upsc objective type old question papers

1 of 14

(PAPER–II)

1. Match list I with list II and select the

correct answer List I A. Loess B. Peat C. Alluvial soil D. Mari List II 1. Deposited from suspension in running

water 2. Deposits of marine origin 3. Deposits by wind 4. Organic soil A B C D a. 3 4 2 1 b. 4 3 1 2 c. 4 3 2 1 d. 3 4 1 2

2. Match List I (Soils) with List II (Group symbols) and select the correct answer : List I A. Clayey gravel B. Clayey sand C. Organic clay D. Silty sand List II 1. SM 2. OH 3. SC 4. GC A B C D a. 3 4 2 1 b. 4 3 1 2 c. 4 3 2 1 d. 3 4 1 2

3. The value of porosity of a soil sample in which the total volume of soil grains is equal to twice the total volume of voids would be a. 75% b. 66.66% c. 50%

d. 33.33% 4. A soil has a liquid limit of 40% and

plasticity index of 20%. The plastic limit of the soil will be a. 20% b. 30% c. 40% d. 60%

5. In a two-layer soil system, the top soil and bottom soil are of same thickness but the coefficient of permeability of the top soil is twice that of the bottom solid of coefficient of permeability ‘k’. When horizontal flow occurs, the equivalent coefficient of permeability of the system will be a. 2 k b. 1.5 k c. 1.25 k d. 1.2 k

6. A strata of 3.5 m thick fine sand has a void ratio of 0.7 and G of 2.7. For a quicksand condition to develop in this strata, the water flowing in upward direction would require a heat of a. 7 m b. 5.56 m c. 5 m d. 3.5 m

7. A flownet of a Coffer dam foundation has 6 flow channels and 18 equipotential drops. The head of water lost during seepage is 6 m. If the coefficient of permeability of foundation is 410−5 m/min., then the seepage loss per m length of dam will be

a. 2.16 10−2 m3 / day

b. 6.48 10−2 m3 / day

c. 11.52 10−2 m3 / day

d. 34.56 10−2 m3 / day 8. A sample of saturated sand has a dry unit

weight of 18 kN/m3 and a specific gravity

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2000

CCIIVVIILL EENNGGIINNEEEERRIINNGG

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2 of 14of 2.7. If water is 10 kN / m3, the void ratio of the soil sample will be a. 0.5 b. 0.6 c. 0.4 d. 0.9

9. Consider the following features of direct shear test : 1. Failure takes place on the

predetermined plane 2. It is a quick test 3. Drainage conditions cannot be changed 4. Failure of the sample is progressive Which of these are the disadvantages of direct shear test ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1, 3 and 4 c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 3 and 4

10. Match List I(in situ test) with List II (Measurement) and select the correct answer : List I A. SPT test B. Plate load test C. Field vaneshear test D. CPT test List II 1. penetration resistance (N value) 2. Load settlement data 3. Point resistance and skin friction 4. In situ shear strength A B C D a. 1 2 4 3 b. 1 2 3 4 c. 2 1 3 4 d. 2 1 4 3

11. The correct sequence of the given parameters in descending order of eat pressure intensity is a. active, passive, at rest b. passive, active at rest c. passive, at rest, active d. at rest, passive, active

12. Consider the following statements associated with stability of slope : 1. Stability number is inversely

proportional to cohesion and directly proportional to height

2. Swedish method of analysis is based on circular failure surfaces.

3. The Culmann method assumes that rupture will occur in a plane

Which of the statement are correct ? a. 2 and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 1, 2 and 3

13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I A. Dense sand B. Loose sand C. Plastic clay List II

1.

2.

3. A B C a. 3 2 1 b. 2 1 3 c. 1 3 2 d. 1 2 3

14. Which one of the following diagrams represents the effective pressure distribution for a saturated soil mass of depth z submerged under water of height z1 above its top level ( = submerged



3 of 14density of soil, sat = saturated density of soil and w = unit weight of water) ?

a.

b.

c.

d. 15. Match List I with List II and select the

correct answer using the codes (Notations have their usual meaning) : List I A. Coefficient of compressibility B. Compression index C. Time factor D. Coefficient of volume compressibility List II 1. mv 2. Cvt/H

2 3. av 4. Cc A B C D a. 3 2 4 1 b. 1 2 4 3 c. 1 4 2 3 d. 3 4 2 1

16. Reduction in volume of soil primarily due to squeezing out of water from the voids is called

a. primary consolidation b. plastic flow c. creep d. secondary consolidation

17. In the case of stratified soil layers, the best equation that can be adopted for computing the pressure distribution is a. Prandtl’s b. Skempton’s c. Westergaard’s d. Boussinesq’s

18. A wet, cohesive subgrade is most effectively stabilized by the addition of a. cement b. fly ash c. bitumen d. lime

19. The settlement analysis for a clay layer draining from top and bottom shows a settlement of 2.5 cm in 4 years and an ultimate settlement of 10 cm. However detailed subsurface investigation reveals that there is no drainage at the bottom. The ultimate settlement in this condition will be a. 2.5 cm b. 5 cm c. 10 cm d. 20 cm

20. Match List I (Suitable condition) with list II (Foundations) and select the correct answer : List I A. When structural load is uniform and

soil is soft clay, made up of marshy land

B. When structural load is heavy and/or soil having low bearing capacity for considerable depth

C. When soil is having good bearing capacity at shallow depth and structural load is within permissible limit

D. When structural load of bridge is to be transferred through sandy soil to bed rock

List II 1. Footings 2. Piles 3. Raft



4 of 144. Wells or pier A B C D a. 3 1 2 4 b. 4 1 2 3 c. 4 2 1 3 d. 3 2 1 4

21. Match list I(Contact pressure distribution diagrams) with List II (Description of footings) and select the correct answer : List I

A.

B.

C.

D. List II 1. Rigid footing on cohesive soil 2. Flexible footing on cohesive soil 3. Rigid footing on cohensionless soil at

ground level 4. Flexible footing on cohesionless soil at

ground level A B C D a. 3 1 4 2 b. 4 2 3 1 c. 3 2 4 1 d. 4 1 3 2

22. Depth of foundation depends upon a. Scour depth, minimum grip length and

Rankine depth b. Scour depth, minimum grip length and

depth of a bearing stratum c. Scour depth, Rankine depth and depth

of a bearing stratum

d. Minimum grip length, Rankine depth and depth of bearing stratum

23. The nature of earth pressure above dredge line behind a cantilever sheet pile wall is a. active b. passive c. at rest d. active and passive

24. A machine foundation weights 39.24 kN and has a spring constant k = 10000 kN/m. The system will be critically dumped if the damping coefficient ‘Cc’ is (acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m2/s. a. 100 kN.s/m b. 200 kN.s/m c. 400 kN.s/m d. 800 kN.s/m

25. Which one of the following soil types is most likely to be subjected to liquefaction under seismic forces ? a. Soft saturated clays b. Loose saturated sands c. Murum d. Fractured rocky strata

26. The length of National Highways as per 3rd 10 years (Lucknow) road plan is given by a. area of the country / 75 b. area of the country / 50 c. area of the country / 40 d. area of the country / 25

27. Total reaction time of a driver does not depend upon a. perception time b. brake reaction time c. condition of mind of the drive d. speed of vehicle

28. A horizontal curve of 480 m for 7.5 m two-lane road is to be designed for a speed of 80 kmph. The raising of the outer edge of the pavement with respect to the inner edge to cater to the mixed traffic condition is a. 0.14 m b. 0.22 m c. 0.24 m d. 0.27 m

29. If the modulus of subgrade reaction of a soil is 10kg/cu.cm when tested with a 30 cm diameter plate, the corrected modulus



5 of 14of subgrade reaction for the standard diameter plate will be a. 4 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25

30. Bitumen grade 80/100 indicates that under the standard test conditions, penetration value of bitumen would vary from a. 0.8 mm to 1 mm b. 8 mm to 10 mm c. 8 cm to 10 cm d. 0.08 mm to 0.1 mm

31. Which one of the following curves illustrates the correct relation between % voids in total mix and % bitumen ?

a.

b.

c.

d. 32. Consider the following factors :

1. Length of vehicle 2. Width of vehicle 3. Approach speed 4. Stopping time for approaching vehicle 5. Passing sight distance Which of these factors are taken into consideration for determining yellow time of a traffic signal at an inter-section ? a. 1, 2 and 5 b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 1, 3 and 5 d. 1, 3 and 4

33. Which one of the following is useful in functional evaluation of pavement ? a. P C U b. P S I c. P I E V d. Benkelman beam

34. A railway yard in which wagons are received, sorted and new trains are formed is called a a. good yard b. station yard c. marshalling yard d. shunting yard

35. A cross-over of 1 in 10 exists between two broad gauge parallel tracks with centres at 5 m apart. The length of the straight track is a. 16.4 m b. 18.4 m c. 19.2 m d. 19.92 m

36. Which one of the following signals is provided beyond the trailing points and switches in a railway yard ? a. Repeater signal b. Departure signal c. Advance starter d. Routing signal

37. The phenomenon of movement and deposition of san din a zig-zag due to drifting of sand in the vicinity of coast is called a. littoral drift b. sedimentation c. beach drift d. trough action

38. Match list I(Structure) with List II(Purpose) and select the correct answer : List I A. Breakwater B. Wharf C. Fender system D. Revetments List II 1. Separates the land from sea water 2. Lays vessels alongside, receives and

discharges cargo and passengers



6 of 143. protects a seashore 4. Absorbs the energy of the moving

vessel 5. Retards erosion of an existing beach A B C D a. 5 2 4 3 b. 3 4 2 1 c. 3 2 4 1 d. 1 4 3 5

39. The lowest tide which occurs in half lunar month is called a. spring tide b. neap tide c. lunar tide d. tidal bore

40. Which one of the following methods of tunneling is used in hard rock ? a. Forepoling method b. Needle beam method c. Heading and benching method d. Shield tunneling method

41. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer : List I A. P N d B B. L C N C. S T O L D. List II 1. Noise level 2. Visual range 3. Airport pavement evaluation 4. type of aircraft A B C a. 1 3 4 b. 1 4 3 c. 4 2 1 d. 2 3 4

42. For a runway at an elevation of 1000 m above MSL and airport reference temperature of 16o C, the rise in temperature to be taken into account as per ICAO is a. 24.5o C b. 15o C c. 7.5o C d. 6o C

43. Which one of the following surveys is required in observations of stars ?

a. Astronomical survey b. Cadastral survey c. Aerial survey d. Photogrammetric survey

44. The arithmetical check for the computation of R.L. by “rise and fall” method is given by

a. F.S. — B.S. = R.L. of last station point — R.L. of first station point = Fall — Rise

b. B.S. — F.S. = R.L. of first station point — R.L. of last station point = Rise + Fall

c. B.S. — F.S. = R.L. of last station point — R.L. of first station point = Rise — Fall

d. B.S. — F.S. = Rise — Fall = R.L. of first station point — R.L. of last station point

45. If the declination is 5o 40 W, which one of the following magnetic bearing would represent the true bearing of S 25o 20 E ?

a. S 19o 20 E

b. S 31o 0 E

c. S 20o 0 E

d. S 19o 20 W 46. Match List I with List II and select the

correct answer : List I A. Vertical cliff B. Steep slope C. Hill D. Overhanging Lists II 1. Contour lines of different elevations

unite to form one line 2. Contour lines of different elevations

cross one another 3. Contour lines are closely spaced 4. Closed contour lines with higher

values inside them A B C D a. 4 3 1 2 b. 1 3 4 2 c. 1 2 4 3 d. 4 2 1 3

47. Triangulation station selected close to the main station for avoiding intervening obstruction is called



7 of 14a. accentric station b. pivot station c. satellite station d. tie station

48. If the equation of time is — 13 28.5, then the Greenwich Apparent Time corresponding to zero hour Greenwich Mean Time on a day is

a. 13 28.5 b. 46 31.5 c. 23 h 46 31.5 of same day

d. 23 h 46 31.5 of previous day 49. The method of orienting a plane table with

two inaccessible points is known as a. intersection b. resection c. back sighting d. two-point problem

50. A vertical photograph was taken at an altitude of 1500 m above MSL. If the length of the camera is 20 m, the scale of photograph for a terrain lying at an elevation of 500 m is a. 1 : 50 b. 1 : 100 c. 1 : 1000 d. 1 : 25

51. Assertion (A) : For a given soil, the optimum moisture content increases with the increase in compactive effort. Reason (R) : Higher the compactive effort, higher is the dry density at the same moisture content. a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT

the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

52. Assertion (A) : Stress paths can be plotted for stress conditions during triaxial test. Reason (R) : It is not possible to control drainage in a triaxial test . a. Both A and R are true and R is the



53. Assertion (A) : The rates of settlement of building structures on dandy clay soils are faster compared to those of buildings constructed on clayey soils. Reason (R) : The rate of consolidations dependent on the permeability of soils and the permeability of sandy clay is more than that of clayey soil. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



54. Assertion (A) : Pile driving formulae have very limited use in the case of cohesive soils. Reason (R) : Pile driving in cohesive soils results in liquefaction of clays. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



55. Assertion (A) : Larger footings settle more than the smaller footings under the same load intensity. Reason (R) : Size of the pressure bulb depends upon the size of the footing. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



56. Assertion (A) : In a spherical triangle, the sum of the three sides is always less than the circumference of the greater circle. Reason (R) : The sum of the three angles of a spherical triangle is greater than two right angles, but less than six right angles. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



57. Assertion (A) : The critical combination of stresses on a cement concrete pavement



8 of 14during summer is given by : load stress –warping stress + frictional stress. Reason (R) : The critical combination of stresses in the cement concrete pavement during winter is given by : load stress + warping stress + frictional stress. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



58. Assertion (A) : The prime coat is an interface bituminous treatment when the existing base course has a pervious texture like water bound macadam. Reason (R) : The primer has to get into the capillary voids in the existing base and it should be of low viscosity. Bituminous emulsion is generally used as a prime cost. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



59. Assertion (A) : Coning of wheels in railways does not cause wear and tear on the rails as well as on the tread of the wheels. Reason (R) : The rails are tilted at an angle of 1 in 20 to reduce the wear and tear on the rails as well as on the tread of the wheels. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



60. Assertion (A) : Scissor crossing is provided where space does not permit provision of two separate cross-overs. Reason (R) : A scissor crossing consists of four pairs of switches, six acute angle crossings and four obtuse angle crossing s and check rails. a. Both A and R are true and R is the


the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

61. Assertion (A) : Surges can be positive or negative. Reason (R) : Negative surges may occur when a gate at the head of a channel is suddenly opened or when a gate at tail end of a of a channel is suddenly closed. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



62. Assertion (A) : The future population is prediced on the basis of knowledge of the city and its environment. Reason (R) : the future population depends on the trade and expansion of the city, discovery of mineral deposits, power generation etc. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



63. Assertion (A) : The leakage losses are less when the water supply in intermittent. Reason (R) : Pressure is less in intermittent water supply. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



64. Assertion (A) : Alum is the most commonly used coagulant in water treatment. Reason (R) : alum is very effective in killing pathogens present in water. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



65. Assertion (A) : Sewers are not allowed to flow full.



9 of 14Reason (R) : reserve space in the sewer takes care of fluctuations in the sewage flow. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



66. Assertion (A) : In recent years, here has been a progressive increase in the percentage of solar ultra-violet rays reaching the earth’s surface. Reason (R) : In the last few years, there has been a progressive increase in the percentage of carbon dioxide in the earth’s atmosphere. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



67. A rural water supply scheme serves a population of 10,000 at the rate of 50 liters per capita per day. For the chlorine does of 2ppm, the required amount of bleaching powder with 20% available chlorine will be a. 0.5 kg b. 5 kg c. 10 kg d. 15 kg

68. The usual size of residential ferrule bore varies from a. 1 mm to 5mm b. 10 mm to 50 mm c. 100 mm to 500 mm d. 1000 mm to 5000 mm

69. Reciprocating pumps are suitable fro a. low discharge and high head b. high discharge and low head c. low discharge and low head d. high discharge and high head

70. In which one of the following tests is the organic matter in the waster water used as food by micro-organisms ? a. B.O.D. b. Most probable number c. C.O.D.

d. Chlorine demand 71. The function of algae in an oxidation pond

is to a. provide a mat over the surface of the

oxidation pond so as to prevent evaporation of water

b. provide oxygen for bacterial to degrade organic matter

c. provide a greenish appearance to the pond

d. prevent the odour nuisance 72. At an incubation temperature of 20o C, if

initial DO (dissolved oxygen) and final DO values after 5 days’ incubation period are 8.5 mg / l and 5.5 mg / l respectively, then the BOD will be a. 50 mg / l b. 150 mg / l c. 250 mg / l d. 350 mg / l

73. Consider the following pairs of treatment units and impurities removed : 1. Grit chamber : sand and slit 2. Detritus tank : Organic matter 3. Primary sedimentation tank :

Suspended impurities 4. Aeration tank of activated : Oil and

grease Which of these pairs are correctly matched? a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1 and 3

74. When a sewage is dispose din a river, the rate of depletion of dissolved oxygen of the river mainly depends on a. biochemical oxygen demand of the

sewage b. chemical oxygen demean of the

sewage c. total organic carbon present in the

sewage d. dissolved oxygen present in the sewage

75. From a waste, the 5-day BOD at 20oC is found to be 200 mg/l. For the same waste, 5-day BOD at 30o C will be a. less than 200 mg / l b. more than 200 mg / l c. 200 mg / l



10 of 14d. zero, as the bacterial cannot withstand

such a high temperature 76. The ultimate BOD value of a waste

a. increases with temperature b. decreases with temperature c. remains the same at all temperature d. doubles with every 10o C rise in

temperature 77. For the design of a storm sewer in a

drainage area, if the time of concentration is 20 min., then the duration of rainfall will be taken as a. 10 min b. 20 min c. 30 min d. 40 min

78. From ecological considerations, the minimum level of Dissolved Oxygen (DO) necessary in the rivers and streams is a. 1 mg / l b. 2 mg / l c. 4 mg / l d. 8 mg / l

79. The role of the bed material in a “packed tower” used for removing particular matter from gaseous emission is to a. act as a filter bed to capture the

particulates within the pores b. provide a large surface area on which

the particulate matter can be collected c. reduce the flow of gas d. uniformly distribute the spray of water

80. Which one of the following plume behaviors occurs when atmospheric inversion begins from the ground level and continues ? a. Looping b. Fumigation c. Coning d. Fanning

81. Which one of the following pollutants or pairs of pollutants is formed due to photochemical reactions ? a. CO alone b. O3 and PAN c. PAN and NH3 d. NH3 and CO

82. In the context of basic concept of an ecological system, the most appropriate

definition of ecology is that it is a study of the a. inter-relationship between organisms

and the environment b. relationship of human species with the

industry c. relationship of human species with

natural resources d. relationship of human species with air

83. Organisms that mineralize organic matter in an ecosystem are called a. producers b. consumers c. decomposers d. carnivorous

84. Aerobic method of composting practiced in India is called a. Bangalore method b. Nagpur method c. Delhi method d. Indore method

85. Which of the following statements related to C/N (Carbon/Nitrogen) ratio is not correct ? a. Lower initial C/N ratio leads to loss of

nitrogen and slows down the rate of decomposition

b. Higher initial C/N ratio leads to cell destruction to obtain nutrition

c. Higher initial C/N ratio leads to lower conservation of nitrogen in the finished compost

d. An initial C/N ratio of 30 to 50 is optimal for composting

86. The raw water entering an ideal horizontal settling tank contains following two types of particles :

Particle type

Settling velocity (m/h)

Concentration(mg/l)

I II

3 1

200 300

When the surface overflow rate of the settling tank is 3m3/m2/h, the concentration of the particles in the settled water will be a. 100 mg/l b. 200 mg/l c. 300 mg/l d. 400 mg/l



11 of 1487. Which one of the following filters will

produce water of higher bacteriological quality ? a. slow and filter b. rapid sand filter c. pressure filter d. dual media filter

88. Which one of the following sets of processes is a part of self-purification of streams ? a. Settling, bio-degradation and

desalination b. Settling, bio-degradation and aeration c. Flotation, ion exchange and

desalination d. Desalination, ion exchange and reverse

osmosis 89. When sewage enters a flowing river, the

rapid depletion of dissolved oxygen is due to a. change in temperature in river water b. the suspended particles in river and

waste c. respiratory activity of aquatic plants in

the river d. microbial activity

90. Consider the following advantages : 1. Lower BOD concentration is

supernatant liquor. 2. production of a sludge with excellent

dewatering capacity. 3. Recovery of methane gas. 4. Lower operation cost. Which of these are the advantages of anaerobic digestion over aerobic digestion? a. 1 and 4 b. 1 and 2 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 3

91. The MLSS concentration in the aeration taken of extended aeration activated sludge process is 4000 mg/l. If one litre of sample settled in 30 minutes and the measuring cylinder showed a sludge volume of 200 ml, then the sludge volume index would be nearly a. 200 b. 150 c. 100 d. 50

92. When the water surface coincides with the top edge of a rectangular vertical gate 40 m (wide) 3 m (deep), then the depth of centre of pressure is a. 1 m b. 1.5 m c. 2 m d. 2.5 m

93. If a water tank, partially filled with water is being carried on a truck, moving with a constant horizontal acceleration, the level of liquid will a. rise and fall alternately one the front

side of the tank b. fall on the rear side of the tank c. remain the same on both sides of the

tank d. rise on the rear side and fall on the

front side of the tank 94. A body is floating as shown in the given

figure. The centre of buoyancy, centre of gravity and metacentre are labeled respectively as B, G and M. The body is

a. vertically stable b. vertically unstable c. rotationally stable d. rotationally unstable

95. Consider the following velocity profiles in a pipeline :

1.

2.

3.

4. Among these profiles, the momentum correction factor would be



12 of 14a. least in 4 b. highest in 1 c. more in 3 than that for 2 d. the same in 1, 2, 3 and 4

96. If the error in the measurement of head in a ‘V’ notch is 1%, then the error in the measurement of discharge will be a. 1% b. 1.5% c. 2% d. 2.5%

97. A two-dimensional flow is described by velocity components u = 2x and v = −2y. The discharge between points (1,1) and (2,2) is equal to a. 9 units b. 8 units c. 7 units d. 6 units

98. A pump running at 1414 rpm delivers 256 lps of water against a head of 16 m. The pump is of the a. normal speed radial type b. double suction type c. mixed flow type d. axial flow type

99. Euler number or pressure coefficient may be represented as(notations have their usual meanings )

a. p

H

b. 2 / 2

p

V

c. μ /

p

V L

d. p

Lg

100. If the velocity profile in laminar flow is parabolic, then the shear stress profile must be a. a hyperbola b. a parabola c. a straight line d. an ellipse

101. Consider the following statements regarding friction factor variation in a pipe flow : 1. In hydrodynamically rough boundaries

friction factor ‘f’ is related to relative roughness /D, ( s roughness and D is the diameter of pipe).

2. In hydrodynamically smooth boundaries, friction factor ‘f’ depends both on Reynold’s number ‘Re’ and relative roughness.

3. If the friction factor, f = 1/4

0.316

Re, then

the value of the friction factor ‘f’ relates to the that of the region of turbulent flow in smooth boundary.

4. Friction factor is directly related to the nature of boundary layer in a pipe flow Which of these statemtns are correct ?

a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 3 and 4

102. A and B are at the same elevation of 2.5 m above datum in the value and pipe line shown in the given figure. Velocity head of 0.5 m, head loss in value of 0.2 m and pressure head of 2.5 m are the parameters at A. Piezometric head at B is equal to

a. 5.5 m b. 5.3 m c. 5.0 m d. 4.8 m

103. Consider the following conditions for the pipe network shown in the given figure(Notations have the usual meaning with suffixes 1, 2 and 3 referring to respective pipes) : 1. Q1 = Q3 2. Q2 = Q1 + Q3 3. hf1 = hf3 4. hf1 = hf2 = hf3

Which of these conditions must be satisfied by this pipe network ? a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 4 d. 2 and 4

104. Consider the following statements :



13 of 141. In an open channel flow, energy grade

line is obtained by adding datum head, pressure head and velocity head.

2. In an open channel, hydraulic grade line is the free surface itself.

3. For a pipe and an open channel of source dimension, the hydraulic gradient line is located at the same height above datum.

4. Energy gradient line of an open channel is always horizontal.

Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4

105. Maximum pressure rise due to water hammer in a pipe-line (a = area of the pipe; V0 = velocity; g = acceleration due to gravity; t = time period; l = length of the pipeline) is a. aV0 / 2g b. 2

0V /a g

c. 00V /l gt

d. independent of the dimensions of the pipe

106. For a wide rectangular channel using Manning’s formula, the differential equation of gradually varies flow(with the usual notations) is given by

a. 10/3

30

[1 ( / ) ]

[1 ( / ) ]c

o

y ydyS

dx y y

b. 10/3

30

[1 ( / ) ]

[1 ( / ) ]c

o

y ydyS

dx y y

c. 3

03

[1 ( / ) ]

[1 ( / ) ]oc

y ydyS

dx y y

d. 3

30

[1 ( / ) ]

[1 ( / ) ]c

o

y ydyS

dx y y

107. A sluice gate opening in a canal is shown in the given figure. The shapes of water surface profiles at X, Y and Z will be respectively

a. M1, M3 and M1

b. M2, M3 and M2 c. S1, S3 and S2 d. H2, S3 and S1

108. Consider the following statements : The head-discharge characteristics curve of two centrifugal pump is 1. parallel can be obtained by doubling

the ordinates . 2. series can be obtained by doubling the

abscissa. Which of these statements is/are correct ? a. 2 alone b. 1 alone c. Neither 1 nor 2 d. 1 and 2

109. If the base period of a 6 hour unit hydrograph of a basin is 84 hours, then a 112 hour unit hydrograph derived from this 6 hour unit hydrograph will have a base period of a. 72 hours b. 78 hours c. 84 hours d. 90 hours

110. The stage in a river is 4.8 m, the water surface slope is 1 in 10,000 and the discharge in the steam is 600 m3/s. If the stage remains the same and the water surface slope is 1 in 14,400, then the discharge in the stream will be a. 300 m3/s b. 400 m3/s c. 600 m3/s d. 500 m3/s

111. If an tangent drawn parallel to the demand lien from a ridge point of a mass curve does not intersect the mass curve again, it can be inferred that the a. frequency of the flood entering into the

reservoir is less b. inflow into the reservoir cannot meet

the demand c. reservoir is overflowing resulting in

wastage d. reservoir can meet higher demand

112. In order to ensure that no scouring takes place in the bed of a channel of bed slope ‘S’ constructed on alluvial soil of particle size ‘d’ cm, the flow velocity should be restricted to a. 4.85 d1/2 S–1/6 b. 4.85 d–1/2 S1/6 c. 0.45 d1/2 S1/6 d. 0.48 d1/2 S–1/6



14 of 14113. Which one of the following sets is used to

control the seepage through the foundations of an earth dam ? a. chimney drain, upstream blanket and

cu-off trench b. cut-off sheet piles, upstream blanket

and cut-off trench c. upstream blanket, cut-off sheet piles

and chimney drain d. relief wells, upstream blanket and

chimney drain 114. Consider the following statements :

1. in designing a hydraulic structure in permeable foundation by Khosla’s theory, the slope correction is applicable to piles located at the ends of the sloped floor only in a structure with one or more sloped floors.

2. Khosla’s theory can be correctly applied in alluvium of finite depth.

3. Length of flow has lesser effect on exit gradient than the depth of piles.

4. Intercepts between hydraulic gradient line and free water surface on the glacis and horizontal floor downstream is the unbalanced uplift in a structure.

Which of these statements related to the design of hydraulic structure are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1, 3 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4

115. Match List I(Energy dissipation) with List II(Water level and slope condition) and select the correct answer : List I A. Roler bucket B. Ski-jump bucket C. Standing wave basin with depressed

floor D. Standing wave basin with raised floor List II 1. TWL(tail channel water level) is

slightly above JWL (jump height water level) and the slope of the channel is mild

2. TWL is considerably above JWL and the slope of the channel is mild

3. TWL is slightly below JWL and the slope of the channel is mild

4. TWL is considerably less than JWL and the slope of the channel is steep

A B C D a. 4 2 1 3

b. 2 4 1 3 c. 2 4 3 1 d. 4 2 3 1

116. If the depth is 8.64 cm on a filed over a base period of 10 day, then the duty is a. 10 hectares per cu.m/s b. 100 hectares per cu.m/s c. 864 hectares per cu.m/s d. 1000 hectares per cu.m/s

117. Given that atmospheric pressure head = 9 m, vapour pressure head (max.) = 1m, failure head = 40 m and cavitation coefficient = 0.15, the height at which the turbine can be set above the tail race level is a. 6 m b. 4 m c. 3 m d. 2 m

118. Specific capacity of a well is the a. volume of water that can be extracted

by the force of gravity from a unit volume of aquifer

b. discharge per unit drawdown of the well

c. drawdown per unit discharge of the well

d. rate of flow through a unit width and entire thickness of aquifer.

119. Consider the following statements : 1. Specific speed uniquely determines the

type, shape and design of the turbine. 2. Both unit speed ‘n11’ and unit

discharge ‘Q11’ are necessary to uniquely determine the type and design of the turbine.

Which of these statemtns is/are correct in respect of a hydraulic turbine ? a. 2 alone b. 1 alone c. 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2

120. If the radius of the centrifugal pump impeller is reduced from 10 cm to 9 cm, the head developed by the pump will change from 10m to a. 9 m of water b. 8.1 m of water c. 9.487 m of water d. 11.111 m of water



1 of 17

(PAPER – I)

1. The moisture content in a properly seasoned timber will be in the range of

a. 5% to 8%

b. 8% to 10%

c. 10% to 12%

d. 12% to 15%

2. The strength of timber is maximum in the direction

a. Perpendicular to the grains

b. Parallel to the grains

c. 45o to he grains

d. At all angles

3. The maximum permissible slenderness ratio for masonry walls is

a. 40

b. 30

c. 20

d. 10

4. When the corner of a brick is removed along the line joining mid-points of adjoining sides, the portion left is called

a. Closer

b. Squint brick

c. Queen closer

d. King closer

5. An arrangement for temporarily supporting a structure from beneath for safety, is known as

a. Jacking

b. Underpinning

c. Supporting

d. Hauling

6. Match List I (Cement) with List II(Characteristics) and select the correct answer :

List I

A. High alumina cement

B. Blast furnace cement

C. Quick setting cement

D. Rapid hardening cement

List II

1. High early strength

2. Gypsum free cement

3. Selenetic cement

4. Used in mass concrete work

5. Used in chemical factories and mines

A B C D

a. 5 4 2 1

b. 4 3 2 1

c. 5 4 3 2

d. 4 5 1 2

7. The fineness of cement is tested by

a. Air-content method

b. Air-permeability method

c. Le-Chatelier apparatus

d. Vicat’s apparatus

8. The test on cement designed to accelerate the slaking process of the ingredient of cement and to determine the resulting expansion in a short time is

a. Setting time test

b. Soundness test

c. Normal consistency test

d. Accelerated test


1. Addition of a small quantity of slaked lime to Portland cement in cement mortar increases the plasticity of the mortar.

2. Light weight mortar is prepared by mixing cement and finely crushed fire bricks with water.

3. Fire resistant mortar is prepared by mixing aluminous cement and finely ground china clay wares with water.

Which of these statements are correct ?

a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2000




2 of 1710. A mortar for which both cement and lime

are mixed is called

a. Gauged mortar

b. Cement mortar

c. Lime mortar

d. Light weight mortar

11. As per I.S. Code of Practice, concrete should be cured at

a. 5 o

b. 1 o

c. 27o

d. 40o

12. The correct sequence of workability test(s)/method(s) in the order of their application from low to high workability is

a. Slump test, compacting factor test and Vee-bee consistometer

b. Compacting factor test, Vee-bee consistometer and slump test

c. Vee-bee consistometer, Slump test and Compacting factor test

d. Vee-bee consistometer, compacting factor test and Slump test

13. While testing the compressive strength of cement concrete, the correct standard conditions (viz. temperature, age, humidity and size of the specimen) to be maintained as per I.S. are

a. 27 30 C, 28 days, 90% and 15 cu.cm

b. 26 20 C, 21 days, 80% and 15 cu.cm

c. 25 10 C, 14 days, 75% and 10 cu.cm

d. 27 30 C, 7 days, 70% and 10 cu.cm

14. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

a. Bulking of sand always decreases with increase in the quantity of water

b. The quantity of water in ordinary concrete should be 5% by weight of cement and 25% by weight of aggregate

c. While mixing by weight, bulking effect of sand is not taken into account

d. River sand is also known as standard sand

15. The ratio of direct tensile strength to that of modulus of rapture of concrete is

a. 0.25

b. 0.5

c. 0.75

d. 1.0

16. A two-level section ABCD is shown in the given figure with ground slope 1 on rand formation slope 1 on s.EF is the centre line (C/L) of the formation . Top width of the formation is 2b and widths to the toe are w1 and w2. The width ‘w1’ will be

a.

rs bb H

r s r

b. rs b

b Hr s r

c. rs b

b Hr s r

d. rs b

b Hr s r

17. An equipment is available for Rs. 2,00,000. It has an estimated useful life of 5 years. By the double rate declining balance method of depreciation, the book value at the end of the second year will be

a. Rs. 1,28, 000

b. Rs. 1,20,000

c. Rs. 72,000

d. Rs. 60, 000

18. A 6 cu.m central concrete mixing plant takes in 1875 kg of cement, 5120 kg of sand and 6060 kg of coarse aggregate along with 865 kg of water per batch. There is a reduction of 1.5% in volume in the freshly mixed wet concrete from the nominal volume. The unit weight of the freshly mixed wet concrete will be

a. 2320 kg per cu.m

b. 2335 kg per cu.m

c. 2345 kg per cu.m

d. 2355 kg per cu.m

19. IC engines usable for earthwork are calibrated under standard conditions (denoted by suffix ‘o’) relating its horse power Ho, standard barometric pressure P0



3 of 17and standard test temperature To, all in absolute scales H, P and T refer to corresponding values when used under other than standard conditions. The ratio of Ho / H is

a. / /o oP P T T

b. / /o oP P T T

c. / /oP P T T

d. / /o oP P T T

20. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer :

List I

A. Self-loading scraper

B. Narrow tread high pressure tyre

C. Supercharger

D. Gear ratios

List II

1. Reduce loss in power

2. Rim pull management

3. Lower rolling resistance

4. Compromise between loading and hauling performances

A B C D

a. 4 3 2 1

b. 4 3 1 2

c. 3 4 1 2

d. 3 4 2 1

21. Match List I(Feasibility) with List II (Emphasises on or calls for) and select the correct answer :

List I

A. Social

B. Economic

C. Input

D. Co-ordination

List II

1. Optimising marginal costs and benefits

2. forward and backward linkages

3. Interfaces

4. Improving wealth

A B C D

a. 1 4 3 2

b. 4 1 3 2

c. 1 4 2 3

d. 4 1 2 3

22. The probability that the load on scaffolding will exceed 2t is 0.15. The probability that the strength of the scaffolding will be more than 2t is 0.8. The probability of failure of the scaffolding will be

a. 0.68

b. 0.17

c. 0.12

d. 0.03

23. Every cu.m of excavation requires either 3 man-hours or 0.2 machine-hour. The respective rates are Rs. 8 per man-hour and Rs. 200 per machine-hour. A total quantity of 4000 cu.m of excavation is to be done. The possible minimum total cost for the complete job, by a suitable combination of manual and mechanical means of excavation will be

a. Rs. 80,000

b. Rs. 1,20,000

c. Rs. 1,50,000

d. Rs. 1,80,000

24. The total number of errors in the given AOA network is

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

25. A, B and C are three activities to be executed in that order. Their total duration, in days, are 15, 24 and 18 respectively. However, fro better estimation of overall total duration; they are put into a ladder network with 3 equal sub-parts of each. The modified total duration for total completion of all the activities will be

a. 35 days

b. 37 days

c. 39 days



4 of 17d. 41 days

26. A part of the network with nomenclature of a typical legend is shown in the given figure. There can be other incoming activities at nodes 5, 6 and 8 but there are no other incoming activities at nodes 7 and 9. There are two outgoing activities at node 9 but no other outgoing activity at any of the other node. The other float and free float in activity 6-7 are respectively

a. 5 and 1

b. 6 and zero

c. 6 and 1

d. zero and zero

27. There are four consecutive activities in a simple linear network, each with mean duration of T and each with ‘k’ as the standard deviation of its duration. The overall project duration through these activities is likely to be in the range

a. 4T k

b. 4T 2k

c. 4T 4k

d. 4T 6k

28. A certain type of resource can be deployed in a variable strength during parts of the duration of an activity. The following are the data in the context :

1. Six weeks duration with 10 units of the resource in each week, or

2. four weeks duration with 7 units in each week followed by 5 weeks duration with 5 units in each week, or

3. eight weeks duration with 7 units in each week, or

4. four weeks duration with 7 units in each week followed by 3 weeks duration with 10 units in each week

For developing the CPM network involving this activity therein, the duration of this activity will be considered as

a. 9 weeks

b. 8 weeks

c. 7 weeks

d. 6 weeks

29. A project is of 4 months’ duration and needs expenditure of Rs. 15, 000 per month uniformly, which should be available readily on hand at the beginning of each month. Bills can be raised with 15% profit over cost at the end of each month of work. The amount due on a bill raised will be reimbursed with a further month’ delay without any deductions. The working capital required and the duration for which its maximum is needed are respectively

a. Rs. 15,000 and from beginning to end of month 1

b. Rs. 15,000 and uniformly beginning to end of month 4

c. Rs. 30,000 and from end of moth 1 to end of month 2

d. Rs. 45,000 and just at the end of the 2nd month

30. Five activities are scheduled between time–– 3 days and time –– 14 days in a bar chart. Resources loading per day for these activities, along with their durations are read on the bar chart grid are :

Activity A B C D E

Duration 3–8 4–12

10–14 7–11

11–14

Resource lo-ading per day

5 4 8 3 2

Match List I (Resource loading per day) with List II (Day number) derive from above data and select the correct answer :

List I

A. 16

B. 15

C. 14

D. 12

List II

1. 12th

2. 14th

3. None

4. 11th

5. 8th



5 of 17 A B C D

a. 3 4 5 2

b. 4 3 1 5

c. 4 2 5 1

d. 3 4 1 5

31. Assertion (A) : In a two-dimensional stress system, the direct stresses on two planes at 45o an 135o to the principal planes have the same magnitude and nature and shear stress.

Reason (R) : Points representing these stresses are on the ends of vertical diameter of the Mohr’s circle.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

32. Consider a circular shaft of radius ‘R’ having the maximum shear stress ‘fS’ developed by an applied torque.

Assertion (A) : The shear stress ‘q’ at a point on the section having coordinate (0, y) if fS y /R.

Reason (R) : In the shaft, the shear stress ‘q’ at a point of coordinate (x, y) is

2 2Sf x yR

.





33. Assertion (A) : Project-time-cost schedules (inclusive of indirect costs) always show decreasing overall cost for decreasing overall project duration (so long a such compression is feasible).

Reason (R) : Generally, the incremental rate increases or consumption of a resource increases.





34. Assertion (A) : The use of fly ash as an admixture in concrete reduces segregation and bleedings.

Reason (R) : The use of fly ash as a replacement of sand in a lean-mix increase the workability and has no significant effect on drying shrinkage of concrete.





35. Assertion (A) : Lime mortar is able to retain its bond with masonry unit and be free from cracks.

Reason (R) : Lime mortar undergoes only negligible volume change after setting and initial shrinkage.





36. Assertion (A) : Shear capacity of a concrete beam increases with the increase in tension reinforcement.

Reason (R) : Increase in tension reinforcement increases aggregate interlocking force.





37. Assertion (A) : Tensile reinforcement bars of a rectangular beam are bent at suitable placed.

Reason (R) : Bent tensile reinforcement bars in a rectangular beam resist bending moment and provide local bond stress.







6 of 1738. Assertion (A) : In the analysis of rigid

frames by the energy method, it is usually considered sufficient to calculate the total strain energy due to flexure only

Reason (R) : The strain energies due to axial force and shear are normally insignificant when compared to that for flexure.





39. Assertion (A) : In the analysis of two-dimensional stresses, the normal stress on a plane will be greater than the average principal stress, if the inclination of that plane with the plane of maximum principal stress is less than 45o.

Reason (R) : The horizontal co-ordinate of the point on the Mohr’s circle represents the stresses on the given plane which is greater than the coordinate of the centre of Mohr’s circle.





40. Assertion (A) : Crawler mounted power shovels have low speeds.

Reason (R) : Power shovels are usable with all classes of earth and rocks.





41. Assertion (A) : Crane and bucket arrangement is always and at all places preferable over tower and buckets arrangements for placement of concrete.

Reason (R) : With cranes, haul distances for buckets can be reduced.





42. Assertion (A) : When a mild steel bar is tested in tension, the stress drops down from upper yield point to lower yield point without elongation.

Reason (R) : The boundaries of grains of mild steel are composed of brittle material.





43. Assertion (A) : The vertical member of Howe roof truss is made of steel.

Reason (R) : ordinarily wood is not used fro tension members.





44. Assertion (A) : Battening of column shall be done where the columns are subjected to eccentric loading in the plane of battens.

Reason (R) : Batten plates are designed to resist moments and longitudinal forces arising due to transverse shear force.





45. Assertion (A) : A through truss bridge is supported at the level of upper chord.

Reason (R) : Wind has a tendency to overtum the bridge about the lower chord of leeward truss.







7 of 1746. Each bolt shown in the given figure is

capable of resisting a shear force of 20 kN and tension of 15 kN. The interaction equation between the forces is

a. 1.4

40 30

P P

b. 1.480 15

P P

c. 1.480 30

P P

d. 1.440 15

P P

47. Which one of the following plan views of a gusseted base plate will result in minimum base plate thickness ?

a.

b.

c.

d. 48. The permissible stresses in rivets under

wind load conditions as per IS : 800 can be exceeded by about

a. 15%

b. 25%

c. 33%

d. 50%

49. Consider the following statements regarding pin connections :

1. Moment at pin connection is zero

2. Only one pin is used in a connection

3. Secondary stresses do not occur

4. They are rigid.

Which of these are the advantages of pin connections ?

a. 1, 3 and 4

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 3

d. 1 and 3

50. Which one of the following statements regarding the riveted joint shown in the given figure is correct ?

a. In elastic theory all rivets equal forces

b. In plastic theory all rivets carry equal forces

c. Both in elastic and plastic theories all rivets carry equal forces

d. In plastic theory the outer rivets A and D carry greater proportion of load

51. In an eccentrically loaded bearing type connection, Pdx and Pdy are the components of the direct load. Ptx and Pty are the components of the direct load. Ptx and Pty are the components of the torsional load. The maximum load on any connector is given by

a. 2 2) ( )dx tx dy tyP P P P

b. 2 2) ( )dx ty dy txP P P P

c. 2 2) ( )dx tx dy tyP P P P

d. 2 2) ( )dx ty dy txP P P P

52. The economic spacing of a roof truss depends upon the

a. cost of purlins and cost of roof covering

b. cost of roof covering and dead loads



8 of 17c. dead loads and live loads

d. live loads and cost of purlins


Bearing stiffeners are provided in a plate girder

1. to avoid local bending failure of flange

2. to prevent buckling of web.

3. to strengthen the web

4. under uniformly distributed loads


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 2 and 3

c. 1, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 4

54. As per IS : 800 in the case of a plate girder with vertical and horizontal stiffeners, the greater and lesser unsupported clear dimension of a web panel in terms of web thickness ‘tw’ should not exceed respectively

a. 180 tw and 85 tw

b. 270 tw and 200 tw

c. 270 tw and 180 tw

d. 400 tw and 250 tw

55. In a truss girder of a bridge, a diagonal consists of mild steel falt 400 ISF and carries a pull of 800 kN. If the gross diameter of the rivets is 26 mm, then the number of rivets required in the splice is

a. 6

b. 7

c. 8

d. 9

56. Which one of the following is the load factor ?

a. Live load / Dead load

b. Failure load / Working load

c. Total load / Dead load

d. Dynamic load / Static load

57. Ina cantilever of span ‘L’, subjected to a concentrated load of ‘W’ acting at a distance of 1/3 L from the free end, the deflection under load will be

a. WL3 / 3 El

b. WL3 / 81 El

c. 14 WL3 / 81 El

d. WL3 / 81 El

58. A beam of constant El is shown in the given figure :

Which one of the following sketches gives a probable failure mechanism of this beam under plastic analysis ?

a.

b.

c.

d. 59. Consider the following statements :

In the stiffness method of analysis,

1. statically indeterminate structures along are considered

2. both statically determinate and indeterminate structures can be considered.

3. it is necessary to identify the redundant.

4. the displacements are considered a the unknowns

5. to calculate of equilibrium, it will be convenient to develop the stiffness matrix for the structure


a. 1, 3 and 4

b. 1, 3 and 5

c. 2, 4 and 5



9 of 17d. 2, 3 4 and 5

60. Match List I(Actual beam) with List II(Conjugate beam) on the basis of analogy and select the correct answer :

List I

A. Curvature

B. Deflection

C. Slope

List II

1. Shear

2. Load

3. Moment

A B C

a. 2 1 3

b. 2 3 1

c. 3 1 2

d. 1 3 2

61. A simply supported beam of uniform flexural rigidity is loaded as shown in the given figure. The rotations of the end ‘A’ is

a. PL2 / 9 El

b. PL2 / 6 El

c. PL2 / 18 El

d. PL2 / 12 El

62. A circular segmental three-hinged arch of span 36 m and a rise of 6 ml is hinged at the crown the springings. It carries a horizontal load of 1000 N/m covering full height of the arch on left side. The horizontal thrust on the right springing will be

a. 6000 N

b. 4500 N

c. 3000 N

d. 1500 N

63. A rigid cantilever frame ABC is fixed at ‘C’ and carries a couple ‘’ at the free end ‘A’ as shown in the given figure. Neglecting axial deformation and assuming the flexural rigidity ‘EI’ to be constant throughout the frame, the vertical deflection of A is

a.

μ

2

l lh

EI

b. 2μ

2

l lh

EI

c. 2μh

2

hl

EI

d. μh

2

hl

EI

64. A propped cantilever of uniform flexural rigidity is loaded as shown in the given figure. The bending moment at fixed end A is

a. 150 kNm sagging

b. 3000 kNm sagging

c. 600 kNm hogging

d. 300 kNm hogging

65. The slope deflection equation at end 2 of the member 1-2 for the frame shown in the figure is given by

a. 21 1 2

22 2

EIM WL

L

b. 21 1

2 32

EIM

L L

c. 21 1

2 32

EIM

L L

d. 21 1 2

2 32

EIM WL

L L

66. Consider the following assumptions :



10 of 171. All members have same cross-

sectional area

2. The bending resistance of all the members is small in comparison with their axial force resistance

3. All the external loads are applied directly or indirectly at the joints

4. All joints are idealized to be frictionless hinges.

Which of these are the assumptions made in the force analysis of simple trusses ?

a. 1, 2 and 4

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 3

d. 3, and 4

67. The strain due to bending in the cantilever beam shown in the figure is

a.

3

PL

EI

b. 2 2

6

P L

EI

c. 2 2P L

EI

d. 2 2

2

P L

EI

68. In the portal frame shown in the given figure, the ratio of sway moments in columns AB and CD will be equal to

a. 1/3

b. 2/3

c. 9/8

d. 13/8

69. The total (both internal and external) degree of static indeterminacy of the plane shown in the given figure is

a. 18

b. 16

c. 14

d. 13

70. If a point load acting at the mid-span of a fixed beam of uniform section produces fixed end moments of 60 kNm, then the same load spread uniformly over the entire span will produced fixed end moments equal to

a. 20 kNm

b. 30 kNm

c. 30 kNm

d. 45 kNm

71. Displacement coordinates for a beam are shown in the given figure. The stiffness matrix is given by

a. 3 EI EI

EI 2 EI

b. 3 EI 0.5 EI

0.5 EI 2 EI

c. 3 EI 0

0 2 EI

d. 3 EI 0.5 EI

0.5 EI 2 EI


List I(Collapse load for a

A. Fixed beam with a central point load

B. Fixed beam with a udl of intensity ‘wc’

C. Propped cantilever with a central point load

D. Simply supported beam with a central point load

List II



11 of 171. 8 Mp / L

2. 16 Mp / L

3. 6 Mp / L

4. 4 Mp / L

A B C D

a. 1 2 4 3

b. 2 1 3 4

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 1 2 3 4

73. The given figures show a beam with its influence line for shear force and bending moment at section ‘1’ :

The values of the shear force and bending moment at section ‘1’ due to a concentrated load of 20 kN placed at mid-span will be

a. 0.75 kN and 2.25 kNm

b. 5 kN and 5 kNm

c. 7.5 kN and 10 kNm

d. 10 kN and 30 kNm

74. If an analysis of the frame shown in the given figure indicated final moment (−) 40 kNm at A and B of the column AB, then the moment MCD will be

a. −5 kNm

b. −10 kNm

c. −20 kNm

d. −40 kNm

75. The flexibility matrix of the beam shown in the given figure is

a.

64 8

EI EI8 8

EI 3EI

b.

64 8

3EI EI8 64

EI 3EI

c.

64 8

3EI EI8 4

EI EI

d.

64 8

3EI EI4 8

EI EI

76. The portal frame shown in figure I was analysed, and the final column moments were found to be as shown in figure II. The value of P is

a. 25 kN

b. 41 kN

c. 45 kN

d. 50 kN

77. For the beam AB shown in the figure, the fixed end moments at ends A and B will be respectively

a. −3.6 kNm and + 1.1 kNm

b. −5.4 kNm and + 4.6 kNm

c. −2.4 kNm and + 3.6 kNm

d. −3.6 kNm and + 6 kNm



12 of 1778. A beam with cantilevered ends is shown in

the given figure. Which one of the following diagrams represent the influence line diagram for shear for a section just to the right of the support ‘A’ ?

a.

b.

c.

d. 79. The failure mechanism for the rigid frame

shown in the given figure I (Assume constant El)

a.

b.

c. d. can (a), (b) or (c) depending upon the

relative values of W, P and member dimensions

80. For the frame shown in the figure, the distribution factors for members CB, CD and CG are respectively (Assume EI as constant)

a. 14 / 29 , 8 /29 and 7 /29

b. 7 / 29 , 14 /29 and 8 /29

c. 7 / 29 , 8 /29 and 14 /29

d. 14 / 29 , 7 /29 and 8 /29

81. A member coordinate system is shown in the given figure. The symmetric stiffness square matrix obtained for the member AB of length ‘l’ with flexural rigidity ‘EI’ by using the slope deflection equation and rules of matrix multiplication is as follows:

A

A

B

B

Symmetric

/Stiffness2

Square

/Matrix

AB

AB

BA

BA

M

S lELM l

S d l

The correct sequence of elements of the first row of the symmetric stiffness square matrix is

a. 2, 3, 1 and 3

b. 2, 3, −1 and −3

c. 2, 3, 1 and −3

d. 1, 3, 2 and −3

82. The influence line diagram for reaction B of the beam shown in figure I is

a.

b.

c.

d.



13 of 1783. A simply supported I beam with its web

horizontal is shown in the given figure. It is subjected to a vertical load.

