation of neurotransmitter signaling in cortex

2608.

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408Pharmacy

drug of choice in the treating over dose of atropine is

he mechanism of action of furosemide is

ystem .the effects

of aldosterone.

he organo phosphorus insecticide poisoning is due to its

ibitory action

A

A. PhysostigmineB. HomatropineC. Pralidoxime D. Neostigmine

TA. inhibit luminal membrane bound 1Na/1K/2Cl co transport system B. mediated via Na + /K + -ATPase complex C. Inhibit luminal bound Na/Cl co -transport sD. Inhibit Na re-absorption by competitiv ely antagonizing

T

A. Irreversible Cholinesterase inhB. Reversible cholinesterase inhibitory action C. Neuromuscular blocking action

D. None of the above

A

A

A

C

A

C

ropicamide is used as

An example of potassium channel agonist used in the management of

prusside

Which drug produces an inhibition of the Na/K/-ATPase pump increasing the

T

A. Spasmolytic agent B. Miotic agent C. Mydriatic agentD. Anti-secretory agent

A. Diazoxide B. Sodium nitoC. HydralazineD. Methyldopa

intracellular Na / Ca exchange in myocardium?

A. PropranololB. NifedipineC. Digoxin D. Mannitol

hypertension is

2614.

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409Pharmacy

Which one given below is a correct statement with reference to Angiotensin II

giotensinogen

Side effect of one of the drugs given below has been employed for treatment of

ium nitroprusside

Dicyclomine hydrochloride is used as an antispasmodic agent due to its

Non selective muscarinic agonist activity

Local anaesthetic agent lidocaine is used as antiarrythmic agent because it

um channels and thereby reduce arrhythmia

oduce the antiarhrythmic action

A. It regulates sodium excret ion by the renal tubules

B. It increases peripheral resistance and blood pressure

C. It interacts with angiotensin converting enzyme

D. It interacts with rennin enzyme for cleavage of an

baldness (alopecia)

A. Sod

B. Diazoxide

C. Minoxidil

D. Hydralazine

A.

B. Selective α -adrenergic antagonist activity

C. Non selective muscarinic antagonist activity

D. Reversible anticholinesterase activity

A. Decreases the sodium ion entry into the myocardial cells and depress diastolicde polarization

B. Blocks the calci

C. Blocks the β - adrenergic neuromuscular nerve ending and pr

D. Produces potassium ion agonist activity and depress the cardiac functions

The enzyme responsible for the conversion of histidine amino acid to histamine is

A. sterase

ase

EB. DecarboxylaseC. TransaminD. Hydrolase

B

C

C

A

B

2620.

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410Pharmacy

How do bacteria gain access to the urinary tract?

A. The bacteria colonize the bladder when urine is static.

B. The bacteria travel from the lymph adjacent to the bladder and kidneys.

C. The bacteria come from systemic blood that is filtered through the kidney.

D. The bacteria ascend up the urethra into the bladder or up the ureters into the kidney.

C

D

D

A

C

The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?

A. Ovarian B. Uterine C. Cervical D. Vaginal

What are the clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease?

A. Muscle tremor; slow, rigid movements; and postural abnormalities B. Decreased memory, depression, and indifference C. Muscle weakness, difficulty chewing, and drooping eye lids D. Paralysis and absent sensation below the level of the lesion

Which cancers are associated with chronic inflammation?

A. Bone, blood cells, and pancreatic B. Colon, liver, and lung C. Skin, lung, and pancreatic D. Bladder, skin, and kidney

Warning signs of hypoglycemia include:

A. Restlessness

B. Palpitation

C. Hunger

D. All of the above

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411Pharmacy

A patient is diagnosed with Parkinson disease. This is a degenerative disorder of the:

A. anterior pituitary. B. hypothalamus. C. frontal lobe. D. basal ganglia

People with gout are at high risk for:

A. joint trauma. B. anemia. C. hearing loss. D. renal calculi.

The size of benign uterine tumors is thought to be due to the influence of which hormone?

