101023 ph.d./m.phil. (commerce) entrance test, 2019

PHDCOM/ MPHILCOM No. of Printed Pages : 32

101023 Ph.D./M.Phil. (COMMERCE)

Entrance Test, 2019

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 100

Note : Each question carries four alternative answers. The candidate is required to write the correct option. Each question carries one mark.

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PHDCOM/MPHILCOM 1 P.T.O.

1. The type of research which allows the researcher to gain a better concept and provides direction in order to initiate a more structured research is termed as :

(1) Fundamental research

(2) Applied research

(3) Exploratory research

(4) Conclusive research

2. The sampling technique under which population is divided into mutually exclusive groups and the researcher draws sample is called :

(1) Stratified sampling (2) Cluster sampling

(3) Snowball sampling (4) Quota sampling

3. A logic which includes drawing culmination/inference from a given list of certain facts is :

(1) Deductive reasoning

(2) Inductive reasoning

(3) Abductive reasoning

(4) Critical thinking

4. Research studies which determine the frequency with which something occurs or its causal association with something else is called :

(1) Formulative research

(2) Descriptive research

(3) Diagnostic research

(4) Experimental research

5. The different conditions that prevail in a research study under which experimental and control groups are put are called as :

(1) Treatment (2) Investigation

(3) Blueprint (4) Analysis

6. The term is used in experimental research to reflect the restraint in experimental

conditions.

(1) Value (2) Alternative (3) Novelty (4) Control

7. The ones that have a strong contingent effect on the relationship between the independent and dependent variables :

(1) Dependent variable (2) Independent variable

(3) Moderating variable (4) Extraneous variable

PHDCOM/MPHILCOM 2

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(1) Te-MW 31114tTri (2) ids 3TONTi

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ctlFriicif t :

(1) is (17,1q1

(2) ffe'l siicrati-f

(3) 17NY agq

(4) chief Nrcrati-f

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(3) 31-4NZ4 'ff*

(4) 3TA-dird:W1:11

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chR 144ti Fl iit choicif :

(1) tlitoien 3rgit1T9' (2) qu imict)

(3) ssiw-ilit.ech (Diagnostic) argitIN (4) siti arOtIF

5. argitlIff 3T T' 4 aTFTT-3T-et f-4.frk c1Fct NAPich 4 TM 'WM t

314 T-61 Wdf t :

(1) avail (2) *4 tisnicf

(3) igict4 (4) icReltitli

6. argitilq 4 *1

(1) ark (Value) (2) icicbc-t{

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(1) ITO

(2) tai i

(3) 1:11-4RIT

(4) ciii0 Lit


8. A statement about the magnitude, trend or behaviour of a population under study is called :

(1) Null hypothesis (2) Alternative hypothesis

(3) Descriptive hypothesis (4) Relational hypothesis

9. Which principle advocates the simultaneous or a sequential use of qualitative and quantitative methods of investigation ?

(1) Principle of triangulation (2) Principle of validity

(3) Principle of research design (4) Principle of testing

10. A survey which is conducted on different sample groups at different time intervals, is called :

(1) Cross-sectional study (2) Cohort analysis

(3) Longitudinal study (4) Time series study

11. The research variable in a longitudinal research design is studied over intervals

in time.

(1) Fixed

(2) Alternate

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of the above

12. The most loosely structured research design is :

(1) Exploratory (2) Conclusive

(3) Descriptive (4) Causal

13. Those entities on which treatments are applied in research are termed as :

(1) Variables (2) Test units (3) Instruments (4) Symbols

14. Which variable pose threat to the external and internal validity of the experiment ?

(1) Dependent variable

(2) Independent variable

(3) Moderating variable (4) Extraneous variable

15. The changes in a test unit occurring with the passage of time is known as :

(1) History (2) Maturation

(3) Instrumentation

(4) Testing

PHDCOM/ MPHILCOM 4

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(1)

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(3)

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(3) (1) AT (2)

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(1) al*EfulTOTW (2) flu

(3) ciu -110-ich (4) cbituito-ia'

13. flt.f cicci . ITT AV 4 dTcllt cll ,kfchqf Altif t :

(2) TRIV:ff et)i*til (3) 34chtul (4) .51ff1T

14. 519-1 4 1 ATgt AtrdT rriv. et) tvitf t?

(1) fffitt

(2)

(3) 4-ilsre.if

(4) WO (extraneous) .q7

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(1) 7fff-gti

(2) Lift9cricif

(3) dlientuf

(4) 1:111VIT


16. Treatment is another term used for :

(1) Dependent variable

(2) Independent variable

(3) Moderating variable

(4) Intervening variable

17. The sampling interval (K) is determined by the equation :

(1) K=N+n (2) K = N — n

(3) K = N*n (4) K = N/n

18. When the entire populationis divided into a number of homogeneous groups or classes it is known as :

(1) Strata (2) Clusters

(3) Sample (4) Universe

19. Which law asserts that the greater the number of items one chooses from a universe, the greater is the possibility of accuracy ?