The shape of the shear stress distribution in the cross-section of the beam under the load would be

a.

b.

c.

d. 84. Match List I with List II and select the

correct answer :

List I

A. Tenacity

B. Plasticity

C. Ductility

D. Malleability

List II

1. Continues to deform without much increase of stress

2. Ultimate strength in tension

3. Extension in a direction without rupture

4. Ability to be drawn out by tension to a small section without rupture

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 2 1 3 4

c. 1 2 4 3

d. 1 2 3 4

85. A Steel bar, 300 mm long and 24 mm diameter, is turned down to 18 mm

diameter for one third of its length. It is heated 30o C above room temperature, clamped at both ends and then allowed to cool to room temperature. It the distance between the clamps is unchanged, the maximum stress is the bar

( = 12.510−6 per oC and E = 200 GN/m2 is

a. 25 MN / m2

b. 50 MN / m2

c. 75 MN / m2

d. 100 MN / m2

86. A rigid beam CBDA is hinged at A and supported by two springs at C and B with a vertical load ‘P’ at point D as shown in the given figure. The ratio of stiffness (k2 /k1) of springs at B and C is 2. The ratio of forces in spring at C to that at B is

a. 3/4

b. 1

c. 4/3

d. 2

87. A bar of uniform section is subjected to axial tensile loads such that the normal strain in the axial direction is 1.25 mm per m. If the Poisson’s ratio of the material of the bar is 0.3, the volumetric strain would be

a. 2 10−4

b. 3 10−4

c. 4 10−4

d. 5 10−4

88. A square plot (a a) rigidly held at three edges is free to move along the fourth edge. If temperature of the plate is raised by temperature ‘t’, then the free expansion at the fourth edge will be (coefficient of thermal expansion of the material = , modulus of elasticity of the material = E and its Poisson’s ratio = v)

a. a t v

b. a t (1 + v)



14 of 17

c. a t + t v

E

d. a t (1 − v)

89. Match List I (Elastic constant) with List II (Definition) and select the correct answer :

List I

A. Young’s modulus

B. Poisson’s ratio

C. Bulk modulus

D. Rigidity modulus

List II

The ratio of

1. Lateral strain to linear strain within elastic limit

2. stress to strain within elastic limit

3. shear stress to shear strain within

4. direct stress to corresponding volumetric strain

A B C D

a. 3 1 4 2

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 2 4 1 3

d. 3 4 1 2

90. For a linear, elastic, isotropic material , the number of independent elastic constants is

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

91. Match List I(Theory of failures) with List II (Scientists) and select the correct answer:

List I

A. Maximum principal stress theory

B. Maximum shear stress theory

C. Maximum principal strain theory

D. Maximum distortion energy theory

List II

1. St. Venant

2. Beltrami and Ttaigh

3. Tresca

4. Von-Mises

5. Rankine

A B C D

a. 5 3 1 4

b. 5 1 2 4

c. 3 5 1 2

d. 3 1 2 5

92. A member is made of structural steel. When it is subjected to simple tension, the limit of proportionally is 280 N mm2. If the principal stress p1 and p2 developed in the member are 100 N/mm2 (tensile) and 40 Nmm2 (compressive) respectively and Poisson’s ratio is 0.30, then the factor of safety according to maximum shear stress theory would be

a. 2.75

b. 2.5

c. 2.25

d. 2.0

93. A beam ABC has simply supported span AB and overhanging span BC. The bending moment diagram for the beam is given in the following figure :

The loading diagram for the beam would correspond to

a.

b.

c.

d. 94. The load diagram and bending moment

diagram of a beam are shown in the following figures :



15 of 17

The shear force at B would be

a. 93.33 kN

b. 120 kN

c. 146.66 kN

d. 200 kN

95. A loaded beam PQRS is shown in the given figure .

The magnitude of reaction at R will be zero if the value of load ‘W’ is

a. 2 kN

b. 2.5 kN

c. 3 kN

d. 6 kN

96. A cantilever beam is 2 m long. The cross-section of the beam is hollow square, with external sides 60 mm and the internal side is such that 1 = 6 105 mm4. If the safe bending stress for the material is 100 N/mm2, the safe concentrated load at the free end would be

a. 400 N

b. 500 N

c. 600 N

d. 1000 N

97. A test is conducted on a beam loaded by end couples. The fibres at layer CD are found to lengthen by 0.03 mm and fibres at layer AB shorten by 0.09 mm in 20 mm gauage length as shown in the given figure Taking E = 2105 N/mm2, the flexural stress at top fibres would be

a. 900 N/mm2 tensile

b. 1000 N/mm2 tensile

c. 1200 N/mm2 tensile

d. 1200 N/mm2 compressive

98. In the case of a square beam subjected to couples acting about X-X axis, it is advisable to cut off the edges and keep the section as shown in the given figure because it increases

a. stresses in the beam

b. stresses and reduces the weight of the beam

c. the moment of inertia of the beam

d. the section modulus

99. A solid shaft of 100 mm diameter in a small hydraulic turbine is subjected to an axial compressive load of 100 kN and a torque of 5 kNm. The maximum shear stress induced in the shaft is

a. 20 3 N/mm2

b. 20 8 N/mm2

c. 20 15 N/mm2

d. 20 17 N/mm2

100. A solid circular shaft is subjected to a torque “T” Nm, which produces a maximum shear stress of fS N/mm2 in the shaft. These required diameter of the shaft would be

a. 1

1610

S

T

f

b. 1/3

1016

Sf

T

c. 1/2

1610

S

T

f

d. 1/2

1016

Sf

T

101. The principal stresses at a point in a strained material are p1 and p2. The resultant stress pr on the plane carrying the maximum shear stress would be

a. 1/22 2

1 2

2

p p



16 of 17

b. 1/22 2

1 2

2

p p

c. 1/22 21 22 p p

d. 2 2 1/21 22[ ]p p

102. If a prismatic member having are a of cross-section ‘A’ is subjected to a tensile load ‘P’, then the maximum shear stress and its inclination with the direction of load will be

a. P/A and 45 o

b. 2P /A and 45 o

c. P/2A and 45 o

d. P/A and 60o

103. A king closer is a

a. full brick

b. ¾ brick

c. longitudinally ½ brick

d. crosswise ½ brick

104. Brick masonry walls and columns of a building are to be protected from earthquake. The earthquake proofing is done by providing

a. cross walls

b. less openings

c. under-reamed piles

d. a steel band at corners above windows below ceiling

105. When a beam or truss is placed on a masonry wall, it is supported on bed stone or bed plate. The bed stone or bed plate is necessary to

a. Add to aesthetic appearance

b. Transfer the reaction over a larger contact area

c. Increase stability of beam or truss

d. Prevent outward thrust on the wall

106. If modular ratio is ‘m’, effective depth is D and stress ratio is r (r = st /cbc), the depth of neutral axis of a balanced section is

a. .m

Dm r

b. .m

Dm r

c. .m r

Dm

d. .m

Dr


Bars that extend into a simple support must be able to develop their full strength at a designated point ‘1’ so that their moment capacity is more than the bending moment at that point. The clauses of the code require that (s = 0.85 sy)

1. 11.3d o

ML L

V

2. 11.3

4s

obd

ML

V

3. 14 1.3bdo

s

ML

V


a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3

108. Lateral ties in RC columns are provided to resist

a. bending moment

b. shear

c. buckling of longitudinal steel bars

d. both bending moment and shear

109. For maximum sagging bending moment in a given span of a multiple span beam

a. that very span as well as alternate spans are loaded

b. adjacent spans are loaded

c. spans adjoining this span are loaded

d. adjacent spans are unloaded and next spans are loaded

110. In post-tensioned prestressed concrete beam, the end block zone is the zone between the end of the beam and the section where

a. no lateral stresses exist

b. only longitudinal stresses exist

c. only shear stresses exist

d. the shear stresses are maximum

111. Match list I with List Ii and select the correct answer

List I

A. Minimum percentage of tension reinforcement of RC beam



17 of 17B. Minimum percentage of shear

reinforcement of RC beam

C. Maximum allowable percentage of tension reinforcement of RC beam

D. Maximum allowable percentage of compression reinforcement of RC beam

List II

1. 4

2. 85 / fv

3. 40 SV / fy d

A B C D

a. 2 1 3 1

b. 2 3 1 1

c. 1 3 1 2

d. 3 2 1 1

112. According to Whitney’s theory, the maximum depth of concrete stress block in a balanced RCC beam section of depth ‘d’ is

a. 0.3 d

b. 0.43 d

c. 0.5 d

d. 0.53

113. Partial safety for concrete and steel are 1.5 and 1.15 respectively, because

a. Concrete is heterogeneous while steel is homogeneous

b. The control on the quality of concrete is not as good as that of steel

c. Concrete is weak in tension

d. Voids in concrete are 0.5% while those in steel are 0.15%

114. The propagation of a shear crack in a prestressed concrete member depends on

a. Tensile reinforcement

b. Compression reinforcement

c. Shear reinforcement

d. Shape of the cross-section of the beam

115. A compared to working stress method of design, limit state method takes concrete to

a. a higher stress level

b. A lower stress level

c. The same stress level

d. Sometimes higher but generally lower stress level

116. While checking shear resistance of reinforced concrete beams for limit state of collapse as per IS : 456, which one of the following nominal shear stress recommendations is to be adhered to ? (Vu is shear force at vertical cross-section, ‘b’ and ‘d’ are overall breadth and effective depth of beam respectively)

a. 0.5 Vu /bd

b. 2 Vu / 5 bd

c. Vu / 0.5 bd

d. Vu / bd

117. As per IS : 456, for a singly reinforced rectangular section,

a. .maxux

dfor Fe 415 is 0.48

b. the depth of centroid of compression is 0.43 xu. max

c. the depth of the rectangular position of the stress block is 0.38 xu. max

d. The maximum value of lever arm is d—xu. max

118. Fro the purpose of design as per IS : 456, deflection of RC slab or beam is limited to

a. 0.2% of span

b. 0.25 % of span

c. 0.4 % of span

d. 0.45% of span

119. As per IS : 456, side face reinforcement, not less than 0.05% of web area, is provided on each side when the depth of web is not less than

a. 300 mm

b. 400 mm

c. 500 mm

d. 750 mm

120. The yield line theory is a

a. lower bound method of design of over-reinforced slabs

b. lower bound method of design of under–reinforced slabs

c. upper bound method of analysis of under–reinforced slabs

d. upper bound method of analysis of under–reinforced slabs



1 of 14

(PAPER – I)

1. In an axially loaded spirally reinforced

short column, the concrete inside the core is subjected to a. bending and compression b. biaxial compression c. triaxial compression d. uniaxial compression

2. The maximum permissible shear stress c

max given in BIS 456-1978 is based on a. diagonal tension failure b. diagonal compression failure c. flexural tension failure d. flexural compression failure

3. If the loading on a simply supported pre-stressed concrete beam is uniformly distributed, the centroid of tendons should be preferably a. a straight profile along the centroidal

axis b. a straight profile along with the lower

kem c. a parabolic profile with convexity

downward d. a circular profile with convexity

upward 4. In the design of a masonry retaining wall,

the a. vertical load should fall within the

middle-third of base width b. horizontal thrust should act as h/3 from

base c. resultant load should fall within a

distance of one-sixth of base width on either side of its midpoint

d. resultant load should fall within a distance of one-eighth of base width on either side of its midpoint

5. In the prestressed concrete beam section shown in the given figure (all dimensions in mm is the figure), if the net losses are 15% and final prestressing force applied at ‘A’ is 500 kN, the initial extreme fibre

stresses at top and bottom will be respectively

a. –3.40 N/mm2 and 16.70 N/mm2 b. –3.40 N/mm2 and 19.60 N/mm2 c. –4.0 N/mm2 and 16.70 N/mm2 d. –4.0 N/mm2 and 19.60 N/mm2

6. Consider the following statements : The design for the limit state of collapse in flexure is based on the following assumptions : 1. Plane sections normal to the axis

remain 2. the maximum strain in concrete at the

outermost tension fibre is 0.0035 3. The relationship between the

compressive stress distribution is concrete and the strain in concrete may be assumed to the rectangular, trapezoidal, parabolic or any other shape which results in prediction of strength in substantial agreement with the results of tests

Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2

7. In case of deep beam or in thin webbed R.C.C. members, the first crack form is a. flexural crack b. diagonal crack due to compression c. diagonal crack due to tension d. shear crack

8. The stress block in concrete for an estimate of ultimate strength in flexure of a prestressed beam

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001




2 of 14a. should be parabolic b. should be parabolic-rectangular c. should be rectangular d. may be of any shape which provides

agreement with the test data 9. The chances of diagonal tension cracks in

R.C.C. member reduce when a. axial compression and shear force act

simultaneously b. axial tension and shear force act

simultaneously c. only shear force act d. flexural and shear force act

simultaneously 10. The probability of failure implied in limit

state design is of the order of a. 10–2 b. 10–3 c. 10–4 d. 10–5

11. Cross sectional area of metal core in composite column should not be more than a. 4% b. 8% c. 16% d. 20%

12. Assertion (A) : For equal distribution of moment at the support ‘B’ of the beam shown in the given figure the span length x required = 3/4 l. Reason (R) : For equal distribution of moment for the beam shown in the figure at ‘B’, I/l = 3l/4x.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the



13. Assertion (A) : Calcium chloride addition in concrete proves more effective in slow-hardening portland cement than in rapid-hardening cement. Reason (R) : Calcium chloride acts as an effective accelerator thereby increasing rate of reaction.




14. Assertion (A) : In the hydraulically-controlled bulldozers, the blade can be force into the ground more accurately than in the cable-controlled bulldozers. Reason (R) : High friction on the blade is produced in addition to its with in the hydraulically-controlled bulldozers. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



15. Assertion (A) : Te failure surface of a mild steel torsion specimen subjected to a torque about its axis along a surface perpendicular to its axis. Reason (R) : Mild steel is relatively weaker in shear than in tension and the plane of maximum shear is perpendicular to its axis. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



16. Consider the loaded beam shown in the given figure.

Assertion (A) : The deflection at the free end ‘C’ is ‘a’ times the slope at A. Reason (R) : The elastic curve for the overhang portion AC or BD is a straight line tangential to the elastic curve at A and B. a. Both A and R are true and R is the





3 of 1417. Assertion (A) : In a pin-jointed plane

frame consisting of straight members the total strain energy ‘U’ of the system may be expressed as

U = 2

2

S L

AE

Where S is the axial force, A the uniform cross-sectional area and L the length of the individual member. E is the modulus of elasticity of the member material. Reason (R) : In pin-jointed plane frames only axial forces are present. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



18. Assertion (A) : In a cantilever, the I.L. diagram for deflection at the free end is same as elastic curve of the beam due to unit load placed at the free end. Reason (R) : By Maxwell’s Reciprocal theorem, the deflection at the free end, due to various positions of unit load on the span, equals deflection at those placed of unit moving load due to static unit load at the free end. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



19. Assertion (A) : Impact factor is used in the design of a gantry girder. Reason (R) : Loads transferred to the gantry girder are momentary. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



20. Assertion (A) : According to BIS 456-1978, over-reinforced sections are not permitted. Reason (R) : There is ductile failure of over-reinforced sections.




21. Assertion (A) : Over-reinforced design of reinforced concrete sections is undesirable. Reason (R) : Tension failure of reinforced concrete sections is sudden. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



22. On application of external stress on timbers, it behaves like a. an elastic material b. non-elastic material c. viscoelastic material d. non-viscoelastic material

23. The ratio of tangential shrinkage to radial shrinkage of wood due to reduction in moisture content is a. in the range from 3.1 to 5.1 b. in the range from 2 to 3 c. in the range from 1 to 2 d. less than or equal to 1

24. Which one of the following procedure is applied to determine the soundness of bricks ? a. Immersing the brick under water for 16

hrs and determining the quantity of water absorbed by the brick

b. immersing the brick under water of 24 hrs and determining its expansion using Le Chatelier apparatus

c. taking two bricks, hitting one against the other and observing whether they break or not and the type of sound produced while hitting

d. scratching the brick by finger nail and noting whether any impression is made or not

25. The number of bricks required per cubic metre of brick masonry is a. 400 b. 450



4 of 14c. 500 d. 550

26. The bricks which are extensively used for basic refractories in furnaces are a. Chrome bricks b. Sillimanite bricks c. Magnesite bricks d. Fosterite bricks

27. Consider the following statements : High Alumina cement (HAC) 1. has high early compressive strength

and high heat of hydration than OPC-43 grade.

2. is not suitable to be used in cold regions

Which of these statements is/are correct ? a. 1 alone b. 2 alone c. both 1 and 2 d. neither 1 and 2

28. Consider the following statements : when cement is tested for setting time; on gauging its shows quick setting. This phenomenon known as “Flash set” of cement is due to the presence of high 1. Tricalcium Aluminate (C3A) in cement 2. Alkalies in cement 3. Tricalcium Silicate (C3S) in cement Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 1 and 3

29. Which one of the following statements regarding the cement fineness is NOT correct ? a. Fine cement is more liable to suffer

from shrinkage cracking than a coarse cement

b. Fine cement will show faster rate of hardening than coarse cement

c. Fine cement shows faster rate of heat evolution and total quantity of heat evolve is much larger than coarse cement

d. Fine cement shows the same setting time as coarse cement

30. For marine works, the best suited cement is

a. low heat portland cement b. rapid hardening cement c. ordinary portland cement d. blast furnace slage cement

31. The maximum bulking of sand is likely to occur at a moisture content of a. 5% b. 8% c. 11% d. 14%

32. One of the main demerits in using the lime mortar is that it a. is not durable b. does not set quickly c. swells d. is plastic

33. Which one of the following types of concrete is most suitable in extreme cold climates ? a. Air-entrained b. Ready mix concrete c. Vacuum concrete d. Coarse concrete

34. Match List I(Workability test) with List II (Measurements) and select the correct answer : List I A. Slump test B. Compacting factor C. Vebe test D. Flow test List II 1. 300 mm to 500 mm 2. 75 mm to 125 mm 3. 0.80 to 0.98 4. zero to 10 s A B C D a. 2 4 3 1 b. 1 3 4 2 c. 1 4 3 2 d. 2 3 4 1

35. Consider the following statements : Curing of concrete by steam under pressure 1. increases the compressive strength of

concrete 2. reduces the shear strength of concrete



5 of 143. increases the speed of chemical

reaction. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 alone c. 2 and 3 d. 3 alone

36. Which one of the following aggregates given maximum strength in concrete ? a. Rounded aggregate b. Elongated aggregate c. Flaky aggregate d. Cubical aggregate

37. Consider the following statements : Ultrasonic pulse velocity test to measure the strength of concrete is 1. used to measure the strength of wet

concrete 2. used to obtain estimate of concrete

strength of finished concrete elements 3. a non-destructive test Of these statements a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct b. 2 and 3 are correct c. 1 and 2 are correct d. 1 and 3 are correct

38. The given figure shows the Tee junction in brick masonry which is known as

a. English bond b. English cross bond c. Flemish bond d. Double Flemish bond

39. Guniting is the application of mortor a. on a surface under pneumatic pressure b. on a vertical surface c. on brickwork by manual method d. of fluid consistency for repair works

40. In building construction, the place for providing dampproof course is at the a. basement level b. window sill level

c. lintel level d. roof level

41. A construction concrete mixer of capacity 0.8 m3 is used and the mixer discharges the entire batch of concrete into a single hopper. The time per cycle may be taken for changing, mixing and discharging mixes as 1.6 minutes and lost time may be taken as 0.15 minutes. The number of batches per hour is equal to

a. 60

1.6 0.15

b. 60

0.151.6

c. 60 0.15

0.81.6

d. 60

1.6 0.15

42. Which of the following statements are the advantages of surface vibrators? Surface vibrators are best suited 1. for one way reinforced slabs and road

surfaces 2. when depth of the concrete to be

vibrated exceeds 250 mm. 3. where immersion vibrations are

impracticable. a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3

43. The output Q of the earth moving equipment like excavators, shovels, loaders (where q is production per cycle in m3 and c is cycle time in seconds) is

a. 33600 efficiency/

qm hr

c

b. q 3600 efficiency m3/hr

c. qc 3600 efficiency m3/hr

d. q 3600 m3/hr 44. For a given load rating, the operating

radius of crane can be increased by a. increasing weight of the machine b. increasing engine horse power c. increasing the length of boom or arm d. operating the crane slowly

45. Concreting at site can start on any one day, with all preparations having been done on



6 of 14the previous day. As per the past experience of owner, contractor and the architect, it is decided that the chance of any one being late is 0.4. The chance of starting on time on the appointed day is a. 0.064 b. 0.216 c. 0.288 d. 0.432

46. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence follow a. Normal distribution curve

b. –distribution curve c. Poisson’s distribution curve d. Binomial distribution curve

47. Activity ‘C’ follows activity ‘A’ and activity ‘D’ follows activities ‘A’ and ‘B’. The correct network for the projects is

a.

b.

c.

d. 48. Consider the following statements

regarding the curve shown in the given figure :

As the gang size increases,

1. the out-tum rate of the gang will always increase irrespective of the number of gang

2. The out-tum rate of the gang will decrease once it exceeds the optimal number

3. beyond the optimal number, the inefficiency of the gang will increase.

Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3

49. In the time-cost analysis, the cost slope is defined as

a. Crash cost Normal cost

Crash time Normal time

b. Crash time Normal time

Crash cost Normal cost

c. Crash cost Normal cost

Normal time Crash time

d. Normal cost Crash cost

Normal time Crash time

50. Which one of the following is the base for resource levelling? a. Delaying the completion of critical

activities b. Delaying the start of non-critical

activities c. Reducing completion time of critical

activities d. Not delaying the completion of critical

activities 51. A construction equipment has a useful life

of 5 years after which it is to be replaced by a new one. If the interest rate is 4%, the sinking fund factor will be a. 0.033 b. 0.184 c. 0.224 d. 0.232

52. Pay-back period gives an estimate of a. profitability b. liquidity c. time-value of money d. interest rate of return

53. For supplying water to a city, two alternate design concepts are beings considered with 8% p.a. discrete compounding as the criterion. A rock tunnel of indefinitely long life will cost Rs. 30 lakhs now, and


7 of 14will need Rs. 60,000 per year for operations. The alternative is by a pipe line system, with an expected life of 20 years, at a first cost of Rs. 20 lakhs now, and will need annual operating expenses of Rs. 92,000. In term of annualized costs, the tunnel system will have a relative advantage of (give C.R.F. at 8% p.a. discrete compounding for 20 years = 0.10185) nearly a. Rs. 14,000 b. Rs. 11,000 c. Rs. 8,200 d. Rs. 4,300

54. Payment allowance is selected keeping in mind a. overall cost b. normal profit and total time c. overall cost and total time d. overall cost, normal profit and total

time 55. A unique relation between bending

movement (M) and intensity of load(w) acting continuously on a beam of span (L) at a distance(x) along the axis (The flexural rigidity of beam is El) is given by

a. M = 2

8

wL

b. 2

2

d Mw

dx

c. 2

2

d MM El

dx

d. 2

12

wLM

56. Which of the following points are considered while deriving the formula

M f E

I y R ?

1. Type of material 2. Transverse shear force 3. The stresses in the remaining principal

direction

4. y = z = xz = zx = 0 5. Linear variation of strain. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 2, 3 and 5

c. 4 and 5 d. 1 and 3

57. Out of the two beams of same material and same cross-sectional area one is of circular cross-section and other is of square cross-section. If these are subjected to bending moment of same magnitude, then a. both sections would be equally strong b. both sections would be equally

economical c. square section would be more

economical than circular section d. square section would be less

economical than circular section 58. A beam has a triangular cross-section

having base 40 mm and altitude 60 mm. If this section is subjected to a shear force of 36000 N, the maximum shear stress in the cross-section would be a. 60 N/mm2 b. 36 N/mm2 c. 45 N/mm2 d. 30 N/mm2

59. Consider the following statements : The shear stress over a beam section of any shape for a given loading does not vary with 1. shear force at the section 2. area of the section 3. moment of inertial of the section Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3

60. Which one of the following shear stress distribution diagrams is correct for cross-bar section shown in the given Figure-I ?

a.



8 of 14

b.

c.

d. 61. A rectangular beam of width 100 mm is

subjected to a maximum shear force of 60 kN. The corresponding maximum shear stress in the cross-section is 4 N/mm2. The depth of the beam should be a. 150 mm b. 225 mm c. 200 mm d. 100 mm

62. Consider the following statements : When a beam of square cross-section is used with a diagonal in a vertical position, 1. the shear stress, distribution across the

section of the beam will be zero both at top and bottom

2. the shear stress distribution across the section of the beam will be zero both at top and bottom.

3. the maximum stress does not occur at neutral axis.

Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2

63. A simply supported beam ‘A’ carries a point load at its midspan. Another identical beam ‘B’ carries the same magnitude of load but it is uniformly distributed over the entire span. The ratio of the maximum deflections of beams ‘A’ and ‘B’ will be a. 8/3 b. 2/3 c. 3/5 d. 8/5

64. The maximum deflection of simply supported beam occurs at zero a. bending moment location

b. shear force location c. slope location d. shear force location and also zero

bending moment location 65. Which of the following is/are determined

at a point of a given beam by moment area method ? 1. Shear force 2. Bending moment 3. slope 4. deflection Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 and 2 b. 3 alone c. 4 alone d. 3 and 4

66. Which one of the following rules ascertains the maximum permissible eccentricity of loads on circular column so that stresses will always be compressive ? a. Middle fourth rule b. Middle third rule c. Middle half rule d. Middle two-third rule

67. The horizontal thrust at support ‘A’ in a three hinged arch shown in the given figure is

a. 2 kN b. 4 kN c. 8 kN d. 10 kN

68. A three-hinged symmetrical parabolic arch of span 20 m and 5 m carries a uniformly distributed load of 2 kN/m for the whole span. The bending moment at quarter point is a. 75 kNm (Hogging) b. 75 kNm(Sagging) c. 100 kNm(Sagging) d. zero



9 of 1469. Consider a loaded truss shown in the given

figure. Match List I(Member) with List II(Force) and select the correct answer :

List I

A. PR B. RS C. SU D. RT List II 1. 40 kN(Tension) 2. 40 kN(Compression) 3. 60 kN(Tension)

4. 50 2 kN(Compression) A B C D a. 3 2 1 4 b. 3 1 2 4 c. 4 1 2 3 d. 4 2 1 3

70. The pin jointed cantilever truss is loaded as shown in the given figure. The force in member ED is

a. 40 kN(Compressive) b. 80 kN(Tensile) c. 80 kN(Compressive) d. 120 kN(Compressive)

71. In the pin jointed plane frame shown in the given figure. The force in the member BD is

a. 50000 N (Tensile)

b. 50000 N (Compressive)

c. 50000 2 N(Tensile)

d. zero 72. A loaded pin jointed truss is shown in the

given figure. The force in member AC is

a. 10 2 kN (Tensile)

b. 10 2 kN (Compressive)

c. Zero d. 10kN (Tensile)

73. A solid shaft has diameter 80 mm. It is subjected to a torque of 4 kNm. The maximum shear stress induced in the shaft would be

a. 75/ N/mm2

b. 250/ N/mm2

c. 125/ N/mm2

d. 150/ N/mm2 74. Two steel shaft ‘A’ and ‘B’ are used for

transmitting power. The ratio of revolutions of shafts i.e. NA / NB = 2. The ratio of torques on shafts i.e. TA / TB = 1/2. The ratio of the horse power transmitted by the shaft i.e. PA/PB would be a. 1/2 b. 1/4 c. 1 d. 2

75. A bar AB of diameter 40 mm and 4 m long is rigidly fixed at its ends. A torque of 600 Nm is applied at a section of the bar, 1 m from end A. The fixing couples TA and TB at the supports A and B, respectively, are a. 450 Nm and 150 Nm b. 200 Nm and 400 Nm c. 300 Nm and 150 Nm d. 300 Nm and 100 Nm

76. A short hollow CI column section ‘A’ is 150 cm2 and the section modulus Z = 10 105 mm3 carries (i) an axial load of 250 kN, and



10 of 14(ii) a load of 50 kN on a bracket, the load line being 500 mm from the axis of column. The maximum and minimum stress intensities are a. 50 N/mm2 tensile and 10 N/mm2

compressive b. 45 N/mm2 compressive and 5 N/mm2

tensile c. 55 N/mm2 compressive and 5 N/mm2

tensile d. 60 N/mm2 tensile and 10 N/mm2

compressive 77. The strain energy in a member is

proportional to a. total strain multiplied by the volume of

the member b. product of stress and the corresponding

strain c. product of strain and Young’s modulus

of the material d. the maximum strain multiplied by the

length of the member 78. Strain energy in torsion of a shaft per unit

volume is given by (q is shear stress, E-modulus of Elasticity and G is modulus of rigidity) a. q2/2G b. q2/2E c. q2/4G d. q2/4E

79. A simply supported beam of span ‘L’ is subjected to a concentrated load W at midspan. The strain Energy due to bending in the beam would be a. W2 L3 / 48 El b. W2 L3 / 96 El c. W2 L3 / 24 El d. W L3 / 96 El

80. A mild steel bar of uniform cross-section ‘A’ and length L is subjected to an axial load ‘W’. The Strain Energy stored in the bar would be a. Wl/2 AE b. W2L/4 AE c. WL/4 AE d. W2L/2 AE

81. Creep is the gradual increase of a. plastic strain with time at constant load

b. elastic strain with time at constant load c. plastic strain with time at varying load d. elastic strain with time at varying load

82. If a shaft is simultaneously subjected to a torque T and a bending moment M, the ratio of maximum bending stress and maximum shearing stress is given by a. 2M/T b. M/T c. 2T/M d. T/M

83. If three close-coiled and two open-coiled helical springs, each having the stiffness k are connected in series then the overall stiffness is a. 5 k b. k/5

c. k/ 5

d. 6k/5 84. The ratio of tensile stress developed in the

wall of a boiler in the longitudinal direction to the tensile stress in the circumferential direction due to an internal pressure is a. 4 b. 2 c. 1/4 d. 1/2

85. In a two dimensional stress system, the two principal stresses are 1 of 180 N/mm2 (tensile) and 2 (compressive). For the material, yield stress in simple tension and compression is 240 N/mm2 and Poisson Ratio is 0.25. According to maximum normal strain theory, the value 2 of at which yielding will commence, is a. 240 N/mm2 b. 180 N/mm2 c. 195 N/mm2 d. 200 N/mm2

86. A straight cantilever of uniform cross-section carries a load ‘W’ distributed evenly over its entire length. If the free end of the cantilever is now popped upto the level of the fixed end, the vertical force required at the prop is a. 3/8 W b. 5/8 W c. 3/4 W



11 of 14d. W

87. The total degree of indeterminacy (both internal and external) for the bridge truss shown in the given figure is

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 3

88. Which one of the following steps is NOT correct in the application of moment distribution method ? a. The distribution factors are first

computed b. All supports are assumed fixed or

locked and fixed end moments are computer for each span, considered separate from every other span

c. Each support is not unlocked and the unbalanced moment is distributed to each adjacent span. Then each support is relocked

d. After distributing the unbalanced moment to each adjacent span, one half of this amount, with opposite sign is carried over to the other end of respective span.

89. A correct solution of a statically indeterminate structure as per the energy method a. is statically admissible b. is kinetically consistent c. makes the strain energy of the structure

a minimum d. can be given by (a), (b) and (c) of the

question 90. While designing multistory in deeptrial

structures, BIS code suggests the reduction in live loads because a. all the floors may not be loaded

simultaneously b. cross-section of the columns are

different at different floors c. thickness of roof slab is smaller than

the thickness of floor slabs d. of the cantilevering effect of the

building

91. A uniform beam of span ‘l’ is rigidly fixed at both supports. If carries a uniformly distributed load w per unit length. The bending moment at mid span is a. wl2 / 8 b. wl2 / 12 c. wl2 / 16 d. wl2 / 24

92. Consider the following statements : A cantilever beam of length ‘l’ is loaded with uniformly distributed load ‘w’ on the span. The beam is propped at the free end having its level same as that of the fixed end (El is constant). 1. The prop reaction is wl / 2 2. The prop reaction is 3/8 wl. 3. The bending moment at the prop =

wl2/2 4. SF is zero at x = 3/8 l from the proper

end. Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 4 d. 2 and 4

93. An applied couple ‘M’ is moving on a simply supported beam of span ‘l’ as shown in the given figure. The absolute maximum bending moment developed in the beam is

a. M/2 b. M c. 3 M/2 d. 2M

94. A continuous beam with constant El is shown in the given figure. Collapse load for this beam will be equal to

a. 16 Mp/L b. 12 Mp/L c. 8 Mp/L d. 6 Mp/L




12 of 14The Impact factor for reinforced concrete

bridges = 4.5

(6 )L (where L is the length in

metres of the span). The bridge is designed 1. for spans upto 30 m 2. for spans between 3 m and 45 m 3. either for class A or class B loading 4. for class AA and class 70 R. Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 4 d. 2 and 4

96. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Plastic hinges are reached first at

sections subjected to greatest curvature.

2. Formation of plastic hinges allows a subsequent redistribution of moment until fully plastic moment is reached at each critical section.

3. The maximum load is attained when a mechanism forms.

a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 3

97. The number of possible independent mechanisms for a portal frame shown in the given figure is

a. 2 b. 4 c. 1 d. 3

98. The collapse load of a simply supported beam of span L and fully plastic moment Mp subjected to central concentrated load is given by a. 4 Mp/L b. 6 Mp/L c. 8 Mp/L

d. 2 Mp/L 99. A propped cantilever bean of span ‘L’ and

constant plastic moment capacity Mp carries a concentrated load at mid span, then the load at collapse will be a. 8 Mp/L b. 6 Mp/L c. 4 Mp/L d. 2 Mp/L

100. Match List I (Properties) with List II) Stress points labeled 1, 2, 3 and 4) in the stress-strain figure an select the correct answer : List I A. Yield point B. Proportional limit C. Rupture strength D. Ultimate strength List II

A B C D a. 3 4 1 2 b. 4 3 1 2 c. 3 4 2 1 d. 4 3 2 1

101. A simply supported beam of 8 m effective span carries uniformly distributed load of 2 kN/m (inclusive of self load) over the effective span. If the permissible bending stress is 160 MPa, then most suitable shape and size would be a a. solid circular section of diameter = 110

mm, area = 9500 mm2 and section modulus = 130660 mm3

b. solid rectangular section of size 60 mm 100 mm deep, area = 6000 mm2 and maximum section modulus = 100,000 mm3

c. T-section of size 200 mm 200 mm 10 mm thickness, area = 3900 mm2 and maximum section modulus = 105, 780 mm3

d. I-section of size 80 mm 150 mm deep 10 mm thickness, area =



13 of 142900mm2 and maximum section modulus = 129100 mm3

102. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? a. Truss – Bending b. Beam – Twisting c. Column – Buckling d. Shaft – Shortening

103. The maximum shear force at a section is 56 kN. An ISWB of height 350 mm, breadth 200 mm, thickness of web 8 mm, with a section modulus of 887 cm3 is used as a beam at the section. The shearing stress is a. 10 N/mm2 b. 20 N/mm2 c. 28.4 N/mm2 d. 41.6 N/mm2

104. M 60 structural steel tube has a radius of gyration 20 mm. The unbraced length upto which the tube can be used as a compression member, is a. 3.6 m b. 5.0 m c. 6.0 m d. 7.2 m

105. Which one of the following is the mode of failure in a fillet weld material ? a. Tension b. Shear c. Bearing d. Crushing

106. Load on connection is not eccentric for a. LAP joint b. Single cover butt joint c. Double cover butt joint d. All the joints mentioned in a., b., and c.

of the question 107. Two steel plates each of 12 mm thickness

are connected by a double cover butt joint by rivets shown in the given figure. If the rivet diameter is 22 mm rivet force value of 53150 N and permissible stress in tension of plate is 142 N/mm2, which one of the following section is the most critical section ?

a. Section 1–1 b. Section 2–2 c. Section 3–3 d. Both section 1–1 and section 2–2

108. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I(Methods of analysis) A. Exact plastic analysis B. Mechanism method of plastic analysis C. Equilibrium method of plastic analysis List II(Conditions satisfied) 1. Equilibrium, sufficient plastic hinges

and Non-violation of plastic moment capacity

2. Equilibrium and Non-violation of plastic moment capacity

3. Equilibrium, continuity and Non-violation plastic moment capacity

4. Equilibrium and sufficient plastic hinges

A B C a. 3 1 2 b. 3 4 2 c. 1 2 4 d. 1 4 2

109. The distance of centroids of areas above and below the equal area axis in a solid circular section from its centre (R is the radius of circular section) is

a. 4R/3

b. 4/3R

c. 3R/4

d. 3/4R 110. Neutral axis distance D1 at plastic moment

condition of a triangular cross-section in given figure having similar properties in tension and compression is

a. 2/3 D b. D/2



14 of 14

c. D/ 3

d. D/ 2

111. Which of the following loads are to be considered in designing a gantry girder in an industrial building ? 1. Gravity loads 2. Lateral loads 3. Longitudinal loads 4. Wind loads Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 2, 3 and 4

112. The slenderness ratio in tension member as per BIS code where reverse of stress is due to loads other than wind or seismic shall not exceed a. 350 b. 180 c. 100 d. 60

113. In a plate girder bridge the thickness of web is less than d’/200 where d’ is the unsupported depth of web. The web plate should be provided with a. vertical stiffness b. horizontal stiffness c. end stiffness d. both vertical and horizontal stiffness

114. In the design of steel bridges if wind or seismic forces are also considered, the allowable stresses as per BIS may be increased by a. 10%

b. 162

3%

c. 25%

d. 331

3%

115. The compressive strength in structural timber is minimum in a direction a. parallel to the grains b. perpendicular to the grains c. along an axis inclined at 45o to the

grains

d. along an axis inclined at 60o to the grains

116. The minimum compressive strength of first class bricks should be a. 5 N/mm2 b. 7.5 N/mm2 c. 9 N/mm2 d. 10 N/mm2

117. Earthquake causes horizontal and vertical accelerations in the masonry structure. The magnitude of the force induced in the structure depend on the a. age of the building b. strength of mortar c. type of roof d. Mass of the structure

118. For a reinforced concrete beam section the shape of the shear stress diagram is a. parabolic over the whole section with

maximum value at the neutral axis b. parabolic above the neutral axis and

rectangular below the neutral axis c. linearly varying as the distance from

the neutral axis d. dependent on the magnitude of shear

reinforcement provided 119. In a reinforced concrete T-beam (in which

the flange is in compression). The position of neutral axis will a. be within in the flange b. be within the web c. depend on the thickness of flange in

relation to total depth and percentage of reinforcement

d. at the junction of flange and web 120. Consider the following statements :

The reinforcement in reinforced concrete shall have concrete cove, the thickness of such cover shall be not less than 1. 25 mm 2. the diameter of bar 3. the spacing between bars 4. 5 mm Which of the se statemtns are correct? a. 3 and 4 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2



1 of 15

(PAPER–II)

1. Match List I(Unit) with List II(Purpose) and select the correct answer :

List I

A. Leaping weir

B. Gutter inlet

C. Inverted siphon

D. Catch basin

List II

1. To prevent grit, sand, debris, etc. from entering the storm sewer

2. To carry the sewer below a stream or railway line

3. To drain rain water from roads to the storm sewer

4. To separate storm water and the sanitary sewage

A B C D

a. 4 3 1 2

b. 4 3 2 1

c. 3 4 2 1

d. 3 4 1 2

2. Match List I (Treatment units) with List II (Types of processes) and select the correct answer :

List I

A. Trickling filter

B. Activated sludge process

C. Oxidation ditch

D. Oxidation pond

List II

1. Symbiotic

2. Extended aeration

3. suspended growth

4. Attached growth

A B C D

a. 3 4 2 1

b. 4 3 1 2

c. 3 4 1 2

d. 4 3 2 1

3. If the moisture content of a sludge is reduced from 98% to 96% ,the volume of sludge will decrease by

a. 2%

b. 20%

c. 25%

d. 50%

4. In a high-rate trickling filter, the problem of ponding can be solved by

a. flooding and raking

b. chlorination and supply of air

c. ranking and chlorination

d. flooding and supply of air


The process of activated sludge can be explained as

1. a physical action whereby the finer suspended particles of sewage form a sublayer for a bacterial film at the surface.

2. a chemical action whereby the finer suspended particles and colloidal solids are combined into masses of large bulk.

3. a biochemical action whereby the sludge flocs so formed act as vehicles for aerobic bacterial oxidizing the organic matter

Which of these statements are correct?

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2

c. 2 and 3

d. 1 and 3

6. Sewage may be disposed of without treatment into a water body if the available dilution is

a. less than 150

b. more than 150

c. more than 300

d. more than 500

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001




2 of 157. A certain waste has a BOD of 162 mg/l

and its flow is 1000 cubic meters per day. If the domestic sewage has a BOD of 80 gram per capita, then the population equivalent of the waste would be

a. 20.25

b. 1296

c. 2025

d. 12960

8. In sanitary plumbing of buildings, a two-pipe system signifies

a. Separate soil pipes and waste pipe without vent pipes

b. A soil-cum-waste pipe and a ventilating pipe

c. Separate soil and waste pipe and a common ventilating pipe

d. Separate soil pipe and waste pipe, each with its own vent pipe

9. Which of the following are storm water regulators ?

1. Side weir

2. Leaping weir

3. symphonic spillway

4. Float actuated gates or values.

5. Inverted syphon.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

a. 1, 2 3 and 4

b. 1, 3 and 5

c. 2, 3 4 and 5

d. 1, 2, 4 and 5

10. When wastewater is disposed of into a running stream, four zones are formed. In which one of the following zones will the minimum level of dissolved oxygen be found ?

a. Zone of degradation

b. Zone of active decomposition

c. Zone of recovery

d. Zone of clear water

11. The least expensive and most suitable excrete disposal unit for rural areas would be the

a. soak pit

b. pit privy

c. leaching cesspool

d. septic tank

12. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

1. Ringelmann chart : To grade density of smoke

2. Pneumoconiosis : Disease caused due to coaldust

3. PAN : Secondary air pollutant


a. 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2

c. 1 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3

13. Which one of the following terms correctly described ‘Biomagnification’?

a. Reproduction of micro-organisms

b. Observation of micro-organisms under a microscope

c. Ability of micro-organisms to form zoogleal film

d. Concentration of toxic materials in the food chain

14. Which one of the following comprehensive classifications is used for different types of solid wastes ?

a. Residential, commercial and treatment plant wastes

b. Food, demolition and construction wastes

c. Municipal, industrial and harzardous wastes

d. Rubbish, special wastes and wastes from open areas

15. Which one of the following methods would be best suited for disposal of plastic and rubber waste ?

a. Composting

b. Incineration

c. Pyrolysis

d. Sanitary landfill

16. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

1. Reverberation : time required to reduce noise by 60 dB time

2. NIPTS : Responsible for permanent hearing loss



3 of 153. Sound foci : Formed when sound

waves are reflected from convex surface

4. TTS : Responsible for temporary hearing loss


a. 2, 3 and 4

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 4

17. A dry soil sample has equal amounts of solids and voids by volume. Its void ratio and porosity will be

Void ratio Porosity(%)

a. 1.0 100%

b. 0.5 50%

c. 0.5 100%

d. 1.0 50%

18. Based on grain distribution analysis, the D10, D30 and D60 values of a given solid are 0.23 mm, 0.3 mm and 0.41 mm respectively. As per IS Code, the solid classification will be

a. SW

b. SP

c. SM

d. SC

19. The plasticity index and the percentage of grain size finer then 2 microns of a clay sample are 25 and 15, respectively. Its activity ratio is

a. 2.5

b. 1.67

c. 1.0

d. 0.6

20. A soil sample having a void ratio of 1.3, water content of 50% and a specific gravity of 2.60, is in a state of

a. partial saturation

b. full saturation

c. oversaturation

d. undersaturation

21. The natural void ratio of a san sample is 0.6 and its density index is 0.6. If its void ratio in the loosest state is 0.9, then the void ratio in the densest state will be

a.

b. 0.3

c. 0.4

d. 0.5

22. The following data were obtained when a sample of medium sand was tested in a constant heat permeameter :

Cross-section area of sample : 100 cm2

Hydraulic gradient : 10

Discharge collected : 10cc/s

The coefficient of permeability of the sand is

a. 0.1 m/s

b. 0.01 m/s

c. 110–4 m/s

d. 1 10–8 s m/s

23. Match List I (Test) with List II(Property) and select the correct answer :

List I

A. Proctor Test

B. Vane Test

C. Penetration Test

D. Hydrometer Test

List II

1. Grain Size Analysis

2. Shear strength

3. Bearing Capacity

4. Compaction

A B C D

a. 2 4 1 3

b. 4 3 1 3

c. 4 2 3 1

d. 2 4 3 1

24. Which one of the following phase diagrams represents a clay at its shrinkage limit ?

a.

b.



4 of 15

c.

d. 25. Which one of the following correctly

represents the dry unit weight of a soil sample which has a bulk unit weight l of at a moisture content of % ?

a. ωγ

100l

b. ω

γ 1100l

c. 100

γ100 ωl

d. γ 100 ω

100l

26.

The figure given above shown the state of a simple of clay before and after consolidation. Based on these figures, the settlement of a clay layer of initial thickness H will be

a. 01

e

e

b. 1 f

H e

e

c. 1 f

e

e

d. 01

H e

e

27. A soil sample test in a triaxial compression apparatus failed when the total maximum

and minimum principal stresses were 100 kPa and 40 kPa, respectively. The pore pressure measured at failure was 10 kPa. The effective principal stress ratio at failure is

a. 2.5

b. 3.0

c. 2.75

d. 2.0

28. An earth-retaining structure may be subjected to the following lateral earth pressures :

1. Earth pressure at rest

2. passive earth pressure

3. Active earth pressure

The correct sequence of the increasing order of the magnitude of these pressure is

a. 3, 2, 1

b. 1, 3, 2

c. 1, 2, 3

d. 3, 1, 2

29. For a sand having an internal friction of 30o, the ratio of passive to active lateral earth pressure will be

a. 1

b. 3

c. 6

d. 9

30. The total, neutral and effective vertical stresses (in t/m2) at a depth of 5m below the surface of a fully saturated soil deposit with a saturated density of 2 t/m3 would, respectively, be

a. 5, 5 and 10

b. 5, 10 and 5

c. 10, 5 and 10

d. 10, 5 and 5

31.

Excess pore pressure distribution within the thickness of a soil sample tested in oedometry sometime after loading is shown in the above figures labeled 1, 2, 3 and 4. Which one of these figures, refers to a situation where the operator forgot to put



5 of 15on the porous stones at the top and bottom of the sample before the test ?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

32. In soil consolidation process, the following events take place after loading :

1. Decrease in excess pore pressure

2. Increase in total stress

3. Development of excess pore pressure

4. Increase in effective stress.

The correct sequence of these events is:

a. 3, 2, 1, 4

b. 2, 3 1, 4

c. 2, 3, 4, 1

d. 3, 2, 4, 1

33.

The e-p curve for a soil is shown in the above figure. The coefficient of compressibility (in m2/kN) of the soil is

a. 4000

b. 2000

c. 2.5 10–4

d. 1.25 10–4

34. A saturated clay layer with double drainage takes 5 years to attain 90% degree of consolidation under a structure. If the same layer were to be single drained, what would be the time (in years) required to attain the same consolidation under the same loading conditions ?

a. 10

b. 15

c. 20

d. 25

35. In the Engineering News Record formula for determining the safe load carrying capacity of a pile, the factor of safety used is

a. 2.5

b. 3

c. 4

d. 6

36. Two circular footings of diameters D1 and D2 are resting on the surface of a purely cohesive soil. The ratio D1/D2 = 2. If the ultimate load carrying capacity of the footing of diameter D1 is 200 kN/m2, then the ultimate bearing capacity (in kN/m2) of the footing of diameter D2 will be

a. 100

b. 200

c. 314

d. 571

37. The minimum bearing capacity of a soil under a given footing occurs when the groundwater table at the location is at

a. the base of the footing

b. the ground level

c. a depth equal to one-half of the width of footing

d. A depth equal to the width of footing

38. In a Newmark’s influence chart for stress distribution, there are 10 concentric circles and 50 radial lines. The influence factor of the chart is

a. 0.0002

b. 0.002

c. 0.02

d. 0.2

39. In the case of a pile foundation, negative skin friction may occur at a load which is

a. lower the an the designed load

b. higher then the designed load

c. equal to the designed load

d. of any magnitude

40. In under-reamed pile construction, the ratio of shaft diameter to bulb diameter is

a. 1/1.5

b. 1/2

c. 1/2.5

d. 1/4

41. Match List I (Field test) with List II (Property) and select the correct answer :

List I

A. Pumping test

B. Plate load test



6 of 15C. Pile load test

List II

1. Bearing capacity

2. Load carrying capacity

3. Permeability

A B C

a. 1 2 3

b. 3 1 2

c. 2 3 1

d. 3 2 1

42. Match List I (Distress) with List II(meaning) and select the correct answer :

List I

A. Settlement

B. Subsidence

C. Depression

D. Distortion

List II

1. A localized, rather abrupt lowering of the road surface

2. A general lowering of the road surface

3. Irregular deformation of the road

4. Dished localized deformations

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 1 2 4 3

c. 2 1 3 4

d. 1 2 3 4

43. Consider the following stages in the construction of concrete roads :

1. Preparing the subgrade and the base course.

2. Mixing and placing the concrete.

3. Placing the framework and water the prepared base

4. Curing

5. Compaction and floating .

The correct sequence of these stages is

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4

c. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

d. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

44. Given that

coefficient of curvature = 1.4,

D30 = 3 mm,

D10 = 0.6 mm

Based on this formation on particle size distribution for use as subgrade, this will be taken to be

a. uniformly-graded sand

b. well-graded sand

c. very find sand

d. poorly-graded sand

45. Consider the following statements regarding soil stabilization :

1. Subgrade should be treated if it has a soaked CBR of 5 or less.

2. Sub-bases, after treatment, should have plasticity index not less than 5.

3. Base courses after treatment should have plasticity index of not more than 2 and a CBR in excess of 100.

Which of these statements(s) is/are correct?

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 and 3

d. 1 alone

46. While driving at a speed of 30 kmph (with available friction 0.4) down the grade, the driver requires a braking distance twice the required for stopping the vehicle when he travels up the same grade. The grade is

a. 7%

b. 10.6%

c. 13.3%

d. 33.3%

47. Modulus of subgrade reaction using 30 cm diameter plate is obtained as 200 N/cm3. The value of the same (in N/cm3) using the standard plate will be

a. 500

b. 200

c. 85

d. 80

48. An observer travelling at a constant speed of 70 kmph with the traffic stream over a 5 km stretch is passed by 17 vehicles more than what he passes. When the observer travels against the stream at the same speed, the number of vehicles he meets is 303. the flow of the traffic stream is

a. 4480 vph

b. 4160 vph



7 of 15c. 2240 vph

d. 2002 vph

49. If the total seven-day traffic volume for the week is 3625 and the traffic volume for Monday is 650, then the monthly expansion factor for Monday is would be

a. 5.6

b. 1.25

c. 0.8

d. 0.25

50. Which one of the following is the purpose of divisional island ?

a. To divert the traffic into definite travel path at the inter-section.

b. To reduce the speed of traffic entering the intersection

c. To divert traffic from obstacles and expedite the flow of traffic

d. To segregate opposing flow of traffic in a multi-lane high-way

51. Tunnel alignment is carried out y

a. surface theodolite traverse

b. triangulation

c. compass traverse

d. aerial photography

52. With reference to tunneling, which of the following factors are to be considered for deciding the size to the shaft ?

1. system used for hoisting

2. size of the muck car.

3. Quantity of muck to be lifted.

4. Eventual use of the shaft.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 4

c. 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

53. Which one of the following is installed as the second signal on the main signal post for better visibility ?

a. Routing signal

b. Calling on signal

c. Co-acting signal

d. Repeating signal

54. Squaring of sleepers through packing consists of

a. adjusting the sleepers to be perpendicular to the rails

b. adjusting the ballast under sleepers to space them parallel to each other

c. cutting the edges of the sleepers to a square shape

d. adjusting the rails to be perpendicular to the sleepers

55. In deep water waves, individual particles

a. are translated

b. are translated and rotated in a vertical plate about a horizontal axis

c. are not translate, but they rotate in a vertical plate about a horizontal axis

d. do not rotate in a vertical plate about a horizontal axis.

56. A surface longitudinally centered on the extended runway centre lie and extending outward and upward is called

a. primary surface

b. conical surface

c. horizontal surface

d. approach surface

57. Which of the following factors are to be taken into consideration while designing the taxiway system ?

1. Volume of air traffic.

2. Runway configuration.

3. Location of terminal building

4. Location of hangars.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 4

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

58.

In the above figure shown, “cockpit cutoff angle” is the angle labelled

a.

b.



8 of 15c.

d.

59. Which of the following Pairs are correctly matched ?

1. Telemeter : Measurement of distance

2. Price meter : Measurement of difference in elevation between points

3. Sounding sextant :Measurement of horizontal angles

4. Clinometer : Measurement of vertical angles

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

a. 2, 3 and 4

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 3

60. Consider the following steps :

1. Calculation of L and D

2. Correction of latitudes and departures.

3. Calculation of bearings.

4. Calculation of interior angles.

5. Calculation of independent angles.

The correct sequence of these steps in Gale’s transverse table calculations is

a. 3, 4, 5, 2, 1

b. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5

c. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5

d. 4, 3, 5, 2, 1

61. A tower appears in two successive photographs taken at an altitude of 4000 m above datum. The focal length of the camera is 160 mm. The length of the air base is 300 m. The parallax for the top and bottom of the pole are 72 mm and 63 mm respectively. The height of the top of the tower above its bottom is nearly

a. 63 mm

b. 72 mm

c. 95 mm

d. 135 mm

62. A road section of length 1 km scales 8 cm on a vertical photograph. The focal length of the camera is 160 mm. If the terrain is fairly level, ten the flying height will be

a. 20 m

b. 2000 m

c. 20 km

d. 200 km

63. The sensitiveness of a bubble tube in a level would decrease if

a. The radius of the curvature of the internal surface of the tube is increased

b. The diameter of the tube is increased

c. The length of the vapour bubble is increased

d. The viscosity of the liquid is increased

64. In a closed traverse with five sided, the error found from the fore bearing and back bearing of the last line is +2o. The correction to the third lien will be

a. 0 o 24’

b. 0 o 48’

c. 1 o 12’

d. 1o36’

65. At a given place of observation, the declination of a circumpolar star is

a. greater than the latitude

b. equal to the latitude

c. less than the co-latitude

d. greater than the co-latitude

66. Theory of errors and adjustments deals with minimizing the effects of

a. instrumental errors

b. mistakes

c. systematic errors

d. personal and accidental errors

67. Assertion (A) : The available yield of a tubewell can be doubled by doubling the diameter of the well.

Reason (R) : The yield of a tubewell varies inversely with the logarithm of the reciprocal of the diameter of the well.