A. Progesterone B. Estrogen C. Luteinizing hormone D. Gonadotropin stimulating hormone

A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance.

Which of the following heart failures may result from this condition?

A. Low- output failure B. High- output failure C. Right heart failure D. Left heart failure

D

D

B

C

C

A

C

What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?

A. Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia B. Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin C. Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy D. Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss

What pathologic changes occur in Graves’ disease?

A. High levels of circulating thyroid - stimulating immunoglobulins B. Stimulation of thyroid - binding globulin C. Stimulation by thyroid - stimulating hormone (TSH) D. Stimulation by thyrotropin - releasing hormone (TRH)

A patient has hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day

with albumin as the major protein. These data suggest the presence of which disorder?

A. Chronic pyelonephritis B. Renal carcinoma C. Glomerulonephritis D. Cystitis E. Nephrotic syndrome

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412Pharmacy

Anti psychotic drugs cause tardive

dyskinesia by mimicking the effects of increased:

A. norepinephrine (NE). B. dopamine. C. acetylcholine. D. gamma aminobutyric

acid

(GABA).

Clinical manifestations of inspiratory and expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive

cough, and tachypnea are indicative of which pulmonary disease?

A. Asthma B. Pneumonia C. Chronic bronchitis D. Emphysema

B

A

D

D

A

A

B

What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?

A. Left heart failure B. Valvular disease C. Endocarditis D. Deep vein thrombosis

What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a patient when a thrombus in a

coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?

A. Prolonged Q- T interval B. Non - ST elevation (non - STEMI)

C. ST depression (STDMI) D. ST elevation (STEMI)

Why does retinopathy develop in patients with type 2 diabetes?

A. Because of increased retinal capillary permeability and microaneurysm formation B. Because there are plaques of lipids within the retinal vessels C. Because of an increased pressure within the retinal vessels from the increased

osmotic pressure D. Because ketones cause microaneurysms within the retinal vessels

Vasogenic edema with increased capillary permeability occurs after what type of stroke?

A. Hemorrhagic B. Thrombotic C. Embolic D. Lacunar

Which joint disease is characterized by joint stiffness on movement that dissipates within

30

minutes and joint pain of weight - bearing joints that usually is relieved by rest?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Gouty arthritis D. Suppurative arthritis

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413Pharmacy

What type of shock develops when there is an overstimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system or understimulation of the sympathetic nervous system?

A. Anaphylactic shock B. Vasogenic shock C. Septic shock D. Cardiogenic shock

Which clinical finding occurs first in metabolic acidosis of the patient with type 1 diabetes

mellitus? A. Hyperlipidemia

B. Palpitations, anxiety, and confusion C. Kussmaul respirations D. Ketones in the urine

Which infection has clinical manifestations of sudden onset of malaise, low back pain, and

perineal pain with high fever and chills, dysuria, nocturia, and urinary retention?

A. Epididymitis B. Orchitis C. Bacterial prostatitis D. Balanitis

A major complication

of

persistent

gastroesophageal

reflux

is

A. strictures B. heartburn C. chest pain D. hoarseness

The patient with upper body obesity also has central fat distribution. This body fat configuration places her at greater risk for ___________ than a patient with lower body

obesity.

A. osteoporosis B. renal disease C. heart disease D. chronic anemia

Common risk factors for erectile dysfunction due to generalized penile arterial insufficiency include

A. cryptorchidism B. cigarette smoking C. testicular torsion D. benign prostate hypertrophy

B

D

C

A

C

B

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414Pharmacy

The patient is immobilized after a hip injury. He has lower leg discoloration with edema,

pain,

tenderness, and increased warmth in the mid- calf area. He has many of the manifestationsof