(1) Law of statistical regularity (2) Law of inertia of large numbers

(3) Law of probability (4) None of the above

20. Which is not an example of online database ?

(1) Springer

(2) Taylor and Francis

(3) Emerald

(4) CSO

21. All the elements of population with proper identification that is available for selection at any stage of sampling is called :

(1) Sample (2) Sampling unit

(3) Sampling frame (4) Universe

22. Which among the following is not a type of probability sampling ?

(1) Systematic sampling (2) Stratified sampling

(3) Cluster sampling (4) Quota sampling

23. The technique of system is used for selecting samples based on the area where a map of entire area is prepared.

(1) Box (2) Grid

(3) Random (4) Line

PHDCOM/MPHILCOM 6

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17. atuF (K) f9.17 weld t f 'gRT fitTifo ictmf Wffit :

(1) K=N+n (2) K=N—n

(3) K = N*n (4) K=N/n

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(1 ) 1:i17

(2) Wfa

(3) 14-1,11 (4) klHkcl ferdTiTtff fir (Universe)

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(3) #411T r-tqi-f (4) rii44*011 -ffe

20. aft-iFr7 ter4R T dcmtuf 7 ?

(1) (Springer) (2) Zrit 311( 35f FI:R1 (Taylor and Francis)

(3) Witv-s (Emerald) (4) ti vizt (CSO)

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(1) it-if (2) ATTf07

(3) -it-if "qtriGraf (4) WM icivkft117 ?WI (Universe)

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(1) 5%.41 (2) 5

(3) clifcresch (Random) (4) Owl


24. Which method is most appropriate to measure interpersonal relation of people in different groups ?

(1) Projective techniques

(2) Content analysis

(3) Socio-metric analysis

(4) Observation

25. The mathematical form of the ratio scale data is given by :

(1) Y = bX (2) X = bY

(3) Y = X (4) Y = abX

26. Which component of attitude represents an individual's information and knowledge about an object ?

(1) Behavioural (2) Affective (3) Cognitive (4) Intention

27. Age is an example of which type of scale ?

(1) Nominal scale (2) Ordinal scale

(3) Interval scale (4) Ratio scale

28. An example of itemized rating scale is :

(1) Likert (2) Semantic differential

(3) Stapel (4) All the above

29. a (alpha) = 0 denotes :

(1) There is no consistency between the various items of a multiple item scale

(2) There is complete consistency between the various items of a multiple item scale

(3) There is fair consistency between the various items of a multiple item scale

(4) There is poor consistency between the various items of a multiple item scale

30.

31.

Face validity is other term used for :

(1) Content validity

(3) Predictive validity

A correlation between the

(2) Concurrent validity


items indicates that the internal consistency of the construct leads to greater reliability.

(1) Low (2) Medium (3) High (4) Zero

PHDCOM/MPHILCOM 8

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(3) flli-iirAch-TI, ciqc)9uf (4) 31-4-d*ff

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(1) Y=bX (2) X = bY (3) Y= X (4) Y =abX

26. -51-1 -1-711 dch N-7:ff fail 044 chi sTihicta 3 fTtemir*?

(1) (2) t6f-1 -4 (affective)

(3) tioi-uoich (4) ,tiqf

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(1) 111-14-111. (2) shl-Itoch *ITT

(3) 3-td1T . (4) 3171.ff 4-1I1f

28. 311-07 HI-I1' dw(of t :

(1)T7-*-i (Likert)

(3) *rF (Stapel)

(2) kicqr0 fq4q (Semantic Differential)

(4) 374W Trill.

29. a (3-70:5T) =0 711.dr t :

(1) feat/ 37-e-411-11-rk rafim 4ii* ,4 wicicir t

(2) fafat/ 3117a1:1 -17q1* ma 4 Tuf 44Riar t

(3) fq.Ntl. 317ali rafi w1r4 d 44Incif t

(4) 'Wag 3771:1 q+-114 rare 44* cal (gel' t

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(1) wr4 (2) fir (3) d (4) 1,~r


32. types of questions provide a clue for the good answer in a questionnaire.

(1) Leading (2) Loaded

(3) Barrelled (4) Initial

33. Which one of the following is an example of sampling error ?

(1) Error at the time of coding and tabulation.

(2) Wrong information given by respondent.

(3) Sampling frame error.

(4) Sample not being representative of population.

34. A tool by Microsoft used in data management and analysis :

(1) Excel

(2) SPSS

(3) SAS

(4) Outlook

35. The first step in data analysis process is :

(1) Data validation (2) Data editing

(3) Data coding

(4) Data classification

36. Analysis of gender of respondents is an example of :

(1) Univariate analysis (2) Bivariate analysis

(3) Multivariate analysis


37. List of the resources which are used by the researcher during the research work :

(1) Appendix (2) Glossary (3) Bibliography (4) Index

38. is a measure that refers to the extent of symmetry or asymmetry in a distribution.

(1) Average

(2) Dispersion (3) Kurtosis (4) Skewness

39. The height of the normal curve is at its maximum at the value.

(1) Mean (2) Median

(3) Mode (4) None of the above

PHDCOM/ MPHILCOM 10

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(3) Ctrs (barrelled) (4) kItIt4

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(1) Vfg71. 3fR ,HRuilcbtur *TrgrET Are. I

(2) dutqicif (respondent) T7T t T 'Mc( Allchlt I

(3) N1 ilq-1. fitTkuT Are. (Sampling frame error) I

(4) 14t-ii silti.t.9.9f r3f-e-9-RT

34. Microsoft TiT tZT T4 t19 3 Riqc,Itor 4 31714?17W d4cmuf

(1) 7-449. (Excel) (2) 7i.t..714.714. (SPSS)

(3) 71.7.7ii. (SAS) (4) 311-8-e•W (Outlook)

35. tzt Fcm.)tiuf ITT 4 ,i-11 chc -( t :

(1) tai .11-ciki-f (validation)

(2) tZT

(3) teT VitTT

(4) tz.1 c6tur

36. ditcI f`aYcltiuf flcbf .cr- dql@tul t :