68. Assertion (A) : Total drag is reduced if the boundary layer on the surface of a cylinder separated further downstream of the leading point.



9 of 15Reason (R) : As the separation point moves further downstream, form drag is reduced and the skin drag is only marginally increased.





69. Assertion (A) : Break-point chlorination is required to ensure free chlorine residuals for better disinfection.

Reason (R) : Free chlorine residuals have good disinfecting power and they are usually dissipated quickly in the distribution system.





70. Assertion (A) : The design of all non-circular sections is based upon getting a “hydraulically equivalent section”.

Reason (R) : The chart of hydraulic elements is very useful in sewer design.





71. Assertion (A) : black cotton soils are clays and they exhibit characteristic property of swelling.

Reason (R) : These clays contain montmorillonite which attracts external water into its lattice structure.





72. Assertion (A) : The possibility of quicksand condition occurring is more on

the downstream of a weir on permeable foundation.

Reason (R) : Seepage lines are directed upwards at the downstream of such a weir.





73. Assertion (A) : Effective vertical stress at some depth below a river bed is unaffected by the water depth in the river

Reason (R) : Equal amounts of increase in total stress and pore pressure will not change the effective stress.





74. Assertion (A) : Permanent lowering of GWT result in settlements.

Reason (R) : Increase in effective stress results in settlement sin soils.





75. Assertion (A) : When a sharp horizontal curve is to be introduced on a road which already had the maximum permissible gradient, the gradient should be decreased.

Reason (R) : The gradient should be decreased to compensate for the loss of tractive effort due to the introduction of sharp horizontal curve on the road.





76. Assertion (A) : The most common approach or control of beach erosion is to build groynes.



10 of 15Reason (R) : Groynes are constructed parallel to the shore.





77. Assertion (A) : Gradients much steeper than the ruling gradient are provide in a hilly terrain and they are negotiated with the help of a pusher engine.

Reason (R) : Restricting the gradient to the ruling gradient in hilly terrains would mean increasing the length of the track resulting considerably in heavy excavation.





78. Assertion (A) : Whole circle bearing of a line is preferred to a quadrantal bearing.

Reason (R) : Bearing is completely specified by an angle.





79. Assertion (A) : the centrifugal ratio decreases along the length of the transition curve.

Reason (R) : The superelevation increases along the length of the transition curve.





80. Which of the following air pollutants are responsible for the green house effect ?

1. Methane

2. Carbon dioxide

3. Flurocarbons

4. Nitrogen oxides


a. 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2

c. 1, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

81. A soil sampler has inner and outer radii of 25 mm and 30 mm respectively. The area ratio of the sampler is

a. 24%

b. 34%

c. 44%

d. 54%


List I

A. Concentrated sugar solution

B. Sewage sludge

C. Blood

D. Air

List II

1. Dilatant Fluid

2. Bingham plastic fluid

3. Pseudoplastic fluid

4. Newtonia fluid.

A B C D

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 1 2 4 3

c. 2 1 3 4

d. 2 1 4 3

83. A metal cube of size 15 cm 15 cm 15 cm and specific gravity 8.6 is submerged in a two-layered liquid, the bottom layer being mercury and the top layer being water. The percentage of the volume of the cube remaining above the interface will be, approximately

a. 68

b. 63

c. 40

d. 25

84. A 30 cm diameter, 90o elbow has one limb vertical. Average velocity of flow of water through the elbow is 5 m/s and the pressure intensity is 4 kPa. The vertical



11 of 15component of force to keep the elbow in position will be

a. 0.28 kN

b. 1.49 kN

c. 1.77 kN

d. 2.05 kN

85. Which one of the following statements relating to Vortex Flow is INCORRECT?

a. In the formation of a free vortex, streamlines are axisymmetric and irrotational

b. In a forced vortex, work transfer between the fluid and the surroundings takes place and the flow is rotational

c. In a free vortex, radial motion towards the core takes place due to variation of depth of water in the whirlpool or due to the difference of pressure resulting from higher velocity near the core

d. In a free vortex, there is not variation of energy from streamline to streamline and irrotationality is not deviated from near the core

86. Consider the following measuring structures :

1. submerged broad-crested weir

2. Free broad-crested weir.

3. Free sharp-crested weir.

4. Free ogee spillway.

The correct sequence of the increasing order of the discharge coefficient of these structures is

a. 1, 2, 4, 3

b. 2, 1, 3, 4

c. 2, 1, 4, 3

d. 1, 2, 3, 4

87. In a laminar flow between two static parallel plates, the velocity at mid-point is found to be 2.0 m/s. If the space between the plates is 10 cm, then the discharge per unit width (in m3/s /m) will be

a. 0.01

b. 0.02

c. 0.10

d. 0.20

88. A fluid with kinematic viscosity v flows in laminar stage along a flat plate with free-stream velocity V. At a distance x from the leading edge, the Reynolds number of the

flow is given by R = Vx/v. The thickness of the boundary layer at x will be proportional to

a. xR1/2

b. xR–1/2

c. R1/2

d. R–1/2

89. Magnus effect may be used advantageously in games such as cricket, tennis, table tennis and golf. In order to obtain a lift, i.e. a rising curve for the trajectory of the ball, form left to right, the nature of the spin to be given is

a. anticlockwise in the vertical plane

b. anticlockwise in the horizontal plane

c. clockwise in the vertical plane

d. clockwise in the horizontal plane

90. Two tanks are connected in parallel by two pipes A and B of identical friction factors and lengths. If the size of pipe A is double that of pipe B, then their discharges will be in the ratio of

a. 2

b. 4

c. 5.66

d. 32

91. Water of v = 1 centistoke flows through a 1 cm diameter pipe. Critical flow will correspond to a discharge of approximately

a. 0.008 l/s

b. 0.013 l/s

c. 0.016 l/s

d. 0.025 l/s

92. Match List I (Surface) with List II (Approximate range of Manning’s n) and select the correct answer :

List I

A. Gravel river bed with 50 mm diameter bed

B. Badly maintained unlined irrigation channel with weed growth

C. Concrete lined channel

D. Channel with brick lining

List II

1. 0.02 to 0.022

2. 0.025 to 0.04

3. 0.013 to 0.017



12 of 154. 0.04 to 0.08

A B C D

a. 4 3 2 1

b. 4 2 3 1

c. 1 3 2 4

d. 1 2 3 4

93. Water surface profiles that are asymptotic at one end and terminated at the other and would include

a. H2 and S2

b. H3 and S2

c. M2 and H2

d. M2 and H3

94. A hydraulic jump is always needed in case of

a. an A2 profile followed by an A3 profile

b. an A3 profile followed by an M2 profile

c. an H2 profile followed by an M2 profile

d. and M1 profile followed by an M3 profile

95. Which of the following principles relate to a unit Hydrograph ?

1. The hydrographs of direct run off due to effective rainfall of equal duration have the same time base.

2. Effective rainfall is not uniformly distributed within its duration.

3. Effective rainfall is uniformly distributed throughout the whole area of drainage basin.

4. Hydrograph of direct run off from a basin due to a given period of-effective rainfall reflects the combination of all the physical characteristics of the basin.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1, 2 and 4

c. 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 3 and 4

96. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer :

List I

A. Anemometer

B. Rain simulator

C. Lysimeter

D. Hygrometer

List II

1. Humidity

2. Evapotranspiration

3. Infiltration

4. Wind speed

A B C D

a. 4 3 1 2

b. 3 4 1 2

c. 4 3 2 1

d. 3 4 2 1

97. The life of reservoir is determined by its capacity (C), volume of annual inflow into the reservoir (I) and concentration of sediment in the incoming flow (CS). Life will be more if

It has

a. voltage series feedback

b. voltage shunt feedback

c. current shunt feedback

d. current series feedback

98. The IF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is

a. single-stage single-tuned amplifier

b. two stages of single-tuned amplifier

c. double-tuned amplifier

d. Class-C amplifier

99. RC network shown in the given figure can provide a maximum theoretical phase shift of

a. 90 o

b. 180 o

c. 270 o

d. 360o

100. Which one of the following circuits is most suitable as an oscillator at a frequency of 100 Hz ?



13 of 15a. Hartley oscillator

b. Colpitts oscillator

c. Crystal oscillator

d. Twin-T oscillator

101. A circuit is showing the given figure. The largest value of RL that can be used , is

a. 100

b. 400

c. 2 k

d. 20 k

102. A differential amplifier is invariable used in the input stage of all op-amps. This is done basically to provide the opamps with a very high

a. CMRR

b. bandwidth

c. slew rate

d. open-loop gain

103. In the circuit shown in the given figure, the current T through the resistance R is

a. 100 A

b. –100 A

c. 1 mA

d. –1 mA

104. The effect of a finite gain of an operational amplifier used in an integrator is that

a. it would not integrate

b. the slope of the output will vary with time

c. the final value of the output voltage will reduce

d. there will be instability in the circuit

105. In a PLL, lock occurs when the

a. input frequency and the VCO frequency are the same

b. phase error is 180o

c. VCO frequency is double the input frequency

d. None of these

106.

Item Canal data Drainage data

Flow(m3/s)

Bed level(m)

Depth of flow (m)

5

120

0.8

500

116

10

Which one of the following types of cross-drainage should be recommended in this case ?

a. Aqueduct

b. Syphon aqueduct

c. Syphon

d. Superpassage


The down stream impervious flow of concrete for a barrage has ruptured. This can be due to

1. insufficient length of upstream impervious floor.

2. insufficient length of downstream impervious floor.

3. insufficient depth of downstream pile.

4. choking of inverted filter.


a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 4

c. 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

108. Ten m3/s of water is diverted to a 32 hectare field for 4 hours. Soil proving after irrigation showed that 0.3 m of water had been stored in the root zone. Water application efficiency in this case would be

a. 96%

b. 66.67%

c. 48%

d. 24%



14 of 15In a river, silt excluder and silt ejector are constructed

a. at a location after the head regulator and at the head of the canal, respectively

b. at the head of the canal and at a location after the head regulator, respectively

c. at the same location

d. at specific locations depending upon diverse factors and their locations do not follow a set pattern

110. The ideal efficiently of a single-jet Pelton wheel is given by

2/V2 [Vv + v(V–v)cos – v2]

(symbols have their usual meanings)

If friction on the buckets reduces the relative velocity by a factor k1 and if windage losses reduce the effectiveness of the affected parameters by a factor k2 , then the resulting efficiency multiplied by V2 is given by

a. 2k1k2 [Vv + v(V–v)cos – v2]

b. 2[k2Vv + k2v(V–v)cos – v2]

c. 2[k2Vv + k1k2v(V–v)cos – v2]

d. 2[k2Vv + k1k2v(V–v)cos – k2v2]

111. Match list I (Units in water treatment plant) with list II (Impurities removed) and select the correct answer :

List I

A. Aerator

B. Rapid sand filter

C. Slow sand filter

D. Sedimentation tank(after coagulation and flocculation)

List II

1. Excess CO2 and H2S

2. Settleable and colloidal matter

3. suspended matter

4. suspended matter

5. suspended, colloidal and bacteriological matter

A B C D

a. 1 3 2 4

b. 3 1 2 4

c. 3 1 4 2

d. 1 3 4 2

112. Which of the following statements are correct ?

1. Groundwater is generally free from suspended and dissolved impurities

2. Suspended matters often contain pathogenic bacteria

3. rain water is soft and tasteless

4. Lake water may contain microscopic organisms.


a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

b. 1 and 2

a. in the active region

b. in the saturation region

c. in the saturation region

d. either in the active or the saturation region.

113. Which of the following regions of operation are mainly responsible for heating of the transistor under switching operation ?

1. Saturation region.

2. cut-off region.

3. Transition from saturation to cut-off.

4. Transition from cut-off to saturation.


a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 3 and 4

d. 1 and 3

114. The circuit shown in the given figure



15 of 15a. is an oscillating circuit and its output is

a square wave

b. is an whose output remains stable in ‘1’ state

c. is one whose output remains stable in ‘0’ state

d. gives a single pulse of 3 times propagation delay

115. The circuit of a gate in the resistor transistor logic (RTL) family shown in the given figure is a/an

a. AND gate

b. OR gate

c. NAND gate

d. NOR gate

116. The decoding error of the counter can be avoided by

a. increasing propagation delay of flip-flops used in the counter

b. using very fast logic gates

c. using the strobe signal

d. reducing the propagation delay of flip-flops used in the counter

117. Which one of the following flags is not used for branching in a microprocessor ?

a. Carry flag

b. Auxiliary carry flag

c. Overflow flag

d. Parity flag

118. The number of comparator circuits required to build a three-bit simultaneous A/D converter is

a. 7

b. 8

c. 15

d. 16

determination) and select the correct answer :

List I

A. Hardness

B. Chlorine

C. D.O.

D. Chloride

List II

1. Wenker’s method

2. EDTA method

3. Orthotolidine test

4. Mohr method

A B C D

a. 2 3 1 4

b. 2 4 1 3

c. 1 3 2 4

d. 1 4 2 3

119. The amount of bleaching power containing 20% available chlorine needed to chlorinate a rural water supply covering a population of 10000 at 50 lpcd at the rate of 2 ppm is

a. 1 kg

b. 5 kg

c. 0.2 kg

d. 20 kg

120. Which of the following statements(s) regarding industrial water supply is/are correct ?

1. Industrial water supplies need not be disinfected.

2. Water for industrial use requires chemical treatment.

3. Standards of purity and methods of treatment of water for industrial use are often different from those for domestic water supplies

4. If is more economical to use water from surface sources than from groundwater sources for industrial water supplies.


a. 1, 2 and 4

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 3 and 4

d. 3 only


1 of 17

(PAPER–I)

1. Timber can be made reasonably fire-resistant by

a. soaking it in Ammonium Sulphate

b. coating with Tar paint

c. pumping creosote oil into timber under high pressure

d. seasoning process

2. Which one of the following statements is the correct description of the structure of fibre board ?

a. Thin slices of superior quality of wood are glued and pressed on the surface of inferior wood

b. Streamed mass of wood dusts, wood wool and other vegetable fibres are pressed hard to a thickness varying from 3 mm to 12 mm

c. Thin and narrow wood shavings are soaked in a refractory binder material and pressed hard

d. Thin and narrow wood shaving are soaked in a refractory binder material and pressed hard

3. Match List I(Constituents of bricks) with List II(corresponding influence) and select the correct answer :

List I

A. Alumina

B. Silica

C. Magnesia

D. Limestone

List II

1. Colour of brick

2. Plasticity recovery for moulding

3. Reacts with silica during burning and causes particles to unite together and development of strength

4. Preserve the for on brick at high temperature and prevents shrinkage

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 3 4 1 2

c. 2 4 1 3

d. 3 1 4 2

4. In some brick masonry walls, patches of whitish crystals were found on the exposed surfaces, also chipping and spalling of bricks took place from the same walls. Which among the following are the causes of these defects ?

1. Settlement of foundation

2. Over-loading of the walls

3. Sulphate attach

4. Efflorescence

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 2 and 4

d. 3 and 4

5. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer :

List I(Property)

A. Specific heat of an aggregate

B. Thermal conductivity of an aggregate

C. Thermal expansion

D. Durability of concrete

List II(Characteristic)

1. Breaks the bond between the aggregate and the paste

2. Is a measure of its heat capacity

3. Is affected by differences n thermal expansion of two different materials

4. Is a measure of its ability to conduct heat

A B C D

a. 1 3 2 4

b. 2 4 1 3

c. 1 4 2 3

d. 2 3 1 4

6. Consider the following methods of preservation of timber :

1. Pressure application

2. Brush application

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2002


www.estudentzone.comwww.estudentzone.com


2 of 173. Dipping

4. Open tank application

The correct sequence of these methods in the increasing order of their effectiveness is :

a. 1, 3 4, 2

b. 3, 4, 2, 1

c. 2, 3, 4, 1

d. 4, 2, 1, 3


List I (Name of defect)

A. Cupping

B. Bowing

C. Chucks

D. Knots

List II(Definition)

1. Caused by wood limbs encased by the wood of the free trunk

2. Caused by grain irregularities in the board and can be eliminated by proper stacking

3. Small cracks appearing at the ends of boards caused by too rapid drying

4. Unequal shrinking in the radial and tangential direction

A B C D

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 4 3 2 1

c. 1 3 2 4

d. 4 2 3 1


List I (Type of cement)

A. Ordinary Portland cement

B. Rapid hardening cement

C. Low heat cement

D. Sulphate resistant cement

List II(Characteristics)

1. The percentage of C3S is maximum and is of the order of 50%

2. The percentages of C2S and C3S are the same and of the order of 40%

3. Reacts with silica during burning and causes particles to unite together and development of strength

4. Preserves the for of brick at high temperature and prevents shrinkage

A B C D

a. 2 4 1 3

b. 3 1 4 2

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 3 4 1 2


List I(Type of cement)

A. High strength Portland cement

B. Super sulphated cement

C. High alumina cement

D. Rapid hardening Protland cement

List II(Property/Characteristic)

1. Should not be used with any admixture

2. Is extremely resistant to chemical attach

3. Gives a higher rate of heat development during hydration of cement

4. has a higher content of tricalcium silicate

A B C D

a. 3 2 1 4

b. 4 1 2 3

c. 3 1 2 4

d. 4 2 1 3

10. Consider the following stages in the manufacturing of bricks :

1. Weathering

2. Moulding

3. Tempering

The correct sequence of these stages in the manufacturing of the bricks, is

a. 1, 2, 3

b. 2, 3, 1

c. 1, 3, 2

d. 3, 2, 1

11. Four main oxides present in ordinary Portland cement are : CaO, Al2O3, SiO2 and Fe2O3. Identify the correct ascending order of their proportions in a typical composition of OPC

a. Al2O3, Fe2O3, CaO, SiO2

b. Al2O3, CaO, Fe2O3, SiO2

c. Fe2O3, Al2O3, SiO2 , CaO



3 of 17d. Fe2O3, SiO2 , Al2O3, CaO


Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages :

1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water

2. It increases heat of hydration and so sets the concrete quickly

3. It increases resistance to attach by salts and sulphates

4. It leaches calcium hydroxide


a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

b. 1, 2, and 4

c. 1 and 3

d. 2, 3 and 4

13. The length of time for which a concrete mixture will remain plastic is usually more depended on

a. the setting time of cement than on the amount of mixing water and atmospheric temperature

b. the atmospheric temperature than on the amount of mixing water and the setting time of cement

c. the setting time of cement and the amount of mixing water than on atmospheric temperature

d. the amount of mixing water used and atmospheric temperature than on the setting time of cement

14.

Which one among the following is the correct free body diagram for a portal frame shown in Figure given above ?

a.

b.

c.


Mohr’s circle is used to determine the stress on an oblique section of a body subjected to

1. direct tensile stress on one plane accompanied by a shear stress

2. direct tensile stresses in two mutually perpendicular directions accompanied by a simple shear stress

3. direct tensile stress in two mutually perpendicular directions

4. a simple shear stress


a. 1 and 4

b. 2 and 3

c. 1, 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 3

16. A bar of square cross- section, having an area of cross-section ‘A’ is subjected to a compressive force ‘P’ as shown in the figure

The intensity of the tangential stress on the oblique plane is given by

a. P sin 2

b. P cos 2



4 of 17c. P/2 sin2

d. P/2 cos 2

17. The ratio of the torsional moment s of resistance of a solid circular shaft of diameter D, and a hollow circular shaft having external diameter d and internal diameter d is given by

a. 4

4 4

D

D d

b. 4 4

4

D d

D

c. 3 3

3

D d

D

d. 3

3 3

D

D d

18. Clapeyron’s theorem is applied to

a. Simply supported beam

b. Propped cantilever beam

c. Fixed & continuous beam

d. Continuous beam only

19. The valiration of the hoop stress across the thickness of a thick cylinder is

a. linear

b. uniform

c. parabolic

d. hyperbolic

20. The bulk modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its modulus of rigidity. The Poisson’s ratio of the material is

a. 1/7

b. 2/7

c. 3/7

d. 4/7


List I

A. Assumption in the theory of simple bending

B. The point at which the bending stress is maximum for any cross-section

C. The point at which the bending stress is zero for an y cross-section

D. The point in the cross-section through which the neutral axis passes

List II

1. Neutral axis

2. Centroid

3. The plane sections remain plain

4. Extreme fibre

5. The cross-section is circular

A B C D

a. 5 4 1 2

b. 3 1 2 4

c. 5 1 2 4

d. 3 4 1 2

22. A rectangular beam of width 200 mm and depth 300 mm is subjected to a shear force of 200 kN. The maximum shear stress produced in the beam is

a. 10.0 MPa

b. 7.5 MPa

c. 5.0 MPa

d. 3.00 MPa

23. A symmetrical channel section is made of a material which is equally strong in tension and compression. It is used as a simply supported beam with its web horizontal to carry vertical loads. It will

a. be strongest if the web is used as top face

b. be strongest if the web is used as bottom face

c. be equally strong in (a) and (b) above

d. not be possible to state which of the above statements is correct

24. For which of the following conditions, the virtual work should be zero according to the Principle of virtual work ?

1. A body moving with constant acceleration

2. A body rotating with constant speed

3. A body in equilibrium

4. A body moving with constant momentum


a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2

c. 3 only

d. 4 only

25.



5 of 17

p1 and p2 are two equal tensile principal stresses. On the plane AB inclined at 45o to the plane of p1

a. the shear stress is a maximum

b. the normal stress is zero

c. the shear stress is zero

d. the normal stress is maximum

26.

In the symmetrical channel section shown in the figure, which point is likely to be the shear center ?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

27.

The force in member AB is

a. 5kN compression

b. 2 kN compression

c. Zero

d. 7 kN compression

28.

The force in the member BD of the truss shown in the figure given above is

a. 4 kN tensile

b. 4 kN compressive

c. Zero

d. 12 kN compressive

29. A free body diagram of a body shows

a. A body isolated from all external effects without considering its own weight

b. A body isolated form its surroundings and all external forces acting on it

c. A body isolated from its surroundings and all external actions on it

d. A body isolated fro its surroundings and all internal forces acting on it

30. Neglecting self weight, which of the following beams will have points of contraflexure?

a. A simply supported beam with uniformly distributed load over part of the structure

b. An overhanging beam with loading only over supported span and not on overhangs

c. Fixed beam subjected to concentrated load

d. Cantilever beam subjected to uniformly varying load with zero load at free end

31.

The absolute maximum bending moment in the beam is

a. 2P a

b. 5P a

c. 4P a

d. 7P a

32. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched ?

Boundary conditions Euler’s buckling

of column load

a. Both ends hinged : 2El / l2

b. Both ends fixed : 42El / l2

c. One end fixed and : El / 4l2

other end free



6 of 17

d. One end fixed and : 2 2El/l2

the other hinged

33. For a two-hinged parabolic arch, V= is sum of the vertical forces on the left hand side of the section. H is the horizontal thrust. If is the angle of tangent at the point on arch with the horizontal, the shearing force at section form left hand side is given by

a. Vx sin – H cos

b. Vx cos – H sin

c. Vx sin + H cos

d. Vx cos + H sin

34. In the truss shown in the figure given above, which one of the following members has no force induced in it ?

a. CD

b. CE

c. CF

d. DF

35.

A joint of a roof truss has been isolated and shown in Figure (i). the force polygon for the joint is the shown in Figure (ii). Member ‘a’ is in compression, member ‘d’ is in tension.

Which one of the following is correct ?

a. Both b and c are in tension

b. Both b and c are in compression

c. b is in tension, c is in compression

d. b is in compression, c is in tension


List I

A. Torque-twist relationship for a circular shaft

B. Strain energy of elastic torsion

C. Circumferential shear stress

D. Maximum shearing stress due to combined torsion and direct stress

List II

1. 1/2 2 24

2. Gr / l

3. (GJ/2l)2

4. GJ

l

A B C D

a. 2 3 4 1

b. 4 1 2 3

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 4 3 2 1

37. A beam (El = constant) of span L is subjected to clockwise moments M at both the ends A and B. The rotation of end A works out to be

a. ML / 2 El

b. ML / 3 El

c. ML / 4 El

d. ML / 6 El


The principle of superposition is not applicable when

1. the material does not obey Hooke’s law

2. the effect of temperature changes are taken into consideration

3. the structure is being analysed for the effect of support settlement

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?



7 of 17a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2

c. 2 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3

39. Which of the following apply to ‘fully rigid design’ of steel structures ?

1. End connections are capable of transmitting moments

2. angle between member s at the joint does not change

3. The structure is assumed to be pin-pointed

4. A reduction in the maximum bending moment is permitted to provide a degree of direction fixity


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2

c. 1, 3 and 4

d. 2, 3 and 4

40. For the propped cantilever shown in the figure, influence line for reaction at the propped end is given by y1 = f(x). The influence line ordinate (y2) for moment at A is given by the equation

a. y2 = f(x)

b. y2 = f(x) . x

c. y2 = x – f(x) .x

d. y2 = x – f(x). L

41. In a system two weightless rigid bars AB and BC of length ‘a’ each having hinge supports at the ends. A and C, respectively, are connected to each other at B by a frictionless hinge (internal hinge). The rotation at the hinge is restrained by a rotational spring of stiffness k and system assumes a straight line configuration ABC. The rotation at the supports due to vertical load P acting at joint B is

a. Pa / 2k

b. Pa / 4k

c. Pa / k

d. 2 Pa / k

42. A solid circular shaft, ABC, has a total length of ‘3 a’. A gear wheel positioned at B, at distance ‘a ‘from the left hand end A, exerts a torque T. If the ends A and C are instantaneously locked in position by brakes just before the torque is applied, the torsional moments induced in both segments T1 (AB) and T2 (BC) are in the ratio

a. 3 : 1

b. 2 : 3

c. 1 : 2

d. 2 : 1

43. The degree of indeterminacy of the beam given above is

a. zero

b. one

c. two

d. three

44. For the frame shown above, the distribution factors for members BC and BA at joint B are

a. 0.4, 0.6

b. 0.5, 0.5

c. 0.6, 0.4

d. 0.7, 0.3

45. Creep of a material is a property indicated by

a. a time-dependent strain of the material

b. elongation of the material due to changes in the material properties

c. shortening caused by shrinkage of the member

d. the decrease in the volume of the material affected by the weather conditions

46. Principle of minimum strain energy is



8 of 171. a particular case of Castigliano’s first

theorem

2. a particular case of Castigliano’s second theorem

3. applicable only when the redundant supports do not yield

4. applicable even when the redundant supports yield


a. 1 and 3

b. 1 and 4

c. 2 and 3

d. 2 and 4

47. Two shafts having same length and material are joined in series and subjected to a torque of 10 kNm. If the ratio of their diameters is 2 : 1, then the ratio of their angles of twist is

a. 16 : 1

b. 2 : 1

c. 1 : 2

d. 1 : 16

48. Resilience is

a. Maximum strain energy

b. Recoverable strain energy

c. Total potential energy

d. Shear strain energy(Beyond Hooke’s law)

49. The slenderness ratio of a compression member in the context of Rankine’s formula is defined as

a. length

least lateral dimension

b. effective length

least radius of gyration

c. effective length

least lateral dimension

d. length

least radius of gyration

50. A propped cantilever of span 4 m is fixed at A and propped at B. The beam carries a u.d.l. of 1 t/m over the entire span. The reaction at B is

a. 5/2 t

b. 2 t

c. 1 t

d. 3/2 t

51. The elements that are normally subjected to combined bending and axial forces are

a. struts in reinforced concrete members

b. the member s in long span bridges

c. columns in framed structures

d. space truss members

52. Which among the following assumptions are made in the design of roof trusses ?

1. Roof truss is restrained by the reactions

2. Axes of the members meeting at a joint intersect at a common point

3. riveted joints act as frictionless hinges

4. Loads act normal to roof surface


a. 1, 2 and 4

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 1, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 3

53. The effective flange area in tension of a palte girder is equal to

a. Af

b. wf

AA

2

c. wf

AA

8

d. wf

AA

6

where Af is the area of each flange and Aw is the web area

54. The maximum deflection in timber beams or joints should not be greater than

a. span / 300

b. span / 325

c. span / 360

d. span / 380

55. A simply supported rectangular beam of spam 20.0 m is subjected to u.d.l. The minimum effective depth required to check deflection of this beam, when modification factor for tension and compression are 0.9 and 1.1 respectively, will be

a. 2.0 m

b. 1.8 m

c. 1.3 m



9 of 17d. 1.0 m

56. Prestressing of indeterminate structure should take care of the following :

1. High strength concrete

2. High tensile steel

3. Load balancing

4. particle safety factors


a. 1 and 3

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 4

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

57. For a portai truss column fixed at the base, the point of contraflexure is assumed at

a. a distance mid-way between the base and the foot of the knee brace

b. a distance mid-way between the base and top of the column

c. the foot of the knee brace

d. quarter distance between base and top of the column

58. As the span of a bridge increases, the impact factor

a. decreases

b. increases

c. remains constant

d. increases up to a critical value of span and then decreases

59. A gantry girder has been provided with the following section shown in the following figures

In which case(s), the allowable stresses in being compression is equal to that in tension ?

Select the correct answer using the cods given below :

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 4 only

d. 3 only

60. The effective length of the member shown in the figure is equal to

a. 1.2 L

b. 1.5 L

c. 2.0 L

d. 3.0 L

61. In a compression member, plate element may buckle locally before the entire member fails. To avoid this, which of the following recommendations are made ?

1. Thickness of members is taken in terms of lengths of compression members

2. length of element is increased

3. length of member is increased

4. Outstand is decreased


a. 1 , 2 and 3

b. 1, 2 and 4

c. 2 and 3

d. 1 and 4

62. Figure given below shows a fixed beam of steel

At the point of collapse, the value of load W will be

a. 10 Mp / L

b. 15 Mp / L

c. 20 Mp / L

d. 25 Mp / L

63.



10 of 17A rigid plate C is fastened to steel rod A of area S and to steel pipe B of area 2S. The other ends of A and B are fastened to rigid supports. When the force P is zero, there are no stresses in A and B. The yield stresses in tension and compression y. The collapse load P under yield condition is

a. yS

b. 2 yS

c. 3 yS

d. y S/2

64. A continuous beam ABC of two equal spans AB and BC carries a load P at Z, the centre of BC. Then the magnitude of collapse load P is equal to

a. 2 Mp / l

b. 4 Mp / l

c. 6 Mp / l

d. 8 Mp / l

65. The shape factor for a solid circular section of diameter D is equal to

a. D / 2

b. 15 / 2

c. 16 / 3

d. D / 8

66. Gross flange area for a riveted plate girder is to be designed considering net area as 80% of its gross area. Consider width of the flange as 500 mm while web plate as 1000 mm 12 mm. The girder is to resist a maximum BM of 4500 kNm. Maximum allowable bending stress in tension is 150 MPa. Gross flange area is

a. 22000 mm2

b. 35500 mm2

c. 46000 mm2

d. 73000 mm2

67. Match List I(Type of member ) with List II (Slenderness ratio) and select the correct answer :

List I

A. For compression members carrying dead and superimposed loads

B. For members carrying compressive loads due to wind or seismic forces only

C. Fro members carrying tension but in which the reversal of stress occurs due to wind or seismic forces

List II

1. 350

2. 180

3. 250

A B C

a. 1 2 3

b. 2 3 1

c. 3 1 2

d. 1 3 2

68. A buttress in a wall is intended to provide

a. lateral support to roof slab only

b. lateral support to wall

c. to resist vertical loads only

d. lateral support to roof beams only

69. A continuous R.C. beam spans six span segments, each supporting a monolithic reinforced concrete slab. The beam will best be designed

a. as a rectangular one throughout its span

b. as a tee-beam throughout its span

c. as a rectangular beam for span moments and tee- beam for support moments

d. as tee-beam for span moments and as a rectangular beam for support moments

70. Shrinkage in a concrete slab

a. causes shear cracks

b. causes tension cracks

c. causes compression cracks

d. does not cause nay cracking

71. The reinforcement for tension, when required in members, shall consist of

a. only longitudinal reinforcement in the tension face

b. only longitudinal reinforcement in the compression face

c. only two legged closed loops enclosing the corner reinforcement



11 of 17d. both longitudinal and transverse

reinforcement

72. The codal provisions recommend minimum shear reinforcement in the form of stirrups in the beams :

1. to cater for any torsion in the beam section

2. to improve ductility of the cross-section

3. to improve dowel action of longitudinal tension bars


a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b. 2 and 3 are correct

c. Only 1 is correct

d. Only 2 is correct

73. The specified span to depth ratios of beams satisfying the limits of vertical deflection are for spans up to 10 m.

1. for higher spans, these are to be modified by multiplying the ratio y (10/span in metrer)

2. For higher spans, these are to be modified by multiplying the ratios by (span in metre/10)

3. They get further modified depending on area and type of tension reinforcement

4. However, they of not change further with the area and type of compression reinforcement


a. 1 and 3 are correct

b. 2 and 3 are correct

c. 1 and 4 are correct

d. 2 and 4 are correct

74. When the tendon of a rectangular prestresses beam of cross-sectional area A is subjected to a load W through the centroidal longitudinal axis of beam, (where M = maximum bending Moment and Z = section modulus) then the maximum stress in the beam section will be

a. W M

A Z

b. W M

A Z

c. A Z

W M

d. A Z

W M

75. Which of the following deformations are important in case of deep beams when compared to flexure along?

a. shear

b. axial

c. torsional

d. bearing

76. The maximum depth of neutral axis for a beam with ad as the effective depth, in limit state method of design for Fe 415 steel is

a. 0.46 d

b. 0.48 d

c. 0.50 d

d. 0.53 d

77. The load factor to be used for plastic design of steel structures for dead load and imposed load is

a. 2.2

b. 2.0

c. 1.7

d. 1.5


List I

A. A rubber bulldozer gives better output

B. A bulldozer mounted on crawler tracks gives better output

C. A rubber tyred bulldozer

D. A crawler mounted bulldozer

List II

1. While working on earth or soft ground

2. Results in lesser operator fatigues

3. Has greater use and versatility on jobs

4. When working on a hard surface

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 4 1 2 3

c. 2 3 4 1

d. 4 3 2 1



12 of 1779. A compression member has a centre to

centre length of 4.0 m. It is fixed at one end and hinged at the other end. The effective length of the column is

a. 4.0 m

b. 3.2 m

c. 2.8 m

d. 2.6 m

80. Deck bridges have the main disadvantage that

a. their compression flanges have no lateral support

b. the traffic is exposed to winds

c. it is not possible to provide portal bracings

d. the road level has to be very high

81. If cbc is permissible compressive stress in flexural compression in N/mm2 in service, the modular ratio is of the order of

a. 280/ 3 cbc

b. 280 / 4 cbc

c. 19

d. 13

82. In a Pedestal, the factor by which the effective length should not exceed the least lateral dimension is

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

83. The losses in prestress in pre-tensioning system are due to

1. elastic deformation of concrete when wires are tensioned successively

2. friction

3. shrinkage and creep of concrete


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 alone

d. 3 alone

84. Match list I with List II and select the correct answer :

List I(Type of mixers)

A. Tilting, drum type concrete mixers

B. Pan type concrete mixers

C. Portable tilting drum type concrete mixers

D. Portable non-tilting drum type concrete mixers


1. Are very efficient especially with stiff mixes and the drum rotates about a vertical axis

2. Are meant for small, scattered jobs using small-sized aggregates

3. Are fed from on side of the drum while the mixed concrete is discharged from the other end and the drum rotates about a horizontal axis

4. Are best suited for large sized aggregates as in mass concrete

A B C D

a. 2 3 4 1

b. 4 1 2 3

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 4 3 2 1


List I(Vibrators)

A. Vibrating tables

B. Screed vibrators

C. Internal vibrators

D. Form vibrators

List II(Application)

1. For thin tunnel linings

2. for mass concrete work

3. Fro precasting concrete members

4. for thin slabs, pavements and floors

A B C D

a. 3 1 2 4

b. 2 4 3 1

c. 3 4 2 1

d. 2 1 3 4

86. An equipment of purchased of Rs. 40, 000 and is fully depreciated by straight line method over 8 years. Considering interest on average annual cost at 15 p.a., the charge on the Company due to use of this equipment, if made uniformly over the 8 years, is

a. Rs. 5,750

b. Rs. 8,000



13 of 17c. Rs. 8,350

d. Rs. 14,000

87. Which of the following are the disadvantages of non-tilting type concrete mixers ?

1. They are not favoured when large sized aggregates are use d

2. Mixing of the concrete occurs through both rolling and pulling from buckets

3. Content of fines is increased

4. They are no easy to clean


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 4

d. 2, 3 and 4


List I (Type of cranes)

A. Hydraulic crane

B. Electric overhead crane

C. Travelling bridge crane

D. Hammerhead crane


1. Has legs moving on tracks laid on the floor

2. Has cantilever arms on both sides

3. Has the unique advantage that the boom length and the angle can be changed during operation

4. Has three-way motion in mutually perpendicular directions

A B C D

a. 3 2 1 4

b. 1 4 3 2

c. 3 4 1 2

d. 1 2 3 4

89. The norm for providing standby equipment for one shift operation is

a. 5%

b. 10%

c. 20%

d. 30%

90.

In the network given above, the maximum number of shovels and dumpers required are

a. 6 shovels and 14 dumpers on days 9 and 10

b. 24 shovels and 10 dumpers on days 3 and 4

c. 30 shovels and 90 dumpers on all days

d. 10 shovels and 24 dumpers on day s3 and 4

91. For cleaning and grubbing of construction site of 15000 m3 area, a bulldozer is used which has effective width of 2 m of the blade and an average speed of 2.5 kmph. If hiring charges of bulldozer are Rs. 500/hr., then cost per m2 is

a. Rs. 10

b. Rs. 12

c. Rs. 15

d. Rs. 18

92.

In the network given above, the critical path of activities is

a. A-C-H

b. B-E-F-H

c. A-D-E-F-H

d. A-D-E-G

93. The probability that the load on a scaffolding will exceed the design load of 3 tonnes is 0.15. At the same time, the probability that the strength of the scaffolding will be more than 3 tonnes is 0.85. The probability that the scaffolding will fail is

a. 0.2775

b. 0.1275

c. 0.0225



14 of 17d. 0.0020

94. The optimum duration is the

a. the summation of normal-durations of each activity in the project

b. summation of the normal-duration of activities on critical path

c. one, which givens minimum total cost for completing the project

d. summation of crash-time of activities on critical path

95. In order to investigate a method of least- cost scheduling, which of the following assumptions are made ?

1. the planned duration of an activity can be any whole day value between the normal and crash duration

2. the direct cost of an activity is linear between he normal and crash direct costs

3. The overhead costs I linear during the entire project.


a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3

96. Which one of the following statements applies to the declining balance method of depreciation accounting?

a. Uniform write-off of cost throughout the service is aimed

b. Greater write-off in the early years is aimed

c. Smaller write-off in early years is aimed

d. A varying rate of depreciation is applied on the basis of marker value of the assets

97. In selecting a roller I-section for a simply-supported beam, along with minimum sectional modulus, a minimum value of span/depth ratio is also ensured. This is stipulated to ensure that

a. the buckling of beam does not take place

b. the shear stress in beam remains within permissible limit

c. the deflection of beam remains within permissible limit

d. the bending stress in compression is within permissible limit

98. Assertion (A) : Trees which have broad leaves and shed in the autumn are classified as hard woods, while trees having needle-like leaves, broadly evergreen are classified as soft woods.

Reason (R) : The term hard wood and





99. Assertion (A) : Flash set is the stiffening of the cement paste within a few minutes after mixing.

Reason (R) : Flash set occurs due to insufficient gypsum to control the rapid reaction of C3A with water.





100. Assertion (A) : The amount of cement past should be sufficient to cover the surface of all particle for proper work-ability and bond.

Reason (R) : The water –cement ratio is fixed accordingly.





101. Assertion (A) : the coefficient of friction is the ratio of limiting frictional force to normal reaction between two bodies in contact and one body being just on the sliding on the other.

Reason (R) : The limiting friction is the maximum value of frictional force, which comes in to play, when a body just begins to slide over the surface of the other body.



15 of 17a. Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A




102. Assertion (A) : The bending moment at a section of a simply supported beam is a maximum.

(i) in the case of a concentrated load, where the S.F. changes sign.

(ii) in the case of u.d.l where shearing force is zero.

Reason (R) : Actually in both the above cases shearing force should be zero at the section of maximum being moment, because dM/dx = f = 0, to satisfy the maxima condition.





103. Assertion (A) : The principle of super-position for deflection of beams subjected to a number of loads can be applied in the case of large deformation.

Reason (R) : In the principle of superposition, the resultant deflection s due to each load acting separately.





104. Assertion (A) : In the working stress design method the internal stresses at a section of member are computed for factored loads.

Reason (R) : In the working stress design method it is ensured that the internal stresses due to working loads are less than the allowable stresses.





105. Assertion (A) : The salvage value is less in the initial period of the equipment and increases as the equipment ages.

Reason (R) : The salvage value of an equipment is the actual amount the at can be realized on a trade-in for a replacement machine.





106. Assertion (A) : Knots, one of the common features in wood, are associated with the beginning of branches.

Reason (R) : Knots greatly improve the workability.





107. Assertion (A) : More uniformly burnt bricks are obtained form a downward draught kiln.

Reason (R) : The bricks are laid in a circular form in their kiln.





108. Assertion (A) : The higher percentage of Tricalcium silicate in cement results in rapid hardening with an early gain in strength at a higher heat of hydration.

Reason (R) : A higher percentage of dicalcium silicate in cement results in rapid slow hardening and less heat of hydration and greater resistance to chemical attack.




correct explanation of A




109. Assertion (A) : For a given composition, a finer cement will develop strength and generate heat more quickly than a coarse cement.

Reason (R) : The reaction between water and cement starts on the surface of the cement particles and in consequence the greater the surface area of a given volume of cement, the grater the hydration.





110. Assertion (A) : The strain and stress system for a bar of length ‘l’ subjected to an axial pull will be the same whether both ends of the bar are free or one end is fixed and the other end is free.

Reason (R) : Rigid body displacements have no effect on the elastic deformations.





111. Assertion (A) : for a section having an axis of symmetry, there will not be twisting if the loading axis coincides with the symmetrical axis.

Reason (R) : The plane of loading contains the bending axis.





112. Assertion (A) : A beam of fixed length and for given weight of material, a rectangular cross-section provides the greatest possible moment of resistance.

Reason (R) : In a beam of 1 cross-section, more material is positioned near the outer fibres representing regions of greatest stress and hence is stronger than beam of rectangular cross-section.





113. Assertion (A) : Whenever a column section is subjected to an eccentric loading, it causes a direct stress, as well as the being stress to come into play. Since both these stresses act normal to the cross-section, these can be algebraically added into a single resultant stress.

Reason (R) : The maximum and minimum intensities of stress at the base of the column are

pmax = W 6e

1+b b

pmin = W 6e

1b b

where

W = weight of column per unit length.

b = width of the column

c = eccentricity of the load.





114. Assertion (A) : The intensity of the longitudinal stress is on half of the intensity of hoop-stress of hoop-stress or circumferential stress in a thin cylindrical shell subjected to internal pressure.

Reason (R) : The stress in the longitudinal and circumferential directions develop when a thin cylindrical shell is subjected to



17 of 17internal force which tries to burst the cylinder.





115. Assertion (A) : When attempting resource optimization, activity-time cost trade off information could be gainfully employed.

Reason (R) : Generally, as activity time is extended beyond the minimum cost duration, splitting of the activity duration is always possible.





116. Assertion (A) : The more economical alternative of replacing an equipment is to redesign and improve the equipment.

Reason (R) : Redesigning and improving an equipment can result in labour saving.





117. Assertion (A) : Area of BMD represented by ‘X’ in the figure given above equals 2/3Ml.

Reason (R) : Area of the figure represented by ‘Y’ equals ml/3.





118. Assertion (A) : In the analysis of pin-jointed plane frames, the force method is generally preferable to the displacement method.

Reason (R) : The degrees of freedom for pin-jointed plane frames are generally much larger than the degrees of static indeterminacy and thus force method requires less formulation and computation than the displacement method.





119. Assertion (A) : In a built-in beam, the centroids of the fixed moment diagram and the free moment diagram will lie on the same vertical line.

Reason (R) : the second theorem of area moment states that, if two points on the elastic line of the beam are at the same level, the moment of area of BMD enclosed between these point about any one of these point is zero.





120. Assertion (A) : The strength of a beam does not depend upon the sectional area provided.

Reason (R) : It depends upon the disposition of the sectional area of the beam in relation to its neutral axis.







1 of 16

(PAPER–II) 1. Acidic soils are reclaimed by

a. leaching of the solid b. using limestone as a soil amendment c. using gypsum as a soil amendment d. provision of drainage

2. The correct statement of comparison of ultimate BOD, COD. Theoretical oxygen demand (ThOD) and 5-day BOD (BOD5) is a. BODu > COD > ThOD > BOD5 b. COD > ThOD > BODu > BOD5 c. ThOD > COD > BODu > BOD5 d. COD > BODu > BOD5 > ThOD

3. At a sewage treatment plant for a flow of 3 m2/s, the cross-sectional area of grit chamber will be about a. 3 m2 b. 10 m2 c. 25 m2 d. 30 m2

4. Match list I (Different forms of nitrogen in water) with List II (Inferences) and select the correct answer : List I A. Nitrate nitrogen B. Total nitrogen C. Nitrite nitrogen D. Ammonia nitrogen List II 1. Unsatisfactory microbial activity 2. satisfactory microbial activity 3. Europhication may result 4. Recent organic pollution A B C D a. 3 2 1 4 b. 1 4 3 2 c. 3 4 1 2 d. 1 2 3 4

5. Match List I(Standards of sewage effluents for the discharge in surface) with list II (Tolerance limits) and select the correct answer :

List I A. BOD5, (mg/l) B. COD, (mg/l) C. Oil and grease D. Total suspended solids, (mg/l) List II 1. 250 2. 30 3. 20 4. 10 A B C D a. 3 4 1 2 b. 2 4 1 3 c. 3 1 4 2 d. 2 1 4 3

6. In the preliminary treatment of wastewater, skimming tanks are often included in the treatment scheme. Various features of skimming tanks are that these : 1. can remove general floating matter 2. can remove oily and greasy matter 3. have detention time of 30 min. 4. employ compressed air blown through

diffusers Which of these statemtns are correct ? a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2

7. The following is a well known formula for estimating the plume rise :

s h

s

V d Qh 1.5 0.0096

u V d

where the letters have their usual meaning The estimates plume rise (by the above formula) with a stack gas having heat emission rate 2000 kJ/s, the wind speed 4 m/s, stack gas speed 8 m/s inside a stack diameter of 1 m at the top is a. 7.8 m b. 8.7 m

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2002




2 of 16c. 3.15 m

d. 8000/ (1.5 + 0.0024) 8. In sampling of stack gases for

measurement of concentration of Suspended particular matter(SPM), the flue gases are sucked in the instrument at a. any rate of flow from mid diameter of

chimney b. any point of chimney cross-section and

at any rate of flow c. a constant rate of flow but at four

equidistant point along the diameter d. controlled position and controlled

velocities along the chimney diameter to get isokinetic conditions

9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I (Air pollutants) A. SPM B. NO C. CO D. SO2 List II (Harmful effects) 1. Blood haemoglobin 2. Vegetation 3. Respiratory system 4. Building materials A B C D a. 3 4 1 2 b. 1 2 3 4 c. 3 2 1 4 d. 1 4 3 2

10. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I (Air pollutants) A. Hydrocarbons B. Particulates and gases C. Sulphur dioxide D. Carbon monoxide List II(Emitted mainly by) 1. Coal burning 2. Gasoline fuel 3. Tyres 4. Carburettor A B C D a. 3 4 2 1 b. 4 3 2 1 c. 3 4 1 2

d. 4 3 1 2 11. ‘Air binding’ may occur in

a. Sewers b. Artesian well c. Aerator d. Filter

12. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer : List I(Valves) A. Sluice value B. Check value C. Air inlet value D. Ball valve List II(Uses) 1. Used where gravity flow is required

through pipe line 2. Used to maintain constant level of

water 3. Used for reversal of flow 4. Used for isolating

A B C D a. 1 3 4 2 b. 4 2 1 3 c. 1 2 4 3 d. 4 3 1 2

13. Consider the following statements : While deciding to locate an intake structure for a city situated on a river bank, intake for water supply should be locate 1. in deep waters 2. sufficiently away from shore lines 3. upstream of the populated city 4. near navigational channel Which of these are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 3 and 4

14. The population figures in a growing town are as follows :

Year Population 1970 40,000 1980 46,000 1990 53,000 2000 58,000

The predicted population in 2010 by Arithmetic Regression method is a. 62,000



3 of 16b. 63,000 c. 64,000 d. 65,000

15. The description of solid waste collected is as follows : Night soil – 35 t Rubbish – 40 t Debris – 25 t Garbage – 40 t The organic solids in the above composition is a. 35 t b. 60 t c. 100 t d. 75 t

16. In a sanitary landfill, decomposition and chemical changes within organic content of the solid wastes goes on. Consequential changes within landfill can be : 1. Temperature changes within landfill 2. Production of gases like H2S, CO,

CO2, and CH4 3. Destruction of pathogens 4. Production of other gases like SO2 and

NO2 Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 3

17. In a soil specimen, 70% of particles are passing through 3.75 mm I.S. sieve and 40% of particle are passing through 75 I.S. sieve. Its uniformity coefficient is 8 and coefficient of curvature is 2. As per I.S. classification, this soil is classified as a. SP b. GP c. SW d. GW

18. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I(Roller type) A. Pneumatic roller B. Smooth wheeled roller C. Sheep foot roller D. Vibratory roller List II (Soil type) 1. Cohesive and granular soils

2. Plastic soils of moderate cohesion 3. Cohesionless soils 4. Silty soils of low plasticity A B C D a. 4 2 1 3 b. 3 1 2 4 c. 4 1 2 3 d. 3 2 1 4

19. The correct sequence of plasticity of mineral in soil in an increasing order is a. Silica, Kaolinite, Illite,

Montmorillonite b. Kaolinite, Silica, Illite,

Montmorillonite c. Silica, Kaolinite, Montmorillonite

Illite, d. Kaolinite, Silica, Montmorillonite

Illite, 20. In a triaxial test at failure, major principal

stress was 180 kPa, minor principal stress was 100 kPa, and pore pressure was 20 kPa. The tangent of the angle of shearing resistance of the sandy soil tested is a. 1/3 b. 2/7 c. 1/2 d. 1/6

21. Laboratory vane shear test can also be used to determine a. Shear parameters of silty sand b. Shear parameters of sandy clay c. Liquid limit of silty clay d. Plastic limit of clayey silt

22. When movement of a wall under the earth pressures from the backfill was prevented the coefficient of earth pressure was recorded as 0.5. The ratio of the coefficients of passive and active earth pressure s of the backfill is a. 1/3 b. 3 c. 1/9 d. 9

23. Taylor’s stability number Sn is given by which one of the following expressions ? (C is cohesion, Fc is factor of safely, is density of soil and H, the height of the slope)



4 of 16

a. c

C

F γ

b. C

γ H

c. c

C

F γ H

d. c

C

F (γ + H)

24. Consider the following statements : Theory of consolidation predicts settlement due to primary consolidation; it cannot include settlement due to initial compression nor due to secondary consolidation. This happens because of the following assumptions made by the theory: 1. Soil grains and water are

incompressible 2. Soil is fully saturated 3. compression takes place in vertical

direction only 4. Time lag in consolidation is entirely

due to low permeability of soil Which of these statemtns are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2, and 3 c. 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4

25. In the phase diagrams given, the change due to initial state changing into final state is shown due to consolidation. Depth of soil layer undergoing consolidation is H; e0 is initial void ratio; e is final void ratio; is change in void ratio.