A. stasis ulcerations B. arterial insufficiency C. primary varicose veins D. deep vein thrombosis

Myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease, is characterized by muscle weakness caused

by

antibody mediated destruction of

A. periorbital muscles B. thymus gland cells C. skeletal muscle fibers D. acetylcholine receptors

The second stage of the progressive degenerative Alzheimer- type dementia is manifested

by

behaviors that include

A. confusion B. incontinence C. forgetting names D. social withdrawal

The patient has right upper quadrant pain caused by acute cholelithiasis, also known

as

stones

in

the

common

bile

duct. If the duct becomes obstructed, manifestations will also include

A. ascites B. vomiting C. bilirubinuria D. hemorrhage

The patient has a fractured tibia and bleeding wound. After the cast is applied and the extremity is elevated, he is at high risk for compartment syndrome caused by

A. inflammation B. joint immobility C. muscle atrophy D. extremity elevation

Although vertigo or dizzines s can result from peripheral or central vestibular disorders, vertigo is distinctly different because it causes

A. light- headedness B. an illusion of motion C. loss of consciousness D. permanent hearing loss

A

B

D

D

A

C

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415Pharmacy

Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) are characterized by ischemic cerebral neurologic deficits

that

A. indicate aneurysm leakage B. cause minor residual deficits C. affect diffuse cerebral functions D. resolve within 24 hours of onset

Which test provides a way to monitor fluctuations of blood glucose levels over the previous 6 to 12 weeks?

A. Glucose tolerance test B. Fasting blood glucose C. Capillary blood glucose D. Glycosylated hemoglobin

The cardinal symptoms of Parkinson disease include

A. hypotonia B. bradykinesia C. paresthesia D. lack of sweating

In people with type I diabetes or insulin- dependent diabetes, the beneficial effects of exercise also carries an increased risk of

A. rapid weight loss B. respiratory disorders C. rebound hyperglycemia D. profound hypoglycemia

The patient has acidosis that might be respiratory in origin. Which of the following is the major

cause of acute primary respiratory acidosis?

A. Decreased CO2 retention B. Increased metabolic acids C. Renal bicarbonate retention D. Impaired alveolar ventilation

D

D

B

D

D

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416Pharmacy

In women, pelvic floor weakness and loss of the posterior proximal urethrovesical (PVU) junction cause which type of incontinence?

A. Urge B. Stress C. Overflow D. Overactive

Sue is fatigued and some blood tests are done. Her results include Hct 30%; Hgb 8 g/dL;

WBC

8,000;

platelets 175,000. The abnormal findings are interpreted

as

A. high platelets/thrombocytosis B. low WBC count/granulocytopenia C. low hemoglobin/anemia D. high hematocrit/polycythemia

Which one of the following would be a

drug

of

choice

in

generalised

anxiety

patient

showing

higher

pulse and tremors but no worry, tension

and

fear?

A. Fluoxetine B. Venlafaxime C. Imipramine D. Propranolol

A pharmacist

was

struggling

to

select

a

suitable

agent

for

severe

rheumatoid arthritis

patient

who

is

not

responding

to naproxen, prednisone

and

penicillamine.

Which of

the

following

agents

would

be

most

appropriate

for

this

patient?

A. DexamethasoneB. Gold C. Indomethacin D. Cyclosporin

Which of the following is preferred as additional therapy for a patient who is status post

myocardial infarction (1 month ago) with a blood pressure of 146/88 mm Hg while

on

metoprolol

XL

200

mg/day?

A. Amlodipine 10 mg/day B. Enalapril 40 mg/day C. Diltiazem 40 mg/day D. Labetolol 40 mg/day

B

C

D

D

B

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417Pharmacy

While counseling a patient taking finasteride, the pharmacist should provide information

about

this

adverse

effect:

A. Renal failure B. Ejaculatory dysfunction C. Sudden death D. Erectile dysfunction

An infant with thyroid atrophy while birth, found to have deficiency of iodine and seems to

be

mentally retarded. Most probably it may be of which type of hypothyroidism?

A. Myxoedema B. Cretinism C. Goitre D. Graves disease

A woman Mrs. HR was diagnosed with UTI, caused by an aerobic enteric bacteria with

some

kind of complications. Which of the following drug combinations would be of first choice

for

this

patient?