(1) 71194f77 (Univariate) f=w) Li 01. (2) cm rw. (Bivariate) (ciY tiuf

(3) 4iFrtlfie: (Multivariate) rcilYt;tiuf (4) A cbli

37. argit119. cbi 7119-*--IfriT 31.4.71. rcb TiTIT491 ttscl t :

(1) -scrt-1 (Appendix) (2) T411-# (Glossary)

(3) PsfRoq ;IN) (Bibliography) . (4) N'ti (Index)

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(1) atgU (Average) (2) fsk-L11.-r (Dispersion)

(3) 1) (d)rtik-1 (Kurtosis) (4) ft<hd t-f (Skewness)

39. 44)m4

(1) .111.ff (Mean)

(3) 41s (Mode)

TIN TR t I

(2) 41rsq-1 (Median)

(4) ,4 le


40. The value of the coefficient of correlation lies between to

(1) 0, 1 (2) —1, 0 (3) —1, +1 (4) 0, 2

41. Both the values of a (alpha) and 13 (beta) in a linear regression equation of the form Y = a + bX are called as :

(1) Constants (2) Slope

(3) Variables (4) Attributes

42. A could be used to test population mean when population standard deviation is known, though sample size is small.

(1) T test (2) F test

(3) Z test (4) None of the above

43. Type-I Error occurs if

(1) The null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true

(2) The null hypothesis is accepted even though it is false

(3) Both the null hypothesis as well as alternative hypothesis is rejected


44. Hypothesis relates

(1) Constant to variables

(2) Constant to constant

(3) Variables to constant

(4) Variables to variables

45. Cronbach's alpha reliability is :

(1) An average of all possible split-half reliabilities

(2) The correlation of half of the items with the total participants

(3) The correlation of each item with the sum of the items

(4) None of these

PHDCOM/MPHILCOM 12

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(1) fi.Ntict, (2)

(3) (4) ljuT

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(4) ril4 0t

44. Lificwilf t

(1) A After-0F (Constant to variables)

(2) chi-t.•-e. cb ►-.4-e. (Constant to constant)

(3) ch1-.4-e. (Variables to constant)

(4) 14R Ar-(7Sri (Variables to variables)

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(1) #44 f cRafill<or (Split-half reliability) 0

(2) TF3TrffliTfrA *TIM 3TT air *T

(3) arcelg **I *Tir4 alweR

(4) 1-4ATIlwg


46. Which of the following refrencing style is used by researcher in writing research papers and thesis ?

(1) American Psychological Association (APA)

(2) Indian Psychological Association (IPA)

(3) Chinese Psychological Association (CPA)

(4) Russian Psychological Association (RPA)

47. In the process of conducting research 'Formulation of Hypothesis' is followed by :

(1) Statement of Objectives (2) Analysis of Data

(3) Selection of Research Tools (4) Collection of Data

48. Which of the following are associated with behavioural observation ?

(1) Nonverbal analysis (2) Linguistic analysis

(3) Spatial analysis (4) All of the above

49. Population variable is called :

(1) Statistic

(2) Parameter

(3) Variable

(4) Constant

50. referes to inferring about the whole population based on the observation made on a small part.

(1) Deductive inference

(2) Inductive inference

(3) Pseudo inference

(4) Objective inference

51. Authorized capital of a Company is Z 5 lac, 40% of it is paid up. Loss incurred during the year is Z 50,000. Accumulated loss carried from last year is Z 2 lac. The Company has a Tangible Net Worth of :

(1) Nil (2) Z 2.50 lac (3) ( — ) Z 50,000 (4) Z 1 lac

52. Which of the following items are purely financial incomes ?

(1) Discount in issue of shares

(2) Interest on Bank loan

(3) Transfer fees received

(4) Notional interest on capital employed

PHDCOM/MPHILCOM 14

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(1) 371417*1- kiw4c-likehrf i)Nvi-f (APA)

(2) 317474 tii*ch1r1ThAc1)(-4 (IPA)

(3) 11-4 tit slcbrf (CPA)

(4) , c‘k.-1 Acbc-f (RPA)

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(1) 3k774 'Wf T9 (2) tai r<vc)tiuf

(3) argil 34chttiT -aq -f (4) v2 .1 $f till @uf

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(1) 37T1f-- * qui (2) ii-Rsq fi YchMuf

(3) P-rfr-IT (Spatial) riqc)qui (4) 374-07113141-

49. w-Ititstifq7 ct)( t :

(1) tilfsq.iq (Statistic)

(2) t1 1-1 dt (Parameter)

(3) (Variable)

(4) ftTf (Constant)

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(1) fssfgza 7:0-41 (Deductive inference)

(2) 3-1Tir (Inductive inference)

(3) -Fit 31-11:119. (Pseudo inference)

(4) *TT 31-11:1N (Objective inference)

51. 'crW 4)411 37firt-a. z 5 01(sr t f-A774 74 40% .5r-c ti,31 t tr4 eff Z 50,000

t I fcruA atf 74 01til 4141 74-F-- 2 oid" I ci1941T1 T c f9-4-0. (Net Worth) t :

(1) qk-0-1 (2) Z 2.50 old (3) (-) Z 50,000 (4) Z 1 oid

52. f-14-irtingcf 1474 al-f-77r -grq fqq-j -,cr fatzr 317-4 t?