Indicate which of the following expression given settlement of the layer:

a. 100

H . log1

e

e

b. 100

log H . 1

e

e

c. 01

e

e

d. 0

H .1

e

e

26. Which one of the following statement s regarding coefficient of consolidation Cv is correct ?

a. Cv k

b. Cv 1/k

c. Cv mv

d. Cv av 27. Consider the following factors :

1. Reaction time 2. Speed 3. Coefficient of longitudinal friction 4. Gradient Which of these factors are taken into account for computing braking distance ? a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 2 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 2 and 3

28. Consider the following factors : 1. Period of construction, winter/summer 2. Degree of foundation roughness 3. slab thickness 4. Reinforced/unreinforced Which of these factors are considered as per IRC for obtaining the maximum expansion joint spacing in rigid pavements? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 4

29. Match list I(Type of construction) with List II (% Bitumen content) and select the correct answer : List I A. Bituminous macadam B. Dense bituminous macadam C. Bituminous concrete D. Bituminous mastic List II 1. 3 –3.5% 2. 4%

3. 14–17%



5 of 164. Min. 4.5%

A B C D

a. 4 2 1 3 b. 1 2 4 3 c. 4 3 1 2 d. 1 3 4 2

30. A journey from work to home made by walking to the bus, travelling by bus to the station and completing the journey by train is regarded as a. 4 trips b. 3 trips c. 2 trips d. 1 trip

31. With addition of lime in soil a. L.L. increases and P.L. decreases b. Plasticity index increase c. L.L. changes very slightly and P.L.

increase d. L.L. and P.L. both decrease

32. On a National Highway pavement section mean value of Benkelman beam deflection was obtained 12 1.45 mm with standard deviation of 0.017 mm. pavement temperature measured was 37oc and moisture correction was obtained as 1.6. What is the value of characteristic deflection considering the value of 2 ? a. 2.72 mm b. 2.69 mm c. 2.63 mm d. 1.94 mm

33. If the curve lead of a broad gauge railway turnout is 16.76 meters, the angle of crossing of the turnout will be given by a. tan–1 10 b. tan–1 5 c. tan–1 1/10 d. tan–1 1/5

34. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I (Device) A. Pandrol clip B. Densometer C. Viseur’s mire D. Cotters List II(used for)

1. Fixing the tie bars with the C.I. sleepers

2. Measurement of ‘packing voids’ under the sleeper ands

3. Measurement of unevenness of rail top and rectification f alignment

4. Elastic rail fastening A B C D a. 1 3 2 4 b. 4 2 1 3 c. 1 2 3 4 d. 4 3 2 1

35. Consider the following factors : 1. Mass of ships to be berthed 2. Overall transit time Speed of berthing 3. environmental conditions of the port Which of these factors are taken into account while selecting the type of fender system ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 1 and 4

36. Which one of these methods of Tunnel construction is not suitable in rocks ? a. Full face method b. Compressed air method c. Heading and benching method d. Drift method

37. Consider the following factors : 1. Air traffic control measures 2. aircraft traffic composition 3. VFR/IFR operation 4. Runway configuration Which of these factors affect the capacity of a runway? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

38. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I (Imaginary surface) A. Conical B. Approach C. Primary D. Transitional List II(Characteristic)



6 of 161. Longitudinally centered on a runway 2. Longitudinally entered on the extended

runway 3. Extending outward and upward from

the periphery of the horizontal structure

4. Extending outward and upward at right angles to the runway centre line

A B C D a. 3 1 2 4 b. 4 2 1 3 c. 3 2 1 4 d. 4 1 2 3

39. Assertion (A) : Abrupt rise in pressure in a pipe line results from sudden closure of a value. Reason (R) : Pressure wave propagates through elastic medium. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



40. Assertion (A) : Selection of turbine by specific speed criterion is more scientific. Reason (R) : Specific speed is independent of dimensions, size of both actual and specific turbine. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



41. Assertion (A) :Unit hydrograph theory is not applicable to catchment areas larger than Reason (R) : Rainfall is not uniformly distributed on large catchment areas. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



42. Assertion (A) :In routing a flood hydrograph through a reservoir, the peak of the outflow hydrograph will be smaller

than the inflow hydrograph and it occurs after the peak of the inflow. Reason (R) : In linear reservoir routing, the storage is a fencing of both outflow and inflow discharges. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



43. Assertion (A) : cut-offs are provided on the down-stream base of hydraulic structures. Reason (R) : Hydraulic structures fail by overturning about the downstream based of excessive erasing oat the base caused by overflowing water. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



44. Assertion (A) : Sprinkler method of irrigation has a higher water applications use efficiency. Reason (R) : Sprinkler system causes less interference in cultivation and to the farming operations. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



45. Assertion (A) : U.K. Royal commission on Sewage Disposal of 1898-1915 classified British rivers on the basis 65o F, 5-day BOD. Reason (R) : British rivers do not have flow time to open sea more than 5 days. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



46. Assertion (A) : Settled sewage is subjected to biological treatment .



7 of 16Reason (R) : Any biological treatment is preceded by a settling tank. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



47. Assertion (A) : the surface of sea water is on the rise. Reason (R) : A thick layer of gases enveloping the earth does not allow heat to pas into space from the earth at a rate which is as much as the rate at which the heat coming from space penetrates it towards the earth. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



48. Assertion (A) : Wet scrubber removes particulates from a gaseous stream. Reason (R) : In the wet scrubber water droplets come into contact with the particulates. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



49. Assertion (A) : The shape of the impeller of rotodynamic pumps is such as to force the water in a radial / mixed / or axial flow patterns. Reason (R) : A rotodynamic pump has a wheel or a rotating element which rotates the water in a casing and , thus imparts energy to he water. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



50. Assertion (A) : A soil is at its liquid limit if the consistency index of the soil is equal to zero.

Reason (R) : The consistency index of a soil is defined as ratio of (liquid limit minus the natural water content) to (natural water content minus plastic limit). a. Both A and R are true and R is the



51. Assertion (A) : A clay layer of thickness, H, with single drainage suffers an ultimate settlement of S under increase in pressure of . When a thin sand layer is present at its mid depth, the layer, under otherwise identical conditions, will have no change in ultimate settlements. Reason (R) : The path of travel of water for the clay layer is H under single drainage. When a thin sand layer is present at mid depth of clay layer, the path of travel in lower half of the layer gets reduce to H/2 and that in upper half of the layer gets reduced to H/4. This considerably reduced the time required to realize ultimate settlement. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



52. Assertion (A) : Terzaghi’s bearing capacity theory over-estimates the bearing capacity of footings. Reason (R) : Terzaghi’s theory neglects the hearing resistance of rupture surface in the soil above the foundation level. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



53. Assertion (A) : A skilful highway designer ‘builds in’ speed control at critical locations on horizontal curves rather than increase than increase the superelevation. Reason (R) : A driver slows down on horizontal curve due to feeling of



8 of 16discomfort because of increase in side friction with reduced superelevation. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



54. Assertion (A) : At a given station, a celestial body can be fixed by its co-altitude and co-declination. Reason (R) : In the astronomical triangle ZPS, ZP is constant for the given place and s is the intersection of the vertical circle and declination of circle. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



55. Assertion (A) : The Marshall test, being a confined compression test has correlation with deformation as it occurs on the road. Reason (R) : In road, loaded area is confined by the tyre, the surrounding surfacing and the road base. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



56. Assertion (A) : The principal advantage of the solid fill type of wharf substructure is that its great mass provides adequate resistance to the impact of mooring ships. Reason (R) : solid fill substructure are inexpensive (except in deep water) and require little maintenance. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



57. z is the vertical stress at a depth equal to Z in the soil mass due to a surface point load q. The vertical stress at depth equal to 2Z will be

a. 0.25 z

b. 0.50 z

c. 1.0 z

d. 2.0 z 58. Which one of the following represents

relative density of saturated sand deposit having moisture content of 25%, if maximum and minimum void ratio of sand are 0.95 and 0.45 respectively and specific gravity of sand particles is 2.6 ? a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. 70%

59. The correct sequence of the increasing order of the disturbance to soil samples obtained from chunk, piston, split spoon and remolded sampler is a. Piston sampler, chunk sampler, split

spoon sampler, remolded sampler b. Chunk sampler, piston sampler, split

spoon sampler , remolded sampler c. Piston sampler, chunk sampler,

remolded sampler, split spoon sampler d. Chunk sampler, piston sampler,

remolded sampler, split spoon sampler 60. A rigid strip footing subjected to vertical

central load fails under general shear failure. The rupture surface developed is a. Circular one sided rotational failure b. Plane surface of failure originating at

the edge of footing and extending downwards with orientation of Rankine passive state equilibrium

c. Symmetrical failure surface consisting of segment of log spiral and Rankine’s passive state failure surface

d. Symmetrical failure surface consisting of segments of log spiral and plane failure surface as per Rankine active state of equilibrium

61. The change in the vertical stress in the soil mass estimated by Boussinesq’s equation when Poisson’s ratio of soil changes from 0.3 to 0.5 will be a. reduction by 30% b. increase by 50% c. reduction by 20% d. no change



9 of 1662. A single pile, 50 cm in diameter and 15 m

long is driven in clay having an average unconfined compressive strength of 100 kN/m2. The ultimate bearing capacity of the pile, neglecting end bearing, if any, and assuming shear mobilization factor of 0.8 around the pile is a. 942 kN b. 1884 kN c. 1177.5 kN d. 1334.5 kN

63. In a plate load test on sandy soil, the test plate of 60 cm 60 cm undergoes a settlement of 5 mm at a pressure of 12 104 N/m2. What will be the expected settlement of 3 m 3 m footing under same pressure ? a. 25 mm b. 20 mm c. 15 mm d. 9 mm

64. Match List I (Method of estimating pile capacity) with List II (Parameter to be estimated) and select the correct answer : List I A. Dynamic formulae B. Static formulae C. Pile load test D. Cyclic pile load test List II 1. Bearing capacity of cast-in–situ

concrete pile 2. Separating end-bearing and friction-

bearing powers of a pile 3. Bearing capacity of a timber pile 4. Settlement of a friction–bearing pile A B C D a. 3 1 4 2 b. 4 2 3 1 c. 3 2 4 1 d. 4 1 3 2

65. For designing and bearing piles of square cross-section in clays having average unconfined compressive strength of 6 t/m2, the net ultimate bearing capacity may be taken as a. 15 t/m2 b. 18 t/m2 c. 20 t/m2 d. 27 t/m2

66. Which one of the expressions given below correctly relates natural frequency fn, spring stiffness k, mass m of the machine foundation vibrating system with Cu, the coefficient elastic uniform compression of the foundation soil ?

a. nf = 1/2π k/m CuA/M

b. nf = k/m 2 CuA/M

c. nf = k/m = 1/2π CuA/M

d. nf = 1/2π k/m = 1/2π CuA/M

67. Consider the following statements : 1. Quick condition and liquefaction of

saturated sands are based on similar phenomenon.

2. Quick condition is associated with only earth dams.

3. Liquefaction is possible in dry sand also

4. Liquefaction is associated with increase in pore water pressure due to vibrations.

Which of these statemtns are corrects ? a. 2 and 4 b. 1 and 4 c. 1 and 2 d. 1, 3 and 4

68. A wooden bridge in Assam failed and was observed to have arched up in the middle after the earthquake. The right abutment settled 40 cm and left abutment 30 cm. The bridge was supported on wooden piles, which floated up during the earthquake. The most probable cause of failure is a. Shear failure of soil below abutments b. Excessive settlement below abutments

due to increased forces c. Liquefaction of foundation soil below

abutments and piles d. Failure of abutments due to dynamic

earth pressure behind abutments 69. Which one of the following surveys is

employed for collecting sufficient data in connection with sewage disposal and water supply works ? a. Topographic survey b. Cadastral survey c. Geodetic survey d. Cross-sectioning & profile levelling



10 of 1670. Match List I with List II ands select te

correct answer : List I(corrections)

A. h

±L 1R

B. 2

1 W

24 P

C. f s± T T L

D. f sP

±AE

P L

List II (Name) 1. Sag correction 2. Pull correction 3. Temperature correction 4. Mean sea level correction (where the letters have their usual meaning)

A B C D a. 4 1 3 2 b. 1 4 3 2 c. 4 1 2 3 d. 4 2 3

71. The following readings were taken with a Dumpy level and a 4 m levelling staff on a continuously sloping ground at 30 m intervals: 0.680 m, 1.455 m, 2.330 m, 2.885 m, 3.380 m, 1.055 m. The R.L. of the fourth point was calculated to be 79.100 m. The R.L. of the point that was read 0.680 m is a. 80.750 m b. 79.780 m c. 78.420 m d. 77.740 m

72. The object of chain and cross-staff survey is to 1. locate the boundaries of an area 2. plot the figure to a scale 3. find the area of the plot 4. find the reduced levels of the plot Which of the above statements is/are correct ? a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 4 alone

73. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I(Methods) A. Traversing B. Resection C. Intersection D. Radiation List II (Procedures) 1. Rays are drawn to locate the station on

which the table is set up 2. At least two rays are drawn from two

different stations to the details to be located

3. Rays are drawn in the direction of details through the station point on which the table is set up

4. Rays are drawn on the map by setting up the table over each of the stations towards the subsequent station

A B C D a. 4 3 2 1 b. 2 1 4 3 c. 4 1 2 3 d. 2 3 4 1

74. The process of determining the location of the station (on the map) occupied by the plane is called as a. Intersection b. Three-point problem c. Traversing d. Resection

75. Which one of the following is the angular distance between the observer’s meridian and the vertical circle passing through a star measured along the celestial horizon ? a. Right ascension b. Azimuth c. Declination d. Hour angle

76. A vertical photograph of a chimney was taken from and elevation of 500 m above M.S.L. the elevation of the base of the chimney was 250 m. If the relief displacement of the chimney was 51.4 mm and the radial distance of the image of the top of the chimney was 110 mm, the height of the chimney is a. 233.64 m b. 133.2 m c. 116.82 m



11 of 16d. 58.41 m

77. Based on ‘30th hour volume’, for how much percent time during the year can the designer willingly tolerate the unfavorable operating conditions ? a. 30 b. 29 c. 2.5 d. 0.33

78. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I (Definitions) A. Newtonian fluid B. Ideal fluid C. Thixotropic fluid D. Rheological fluid List II (Properties) 1. Frictionless and incompressible 2. Viscosity is invariant with shear stress 3. Viscosity decreases at higher shear

stress 4. Viscosity increase at higher shear

stress A B C D a. 2 4 1 3 b. 3 1 4 2 c. 2 1 4 3 d. 3 4 1 2

79. An isosceles triangular plate of base 3 m and altitude 3 m is immersed vertically in an oil of specific gravity 0.8. The base of the plate coincides with the free surface of oil. The centre of pressure will lie at a distance of (from free surface) a. 2.5 m b. 2 m c. 1.5 m d. 1 m

80. One orifice is located at a distance x from the free surface while another orifice is located at the same distance x from the bottom of the tank as shown in the figure.

The water jets through the orifices a. intersect at point A b. intersect at point B c. strike the plane at points C and B

respectively d. would be striking at E and F only

81. A spillway of an irrigation project is to be studied by means of a model constructed to a scale of 1 : 9. The prototype discharge is 1000 m3/s. neglecting the viscous and surface tension effects, the required flow rate for the model is a. 12.35 m3 / s b. 111.11 m3 / s c. 4.11 m3 / s d. 1.37 m3 / s

82. An oil of viscosity 9 poise is flowing through a horizontal pipe of 60 mm diameter. If the flow is laminar, the pressure drop in 100 m length of the pipe is 1800 kN/m2. The average velocity of flow of the oil is a. 2.25 m/s b. 0.55 m/s c. 5.5 m/s d. 22.5 m/s

83. Match List I (Flow pattern past a cylinder)with List II (Pressure distribution) and select the correct answer : List I A.

B.

C.



12 of 16

D. List II

1.

2.

3.

4. A B C D a. 2 5 1 3 b. 4 3 5 2 c. 2 1 5 4 d. 4 3 1 2

84. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I

A. (u/y)y = 0 is zero

B. (u/y)y = 0 is +ve C. Displacement thickness D. Momentum thickness List II 1. The flow is attached flow 2. The flow is on the verge of separation

3. 0

1u u

dyU U

4. 0

1u

dyU

A B C D a. 1 2 3 4 b. 2 1 3 4 c. 1 2 4 3 d. 2 1 4 3

85. The procedure to be followed in solving for discharge in a simple pipe problem, when hf, l, D, v and are given is to

[Note : Re is Reynolds number, f = friction coefficient,

/D = relative roughness, V = velocity ]

a. assume f, compute : v, R, /D and calculate f; and repeat is necessary

b. assume Re, compute f, check /D c. assume v, compute Re and calculate f,

V again d. assume Q, compute V, Re and

calculate 86. The Chezy’s coefficient C is related to

Darcy-Weisbach friction factor f as

a. C = ( / 8 )g f

b. C = 1/4(8 / )g f

c. C = (8 / )g f

d. C = ( / 8 )f g

87. For a hydraulically efficient rectangular section, the ratio of width to normal depth is a. 0.5 b. 1.0 c. 2.0

d. 2 3

88. A rigid boundary rectangular channel having a bed slope of 1/800 has its width and depth of flow equal to 2 m and 1 m respectively. If the flow is uniform and the value of Chezy’s constant is 60, the discharge through the channel is a. 1.0 m3/s b. 1.5 m3/s c. 2.0 m3s d. 3.0 m3/s

89. Consider the following statements in regard to the critical flow : 1. specific energy is maximum for a

given discharge 2. Specific force is maximum for a given

discharge 3. Discharge is maximum for a given

specific force 4. Discharge is maximum for a given

specific energy Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 1 and 4



13 of 16c. 2 and 3 d. 3 and 4

90. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer List I(Slope) A. Mild B. Adverse C. Limit D. Critical List II (Description) 1. is when the flow is at Froude number

one along the channel 2. is n example of non-sustaining slop 3. always sustains uniform subcritical

flow 4. is one which has smallest critical slope

for a given channel shape and roughness

A B C D a. 3 2 4 1 b. 1 4 2 3 c. 3 4 2 1 d. 1 2 4 3

91. If F1 and F2 are the Froude numbers of flow before and after the hydraulic jump occurring in a rectangular channel, then

a.

2

2 12 2

211 1 8

FF

F

b.

2

2 12 2

21

8

1 1 8

FF

F

c.

2

2 12 2

211/ 2 1 8

FF

F

d.

2

2 12 2

21

8

1/ 2 1 8

FF

F

92. Consider the following statemtns about a hydraulic ram: 1. Hydraulic ram does not need external

power 2. It works on the fundamental principle

of water hammer 3. The efficiency of a hydraulic ram is

only of the order of 8 to 10% 4. It can be termed as a low, intermittent

discharge lowhead pumping installation

Which of these statements are correct ? a. 2 and 3 b. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 1 and 2 d. 1 and 3

93. Consider the following statemtns related to centrifugal pumps : 1. Centrifugal pumps with blades facing

backward have fast runners 2. Multistage pumps have two or more

impellers installed in series so that the discharge is increase

3. Diffusion type centrifugal pumps are called turbine pumps

4. A centrifugal pump with rising characteristic is used when actual lift is small and the amount of flow is constant

Which of these statemtns are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1, 2 and 4 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4

94. The following items related to hydrologic requirements in a hydropower system. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I A. Stream flow in order of magnitude is

plotted as ordinate and percent of time as abscissa.

B. Cumulative value of stream flow is plotted against time for whose period of record

C. Plot of available power against percent of time

D. Plot of flow in a stream against time at specific interval

List II 1. Mass curve 2. Flow duration curve 3. Hydrogaraph 4. Power duration curve A B C D a. 2 3 4 1 b. 4 1 2 3 c. 2 1 4 3 d. 4 3 2 1



14 of 1695. For a hydro-electric project with reaction

turbine, the draft tube at the exist from the turbine is a. always immersed in water b. always above the water c. may either be above or below the water d. above or below the water depending on

the unit speed to the turbine 96. Consider the following statemtns in case

of impulse turbine: 1. The pressure and velocity both change

as the water flows through the turbine 2. pressure throughout remains

atmospheric and the velocity alone changes

3. All the available energy is converted into kinetic energy

4. Water is admitted over the entire circumference of the runner

5. Water is admitted only through the nozzle

Which of these statemtns are correct ? a. 2, 3 and 5 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 4 and 5 d. 1 and 4

97. In case of semi-circular vanes, the theoretical maximum efficiency of the wheel can be a. 50% b. 67% c. 75% d. 100%

98. Without residual whirl in the flow at the entrance to a draft tube, the best cone angle is a. < 6o b. 9o to 11o c. 18o d. 24o

99. Two geometrically similar pumps are running at the same speed of 1000 r.p.m. and lifting water against he heads of 25 m and 16 m respectively. First pump is having an impeller diameter of 300 mm. The impeller diameter of second pump shall be a. 192 mm b. 240 mm c. 300 mm

d. 469 mm 100. Which one of the following statements is

correct ? a. Reciprocating pumps are less efficient

than centrifugal pumps b. Delivery from a reciprocating pump is

pulsating c. Reciprocating pumps are suitable for

large discharges and smaller heads d. For a negative slip to occur, a

reciprocating pump must have a coefficient of discharge less than unity

101. Consider the following statements: 1. An ephemeral steam is on which has a

base-flow contribution 2. Flow characteristics of a stream

depend upon rainfall and catchmetn characteristic sna dalso the climatic factor which influence evapo-transpiration

3. sequent Peak Algorithm is used for estimating run off from rainfall

Which of these statements is /are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 alone

102. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I

A. –index B. Lysimeter C. Dilution technique D. Syndel’s equation List II 1. Used for measurement of evapo-

transpiration for given vegetation 2. Used for flow measurement 3. Average rainfall above which the

rainfall volume is equal to the runoff volume

4. Relates the basin lag to the basin characteristics

A B C D a. 3 1 2 4 b. 4 2 1 3 c. 3 2 1 4 d. 4 1 2 3



15 of 16103. A 6-hour rainstorm with hourly intensities

of 7, 18, 25, 17, 11 and 3 mm/hour produced a runoff of 39 mm. Then, the –index is a. 3 mm/hour b. 7 mm/hour c. 8 mm/hour d. 10 mm/hour

104. In a water-shed, four rain gauges I, II, III and IV are installed. The depths of normal annual rainfall at these stations are 60, 75, 80 and 100 cm respectively. The rain gauge at station III went out of order during a particular year. The annual rainfall for that year, recorded at the remaining three stations was 90, 60 and 70 cm. The rainfall at station III can be considered as a. 60 cm b. 70 cm c. 80 cm d. 120 cm

105. The unit-hydrograph theory is based on the assumption of a. Nonlinear response and time

invariance b. Linear response and nonlinear time

variance c. Time invariance and linear response d. Nonlinear response and nonlinear time

variance 106. An effective storage of a flood control

reservoir is a. The amount of water which can be

supplied from it in a particular interval of time

b. The storage between the minimum and maximum reservoir levels under ordinary operating conditions

c. The useful storage plus the surcharge storage less the valley storage

d. The storage volume of flood water above maximum reservoir level

107. The Penman’s evapo-transpiration equation is based on a. Water budget method b. Energy balance method c. Mass transfer method d. Energy balance and mass transfer

approach

108. The performance of a well is measured by its a. Specific capacity b. Specific yield c. Storage coefficient d. Permeability coefficient

109. Regional hydrological cycle is shown in the figure

Identify the correct hydrologic budget equation :

a. P + R1 –R2 + R2 –Es–Ts–I = Ss

b. 1 + G1 –G2 –Rs –Es–Ts = Ss c. P – (R2 –R1) – (Es + ES) – (Ts + TS) –

– (G2 –G1) = (Ss –SS)

d. P–R–G–E–T = Ss 110. A two hour storm hydrograph has 5 units

of direct runoff. The two-hour units hydrograph for this storm can be obtained by dividing the ordinates of the storm hydrograph by a. 2 b. 2/5 c. 5 d. 5/2

111. The slope area method is extensively used in a. development of rating curve b. estimation of flood discharge base on

high-water marks c. cases where shifting control exists d. cases where back-water effects is

present 112. Consider the following :

Garret’s diagram for the design of irrigation channel is based on 1. Kennedy’s theory



16 of 162. Lacey’s theory 3. Kutter’s formula 4. Manning’s formula Which of these are correct? a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4

113. The total number of independent equations that form the Lacey’s regime theory is a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6

114. Balanced depth of cutting of canal is a. half the total depth of a canal b. half of full supply depth c. the maximum cut that an excavator can

take d. where volume of cutting is equal to

volume of filling 115. At a certain point in the floor of weir, the

uplift pressure head due to seepage is 4.5 m. If the relative density of concrete is 2.5, the minimum thickness of floor required at this point to counteract the uplift pressure is a. 1 m b. 2 m c. 3 m d. 4 m

116. A constant angle arch dam when compared to a constant radius arch dam utilizes concrete quantity of about a. 33% b. 43% c. 73% d. 143%

117. Modular limit of a canal outlet is the ratio of a. rate of change of discharge of outlet to

that of distributary b. water depth above outlet crest to the

full supply depth of the channel c. water depth above the crest on

downstream to that on upstream of outlet

d. rate of change of discharge of an outlet to the rate of change of water level of the channel

118. A canal was designed to supply the irrigation needs of 1000 ha of land growing rice of 140 days base period and having a delta of 130 cm. If the canal water is used to irrigate wheat of base period of 119 days and having delta of 50 cm, the area that can be irrigated is a. 452 ha b. 904 ha c. 1105 ha d. 2210 ha

119. A canal fall is a control structure a. located at a place where the country

slope is flatter than the canal bed slope b. located most economically where the

depth of cutting is less than the balancing depth

c. the location of which is independent of the command to be served

d. designed to secure raising of water surface on its upstream

120. Match List II(Equation) with List II(Applicability or principle of equation) and select the correct answer : List II A. Theim’s equation B. Dupit’s assumption C. Bernoulli’s equation D. Continuity equation List II 1. is base on energy conservation

principle 2. is based on mass conservation

principle 3. is applicable to steady flow towards a

well confined aquifer 4. is applicable to steady flow in an

unconfined aquifer A B C D

a. 4 3 2 1 b. 3 4 2 1 c. 4 3 1 2 d. 3 4 1 2



1 of 14

(PAPER–I) 1. A well-seasoned timber has a moisture

content of about a. 15% to 20% b. 10% to 12% c. 5% to 85 d. 2% to 3%

2. Dry rot in timber is caused by a. Lack of ventilation b. Lack of light c. Immersion in water d. Alternate wet and dry atmosphere

3. Wood is impregnated with creosote oil in order to a. Change its colour b. Protect against fungi c. Protect the annular layers d. Fill up the pores

4. Consider the following statements : Bricks are soaked in water before use in masonry work 1. to remove dust 2. to remove air voids 3. so that they do not absorb water from

cement mortar Which of these statements is/are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 only c. 2 and 3 d. 3 only

5. The proper size of mould for testing compressive strength of cement is a. 7.05 cm tube b. 10.05 cm cube c. 15 cm cube d. 12.05 cm cube

6. The specific gravity of commonly available ordinary portland cement is a. 4.92 b. 3.15 c. 2.05 d. 1.83

7. A quick-setting cement has an initial setting time of about a. 50 minutes

b. 40 minutes c. 15 minutes d. 5 minutes

8. Match List I (Cement Mortar for Different Work) with List II(Proportion of Cement and sand in Mortar ) and select the correct answer : List I A. Cement mortar for normal brick work B. Cement mortar for plastering works C. Cement mortar for grouting the

cavernous rocks D. Cement mortar for guniting List II 1. 1 : 4 2. 1 : 3 3. 1 : 6 4. 1 : 1.5 A B C D a. 3 4 2 1 b. 1 2 3 4 c. 3 1 4 2 d. 1 4 2 3

9. Match List I(Admixture) with list II (Action in Concrete) and select the correct answer : List I A. Calcium lignosulphonate B. Aluminum powders C. Tartaric acid D. Aluminum sulphate List II 1. Anti bleeder 2. Retarder 3. Air entrainer 4. Water reducer A B C D a. 3 2 1 4 b. 4 3 2 1 c. 3 4 1 2 d. 4 2 3 1

10. A mortar in which both cement and lime are used in definite proportions as binding materials is reffered to as

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2003




2 of 14a. Light weight mortar b. Fire resistant mortar c. Gauged mortar d. Water resistant mortar

11. In order to improve the workability of harsh cement mortar which of the following items is/are added ? 1. water 2. Plaster of Paris 3. Lime Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 3 only d. 1 and 3

12. Bleeding of concrete leads of which of the following ? 1. Drying up of concrete surface 2. Formation of pores inside. 3. Segregation of aggregate 4. Decrease in strength Select the correct answer using the coded given below : a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 4

13. Match List I (material Characteristics) with List II (Property of Concrete) and select the correct answer : List I A. Water cement ratio B. Water content C. Minimum cement content D. Segregation List II 1. Durability 2. Compressive strength 3. Stability of mix 4. Workability A B C D a. 4 1 3 2 b. 2 4 3 1 c. 4 1 2 3 d. 2 4 1 3

14. Stress-strain curve of concrete is a. A perfect straight line up to failure b. Straight lien up to 0.002% string value

and then parabolic up to failure

c. Parabolic up to 0.002% strain value and then a straight line up to failure

d. Hyperbolic up to 0.002% staring value and then a straight line up to failure

15. Consider the following statements : Ultrasonic pulse velocity test is 1. used to measure the straight of wet

concrete. 2. used to obtain estimate of concrete

strength of finished concrete elements. 3. a destructive test 4. a non-destructive test. Which of these statemtns are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 2 and 4 d. 1 and 3

16. The material in which large deformation is possible before the absolute failure or rupture is termed as a. Brittle b. Elastic c. Ductile d. Plastic

17. A rigid bar AC is supported by three rods of same material and of equal diameter. The bar AC is initially horizontal. A force P is applied such that the bar AC continues to remain horizontal. Forces in each of the shorter bars and in the longer bar are, respectively. a. 0.4 P, 0.2 P b. 0.3 P, 0.4 P c. 0.2 P, 0.6 P d. 0.5 P , zero

18. A member having length L, cross-sectional areas A and modulus of elasticity E is subjected to an axial load W. The strain energy stored in this member is a. WL2 / AE b. WL2 / 2AE c. W2L2 / 2AE d. W2L / AE

19. Elastic limit is the point



3 of 14a. Up to which stress is proportional to

strain b. At which elongation takes place

without application of additional load c. Up to which if the load is remoed,

original volume and shaped are regained

d. At which the toughness is maximum 20. Match List I with list II and select the

correct answer : List I(Material) A. Isotropic B. Homogeneous C. Viscoelastic D. Brittle List II 1. Time dependent stress-strain relation 2. No plastic zone 3. Identical properties in all directions 4. Similar properties throughout the

volume A B C D a. 3 1 2 4 b. 4 1 2 3 c. 3 4 1 2 d. 4 3 1 2

21. As per the elastic theory of design, the factor of safety is the ratio of a. Working stress to stress at the limit of

proportionality b. Yield stress to working stress c. Ultimate stress to working stress d. Ultimate load to load at yield

22. The shear stress distribution for a rectangular section under the action of shear force S is shown below. The rectangular section is bd. Select the correct shear stress distribution form the following:

a.

b.

c.

d. 23. Two co-axial springs are subjected to a

force of 1 kN. Spring constant of larger diameter spring is 80 N/mm and that of smaller diameter spring is 120 N/mm. The deformation in the spring combination will be equal to a. 5 mm b. 15 mm c. 125/6 mm d. 135/7 mm

24. Match List I (Method of Analysis) with List II(Unknown Being Evaluated) and select the correct answer List I A. Flexibility method B. Stiffness Method C. Kanis method D. Moment distribution method List II 1. Degrees of freedom 2. Redundant forces 3. Rotations by incremental iteration and

unknown sways of plane frames 4. Displacement rotations and sways of

plane frames A B C D a. 2 1 4 3 b. 3 4 1 2 c. 2 4 1 3 d. 3 1 4 2

25. The principal strains at a point are + 800 10–6 cm/cm, +400 10–6 cm/cm and – 1200 10–6 cm/cm. The volumetric strain is equal to a. + 1200 10–6 cm/cm b. + 800 10–6 cm/cm c. – 1200 10–6 cm/cm d. zero

26. In a riveted joint, failure will occur due to which one of the following ? a. Shear failure of rivet b. Bearing failure of rivet c. Tearing failure of plate



4 of 14d. Minimum load value of shearing ,

bearing or tearing failure 27. The radius of Mohr’s circle is zero when

the state of stress is such that a. Shear stress is zero b. There is pure shear c. There is not shear stress but identical

direct stresses in two mutually perpendicular directions

d. There is no shear stress but equal direct stresses, opposite in nature, in two mutually perpendicular directions

28.

The above figure shows the stress condition of an element. The principal stresses are a. 2 b. /2 c. d. 2/3

29. If the principal stresses at a point in a stressed body are 150 kN/m2 tensile and 50 kN/m2 compressive, then maximum shear stress at this point will be a. 100 kN/m2 b. 150 kN/m2 c. 200 kN/m2 d. 250 kN/m2

30. In the Mohr’s circle for strains, radius of Mohr’s circle givens the a. Minimum value of normal strain b. Maximum value of normal strain c. Maximum value of shear stain d. Half of maximum value of shear strain

31. A thin cylindrical tube with closed ends is subjected to 1. Longitudinal stress 1 = 14 N/mm2 2. Hoop stress 2 = 2 N/mm2 3. Shearing stress = 8 N/mm2 Then the maximum shearing stress is a. 14 N/mm2 b. 12 N/mm2 c. 10 N/mm2 d. 8 N/mm2

32. If the shear force diagram of a simply supported beam is parabolic, then he load on the beam is a. Uniformly distributed load b. Concentrated load at mid span c. External moment acting at mid span d. Linearly varying distributed load e.

33. For determining the deflection y of a loaded beam at a distance x by Macaulay’ method, which one or more of the following is/are used ? 1. The basic difference equation for

deflection El (d2y / dx2) = –M. Where El is the flexural rigidity of the beam, M is the bending moment

2. Successive integration of the differential equation given in 1.

3. Known positions of zero slope and zero deflection in the beam.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

34. The above figure shows the cross-section of a fitched beam consisting of a steel plate sandwiched between two wooden blocks. The second moment of area of the composite beam about the neutral axis XX is

a. 3 3bh mth

+12 12

b. 3 3bh t(mh)

+12 12

c. 3h

(b+t)12

d. 3bh

12

(where m is modular ratio of steel and wood )



5 of 1435. Match list I(End conditions of Columns)

with List II(Effective Length, l3) and select the correct answer : List I A. Both ends fixed B. Both ends hinged C. One end fixed, other free D. One end fixed, other hinged List II 1. le = 2 l 2. le = l / 2

3. le = l / 2 4. le = l where l is the length & le is the effective length of the column)

A B C D a. 2 4 1 2 b. 3 1 2 4 c. 2 4 3 1 d. 3 4 1 2

36. A symmetrical parabolic arch of span l an dries h is hinged at both the supports. The arch carries a uniformly distributed load of /unit length along the entire span. Which one of the following is correctly matched ? a. Horizontal thrust : l2 / 8h b. Bending moment at crown : l2 / 8 c. Radial shear at springing :

[(l2 / 2) –(l2 / 8h)] d. Vertical reaction at supports : l

37. A three-hinged semi-circular arch of radius R carries on the arch at the hinge would be a. W / 2 b. W / 2 c. 2/3 W d. 4/3 W/

38. From consideration of earthquake loading and lateral stability of tall building, which of the following measures are taken? 1. Minimize gravity loads 2. Add masses at floor levels. 3. ensure ductility at the location s of

maximum moments 4. provide shear walls 5. Provide stilt (ground) storey Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 and 5 b. 2, 3 and 5 c. 1, 3 and 4

d. 2, 3 and 4

39. A pin jointed truss is loaded as shown in the above figure match List I with list II and select the correct answer :

List I (member) A. Member AB B. Member AC C. Member BD D. Member CD List II (Force induced) 1. 30 kN 2. 50 kN 3. 0 4. 10 kN A B C D a. 3 2 1 4 b. 4 3 2 1 c. 3 4 2 1 d. 4 3 1 2

40. Member(s) of the frame shown above which carries/carry zero force is/are a. EC only b. EC and AB c. EC and AC d. EC, AC and AB

41. What is the force in the member CE of a cantilever truss shown in the above figure?



6 of 14a. P(tensile) b. P(compression) c. 2 P(tensile) d. zero

42. A solid circular shaft of diameter d is subjected to a twisting moment T. The maximum shear stress in the shaft is proportional to a. d2 b. d c. 1/d2 d. 1/d3

43. When a cantilever shaft of brittle material is subjected to a clockwise twisting moment at the free end, the possible crack propagation will be a. 45o clockwise with respective to the

axis of shaft b. 45o anticlockwise with respective to

the axis of shaft c. Perpendicular to the axis d. Parallel to the axis

44. For a solid circular section of diameter d, the stress in a column will be compressive only if the eccentricity of the line of action of the compressive force is within a. d/4 b. d/8 c. d/6 d. d/16

45. The stresses in concrete in a reinforced concrete element under sustained load due to creep a. Increase with time b. Decrease with time c. Remain unchanged d. Fluctuate

46. Fro the analysis of thick cylinders, the theory applicable is a. Lame’s theory b. Rankine’s theory c. Poisson’s theory d. Courbon’s theory

47. A thin hollow cylinder of diameter d, length l and thickness t is subjected to an internal pressure p. The hoop stress in the cylinder is a. pd / 8t b. pd / 4t c. pd / 2t d. pd / t

48. A portal frame with all member s having the same El, has one end fixed and the other hinged. Due to side-sway, the ratio of fixed end moments MBA / MCD would be a. 1 : 1 b. 1 : 2 c. 1 : 3 d. 2 : 1

49.

Which one of the following diagrams represents the influence line for force in the member DG ?

a.

b.

c.

d. 50. Match List I (Assumption/Theorem) with

list II(Analysis and strength) an select the correct answer : List I A. Plane section remains plane before and

after bending deformations B. Elasticity and small deformations C. Uniqueness theorem D. Large deformations List II 1. Elastic analysis and superposition 2. Strain distribution and plastic moment

of resistance 3. Non-linear analysis and buckling load 4. Collapse load A B C D a. 1 2 3 4 b. 2 1 4 3 c. 1 2 4 3 d. 2 1 3 4



7 of 1451. At the location of the plastic hinge of a

deformed structure a. Curvature is infinite b. Radius of curvature is infinite c. moment is infinite d. Flexural stress is infinite

52. The order of elongation which a specimen of mild steel under goes before fracture is a. 0.1% b. 1% c. 10% d. 100%

53. An electric pole 5 m high is fixed into the foundation. It carries a wire at the top and is free to move sideways. The effective length of the pole is a. 3.25 m b. 4.0 m c. 5.0 m d. 10.0 m

54. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer : List I(Failure Mode) A. Shear failure of plates B. Bearing failure of plates C. Tearing failure of plate D. Splitting failure of plate List II(Reason) 1. Insufficient edge distance 2. Strength of plate is less than that of the

rivets A B C D a. 1 1 2 1 b. 2 1 2 1 c. 1 2 1 2 d. 1 1 1 2

55. Design of a sample element is steel used one of more of the following : 1. Net area of cross-section 2. Full area of cross-section. 3. Buckling criterion. 4. Crushing (or yielding) criterion. Which of the above criteria are valid for the design of a column ? a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 3 and 4

56. The working stress for structural steel in tension is of the order of a. 15 N/mm2

b. 75 N/mm2 c. 150 N/mm2 d. 750 N/mm2

57. The centre to centre maximum distance between bolts in tension member of thickness 10 mm is a. 200 mm b. 160 mm c. 120 mm d. 100 mm

58. The type of stress induced in the foundation bolts fixing a column to its footing is a. Pure compression b. Bearing c. Pure tension d. Bending

59. Which of the following does not describe a weld type ? a. Butt b. Plug c. Zig-Zag d. Lap

60. A plate used for connecting two or more structural members intersecting each other is termed as a. Template b. Base plate c. Gusset plate d. Shoe plate

61. In the context of the ultimate load theory for steel, the stress-strain curve for steel is idealized as a. A single straight line b. Bi-linear c. A quadratic parabola d. A circular arc

62. Consider the following statements about shape factor : 1. It indicates the increase of strength of a

section due to plastic action over elastic strength.

2. It is a ratio of plastic moment of resistance to yield point moment of resistance.

3. Beam sections which have bulk of area near neutral axis will have a low shape factor.

Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 3



8 of 14c. 1 and 2 d. 2 and 3

63. Which of the following conditions are to be satisfied by an ideal plastic material ? 1. It should follow Hooke’s law up to the

limit of proportionality. 2. Strains up to the strain hardening in

tension and compression are to be the same.

3. The material property should be different in tension and compression.

4. The values of yield stress in tension an compression should be different.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2, 3 and 4

64.

For a fixed beam shown above, it has been decided to weld coverplates at ends so that moment capacity doubles at the ends. If maximum advantage has to be derived, the length x of the plate should be a. l / 2 b. l / 3 c. l / 4 d. l / 6

65. A steel column in a multi-storeyed building carries an axial load of 125 N. It is built up of 2 ISMC 350 channels connected by lacing. The lacing carries a load of a. 125 N b. 12.5 N c. 3.125 N d. zero

66. A structure has two degrees of indeterminacy. The number of plastic hinges that would be formed at complete collapse is a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

67. For a compresion member having the same effective length about any cross-sectional axial, the most preferred section from the point of view of strength is a. A box b. An I-section c. A circular tube d. A single angle

68. A trapezoidal combined footing for two axially loaded columns is provided when 1. Width of the footing near the heavier

column is restricted. 2. Length of the footing is restricted. 3. Projections of the footing beyond the

heavier columns are restricted. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3

69. In case of two-way slab, the deflection of the slab is a. Primarily a function of the long span b. Primarily a function of the short span c. Independent of the span, long or short d. Mostly long span but sometimes short

span 70.

A rectangular reinforced concrete footing is to be designed to support a column which transfers axial load and uniaxial moment to the footing as shown in the above figure. The footing is to be designed to have uniform upward soil pressure. The dimensions L1 and L2 (L = L1 + L2) of the footing would be a. L1 = L2 b. L1 > L2 c. L1 < L2 d. L1 = ½ L2

71. A reinforced concrete beam of 10 m effective span and 1 m effective depth is supported on 500 mm 500 m columns. If



9 of 14the total uniformly distributed load on the beam is 10 MN/m, the design shear force for the beam is a. 50 MN b. 47.5 MN c. 37.5 MN d. 43 MN

72. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I A. Loss of pre-stress B. End block C. Transmission length D. Partially pre-stressed structures List II 1. Class 3 2. Predetermined members 3. Bursting tension 4. Elastic shortening A B C D a. 3 4 1 2 b. 4 3 1 2 c. 3 4 2 1 d. 4 3 2 1

73. In pre-tensioning process of pre-stressing, the tendons are a. Bonded to the concrete b. Partially bonded to the concrete c. Not bonded to the concrete d. Generally bonded but sometimes

remain unbounded to the concrete 74. A reinforced concrete beam is to be post-

tensioned is such a way that no tensile stress develops at the time of post-tensioning. The distance of the tendon from the nearest face must be a. Between d/5 and d/4 b. < d/6 c. Between d/4 and d/3 d. > d/3 (where d is the depth of the beam)

75. A simply supported RC beam carries UDL and is referred to as beam A. A similar beam is pre-stressed and carries the same UDL as the beam A. This beam is referred to as beam B. The mid-span deflection of beam A will be a. More than that of beam B b. Less than that of beam B c. The same as that of beam B

d. Generally less but sometimes more depending upon the magnitude of UDL

76. The critical section for two-way shear of footing is at the a. Face of the column b. Distance d from the column face c. Distance d/2 from the column face d. Distance 2d from the column face

77. In pre-stressed concrete, high grade concrete is used for a. Controlling the pre-stress loss b. Having concrete of low ductility c. Having concrete of high brittleness d. Having low creep

78.

A reinforced concrete rectangular slab is built-in (fixed) on three edges and the other edge is free. The possible yield line patterns for the slab subjected to a uniformly distributed load and reinforced isotropically are shown above as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Which of these correctly exhibits the yield line pattern ? a. 1 or 3 b. 2 or 3 c. 1 or 2 d. 3 or 4

79.



10 of 14The bending moment for which the beam shown above is to be designed is a. 200 kNm b. 800 kNm c. 600 kNm d. 640 kNm

80. A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to the following bending moments : Dead load 20 kNm Live load 30 kNm Seismic load 10 kNm The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is a. 60 kNm b. 75 kNm c. 72 kNm d. 80 kNm

81. In the Limit state design of pre-stressed concrete structure, the strain distribution is assumed to be a. Linear b. Non-linear c. Parabolic d. Parabolic and rectangular

82. Consider the following statements : Under-reinforced concrete flexural members 1. are deeper 2. are stiffer 3. can undergo larger deflection Which of these statements is/are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 only d. 1 and 3

83. Long term elastic modulus in terms of creep coefficient () an 28-day characteristic strength (fck) is given by

a. ck5000MPa

1 + θ

f

b. ck50000MPa

1 + θ

f

c. ck5000 MPa

1 + θ

f

d. ck5000 MPa

1 + θ

f

84. A simply supported post-tensioned pre-stressed concrete beam of span L is pre-stressed by a straight tendon at a uniform

eccentricity e below the centroidal axis. If the magnitude of prestressing force is P and flexural rigidity of beam is El, the maximum central deflection of the beam is

a. 2PeL

(downwards)8 El

b. 2PeL

(upwards)48 El

c. 2PeL

(downwards)8 El

d. 2PeL

(upwards)8 El

85. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I A. Service ability B. Shear key C. Shrinkage D. Concrete spalling List II 1. Sliding 2. deflection 3. Cracking 4. Corrosion A B C D a. 1 3 4 2 b. 2 1 3 4 c. 1 3 2 4 d. 2 1 4 3

86. Cost of required materials for construction has been estimated by contractor and an extract thereof indicates Rs. 80,000 for month-1, Rs. 1,20,000 for month-2, Rs. 1,00,000 for month-3 and Rs. 1,40,000 for month-4. He has arranged with suppliers to pay 40% immediately on purchase, 40% one month later and balance 20% two months later. His payment towards cost of material in month-3 will exceed that in month 4 by a. Rs. 20,000 b. Rs. 16,000 c. Rs. 12,000 d. Rs. 8,000

87. The vibrators are used for a. Compacting concrete b. Proper mixing of concrete c. Removing excess water from concrete d. Obtaining smooth surface



11 of 1488. Match List I(Material Use din Individual

Batching of Concrete) with List II(tolerance When Batch Weight Exceeds 30% of Scale Capacity) and select the correct answer : List I A. Cement B. Water C. Aggregates D. Admixtures List II 1. 0.3% of scale capacity 2. 1% of scale capacity 3. 2% of scale capacity 4. 3% of scale capacity A B C D a. 1 2 3 4 b. 1 2 4 3 c. 3 4 1 2 d. 4 3 1 2

89. Which one of the following statements is correct ? a. Grade resistance is positive when the

unit travels down grade and negative when travelling upgrade.

b. Grade resistance depends on the type of equipment or the haul surface and is in addition to rolling resistance

c. Grad resistance acts against the total weight of both wheel and track type units

d. Grade resistance for units moving on the road surface is greater than grade resistance for units moving on rails

90. Match List I (Type of Compactor) with List II (Soil Best Suited) and select the correct answer : List I A. Sheep’s foot compactor B. Steel tandem compactor with 2 or 3

axles C. Steel drum D. Pneumatic with large tyre List II 1. Granular or granular plastic 2. Sandy silts, sandy clays, gravelly sand

and clays with few fines 3. Clay, silts clay, gravel with clay binder 4. Sandy silts, most granular material

with come clay binder A B C D

a. 3 1 4 2 b. 2 4 1 3 c. 3 4 1 2 d. 2 1 4 3

91. Match List I (equipment) with list II(Operation) and select he correct answer: List I A. Powel shovel B. Dragline C. Backhoe D. Clamshell List II 1. Can excavate vertically 2. Can excavate underwater 3. has better control because of the rigid

dipper stick 4. Can operate while standing on firm

ground and the bucket is pulled towards the machine

A B C D a. 3 2 4 1 b. 3 2 1 4 c. 2 3 1 4 d. 2 3 4 1

92. The number of trips of a dumper per hour is given by

a. 60 minutes

Actual or effective cycle time in minutes

b. 60 minutes

Ideal cycle time in minutes

c. 60 minutes

Ideal running time + Loss time in minutes

d. 60 minutes

Runnig time in minutes

93. In compaction of clayey-soils using sheep-foot roller, compaction is achieved by a. Static action b. Vibration action c. Kneading action d. Impact action

94. The working range of a crane is limited horizontally for maximum lift only by a. Boom length b. Length of hoist cable c. Length of jib d. Counter weight

95. Which one of the following types of crane is used for high rise buildings ? a. Traveller crane b. Tower crane



12 of 14c. Overhead gantry crane d. Derric crane

96. A certain concreting job can be started only when all three groups 1. measuring and loading 2. operating the machine, and 3. evacuating and transporting are in potion. These local groups can be credited each with only a chance of 0.7 being on time, and the 0.3 chance of being late, each independently of the other. What are the chances of the starting of the job getting delayed on any day due to non-arrival of any one group on time ? a. 0.021 b. 0.147 c. 0.343 d. 0.441

97. Three activities F, G and H are to be performed in the said sequence and for the whole stretch of the project need 15, 21 and 27 days respectively. If a ladder network is adopted with on-third of each activity as the laddered activity, the saving in total project time in days will be a. 15 b. 18 c. 21 d. 24

98. Match list I (Inputs Into Networks) with List II(Basis) and select the correct answer: List I A. Activity Time B. PERT durations C. WBS D. interfaces List II 1. Availability of resources is not

discussed 2. Senior management’s involvement is

assumed 3. Total cost of each activity is

considered 4. Needed supervisory inputs are

considered A B C D a. 3 1 4 2 b. 3 1 2 4 c. 4 2 1 3 d. 4 2 3 1

99. A-O-A network is suggested as shown above. The number of errors/incompatibilities in this network is a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

100. Which one of the following project management techniques is deterministic in nature ? a. CPM b. PERT c. GERT d. LCES

101. The probabilistic time is

a. 0 p nt + t + t

3

b. 0 p nt + t + 4t

6

c. 0 p nt + 4t + t

6

d. 0 p nt + 2t + 4t

4

where t0 = Optimistic time tp = Pessimistic time tn = Most likely time

102. A serious limitation of independencies between various activities is generally observed in a. Bar charts b. Milestone charts c. Network analysis d. Job layouts

103. In time-cost analysis, the cost slope Cs is

a. c n

c n

C C

t t

b. c n

n c

C C

t t

c. c n

c n

t t

C C

d.

n c

n c

C C

2 t t



13 of 14where Cc = Crash cost

Cn = Normal cost tc = Crash time tn = Normal time

104. Sinking fund method is useful in a. Depreciation b. Obsolescence c. Liquidation d. Scrap value

105. Assertion (A) : Timbers used for engineering construction are derived from deciduous trees. Reason (R) : Deciduous trees yield hard wood while conifers yield soft wood. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



106. Assertion (A) : Dry rot is a disease in wood caused by spores germinating in wood cells. Reason (R) : Decomposition and putrefaction of tissues of a standing tree are indication of dry rot. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



107. Assertion (A) : The greater the surface area of a given volume of cement the greater the hydration. Reason (R) : The reaction between the water and cement starts from the surface of the cement particles. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



108. Assertion (A) : A low C3A cement generates less heat and develops higher ultimate strength. Reason (R) : During setting and hardening, the amount of lime liberated appears to be about 15 to 20 per cent by weight of cement.




109. Assertion (A) : Addition of 5% to 6% of moisture content by weight increases the volume of dry sand from 18% to 38%. Reason (R) : Bulking of sand is caused due to surface moisture on sand particles. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



110. Assertion (A) : Normal stress of one nature (compressive or tensile) acting along one of the three orthogonal axes of a member will produce strains of the same nature in its direction and strains of opposite nature along the other two directions. Reason (R) : Sum of the strains along the three orthogonal axes equals volumetric strain. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



111. Assertion (A) : A horizontal beam hinged at one end and freely supported at the other end will be in static equilibrium under inclined load applied on it. Reason (R) : The hinged end will offer resistance to the horizontal component of the applied force. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



112. Assertion (A) : In a circular masonry column it is desirable to restrict the resultant load within the middle core of one fourth the area of the column section. Reason (R) : It is desirable not to allow any tension in masonry structures.






113. Assertion (A) : Any arch cannot practically be built to the shape of the theoretical arch. Reason (R) : The shape of the theoretical arch is affected by loads moving on it. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



114. Assertion (A) : Lateral support to a beam is provided by a concrete slab resting over the top flange of a beam. Reason (R) : Shear connectors are needed to provide continuous lateral support. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



115. Assertion (A) : Compared to riveted plate girders, in welded plate girders a thicker web must be used. Reason (R) : Omission of flange angles in creases the clear depth of the web and we thickness is controlled by buckling criterion. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



116. Assertion (A) : In double-laced system of a built-up column, cross member perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the column is not used. Reason (R) : Lacing bars are forced to share the axial load on the strut. a. Both A and R are true and R is the


the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true 117. Assertion (A) : Web crippling occurs at a

section where heavy vertical load is applied. Reason (R) : There is stress concentration in the vicinity of the load. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



118. Assertion (A) : All columns shall be designed for a minimum eccentricity of unsupported length of column divided by 500, plus lateral dimension divided by 30 subject to a minimum of 20 mm. Reason (R) : Assertion refers to the design of axially loaded column and it may not be possible to build a perfectly axially loaded column in practice. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



119. Assertion (A) : Under working loads, in a reinforced concrete beam the lever arm remains unchanged. Reason (R) : As the bending moment increases, the total compressive force and tensile force are assumed to increase in direct proportion. a. Both A and R are true and R is the



120. Assertion (A) : Rubber tyred equipment pull better on smooth, hard surfaces while crawlers work better on firm earth. Reason (R) : Bulldozers mounted on wheels are employed on earth construction for better performance. a. Both A and R are true and R is the





1 of 16

(PAPER–II)

1. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a. Dynamic viscosity of water is nearly 50 times that of air

b. Kinematic viscosity of water is 30 times that of air

c. Water in soil is able to rise a considerable distance above the groundwater table due to viscosity

d. Vapour pressure of a liquid is inversely proportional to the temperature

2. Which of the following fluids can be classified as non-Newtonian? 1. Kerosene oil

2. Diesel oil 3. Human blood 4. Toothpaste

5. Water Select -the correct answer using the codes given below:

a. 1 and2 b. 3and,4 c. 2 and 5 d. 1 and 5

3. As the depth of immersion of a vertical plane surface increases, the location of centre of pressure• a. Falls closer to the centre of gravity of

the area

b. Moves away from the centre of gravity of the area

c. Ultimately coincides with the centre of gravity of the area

d. Falls much below the centre of gravity of the area

4. Consider the following statements related to buoyancy in fluid statics :

1. Principle of buoyancy is applicable both to floating bodies and to. submerged bodies.

2. Archimedes formulated the first theory of buoyancy.

3. In analyzing buoyancy of a floating body it is assumed that the resultant vertical force passes through centre of pressure.