A. Imipenem- cilastatin B. Ampicillin-sulbactum C. Amoxicillin-clavulanate D. Trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole

A 34-years-old husband brought his wife to the clinic for her chronic bronchitis. The lab investigations shows that the FEV>50% of normal value, sputum was more in volume and white

in

color. Which

of

the

followings

would

be

an

ideal

choice

of

drug for

this

patient?

A. Carbapenem B. Gentamycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Fosfomycin

A female patient complains of reddish coloration of her urine after taking a medicine. Which

of the following drugs would most likely produce such an effect?

A. Ethambutol B. Isoniazid C. Pyrazinamide D. Rifampin

Miss HRC is in second trimester suffering from rhinitis, vasomotor symptoms and sinusitis. The community pharmacist has decided to dispense which of the following medication as

a

first

choice?

A. Cetrizine nasal drop B. Corticosteroid nasal spray C. Sodium cromoglycate nasal spray

B

B

D

C

D

C

D. Pseudoephedrine nasal spray

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418Pharmacy

Which of the following would be an appropriate antibiotic combination in an elderly pneumonia patient?

A. Ampicillin - sulbactam B. Piperacillin - tazobactam C. Trimethoprim - sulphamethoxazole D. Amoxycillin- clavulanate

A patient under depression is on paroxetine from past two years, developed a state

of

confusion,

restlessness,

fever,

hyperreflexia,

sweating,

diarrhea

and

shivering.

Which

one

of

the

following

terms

would

be

used

to

describe

these

side

effects?

A. Serotonin syndrome B. Anaphylactic reaction C. Extrapyramidal symptoms D. Withdrawal symptoms

A 69 -year-old male with angina develops severe constipation, this could be due to which

of

the

following drug? A. Nitroglycerin

B. Dipyridamole

C. Clopidogrel D. Diltiazem

Which of the following drug and dose of treatment will be most appropriate for urinary

incontinence

in pregnant woman?

A. Duloxetine 40 mg/day B. Bethanechol 100 mg/day C. Tolterodine 2 mg/day D. Oxybutynin 5 mg/day

Which of the followings is the most common drug used in cognitive impairment of

Alzhiemers

disease?

A. Sertraline B. Haloperidol C. Divalproex D. Mimantine

A pharmacist while dispensing an antidepressant advised the patient to avoid foods

such

as

tap

beers, liver, agedcheese, yeast extracts and fava

beans.

Indicate,

which

one

of

the

following

drug

possibly was dispensed by the pharmacist?

A. Duloxetine B. Amitriptyline

C. Trazodone D. Phenelzine

B

A

D

A

D

D

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419Pharmacy

A 32 year-old athletic woman visited the gynaecologist with clinical sign and symptoms including

anorexia,

chronic

weight

gain,

which

has

made

her

to

reduce her practice andabsence

of

menses

from

last

one

year. Which

of

the

following

treatments

you

advise

to overcome her clinical

condition.

A. Estrogen and progesterone B. Duloxetine C. Oral contraceptives D. Spironolactone

Which one of the following drug has a risk of abuse but used therapeutically?

A. Oxycodone B. Cannabis C. Toluene D. LSD

A patient requires several administration of high- dose cisplatin therapy for the treatment

of

lung

cancer.

During

the

first

cisplatin

administration,

the

patient develops

severe nausea and vomiting.

Which of the following drugswould be appropriate, to

control these symptoms for future

administration?

A. Phenothiazine B. Chloropromazine C. Domperidone D. Dexamethasone

C

C

A

D

B

D

Which of the following drugs is used in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis? A. Physostigmine B. Edrophonium C. Neostigmine D. Pyridostigmine

A 23 year old female patient presented with otitis is not responding to amoxycillin-

clavulanate therapy. Which of the following will be most appropriate regimen for this patient?

A. Trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole IV for 7 days B. Erythromycin IV for 10 days C. Streptomycin IV for 5 days D. Ceftriaxone IV for 3 days

What is the rationale for the use of diuretics in acute renal failure? A. To prevent complete renal shut down B. To reduce further kidney tubular damage C. Both A & B D. Neither A nor B

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