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(3) TP-TR5td1111 -STIci pTr (4) FTR-1 (Capital employed) TR cbic4-Ich oetiqf


53. Which of the following is not a metric to use for measuring the length of the cash cycle ?

(1) Acid test days

(2) Accounts receivable days

(3) Accounts payable days

(4) Inventory days

54. If the weighting of equity in total capital is 1/3, that of debt is 2/3, the return on equity is 15% that of debt is 10% and the corporate tax rate is 32%, what is the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) ?

(1) 10.533% (2) 7.533% (3) 9.533% (4) 11.350%

55. A critical assumption of the Net Operating Income (NOI) approach to valuation is :

(1) that debt and equity levels remain unchanged

(2) that dividends increase at a constant rate

(3) that Ko remains constant regardless of changes in leverage

(4) that interest expense and taxes are included in the calculation

56. Which of the following is an example of Positive Covenant ?

(1) Maintaining Firm's Working Capital at or above some specified minimum level

(2) Furnishing Audited Financial Statements Periodically to the Lender

(3) Maintaining any Collateral Security in Good Condition

(4) Restriction on selling of leasing assets

57. Which of the following is measured by Retention Ratio ?

(1) Operating Efficiency

(2) Administrative Efficiency

(3) Financial Policy

(4) Dividend Policy

58. Product costs include which of the following ?

(1) Selling Expenses (2) General Expenses

(3) Manufacturing Overhead (4) Administrative Expenses

59. An Account was Opened with an Investment of Z 3,000 Ten years ago. The Ending Balance in the Account is Z 4,100. If Interest was Compounded, how much compounded interest was earned ?

(1) Z 500 (2) Z 752

(3) Z 1,052 (4) Z 1,100

60. What is the Effective Annual Rate of interest if interest is 7% Compounded Monthly ?

(1) 7.00% (2) 7.12% (3) 7.19% (4) 7.23%

PHDCOM/MPHILCOM 16

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(1) t0-15 Z tz f<9.

(2) ((.5( 97i fq-ff

(3) c)(sif tzT f-<9.

(4) 74-eft ( ruin)

54. 74f (1,11 Tr-lat TT 14171/3 t -TrT 2/3 t Tr-44-atR AMP:{ 15% t 741-T Ituf 717 SINN 10%

t a 4 732% t allgff IA? oPict (WACC) WIT t?

(1) 10.533% (2) 7.533% (3) 9.533% (4) 11.350%

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(1) Vui 3 t "if-4er 3TErfrafh- c t

(2) MTlit ft:P-17 7 IzTi cirf t

(3) Ko M-1-11- A qcoici 401 fie f-49TftzR rani t

(4) tx4N71 -62174 *Tt T1 J11111 14 7T1fgrm t

56. Pii-iforigti A 74 T17-111 tichltioich 3T-41-4-<1 TT stcMtuf t?

(1) To fffitz Ta7 7:11 d(-1 dIL1( rh-4 chl tkg1 c1-11 (t5-if

(2) ituKi 1f T1 ?ice{-1:11:FT TIT Aftu Wzr tq-7111 17170 moil

(3) f-*711. 1ft tiylrxcfai ar-4. #2.tru A iii` ttaii

(4) *TT tittk * <=.14 71( grociN (1411-ii

57. r14-irMrticf A A rct)4 -STfaITTPIT3-17rff 11-1 TINT AlcIft?

(1) 1410410-( (atickftrr) kTAT

(2) gklitiFich VgEdT

(3) fq-9174 tru (4) MritT

58. r-v-•iitirtsicf A 74 TM Wit< rill Ic1 14 7T1f-gim t?

(1) f-4A (2) (11 1-11-4 c'-t 4{

(3) rar-P-iiuf 0.1a. 11) atddT (4) slgntirtim &I TT

59. 10 ̀-1(4 Z3,000tf4RT*TfT2T7T ItMT TF1T WTI (51 14 aitrr ttf 4,100 t I zft

quilf -We-4 041 ,414 T1. t txtlzt fT1.9T air* rcil (-1( 7711 P-TT?

(1) 500 (2) 752 (3) 1,052 (4) 1,100

60. 7% wez Aftrw .4ii ,71 A 31%1Tt aTf-tfw .441 ,4 7 TIT t- ?

(1) 7.00% (2) 7.12% (3) 7.19% (4) 7.23%


61. Which scheme is eligible for Refinance from NABARD (National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development) ?

Small Road and Water Transport Operators (SRWTO)

Soft Loan Assistance for Margin Money (SLAMM)

Soft Employment Scheme for Ex.serviceman (SEMFEX)

Choose correct answer from the following :

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii)

(3) (i) , (4) All of the above

62. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Banks can accept only demand and time deposits from Public

(2) Banks can accept only demand deposits from Public

(3) Banks can accept only deposits from Public

(4) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from government

63. Consider the following statements :

SBI lays down the norms for Banking Operations and has the final supporting power

Development Banks are those financial Institutions which provide long term capital for Industries and Agriculture

First Development Bank was IFCI

Choose one of the following correct answer :

(1) Only (i) is correct (2) (ii) and (iii) are correct

(3) None of the above (4) All the above are correct

64. Consider the following statements :

(i) A Commercial Bank is a type of financial intermediatry because it mediates the savers and the Borrows

(ii) Commercial Banks assist companies in raising funds in capital market (both Equity and Debt)

(iii) Investment Bank is also known as Marchant Bank


(1) All of the above are correct

(2) Only (ii) is correct

(3) Only (i) and (iii) are correct

(4) None of the above is correct

PHDCOM/ MPHILCOM 18

61. *--47r 3K1' (r, fa fa.-*--rA*fuR 1 iici act) * -7F-41* foqcid *, d43

(i) * c LIficwr -e-{ (SRWTO)