4. In a free-body diagram of a floating body summation of all horizontal forces is taken as zero.

Which of these statements are correct?

a. 1, 3 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 4 c. 1, 2 and 3

d. 2, 3 and 4 5. Consider the following statements related

to concept of continuity equation and the concept of control volume in deriving the equation

1. Continuity equation relates velocity component and density of the fluid t a point in a fluid flow.

2. Continuity equation assumes that no void occurs in the fluid and fluid mass is neither created nor destroyed.

3. The shape of control volume for deriving the equation of continuity is assumed to be a parallelepiped.

4. For incompressible fluids the equation of continuity does not contain the viscosity terms.

Which of these statements are correct? a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

b. 1 and 2

c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1 and 4

6. Match List 1 (Equation / Principle) with: List II (Property) and the select the correct answer :

List I A. Energy equation

B. Continuity equation C. Moment of momentum D. Impulse-momentum principle

List II

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2003




2 of 161. Force on a moving vane

2. Lawn sprinkler

3. Pressure at a point in a pipeline 4. Flow at two sections of a tapering pipe

A B C D a. 4 3 2 1 b. 3 4 1 2

c. 4 3 1 2 d. 3 4 2 1

7. When a body moves through still water at a constant velocity of 4.5 m/s, the velocity of water at 0.8 m ahead of the nose of the body is 3.0 m/s. What will be the difference in pressure between the nose and the point 0.8 m ahead of it?

a. 875 N/m2 b. 1000 N/m2

c. 1125 N/m2

d. 1250 N/m2 8. Which one of the following statements is

not a. Cavitation forms where the local

pressure drops up to the vapour pressure condition due to increase in local velocity

b. Cavitation takes place in turbine blades, runners of pumps, spillways where local velocity increases considerably

c. Cavitation may be prevented by maintaining the ambient pressure relatively higher at probable points of occurrence by raising their levels

d. Boundaries likely to be affected by cavitation can be protected against pitting by covering. it with tough materials like stainless steel or rubber

9. The stream function for a two-dimensional flow is given by = 2xy. The resultant velocity at a paint P (2, 3) is

a. 8.45 units/s

b. 7.21 units/s c. 6.44 units/s

d. 5.18 units/s 10. Consider the following parameters related

to fluid flow:

1. Vorticity 2. Velocity Potential 3. Stream Function

Which of these parameters exist both in rotational and irrotational flows ? a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3


List I A. The type of vortex flow in which no

external torque rotates the fluid mass

B. Flow of liquid inside the impeller of a centrifugal pump

C. Free surface of forced vortex flow D. In forced vortex, the rise of liquid level

at ends

List II 1. The fall of liquid axis of rotation

2. Free vortex flow 3. Parabolic

4. Forced vortex flow A B C D a. 4 2 3 1

b. 2 4 3 1 c. 4 2 1 3 d. 2 4 1 3

12. A Cipolletti weir discharges water with the head of water over the crest being 250 mm. If the head due to velocity of approach is 0.01 m, what will be the excess percentage of flow, when corrected for velocity of approach as compared to when not so corrected ?

a. 3.2% b. 4.2%

c. 5.3% d. 6.3%

13. Consider the following statements related to a horizontal venturimetre :

1. The velocity of flow in the main pipe is greater and the pressure is lesser than that at the throat section.

2. The velocity of flow in the main pipe is lower and the pressure is larger than that at the throat section.

3. The pressure difference between the main pipe and throat section is positive.



3 of 164. The pressure difference between the

main pipe and throat section is negative.

Which of these statements are not correct ? a. 1 and 4 b. 1 and 2

c. 2 and 4 d. 3 and 4

14. The distorted models used in the hydraulic studies are those which

a. Have exaggeration of the vertical scale and horizontal scale

b. Are not geometrically similar to the prototypes

c. Have same vertical and horizontal scale as that of the prototypes

d. Have same Froude Number as that for the prototypes

15. A thin smooth plate 1 m wide and 2 m long is towed water at a velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming that boundary laminar (kinematic viscosity = 10–6 m2/s), then drag sides of the plate is a. 5.3 N

b. 26.6 N c. 53 N d. 72.5 N

16. Match List I with List Il and select the correct answer:

List I A. Flow development B. Pipe network

C. Water hammer D. Friction loss

List II 1. Surge tank 2. Entrance length 3. Darcy-Weisbach equation 4. Hardy-Cross method

A B C D a. 2 4 1 3 b. 4 2 3 1

c. 2 4 3 1 d. 4 2 1 3

17. Which one following conditions must be satisfied in the Hardy-Cross analysis of pipe network ?

a. Continuity principle demands that flow into a network junction is equal to the flow out of it

b. Momentum equation must be satisfied so that the force in each loop is balanced

c. Darcy-Weisbach head loss equation is to be used in computing head loss in elementary circuits. The equation is of the form hL = kQn.

d. HL = KQn must be equated to zero. If not, a flow correction factor Q is to be made for arriving at a solution.

18. Which one of the following phenomena in a pipe flow is termed as water hammer?

a. The sudden rise of pressure in a long pipe due to sudden closure of valve

b. The rise of a pressure in a pipe flow due to gradual closure of valve

c. The rise of negative pressure d. The zero pressure in a pipe flow

19. The moment correction factor for a flow through open channel is given by

a. 22

1dA

AV A

b. 21dA

AV A

c. 21dA

A A

d. 22

1dA

AV A

20. The steps involved in the procedure of computing length of backwater curves are given below with usual notations :

1. Insert all H values and average value of slope in the differential equation.

2. Assume a new depth of flow y for the other end of the reach and insert corresponding values of A, P, v, R, v2/2g, H and S.

3. Determine or assume the initial conditions of depth, channel characteristics and discharge.

4. Compute average S value and the change in specific head H.

5. Repeat the process for each reach adding resulting L values to obtain



4 of 16total required distance L until the depth or distance desired is reached.

The correct sequence of these steps is a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 c. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5

d. 1, 4, 5, 2, 3 21. Consider the following statements which

relates to different types of water surface profiles. Curve types conform to usual classifications yc and y0 (critical and normal depths)

1. Type-3 curves lie between y and y0. 2. All curves where y < cy0 are

unaffected upstream from any disturbance.

3. All curves where y > y0 are influenced by downstream disturbances.

4. All curves approaching the y0 line approach it asymtotically except for C curve where y = y0.


a. 1, 2, 3 and4

b. 1,3and4 c. 2, 3 and 4

d. 1 and 2 22. The approximate discharge over a 4 m

long rectangular weir (with suppressed end contractions) with head over the crest as 0.36 m is a. 4.2 litres/s

b. 2.4 m3/s c. 6.1 litres/s d. 1.6 m3/s

23. Flow duration curve is a plot of a. Flow ‘against its time of occurrence in

chronological order

b. Flow in ascending order against percentage time in chronological order

c. Flow that equalled or exceeded against percentage time

d. Flow against duration of time for which it is sustained

24. Pondage in a hydropower station is defined as

a. Impounding of considerable amount of excess water during seasons of surplus flow

b. A regulating body of water in the form of relatively small amount of run-off to regulate flow variation in daily or weekly power requirements

c. Excess run-off to last for years

d. Excess run-off for a f hours only 25. The specific speed of a turbine under a

head of 150 m to develop 200 HP while running at 300 r.p.m. is

a. 10 — 35 b. 35 — 60 c. 60 — 300

d. 300 — 1000 26. The moving average of annual

precipitation record is carried out to determine

a. Trend b. Annual mean c. Extreme annual variation

d. Extreme seasonal variation 27. Match List I (Hydrological Terms) with

List II (Relationship/Nature of Curve), and select the correct answer:

List I A. Theissen Polygon

B. Mass Curve C. Hyetograph D. DAD curve

List II 1. Average depth of rainfall over an area 2. Relationship of rainfall intensity and

time 3. Relationship of accumulated rainfall

and time 4. Relationship of river run-off and time

5. Always a falling curve A B C D

a. 1 3 2 5

b. 1 5 3 2 c. 4 3 2 5

d. 4 5 3 2

28. Match List I (Type of Precipitation) with List II (Principal Causes) and select the correct answer :

List I A. Convective B. Cyclonic



5 of 16C. Frontal

D. Orographic

List II 1. Atmospheric disturbance

2. Mountain barrier 3. Pressure difference 4. Temperature difference

5. Warm and cold air masses A B C D a. 1 4 5 2

b. 4 3 5 2 c. 1 4 2 5

d. 4 3 2 5

29. Which one of the following characteristics describes a watershed system in system’s parlance ?

a. Linear

b. Non-linear c. Linear and time-invariant d. Non-linear and time-variant

30. A 6-hour storm with hourly intensities of 7, 18, 25, 12, 10 and 3 mm per hour produced a run-off of 33 mm. Then the -index is a. 7 mm/h b. 3 mm/h

c. 10 mm/h d. 8 mm/h

31. A catchment area of 90 hectares has a run-off coefficient of 0.4. A storm of duration larger than the time of concentration of the catchment and of intensity 4.5 cm/hr creates a peak discharge rate of a. 11.3 m3/s b. 0.45 m3/s c. 450 m3/s

d. 4.5 m3/s 32. Consider the following statements:

1. Time-area histogram method aims at developing an IUH.

2. lsochrone is a line joining equal rainfall on a map.

3. Linear reservoir is a reservoir having straight boundaries.

4. Linear channel is a fictitious channel in which an inflow hydrograph passes through with only translation and no attenuation.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 33. Match List I (Floods) with list II

(Parameters) and select the correct answer:

List I A. Standard Project Flood (SPF) B. Maximum Probable Flood (MPF) C. Design Flood

D. Maximum Flood

List II 1. Includes catastrophic floods

2. Includes floods of severe conditions 3. Peak flow obtained from observed data 4. Flood of desired recurrence interval

A B C D a. 2 1 4 3 b. 1 2 3 4

c. 2 1 3 4 d. 1 2 4 3

34. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Silt factor : Average size of silt particles

2. Silt load : Volume of suspended sediments flowing with water in unit time

3. Silt charge : Weight of silt per unit volume of water

4. Silt grade : Gradation between different silt particles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

a. 1 and 4 b. 3 and 4

c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2

35. Consider the following statements

The function of a cut-off in an earth dam is to

1. Reduce uplift pressures on the dam 2. Prevent undermining of foundation

3. Reduce loss of stored water 4. Support the dam Which of these statements are correct ?



6 of 16a. 1 and 3

b. 2 and 4

c. 2 and 3 d. 3 and 4

36. Match List I (Theory) with List II(Propounded By) and select the correct answer :

List I A. Exit gradient

B. Alluvial canal C. Unit hydrograph

D. Boundary layer

List II 1. G. Lacey

2. L. K. Sherman 3. A. N. Khosla 4. C. Inglis

5. T. V. Karman 6. L. Prandtl A B C D

a. 1 3 2 6 b. 6 2 3 5 c. 3 1 2 6 d. 3 1 4 2

37. The ideal condition for energy dissipation in the design of spillways is the one when the tail water rating curve a. Lies above jump rating curve at all

discharges b. Coincides with the jump rating curve

at all discharges

c. Lies below jump rating curve at all discharges

d. Lies either above or below the jump rating curve depending upon discharge

38. The worst condition of uplift on the flood of a siphon aqueduct occurs when there is

a. High flood flow in the drainage with canal dry

b. Full supply flow in the canal with drainage dry

c. High flood flow in the drainage with canal running full

d. Water tube is at drainage bed and canal is dry

39. A check dam is a a. Flood control structure

b. Soil conservation structure

c. River training structure

d. Water storage structure 40. Match List I (Well Hydraulics Parameters)

with List II (Definition) and select the correct answer

List I A. Specific yield B. Safe yield

C. Specific capacity D. Field capacity

List II 1. Discharge per unit drawdown of well 2. Same as specific retention

3. Measure of water that can be removed by pumping

4. Limit of withdrawal from well without depletion of the aquifer

5. Water-bearing capacity of aquifer A B C D

a. 4 3 2 5 b. 3 4 1 2 c. 4 3 1 2

d. 3 4 2 5 41. Consider the following statements:

A well development

1. involves reversal of flow through the well screen

2. increases permeability towards the well

3. decreases permeability towards the well

4. is continued till sand/silt free water is pumped out

Which of these statements is/are correct?

a. 1, 3 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 4

c. 3 only d. 1 and 4

42. Leaching s a process

a. By which alkali salts present in the soil are dissolved and drained away

b. By which alkali salts in soil come up with water

c. Of draining excess water of irrigation d. Which controls waterlogging



7 of 1643. On which of the following factors, does

the population growth in a town normally depend?

1. Birth and death rates 2. Migrations 3. Probabilistic growth

4. Logistic growth Select the correct answer using the codes given below a. 1 and 4

b. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 2 and 3

44. Match List t with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I(Tests) A. Pumping Test

B. Recuperation C. Pressure Test

D. Jar Test

List II (Features) 1. The gradual rise of water level in well

is observed as time progresses

2. Rate of pumping is adjusted to consent level of water in well

3. Vigorous mixing of the chemical followed by slow mixing

4. Pipeline is filled up with water, allowed to stand for sometime and then at least double the maximum pressure is applied

A B C D a. 1 2 3 4 b. 2 1 4 3

c. 1 2 4 3 d. 2 1 3 4

45. The purpose of re-carbonation process of water softening is the

a. Removal of excess soda from water b. Removal of non-carbonate hardness c. Recovery of lime

d. Conversion of precipitates to soluble form

46. Which of the following treatment processes are necessary for removing suspended solids from water? 1. Coagulation .

2. Flocculation

3. Sedimentation

4. Disinfection Select the correct answer using the codes given below a. 1 and 2

b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 2 and 4 d. 1 and 4

47. Match List I (Filter Operating Problems) with List (Effects) and select the correct answer:

List I A. Air binding B. Mud deposition C. Cracking of bed

D. Sand incrustation List II 1. Changes effective size of sand

2. Mud penetrates deeper inside the bed 3. Mounds and balls of mud are formed

in the bed 4. Air and gases get locked in the bed

A B C D a. 4 3 2 1 b. 3 4 1 2

c. 4 3 1 2 d. 3 4 2 1

48. Which of the following are removed by rapid sand filter from water? 1. Dissoled solids

2. Suspended solids 3. Bacteria 4. Helminths

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 3

d. 2, 3 and 4 49. Consider the following valves in a water

distribution system 1. Check valve

2. Pressure-reducing valve 3. Air relief valve

4. Scour valve



8 of 165. Sluice valve

Which of these work automatically ?

a. 1, 3 and 4 b. 2, 4 and 5

c. 3, 4 and 5 d. 1, 2 and 3

50. A sewer is commonly designed to attain self-cleansing velocity at a. Peak hourly rate of flow b. Average hourly rate of flow c. Minimum hourly rate of flow

d. Sewer running half full 51. Sewage sickness signifies

a. Diseases caused by sewage

b. Soil pores getting dogged and preventing free circulation of air when sewage is continuously applied on land

c. Raw sewage is applied and used for irrigating vegetables which are eaten raw

d. Disposal of septic sewage on land 52. Consider the following data in the design

of grit chamber: 1. Sp gravity of grit = 2.7

2. Size of grit particle = 0.21 mm

3. Viscosity of water = l.0 10–2 cm2/s The setting velocity (cm/s) of the grit particle will be a. 1 to 2.5 b. 2.6 to 5.0

c. 5.1 to 7.8 d. > 7.8

53. Amongst the various sewage treatment methods, for the same discharge, the largest area is needed for a. Trickling Filter

b. Anaerobic Pond c. Oxidation Ditch d. Oxidation Pond

54. Consider the following treatment steps in a conventional wastewater treatment plant:

1. Primary sedimentation

2. Grit removal 3. Disinfection 4. Secondary sedimentation

5. Screening 6. Secondary treatment unit

The correct sequence of these steps is

a. 5,2,1,6,4,3

b. 1,2,4,5,3,6 c. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1

d. 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 55. In an activated sludge process, the sludge

volume index can be controlled by

a. Aeration b. Adding chlorine c. Reducing recycling ratio d. Increasing the depth of aeration tank

56. A primary sedimentation tank is not required for a. Activated sludge system

b. Extended aeration system c. Trickling filtration system d. Tapered activated sludge process using

pure oxygen for aeration

57. In urban air pollution, the most poisonous gas is supposed to be carbon monoxide. It is hazardous because a. It affects our sense of smell b. It is carcinogenic in nature

c. it combines with haemoglobin d. It causes blindness

58.

The above graph shows the relationship of ambient lapse rates to the dry adiabatic lapse rate under different conditions of stability. Match stability situations A, B, C and D (as given in the graph) with the classes of stability as follows 1. Superadiabatic 2. Dry adiabatic 3. Subadiabatic

4. Inversion Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A B C D a. 3 4 1 2

b. 4 3 2 1



9 of 16c. 3 4 2 1

d. 4 3 1 2

59. The term Refuse’ generally does not include

a. Putrescible solid waste b. Excreta

c. Non-putrescible solid waste d. Ashes

60. Bangalore method and Indore method of disposing solid wastes are a. Identical

b. Different as Bangalore method is an anaerobic method

c. Different as Bangalore method does not contain human excreta

d. Different as Indore method is an incineration method

61. Which one of the following statements explains the term pyrolysis ?

a. Solid waste is heated in closed containers in oxygen-free atmosphere

b. Solid waste is incinerated in presence of oxygen

c. Wastewater is treated with oxygen

d. Dissolved solids from water are removed by glass distillation

62. The collapsible soil is associated with a. Dune sands b. Laterite soils

c. Loess d. Black cotton soils

63. The predominant mineral responsible for shrinkage and swelling in black cotton soil is a. Illite

b. Kaolinite c. Mica

d. Montmorillonite

64. Consistency as applied to cohesive soils is an indicator of its

a. Density b. Moisture content

c. Shear strength d. Porosity

65. While computing the values of limits of consistency and consistency indices, it is found that liquidity index has a negative value.

Consider the following comments on this value: 1. Liquidity index cannot have a negative

value and should be taken as zero. 2. Liquidity index can have a negative

value. 3. The soil tested is in semisolid state and

stiff. 4. The soil tested is in medium soft state. Which of these statements are correct 7.

a. 1 and 4 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 4

d. 2 and 3 66. A stratified soil deposit has three layers of

thicknesses: Z1 = 4, Z2 = 1, Z3 = 2 units and the corresponding permabilities of K1 = 2, K2 = 1 and K3 = 4 units, respectively.

The average permeability perpendicular to the bedding planes will be

a. 4

b. 2 c. 8

d. 16

67. Match List I (Soil Description) with List II (Coefficient of Permeability, mm/s) and select the correct answer :

List I A. Gravel B. Clay silt admixtures

C. Loess

D. Homogeneous clays List II 1. > 1 2. 10–2 to 10–4 3. < 10–6

4. 10–4 to 10–6 A B C D a. 4 1 3 2

b. 1 4 3 2 c. 4 1 2 3 d. 1 4 2 3

68. In a compaction test if the compacting effort is increased, it will result in a. Increase in maximum dry density and

OMC



10 of 16b. Increase in maximum dry density but

OMC remains unchanged c. Increase in maximum dry density and

decrease in OMG d. No change iii maximum dry density

but decrease in OMG 69. Consider the following statements :

A dispersed structure is formed in clay when 1. the net electrical forces between

adjacent soil particles at the time of deposition are repulsive

2. remoulding and compacting of clays have high void ratio

3. there is concentration of dissolved minerals in water

4. platelets have face to face contact in more or less parallel arrays

Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 2 and 4

d. 1, 3 and 4 70. A CD triaxial test was conducted on a

granular soil. At failure ’1 / ’3 was 3.0. The effective minor principal stress of failure was 75 kPa. The principal stress difference at failure will be

a. 75 kPa b. 150 kPa c. 225 kPa

d. 300 kPa 71. 71. The ultimate bearing capacity of a

square footing on surface of a saturated clay having unconfined compression strength of 50 kN/m2 (using Skempton equation) is

a. 250 kN/m2 b. 180 kN/m2 c. 150 kN/m2

d. 125 kN/m2 72. If two foundations, one narrow and

another wide, are resting on a bed of sand carrying the same intensity of load per unit area, then which one is likely to fail early? a. Narrow foundation

b. Wider foundation c. Both will fail simultaneously

d. Difficult to judge since other conditions are unknown

73. In a Newmark’s chart for stress distribution, there are 10 concentric circles and 20 radial lines. The influence factor for the chart would be a. 0.1 b. 0.05 c. 0.01 d. 0.005

74. The contact pressure distribution under a rigid footing on a cohesionless soil would be a. Uniform throughout b. Zero at centre and maximum at edges c. Zero at edges and maximum at centre

d. Maximum at edges and minimum at centre

75.

Skin frictional capacities of a 40 cm diameter driven concrete pile for the portions A, B and C are 17 kN, 63 kN and 503 kN respectively, and point load capacity is 11000 RN/rn2 Total pile load capacity will be

a. 3743 kN

b. 2864 RN c. 1965 RN

d. 1529 RN

76. Sinking effort in well foundation is the ratio of weight of well steining to that of skin friction developed on the sides and should preferably be a. < 1.0

b. = 1.0 c. > 1.2 d. > 2.0

77. Consider the following statements 1. All soils can experience liquefaction

under vibrations.

2. Liquefaction is generally associated with sandy soils.



11 of 163. Liquefaction is not possible in normal

clays. 4. Highly sensitive clays may undergo

liquefaction under vibrations. Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1 and 3

b. 2 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2, 3 and 4

78. On which o the following factors does the behaviour of sand mass to cause liquefaction during an earthquake depend largely? 1. The number of stress cycles

2. The frequency and amplitude of vibrations of the earthquake shock

3. Angle of internal friction of sand 4. Relative density of sand Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 1 and 3 d. 4 only

79. Match List I (Sampler) with List II (Use) and select the correct answer :

List I A. Split spoon sampler B. Stationary piston sampler

C. Rotary sampler D. Compressed air sampler

List II 1. To obtain representative samples in all

types of soil

2. To obtain undisturbed samples of sands below water table

3. To obtain undisturbed samples in clay and silts

4. To obtain approximately undisturbed samples of hard cemented cohesive soils

A B C D

a. 1 3 2 4 b. 3 1 4 2 c. 1 3 4 2

d. 3 1 2 4 80. Which one of the following figures

indicates the principle of traversing ?

a.

b.

c.

d. 81. The magnetic needle in a prismatic

compass is placed a. At the bottom of the graduated

aluminium ring b. Above the graduated aluminium ring

c. Below the brass box d. Below the needle lifter, but above the

bottom inside the compass

82. From the probability equation it is found that the most probable values of a series of errors arising out of observations of equal weightage are those for which the sum of their squares is

a. Zero b. Infinity

c. Minimum d. Maximum

83. Match List I (Terms) with List II (Description) and select the correct answer:

List I A. Contour

B. Line of collimation

C. Tie line D. Magnetic meridian

List II 1. Line joining magnetic North and South



12 of 162. Line joining subsidiary station on the

main line 3. Line joining points of same elevation

4. Line joining optical centre of the objective lens with point of interaction of cross-wires

A B C D

a. 3 4 2 1

b. 4 3 2 1 c. 3 4 2 1

d. 4 3 1 2 84. Which one of the following methods of

levelling eliminates .the error due to curvature and refraction?

a. Fly levelling

b. Levelling by equalizing the distances of backsight and foresight

c. Check levelling d. Precise levelling

85. The standard measurement of the Geodimeter 510 is

a. ± 1 cm

b. ± 5.1 mm

c. 5.1 mm

d. ± 1 mm 86. Match List I (type of Transition Curves)

with List II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer : List I A. Glover’s spiral B. Cubic spiral C. Froude’s transition D. Bernoulli’s lemniscate

List II 1. An autogenous curve of an automobile 2. Radius of curvature at any point varies

inversely as the distance from the beginning of the curve

3. sin =

4. x = l, cos = 1 A B C D a. 2 3 4 1 b. 3 2 1 4 c. 2 3 1 4 d. 3 2 4 1

87. If g1 and g2 are the two gradients, r is the rate of change of grade (%) per chain, the length of the vertical curve will be

a. 1 2

2

g + g

r

b. 1 2g g

r

c. 1 2g g

r

d. 1 23

g g

r

88. The relation between the air-base B, photographic base b, flying height H and focal length f of lens in a vertical photograph is given by

a. B = bH / f b. B = f / bH

c. B = b / fH

d. B = b

H f

89. Which one of the following is taken into consider cation for computing traffic capacity per lane of the highway?

a. Passenger cars and light vehicles b. Trucks and buses

c. Two -wheelers d. Equivalent of passenger cars

90. In which one of the following location surveys of the road soil profile is sampling done up to a depth of 1 m to 3 m below the existing ground level?

a. Preliminary survey b. Final location survey

c. Construction survey

d. Material location survey 91. The camber provided on a sloping road is

1 in 48. Which one of the following is the ruling gradient?

a. 1 in 15 b. 1 in 20

c. 1 in 24

d. 1 in 30 92. Which of the following are the accepted

criteria for design of valley curve for highways ?

1. Headlight sight distance



13 of 162. Passing and non-passing sight distance

3. Aesthetic consideration

4. Motorist comfort 5. Drainage control


a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 1, 3, 4 and 5 c. 2, 3, 4 and 5 d. 1 and 5

93. Match List I (Tests) with List II (Properties) select the correct answer :

List I A. CBR test

B. Plate bearing test C. Triaxial test D. Stabilometer and Cohesionmeter test

A B C D a. 1 2 3 4 b. 2 1 3 4

c. 1 2 4 3 d. 2 1 4 3

94. Match List I (Method of Traffic Volume counts) with List II (Equipment Used) and select the correct answer :

List I A. Manual count B. Combination of manual and

mechanical methods C. Automatic devices D. Photographic method

List II 1. Video-recorder 2. Pneumatic tube

3. Watch 4. Multiple pen A B C D

a. 4 3 1 2 b. 3 4 2 1 c. 4 3 2 1 d. 3 4 2 2

95. Match List I (Type of study) with List II (data collected) and select the correct answer :

List I A. Public transport inventory study

B. Public transport O-D study

C. Public transport usage study

List II 1. Starting and destination of riders

2. Available routing and scheduling 3. Vehicle-km, earning per km 4. Passenger-km, IVTT, walking time,

waiting time A B C D a. 1 2 3 4 b. 2 1 3 4

c. 1 2 4 3 d. 2 1 4 3

96. Match List I (Type of Traffic Signals) with List II (Advantages) and select the correct answer :

List I A. Pre-timed signals

B. Vehicle-actuated signals

C. Semi-vehicle actuated signals D. Linked traffic

List II 1. Useful for junction of a side street

having low traffic volume with a main street having heavy flow

2. Overall optimization of traffic flow

3. Delay is held to a minimum, and maximum lane capacity is achieved

4. Most successfully used in linked system

A B C D a. 3 4 1 2 b. 4 3 1 2

c. 3 4 2 1 d. 4 3 2 1

97. Breathing length of LWR is the a. End portion which gets affected by

temperature variation b. End portion which does not get

affected by temperature variation c. Central portion which gets affected by

temperature variation d. Central portion which does not get

affected by temperature variation 98. Grade compensation on curves in Indian

Railways for BG is

a. 0.40% per degree of curve



14 of 16b. 0.06% per degree of curve

c. 0.04% per degree of curve

d. 0.02% per degree of curve 99. The distance between the running faces of

the stock- rail and gauge face of tongue rail measured at the heel of the switch is known as

a. Flangeway clearance

b. Throw of switch c. Heel divergence

d. Flare 100. Match List I (Track Parameter) with List II

(Equipments Used) and select the correct answer

List I A. Unevenness B. Gauge

C. Superelevation

D. Alignment List II 1. Track recording car 2. Amsler car 3. Feeler and spring

4. Gyroscopic pendulum A B C D a. 2 3 1 4

b. 3 2 1 4 c. 2 3 4 1

d. 3 2 4 1 101. Match List I (Tunnel Construction

Methods) with List (Advantages) and select the correct answer:

List I A. Full face method B. Heading and Bench method C. Drift method D. Compressed air method

List II 1. Helps in ventilation of tunnel 2. Useful in soft and water- bearing soil

3. Simultaneous drilling and mucking is possible

4. Tunneling is continuous

A B C D a. 4 3 2 1 b. 3 4 1 2 c. 4 3 1 2

d. 3 4 2 1

102. The monthly mean of maximum daily temperature and monthly mean of average daily temperature of the hottest month of the year are 49 °C and 40 °C respectively. Then airport reference temperature is a. 43°C b. 69.6°C c. 37°C d. 52°C

103. Which one of the following imaginary surfaces in airport is circular in plan with centre located at an elevation of 150 m above the airport reference point?

a. Conical surface b. Transitional surface

c. Inner horizontal surface d. Outer horizontal surface

104. Consider the following four components in an Instrumental Landing System

1. Threshold lights

2. Glide slope antenna 3. ‘Z’ markers

4. Localizer antenna

These components are installed in the direction of landing in the sequence

a. 4, 2, 3, 1 b. 1, 4, 3, 2 c. 3, 1, 2, 4

d. 2, 3, 4, 1 105. The critical depth of water flowing

through a rectangular channel of width 5 m when discharge is 15 m3/s is

a. (2.25)1/2 m b. (1.6)1/2 m

c. (0.46)1/3 m d. (0.64)1/3 m

106. Consider the following statements relating to centrifugal pumps

1. In centrifugal pumps discharge is proportional to speed of the impeller.

2. In centrifugal pumps discharge is proportional to the cube of the impeller diameter.

3. Specific speed is a criterion for selection of centrifugal pumps.

4. Cavitation in centrifugal pumps can be eliminated by avoiding sharp bends,



15 of 16lowering velocity in suction pipe and by lowering temperature.

Which, of these statements are correct?

a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1, 2 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 3 and 4 107. Assertion (A) : At the critical state of flow,

the specific force is a minimum for the given discharge.

Reason (R) : For a minimum value of specific force, the first derivative of force with respect to depth should be unity. a. Both A and R are individually true and

R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are individually true but

R is not the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

108. Assertion (A) : The vertical co-ordinate of the apex of the Q-curve is 2/3 E.

Reason (R) : The, horizontal co-ordinate of the apex of E-curve is 1.5 times (q2/g)1/3.

a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A


109. Assertion (A) : The relative velocity of water of a Pelton Turbine equals the difference between the absolute velocities of water and vane.

Reason (R) : For a Pelton Turbine, the inlet blade angle is 1800.




d. A is false but R is true 110. Assertion (A) : Passive earth pressure is

always greater than the earth pressure at rest and active earth pressure.

Reason (R) : In passive state the structure becomes the actuating, element and soil becomes the resisting element to maintain the stability.




111. Assertion (A) : With the lining of canals, permissible velocity of flow is tower than that with concrete lining. Reason (R) : The surface of tile lining becomes rough due to loss of surface material with high velocity.




112. Assertion (A) : Canal escape serves as a safety valve for a canal.

Reason (R) Canal escape discharges the excess water in the parent canal due to sudden closure of outlets by the farmers. a. Both A and R are individually true and


R is not the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true 113. Assertion (A) : Most important activity in

sewer line construction is to start constructing it from the tail and to check levels with a boning rod. Reason (R) : Construction of sewer line from tail end is recommended because required number of pumping stations may be incorporated in sewer network design. a. Both A and R are individually true and



d. A is false but R is true 114. Assertion (A) : The ultimate strength of

soil material is determined by the stresses in the potential failure plane.

Reason (R) : The critical shear stress causing failure depends upon the properties of soil as well as on the normal stress in the failure plane.



16 of 16a. Both A and R are individually true and



115. Assertion (A) : In a machine foundation subjected to vibrations, frequency of vibrations with damping is less than the natural frequency of vibrations of the system.

Reason (R) : The frequency of vibrations with damping d and natural frequency of vibrations n are related by the expression d = n (1 — d2)




d. A is false but R is true 116. Assertion (A) : In a theodolite if the lower

clamp is not properly clamped or the instrument is not firmly tightened on the tripod head, the error introduced is known as ‘slip’

Reason (R) : If the shifting head is loose, the error ‘slip’ will be introduced.




117. Assertion (A) : Prohibitory signs are part of regulatory signs which give a definite negative instruction regarding movement prohibition, restriction on weighty or speed of vehicles.

Reason (R) : According to the IRC Standards, prohibitory signs are of octagønal shape with side being 900 mm and with a white border and red background for the standard size. a. Both A and R are individually true and




118. Assertion (A) : CST9 sleeper, a type of metal sleeper, has been extensively used by Indian Railways due to its uniform strength, economical and satisfactory performance.

Reason (R) : Metal sleeper is an inverted channel with folded ends. The folded edges which form a bulb resist the damage caused by the packing of ballast. a. Both A and R are individually true and



119. Assertion (A) Packing is the method of forcing and packing stone ballast below the sleepers by ramming with a beater-cum-pickaxe. Reason (R) : At points and crossings, packing is carried out by lifting the track by means of track jack and requisite quantity of stone chips is evenly spread below the sleepers by shovel and the chips are allowed to consolidate by running trains. a. Both A and R are individually true and

R is the correct explanation of A



120. Assertion (A) : Wet docks are enclosed or partially enclosed basins provided with locks and entrance gates to keep the water at fairly constant level for allowing vessels to come in, berth or leave at all times.

Reason (R) : Wet docks require expensive arrangements like lock gate and the walls are designed to withstand backfill pressure when the dock is full.






1 of 17

(PAPER–I) 1. Consider the following statements Dry rot

in timber is due to 1. stacking wood in open areas 2. lack of ventilation 3. decomposition of sap 4. lack of preservatives Which of the statements given above are correct ? a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 3 and 4

2. In static bending test Match List I (Type of Failure) with List II (Figure) and select the correct answer using the codes : List I A. Simple tension B. Gross grain tension C. Splintering tension D. Brash tension List II

1.

2.

3.

4. A B C D a. 1 4 3 2 b. 4 1 3 2 c. 4 1 2 3 d. 1 4 2 3

3. Match List I (Pr duct) with List II (Its Use) and select the correct answer using the codes : List I A. Fibre board B. Heartwood C. Laminated timber

D. Plywood List II 1. Panelling 2. Insulation 3. Scantling 4. Arches I trusses A B C D a. 3 2 1 4 b. 3 2 4 1 c. 2 3 4 1 d. 2 3 1 4

4. Consider the following characteristics with respect to brick 1. Minimum compressive strength = 175

(Standard units) 2. Minimum absorption is 24 hours, (in %

of dry weight) = 12 3. 3. Very little efflorescence 4. Tolerance in dimension = ±8% As per Indian standards classification, a brick with the characteristics given above is termed as a. H I b. F Il c. L II d. H II

5. Match List I (Test) with List II (Procedure) and select the correct answer using the codes : List I A. Absorption B. Hardness C. Soundness D. Structure List II 1. A brick is to be broken for the test 2. Two bricks are taken and they can be

struck with each other without breaking

3. A scratch is easily made on brick surface with the help of a finger nail

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2004




2 of 174. Difference in weight between the brick

immersed in water for 16 hours and its dry weight

A B C D a. 1 3 2 4 b. 4 3 2 1 c. 4 2 3 1 d. 1 2 3 4

6. Consider the following statements : Low percentage of C3S and high percentage of C2S in cement will result in 1. higher ultimate strength with less heat

generation 2. rapid - hardening 3. better resistance to chemical attack Which of the statements given above are correct ? a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1,2 and 3

7. Match List I (Type of Cement) with List II (Property) and select the correct answer using the codes : List I A. Blast furnace slag cement B. High alumina cement C. Low heat cement D. White cement List II 1. High percentage of tricalcium silicate 2. Initial setting time is approximately

three and a half hours 3. Low percentage of iron oxide 4. Rate of hardening is low A B C D a. 4 3 1 2 b. 1 3 4 2 c. 1 2 4 3 d. 4 2 1 3

8. What is the quantity of cement (in kg) and of dry sand (in cubic metre) respectively required for preparing 1 cubic metre of wet cement mortar of 1 : 5 proportion? a. 270 and 1.00 b. 290 and 1.05 c. 290 and 1.00 d. 310 and 1.05

9. Consider the following statements regarding cement mortar : 1. Silicate type chemical resistant mo1ar

has good resistance to hydrofluoric acid

2. Sulphur-type chemical resistant mortar has poor resistance to alkalis

3. The interior surface of a building may be plastered with cement mortar containing cement and sand in the ratio 1 : 6

Which of the statements given above are correct? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3

10. Which one of the following statements is correct? The use of super plasticisers as admixture a. increases compressive strength of

concrete b. permits lower water cement ratio,

thereby strength is increased c. reduces the setting time of concrete d. permits lower cement content, thereby

strength is increased 11. Match List I (Aggregate) with List II

(Effect) and answer using the codes select the correct : List I A. Rounded aggregates B. Crushed aggregates C. Flaky aggregates D. Irregular aggregates List II 1. Reduce workability appreciably

because of a high ratio of surface area to volume

2. Require more water than rounded aggregates and give strength lesser than crushed aggregates

3. Give concrete of higher compressive strength due to development of stronger aggregate mortar bond

4. Require lesser amount of water and cement paste for a given workability

A B C D a. 1 2 4 3 b. 1 3 4 2



3 of 17c. 4 3 1 2 d. 4 2 1 3

12. Consider the following statements : For increasing the workability of concrete, it is necessary to 1. increase the quantity of cement 2. decrease the quantity of sand 3. alter the proportion of fine and coarse

aggregates 4. decrease the quantity of water 5. use angular aggregate Which of the statements given above are correct ? a. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 b. 2, 4 and 5 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 5

13. Slump and compaction factors are two different measures of workability of concrete. For a slump of 0 to 20 mm, what is the equivalent range of compaction factor? a. 0.50 - 0.70 b. 0.70 - 0.80 c. 0.80 - 0.85 d. 0.85 - 0.92

14. The values of slump commonly adopted for the various concrete mixes are given below: Type of Concrete Slump Adopted (mm) 1. Concrete for road works - 20 to 28 2. Ordinary RCC work - 50 to 100 3. Columns retaining walls - 12 to 25 4. Mass concrete - 75 to 175 Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ? a. 1, 3 and 4 b. 1 and 2 c. 3 and 4 d. 2 and 4

15. Consider the following pairs 1. Hand compaction of heavily reinforced

sections – Low workability (0 - 25 mm slump)

2. Concreting of shallow sections with vibrations -High workability (125-150 mm slump)

3. Concreting of lightly reinforced sections like pavements - Low workability (5 - 50 mm slump)

4. Concreting of lightly reinforced sections by hand or heavily reinforced sections with vibration - Medium workability (25 -75 mm slump)

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ? a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 3 and 4 d. 1 and 3

16. The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is 2.78 and of coarse aggregate is 7.82 and the desired fineness modulus. of mixed aggregate is 6.14. What is the amount of fine aggregate to be mixed with one part of coarse aggregate ? a. 55% b. 50% c. 45% d. 40%

17.

A brass bar of solid section is encased in a steel tube as shown in the above diagram The coefficient of expansion of steel is 11.2 10–6 per °C and the coefficient of expansion of brass is 16.5 10–6 per °C. The composite bar is heated through 600C. Now consider the following statements : 1. The stress in the brass will be tensile 2. The stress in the steel will be tensile 3. The stress in the steel will be

compressive 4. The stress in the brass will be

compressive Which of the statements given above are correct ? a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 4 d. 2 and 3

18.



4 of 17

For the plane stress situation shown in the above diagram, what is the maximum shear stress ? a. Zero, when X and Y axes are rotated

45° clockwise b. Zero, at all positions of orientation of

X and Y axes c. 20 MPa, at all positions of orientation

of X and Y axes d. —20 MPa, when X and Y axes are

rotated 45° anticlockwise. 19.

In a piece of stressed material, the principle stress are 1 = 3.0 kN/m2 tensile and 2 = 7.0 kN/m2 compressive as shown in the above diagram. The line of action of the tensile stress makes an angle = 30° to the normal to the plane AB. What is the normal stress n ? a. + 0.5 kN/m2 b. — 1.5 kN/m2 c. + 2.0 kN/m2 d. — 2.5 kN/m2

20.

A thin wooden plate PQRS is made by gluing two pieces of wood along PR as shown in the above diagram.

If x = —30 Mpa, y = 10 MPa and xy = 0, then what is the normal stress on the surface PR?

a. —10 MPa b. —20 MPa c. 110 MPa d. 20 MPa

21. In a plane strain condition in the xy plane, the strain components associated with xy axes are x = 800 10–6, y = 100 10–6, xy = –800 10–6. What are the principal strains for these strain values ?

a. 981 10–6, –81 10–6

b. 891 10–6, –18 10–6

c. 881 10–6, 71 10–6

d. 839 10–6, –81 10–6 22. In a plane strain case in the xy plane,

normal strain in x and y directions are equal to zero and shear strain is equal to 3 10–6. What is the value of diameter of Mohr’s circle of strain for these strain values ?

a. 6 10–6

b. 3 10–6

c. 1.5 10–6 d. Zero

23. For a case of plane stress, x = 40 MN/m2, y = 0, xy = 80 MN/m2. What are the principal stresses and their orientation with x and y axes ?

a. 1 = 80 MN/m2 , 2 = 40 MN/m2 , 1 300

b. 1 = 100 MN/m2 , 2 = –60 MN/m2 , 1 = 320

c. 1 =102.5 MN/m2 , 2 = –62.5 MN/m2, 1 = 360

d. 1 = 105 MN/m2 , 2 = 62 MN/m2 , 1 = 360

24. A thin rod of 10 mm diameter is subjected to a tensile force of 7850 N. What are the principal stresses and maximum shear stress ? a. 70MPa, 50 MPa, 10 MPa b. 100 MPa, Zero, 50 MPa c. 100 MPa, 50 MPa, 25 MPa d. 100 MPa, Zero, Zero

25.



5 of 17The above diagram shows a simply supported beam with load. Which one of the following diagrams is the shear force diagram for this beam ?

a.

b.

c.

d. 26. In which one of the following, the point of

contraflexure will not occur ? a. A two span continuous beam of equal

spans, simply supported and loaded by UDL over both spans

b. A simply supported beam loaded by UDL

c. A fixed beam loaded by UDL d. A propped cantilever loaded by UDL

27.

What are the support reactions at the fixed end of the cantilever beam shown in the above diagram? a. 120 kN, 120 kNm b. 120 kN, 240 kNm c. 240 kN, 120 kNm d. 120 kN, 60 kNm

28. The maximum shear stress produced in a shaft in 5N/mm2. The shaft is of 40 mm diameter. What is the approximate value of twisting moment ? a. 628 Nm b. 63 Nm c. 126 Nm d. 251 Nm

29. For S. F. to be uniform throughout the span of a simply supported beam, which of the following loads should be applied on to the beam ?

a. Two equally spaced concentric loads b. A couple at mid - span only c. A couple anywhere in the span d. UDL over the entire span

30. Consider the following statements for a beam based on theory of bending 1. Strain developed in any fibre is

directly proportional to the distance of fibre from neutral surface

2. For flexural loading and linearly elastic action the neutral axis passes through the centroid of cross - section

3. The assumption of the plane cross sections remaining plane will not hold good during inelastic action

4. Instances in which the neutral axis does not pass through the centroid of a cross - section include a homogenous symmetrical ‘beam (with respect to neutral axis) and subjected to inelastic action

Which of the statements given above are correct ? a. 1,2, 3 and 4 b. 1,2 and 4 c. 3 and 4 d. 1 and 2

31.

Consider the simply supported beam AB subjected to the point loads of equal magnitude as shown in the above diagram. Which one of the Following statements is correct ? The portion CD of the beam is a. in pure bending b. in pure shear c. having maximum bending moment d. having maximum shear force

32.



6 of 17A rigid bar AB is supported by a spring as shown in the diagram above. What is the deflection of the point ‘b’? a. 25 mm b. 20 mm c. 15 mm d. 10 mm

33.

The diagram above shows a plane truss. What is the force in vertical member UL of the truss ? a. 35 kN b. 30 kN c. 20 kN d. 15 kN

34. Which one of the following statements is correct? The influence line diagram (ILD) for bending moment at a section in a cantilever is a triangle extending between the section and the a. fixed end with maximum ordinate

under the section b. fixed end with maximum ordinate

under the fixed end c. unsupported end with maximum

ordinate at the section d. unsupported end with maximum

ordinate at the unsupported end 35.

The diagram above shows a truss subjected to loading as indicated. What is the force induced in the member AB? a. 5 kN b. 10 kN c. Zero

d. 5 2 kN

36.

An angle is connected to the back of the flange of a channel section to be used as a beam as shown in the above diagram. This is done to a. increase the compression flange area b. increase the moment of inertia about

the major axis c. increase the moment of inertia about

the minor axis d. make the load pass through the shear

centre 37. Match List I with List II and select the

correct answer using the codes List I A. The shape of a cable suspended

between two supports is defined by B. The cable uniformly loaded along the

horizontal span takes the shape of C. The cable uniformly loaded along its

length assumes the shape of D. the girder in a suspension bridge

transmits to its supports List II 1. A catenary 2. A little load 3. A parabola 4. Applied loads A B C D a. 1 2 4 3 b. 1 3 4 2 c. 4 3 1 2 d. 4 2 1 3

38. Which one of the following statements is correct ? An indeterminate building frame may be converted to a determinate one by assuming a. hinges at mid-height of columns b. hinges at mid-span of the beams c. hinges at both mid-height of columns

and mid-spam of beams



7 of 17d. one support as fixed at base and other

support on rollers 39. Consider the following statements

1. An indeterminate structure is not economical from the material stand-point in comparison to a determinate structure

2. If n redundant in a statically indeterminate structure of n degree indeterminacy are removed, the structure will become statically determinate but unstable

3. In the rigid frame analysis, the axial effects are ignored as their influence is negligibly small compared to bending and shear effects

Which of the following statements is/are correct ? a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 3 only d. 2 and 3

40. What is the horizontal thrust in a symmetric, parabolic two - hinged arch of span L and central rise y subjected to a uniformly distributed load of intensity per unit length over its entire span ?

a. L2/4y

b. L2/8y

c. L2/12y

d. L2/16y 41.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes : List I A. Moment at B B. Slope at A C. Reaction at A D. Stiffness of AB List II

1. 3/8 L . 2. 4E 1/l

3. 1.50 M where M = L2/12

4. Ml/4EI where M = L2/12 A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3 b. 3 1 4 2 c. 3 4 1 2 d. 2 4 1 3

42. Moments of the same sense are applied to both the ends of a simply supported beam. The ratio of the rotation of the two ends is 2. What is the ratio of the applied moments? a. 3/2 b. 4/3 c. 5/4 d. 6/5

43. A beam is hinged at end A and fixed at B. A moment M is applied at end A. What is the moment developed at end B? a. —M b. M c. M/2 d. —M/2

44. Consider the following statements 1. The total potential energy is the sum of

strain energy and potential energy due to external loading

2. The strain, energy is always positive 3. The potential energy is always positive 4. For equilibrium position the total

potential energy is a minimum Which of the statements given above are correct ? a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1 and 3

45. A uniform beam of length 2L and flexural rigidity El is fixed at both the ends. What is the moment required for unit rotation at the centre of span ? a. 2El / L b. 4El / L c. 6El/L d. 8El/L

46. An elastic uniform bar of length I and cross - sectional area A is subjected, within its elastic limit to a rapidly applied tensile force increasing from zero to a final value P. What is the final strain energy stored in the bar after vibrations have



8 of 17ceased ? (E is the modulus of elasticity of the bar material.) a. 2P2l / AE b. P2l / AE c. P2l / 4AE d. P2l / 2AE

47. Match List I (Type of Beam) with List II (Collapse Load Wu, wu) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List I

A.

B.

C.

D. List II 1. 8Mp/l 2. 16Mp/l

2 3. 6M/1 4. 11.66 Mp/ l

2 Wu, and wu per unit length denote the collapse loads and Mp denotes the plastic moment capacity of the beams corresponding to the collapse loads A B C D a. 2 1 3 4 b. 3 4 1 2 c. 3 1 2 4 d. 2 4 1 3

48. Which one of the following statements is correct? In Kani’s method hinged column is replaced by an equivalent column fixed at the base with length and stiffness as a. 1.5 times the original length and 3/4th

stiffness of original column - b. 1.5 times the original length and

stiffness same as original column c. same length as original column but

stiffness 3/4th of the original column stiffness

d. twice the original column length arid 1.5 times the stiffness of original column

49.

What is the collapse load for propped cantilever beam shown in the above diagram with a plastic moment capacity of Mp ? a. 1.25 Mp b. 1.5 Mp c. Mp d. 2 Mp.

50. Consider the following statements 1. The development of a plastic hinge in a

determinate beam results in effective destruction of the beam

2. For fixed ended beams of rectangular section, the design by elastic theory is not conservative

3. In the ideal plastic material, if the material is stressed to a point beyond the elastic limit and is then unstressed, there will not be any residual strain

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3

51. Some steels do not show yield plateau and show continuous curve. For such steels, how is the yield strength obtained? a. By drawing 0.2% offset of the strain b. By drawing 0.5% offset of the strain c. By drawing initial tangent d. By drawing initial secant modulus

52.



9 of 17The stress strain diagram for mild steel subjected to tensile load is given above. Now consider the following statements 1. The diagram represents average stress

strain diagram 2. The diagram represents actual stress

strain diagram 3. A represents upper yield point 4. B represents lower yield point Which of the statements given above are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 1, 3 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 3

53. Consider the following statements Lug angles are used to 1. increase the lengths of the end

connections angle section 2. decrease the lengths of the end

connections of angle section 3. increase the lengths of the end

connections of channel section 4. decrease the lengths of the end

connections of channel section Which of the statements given above are correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 3

54. When the effect of wind or earthquake load is considered in the design of rivets and bolts for steel’ structures, by what percentage the permissible stresses may. be exceeded? a. 15% b. 25% c. 33.33% d. 50%

55. A 6 mm thick mild steel plate is connected to an 8 mm thick plate by 16 mm diameter shop rivets. What is the number of rivets required to carry an 80 kN load ? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6


1. The gross area of a rivet is taken as the cross - sectional area of the rivet hole

2. The distance between the centres of the rivets should not be less than 2.5 times the gross diameter of the rivet

3. 3. In no case shall fewer than two bolts or rivets be used for attaching the lug angle to the gusset

Which of the statements given above are correct ? a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3

57. A member is subjected to axial compression. Effective length is 3000 mm. Size of the angle used is 100 100 10. What is the maximum capacity (if fy = 250 MPa) ? a. 101.2 kN b. 81.7 kN c. 59.2 kN d. 95.1 kN

58. What is the maximum slenderness ratio for a steel member carrying compressive bade resulting from dead loads and imposed loads? a. 180 b. 250 c. 350 d. 400

59. Af is the area of flanges and Aw is the area of web What is the effective flange area in the design of a plate girder? a. Af + Aw / 8 b. Af + Aw / 6 c. Af – Aw / 8 d. Af – Aw / 6

60. Consider the following statements 1. As far as practicable, the lacing system

shall be varied throughout the length of the strut

2. Single laced systems on opposite sides of the components shall preferably be in mutually opposite directions, so that one is not the shadow of the other

3. Rolled sections or tubes of equivalent strength may be used as lacing bars instead of flats



10 of 17Which of the statements given above are correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3

61. 2-ISMB 300 140 section are acting as a compound column. The height of the column is 400 mm. Two sections are spaced 400 mm, centre to centre. In the longitudinal direction there is runner at the top of the column. What is the maximum capacity of the column in compression (fy = 250 Mpa) ? a. 2002 kN b. 1629 kN c. 1501 kN d. 1799 kN

62. Consider the following statements Horizontal stiffness is provided when 1. the depth of webs is small 2. tendency to web buckling is less 3. vertical stiffness becomes too close 4. only thin plates are available for web Which of the statements given above are correct,? a. 1 and 2 b. 3 and 4 c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 1, 3 and 4

63. Which one of the following statements is correct? Only s portion of the area of outstanding leg in an angle section serving as tension member is considered in computing the effective area of the member. This is because a. near the joint, the outstanding leg does

not take its full stress b. the outstanding leg has a number of

rivet holes reducing the net area c. the outstanding leg is susceptible to

buckling d. additional safety is preferred in the

case of tension failure 64. In a gabled industrial building in order to

minimize the wind forces on the roof, the roof slope should be kept close to a. 5°

b. 15° c. 30° d. 45°

65. Which one of the following statements is correct ? In a crane gantry girder, a channel is provided at the top flange girder. This accounts for bending in a. horizontal plane only b. vertical plane only c. horizontal and vertical planes d. horizontal and vertical planes and

twisting 66. Which one of the following statements is

correct ? For a simply supported beam of rectangular cross - section, a point load is applied at mid span. If the superimposed load alone is considered to cause the collapse, the beam is fully elastic a. For a distance of one third of beam

length from either end b. at mid span c. for the middle third of beam length d. for the distance of one fourth of beam

length from either end 67. For steel structure proportioned using

plastic design. the working load (dead load + imposed load) should be multiplied by which one of the following minimum load factor? a. 1.3 b. 1.5 c. 1.7 d. 2.0

68. A simply supported beam of span 4000 mm is loaded with a uniformly distributed load of 30 kN/m fy for the material is 250 MPa. Which rolled steel section is required? a. ISMB 500 b. ISMB 400 c. ISMB 300 d. ISMB 600

69. How are the most commonly produced and used structural elements in frames, floor beams, etc. with high moment of inertia about x-axis, are designated ? a. ISWB - section b. ISLB - section



11 of 17c. ISMB - section d. JSHB - section

70. Which one of the following statements is correct ? Minimum tension steel in RC beam needs to be provided to a. prevent sudden failure b. arrest crack width c. control excessive deflection d. prevent surface hair cracks

71. Consider the following statements 1. The limit state of collapse is defined as

the acceptable limit for the stresses in the materials.

2. Limit state method is one that ensures adequate safety of structure against collapse

3. In the limit state design method, actual stresses developed at collapse differ considerably from the theoretical values

Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. None

72. Consider the following statements 1. Reinforcement that is no longer

required for flexure beyond a certain section, shall however be extended by d or 12 , whichever is greater, before being curtailed

2. At least half the bars should be bent up at the cut -off point

3. The shear capacity at cut-off point should at least be 1.5 times the shear force at that section

Which of the statements given above are correct ? a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3

73. Which one of the following statements is correct ? Temperature and shrinkage steel is provided in reinforced concrete slabs because a. it occupies larger area

b. its thickness is less c. it is a main structural element d. it is a flexural member

74. Match List I (Reinforcement Type) with List II (Anchorage Requirement) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List I A. Footing slab, tensile reinforcement B. Cantilever beam, tensile reinforcement C. Simply supported beam, tensile

reinforcement D. Beam, shear stirrup List II 1. Ld/3 into the support

2. 6 for 135° bend 3. Ld into the support 4. Ld from the column face A B C D a. 1 3 4 2 b. 1 2 4 3 c. 4 3 1 2 d. 4 2 1 3

75. Which one of the following statements is correct ? Minimum shear reinforcement in beams is provided in the form of stirrups a. to resist extra shear force due to live

load b. to resist the effect of shrinkage of

concrete c. to resist principal tension d. to resist shear cracks at the bottom of

beam 76. Which one of the following statements is

correct ? Diagonal tension reinforcement is provided in a beam as a. longitudinal bars b. bent up bars c. helical reinforcement d. 900 bend at the bends of main bars

77. Which one of the following statements is correct ? In a combined footing for two columns carrying unequal loads, the maximum hogging moment occurs at a. inside face of the heavier column



12 of 17b. a section equidistant from both the

columns c. a section having maximum shear force d. a section having zero shear force

78. Which one of the following statements is correct ? The critical section for computing design shear force in an R.C. beam where the supports exert a compressive reaction is at a. the centre of support b. the face of support c. a distance of half of effective depth

from the face of support d. a distance of effective depth from the

face of support 79. Which one of the following statements is

correct ? Doubly reinforced beams are recommended when a. the depth of the beam is restricted b. the breadth of the beam is restricted c. both depth and breadth are restricted d. the shear is high

80. Which one of the following statements is correct ? In a reinforced concrete member, the best way to ensure adequate bond is a. to provide minimum number of large

diameter bars b. to provide large number of smaller

diameter bars c. to increase the cover for reinforcement d. to provide additional stirrups

81. Which one of the following statements is correct ? M 40 concrete is preferred to M 20 concrete for pre-stressed concrete to a. overcome bursting stresses at the ends b. avoid brittle failure of concrete c. eliminate the effect of shrinkage d. economise the use of cement

82. Which one of the following statements is correct? Minimum shear reinforcement is provided to a. resist shear force at the support b. resist shear on account of accidental

torsion

c. arrest the longitudinal cracks on side faces due to shrinkage and temperature variation

d. resist shear in concrete developing on account of non-homogeneity of concrete

83. Which one of the following statements is correct ? In a cantilever beam carrying gravity load, main reinforcement is provided a. above the neutral axis b. as vertical stirrups c. as a helical reinforcement d. below the neutral axis

84. What is the volume of concrete mix produced if a batch type concrete mixer of 1500 litres capacity takes an effective time of 15 seconds for one batch of production? a. 36 m3/hr b. 180 m3/hr c. 360 m3/hr d. 720 m3/hr

85. Consider the following statements When acquiring a crane for a project work, the important aspects of the specifications will include information on 1. length of the hoist line 2. length of boom line 3. tipping condition 4. bucket size 5. angle of swing in absolute terms 6. haul distance Which of the statements given above are correct? a. 2, 3, 5 and 6 b. 1, 2, 3 and 6 c. 1 and 5 d. 2, 4, 5 and 6

86. Match List I (Beam Variable) with List II (Design Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes : List I A. Flexure B. Shear C. Bond D. Deflection List II 1. Minimum depth of section 2. Longitudinal steel reinforcement



13 of 173. Stirrups 4. Anchorage in support A B C D a. 3 2 1 4 b. 2 3 1 4 c. 3 2 4 1 d. 2 3 4 1

87. Match List I (Type of Jobs) with List II (Type of Equipment) and select the correct answer using the codes : List I A. Handling stiff and cohesive mixes used

in the manufacturing of precast concrete

B. Road construction where space and access are limited

C. Consolidating concrete in thin slabs D. Vibrating both the form and the

concrete List II 1. External vibrator 2. Dual drum mixers 3. Pan mixers 4. Electric hammer 5. Vibrating roller A B C D a. 3 5 1 4 b. 3 2 5 1 c. 5 2 4 3 d. 5 3 4 1

88. Which of the following are taken into consideration in determining ultimate operating factor of a typical earthmoving equipment? a. Rated output at flywheel (or similar

power smoothing fitting). maximum power consumption time factor and fuel consumption

b. Maximum power consumption time (actor, idle running time proportion, overall shut-down time proportion

c. Total load/output of earthwork delivered as a proportion of rated capacity

d. Maximum power consumption time factor, cycle time as proportion of running time, idle running time between sites, overall shut-down time proportion

89. If the depth of face from which a shovel is excavating material is too shallow, then which one of the following is correct ? a. The dipper may not be filled in one

pass up the lace b. The depth of penetration of the dipper

can he increased c. The depth of penetration of the dipper

would be decreased d. Excess earth will spill clown to the

bottom of the face 90. A scraper of self weight 27 tonnes works

on a sandy clay soil weighing 1800 kg/m3 of bank measure. Haul road rolling resistance is 3.5% and grade is 2% adverse for loaded unit. The earth carried per trip is 14 m3 (b.m.) What rim pull, in newton (approximately) is required when travelling loaded and empty, respectively? a. 35600,5100 b. 32200,4800 c. 30100,4400 d. 28700,4050

91. A roller with 1.5 m effective width of drum moves with an average speed of 1.5 km/h What is the output when six number of passes are used for effectiveness ? a. 13.5 m2/hr b. 37.5 m2/hr c. 135 m2/hr d. 375 m2/hr

92. Two centrifugal pumps work in parallel at a common delivery head of 18 m. The first pump delivers 90 lps at an efficiency of 60% and the second pump delivers 60 lps at an efficiency of 50%. What is the overall efficiency of the system? a. 62.5% b. 58% c. 55.5% d. 52%

93. Match List I (Earth Excavating Equipment) with List II (Uses) and select the correct answer using the codes: List I A. Power shovel B. Hoe C. Clam-shell D. Bulldozer List II



14 of 171. Excavation of earth in confined area or

pit 2. Rehauling of loose or excavated

material from one place to another place

3. Clearing and scrubbing of worksite 4. Excavation of trenches A B C D a. 1 4 2 3 b. 1 4 3 2 c. 4 1 2 3 d. 4 1 3 2

94. Match List I (Working Details), with List II (Type of Pumps) and select the correct answer using the codes List I A. The water which has entered inside the

pump is revolved at high speed by means of the impeller revolving in a tight casing

B. The pump gives constant discharge even under variable heads

C. Usable in pumping from crooked holes and for handling corrosive liquids

D. Water can be lifted to large heights using the hydraulic ram

List II 1. Air-lift pump 2. Impulse pump 3. Reciprocating pumps 4. Diesel engine driven pumps 5. Centrifugal pumps A B C D a. 1 3 5 2 b. 5 3 1 2 c. 4 2 5 3 d. 5 2 4 3

95. Match List I (Performance Parameters) with List II (Performance Pattern) and select the correct answer using the codes : List I A. RPM vs. discharge B. Head vs. discharge C. BHP vs. discharge D. Efficiency vs. discharge List II 1. Increases with increasing head but

decreases slightly with discharge

2. Increases initially, stalls and then decreases fast

3. Generally decreases continuously 4. Increases and stalls A B C D a. 4 3 1 2 b. 1 3 4 2 c. 1 2 4 3 d. 4 2 1 3

96. How many litres of water will be pumped per minute by a double acting reciprocating pump with 6 cm cylinder diameter and 15 cm stroke length, driven by a crankshaft running, at 90 rpm with no slippage? a. 84.6 b. 81.2 c. 78.5 d. 76.4

97.

A network of seven activities is shown in the diagram given above. The respective activity durations are shown beside the arrows. Which one of the following is the total float in AB, the total float in CE and free float in EF, respectively ? a. 2, 2, 3 b. 3, 3, 2 c. 3, 2, 2 d. 2, 3, 2

98.

Consider the above AON diagram

What is the minimum number of dummy arrows required for conversion into AQA diagram ? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5



15 of 17d. 6

99. The line of a PERT network is shown above in the diagram with a, m, b durations. What is the probable range of the total duration ? a. 34.2 to 47.2 b. 34.2 to 44.2 c. 32.6 to 44.2 d. 32.6 to 42.4

100. Which one of the following is the correct sequence to analyse a project for implementation ? a. Time-cost study. Network, WBS,

Scheduling with resource allocation b. Network, Time-cost study. Scheduling

with resource allocation, WBS c. WBS, Network, Scheduling with

resource allocation, Time-cost study d. WBS, Time-cost study, Network,

Scheduling with resource allocation 101.

A bar chart of four activities indicating their scheduled start and finish “end-of-day” values and the resource requirement per day are given above. What will be the maximum and the minimum resource- need on any of the days? a. 22, 6 b. 21, 6 c. 21, 8 d. 20, 8

102. Consider the following statements Hardest timber is obtained from the wood grown in 1. the moderately dry climatic regions 2. the Himalayan slopes 3. the open areas 4. the thin jungles

Which of the statements given above are correct? a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4

103. What is the range of fineness modulus sand which is least suitable for making good concrete? a. 3.5 - 4.5 b. 2.9- 3.2 c. 2.6 - 2.9 d. 22 - 2.6

104. x, y and xy are normal and shear stresses on the x arid y faces. What is the radius of Mohr’s circle in terms of their stresses?

a. 2

x y

b. 2

x yxy

c. 2

2

2x y

xy

d. 2

2

2x y

xy

105. What is the maximum slenderness ratio of lacing bars in built-up columns ? a. 120 b. 145 c. 180 d. 200

106. Which one of the following statements is correct ? The characteristic strength of concrete is a. higher than the average cube strength b. lower than the average cube strength c. the same as the average cube strength d. higher than 90% of the average cube

strength 107. Which one of the following is true of a

statically determinate beam? a. One end is fixed and the other end is

simply supported b. Both the ends are fixed c. The beam overhangs over two supports



16 of 17d. The beam is supported on three

supports 108. What is the value of minimum

reinforcement (in case of Fe 415) in a slab? a. 0.1% b. 0.12% c. 0.15% d. 0.2%

109. Consider the following statements 1. The ideal output of a power shovel is

achieved at 900 angle of swing. 2. Output from a power shovel is

independent of size of trucks. 3. The optimum depth of cut of a power

shovel is the one at which the dipper comes out with full load.

4. The optimum depth of cut does not vary with the size of the dipper of a power shovel.

Which of the statements given above are correct? a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 4

110. Match List I (Cost) with List II (Feature) and select the correct answer using the codes : List I A. Optimal cost B. Overhead cost C. Direct cost; D. Indirect cost List II 1. Activity related 2. Developed by crashing process 3. Project-related 4. Contained in, or contributing

exclusively to the related product A B C D a. 4 3 2 1 b. 2 1 4 3 c. 4 1 2 3 d. 2 3 4 1

111. Assertion (A) : The splitting test for determining the tensile strength of concrete gives more uniform results than any other tension test.

Reason (R) The splitting test moulds can be used for casting specimens for both compression and tension tests. a. Both A and R are individually true and


R is not the correct explanation of A consist of two


112. Assertion (A) : One year strength of continuously moist cured concrete is 40% higher than that of 28-day strength, while no-moisture-curing can lower the strength to about 40%. Reason (R) : Moist curing for the first seven to fourteen days results in a compressive strength of 70 to 80% of that of 28-day moisture curing. a. Both A and R are individually true and




113. Assertion (A) :. A plane stress system consists of two principal stresses 1 and 2 and a plane strain system consists of two principal strains 1 = 1/E and 2 = 2/E. Both the systems are identical. Reason (R) : Stress is proportional to strain. a. Both A and R are individually true and




114. Assertion (A) : The slope-deflection method is a stiffness method in which the joint displacements are found by applying the equilibrium conditions at each joint. Reason (R) : The displacements at a joint of a member are independent of the displacements of the member at the far end of the joint. a. Both A and R are individually true and




17 of 17b. Both A and R are individually true but




115. Assertion (A) : In the elastic-plastic behaviour of statically indeterminate structures the ultimate load can be calculated from equilibrium considerations without any reference to the stiffness characteristics of the structure.

Reason (R) : The ultimate load of a structure is influenced by settlement of supports, thermal stress and residual stresses.


b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A consist of two



116. Assertion (A) : The principle of super-position cannot be applied in plastic design and as such all the loads must be in position simultaneously for the analysis.

Reason (R) : The relationship between loads and deformations in the plastic range is not linear





117. Assertion (A) : The stress block used in the limit state design method is obtained by testing of concrete cylinder under uniform rate of strain.

Reason (R) : If a uniform rate of strain is not adopted it is not possible to obtain the descending portion of stress and strain curve beyond maximum stress.





118. Assertion (A) : Minimum shear reinforcement as stirrups must be provided in beams, even if the shear stress v is less than the shear strength of concrete c .

Reason (R) : The bending of beams creates a tendency in the particles to slide upon each other within the beam. This tendency is called shear.




d. A is false but R is true.

119. Assertion (A) : Detailing of bars as per the requirements of maximum spacing of reinforcement in beams and slabs is sufficient to control flexural cracking.

Reason (R) : A large number of smaller diameter bars, well distributed in the, tension zone, reduce the crack width more effectively than a few larger diameter bars of the same area.





120. Assertion (A) : In assigning activity durations in developing an AOA network, the technology to be adopted is inherently considered but not the rate of utilization (or consumption) of resources (or inputs).

Reason (R): The adopted technology dictates the compatibly preferred consumption pattern of the inputs.







1 of 17

(PAPER–II) 1. Match List I with List II and select the

correct answer using the codes : List I A. Unit hydrograph B. Synthetic unit hydrograph C. Darcy’s law D. Rational method List II 1. Design flood 2. Permeability 3. Ungauged basin 4. 1 cm runoff A B C D a. 2 3 4 1 b. 2 1 4 3 c. 4 3 2 1 d. 4 1 2 3

2. Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of the two important aspects of flood forecast – (1) reliability of the forecast, and (2) the time available in between the forecast and the occurrence of flood? a. Meteorological forecast is least reliable

and time available is also the least b. Hydrological forecast is most reliable

but the time available is the least c. River forecast is least reliable and the

time available is the maximum d. River forecast is most reliable but the

time available is the least 3. The delta for a crop having base period

120 days is 70 cm. What is the duty ? a. 2480 hectare/cumec b. 1481 hectare/cumec c. 148 hectare/cumec d. 1.481 hectare/cumec

4. For a culturable command area of 1000 hectare with intensity of irrigation of 50%, the duty on field for a certain crop is 2000 hectare/cumec. What is the discharge required at head of water course with 25% losses of water ? a. 3/16 cumec b. 1/4 cumec c. 1/3cumec d. 1/2 cumec

5. What is the moisture depth available for evapotranspiration in root zone of 1 m depth soil, if dry weight of soil is 1.5 gm/cc, field capacity is 30% and permanent wilting point is 10% ?

a. 450 mm

b. 300 mm

c. 200 mm

d. 150 mm

6. Which one of the following correctly defines aquiclude?

a. A saturated formation of earth material which not only stores water but also yields it in sufficient quantity

b. A formation through which only seepage is possible and thus the yield is insignificant compared to an aquifer

c. A geological formation which is neither porous nor permeable

d. A geological formation which is essentially impermeable to the flow of water

7. What is the regime scour depth for a channel in soil with silt factor of unity and carrying 8 m2/s of discharge intensity in accordance with Lacey’s regime theory ?

a. 3.6 m

b. 4m

c. 5.4 m

d. 25.6 m

8. Which one of the following equations represents the downstream curve of the “Ogee’ spillway (where x and y are the co-ordinates of the crest profile measured from the apex of the crest, and H is the design head) ?

a. x1.85 = 2 H0.85 y

b. x = 2 H1.85 y0.85

c. x0.85 = 2 H1.85 y

d. x = 2 H0.85 y1.85

9. Clark’s method aims at which one of the following?

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2004




2 of 17a. Developing an IUH due to an

instantaneous rainfall excess over a catchment

b. Developing stage-discharge relationship

c. Measurement of infiltration

d. Flood routing through channels

10. For a saddle siphon, the maximum operative head is 6.25 m. The width and height of the throat of the siphon are 4 m and 2 m respectively. The coefficient of discharge is 0.90. How many units are required to pass a flood of 300 cumec?(Take g = 10 m/s2)

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

11. Consider the following statements regarding building manholes :

1. They must be provided at every change of alignment, gradient or diameter.

2. They must be provided at the head of all sewers.

3. They must be provided at every junction of two or more sewers

4. They must be provided at every 100 m along straight runs of sewers.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 3

d. 2 and 4

12. Match List I with List II arid select the correct answer using the codes :

List I (Parameter)

A. F/M ratio

B. Solar energy

C. Effluent recirculation

D. Volatile fatty acids

List II (Treatment Unit or Process)

1. Anaerobic digester

2. Detritus tank

3. Waste stabilization pond

4. Trickling filter

5. Activated sludge process

A B C D

a. 2 3 5 4

b. 5 3 4 1

c. 5 1 4 3

d. 4 1 2 3

13. Which one of- the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

a. BOD / COD = 0 : Waste-water is toxic

b. BOD I COD 0.2 : Acclimatization of seed is necessary

c. BOD / COD 0.6 : Waste-water is non-biodegradable

d. BOD = COD = 0 : Waste-water is devoid of organic matter

14. In aerobic conditions, the microbial decomposition of organics results in the formation of which one of the following?

a. Stable and objectionable end products

b. Unstable and objectionable end products

c. Unstable and acceptable end products

d. Stable and unobjectionable end products

15. A waste water sample of 2 ml is made upto 300 ml in BOD bottle with distilled water. Initial DO of the sample is 8 mg/l and after 5 days it is 2 mg/l. What is its BOD ?

a. 894 mg/l

b. 900 mg/l

c. 300 mg/l

d. 1200 mg/l


Aeration in water treatment helps in

1. killing pathogens.

2. correcting pH.

3. precipitating dissolved iron and manganese.

4. expelling excess CO2 and H2S.

5. expelling volatile oils.


a. 2, 4 and 5

b. 3, 4 and 5

c. 1, 2, 3 and 5

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

17. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes :



3 of 17List I (Fixture)

A. Surge arrester

B. Butterfly valve

C. Scour valve

D. Check valve

List II (Purpose)

1. Prevention of reversal of flow in a pipeline

2. Regulating or stopping the flow especially in large size conduits

3. Control of water hammer

4. Draining or emptying the pipeline section

A B C D

a. 1 2 4 3

b. 3 2 4 1

c. 1 4 2 3

d. 3 4 2 1


If a sewer X is to be designed to generate equivalent self- cleansing action as in sewer Y, then

a. velocity in sewer X must be equal to velocity in sewer Y

b. slope of sewer X must be equal to slope of sewer Y

c. tractive force intensity generated in sewer X must be same as that in sewer Y

d. the roughness coefficient of X sewer material should be same as that of Y sewer material


List I

A. Test with sound waves in the audible frequency range

B. Fire flow tests

C. Hydraulic gradient tests

D. Coefficient tests

List II

1. To determine the ability of a distribution system to transmit water with adequate residual pressure

2. Location and isolation of leaks

3. To determine the efficiency and adequacy of a distribution system during days of high demand

4. To determine the internal condition of

5. pipeline with respect to friction loss

A B C D

a. 2 1 3 4

b. 2 3 1 4

c. 4 1 3 2

d. 4 3 1 2

20. Two soil samples A and B have porosities nA = 40% and nB = 60 % respectively. What is the ratio of void ratios eA : eB ?

a. 2 : 3

b. 3 : 2

c. 4 : 9

d. 9 : 4

21. Match List I (Densities) with List II (Expressions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(Symbols G, e, w and S stand for specific gravity of soil grains, void ratio, unit weight of water and degree of saturation respectively)

List I

A. Dry density

B. Moist density

C. Submerged density

D. Saturated density

List II

1. {(G + Se) / (1 + e)}w

2. {G /(1 + e)} w

3. {(G + e) / (1 + e)} w

4. {(G — 1) / (1 + e)}w

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 2 3 4 1

c. 4 1 2 3

d. 4 3 2 1

22. What are the respective values of void ratio, porosity ratio and saturated density (in kN/m3) for a soil sample which has saturation moisture content of 20% and specific gravity of grains as 2.6 ?

(Take density of water 10 kN/m3)

a. 0.52, 1.08, 18.07

b. 0.52, 0.34, 18.07



4 of 17c. 0.77, 1.08, 16.64

d. 0.520.34, 20.14

23. Embankment fill is to be compacted at a density of 18 kN/m3. The soil of the borrow area is at a density of 15 kN/ m3. What is the estimated number of trips of 6 Cu. m capacity truck for hauling the soil required for compacting 100 m3 fill of the embankment ? (Assume that the soil in the borrow area and that in the embankment are at the same moisture content)

a. 14

b. 18

c. 20

d. 23

24. Match List I (Equipment) with List II (Use) and select the correct answer using the codes given below

List I

A. Vibratory rollers

B. Sheep foot rollers

C. Frog hammers

D. Vibroflots

List II

1. To compact soils in confined areas and at corners

2. To compact road and railway embankments of sandy soils

3. To densify sandy soils over a large area and to a larger depth

4. To compact clayey soil fills

A B C D

a. 4 2 1 3

b. 4 2 3 1

c. 2 4 1 3

d. 2 4 3 1

25. Soil is compacted at which one of The following when a higher compactive effort produces highest increase in dry density ?

a. Optimum water content

b. Dry side of the optimum moisture content

c. Wet side of the optimum moisture content

d. Saturation moisture content


1. Coarse sand is more than a million times permeable than a high plasticity clay.

2. The permeability depends on the nature of soil and not on properties of liquid flowing through soil.

3. If a sample of sand and a sample of clay have the same void ratio, both samples will exhibit the same permeability.

4. Permeability of soil decreases as the effective stress acting on the soil increases.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3

c. 1 and 4

d. 2 and 3

27. In a falling head permeability test on a soil, the time taken for the head to fall from h0 to h1 is t. The test is repeated with same initial head h0, the final head h’ is noted in time t/2. Which one of the following equations gives the relation between h’, h0 and h1 ?

a. h’ = h0/h1

b. h’= 0 1h /h

c. h’ = h0 h1

d. h’ = 0 1h h


The one dimensional theory of consolidation proposed by Terzaghi derives its name due to the fact that

a. only vertical dimension of the soil sample is used for consolidation test and lateral dimensions are neglected

b. water in the soil sample in conventional consolidometer escapes in the lateral directions resulting into settlements only in vertical direction

c. normal stress on the sample is applied in only one (vertical) direction

d. lateral movements of soil grains are not permitted across any vertical boundary resulting into only vertical settlements to account for the decrease



5 of 17in volume due to escape of water from soil sample

29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes

List I (Protective Measure)

A. Inverted filter

B. Riprap

C. Clay core

D. Sand columns

List II (Purpose)

1. To protect river banks from erosion by river flow

2. To prevent escape of fine soils by seepage water

3. To reduce damage due to liquefaction of saturated granular soils during earthquakes

4. To reduce seepage of water through the body of the earth dams

A B C D

a. 4 3 2 1

b. 2 3 4 1

c. 4 1 2 3

d. 2 1 4 3

30. For a certain loading condition, a saturated clay layer undergoes 40% consolidation ma period of 178 days. What would be the additional time required for further 20% consolidation to occur ?

a. 89 days

b. 222.5 days

c. 329.5 days

d. 400.5 days

31.

Which one of the following expressions represents the shear strength of soil at point X ? Angle of shear resistance of soil is and symbols w , sat , sub , dry stand for unit weights of water, saturated soil, submerged soil and dry soil respectively

a. dry H tan

b. [sat H – (H + H1) w] tan

c. sub H tan

d. [dry H – H1 w] tan

32. A shear test was conducted on a soil

sample. At failure, the ratio of 1 3

2

to

1 3

2

is equal to unity.

Which one of the following shear tests represents this condition ?

a. Drained triaxiaI compression test

b. Undrained triaxial compression test

c. Consolidated quick triaxial compression test

d. Unconfined compression test

33. A footing of 3 m 3 m size transmits a load of 1800 kN. The angle of load, dispersion- in soil = tan–1 0.5. What is the stress created by the footing load at a depth of 5 m?.

a. 26.12 kN/m2

b. 27.12 kN/m2

c. 28.12 kN/m2

d. 29.12 kN/m2


In dissolved oxygen sag curve, the sag results because

a. it is a function of a rate of addition of oxygen to. the stream

b. it is a function of a rate of addition of oxygen from the stream

c. it is a unction of both addition and depletion of ‘oxygen from the stream.

d. the rate of addition of oxygen is linear, but the rate of depletion is non-linear

35. An industry manufacturing urea produces waste water, which largely contains urea and ammonia. The treatment plant consists of following units for effective control of nitrogen

1. Nitrification followed by denitrification

2. Hydrolysis unit

3. Ammonia stripping by air

4. Lime dosing and mixing unit

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of above unit operations in the treatment plant?



6 of 17a. 3-2-1-4

b. 2-3-1-4

c. 2-4-3-1

d. 4-2-3-1

36. Which one of the following procedures is used for sampling of flue gas in a chimney for SPM ?

a. Isothermal sampling

b. Isokinetic sampling

c. Adiabatic condition

d. Variable rate of sampling

37. Which one of the following units is employed for the removal of particulate matter above 50 in size?

a. Gravity settling chamber

b. Cycltne

c. Fabric filter

d. Electrostatic precipitator


Acoustics of an auditorium is considered to be excellent when its reverberation time is between

a. 0.50 and 1.50 s

b. 1.50 and 2.00s

c. 2.00 and 3.00 s

d. 3.00 and 5.00 s

39. Which one of the following Acts/Rules has a provision for “No right to appeal”?

a. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

b. The Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989 .

c. Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemicals Rules, 1989

d. Environment (Protection) Rules, 1992


List I

A. Protozoa

B. Bacteria

C. Presence of nitrate > 45 mg/l

D. Virus

List II

1. Methamoglobinaemia

2. Poliomyelitis

3. Dysentry

4. Typhoid fever

A B C D

a. 3 2 1 4

b. 1 4 3 2

c. 3 4 1 2

d. 1 2 3 4

41. Which one of the following organisms is responsible for enteric fever?

a. ECHO

b. Salmonella typhi

c. Entamoeba histolytica

d. Echinococcus


If the specific gravity of a suspended particle is increased from 2 to 3, the settling velocity will

a. not change

b. get doubled

c. get increased by 1.5 times

d. get increased by 2.25 times

43. Which one of the following is not a specific criterion for calculating surface overflow rate in sedimentation tank design?

a. Total quantity of water to be treated

b. Total surface area available in the tank

c. Total length of the tank

d. Total depth of the tank

44. Which of the following remedial measures are taken negative head and air binding in a rapid sand filter?

1. Avoiding the occurrence of excessive negative head

2. Pumping in air

3. Avoiding increase in water temperature

4. Control of algae growth

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

a. 1, 3 and 4

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 1 and 2

d. 1,2, 3 and 4

45. Match List. I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes

List I (Water/Waste Water Parameter)

A. Potability of water



7 of 17B. Chloride

C. Residual chlorine

D. Hardness of water

List II (Test)

1. Mohr’s method

2. Orthotolidine method

3. E.D.T.A. method

4. M. F. technique

A B C D

a. 4 3 2 1

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 2 3 4 1

d. 4 1 2 3

46. Which one of the following problem of short circuiting due to density currents ?

a. Batch

b. Complete mix

c. Plug flow

d. Fluidized bed


The basic difference between water pipes and sewer pipes

1. in the material used for the pipes

2. in the pressure of the liquid flow

3. in the suspended solids they carry

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 3

b. 1 only

c. 2 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3


A combined sewer is one, which transports domestic sewage and

a. storm water

b. industrial wastes

c. overhead flow

d. industrial wastes and storm water


List I (Type of Pipe)

A. Steel pipe

B. Cast iron pipe

C. G. 1. pipe

D. P.V.C. pipe

List II (Purpose)

1. House plumbing

2. Hot water carrying

3. Distribution main

4. Pumping main


1. The velocity of flow in the rising main should not be less than 0.8 m/s at any time.

2. Maximum velocity of flow is generally limited to 1.8 m/s and never allowed to exceed 3.0 m/s.

In the design of large sewage pumping stations, which of the above conditions must be satisfied ?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

51. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the Codes :

List I (Type of Signals)

A. Detonating signal

B. Coloured light signal

C. Home signal

D. Calling on signal

List II (Characteristics)

1. Locational

2. Operational

3. Special

4. Functional

A B C D

a. 2 4 3 1

b. 4 2 1 3

c. 4 2 3 1

d. 2 4 1 3


List I (Road Drainage System)

A. Vertical sand drains

B. Causeways and culverts

C. Scuppers and catch water drains

D. Inlets and gratings

List II (Location)

1. Urban road drainage

2. Hill roads



8 of 173. High embankments in soft soils

4. Cross drainage in road alignments

A B C D

a. 3 2 4 1

b. 1 4 2 3

c. 3 4 2 1

d. 1 2 4 3

53. Match List I with List II select the correct answer using the codes :

List I

A. Dynamometer car

B. Crossing station

C. Ruling gradient

D. Turn table

List II

1. Arrangement for turning the direction of an engine

2. Information about condition of railway track

3. Station on a single railway track system where Up and Down trains can pass each other

4. Maximum rising gradient of railway track depending on engine power

A B C D

a. 2 3 1 4

b. 2 3 4 1

c. 3 2 4 1

d. 3 2 1 4

54. The installation of sand drains in clayey soil causes the soil adjacent to the sand drains to undergo which one of the following?

a. Increase in porosity

b. Increase in compressibility

c. Decrease in horizontal permeability

d. Decrease in shear strength

55. A strap footing is to be provided for the two columns shown in the diagrams given below.

What is the length L of the footing? Take width of both the footings as 3.5 m and safe bearing capacity of soil as 350 kN/m2.

a. 2.0 m

b. 2.5 m

c. 3.5 m

d. 2.95 m

56. Assertion (A): At the standard temperature, the kinematic viscosity of air is greater than that of water at the same temperature.

Reason (R) : The dynamic viscosity of air at standard temperature is lower than that of water at the same temperature.

a. Both A and. R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A




57. Assertion (A): When water flows through a long stretch of a narrow rectangular channel, the water surface at the walls is higher than that at the central axis.

Reason (R): Resistive effort of atmospheric air is felt more at the walls than away from the walls.





58. Assertion (A) : The yield of a well varied from 10 m3/day to 20 m3/day when the aquifer area changed from 50 m2 to 75 m2.

Reason (R) : The yield is found to be directly proportional to the area of an aquifer opening into a well.





59. Assertion (A) The fluoride content in drinking water should neither be too low nor too high.



9 of 17Reason (R) Deficiency of fluoride content causes mottling of teeth and its excess causes dental cavities in children.





60. Assertion (A) : Raft foundations are the best type of shallow foundations to support heavy structures.

Reason (R): Raft foundation has the ability to redistribute load coming on weak pockets of soil below raft to the adjacent soils where the stresses are less severe for the soil at that place. This reduces the chances of differential settlements and increases the bearing capacity.





61. Assertion (A) : The settling velocity of a discrete particle will become five times when its diameter doubles.

Reason (R) : The settling velocity of a discrete particle is almost proportional to the square of the particle diameter.





62. Assertion (A) : The drained its using triaxial test apparatus are useful in the study of drainage of water through the soil sample and hence the permeability of the soil sample.

Reason (R) : The permeability of soil is an important property useful in estimation of loss of imponded water through permeable soil layers below the earth dams.





63. Assertion (A) Plate load test carried out at the site gives field test data which is useful in evaluation of bearing capacity and settlements. It is normally conducted at the level of the proposed foundation.

Reason (R) : Plate load test is reliable because it reflects the true behaviour of foundation stratum below the proposed level of foundation and extending up to large depth below.





64. Assertion (A) : A series of closed contours indicate either a valley or a hill without any outlet, when their elevations, respectively, increase or decrease towards the centre.

Reason (R) : Contour lines of different elevations can unite to form one line only at a vertical cliff.





65. Assertion (A) : A mosaic is large photomap assembled from two or more aerial photographs of an area.

Reason (R) : Photomap and mosaic are true planimetric representations of the area.





66. Assertion (A) : Open cut is economical than tunneling for depths of over burden less than 20 metres.

Reason (R) Heading and Bench method is suitable for tunneling in soft soils.



10 of 17a. Both A and. R are individually true

and R is the correct explanation of A




67. Assertion (A) : Breakwaters are common in natural harbours.

Reason (R) : Breakwaters help in controlling wave action and sand movement into the harbour area.





68. A strip footing having 1.5 m width founded at a depth of 3 m below ground level in a clay soil having C = 20 kN/m2, 0° and unit weight = 20 kN/3. What is the net ultimate bearing capacity using Skempton’s analysis ?

a. 30 kN/m2

b. 60 kN/m2

c. 100 kN/m2

d. 140 kN/m


List I (Unit Test)

A. Casagrande’s apparatus

B. B. Hydrometer

C. Plate load test

D. Oedometer

List II (Purpose)

1. Determination of grain, size distribution

2. Consolidation characteristics

3. Determination of consistency

4. Determination of safe bearing capacity of soil limits

A B C D

a. 1 3 2 4

b. 1 3 4 2

c. 3 1 2 4

d. 3 1 4 2

70. When a load test was conducted by putting a 60 cm square plate on top of a sandy deposit, the ultimate bearing capacity was observed as 60 kN/m2. What is the ultimate bearing capacity for a strip footing of 1.2 m width to-be placed on the surface of the same soil ?

a. 75 kN/m2

b. 120 kN/m2

c. 150 kN/m2

d. 160 kN/m2

71. Match List I with List II and select using the codes :

List I (Situation)

A. Embankment construction

B. Excavation of a pit

C. Hydrostatic loading

D. Lateral expansion of a backfill

List II (Stress Path)

1. Stress path moves in left side upward direction

2. Stress path moves in left side downward direction

3. Stress path moves in right side upward direction

4. Stress path moves along the horizontal axis

A B C D

a. 3 2 1 4

b. 3 2 4 1

c. 2 3 4 1

d. 2 3 1 4

72. A plate load test is conducted on a cohesionless soil with a test plate having width Bp (cm) and settlement of this plate Sp (cm) is obtained at the same load intensity as on foundation. A footing having a width Bf (cm) is to be constructed as foundation. What is the settlement Sf (cm) experienced by this footing?

a. Sf = Sp{[Bf (Bp + 30)] / [Bp (Bf +30)]}2

b. Sf = Sp{[Bp (Bf + 30)] / [Bf (Bp +30)]}2

c. Sf = Sp [Bf / Bp]

d. Sf = Sp [Bp / Bf]


List I (Type. of Foundation)

A. Floating piles



11 of 17B. Micro piles

C. Combined footing

D. Under-reamed piles

List II (Type of Soil)

1. Closed spaced columns resting on compressible soil

2. Expansive soils

3. Deep soft clays

4. Loose sands

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 2 4 1 3

c. 3 1 4 2

d. 3 4 1 2

74. A square pile of section 30 cm x 30 cm and length 10 m penetrates a deposit of clay having C = 5 kN/m2 and the mobilizing factor m = 0.8. What is the load carried by the pile by skin friction only?

a. 192 kN

b. 75 kN

c. 60 kN

d. 48 kN


List I(Type of Strata below Foundation)

A. Sand

B. Heterogeneous landfill

C. Black cotton soil

D. Hard rock

List II (Type of Foundation Movement)

1. Practically no movements

2. Immediate settlements

3. Large relative settlements

4. Heaving of foundations

A B C D

a. 3 1 4 2

b. 3 4 1 2

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 2 4 1 3

76. Consider the following statements:

1. Pile foundations are usually provided when loads coming on the foundation are quite large. Such piles may often extend up to a large depth below ground level.

2. Precast piles inserted into the holes bored at the site do not get damaged while they are driven into the ground.

Which of the statements given above is/are, correct ?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2


List I (Type of Foundation)

A. Point bearing piles

B. Sheet piles

C. Compaction piles

D. Batter piles

List II (Use of Foundation)

1. To retain soil filling

2. To transfer heavy loads to strong stratum below a weak stratum

3. To resist lateral loads.

4. To densify loose soils

A B C D

a. 3 1 4 2

b. 3 4 1 2

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 2 4 1 3


Prevention or elimination of swelling can be brought by

1. providing an impervious apron around the structure

2. pre-wetting the ground to a moisture content equal to equilibrium moisture content.

3. making downward loads large enough to exceed swelling pressures.

4. chemically stabilizing the soil with lime


a. 1 and 3

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 and 3

d. 1 2, 3 and 4




12 of 17List I (Type of Survey)

A. Topographical survey

B. Reconnaissance survey

C. Cadastral survey

D. Archaeological survey

List II (Purpose)

1. To determine boundaries of fields, houses etc.

2. To find relics of antiquity

3. To determine natural features of a country

4. To determine possibility and rough cost of the surveying system to be adopted

A B C D

a. 3 4 1 2

b. 3 1 4 2

c. 2 4 1 3

d. 2 1 4 3

80. On which one of the following are the third generation electro-optical instruments based ?

a. Microwave

b. Infra-red

c. UV light

d. He-Laser light


List I (Measurements)

A. Displacement measurement from photograph

B. Electronic distance measurement

C. Base line measurement

D. Horizontal angle measurement

List II (Instruments)

1. Box sextant

2. Subtense bar

3. Tellurometer

4. Parallax bar

A B C D

a. 4 3 2 1

b. 1 3 2 4

c. 4 2 3 1

d. 1 2 3 4


Reciprocal levelling eliminates the effect of

1. errors due to earth’s curvature

2. errors due to atmospheric refraction

3. mistakes in taking levelling staff readings

4. errors due to line of collimation


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 4


List I

A. Satellite station

B. Gales traverse method

C. Invar steel tape

D. Intervisibility of adjacent stations

List II

1. Measurement of Baseline

2. Characteristic of triangulation stations

3. Auxiliary theodolite station near an inaccessible main triangulation station

4. Computation of coordinates of traverse/triangulation stations

A B C D

a. 3 1 4 2

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 3 4 1 2

d. 2 4 1 3

84. What is the minimum number of satellites required from which signals can be recorded to enable a global positioning system receiver to determine latitude, longitude and altitude ?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

85. Setting off the ‘proper principal distance’ in the projectors of projection stereoplotters is a procedure for which one of the following?

a. Finding the focal length of the camera used



13 of 17b. Evaluating the digital terrain model

c. Carrying out the interior orientation

d. Filling the quotation for the purchase of A7 stereoplotters

86. Consider the following statements.:

IRS series satellites are

1. Low orbiting satellites

2. Geostationary satellites

3. Meteorological satellites

4. Resources survey satellites


a. 1 and 4

b. 2 and 3

c. 1, 2 and 4

d. 2, 3 and 4

87. Which one of the following is measured by the area between the balancing line and the mass-haul curve?

a. Haul between the balancing points

b. Earthwork accumulated upto that point

c. Excess of excavation

d. Excess of filling

88. For a given road, safe stopping sight distance is 80 m and passing sight distance is 300 m. What is the intermediate sight distance ?

a. 220 m

b. 190 m

c. 160 m

d. 150 m


List I (Test)

A. Impact test

B. Los-Angeles abrasion test

C. Crushing test

D. Stripping test

List II (Purpose)

1. Bitumen adhesion

2. Toughness

3. Hardness

4. Strength

A B C D

a. 2 3 4 1

b. 4 1 2 3

c. 4 3 2 1

d. 2 1 4 3

90. Consider the following statements : A transition curve is provided on a circular curve on a highway to provide

1. gradual introduction of centrifugal force

2. minimum stopping sight distance

3. gradual introduction of super elevation

4. comfort and security to passengers


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 4

91. Which one of the following defects indicates progressive disintegration of bituminous premix carpet surfacing by loss of aggregates?

a. Potholes

b. Ravelling

c. Edge breaking

d. Rutting

92. What will be the ruling radius of a horizontal curve on a national highway for a design vehicle speed of 100 km/h, assuming allowable super elevation to be 7% and lateral friction as 0.13 ?

a. 405 m

b. 395 m

c. 385 m

d. 375 m

93. In 500 gm sample of coarse aggregate, there are 100 gm flaky particles and 80 gm elongates particles. What are the flakiness and elongation indices (total) as per I.S. ?

a. 40%

b. 36%

c. 18%

d. 4%

94. The lost time due to starting delay on a traffic signal approach is noted to be 3 seconds, the actual green time is 25 seconds and amber time is 3 seconds. How much is the effective green time?

a. 19s

b. 25s



14 of 17c. 27s

d. 31s


The orientation of preferential runway in an airport is influenced by

a. direction of prevailing wind, adequate length. obstruction-free landing and take-off zones

b. adequate waiting and service facilities

c. convenience of terminal and control facilities

d. stable ground and adequate turning space

96. Consider the following aircraft operations:

1. Normal landing

2. Normal take-off with all engines

3. Engine failure at take-off

4. Emergency landing with all engines shut

5. Landing with maximum payload with the help of ILS

Which of the above aircraft operations are taken into consideration in deciding the basic runway length required for an aircraft?

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 3, 4 and 5

d. 1 and 5


List I (Method)

A. Fll face method

B. Heading and Bench method

C. Drift method

D. American method

List II (Suitability)

1. For tunnelling of large cross- section area through soft ground driving a top drift and then widening the sides

2. For rock tunnelling carried out first in smaller section of the proposed tunnel and then widened

3. For driving the top portion in advance of the bottom potion for very large tunnel section in unstable rocks

4. For tunnelling of small cross- section area in stable rock attacking the whole section at time

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 4 3 2 1

c. 4 1 2 3

d. 2 3 4 1

98. A solid cylinder of length L. diameter D and specific gravity 0.6 floats in neutral equilibrium in water with its axis vertical. What is the ratio of L to D ?

a. 3 /2

b. 2 3 / 5

c. 4 / 5 3

d. 5 / 4 3

99. Match List I (Causes) with List II (Effects) pertaining to rotation and vertical/horizontal motion of liquid masses at constant acceleration and select the correct answer using the codes

List I

A. The form of the free surface of liquid in a rotating open vessel

B. The form of surface of the liquid in a tanker moving in the direction of its length

C. The pressure at any point in a containers base moving with upward Acceleration

D. The pressure at any point in a container’s base moving with downward acceleration

List II

1. An inclined plane

2. A paraboloid of revolution

3. Greater than the hydrostatic value

4. Less than the hydrostatic value

A B C D

a. 4 1 3 2

b. 4 3 1 2

c. 2 3 1 4

d. 2 1 3 4


List I (Features)



15 of 17A. Open ended manometer for positive

pressure

B. Negative pressure manometer

C. For measuring pressure in liquids or gases

D. For measuring pressure in liquids only.

List II (Types of Manometers)

1.

2.

3.

4. A B C D

a. 3 4 1 2

b. 1 2 3 4

c. 3 2 1 4

d. 1 4 3 2

101. For a turbulent boundary layer (under zero pressure gradient), the velocity profile is described by the one-fifth power law. What is the ratio of displacement thickness to boundary layer thickness ?

a. 1/7

b. 1/6

c. 1/5

d. 1/4

102. Oil ( = 0.44 Pa.s, = 888 kg/m3) is filled in the space between two parallel plates which are 18 mm apart. The upper plate is moving at a velocity of 4 m/s. What is the shear stress on the plate 7

a. 97.8 Pa

b. 48.9 Pa

c. 79.8 Pa

d. 87.9 Pa

103. A 1 : 30 Scale model of a submarine is to be tested in a wind tunnel for its drag when it is operating at 15 km/h in ocean. The kinematic viscosity of air is 1.51 x 10–5 m2/s and for water 1.02 x 10–6 m2/s; What is the velocity of air in wind tunnel that should be maintained for kinematic similarity?

a. 1500 m/s

b. 2000 m/s

c. 1850.5 m/s

d. 2500.5 m/s

104. Consider the following statements regarding the conditions to be satisfied for the maximum discharge through a trapezoidal channel section with side slope 1 : n, bed width b, flow depth d and having a fixed bed slope.

1. Sloping sides should have an angle of 300 with vertical

2. Hydraulic mean depth equals half the flow depth

3. Length of sloping sides should be equal to twice the bottom width


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2

c. 2 and 3

d. 1 and 3

105. Water can flow with 1 m depth in alternatively four channels of different sections as shown below



16 of 17

Which one of the following sequences shows their hydraulic radii, arranged in descending order ?

a. D-C-B-A

b. D-A-C-B

c. A-B-C-D

d. A-B-D-C

106. In a reach of open channel flow, with q = m2/s, depth of flow at section A is 1.5 m and at section B. 1 6 m. The difference in specific energies at two sections can be correspondingly taken as 0.09 m. The bed slope is 1 in 2000. The mean energy slope between the sections is given as 0.003. What is the length of reach AB ?

a. 54 m with A on the upstream

b. 54 m with B on the upstream

c. 36 m with A on the upstream

d. 36 m with B on the upstream

107. Two long pipes in parallel are used to carry water between two reservoirs. The diameter of one pipe is twice that of the other. Both the pipes have the same value of friction factor Neglect minor losses. What is the ratio of flow rates through the two pipes ?

a. 2.8

b. 5.6

c. 8

d. 11.3

108. A cen4rifugal pump discharges 260 litres of water per second when running at 600 rpm. The impeller diameter at the outlet is 80 cm. It develops a head of 15.3 m. What is the approximate minimum starting speed?

a. 425 rpm

b. 450 rpm

c. 475 rpm

d. 500 rpm

109. A combination of centrifugal pumps of specific speed 20 and overall efficiency 80%, running at 800 rpm is to be used to pump 40 lps of water to a height of 75 m. What should be the arrangement ?

a. 3 pumps in series

b. 3 pumps in parallel

c. 4 pumps in series

d. 4 pumps in parallel


List I (Machines)

A. Centrifugal pump

B. Reciprocating pump

C. Francis turbine

D. Pelton wheel

List II (Associated with)

1. Percent slip

2. Bucket

3. Guide blade

4. Volute chamber

A B C D

a. 4 3 1 2

b. 4 1 3 2

c. 2 3 1 4

d. 2 1 3 4

111. A pelton wheel operates at 630 rpm taking 3 m3/s of water under head of 256 m with a speed ratio of 0.48. (Given = 19.62 = 4.43) What is the diameter of the impeller?

a. 0.90 m

b. 1.03 m

c. 1.42 m

d. 1.80 m

112. An impulse turbine of 3 m diameter is rated at 10000 kW at 300 rpm under a head of 500 m. The turbine is operated under the head of 400 m. What is the power developed ?

a. 15000 kW

b. 14000 kW

c. 13000 kW

d. 12000 kW

113. An impulse turbine of 3m diameter is rated at 10000 kW at 300 rpm under a head of 500 m. The turbine is operated under the



17 of 17head of 400 m. What is the speed at which it would run ?

a. 324 rpm

b. 336 rpm

c. 348 rpm

d. 364 rpm

114. Which one of the following defines aridity index (AI)?

a. PET AET

AI = 100PET

b. PET

AI = 100AET

c. AET

AI = 100PET

d. AET PET

AI = 100AET

where AET = Actual Evapotranspiration and PET = Potential Evapotranspiration

115. Which one of the following filters should be recommended for protected rural water supply project?

a. Pressure filter

b. Slow sand filter

c. Diatomaceous earth filter

d. Rapid sand filter


In Snyder’s method of synthetic unit hydrograph development, basin lag is taken as

a. the time interval between centroid of the rainfall excess and surface runoff

b. the time interval from mid point of the unit rainfall excess to the peak of the unit hydrograph

c. independent of rainfall duration

d. independent of catchment characteristics

117. A storm with 14 cm precipitation produced a direct runoff of 8 cm. The time distribution of the storm is as shown in the table below

What is the value of p-index of the storm ?