(ii) HIN-r 1:191 * TITTIZ Ai (Soft Loan) tIFi ic1I (SLAMM)

(iii) %TO Af-iw* Fri *FITT (Soft employment) 41A-if (SEMFEX),

f917 14A'Al7W7141- 1-4:

(1) (i), (ii) (2) (ii),

(3) (i), (4) 37447 Trill

62. ii--irciruci Wzr-ii it A ch i 1if *9-Tff Tit

(1) lw Trr— A*--4F fzAtg *Tirlft; '77r Ri tlmcit

(2) 41 q-icif A *-4R fgift kcilthit t tic0 t

(3) **) q-lif r cif titt; t

(4) elm ad' titchit *TIT* **kik .;rr lzrl*r{ *-( t

63. -1;1 4-1 1 Rcicf 'W2191 TR falit :

(i) (SBI) 4rtur emcir**311-- flzit4c0-17**

(ii) fawrA 4.4) f-48111 .41:54T34*' .gfra tt atlei * ' chi ci4) 3rm *T4

(iii) twif twill. *4) IFCI Wf

6 14 14 R-W/70—*-2.9

(1) %--4F (i) *♦ t I

(3) 374-47 14 'ell tl

64. f-I 4-1rc urf T'219): TR rqqit :

(i) clifuir'rqc6 4) -* 441R 'f4717T« t erq 4) 7g warmciMl ailt ztzawdiall

Tft7ITerdl cbtof t I

qi ,rtIch tt‘111 MisTIR 99 le.14 "i71-17:11 tmqlf (71-Wal VT

(iii) fir 4.4) Vr Tq ,31 7F1' ti

fffPr -4 A :

(1) z-crAwr -4 At At t

(2) *--qF (n) 1 t I

(3) i (i) atT t I

(4) 374-47T4 Vflt t-0 7-41tI

(2) (ii) (iii) t I

(4) 37447 1:13ff tiz1 t


65. Early Warning Signals (EWS) are those which :

(i) Indicate signs of credit deterioratation in the loan Account

(ii) Identify Potential Non Performing Assets (NPAs)


(1) Only (i) is correct

(2) Only (ii) is correct

(3) (i) and (ii) are correct

(4) None of the above is correct

66. Unabsorbed Depreciation can be carried forward for set off :

(1) for a period of four years only

(2) for an unlimited number of years

(3) for a period of eight year only

(4) for a period of eighteen year only

67. Total deduction U/S 80C, 80CCC and 80CCD (except contribution by employer) cannot exceed :

(1) 50,000 (2) 1,00,000 (3) 1,50,000 (4) 2,00,000

68. Which of the following allowances are fully taxable ?

(i) Entertainment allowance

(ii) Overtime allowance

(iii) House Rent allowance

(iv) Non-Practising allowance

Choose correct one from the following :

(1) (iii), (iv)

(2) (i), (iii), (iv)

(3)

(4) All the above

69. The Penalty under section 271F for failure to furnish the return of income before the end of the relevant assessment year shall be :

(1) 20,000 (2) 15,000 (3) 10,000 (4) 5,000

70. Which of the following was the first state to Ratify GST Bill ?

(1) Meghalaya (2) Sikkim (3) Assam (4) Manipur

PHDCOM/MPHILCOM 20

65. 711#11'4-dT491. tided (EWS) A 11-. 7 t :

(i) "Vif tgia ituf frmaz tided ciAer

eau* Pviiiqd 4ii4f1ct (NPAs) etACI

f9.11-441:rol-TA411:

(1) tqF (i) ti lt

(2) *-4F TO. t I

(3) (i) (ii) t I

(4) 3Ertm -414 1 4t i ti

66. 3171fitff 3TTO citil 4 TT 3.74 1141 71 :

(1) "k4F TrrF 33-qfq

(2) alliirgrff T=11* Fv-R

(3) td-e 31'13 Wsi 31A1A

(4) *-4"F 313R-6 34A

67. Tc-iWaal WU 80C, 80CCC 3 i 80CCD (fi/NuT gtt *KR 'ef t-T*7) Aq .1

(1)

(1) Z 50,000 (2) Z 1,00,000 A (3) Z 1,50,000 A (4) Z 2,00,000 A

68. 1:1+iiorocr A ti7-TIT f tkii cit*I" -T 4 t?

(1)

(iii)

elsii(aTi-dr7W11711.7 444 ITT) IT4

*i f cht4 *Wf ITT (Non practice allowance) 4-ml-ff*{TzIT 9i1T (iv)

(1) (ii), (iv) (2) (i), (iv)

(3) (i), (4) 374-0 74111

69. trd ffftihTT WEi 3iff 'T-4 31PT fd-4Tuft clitgrf cht4 ITT NM 2717T t 3Trfff cus :

(1) ! 20,000 (2) Z 15,000 (3) Z 10,000 (4) Z 5,000

Mq1-1 ?