1. 0.5 cm/h

2. 0.7 cm/h

3. 0.8 cm/h

4. 0.9 cm/h

118. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the increasing order of the Froude number of flow assumed by the bed form of an alluvial stream with movable bed material ?

a. Ripple — Plane bed — Dune — Plane bed - Antidune

b. Dune — Ripple — Plane bed — Antidune — Plane bed

c. Plane bed — Ripple — Dune — Plane bed — Antidune

d. Plane bed — Ripple — Antidune — Dune — Plane bed

119. A bridge has an expected life of 50 years and is designed for a flood magnitude of return period 100 years. What is the risk associated with this hydrologic design ?

a. 1 – (0.99) 50

b. (0.5) 50

c. (0.99)50

d. (0.99)100


List I

A. Rising limb of a hydrograph

B. Falling limb of a hydrograph

C. Peak rate of flow

D. Drainage density

List II

1. Depends on intensity of rainfall

2. Function of total channel length

3. Function of catchment slope

4. Function of storage characteristics

A B C D

a. 3 4 1 2

b. 1 4 3 2

c. 3 2 1 4

d. 1 2 3 4



1 of 16

(PAPER–I) 1. Match List I (Machinery) with List II

(Purpose) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I A. Bulldozer B. Power shovels C. Dragline D. Clamshell List II 1. Most suited for verticality lifting loose

materials 2. The bucket in this unit digs by pulling

the load towards it 3. To excavate all types of soils and

dump it into trucks 4. For digging the earth at or below the

operating level and loading it to hauling units

5. Largely employed for excavating and moving the earth

A B C D a. 5 3 4 1 b. 1 4 2 5 c. 5 4 2 1 d. l 3 4 5

2. Consider the following statements? The main reinforcement in the counter fort in a counter fort retaining wall of R.C.C. is provided on the 1. inclined face in front of counter fort. 2. bottom face in back counter fort. 3. inclined face n back counterfoil. 4. bottom face in front counterfoil. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 3 and 4 d. 2 and 4

3. A doubly reinforced concrete beam has effective cover d’ to the centre of

compression reinforcement is the depth of neutral axis, and d is the effective depth to the centre of tension reinforcement. What is the maximum strain in concrete at the level of compression reinforcement? a. 0.0035 (1–d’/d) b. 0.0035 (1– d’/xu) c. 0.002 (1 – d’/xu) d. 0.002 (1– d’/d)

4. Which one of the following method is employed to manufacture pre-stressed concrete sleepers for the railways? a. Post-tensioning b. Pre-tensioning c. Pre-tensioning followed by post-

tensioning d. Partial pre-stressing

5. Consider the following statements: In an under-reinforced concrete beam, 1. Actual depth of neutral axis is less than

the critical depth of neutral axis. 2. concrete reaches ultimate stress prior

to steel reaching the ultimate stress. 3. moment of resistance is less than that

of balanced sections. 4. lever arm of resisting couple is less

than that of balanced sections. Which of the statements given above are correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1 and 4

6. What is the minimum number of longitudinal bars provided In a reinforced concrete column of circular cross section? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8

7. Drop panel is a structural component in: a. Grid floor

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2005




2 of 16b. Flat plate c. Flat slab d. Slab-beam system of floor

8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I A. Modular Ratio B. Seismic Forces C. Pedestal D. Composite Column List II 1. Increase of permissible stresses 2. Minimum eccentricity 3. Limit state method 4. Metal core 5. Permissible compressive stress due to

bending in concrete A B C D a. 5 1 2 4 b. 4 2 3 5 c. 5 2 3 4 d. 4 1 2 5

9. Which one of the following systems of pre-stressing is suitable for pre-tensioned members? a. Freyssinet system b. Magnel-Blaton system c. Hoyer system d. Gifford-Udall system

10. Which of the following measures are resorted to for strengthening masonry walls? 1. Provide cross walls. 2. Pre-stressing. 3. Provide gunite slab on the surface(s) of

walls. 4. Provide buttresses. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1, 3 and 4 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

11. When is a masonry wall known as a shear wall? a. If the earthquake load is out-of-plane

b. If the earthquake load is in-plane c. If it is unreinforced d. If it is placed as infill to the frame

12. What is number of categories into which masonry buildings are divided on this basis of earthquake resistance features? a. Five b. Four c. Three d. Two

13. On which one of the following concepts is the basic principle of structural design based? a. Weak column strong beam b. Strong column and weak beam c. Equally strong column-beam d. Partial weak column-beam

14. Match List I (Post-tensioning System) with List II (Type of Anchorage) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I A. Freyssinet B. Gifford-Udall C. Lee-McCall D. Mangel Blaton List II 1. Flat steel wedges in sandwich plates 2. High strength nuts 3. Split conical wedges 4. Conical serrated concrete wedges A B C D a. 2 1 4 3 b. 4 3 2 1 c. 2 3 4 1 d. 4 1 2 3

15. If the Young’s modulus ‘E’ is equal to bulk modulus ‘K’, then what is the value of the Poisson’s ratio?

a. 1

4

b. 1

2

c. 1

3

d. 3

4



3 of 1616. What is the ratio of maximum shear stress

to average shear stress for a circular section?

a. 2

b. 3

2

c. 4

3

d. 3

4

17. For a state of plane stress 1 = x = 40 MPa, and 2 = y = 2OMPa. What are the values of the maximum in-plane shearing stress and absolute maximum shearing stress? a. (± 10, 20)MPa b. (±10, 10)MPa c. (± 20, 10) MPa d. (± 20, 20) MPa

18. At a certain point in a strained material, there are two mutually perpendicular stresses x = 100 N/mm2 (Tensile) and x = 50 N/mm2 (Compressive). [Notation : Tension (+);

Compression (–) ] What are the values of the principal stresses in N/mm2 at that point? a. 100, –50 b. –100, 50 c. 75, –25 d. –75, 25

19. In a plane strain problem in xy plane, the shear strain = 12 x 10–6, and the normal strain In x and y direction = 0. For this state of strain, what is the diameter of the Mohr’s Circle of strain? a. 6 x 10–6 b. 8 x 10–6 c. 12 x 10–6 d. 24 x 10–6

20. A mild steel bar of square cross-section 40 mm x 40 mm is 400 mm long. It is subjected to a longitudinal tensile stress of 440 N/mm2 and lateral compressive stress is 200 N/mm2 In perpendicular directions. E = 2 x 10–5 N/mm2, = 0.3. What is the approximate elongation of the bar in the longitudinal direction? a. 0.44 mm

b. 088 mm c. 0.22 mm d. 1 mm

21. At a certain point in a structural member there are perpendicular stresses 80 N/mm2 and 20 N/mm2, both tensile. What is the equivalent stress in simple tension, according to the maximum principal strain theory ? (Poisson’s ratio = 0.25) a. Zero b. 20 N/mm2 c. 60 N/mm2 d. 75 N/mm2

22.

A uniform beam of span I carries a uniformly distributed load w per unit length as shown in the figure given above. The supports are at a distance of x from either end. What is the condition for the maximum bending moment in the beam to be as small as possible? a. x = 0.1071 b. x = 0.207l c. x = 0.2371 d. x = 0.251

23.

For the simply supported beam shown in the figure given above, at what distance from the support A, is the shear force zero?

a. 4

L

b. 3

L

c. 2

L

d. 3

L

24.



4 of 16

A cantilever AB is loaded as shown in the figure given above. What is the shape of the bending moment diagram for portion AC? a. Parabolic b. Linearly varying with maximum value

of the bending moment at C c. Linear with constant bending moment

value from C to A d. Linearly varying with maximum value

at A 25.

A cantilever beam AB carries loadings as shown in the figure above. Which one of the following is the SFD for the beam?

a.

b.

c.

d. 26.

Couple M is applied at C on a simply supported beam AB. What is the maximum shear force for the beam? a. Zero b. M c. 2 M/3 d. M/3

27.

The beam shown in the figure given above is subjected to concentrated load and clockwise couple. What is the vertical reaction at A? a. 10 kN b. 40 kN c. 50 kN d. 30 kN

28. A beam has the same section throughout its length with I = 1 x 108 mm4. It is subjected to a uniform B.M. = 40 kNm. E = 2 x 105 N/mm2. What is the radius of curvature of the circle into which the beam will bend in the form of an arc of a circle? a. 1000m b. 500m c. 400m d. 350m

29. A bar of circular cross-section of diameter D is subjected to a torque T at B as shown in the figure given above. What is the angle of twist at A? a. Same as that at B b. Zero c. Twice as that at B d. Half as that at B

30.

Consider the following statements for the column with a bracket as shown in the figure given above: 1. Shear force is constant throughout.



5 of 162. Maximum moment in the column is

Pe. 3. The compressive axial force in the

column is 0.4 p. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 only c. 1 and 3 d. 2 only

31.

What is the vertical displacement at the point C of the structure shown in the figure given above?

a. 39Pa

2EI

b. 327Pa

2EI

c. 327Pa

8EI

d. 33Pa

8EI

32.

What is the bending moment at A for the bent column shown in the figure given above? a. 40 kNm b. 20 kNm c. 10 kNm d. zero

33. The deflection at the free end of a uniformly loaded cantilever of length 1 m

is 7.5 mm. What is the slope at the free end? a. 0.01 radian b. 0.02 radian c. 0.015 radian d. 0.025 radian

34. Which one of the following structures is statically determinate and stable?

a.

b.

c.

d. 35.

A three-hinged loaded semicircular arch ACB is shown in the figure given above. What is the shearing force at the hinge C? a. 20 kN

b. 20 2 kN

c. 10 kN

d. 10 2 kN

36. Which one of the following statements is correct? Linear arch is one which represents: a. centre line of an arch b. variation of bending moment c. thrust line d. variation of shear force

37. A point load applied at shear centre induces: a. Zero shear force



6 of 16b. Zero bending c. Pure twisting d. Pure bending

38.

What is the ratio of the forces in the members AB, BE and AE of the pin-joined truss shown in the figure given above? a. 5 : 4 : 3 b. 4 : 3 : 5

c. 1 1 1

: :4 3 5

d. None of the above 39. Which one of the following is correct in

respect of the influence line for the bending moment at one- fourths of the span from left support of a prismatic beam simply supported at ends? a. It is composed of straight lines only b. It is composed of curved lines only c. It is composed of straight and curved

line d. It is parabolic

40.

A prismatic beam is shown in the figure given above. Consider the following statements: 1. The structure is unstable. 2. The bending moment is zero at

supports and internal hinge. 3. It is mechanism. 4. It is statically indeterminate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 3 and 4

41. What is the degree of indeterminacy of the frame shown in the figure given above? a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. Zero

42. Consider the following statements: 1. In a non-circular structural member

subjected to torsion, plane sections before twisting remain plane after twisting.

2. The analysis of indeterminate structures by the theorem of three moments does not give the exact solutions.

3. The work done by the external Loads during a vertical deformation is not equal to the increase in internal energy stored in the body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. None

43.

The figure given above shows a rigid frame fixed at A and hinged at C. If a pure moment of 20 kNm is applied at B in the plane of the figure, then what is the moment at the fixed end A? a. 10 kNm b. 7.5 kNm c. 5 kNm d. 2.5 kNm

44. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :



7 of 16List I A. Strain energy method B. Slope-deflection C. Moment distribution D. Kani’s method List II 1. Successive approximation 2. Flexibility method 3. Iteration process 4. Stiffness method A B C D a. 1 4 2 3 b. 2 3 1 4 c. 1 3 2 4 d. 2 4 1 3

45. Which one of the following statements Is correct? The number of unknowns to be determined in the stiffness method is equal to: a. the static indeterminacy b. the kinematic indeterminacy c. the sum of kinematic indeterminacy

and static indeterminacy d. two times the number of supports

46. The stiffness matrix of a beam element is

2 12

1 2

EI

L

Which one of the following is its flexibility matrix?

a. 2 1

1 22

L

EI

b. 2 1

1 23

L

EI

c. 1 2

2 15

L

EI

d. 1 2

2 16

L

EI

47.

For the propped cantilever beam shown in the figure given above, the plastic moment

capacity is Mp. What is the value of its collapse load?

a. 4 pM

L

b. 6 pM

L

c. 8 pM

L

d. 11.7 pM

L

48.

What is the total degree of indeterminacy, both internal and external of the plane frame shown above? a. 10 b. 11 c. 12 d. 14

49. Which one of the following is the correct statement? In beam to column connections in steel construction, if torsion is permitted at the ends of simply supported beams by not providing the cleats, the a. effective length of the beam increases

by 20% b. effective length remains same as the

actual length c. permissible bending stresses are

increased by around d. joint has to be designed for torsion

50. For a vertical stiffened web of a plate girder, the lesser clear dimension of the panel should not exceed: a. 85 t b. 180 t c. 200 t d. 250 t (where t is the thickness of the web)

51. What is the permissible tensile stress in bolts used for column bases? a. 120 N/mm2 b. 150 N/mm2



8 of 16c. 0.6fy d. 0.4 fy (where fy is the yield stress of the steel)

52. What is the effective height of a free-standing masonry wall for the purpose of computing slenderness ratio? a. 0.5 L b. 1.0 L c. 2.0 L d. 2.5 L

53. A square column section of size 350 mm x 350 mm is reinforced with four bars of 25 mm diameter and four bars of 16 mm diameter. Then the transverse steel should be: a. 5 mm dia @ 240mm c/c b. 6 mm dia @ 250 mm c/c c. 8 mm dia @ 250 mm c/c d. 8 mm dia @ 350 mm c/c

54. Assertion (A) : In resource levelling approach of resource allocation, activity start times are scheduled such that the peak demand for a particular resource remains within available limit of the resources. Reason (R) : In resource levelling approach of resource allocation, the total project time is not changed. a. Both A and R are individually true and



55. Assertion (A): Interference float is the event slack at the headed node of an activity. Reason (R) : Interference float cannot be shared by any other activity. a. Both A and R are individually true and



56. Assertion (A): A rectangular element is subjected to pure shear. This will result in cracks along one diagonal and crushing along the other diagonal.

Reason (R) : Pure shear on a rectangular element results in tension along one diagonal and compression along the other diagonal. a. Both A and R are individually true and



57. Assertion (A): In certain special situations, omitting the shear effect deformations can lead to significant errors. Reason (R) : In general, when the bending moments very along the length of the beams, the shearing stress, resultants will be present and will influence deformation. a. Both A and R are individually true and



58. Assertion (A): The total virtual work done by a system of forces acting on a rigid body. In equilibrium during a virtual displacement is zero. Reason (R) : If a system of forces acting on a deformable body is in equilibrium, as the body is subjected to a small deformation, the external virtual work done by the forces will also be zero. a. Both A and R are individually true and



59. Assertion (A): The design shear strength of axially loaded beams is increased by a

factor as per IS codes, 1+g ck

3Pu

A f

or 1.5

whichever is less. (Where Pu is axial Load, Ag gross area of column and fck characteristic concrete strength) Reason (R) : The presence of axial compressive force is to hasten the formation of both flexural and inclined cracks.



9 of 16a. Both A and R are individually true and



60. Assertion (A): The concept of locating the neutral axis in a reinforced concrete flexural member as centroidal axis is applicable in working stress design method, but not in limit state design method. Reason (R) : The working stress design method assumes that the structural material behaves in a non-linear elastic manner and there is strain compatibility in bond between steel and concrete. a. Both A and R are individually true and



61. Assertion (A): Minimum shear reinforcement in all shallow beams is provided when shear stress exceeds 0.5 c (where c is design shear stress). Reason (R) : Minimum shear reinforcement prevents formation of inclined cracks and avoids abrupt failures and introduces ductility in shear. a. Both A and R are individually true and



62. In a tree, the cambium layer is situated between: a. The outer bark and inner bark b. The inner bark and sap wood c. The sap wood and heart wood d. The pith and heart wood

63. Consider the following statements: Kiln seasoning of timber results is: 1. reduced density. 2. reduced life. 3. dimensional stability.

Which of the following given above is/are correct? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 only c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3

64. Match List I (Diagram Based Nomenclature) with List II (Information Capability) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists List I A. Work-breakdown structure B. B. Bar chart C. Linked bar chart D. D. Time computations on network List II 1. Target dates for interface events can be

stipulated 2. Can be heretical 3. 3. Can include information on cost

distribution over time 4. Best suited for monitoring including

that for costs A B C D a. 4 3 2 1 b. 2 1 4 3 c. 4 1 2 3 d. 2 3 4 1

65. Which one of the following is the correct statement? The strength of timber: a. is maximum in a direction parallel to

the grain b. is maximum in a direction

perpendicular to the grain c. is maximum in a direction 45o to the

grain d. remains same in all directions

66. Consider the following statements: The disease of dry not in timber is caused by: 1. complete submergence in water. 2. alternate wet and dry condition. 3. lack of ventilation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 3 only



10 of 16c. 2 only d. 2 and 3

67. Match List I (Term) with List II (Brief Description) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I A. Heart shakes B. Knot C. Rot D. Sap Wood List II 1. Disintegration caused by fungi 2. Outer layers of a log of wood 3. A branch base embedded in timber by

natural growth 4. Cracks widest at centre and

diminishing towards the outer circumference

A B C D a. 1 3 4 2 b. 4 2 1 3 c. 1 2 4 3 d. 4 3 1 2

68. Which one of the following is the correct statement? Refractory bricks resist: a. high temperature b. chemical action c. dampness d. all the above three

69. Which one of the following is the correct statement? Smaller size of aggregates in a concrete mix: a. provides larger surface area for

bonding with the mortar matrix which increases the compressive strength and reduces the stress concentration at the mortar-aggregate interface

b. is economical as the concrete mix is more dense

c. requires lesser cement for a particular water-cement ratio and hence is economical

d. is beneficial as these aggregates can pass through the reinforcement bars more easily

70. On which of the following is the working principle of concrete hammer for non-destructive test based? a. Rebound deflections

b. Radioactive waves c. Ultrasonic pulse d. Creep-recovery

71. Match List I (Apparatus) with List II (Purpose) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I A. Le-chatelier B. Vicat Needle with annular collar C. Vee-Bee D. Briquettes test machine List II 1. Workability of concrete 2. Soundness of cement 3. Tensile strength of cement 4. Final setting time of cement A B C D a. 1 3 2 4 b. 2 4 1 3 c. 1 4 2 3 d. 2 3 1 4

72. Match List I (Type of Cement) with List II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I A. Rapidly hardening cement B. Low heat Portland cement C. Portland Puzzolana D. Sulphate resisting cement List II 1. Lower C3A content than that in OPC 2. Contains pulverised fly ash 3. Higher C3S content than that is OPC 4. Lower C3S and C3A contents than that

in OPC A B C D a. 1 2 4 3 b. 3 4 2 1 c. 1 4 2 3 d. 3 2 4 1

73. Why is super plasticizer added to concrete? 1. To reduce the quantity of mixing

water. 2. To increase the consistency 3. To reduce the quantity of cement.



11 of 164. To increase resistance to freezing and

thawing. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1, 3 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 4 only

74. Consider the following statements: Cement concrete is a/an: 1. elastic material. 2. visco-elastic material. 3. visco-plastic material. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 2 only d. 1 only

75. In a shape test of aggregate, which one of the following gives the correct slot for flakiness index of a material passing 50 mm sieve and retained on 40mm sieve? a. 25 mm b. 27mm c. 81 mm d. 30mm

76. On which one of the following factors, does strength of concrete depend primarily? a. Quality of coarse aggregate b. Quality of fine aggregate c. Fineness of cement d. Water-cement ratio

77. Consider the following statements regarding the phenomenon of bulking of sand: 1. It is due to film of water around sand

particles. 2. It is due to capillary action. 3. It is more in finer sands. Which of the following statements given above is, are correct? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2

78. Which one of the following sections performs better on the ductility criterion? a. Balanced section b. Over-reinforced section c. Under-reinforced section d. Non-prismatic section

79. A beam of rectangular cross-section (b x d) is subjected to a torque T. What is the maximum torsional stress induced in the beam?

a. 2

T

αb d

b. 2

T

αbd

c. T

αbd

d. T

bd

(Where b <d, and is a constant) 80. Match List I (Codal Parameter) with List II

(Structural Member) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I A. 0.04 b D B. 250 b2/d C. 100 b2d D. (kxlx)/Dx List II 1. Column 2. Cantilever 3. Continuous beam 4. Beam A B C D a. 4 1 2 3 b. 2 3 4 1 c. 4 3 2 1 d. 2 1 4 3

81. Which of the following are the additional moments considered for design of slender compression member in lieu of deflection in x and y directions?

a. 22

u eyu exPP

and 2000 D 2000 D

ll

b. u eyu exPP

and 2000 2000

ll



12 of 16

c. 22

u eyu exPP

and 2000D 2000b

ll

d. 22

u eyu exPP

and 200D 200D

ll

(Where Pu is axial load; lex and ley are effective lengths in respective directions; D depth of section to major axis; b width of the member)

82. What should be the minimum grade of reinforced concrete in and around sea coast construction? a. M 35 b. M 30 c. M 25 d. M 20

83. Which one of the following correctly expresses the split tensile strength of a circular cylinder of length L and diameter D, subject to a maximum load of P?

a. P

πDL

b. P

2πDL

c. 2P

πDL

d. P

4πDL

84. What is the value of flexural strength of M 25 concrete? a. 4.0 MPa b. 3.5 MPa c. 3.0 MPa d. 1.75 MPa

85. Consider the following statements with regard to crack formation and its control: 1. The surface width of the crack should

not, in general, exceed 0.30 mm for structures not subjected to aggressive environment.

2. When depth of web in a beam exceeds 750 mm, side face reinforcement @ 0.1 percent of web area should be provided on each face.

3. The nominal spacing of main bars in a slab should not exceed three times the effective depth of a solid slab or 300 mm, whichever is smaller.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 3

86. Which of the following should be employed to provide lateral support to the beams? 1. Bracing of compression flanges. 2. Shear connectors. 3. Bracing of tension flanges. 4. Embedding compression flanges into

R.C.C. slab. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 only b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 4

87. Where should splices in the columns be provided? a. At the floor levels b. At the mid height of columns c. At the beam-column joints d. At one-fourth height of columns

88. Which one of the following stresses is independent of yield stress as a permissible stress for steel members? a. Axial tensile stress b. Maximum shear stress c. Bearing stress d. Stress in slab base

89. Why are tie plates provided in laced columns? a. To check the buckling of column as

whole b. To check the buckling of the lacing

flats c. To check the buckling of the

component columns d. To check the distortion of the end cross

sections 90. A steel rod of 16 mm diameter has been

used as a tie in a bracing system, but may be subject to possible reversal of stress due to the wind. What is the maximum permitted length of the member?



13 of 16a. 1600 mm b. 1400 mm c. 1200 mm d. 1000 mm

91. Consider the following statements in respect of plate girders: 1. A large number of cover plates are

provided over flange angles so that curtailed flanges match the bending moment diagram exactly.

2. At least one cover plate should extend over the entire span so that rain water may not enter and corrode the connections.

3. A minimum of one-third of flange area should be provided in flange angles and balance in flange cover plates for stability.

Which of the statements given above are correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3

92. A beam of rectangular section having simply supported span L, is subject to a concentrated load at its mid-span. What is the length of elasto-plastic zone of the plastic hinge?

a. 3

L

b. 4

L

c. 5

L

d. 7

L

93. The plastic modulus of a section is 5 x 10–4 m3. Its shape factor is 1.2 and the plastic moment capacity is 120 kNm. What Is the value of the yield stress of the material? a. 100 N/mm2 b. 200 N/mm2 c. 240 N/mm2 d. 288 N/mm2

94.

In the propped cantilever shown in the figure given above, what are the values of the bending moment and shear force at the support A? a. 2 Pa, P/3 b. Pa, P c. Pa, P/3 d. 2 Pa, 4P/3

95. A, B, C, D and E are the 5 activities along the unique critical path of a AOA network of activities. Their characteristics are as under:

What is the possible range of project duration (in days)? a. 31.2 to 54.8 b. 28.1 to 57.9 c. 25.5 to 60.5 d. 24.6 to 61.4

96. What Is the significant purpose of monitoring a project through its implementation phase? a. To fix responsibility for delays b. To rerail the project with control over

cost over-run c. To rerail the project with minimum

time over-run d. To rerail the project with optimal time

and cost overrun 97. A bulldozer operates on a 30 m stretch and

moves at 2.4 kmph when pushing the earth, and returns empty at 6 kmph. The time lost in loading and shifting gears per trip is 18 seconds. Its operating factor is nearly 50 mm/hour. What is the number of trips made per hour? a. 31 b. 33 c. 35 d. 37

98. Match List I (Reporting Feature) with List II (Implication and/or Possibility) and



14 of 16select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I A. PERT study B. Time-cost study C. Critical path identification D. Linked bar chart List II 1. Cost build up on project over time can

be depicted 2. Choice of technology can be

concurrent 3. Choice of technology is predetermined 4. May be affected by probabilistic

activity durations A B C D a. 3 2 4 1 b. 1 4 2 3 c. 3 4 2 1 d. l 2 4 3

99.

For an activity 201-207 in an AOA network, the EEL values, LET values and activity duration are shown in the figure given above. Between free float interference float and independent float, which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing magnitude order? a. Free float — Interference float —

Independent float b. Free float — Independent float —

Interference float c. Interference float — Free float —

Independent float d. Interference float — Independent float

— Free float 100.

Two activities A and B are to be done in the given sequence. The variation of direct cost (DC) with possible activity duration (T) (in days) is indicated for each activity above. What is the increase in total direct cost between a combined duration of 16 days and 13 days? a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8

101. What type of vibrator is used for concreting thin section as well as heavily reinforced section? a. Vibrating needle b. Internal vibrator c. Surface vibrator d. Form vibrator

102. Which of the following advantages accrue to the use of Articulate Dump Trucks (AD1) over Rigid Dump Trucks (RDT) for construction and earth moving work? 1. Higher manoeuverability. 2. Low turning radius. 3. Lower fleet costs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 3

103. Match List I with List U and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List 1 (Type of Rollers) A. Pneumatic roller B. Vibratory roller C. Sheep foot roller D. Grid and mesh roller List II (Uses) 1. Granular and silty materials,

bituminous road works, etc. 2. Compaction of cohesive material like

clay 3. Compaction of non-cohesive soil 4. Compaction of gravel base A B C D a. 1 3 2 4



15 of 16b. 2 4 1 3 c. 1 4 2 3 d. 2 3 1 4

104. Consider the following statements: The Salient features of a bar chart over network are that: 1. It is simple to draw and easy to

understand. 2. It is unable to depict interdependence

of activities. 3. It clearly distinguishes between critical

and noncritical activities. 4. It is not possible to crash activities to

get optimum and minimum duration of the project.

Which of the following statements given above are correct? a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 1, 3 and 4

105. Match List I (Type of Equipment) with List II (Purpose) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists List 1 A. Agitating Truck B. Hoe C. Derrick Pole D. Sheep Foot roller List II 1. Quarrying 2. Compacting 3. Hoisting 4. Transporting A B C D a. 4 3 1 2 b. 2 1 3 4 c. 4 1 3 2 d. 2 3 1 4

106.

What is the equivalent spring stiffness for the system of springs shown in the figure given above? a. 43 kN/m b. 50 kN/m c. 58 kN/m d. 64 kN/m

107.

The free end of a cantilever beam is supported by the free end of another cantilever beam using a roller as shown In the figure given above. What is the deflection at the roller support B? a. 8 Pa3/(3 EI) b. 9 Pa3/(EI) c. 64 Pa3/(35 EI) d. 216 Pa3/(35 EI)

108. Which one of the following statements is correct? Lug angles a. are necessarily unequal angles b. are always equal angles c. increase the shear resistance of joint d. reduce the length of joint

109. Purlins are provided, in industrial buildings, over roof trusses to carry dead loads, live loads and wind loads. As per IS code, what are they assumed to be? a. Simply supported b. Cantilever c. Continuous d. Fixed

110. Consider the following statements about provision of sag rods: 1. Sag rods reduce span length of purlin

in the weak direction. 2. Sag rods are installed in the plane of

the roof. 3. Ridge purlin is subject to vertical

components of sag rods on either side of slope.

Which of the statements given above are correct? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2 and 3



16 of 16c. 1 and 2 d. 1 and 3

111. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars should not exceed: a. 100 b. 200 c. 145 d. 180

112. Consider the following statements: Bearing stiffness, in plate girders, are: 1. Provided at supports. 2. Provided under concentrated loads. 3. Provided alternately on the web. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 2 d. 1, 2 and 3

113. The outstand of the flange of built-up beams from the line of connection should not extend beyond: a. 10 T b. 85 T

c. 256T

fy

d. 180 tw (where T is the thickness of flange and tw is the thickness of web)

114. Which one of the following is a compression member? a. Purlin b. Boom c. Girt d. Tie

115. In a situation where torsion is dominant, which one of the following Is the desirable section? a. Angle section b. Channel section c. I-section d. Box type section

116. In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined smooth for complete bearing, the axial load is transferred to base slab: a. Fully through fastening

b. filly by direct bearing c. 50% by direct bearing and 50%

through fastening d. 60% by direct bearing and 40%

through fastening 117. Which steel member section among the

following combinations can carry maximum load? a. A pair of angles welded on opposite

sides of a gusset plate, but not tack welded

b. A pair of angles welded on opposite sides of a gusset plate, and tack welded along its length

c. A pair of angles back to back on same side of a gusset plate, and tack welded

d. A pair of angles on same side of a gusset plate, but not tack welded

118.

Which one of the following is the most critical rivet in the joint shown in the figure given above? a. No. 1 b. No. 2 c. No. 3 d. No. 4

119. What is the shape of Influence line diagram for the maximum bending moment in respect of a simply supported beam? a. Rectangular b. Triangular c. Parabolic d. Circular

120. In a plastic analysis of structures, the segment between any two successive plastic hinges is assumed to deform as: a. A plastic material b. A rigid material c. An elastic material d. An inelastic material



1 of 16

(PAPER–II)

1. The load carrying capacity of an individually friction pile is 200 kN. What is the total load carrying capacity of a group of 9 such piles with group efficiency factor of 0.8?

a. 1800 kN

b. 1640 kN

c. 1440 kN

d. 900 kN


1. The standard penetration test is a reliable method for measuring the relative density of granular soils.

2. For a sand having the same relative density, N-values remain the same at all depths.

3. For a sand having the same relative density, N-values are different at different depths.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2

c. only 3

d. 1 and 3

3. Which one of the following states of field compaction of sand deposit truly represents the corrected standard penetration test value: N (corrected) = 27?

a. Loose

b. Medium dense

c. Dense

d. Very dense

4. In case of footing on the surface or shallow depth is very dense sand, which one of the following types of failure is likely to occur?

a. Punching shear failure

b. Local shear failure

c. General shear failure

d. Any of the above three

5. The bearing capacity factors Nc, Nq and Nr, are functions of:

a. Width and depth of footing

b. Density of soil

c. Cohesion of soil

d. Angle of internal friction of soil

6. Match List I (Type of Soil) with List II (Suitable Foundation) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I

A. Strong soil in surface layer

B. Weak surface layer followed by rock at shallow depth below ground

C. Swelling soil in surface layer extending upto a few meters below ground level

D. Weak heterogeneous surface soil layer

List II

1. Raft foundation

2. Isolated footings

3. End bearing pile

4. Under-reamed piles

A B C D

a. 1 4 3 2

b. 2 3 4 1

c. l 3 4 2

d. 2 4 3 1

7. Match List I (Type of Exploration) with List II (Soil Profile) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I

A. Diamond core drilling

B. Uncased wash boring

C. Open pit excavation

D. Cased boring

List II

1. Medium strong cohesive soils

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2005




2 of 162. Rocky formation

3. Soft cohesive soils and cohesionless soils. Exploration upto relatively larger depths

4. Exploration upto a shallow depth below ground level

A B C D

a. 4 3 2 1

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 4 1 2 3

d. 2 3 4 1


1. A recovery ratio of less than 1 implies that the soil has compressed.

2. A recovery ratio greater than 1 implies that the soil has swelled.

3. A recovery ratio of less than 1 implies that the soil has swelled.

4. A recovery ratio greater than 1 implies that the soil has compressed.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2

b. 1 only

c. 3 and 4

d. 4 only

9. The wall friction of the retaining wall:

a. Decreases active earth pressure but increases passive earth pressure

b. Decreases passive earth pressure but increases active earth pressure

c. Decreases both active and passive earth pressures

d. Increases both active and passive earth pressures

10. Stresses obtained from Bousslnesq’s theory are considered reasonably satisfactory Is foundation engineering because:

a. They represent stress distribution is inhomogeneous soil below loaded area

b. They account for anisotropy of soil properly

c. They give due regard to plastic behaviour of soils, particularly of settlement analysis

d. They consider elastic soil medium, and the intensity of allowable stresses below foundations in most cases are quit small and justify elastic solutions


1. Obtaining reliable properties of soil is very important in geotechnical engineering. Chunk samples obtained from the field are the best for this purpose.

2. Chunk samples may easily be obtained at all depths below ground level and for all types of soils.

3. Undisturbed soil samples are enclosed in rugged containers. As such, they do not get disturbed easily during transportation and handling.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 only

c. 2 and 3

d. 1 and 3

12. Which one of the following Is the appropriate triaxial test to assess the immediate stability of an unloading problem, such as an excavation of a clay slope?

a. UU test

b. CU test

c. CD test

d. Unconsolidated drained test

13. Well-graded dense saturated sands have high shear strength because:

a. Such sands have, a better grade (superior type) of sand grains resulting in higher strength

b. Such sands have lower water content, which increases shear strength

c. Such sands have better interlocking of grains, higher inter-particle contacts and higher inter-particle frictional resistance resulting in higher strength

d. Presence of water in such sands induces capillary pressure generating higher inter-granular stresses, which generate apparent cohesion and hence higher shear strength



3 of 1614. A footing is resting on a fully saturated

clayey strata. For checking the initial stability shear parameters are used from which one of the following?

a. Consolidated non-drained test

b. Unconsolidated drained test

c. Unconsolidated non-drained test

d. Unconsolidated non-drained test with pore pressure measurement

15. How high should a helicopter pilot rise at a point. A just to see the horizon at point B, if the distance AD is 40 1cm?

a. 101.75 m

b. 110.50 m

c. 107.75 m

d. 105.50 m

16. Which one of the following represents a circumpolar star?

a. Upper culmination above horizon, lower culmination below horizon

b. Both upper and lower culminations below horizon

c. Both upper and lower culminations above horizon

d. Altitude at upper culmination is minimum

17. In an aerial plhotogrammetric survey, If the exposure interval is 20 seconds to cover ground distance of 1000 m between exposures, what would be the ground speed of the aircraft?

a. 90 km/hour

b. 120 kin/hour

c. 150 km/hour

d. 180 km/hour

18. Match List I (Phenomenon) with List II (Method of Survey) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists

List I

A. Crab and drift

B. Stadia intercept

C. Culmination and elongation

D. Baseline measurement

List II

1. Triangulation

2. Astronomical survey

3. Aerial photogrammetry

4. Tachometric survey

A B C D

a. 3 1 2 4

b. 2 4 3 1

c. 3 4 2 1

d. 2 1 3 4

19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a. Declination : Horizontal angle between magnetic meridian & true meridian

b. Bowditch’s rule : Employed to adjust closing error of a closed traverse

c. Deflection angle Measured in case of open traverse instead of measuring included angle

d. Reconnaissance : Employed for detailed survey and precise survey

20. What is the volume of a 6 m deep tank having rectangular shaped top 6 m x 4 m and bottom 4 m x 2 m (computed through the use of prismoidal formula)?

a. 96 m3

b. 94 m3

c. 92 m3

d. 90 m3

21. If two triangulation signals of 6.75 m height each, are to be just visible over ground mutually, what is the maximum distance between their locations on the ground surface?

a. 10 km

b. 20 km

c. 30km

d. 40km

22. What Is the actual ground area covered by a 20 cm x 20 cm size vertical aerial photograph, at an average scale of 1 cm = 200 m having 60% forward overlap and 30% side overlap?

a. 1.92 km2

b. 4.48 km2

c. 6.72 km2

d. 2.88 km2

23. Assertion (A) : A turn-out is a combination of points and crossings, which enable a



4 of 16branch line to take off from another main line railway track.

Reason (R) : Turn-outs are in great use in railway marshalling yards.





24. Assertion (A) : A small quantity of ammonia is added to water before carrying out disinfection using chlorine.

Reason (R) : Chloramines are persistent disinfectants, which provide continued protection against re-growth of microorganisms in a water distribution system.





25. Assertion (A) : Composting is the most commonly used process for the decomposition of the organic components of municipal solid wastes.

Reason (R) : Bangalore method is a common anaerobic method used for biological conversion of organic components of municipal solid wastes.





26. Assertion (A) : The bearing capacity of a footing always gets affected by the location of ground water table.

Reason (R) : Water is soil affects the shear strength parameters as well as the unit weight.





27. Assertion (A) : Basement walls and bridge abutments are usually designed for earth pressure at rest.

Reason (R) : These are usually not restrained by the floor slab and by the deck structure at their bases.





28. Assertion (A) : The clay core of an earth dam is usually compacted on the wet side of OMC.

Reason (R) : Compaction on the wet side of OMC reduces permeability and prevents cracking in core.





29. Assertion (A) : At the critical state of flow, the specific force is a minimum for the given discharge.

Reason (R) : For a minimum value of specific force the first derivative of force with respect to depth should be unity.





30. Assertion (A) : The earth pressure at rest is greater than active pressure but less than passive earth pressure.

Reason (R) : When the wall moves away from backfill from the rest condition, the mobilisation of the internal resistance of soil occurs; on the other hand, if the wall moves towards the fill, the shearing resistance builds up.





R is not the correct explanation of A



31. Which type of light energy Is effectively absorbed by CO2 in the lower boundary of the troposphere?

a. X-rays

b. UV-rays

c. Visible light

d. Infra-red rays

32. Which one of the following is the correct sound. Intensity expression with usual notations?

a. dB = 10 log10(I/I0)2

b. dB = 10 log10(I/I0)

c. dB = 10 1og10(I – I0)2

d. dB = 10 1og10(I – I0)

33. What type of noise can be abated by providing lining on walls and ceiling with sound absorbing material?

a. Source noise

b. Reflection noise

c. Structural noise

d. Direct air-borne noise

34. In which type of lakes, does a perfect ecological equilibrium among the producers, decomposers and consumer groups of organisms exist?

a. Senescent lakes

b. Mesotrophic lakes

c. Oligotrophic lakes

d. Eutrophic lakes

35. Match List I (Type of Impurity) with List II (Effect) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists

List I

A. Carbonates and bicarbonates of Ca and Mg

B. Carbonates and bicarbonates of Sodium

C. Sulphates and chlorides of Ca and Mg

D. Oxides of iron and manganese

List II

1. permanent hardness

2. Temporary hardness

3. Alkanity and softness

4. Colour and taste

A B C D

a. 1 3 2 4

b. 2 4 1 3

c. 1 4 2 3

d. 2 3 1 4

A B C D

36. Match List I (Equation/Law) with List II (Related Application) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists

List I

A. Chicks law

B. Darcy-Weisbach equation

C. Stoke’s equation

D. Carmen-Kozeny equation

List II

1. Discrete particle settling

2. Head loss in a pipe

3. Head loss in filters

4. Rate of bacterial kill

A B C D

a. 4 2 1 3

b. 3 1 2 4

c. 4 1 2 3

d. 3 2 1 4

37. A flash mixer of 2.0 m3, with a velocity gradient of mixing mechanism equal to 600/s, and fluid absolute viscosity of 1.0 x 10–3 Ns/m2 is continuously operated. What is the power input per unit volume?

a. 360 W

b. 720 W

c. 1440 W

d. 300 W


In water supply distribution network,

1. the grid-iron system requires more length of pipe lines and larger number of cut-off valves.

2. the design of the grid-iron system is difficult but economical.

3. employing a grid-iron system, the dead ends are completely eliminated.



6 of 164. employing a grid-iron system permits

more water to be diverted towards the affected point from various directions.


a. 1, 2 and 4

b. l, 3 and 4

c. 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 3

39. A municipal sewage has BOD5 of 200 mg/l. It is proposed to treat it and dispose off into a marine environment. For what minimum efficiency should the sewage treatment plant be designed?

a. 85%

b. 60%

c. 50%

d. 33.67%

40. Which one of the following types of settling phenomenon can be analysed by the classic sedimentation laws of Newton and Stokes?

a. Discrete settling

b. Flocculent settling

c. Hindered settling

d. Compression settling

41. Match List I (‘Treatment Process) with List II (Related Terms) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists

List I

A. Lagoons

B. Trickling filter

C. Oxidation ponds

D. Activated sludge process

List II

1. Attached growth system

2. Algae-bacteria symbiotic relationship

3. Extended aeration

4. Low cost treatment method

A B C D

a. 4 3 2 1

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 4 1 2 3

d. 2 3 4 1

42. A summit curve is formed at the intersection of a 3% upgrade and a 5% downgrade. What is the length of the summit curve in order to provide a stopping distance of 128 m?

a. 271 m

b. 298 m

c. 322 m

d. 340 m

43. Match List I (Study) with List II (Purpose) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I

A. Primary road system

B. Economic studies

C. Engineering studies

D. Road use studies

List II

1. Population distribution

2. Expressways

3. Traffic volume

4. Topographic details

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 4 3 2 1

c. 2 3 4 1

d. 4 1 2 3


1. Mastic asphalt is a mixture of hard grade bitumen or blown bitumen, minerals filter and fine aggregates.

2. % of binder content in the mastic asphalt is 17.20 percent by weight of the aggregates.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

45. Match List I (Traffic Survey) with List II (Method) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I

A. Spot speed

B. Traffic volume



7 of 16C. O-D survey

D. Parking survey

List II

1. By video tape

2. By road side interview

3. By Doppler radar

4. By pneumatic tube

A B C D

a. 3 1 2 4

b. 2 4 3 1

c. 3 4 2 1

d. 2 1 3 4

46. Match List I (Unit) with List H (Purpose) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I

A. Clover leaf interchange

B. Traffic studies

C. Rotary island

D. Road junction approach sign

List II

1. Informatory sign

2. Traffic control device

3. Traffic flow characteristics

4. Grade-separation

A B C D

a. 4 3 2 1

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 4 1 2 3

d. 2 3 4 1

47. Which one of the following is the correct expression for the versine(h) of a curve?

a. 2

h = r

l

b. 2

h = 2r

l

c. 2

h = 8r

l

d. 2

h = r

l

(Where l = length of rail on the curve portion and r = radius of curvature)

48. A 6 hour storm has 6 cm of rainfall and the resulting runoff was 3 cm. If = index

remains at the same value, which one of the following is the runoff due to 12 cm of rainfall In 9 hours in the catchment?

a. 4.5 cm

b. 6.0 cm

c. 7.5 cm

d. 9.0 cm


A forebay in a hydel system is provided at the junction of:

a. the power channel and the tail race channel

b. the tail race channel and the penstock

c. the penstock and the turbine

d. the power channel and the penstock

50. A catchment has an area of 150 hectares and a run off/rainfall ratio of 0.40. If due to 10 cm rainfall over the catchment, a stream flow at the catchment outlet lasts for 10 hours, what is the average stream flow in the period?

a. 60,000 m3/hour

b. 100 m3/minute

c. 3.5 m3/s

d. 1.33 m3/s

51. The area between the two isohytes 45 cm and 55 cm is 100 km2, and that between 55 cm and 65 cm is 150 km2. What is the average depth of annual precipitation over the basin of 250 km2?

a. 50 cm

b. 52 cm

c. 56 cm

d. 60 cm

52. Viewing watershed as a system, which one of the following assumptions is made in the unit graph theory?

a. Non-linearity

b. Both linearity and time, variance

c. Both time invariance and non-linearity

d. Both linearity and time invariance

53. Which one of the following flood routing methods involves the concepts of wedge and prism storages?

a. Coefficient method

b. Muskingum method



8 of 16c. Pul’s method

d. Lag method

54. The base width of a soil gravity dam is 25 m. the material of the dam has a specific gravity of 2.56 and the dam is designed as an elementary profile ignoring uplift. What is the approximate allowable height of the dam?

a. 64 m

b. 40 m

c. 164 m

d. 80 m

55. Match List I (Relative Position of Canal and Drainage Channel) with List II (Type of Cross Drainage Work) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I

A. Canal taken above the drainage channel at its grade

B. Drainage channel taken above the canal at its bed slope

C. Canal taken below the drainage channel

D. Drainage channel taken below the canal

List II

1. Cansal siphon

2. Drainage siphon

3. Aqueduct

4. Super passage

A B C D

a. 2 4 1 3

b. 3 1 4 2

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 3 4 1 2

56. A clay sample has a void ratio of 0.54 in dry state. The specific gravity of soil solids is 2.7. What is the shrinkage limit of the soil?

a. 8.5%

b. 10.0%

c. 17.0%

d. 20.0%

57. Match List I (Equipment) with List II (Purpose) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I

A. Sheep foot roller

B. Frog hammer

C. Vibratory roller

List II

1. To densify cohesionless soils to relatively larger depths

2. To compact lumpy cohesive soil fills

3. 3. To compact soils at corners and places which bigger rollers cannot access

4. To compact cohesionless soils of shallow depth

A B C

a. 4 1 2

b. 2 1 4

c. 4 3 2

d. 2 3 4

58. Match List I (Unit) with List 11 (Purpose) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I

A. Graded filter

B. Lime treatment

C. Impervious clay core

D. Curtain grouting

List II

1. To reduce seepage of water through body of earth dam

2. To reduce water seepage through foundation below dam

3. To stabilize black cotton soils

4. 4. To drain water without Losing fines from the soil

A B C D

a. 4 3 1 2

b. 1 2 4 3

c. 4 2 1 3

d. 1 3 4 2

59. A soil deposit has three layers having same thickness each but the permeabilities of the layers are in the ratio of 1 :2:4 from top to bottom. What is the ratio of average permeability In the horizontal direction to that in the vertical direction?

a. 7 : 2



9 of 16b. 14 : 6

c. 28 : 24

d. 49 : 36

60. If the time required for 60% consolidation of a remoulded soil sample of clay with single drainage is t, then what Is the time required to consolidate the same sample of clay with the same degree of consolidation but with double drainage?

a. 4t

b. 2t

c. t/2

d. t/4

61. If p is increment of pressure on a normally consolidated saturated soil mass, as per Terzaghi’s theory at the instant of application of pressure increment i.e. when time t = 0, what is the pore pressure developed in the soil mass?

a. Zero

b. Very much less than p

c. Equal to p

d. Greater than p

62. Which one of the following is the best method for locating sounding to estimate the dredged material from the harbours?

a. Two angles from shore

b. Two angles from boat

c. One angle from shore and other from the boat

d. Fixed intersecting ranges

63. Which one of the following gives the number of gate position in an airport?

a. Capacity of runway

2 average gate

occupancy time

b. Capacity of apron

60 2 number of

aircraft movements

c. Capacity of taxiway

60 2 average gate

occupancy time

d. Capacity of holding apron

2 average

gate occupancy time

64. Match List I (Unit) with List II (Purpose) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I

A. Width and length of safety area of airport

B. Engine failure case

C. Location of exit taxiways

D. Grading of airport size

List II

1. Basic runway length

2. Runway geometric design

3. Airport drainage

4. Runway capacity

A B C D

a. 2 4 1 3

b. 3 1 4 2

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 3 4 1 2

65. Which of the following are requirements for the design of a transition curve for a highway system?

1. Rate of change of grade

2. Rate of change of radial acceleration

3. Rate of change of super elevation

4. Rate of change of curvature

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 2, 1 and 4

c. 1, 3 and 4

d. 2, 3 and 4

66. California Bearing Ratio (CBR) is a:

a. Measure of soil strength

b. Method of soil identification

c. Measure to indicate the relative strengths of paving materials

d. Measure of shear strength under lateral confinement

67. Which of the following factors have to be considered for the design of the flexible pavement for a highway?

1. Design wheel load

2. Strength of pavement component material

3. Expansion joints



10 of 164. Climatic factors


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 1, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 4

68. What is the curve resistance for a 50 tonnes train on a BG track on a 40 curve?

a. 0.05 tonne

b. 0.06 tonne

c. 0.08 tonne

d. 0.01 tonne

69. Why are moorings provided?

a. For anchoring of ships

b. For towing the ships to the sea

c. For repair of ships

d. For washing of ships and ship boards

70. What is the use of a station pointer?

a. For making soundings in water bodies

b. For plotting of soundings in harbour area

c. For marking sunken shipping hazards

d. For making tidal observations


1. Dock is a marine structure for mooring up vessels, loading and unloading of passengers and/or cargo.

2. Dry dock is generally used only for carrying out repairs, inspections and painting.

3. Wet dock is an enclosed or partially enclosed basin provided with locks and entrance gate to keep the water level at a fairly constant level.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 2

d. 1 and 3

72. The percentage of time in a year during which the cross wind component remains within the limit, is:

a. Wind coverage

b. Head wind

c. Prevailing wind

d. Cross wind

73. At a certain station, the mean of the average temperature is 25° C and mean of the maximum daily temperature is 40° C. What is the airport reference temperature (ART).?

a. 46.6° C

b. 45° C

c. 35°C

d. 30°C

74. Consider the following statements with respect to tunnelling methods:

1. Full face excavation is suitable for small size tunnel of short length in competent rock. It is not suitable in urban areas.

2. Heading and benching method is suitable for soft rock tunnelling of medium size.

3. Drift method is suitable for large tunnels in difficult or incompetent rock.


a. 1 and 3

b. 1, 2 and 3

c. 2 and 3

d. 1 and 2

75. The velocity distribution for flow over a plate is given by u = 0.5 y – y2 where u is the velocity in m/s at a distance y meter above the plate. If the dynamic viscosity of the fluid is 0.9 Ns/m2, then what is the shear stress at 0.20 m from the boundary?

a. 0.9 N/m2

b. 1.8 N/m2

c. 2.25 N/m2

d. 0.09 N/m2

76. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I

A. Equation of motion along a streamline

B. Euler’s equation

C. Pressure exerted by a free jet

D. Rotating lawn Sprinkler



11 of 16List II

1. Principle of moment of momentum

2. Bernoulli’s equation

3. Equation for conservation of momentum

4. Momentum equation

A B C D

a. 4 1 2 3

b. 2 3 4 1

c. 4 3 2 1

d. 2 1 4 3

77. The pressure gradient In the direction of flow is equal to the:

a. Shear gradient parallel to the direction of flow

b. Shear gradient normal to the direction of flow

c. Velocity gradient parallel to the direction of flow

d. Velocity gradient normal to the direction of flow

78. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a. Models are always smaller than the prototypes.

b. Dynamic similarity between a model and a prototype can be verified by equating Reynold’s number in a viscous flow.

c. Mach number achieves significance when the velocity of fluid approaches or exceeds the sonic velocity.

d. Distorted models are always exaggerated on a vertical scale.


The function of an air vessel in a reciprocating pump is to obtain:

a. reduction of suction head

b. rise in delivery head

c. continuous supply of water at uniform rate

d. increase in supply of water

80. Match List I (Type of Curve) with List II (Flow Condition) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I

A. M1

B. H3

C. S2

D. A2

List II

1. Slope upward in the direction of flow

2. Back water profile

3. Hydraulic jump occurs

4. Hydraulic drop occurs

A B C D

a. l 3 4 2

b. 2 4 3 1

c. 1 4 3 2

d. 2 3 4 1

81. A high efficiency pump is required for low discharge, high head and low maintenance cost. Delivery of water need not be continuous. The pump need not run at high speed. Which one of the following is the correct choice?

a. Centrifugal pump

b. Reciprocating pump

c. Air lift pump

d. Hydraulic ram

82. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists

List I

A. Storage

B. Pondage

C. Pondage factor

D. Daily load factor

List II

1. Small storage

2. Ratio of total inflow to the total number of days power plant operates in a week

3. Large reservoirs

4. (Average plant load) x (Peak load)

5. Ratio of average load to peak load

A B C D

a. 3 2 1 5

b. 5 1 2 4

c. 3 1 2 5



12 of 16d. 5 2 1 4

83. Match List I (Factor) with List II (Ratio) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I

A. Load factor

B. Capacity factor

C. Diversity factor

D. Plant use factor

List II

1. Sum of individual maximum demands Simultaneous maximum demand

2. Maximum demand Station capacity

3. Average load Maximum load

4. Energy produced Installed capacity time in hours

A B C D

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 3 4 1 2

c. 1 4 3 2

d. 3 2 1 4

84. For which one of the following purposes is the double mass curve used?

a. Checking on the consistency of precipitation records

b. Prediction of annual precipitation

c. Defining which periods of storm should be analyzed to obtain the maximum useful information from storm rainfall records

d. For estimating the capacity of a reservoir

85. For a given storm, other factors remaining same:

a. Basins with large drainage densities give smaller flood peaks.

b. Low drainage density basins give shorter time bases of hydrographs.

c. The flood peak is independent of the drainage density

d. Basins having low drainage density give smaller peaks in flood hydrographs.

86. The discharge per unit drawdown at the well is known as:

a. Specific yield

b. Specific storage

c. Specific retention

d. Specific capacity

87. The channel section can be designed on the basis of Lacey’s Theory The steps are mentioned below:

1. Finding out the perimeter

2. Finding out the velocity

3. Calculation of the silt factor

4. Finding out the area

What is the correct sequence of the steps?

a. 4—2—3—1

b. 3—1—4—2

c. 4—1—3—2

d. 3—2—4—1

88. In Lacey’s regime theory the velocity of flow is proportional to:

a. Qf2

b. Q/f2

c. (Qf2)1/6

d. (Q/f2)1/6

89. Which of the following are the purposes of a groyne as a river training structure?

1. It contracts a river channel to improve its depth.

2. It protects the river bank.

3. It does not allow silt to deposit in the vicinity.

4. It trains the flow along a certain course.


a. 1 and 2

b. 1, 2 and 3

c. 1 and 3

d. 2, 3 and 4

90. Denehy’s groyne is a special type of groyne which is:

a. Pointing upstream

b. Pointing downstream

c. Hockcy type

d. T-headed

91. In a laminar boundary layer, the velocity distribution can be assumed to be given, in usual notations, as

u y

v



13 of 16Which one of the following is the correct expression for the displacement thickness * for this boundary layer?

a. * =

b. * = /2

c. * = /4

d. * = /6

92. For Froude number of a hydraulic jump is 5.5. The jump can be classified as a/an:

a. Undular jump

b. Oscillating jump

c. Weak jump

d. Steady jump

93. Match List I (Treatment Process) with List II (Removed Matter) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I

A. Plain Sedimentation

B. Chemical Precipitation

C. Slow Sand Filtration

D. Aeration

List II

1. Dissolved gases

2. Dissolved solids

3. Suspended solids with specific gravity more than 1.0

4. Floating solids

5. Bacterial cells

A B C D

a. 5 1 4 2

b. 3 2 5 1

c. 5 2 4 1

d. 3 1 5 2

94. A sample of ground water at a pH of 7.0 contains 122 mg/l of bicarbonates. What is the alkalinity of this water (in terms of CaCO3)?

a. 120 mg/l

b. 60 mg/l

c. 100 mg/l

d. 200 mg/l

95. Match List I (Type of Pile) with List II (Situation for Use) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I

A. End bearing pile

B. Pedestal pile

C. Friction pile

D. Sand piles

List II

1. When weak foundation soil is to be compacted

2. When foundation soil is granular

3. When foundation soil is relatively weak

4. When hard formation or rock is at a shallow depth

A B C D

a. 4 2 3 1

b. 1 3 2 4

c. 4 3 2 1

d. 1 2 3 4

96. While driving a large number of piles in loose sand:

a. It is advantageous to follow a sequence of pile driving such that the inner piles are driven first and then proceed outwards

b. It is advantageous to follow a sequence of pile driving such that the piles near the periphery are driven first and inner piles are driven later

c. It is advantageous to follow a sequence of pile driving such that alternately inner and outer piles are driven

d. Driving of piles can be done in any random order

97. In a plate load test, how is the ultimate load estimated from the load settlement curve on a log-log graph?

a. Directly

b. By drawing tangents to the curve at the initial and final points

c. By the secant method

d. At 0.2 percent of the maximum settlement

98. The laboratory tests on a sample yielded the following results:

Plasticity index: 32%,

Liquidity index : —0.15,

Activity number: 1.58.