70. 4 A 4-1.--4 (1.4 4 4-im 74 cif T (GST) t4F ti 11-1-ffd

lifulaT (1) -4Errdzi (2) ki crch+4 (3) 311:17 (4)


71. The main tasks in internal appraisal are :

(1) Assessing the strengths and weakness of the business

(2) Assessing the health and status of the different product lines, products and brands

(3) Assessing the competitive advantages available to the unit

(4) All the above

72. Penetration pricing, as the name indicates seeks to achive greater market penetration relatively through :

(1) Low price

(2) High price

(3) Moderate price


73. Personal selling is relatively more effective and economical in case :

(1) When a product is of a high unit

(2) Product requires demonstration

(3) Product requires after sales services

(4) All of the above

74. Positioning is done to achieve :

(1) Customer focused value proposition

(2) Product focused value proposition

(3) Company focused value proposition


75. Which of the following is not a characteristic of "Model Introduction Stage" in PLC ?

(1) Demands has to be created

(2) Costs are low

(3) Makes no money at this stages

(4) There in little competitions

PHDCOM/ MPHILCOM 22

71. alteiWTkFlt*7 14 iltge4 cm. •

(1) oeiviitA Imo * 31t*-0"9' ciwt -if I

(2) 'WIN' 3 tsiisI*TEITI:af 3ftifFRIt cht-111

(3) -zifiZ 371F-AT 31Fdlzittd:r* 31tWM chtlf I

(4) 3 114

72. Y1-r 4.15.4 ftTfrur, flr Pi 4471 fwom t, 314kTr-t-ff f*-Trk -raw( aftm 31fim .INTIR

sld kf 3Rf cbt-if a1@nr t?

(1) 4t-t4 (2) 3"ucf lt-44

(3) T4 W1 (4) WW1 4 -4 c 1

73. «4 avid "r40' lcbt-1 1-11 1-1C1 4 3T4vrt7 81r7w crobria t?

(1) 77 -erl 3C41q

(2) dCLIk * 31 -09 alTdFfTUT

(3) d011q* f-4-0 t1 cot 31117zWUT t

(4) 39tWf 1:1111

74. 11)FAkir-i+1 Tr-WO ct.)4 t :

(1) 1,1W:11*F-0 ItC1 51t{114

(2) 3c41‹ tta.4-r-tf (3) 414 %TO' itt,4 3IRITq

(4) Tzr-{-1--wr

75. -14-1 tg 44 TrIcrut 4 Off-A "Misr. triraz( fa-tErm 7.47 t ?

(1) Trfrffr tp4-1 rcbtu t

(2) cipicf R t

(3) p• -RR TR at,f qiicif t

(4) Nicv-inniWrf


76. Which of the following is not a criterion in identifying consumer groups segmentation ?

(1) The consumers in the segment respond in the same way to a particular marketing mix

(2) The group has to be small

(3) The segment must be heterogeneous among each other

(4) None of the following

77. The segmentation variable used for toothpaste is :

(1) Demographic

(2) Behavioural

(3) Psychological


78. Out of the following factors, which factor is not used in pricing of the product ?

(1) Demand

(2) Cost

(3) Competition

(4) Life cycle of the product

79. Brand Extension as a branding strategy means :

(1) Same Product and Same Market

(2) Existing Product Line and Existing Brand Name

(3) Existing Brand Name and New Product Line


80. Habitual buying behaviour refers to the following :

(1) Low involvement products and less significant difference among brands

(2) High involvement products and less significant difference among brands

(3) Less involvement products and significant difference among brands

(4) High involvement products and high significant difference among brands

81. Having more than 50% ownership position that provides the entrepreneur with managerial control is called :

(1) Joint venture

(2) Majority interest

(3 ) Horizontal merger

(4) Diversified activity merge

PHDCOM/MPHILCOM 24

76. -a-crtirrTrrefay iwap-r cf,* 14--iFoFocr .7). my-r v ‘11-1 ,5

(1) f*711 -3Erik*IT o's 3cr411 I fw4- raila fa-crura. fgrT7T t mfifF9har .1.)(4

(2) ti4v df -if-f>

(3) tas 3T1TR:f R 17:ft a44-ft7T =41

(4) -f-Pr 1474 a).)

77. 'tT1--* c-i3trzfITT et)11 fq t:

(1) a-K-fi 4( (2) cqciR

(3) 41-1 (4) 39-{Yd7 14 ct) "ffe

78. 3?:17* ffftliTuf F-P-irc-irtacf Rm.( cnio, r 79-4P-r 741 f-*-zrr t?

(1) -ITIT

(2) C-11 , 1cf

(3) si cig

(4) 301iq

79. 4rr-g-TT Tur9-1fut1g -4 a is kcmi qv( w Hocia t :

(1) ail .3- Trq alfit e41 mi ,AR

(2) 1117T '37:11q 3117 41-17 sfiss 911:1

(3) 4ETT 9115 971 3-11{ 97 304g owl

(4) 31:14W1T1 14

80. 3rizrf WzT 0T:1W 76-dr t :

(1) wi7 4,44 9Q Trt-m-tpf 3-T7i

(2) tici4 dr-ii< 307 aissf WI:f 17ffpf 3T(

(3) W1:1 tia 3Kg affT 911514 11-q---9f 31-w

(4) d'oof 4914 d041< 311T 9Q d'aef TTMITTri 3T T

81. 50%143Tfrtalriica fttlfff TR ZE11# -514q47 fffzi7tIT #197Tt 7'fc4 1lnrt:

(1) TfzI4Tf dsP-1 (2) 3TRT*-17T Tf9 (Majority interest)

(3) gr-d7 t-ffzr (4) fed IT 4irciFIRT fd77


82. The practice of creating the entrepreneurial environment within the organisation thereby enabling employees to apply their entrepreneurial skills in the job roles is called :

(1) Strategic orientation (2) Administrative entrepreneurship

(3) Intrapreneurship (4) All of the above

83. An incubator is :

(1) A government agency that advises and assists small business

(2) A programme through which private investment companies lend money

(3) A specific geographic area for development of business

(4) A center that offers new business low cost offices with basic business services

84. Which of the following scheme is created during the 11th plan at empowering urban and

rural women ?

(1) TREAD

(2) MDA

(3) MSE-CDP

(4) Women cell

85. BARS stands for :

(1) Behavioural Advancement Rating Scale

(2) Behavioural Appraisal Rating Scale

(3) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale

(4) Behaviourally Advance Rating Scale

86. Under which method of job evaluation attempt is made to rank key jobs under different factors and finally assign numerical value to each ranked job which forms a degree of these

factors :

(1) Ranking method

(2) Grading method

(3) Factor comparison method

(4) Point method

87. The semantic differential technique developed by Osgood, Suci and Tannenbaum is used to

measure :

(1) Perception (2) Attitude

(3) Learning (4) Power

PHDCOM/ MPHILCOM 26

82. oat 4 aictiatuf sill 4 WIT -NI A ch4ma 37:14 3E1 4-1 i riot 4717 4 4TT (job) 4

174'34 g ticti4 t tzwal t :

(1) tivificb 3159a1-*-77

(2) 51k11+1 tim dE1 Hof

(3) *<.1Il t krf

(4) -3-Eltwi Tuft

83. riqz&ei (incubator) ' :

(1) 1 Trrwrft 7-4‘11511 .5)-) cleltilq . TrFrq t 74 tiwor &t i t

(2) 'cr" TATTI. f'1:1* -1Trarrr A 1-1,41 .Few4T 3117 tall!

(3) oeiatilq fatTA fffzi 1 -1-41-rsz 4111fUW I

(4) 'crW* 971 cqqi-nqi 3ifer4T 3S1 4 11 Th7 ovici girl chiq rig 724T triT sici-1 cmcif t I

84. 'T 3-fR Aim uti:frVF1311•0 1PTWF earl g 111 q ,7111* ti f 1:14--tro tgi-f A Off It 41't ii I-4 TT

t?

(1) t.ail7.1.R.31. (TREAD) (2) 73:1..e.7 (MDA)

(3) Vi.71.1-TiI. -e.11.. (MSE-CDP) (4) -riftT

85. BARS 4 31RIFI :

(1) Behavioural Advancement Rating Scale

(2) Behavioural Appraisal Rating Scale

(3) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale

(4) Behaviourally Advance Rating Scale

86. ctli4 tc-qich-i t chti -WET t a6d 39.431 cbitif flfim tw+-1 -k w ebt4 '4* situti t

47 at 51411 U. 4A mini'frTt1 titsgiciien Trri Pnqr TraT t ?

(1) 114,g fen (2) ig fdfq

(3) alio.) golf MET (4) Lanz fete

87. 41T7, 4114 .gRT 3r`rfro tJ1 deb N4"P'qqf "`" ct' 4Tri .41q4 dH4f 7711 T-41 t?

(1) &TT* (Perception) (2) Alfa (Attitude)

(3) rail (413N) (4) qicit


88. A person characterised by rationality, viewing people as equal, worthy and responsible is in a state of :

(1) Parent Ego

(2) Adult Ego

(3) Both (1) and (2)


89. A micro enterprise where investment in plant and machinary does not exceed the following (According to MSMED Act, 2006) :

(1) Z 15 Lakh (2) Z 20 Lakh (3) Z 25 Lakh (4) Z 30 Lakh

90. In definite separation from the payrol due to factors beyond the control of the individual is known as :

(1) Layoff (2) Demotion (3) Discharge (4) Transfer

91. The basis of which of the following law is tradition, past practices and past rulings of higher courts who look up on similar problems within the accepted set of laws ?

(1) Common law

(2) Code law

(3) International law

(4) Roman law

92. Which one of the following assumption is wrong in case of the Neo-Classical theory of international trade ?

(1) Constant returns to scale

(2) Only goods move from one country to another, not factors

(3) Imperfect competition

(4) The factors of production are fully employed

93. Which one of the following is wrong in case of transfer pricing used by Transnational Corporations ?

(1) To reduce the incidence of high direct and indirect taxation

(2) As a marketing tool

(3) To insulate the adverse impact of volatile exchange rate

(4) To increase the share of profit to the collaborator

94. An accountant of one member country entering the territory of another member country to supply a service is referred to which mode of supply of international service ?

(1) Cross border supply (2) Consumption abroad

(3) Commercial presence (4) Presence of natural person

95. In which one of the following international pricing, depending on the market situation, price along with other elements of marketing mix, is to be adapted for effective and gainful international marketing ?

(1) Differential pricing (2) Probe pricing (3) Penetration pricing (4) Competitive pricing

PHDCOM/MPHILCOM 28

88. i ce-f act 5i c1ci>441cf t, wii-f 1411cir t d 44 qik chti t?

(i) 711 (2) 33-g-

(3) (1) a (2) 41ai (4) ZEItWf 14 74 cr;li

89. R'w TWA dw-1-4-0fwiTi *.v or atIum91-9A f9-4141 (MSMED 31R11-97111, 2006 * 3-T7R) PI+-ircirucl

3-TRTWi I :

(1) ! 15 cii(1 (2) Z 20 ciR_I (3) Z 25 (4) Z 30 cii ,eg

90. 0414c1 *f9-4-1171 **RA* cmoli 44- 4 3TF-9-r-var 3T9Trra .4c t :

(1) we-4 (2) Ligictircf (3) (4)1:Wita71

91. P1i-irort5c1 14 cm{ atdifff, fay TqWd'i* 46r) 'RC f-toi ler

'N914 p' c-1( Tpwrpti *1. Tz-*-T (g1 Airtt t ?

(1) -114-11.-+1 chi- -f (common law) (2) #F----dr WV'

(3) 3i 1T chit( (4) 4-1.-f chiti

92. 3-tii-ET17, 04FIR*9•q• vki-Liktaicel ft Td .114-irofigd 1414 al-r-# "lreff t?

(1) ~ ~ I 4 rat atlizi

(2) TfTWT9 Wtql A' 7,k t7f 14 t enRch

(3) aiTri Nrci4lPictt

(4) dcl-liq-(*T-{-4"Wr TkA 314rIT

93. ,R1,ltr TiEr (TNCs) itr4 -1•37z1")1T*Tkti• 4 ril-110115ct 4 A cbl-f-Ar -2.19. Trea. t?

(1) 3-04 arc A' 317M-1 Vi 1TR r cm4*

(2) f4941iA1:r 14

(3) 31IT rak ►14 *39;111T 'Wgf

(4) liFht * 31;,1 t 31fT cr)t4* lei

94. f*T11 IT<FT 'kW .1 tvr slp,m lar311 wr cmar t alz-14 f-*71

r ),4184 Tr 44 t?

(1) 44-Ir err (2) fq-kvil wiirr

(3) airuir.-qcb 3711:2Trff (4) -5rrtf-d- 3criTzTt

95. -14-1 (gri Pcm-1 al'i rrItzf v1' ffftthTIT ch •T`tr<FFT atttEr fat 11.7 .11 ,AR 711,

41,4. R.4 fqrim fqtruF -11:m .*R--4* autuT qt -TFT -a-zr Rnir \Alm t- ?

(1) fq4q1 ffftifiror (2) tithinT 4tc-q ffftthut

(3) -51-47F trq ffft471 (4) Tcrti'FITT f-9.WRTT


96. On the basis of statement (A) and (B) answer the following question :

(A) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) is a fiduciary Reserve Asset.

(B) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) are allocated by the Fund to members participating in its SDR Department.

(1) Only (A) is correct (2) Only (B) is correct

(3) Both (A) and (B) are correct (4) Both (A) and (B) are wrong

97. Which of the following does not come under capital market ?

(1) Bills of Exchange

(2) Shares

(3) Government securities

(4) Debentures

98. Which of the following is not compatible with an unlisted company making an initial public offering of equity shares ?

(1) The company has net tangible assets of at least 5 crores in each of the preceeding , 5 years.

(2) The_company has a track record of distributable profits for at least 3 out of immediately preceeding 5 years.

(3) The company has a net worth of at least 1 crore m each of the preceeding 3 full years.

(4) Yhe aggregate of the proposed issue and r all previous issues made in the same financial year does not exceed 5 times its pre-issue not worth.

99. The clause 49 on corporate governance does not deal with :

(1) Board of directors and its composition

(2) Remuneration of directors

(3) Management discussion and analysis report

(4) Involvement of shareholders in the management

100. Which of the following is not supported under globalisation ?

(1) Unrestricted trade flow (2) Unrestricted flow of labour

(3) Unrestricted flow of capital (4) Unrestricted flow of technology

- o 0 o -

PHDCOM/ MPHILCOM 30

96. (A) (B) T2T91* 31TNTK ITT 1 ikirzac1 mk-T . ant %TN :

(A) FeTilei 3TTFul aTfwr( rclqcit-1414 tireicf *-1 1-44 t

(B) rqk of 31TMT 3TNT17 TT GidaRITIET gift reik aTTUT altITTT-{ fq3ITTI 4 ITT "q19T

entif 7TUT t I

(1) eirf (A) *la t (2) gel (B) 14t t

(3) (A) AT (B) t91 *41 (4) (A) 3117 (B) ta)' +mcf t

(gct -4* rentienf 9-61 t ?

(1) fak4-14 (2) k

(3) TRTR1 ArTiPTI (4) -ft- -4-4T

98. r-I+1 rrlrtgd 3n:171—oz mw-11 741' t. * aTrtriTw fazrel- *TR t4 fffq

ki I A 1Ch fqw1 litaircicf twit t?

(1) t, til fcroa -14% 71.- TR TTT 5 ebt 9traT ti4J-1 t I

(2) fcrOt 11% tilml 4 14 timl -44 eto-LIII TT fq-d7T TA TT 311 r1vT t I

(3) Al# 41 44411 fm74-FETWA-9 TTT-A 14 3TAT7si 1WW1:114 T14etri4 7-4 t I

(4) .crw qtif mt-tiliacr f ath 40 . V Tr411- f4r7741 v *Tr Rim? V- T9

99. 717T9 MUIM1 11171 49 TT 17z1-41' r-1'-Irrlrtgcr Al N.* 741 t?

(1) f9tIT'i-isrf WITT 3ticilt tiiic5-1

(2) fitTTI TT TITfrsegTT

(3) .5r4tF cw.f 3 T rqqceluf frN

(4) 3141T9' 4 *R/RV V liTITITt

100. lqcileiltuf 3iffrfff f*-170 T761 fq11. \Alai ?

(1) 31TTfl-Tff otim

(2) secTO TT arevu

(3) It TT 31-4Ifti1 314TW

(4) clam et) TT 374Tfird .51-4ff

- o 0 o -

97.


101023 ph.d./m.phil. (commerce) entrance test, 2019

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