14 of 16Which of the following inferences can be drawn?

1. The soil is very stiff.

2. The soil is medium soft.

3. The soil is highly plastic.

4. The soil is medium plastic.

5. The soil is active.


a. 1, 3 and 5

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 2, 3 and 5

d. 1, 2 and 4

99. In which one of the following zones is a logarithmic spiral shape of failure surface assumed in the case of bearing capacity analysis of C- soils?

a. Active zone

b. Passive zone

c. Radial Shear zone

d. Surcharge zone

100. Westergaard’s formula for vertical stress gives greater value of stress than that by the Boussinesq’s formula, when r/z exceeds:

a. 1.5

b. 2.5

c. 3.5

d. 4.0

101. In a shear test on cohesionless soils, if the Initial’ void ratio is less than the critical void ratio, the sample will:

a. Increase in volume

b. Initially increase in volume and then remain constant

c. Decrease in volume

d. Initially decrease and then increase in volume

102. As the state of strain of an element of dense sand changes from plain strain to trivial strain condition, the effective angle of internal friction:

a. Increases

b. Decreases

c. Remains constant

d. First increases and then remains constant

103.

The void-pressure diagram is shown above. What is the coefficient of compressibility?

a. 0.5 m2/t

b. 0.73 m2/t

c. 0.20 m2/t

d. 0.25 m2/t

104. Match List I (Term) with List H (Definition) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists (where e is void ratio, p is effective vertical stress, k is permeability and w is unit weight of water):

List I

A. Compression index, C

B. Coefficient of volume change, m

C. Coefficient of compressibility, a,

D. Coefficient of consolidation, C,

List II

1. Slope of the e-p curve defined as e/p

2. Slope of e-log p curve given by

{—e/(log p)}

3. Term defined as k/(mvw)

4. Slope of the c-p curve defined as

—e/p

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 4 3 2 1

c. 2 3 4 1

d. 4 1 2 3

105. A clay layer 3 m deep is sandwiched by a pervious material. The soil reaches 90% consolidation in 3 years. At another site, the same clay layer is bounded by impervious boundary at the bottom and sand at the top. What is the time taken by this layer to reach 90% settlement?

a. 9 years



15 of 16b. 12 years

c. 15 years

d. 21 years

106. Which of the following factors are associated with the behaviour of sand mass during earthquake to cause liquefaction?

1. Number of stress cycles

2. The frequency and amplitude of vibration of waves generated by an earthquake

3. Characteristics of sand

4. Relative density


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1, 2, 3 and 4

c. 2 and 4

d. 3 and 4

107. Which one of the following different types of submerged soils is susceptible to liquefaction under earthquake shocks?

a. Dense sand

b. Soft clay

c. Loose silt

d. Fissured clay

108. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Plume Behaviour Atmospheric Condition

a. Looping : Stable

b. Fumigation : Inversion above and lapse below the stack

c. Fanning : Inversion

d. Trapping : Inversion above and below the stack with lapse in between

109. Which is the major pollutant present in photochemical smog?

a. PAN

b. SO2

c. HC

d. NO2


In solid waste management:

1. Density separation of solid wastes can be accomplished by air classifiers.

2. Iron recovery from solid wastes can be done by magnetic separators.

3. Aluminium separation from solid wastes can be accomplished by eddy current separators.


a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3


a. Settling and sludge digestion occurs in septic tanks in one compartment

b. Settling and sludge digestion occurs in imhoff tank in different compartments

c. Septic tank is a low-rate anaerobic unit whereas an imhoff tank is a high rate anaerobic unit

d. The rate of sludge accumulation in septic tank is approximately 40-70 liters/capita/year


1. Infiltration galleries are placed along the river beds at a depth of 4 to 6 m.

2. The draw-down for the infiltration galleries is more than that for radial wells.

3. Clogging of pipe pores in infiltration galleries is less than that for radial wells.

4. The cost of extracting unit volume of water is more in case of infiltration galleries as compared to radial wells.


a. 1 and 2

b. 1, 2 and 3

c. 2, 3 and 4

d. 4 only

113. Among the following, which is/are not pre-treatment unit(s)?

a. Bar screen and grit chamber

b. Flow equalization and proportioning tank

c. Neutralization for pH adjustment tank

d. Nutrient removal tank



16 of 16114. Consider the following statements in

regard to aerobic and anaerobic treatment processes:

1. Biomass production in the aerobic treatment process is more as compared to the anaerobic treatment process.

2. Start-up period is more in the aerobic treatment process as compared to the anaerobic treatment process.

3. Energy consumption and production is more in the aerobic treatment process as compared to the anaerobic treatment process.


a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. only 2

d. only 1

115. What is 5 days 20°C BOD equal to?

a. 3 days 27° C BOD

b. 4 days 30° C BOD

c. 6 days 32° C BOD

d. 7 days 35° C BOD

116. Match List I (Parameter) with List II [General Standard for Discharge into the Inland Surface Water in mg/l (max] and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I

A. BOD(5 day20° C)

B. COD

C. Oil and grease

D. Suspended solids

List II

1. 250

2. 100

3. 20

4. 10

5. 30

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 5

b. 5 4 3 2

c. 2 4 3 5

d. 5 1 4 2

117. When the recirculation ratio in a high rate trickling filter is unity, then what is the value of the recirculation factor?

a. 1

b. >1

c. < 1

d. Zero

118. Presence of nitrogen in a waste water sample is due to the decomposition of:

a. Carbohydrates

b. Proteins

c. Fats

d. Vitamins

119. According to the theory of filtration in water treatment, which of the following mechanisms come into play when water is filtered through a filter bed?

1. Mechanical straining

2. Capillary action

3. Centrifugal force

4. Electro kinetic phenomenon

5. Osmotic force

6. Bacteriological action


a. 1, 2, 4 and 6

b. 2, 3 and 5

c. 3, 4, 5 and 6

d. 1, 3, 4 and 6

120. Which of the following are associated with alum coagulation?

1. A decrease of alkalinity in treated water

2. Formation of hydroxide flocs of aluminium

3. A slight decrease of pH in treated water

4. An increase of permanent hardness


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2, 3 and 4

d. 2 and 4



1 of 18

(PAPER–I)

1. The timber preservative “creosote” belongs to the group of

a. Water soluble salts

b. Organic solvent type

c. Tar oil type

d. Inorganic solvent type

2. The strength of timber is maximum in a direction

a. Parallel to the grains

b. Perpendicular to the grains

c. 450 to the grains

d. 300 to the grains

3. When a Ist class brick is immersed in cold water for 24 hours, it should 1101 absorb water by weight more than

a. 15%

b. 20%

c. 25%

d. 30%

4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List - I (Species)

A. Babul

B. Ben teak

C. Bijsal

D. Mulbury

List-Il (Uses)

1. Tennis rackets (sports goods)

2. Boats

3. Agricultural tools

4. Furniture

A B C D

a. 4 1 3 2

b. 3 2 4 1

c. 4 2 3 1

d. 3 1 4 2

5. The temperature at which the bricks are burnt in kiln vanes from

a. 500° to 8000 C

b. 800° to 10000 C

c. 1000° to 1200° C

d. 1200° to 1500° C

6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Job Requirement)

A. High early strength

B. Lining for canals

C. Frost and acid resistance

D. Marine Structure

List-II (Type of Cement Binder)

1. Pozzolanic cement

2. Rapid hardening

3. Sulphate resisting

4. High Alumina

A B C D

a. 1 4 3 2

b. 2 3 4 1

c. 1 3 4 2

d. 2 4 3 1

7. As per specifications, the initial setting time of ordinary Portland cement should not be less than

a. 10 minutes

b. 20 minutes

c. 30 minutes 60 minutes

8. In cements, generally the increase in strength during a period of 14 days to 28 days is primarily due to

a. C3A

b. C2S

c. C3S

d. C4AF

9. What is the approximate ratio of the strength of cement concrete at 7 days to that at 28 days’ curing ?

a. 0.40

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2006




2 of 18b. 0.65

c. 0.90

d. 1.15

10. Which one of the following properties of cement concrete is ascertained by conducting compaction factor test ?

a. Bulk density

b. Compressive strength

c. Modulus of rupture

d. Workability

11. As per IS 456—2000, which one of the following correctly expresses the modulus of elasticity of concrete ? (read with the relevant units)

a. Ee = 0.7 ckf

b. Ee = 500 ckf

c. Ec = 5000 ckf

d. Ec = 5700 ckf

12. The mix design for pavement concrete is based on

a. The flexural strength

b. The characteristic compressive strength

c. The shear strength

d. The bond strength

13. If G is the modulus of rigidity, E the modulus of elasticity and the Poisson’s ratio for a material, then what is the expression for G?

a. 3

2(1 2 )

EG

b. 5

(1 )

EG

c. 2(1 )

EG

d. (1 2 )

EG

14. A thin cylinder of thickness ‘t’, width ‘b’ and internal radius ‘r’ is subjected to a pressure ‘p’ on the entire internal surface. What is the change in radius of the cylinder ? ( is the Poission’s ratio and E is the modulus of elasticity)

a. 2 (2 )p r

Et

b. 2 (2 )pr

Et

c. 2 (2 )

2

pr

Et

d. 2

(1 )p

Et

15. A bar of 40 mm diameter and 400 mm length is subjected to an axial load of l00 kN. It elongates by 0.150 mm and the diameter decreases by 0.005 mm. What is the Poission’s ratio of the material of the bar ?

a. 0.25

b. 0.28

c. 0.33

d. 0.37

16.

The Mohr’s circle given above corresponds to which one of the following stress conditions

a.

b.

c.

d.



3 of 1817. Match List — I with List — II and select

the correct answer ( = direct stress, = shear stress, Mx = Bending moment, E = Modulus of elasticity, G = Modulus of rigidity, I = Area moment of inertia, V Volume)

List–I (Strain Energy)

A. 2

2

v

E

B. 2

2

v

G

C. 2

4

v

G

D. 2

0 2

L M dx

EI

List II (Gradually Applied Load)

1. Axial load

2. Bending Load

3. Shear load

4. Torsional load

A B C D

a. 2 3 4 1

b. l 4 3 2

c. 2 4 3 1

d. l 3 4 2

18. If the maximum principal stress for an element under bi—axial stress situation is 100 MPa (tensile) and the maximum shear stress is also 100 MPa, then what is the other principal stress?

a. 200 MPa (tensile)

b. 200 MPa (compressive)

c. 100 MPa (compressive)

d. 0

19. A thin cylindrical tube closed at ends is subjected to internal pressure. A torque is also applied to the tube. The torque is also applied to the tube. The principal stresses p1 and p2 developed are 80.0 units and 20.0 units respectively. If the yield stress is 240 units, then what is the factor of safety according to Maximum shear stress theory?

a. 3.00

b. 4.00

c. 5.00

d. 6.00

20. If p1 and p2 are the principal stresses at a point in a strained material with Young’s modulus E and Poisson’s ratio 1/rn, then what is the principal strain ?

a. 1 2p p

mE

b. 1 2p p

mE

c. 1 2p p

E mE

d. 1 2p p

E mE

21. In a two-dimensional stress system, the two principal stresses are p1 = 180 N/mm2 (Tensile), and p2 which is compressive. For the material, yield stress in simple tension and compression is 240 N/mm2 and Poisson’s ratio is 0.25. According to maximum normal strain theory, for what values of p2 , shall yielding commence?

a. 240 N/mm2

b. 180 N/mm2

c. 195 N/mm2

d. 200 N/mm2

22.

A simply supported beam AB has span L as shown in the figure above, Point C is the mid—span of the beam. It is subjected to u.d.l. w/unit length, in the portion A to C. Which of the following are the SFD and BMD for the beam ?

a.

b.

c.



4 of 18

d. 23.

A beam of square cross section is placed horizontally with one diagonal horizontal as shown in the figure above. It is subjected to a vertical shear force acting along the depth of the cross section. Maximum shear stress across the depth of cross section occurs at a depth x from the top. What is the value of x?

a. x = 0

b. x = (2/3) D

c. x(3/4)D

d. D

24.

Which one of the following diagrams indicates the shear stress distribution for the beam as shown in the figure above?

a.

b.

c.

d.

25.

For the circular shaft AB, as shown in the figure above, a torque ‘T’ is applied at the section XX at C, such that b/a = 1.5. The shaft is uniform in section. What is the ratio of TA/TB?

a. 3

b. 1.5

c. 0.67

d. 0.5

26. The failure surface of a standard cast iron torsion specimen, subjected to a torque is along

a. the surface helicoidal at 450 to the axis of the specimen

b. the curved surface at the grips

c. the plane surface perpendicular to the axis of the specimen

d. the curved surface perpendicular to the axis of the specimen

27.

A horizontal beam shown in the figure given above is subjected to transverse loading. Which one of the following diagrams represents the distribution of shear force along the cross—section ?

a.

b.



5 of 18

c.

d. 28.

What is the force in number AB of the

pin—jointed frame as shown above ?

a. P (Tension)

b. P (Compression)

c. P / 2 (Compression)

d. Zero

29.

Which one of the following diagrams corresponds to the influence line diagram for moment at A of the beam shown above in the figure?

a.

b.

c.

d.

30.

Which one of the following is the correct BMD for the loaded uniform sized beam as shown in the figure given above?

a.

b.

c.

d. 31. Consider the following statements

1. Even though a three—hinged parabolic arch is subjected only to vertical loads, it generates horizontal reactions and axial forces.

2. A cable uniformly loaded along the horizontal span assumes the shape of a parabola, whereas a cable uniformly loaded along its length takes the shape of a catenary.

3. Cables loaded uniformly along the horizontal span are by far the types most commonly used structures in practice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a. Only 1

b. Only 2 and 3

c. Only 1 and 2

d. 1, 2 and 3


List-I (Loading Condition)

A. Cantilever with concentrated load W at end

B. Cantilever with udi (w/unit length) across the complete span (W = wl)

C. Simply supported beam with concentrated load W at the centre

D. Simply supported beam with udl (w/unit length) across complete span (W=wl)



6 of 18List-II Maximum Slope)

1. W12/16 El

2. W12/24 El

3. W12/2 El

4. W12/6 El

A B C D

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 3 4 1 2

c. l 4 3 2

d. 3 2 1 4

33.

A cantilever truss carries a concentrated load P as shown in the figure above. What are the magnitudes of axial forces in the members I, II and III, respectively?

a. 1.00P, 1.33P & 1.67P

b. l.67P, l.33P& l.00P

c. 1.33 P, 0.75 P & 1.60 P

d. 0.60 P. 0.75 P & 1.0 P

34.

Which one of the following is the bending moment diagram for the vertical cantilever beam loaded as shown in the figure above?

a.

b.

c.


Williot-Mohr diagram is used to determine the deflection in

1. an arch.

2. a truss.

3. a rigid frame.


a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Only 3

d. 1, 2 and 3

36. A propped cantilever AB, with fixed edge A is propped at B and carries uniformly distributed load over the entire span. If the prop heaves up (displaces upward), which one among the following is true if prop reaction = RB, Moment at A = MA?

a. Both RB and MA will increase

b. RB will increase, MA will decrease

c. RB will decrease, MA will increase

d. Both RB and MA will decrease

37.

For the fixed beam as shown in the figure above, what is the fixed end moment at A for the given loading?

a. 2

22

cosWab

L

b. 2

22

cosWa b

L

c. 2

2cos

Wab

L



7 of 18

d. 2

22

cosWa b

L

38.

What is the ratio of magnitudes of moments in the member BC at the ends B and C in the figure given above?

a. 1 : 1

b. 3 : 1

c. 3 : 4

d. 1 : 3

39.

For the frame as shown in the figure above, the final end moment MDC has been calculated as — 40 kNm. What is the end moment MCD?

a. +40 kNm

b. —40 kNm

c. +30 kNm

d. —30 kNm

40.

What is the degree of static indeterminacy of the plane structure as shown in the figure above ?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6


Hardy Cross method of moment distribution can be applied to analyse

1. Continuous beams including non—prismatic structures.

2. continuous beams with prismatic elements.

3. structures with intermediate hinges.

4. rigid frames.


a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

b. Only 1, 2 and 3

c. Only 1, 2 and 4

d. Only 3 and 4

42.

What is the carry—over factor from A to B while using moment distribution for analysing beam as shown in the figure given above ?

a. 1/2

b. 1.0

c. < 1/2

d. > 1/2

43.

The rigid plane frame ABCD has to be analysed by slope deflection method. What is the number of unknown displacements / rotations for the frame as shown in the figure given above ?

a. 4

b. 3

c. 5

d. 2

44. Consider the following statements regarding the analysis of indeterminate structures

1. The force method consists in applying displacement compatibility conditions at the nodes.



8 of 182. The stiffness method consists in

formulating equilibrium equations at the nodes.


a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

45.

What is the stiffness matrix for a prismatic cantilever with coordinates as shown in figure ?

a. 2

2 3

0 0

4 60

6 120

AE

LEI EI

L LEI EI

L L

b. 2

2 3

0 0

4 60

6 120

AE

LEI EI

L LEI EI

L L

c.

2

40

0 0 0

6 40

AE EI

L L

EI EI

L L

d.

2

2

3 3

4 6

60 0

6 120

AE AE EI

L L LEI

LEI EI

L L

46.

The beams in the two storey frame shown in the figure above have a cross section such that the flexural rigidity may be considered infinite. Which among the following is the stiffness matrix for the structure in respect of the global coordinates 1 and 2?

a. 3

1 124

1 2

EI

b. 3

1 124

1 1

EI

c. 3

2 124

1 2

EI

d. 3

1 124

1 1

EI

47. What is the total strain energy of a member subject to an axial stress f (E = Young’s modulus)

a. (f2/2E) volume of bar

b. (f/E) volume of bar

c. (f2/E) volume of bar

d. (f/2E) volume of bar

48.

Considering only flexural deformations, which is the stiffness matrix for the plane frame shown in the figure given above?

a. 4 3

3 4EI

b. 3 1

1 3EI

c. 2 1

1 2EI



9 of 18

d. 1 1

1 1EI


1. Muller—Bresiau’s principle is applicable only to indeterminate structures

2. Muller—Breslau’s principle is applicable only to determinate structures

3. Muller—Breslau’s principle is applicable to both determinate and indeterminate structure

4. For a two span Continuous beam ABC, the influence line diagrams is/are

(i)

(ii)


a. 1 and 4(ii)

b. 3 and 4(i)

c. 2 and 4(i)

d. 3and4(ii)

50.

A load 500 kN applied at point A, as shown in the figure above, produces a vertical deflection at P and C of the beam as b = 10 mm and b = 15 mm respectively. What is the deflection at A when loads of 100 kN and 300 kN are applied at B and C. respectively?

a. 6mm

b. 8mm

c. 11mm

d. 12.5 mm

51.

Three wires of steel 1, 2 and 3, each having area ‘A’ support load W. What is the ratio between collapse load and the load corresponding to yielding of, on of the wires?

a. 3 : l

b. 3 : 2

c. 3 : 3

52. Match List – I with List–II and se1ect the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I

(Loaded prismatic beam of uniform Mp)

A.

B.

C.

D. List – II(Plastic Load)

1. 4 Mp/L

2. 16 Mp/L

3. 6 Mp/L

4. 8 Mp/L

A B C D

a. 4 3 1 2

b. l 2 4 3

c. 4 2 1 3

d. l 3 4 2

53. A beam of square cross—section of side x is composed of material whose yield stress in compression is 1.5 times the yield stress in the tension. What is the distance of the neutral axis from the centre for the fully plastic condition?

a. 0.1 x

b. 0.15 x

c. 0.2 x

d. 0.25 x

54. Which one of the following is not correct?



10 of 18a. The shape factor for any section is

equal to Mp/My

b. For a thin—web wide—flange beam, shape factor is close to unity

c. For a circular section, shape factor is nearly 1.7

d. Shape factor for an I—section sometimes may be more than that for a rectangular section

55. What is the ratio of the shape factors for beam cross—sections having rectangular, circular and triangular shapes and of same area?

a. 1.00 : 0.73 : 0.64

b. 1.00 : 0.88 : 1.38

c. 1.00 : 1.13 : 1.56

d. 1.00 : 1.56 : 1.13

56.

A plate girder of depth d bears a concentrated load P through a distribution plate of width 0.5 d as shown in the figure. If the maximum allowable critical buckling stress is calculated as f, what is the value of P ? Web plate thickness = t

a. 0.5 dt f

b. 1.0 dtf

c. 1.5 dt f

d. 2.0 dt f

57. A bolt is subjected to shear force V and tension T. The capacity of the bolt in resisting shear and tension respectively are V0 and T0. Which one of the following diagrams represents interaction relations?

a.

b.

c.

d. 58.

Which one of the bolts in a web splices of a plate girder as shown in the figure is stressed maximum?

a. Bolt — 1

b. Bolt — 2

c. Bolt- 3

d. Bolt—4

59.

A bracket has been attached to flange of a column as shown in the figure. What is the maximum force in the bolt ?

a. P/4

b. P/2

c. P

d. 2P

60. An equal angle of area A has been attached to the support by means of a lug angular. If allowable stress in tension is f, what is the load carrying capacity of the member ?

a. 0.5 fA

b. 0.85 fA

c. 0.9 fA

d. 1.0 fA



11 of 1861. What is the maximum slenderness ratio

permitted as per IS 800-1984 of design of a tie member subjected to reversal of stress due to earthquake ?

a. 180

b. 250

c. 300

d. 350

62. A welded plate girder has web plate 1500 6 mm. which one of the following is correct about stiffening the web ?

a. The web is left unstiffened

b. The web is provide with vertical stiffeners only

c. The web is provided with vertical stiffeners and a horizontal stiffener at 0.4 from the top flange

d. The web is provided with vertical stiffener and two rows of horizontal stiffeners, on e at 0.4 d form the top flange and another at the mid height of the web.

63.

An industrial portal frame shown has weak floor beams. What is the effective length of column ?

a. 3 m

b. 4 m

c. 6 m

d. 8 m

64. Which one of the following section sis the most efficient for a simply supported gantry girder ?

a. I-section with equal flanges

b. I-section with a channel attached to the top flange

c. I-section with a wide bottom flange

d. I-section with a heavy plate connected to the bottom flange

65. A laterally unsupported compression flange of beam has been strengthened by channel, angle and plates as shown. Areas

of all the members added are equal. Which one of the following options will yield higher allowable stress ?

a.

b.

c.

d. 66. Conventional practice is to brace end

panels of the side walls of an industrial building. Instead bracing can be provided in the bays near centre of the building. Which one of he following reasons is correct ?

a. Wind pressure at the mid length is higher compared to ends

b. Trusses are erected starting from the ends of the building

c. Fixing the bracings to end gables is convenient

d. Free change of length between centre and the ends of the building is possible in mid-span bracing.

67. What is the maximum permissible slenderness ratio of a major compression number with undergoes reversal of stress due to wing load ?

a. 180

b. 250

c. 300

d. 400

68. Which one among the following is the correct ratio of effective length to actual length of a discontinuous angle strut, if ends are welded ?

a. 0.65

b. 0.85

c. 1.0



12 of 18d. 1.2

69. A fixed beam of length l has been loaded with central concentrated load. The beam has been strengthened at the supports with cover plates so that the flexural resisting yield moment capacity at the ends is thrice of that at the centre. If this capacity is to be fully effective resulting in higher collapse load, to what length from the ends should the cover plate extend?

a. l/3

b. l /4

c. l /6

d. l /8

70. In the case of a tension member consisting of two angles back to back on the same side of gusset plate, what is k equal to? (Area of connected leg = A1, Area of outstanding leg = A2)

a. 1

1 2

3

3

A

A A

b. 1

1 2

3

3

A

A A

c. 1

1 2

5

5

A

A A

d. 1

1 2

5

5

A

A A

71. Which one of the following is the correct maximum shear capacity of a prismatic beam under plasting design of steel structures ?

a. 0.5 AwFy

b. 0.55 AwFy

c. 0.75 AwFy

d. AwFy

(where Aw and Fy,, are web area and yield stress, respectively)

72. Characteristic strength of M20 concrete is 20 MPa. What the number of cubes having 28 days’s compressive strength greater than 20 MPa out of 100 cubes made with the concrete?

a. All

b. 95

c. 80

d. 50

73. The distance between theoretical cut—off point and actual cut—out point in respect of the curtailment of reignforcement of reignforced concrete beams should not be less than

a. Development length

b. 12 dia of bar or effective depth whichever is greater

c. 24 dia of bar or effective depth whichever is greater

d. 30 dia of bar or effective depth whichever is greater

74. The maximum strain in the tension reinforcement in the section at failure when designed for the limit state of collapse should be

a. 0.0021.15

y

s

f

E

b. 0.0021.15

y

s

f

E

c. exactly equal to 0.0021.15

y

s

f

E

d. < 0.002

Where, fy = Characteristic strength of steel,

and Es = Modulus of elasticity of steel

75. The final & reflection due to all including effects of temperature, creep and shrinkage measured from as—cast level of the supports of floors, roofs and all other horizontal members of reinforced concrete should not normally exceed

a. Span / 350

b. Span / 250

c. (Span I 350) or 20 mm whichever is less

d. (5/348) of span

76. Shear strength of concrete in a reinforced concrete beam is a function of which of the following:

1. Compressive strength of concrete

2. Percentage of shear reinforcement

3. Percentage of longitudinal reinforcement in tension in the section

4. Percentage total longitudinal reinforcement in the section



13 of 18Select the correct answer using the code given below

a. l, 2 and 4

b. l, 2 and 3

c. Only 1 and 3

d. Only 1 and 4

77. An axially loaded column is of 300 x 300 mm size. Effective length of column is 3 m. What is the minimum eccentricity of the axial load for the column?

a. 0

b. 10mm

c. 16 mm

d. 20 mm

78. A rectangular reinforced column (B x D) has been subjected to uniaxial bending moment M and axial load P. Characteristic strength of concrete = fck. Which one amone the following column design curves shows the relation between M and P qualitatively?

a.

b.

c.

d. 79. In the case of isolate square concrete

footing, match the locations at which the stress resultants are to be checked where d is effective depth of footing and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

Stress Resultant

A. Bending moment

B. One way shear

C. Punching shear

Location

1. At face of columns

2. At d/2 from face of column

3. At d from face of column

A B C

a. 1 2 3

b. 3 1 2

c. 1 1 3

d. 1 2 3

80. A beam is designed for uniformly distributed loads causing compression in the supporting columns. Where is the critical section for shear? (d is effective depth of beam the Ld is development length)

a. A distance Ld/3 from the face of the support

b. A distance d from the face of the. support

c. At the centre of the support

d. At the mid span of the beam

81. As per codal provisions in two way slabs, the minimum mild steel reinforcement to be provided in the edge strip is

a. On the basis of minimum bending moment

b. Half of the area of steel provided in middle strip in the shorter span

c. Half of the area of steel provided m middle strip in the longer span

d. 0.15 % of the cross–sectional area of concrete.

82. An R.C. structural member rectangular in, cross section of width b and depth D is subjected to a combined action of 1bendin; moment M and torsional moment T. The longitudinal reinforcement ha1l be designed for moment Me given by

a. (1 / )

1.7

T D bMe M

b. (1 / )

1.7

T b DMe M

c. (1 / )

1.7

T D bMe



14 of 18

d. (1 / )

1.7

T b DMe

83. A T—beam roof section has the following particular :

Thickness of slab = 100mm

Width of rib = 300mm

Depth of beam = 500mm

Centre to centre distance of beams

= 3.0 m

Effective span of beams = 6.0

Distance between points of contra-flexure

= 3.6 m

What is the effective flange width of the T–beam ?

a. 3000 mm

b. 1900 mm

c. 1600 mm

d. 1500 mm

84. At T—beam behaves as a rectangular beam of width equal to its flange if its neutral, axis

a. coincides with centroid of reinforcement

b. coincides with centroid of T—section

c. remains within the flange

d. remains in the web

85. The profile of the centroid of the tendon is parabolic with a central dip h. Effective prestressing force is. P and the span . What is the equivalent upward acting uniform load?

a. 8h /P

b. 8hP/ 2

c. 8h2 /P

d. 8b2 P/

86. What is the uplift at centre on release of wires from anchors due to pretensioning only for force P and eccentricity e for a pre—tensioned rectangular plank ?

a. PeL2/6EI

b. Pe2L/6EI

c. PeL2/8EI

d. Pe2/8EI

87. An ordinary mild steel bar has been prestressed to a working stress of 200 MPa. Young’s modulus of steel is 200 GPa. Permanent negative strain due to

shrinkage and creep is 0.0008. How much is the effective stress left in steel ?

a. 184 MPa

b. 160 MPa

c. 40 MPa

d. 16 MPa

88. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

Prestressing anchorage units using multiple wire cables exist in the

a. Freyssinet system

b. Lee—McCall system

c. Gifford—Udall system

d. Hoyer system

89. Match List — I with List — II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List - I (Post Tensioning System)

A. Freyssinet

B. Gifford—Udall

C. Lee—McCall

D. Magnel—Blaton

List-II

(Arrangement of Tendons in the Duct)

1. Single bars

2. Wires evenly spaced by perforated spacers

3. Horizontal rows of four wires spaced by metal grills

4. Wires spaced by helical wire core in annular spacer

A B C D

a. 4 1 2 3

b. 3 2 1 4

c. 4 2 1 3

d. 3 1 2 4

90. A pre–stressed concrete beam of cross–sectional area A, moment of inertia ‘I’, distance of top extreme fibre from neutral axis ‘yt’, and distance of bottom extreme fibre from neutral axis ‘Yb’; is subjected to pre—stressing force such that stress at top fibre is zero. What is the value of eccentricity (r is radius of gyration):

a. A/yb

b. r2/yb

c. r2/yt



15 of 18d. ryb/yt

91. Concordant cable profile is

a. A cable profile that produces no support reactions due to pre-stressing

b. A cable profile which is parabolic in nature

c. A cable profile which produces no bending moment at the supports of a beam

d. A cable profile laid corresponding to axial stress diagram

92. For a pre—stressed concrete continuous beam subject to different load combinations, which one of the following is correct for concordant cable profile?

a. It is not unique, but located in a narrow zone

b. It is unique

c. It is selected as compromise between secondary stresses and working stresses

d. It is selected based on deflection profile

93. A masonry wall has height ‘h’, length ‘L’ and thickness ‘t’. The allowable stress based on slenderness is calculated on the basis of

a. h/t only

b. L/t only

c. Lesser of L/t and h/t

d. Greater of L/t and h/t

94. The net effect of vertical and lateral forces acting on a masonry wall can be expressed as vertical load ‘p’/unit length acting at an effective eccentricity ‘e’. If e > (t/6), tension develops in the wall. Ignoring in the part of thickness ‘t’ in tension, what is the compressive stress in extreme fibre?

a. p/{(t/2)–e}

b. [2p/3 {(t/2)–e}]

c. [p/3 {(t/2)–e}]

d. [p/6 {(t/2)–e}]

95. Which one of the following is not a factor affecting strength of a brick masonry wall?

a. Size and location of door in a wall

b. Positioning of cross walls

c. Type of roof the wall bears and its connection

d. Type of plastering on the wall


A mixer designated 400 NT indicates that

1. it is non-tilting type mixer

2. its nominal mix batch capacity is 400 litres

3. it requires 300 revolutions for proper mixing of the batch using one bag of cement

which of the statements given above are correct ?

97. Transportation of concrete-mix by pumps is very convenient method, particularly in case of

a. Housing complex

b. Cement concrete pavement

c. Low rise buildings

d. Tunnel–lining

98. What is the correct sequence of operations involved in concrete production?

a. Batching–Mixing–Handling–Transportation

b. Mixing–Batching–Handling–Transportation

c. Transportation–Handling–Mixing–Batching

d. Handling–Transportation–Mixing–Batching

99. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I(Type of work)

A. To dig trenches, footings or basement where the precise control of depth is required

B. To handle loose materials such as sand, gravel, coal, etc.

C. To excavate all classes of earth except the rock & load it into the trucks

D. To excavate the earth from a canal an to be deposited on nearby banks

List–II(Type of Machine)

1. Clam shells

2. Power shovel

3. Back hoe

4. Scraper

5. Drag line

A B C D



16 of 18a. 3 5 2 1

b. 2 1 4 5

c. 3 1 2 5

d. 2 5 4 1

100. Which of the following are the advantages of crawler mounted bulldozer over wheel mounted bulldozers ?

1. Higher travel speed

2. Able to travel over very soft soil

3. Able to travel over very rough surfaces having no haul roads


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. Only 1 and 2

c. Only 1 and 3

d. Only 2 and 3

101. Consider the following statements associated with critical path :

1. Critical path is the most important sequence of activities which has no float and which determines the project completion period

2. Critical path is the largest path with shortest duration withing which the project can be completed

3. The difference between early start time and late finish time must be equal to the activity duration

Which of the statements given above arc correct?

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. Only 1 and 2

c. Only 1 and 3

d. Only 2 and 3

102. Consider the following tasks:

1. Placing of reinforcement (P) for roof slab cannot start before bending of reinforcement (B) and erection of flame work (E).

2. As soon as placing of reinforcement is finished, concreting (C) will follow.

The correct activity on arrow diagram representing for the above tasks is

a.

b.

c.

d. 103. Consider the following activities of a

housing project

1. Flooring

2. Wall—plastering

3. Conceal wiring

4. Fixing doors—window frames

5. Fixing door—window shutters

What is the correct logical sequence of the above activities?

a. 4—3—2—5—1

b. 3—1—5–4—2

c. 1—4—5—2—3

d. 1—2—3—4—5

104. Activities A and B can be started independently. Activity C follows activity A, and activity D follows activities B and C. Activity E follows activity B and precedes activity F. The activities D and F merge at the objective event. Which one of the following is the correct network of the project?

a.

b.

c.

d. 105. If ‘a’ is the optimistic–time, ‘b’ is the

pessimistic time, and ‘m’ is most likely time of activity, then what is the expected time of activity ?



17 of 18

a. 3

a m b

b. 2

5

a m b

c. 4

6

a m b

d. 3

6

a m b

106.

A small project, consists of seven activities in the activity—on—node diagram as shown in the figure above. The duration of these activities, in days and the predecessor relationships are shown. What is the total project duration of the project?

a. 39 days

b. 35 days

c. 34 days

d. 41 days

107. What is the process of incorporating changes and rescheduling or preplanning called?

a. Resource allocation

b. Resource smoothing

c. Resource 1evelling

d. Updating

108.

The activity duration (days) and resource requirements (units) are shown in the figure above. What is the maximum resource required in a day?

a. 14 units

b. 11 units

c. 19 units

d. 18 units

109. A cantilever is to be attached to column. Which one among the following is the best connection.?

a. Framed connection

b. Seated’ connection

c. Stiffened seated connection

d. End plate connection

110. Assertion (A) : The strength of brick masonry s purely dependent upon the type of mortar used.

Reason (R) : Mortar is the binding material in masonry.


b. Both A and R are’ individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A



111. Assertion (A) : Low heat Portland cement is used in dam construction.

Reason (R) : Low heat Portland cement attains higher 28 days’ strength than ordinary Portland cements.





112. Assertion (A) : Rebound hammer (Schmidt hammer) test gives only approximate estimation of strength of the concrete specimen.

Reason (R) : The test represents the hardness of the surface and provides no idea of the concrete inside.





113. Assertion (A) : In working stress method of design, the values of strain in cement concrete and steel at any point are same.



18 of 18Reason (R) : There is a perfect bond between steel and surrounding cement concrete.





114. Assertion (A) : For a ductile material the maximum shear distortion theory is most suitable.

Reason (R) : The maximum shear distortion theory of failure assumes that yielding can occur in a general three—dimensional state of stress.





115. Assertion (A) : In limit state design, over-reinforced sections are not permitted.

Reason (R) : As the Concrete failure is brittle, the structure fails suddenly without any warning.





116. Assertion (A) : The working stress method of R.C.C. design of beams is also known as modular ratio method.

Reason (R) : The ratio of stress in steel and concrete is the same as that of elastic modulii of steel and concrete in beam.





117. Assertion (A) : For low discharges at high heads, reciprocating pumps are not suitable.

Reason (R) : In a reciprocating pump, the liquid is pushed out of the cylinder by actual displacement of a piston or a plunger.





118. Assertion (A) : Deflection of a beam with bolted connections is greater than that of a beam with riveted connections.

Reason (R) : Bolted connections allow greater slip between components than riveted connections.





119. Assertion (A) : Angle of inclination of lacing bars in a built- up column is constrained as 700 > > 40°, where is angle of lacing with vertical.

Reason (R) : When this limit is not maintained, the total length of the bar will be large.





120. Assertion (A) : Smooth wheeled rollers are preferred for compacting granular soils but not cohesive soils.

Reason (R) : Cohesive soils tend to form a crust over the rolling smooth surface.







1 of 16

(PAPER–II)

1.

Which one of the following expresses the difference in the pressure at the floors of the tank shown above in the figure?

a. (2—1)gH2

b. (2—1)gH1

c. p1gH1+ p3gH2—p2gH2

d. p1gH1 + p3g(H2—H1)–p2gH2

Where 1 , 2 and 3 are the densities of the different fluids.

2. A flat plate of 0.l5m2 is pulled at 20 cm/s relative to another plate, fixed at a distance of 0.02 cn from it with a fluid having = 00014 Ns/m’ separating them. What is the power required to maintain the motion ?

a. 0.0l4 W

b. 0.021 W

c. 0.035 W

d. 0.042 W

3. Multi U-tube manometers with different fluids are used to measure

a. Low pressures

b. Medium pressures

c. High pressures

d. Very low pressures

4. A pilot-static tube, with a coefficient of 098 is used to measure the velocity of water in a pipe. The stagnation pressure recorded is 3 m and the static pressure is 0.5 m. What is the velocity of flow ?

a. 7.2 m/s

b. 6.8 m/s

c. 5.9 m/s

d. 5.2 m/s

5. Which one of the following assumptions in deriving the boundary layer equation of flow past a flat plate at zero incidence is not correct ?

a. Uniform flow = 0

b. Outside boundary layer velocity is v0 throughout

c. The boundary layer thickness is very small compared to distance x

d. Pressure remains constant throughout the flow both within and outside the boundary layer

6. Which one of the following gives the lift force FL produced on a rotating circular cylinder per unit length in a uniform flow?

a. FL = u /

b. FL = u

c. FL = u/

d. FL = u/

Where u = free stream velocity ;

= Circulation

= density of the fluid

7. Drag force on a cylinder for turbulent flow compared to Laminar flow is

a. Same

b. More

c. Less

d. Very high

8. Match List – I with list – II and select the correct answer :

List–I

A. Reynolds number

B. Froude number

C. Mach number

D. Weber number

List-II

1. Formation of liquid droplet

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2006




2 of 162. High speed flow of a gas

3. Flow in closed conduits

4. Sloping interface exists between fluids of different densities

A B C D

a. 3 4 2 1

b. 2 1 3 4

c. 3 1 2 4

d. 2 4 3 1

9. Match List–I with List — II and select the correct answer :

List-I

A. Froude number

B. Euler number

C. Reynolds number

D. Mach number

List-II

1. Related to inertia force & elastic force

2. Related to inertia force to viscous force

3. Related to inertia force to pressure force

4. Related to inertia force to gravity force

A B C D

a. 4 1 2 3

b. 2 3 4 1

c. 4 3 2 1

d. 2 1 4 3

10. Consider the following statements in respect of specific energy of flow in an open channel of fixed width :

1. There is only one specific energy curve for a given channel.

2. Alternate depth are the depths of flow at which the specific energy is the same.

3. Critical flow occurs when the specific energy is minimum.


a. Only 1 and 2

b. Only 1 and 3

c. Only 2 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3

11. If the Froude number of flow in a rectangular channel at a depth of flow of y0 is F0, then what is y/y0 equal to ?

a. 1/30F

b. 2/30F

c. 3/20F

d. 0

1

F

12. A hydraulically efficient trapezoidal section of open channel flow carries water at the optimal depth of 0.6 m. Chezy coefficient is 75 and bed slope is 1 m 250. What is the discharge through the channel?

a. 1.44 m3/s

b. 1.62 m3/s

c. 1.92 m3/s

d. 2.24 m3/s

13. In the step methods (both direct and standard), the computations must

a. Proceed downstrem in subcritical flow

b. Proceed upstream in subcritical flow

c. Always proceed upstream

d. Always start at a control section

14. Which of the following equations are used for the derivation of the differential equation for water surface profile in open channel flow?

1. Continuity Equation

2. Energy Equation

3. Momentum Equation

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. Only 1 and 3

c. Only I and 2

d. Only 2 and 3

15. In a wide rectangular channel if the normal depth is increased by 20%, then what is the approximate increase in discharge ?

a. 25%

b. 30%

c. 35%

d. 40%



3 of 1616. Which one of the following statements is

not correct ?

a. Water hammer is a phenomenon which occurs due to oscillation of water column away from the valve

b. Rigid water column theory specifies that water is incompressible and pipe material does not expand

c. Water hammer occurs under unsteady conditions of flow

d. Rigid water column theory is used less in practice as it does not reflect field situation

17. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

a. Solution of pipe network by Hardy Cross method is a trial and error solution

b. At a junction of pipes, total inflow is equal to the total outflow

c. Loss of head due to flow in a clockwise direction should be equal to loss of head in a counter clockwise direction

d. Hardy Cross method can be extended to open channel flow also

18.

Water flows into junction J from reservoirs A and B through connecting pipes, the head loss through these being, respectively 10. 2

AQ and 4. 2BQ . The water level

elevations at the reservoirs at A and B are 25.9 m and 18 m, respectively. The inflow at J is discharged out at C into the atmosphere. The head loss through pipe JC is 1. 2

CQ . The gauge pressure at J is 9 m.

What is the residual gauge pressure of the outflow at C?

a. 2.56 m

b. 1.86 m

c. 1.16 m

d. 0.46 m

19. Which one of the following inferences is not drawn by studying performances curves of centrifugal pumps ?

a. Discharge increases with speed

b. Power decreases with speed

c. Head increases with speed

d. Manometric head decreases with discharge

20. The centrifugal pump should be installed above the water level in the sump such that

a. Its height is not more than 10.3 m at room temperature of liquid

b. Its height is not allowed to exceed 6.7 m

c. The negative pressure does not reach as low as the vapour pressure

d. The negative pressure is not allowed to develop in the impeller


a. Pumps operating in series boost the discharge whereas pumps operating in parallel boost the head

b. Pumps operating in parallel boost the discharge whereas pumps operating in series boost the head

c. In both the above cases there would be a boost in discharge only

d. In both the above cases there would be a boost in head only


a. Draft tubes decrease efficiency of a turbine

b. Wheels of a reaction turbine must always run full

c. When the load on a reaction turbine is decreased, the system reduces quantity of flow of water in an immersed flow reaction turbine and reduces the power produced.

d. Pelton wheels are impulse turbine

23. Match List — I with List — II and select the correct answer

List — I

A. Pelton

B. Kaplan



4 of 16C. Banki

D. Francis

List—Il

1. Draft tube is used

2. Draft tube is not used

3. Operates under high head & low discharge

4. Operates under low head & high discharge

A B C D

a. 2 1 3 4

b. 3 4 2 1

c. 2 4 3 1

d. 3 1 2 4


a. Storage and pondage can be obtained from flow duration curve

b. Primary or form power corresponds to maximum stream flow condition

c. Secondary power is occasionally called surplus power

d. Often, flash boards are put on dams to augment the pondage at low flow durations

25. In the selection of turbine by specific speed or head, which one of the following statements is not correct ?

a. For specific speed 10—35, Kaplan turbines

b. For specific speed 60—300, Francis turbines

c. For head 50—1 50 m. Francis turbines

d. For head above 300 m, Pelton wheel

26. Recorded annual maximum 24—hour rainfall magnitudes at stations KTX are as under :

Year 1960 1961 1962 1963 1964 1965 1966 1967 1968 1969

Rainfall,12.0 6.0 4.8 7.9 12.0 14.2 13.6 6.0 3.7 2.9

cm

What is the return period, in years, for a 6.0 cm annual rainfall according to (i) Hazen formula; and (ii) Weibull formula respectively ?

a. 10/7, 11/7

b. 20/13, 22/13

c. 5/3, 11/7

d. 20/11, 11/6

27. Which one of the following is not a major type of storm precipitation?

a. Frontal storm

b. Air mass storm

c. Orographic storm

d. Continental storm

28.

A DRH due to a storm over a basin has a time base of 90 hours with straight line portions of the hydrograph with flow rates of 0, 10, 70, 90, 40 and 0 m3/s at elapsed durations of 0, 10, 20, 30, 50 and 90 hours as indicated on the above diagram, respectively. The catchment area is 300 km 2 What is the rainfall excess in the storm ?

a. 2.83 cm

b. 3.46 cm

c. 3.87 cm

d. 4.02 cm

29. Double mass curves are used

a. to check on the consistency of precipitation records

b. as basis for storm rainfall analysis

c. to determine average rainfall over an area

d. to indicate rainfall distribution

30. Penman’s equation is based on

a. Energy budgeting only

b. Energy budgeting and water budgeting

c. Energy budgeting and mass transfer

d. Water budgeting and mass transfer

31. The time of concentration at the outlet in an urban area catchment of 1.5 km2 area with a run off coefficient of 0.42 is 28 minutes. The maximum depth of rainfall with a 50 year return period for this time of concentration is 48 mm. What is the peak flow rate at the outlet for this return period ?



5 of 16a. 12 m3/s

b. 14 m3/s

c. 16 m3/s

d. 18 m3/s


List—I (Technique/Principle)

A. —Index

B. Slope—area method

C. Flow duration curve

D. Dilution technique

List—II (Purpose)

1. Dependable flow

2. Reservoir regulation

3. Steady stream discharge determination

4. Run—off volume

5. Unsteady stream discharge determination

A B C D

a. 3 5 1 4

b. 4 1 2 3

c. 3 1 2 4

d. 4 5 1 3

33. In the case of large rivers, a number of equidistant vertical sections of the total width of flow are indentified, for the purpose of finding by umerical integration, the total discharge on any day. On each section, the mean velocity is taken as the arithmetic average of two typical depths on that Section. Then the mean velocity is worked out for, that section.

Usually, the mean velocity on any section, corresponds to which one of the following?

a. 0.1 0.9

2d dV V

b. 0.2 0.8

2d dV V

c. 0.3 0.7

2d dV V

d. 0.4 0.6

2d dV V

(V represents the point velocity at the given section and the depth such as 0.ld, 0.2d etc.)


List—I

A. Location

B. Stability

C. Variation of discharge

D. Plan form

List—II

1. Perennial

2. Degrading

3. Tidal

4. Braided

A B C D

a. 4 2 1 3

b. 3 1 2 4

c. 4 1 2 3

d. 3 2 1 4

35. The basic equation of flood routing through a reservoir can be modified for discrete successive intervals t by which one of the following ?

a. 1 2 1 21 22 2 2

l l Q t Q tt S S

b. 1 2 1 21 22 2 2

l l Q t Q tt S S

c. 1 2 1 21 22 2 2

l l Q t Q tt S S

d. 1 2 1 21 22 2 2

l l Q t Q tt S S

36. By using Gumbel’s method, the flood discharge with a return period of 500 years at a particular township neighborhood was estimated as 18000 m3/s with a probable error of 2000 m3/s. What are the 95% confidence probability limits of the 500-year flood at the location ?

a. 16100 m3/s to 19900 m3/s

b. 17050 m3/s to 18950 m3/s

c. 14080 m3/s to 21920 m3/s

d. 13600 m3/s to 22400 m3/s



6 of 1637. Which type of fall can be generally used

for a moderate discharge of 40—60 cumecs and low fall heights of I to 1.5 m?

a. Vertical drop fall

b. Ogee fall

c. Glacis fall

d. Baffle fall

38. If the sensitivity of an irrigation module is 0.5, then what per cent variation in outlet discharge will be caused by 50 percent variation in canal water depth ?

a. 100%

b. 50%

c. 25%

d. 12.5%

39. A 252 km2 catchment area has a 6 hr U.II. which is a triangle with time base of 35 hours. What is the peak discharge of the DRI-I due to 5 cm effective rainfall in 6 hours from that catchment ?

a. 45 cumecs

b. 115 cumecs

c. 200 cumecs

d. 256 cumecs

40. In a river carrying a discharge of 142 m 31s, the stage at a station A was 3.6 m and the water surface slope was 1 in 6000. If during a flood, the stage at A was 3.6 m and the water surface slope was 1 in 3000, what was the flood discharge (approximately)?

a. 284 m3/s

b. 200 m3/s

c. 164 m

d. 96 m

41. The moisture tension for a soil is 8 atmospheres. The soil is then at

a. Permanent wilting point

b. Field capacity

c. Optimum moisture content

d. Equivalent moisture

42. Consider the following terms relating to irrigation requirements:

1. Consumptive irrigation requirement

2. Net irrigation requirement

3. Field irrigation requirement

4. Gross irrigation requirement

For a given set up, which one of the following is the correct relation?

a. 1>2>3>4

b. 1<2<3<4

c. (1=2)<3<4

d. l<(2=3)<4

43. A drainage coefficient

a. Decides the choice of the method of the drainage

b. Decides the kind of crop that can be grown on the land

c. Is the depth of water that can be removed from the drainage area in unit time

d. Is the flow of water from the soil into the tile laterals per unit time

44. Match List — I with List — II and select the correct answer (s = bed slope, q = discharge intensity, Q = Discharge) :

List — I

A. Mean velocity in a Lacey regime channel

B. Mean velocity in a lined channel

C. Normal scour depth in an alluvial channel

D. Wilted perimeter of a Lacey regime channel

List — II

1. s1/2

2. s1/3

3. q2/3

4. q–1/3

5. Q1/2

A B C D

a. 2 5 3 1

b. 3 1 4 5

c. 2 1 3 5

d. 3 5 4 1

45. What type of cross drainage work is provided when the canal runs below the drain, with FS L of canal well below the bed of the drain?

a. Aqueduct

b. Super passage



7 of 16c. Level crossing

d. Siphon acueduct

46. What is the equivalent calcium carbonate concentration of 110 mg/l of CaCl2?

a. 50 mg/l

b. 58.5 mg/l

c. 100 mg/l

d. 117 mg/i

47. Which of the following cations impart(s) pseudo—hardness to water?

a. Calcium only

b. Magnesium only

c. Calcium and magnesium

d. Sodium

48. Which one of the following is thç range of ozonosphere in atmosphere ?

a. Troposphere to Stratosphere

b. Tropospause to Stratospause

c. Tropospause to Mesosphere

d. Stratosphere to Mesosphere -


List—I (Equipment)

A. Tintometer

B. Nephelometer

C. Imhoff cone

D. Muffle furnace

List—II (Parameter)

1. Temperature

2. Colour

3. Turbidity

4. Settleable solids

5. Volatile solids

A B C D

a. 4 3 1 5

b. 2 5 4 3

c. 4 5 1 3

d. 2 3 4 5

50. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

a. Corioilis : The effect of earth’s rotation on wind effect direction and velocity

b. PAN : Found during photo—chemical smog

c. Cyclone : Employed for particulate matter removal

d. Wind rose : Employed in forecast of pollutant dispersion in ambient air

51. A standard multiple—tube fermentation test was conducted on a sample of water. The results of the analysis for the confirmed test are given below :

Sample Size (ml)

No. of positive results out of 5

tubes

No. of negative results out of 5

tubes

10

1

0.1

0.01

4

2

1

0

1

3

4

5

MPN Index for combination of positive results when 5 tubes used per dilutions (10 m, 1.0ml,

0.1 ml)

Combination of positives

MPN Index

per 100 ml

Combination of positives

MPN Index

per 100 ml

5–4–3 280 4–2–1 26

4–3–1 33 2–1–0 7

Using the above MPN Index table, what is the most probable number (MPN) of the sample ?

a. 280

b. 33

c. 26

d. 70

52. Chlorides from water are removed by

a. Lime soda process

b. Reverse osmosis

c. Cation exchange process

d. Chemical coagulation

53. Chlorination with Cl2 produces hypochlorous acid (HOCl), which may further dissociate as hypochiorite ion (OCI–) depending upon pH of the water. The reaction is represented as

HOCI H + OC1– (k = 2.5 x 10–8 moles/I at 20°C).



8 of 16What is the fraction of HOCI in the water at pH 7.0 ?

a. 0.95

b. 0.80

c. 0.20

d. 0.05

54. In which treatment unit is “Schmutz decke” formed?

a. Sedimentation tank

b. Rapid sand filter

c. Coagulation tank

d. Slow sand filter

55. Which one of the following chemicals is employed for decholrination of water?

a. Sodium solphite

b. Sodium bicarbonate

c. Calcium carbonate

d. Hydrogen peroxide

56. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of slow sand filter (SSF), rapid sand filter (RSF), dual media filter (DMF) and mixed media filter (MMF) in the decreasing order of their filtration rates ?

a. MMF DMF> RSF> SSF

b. DMF> RSF> SSF > MMF

c. RSF> SSF > MMF DMF

d. SSF> MMF DMF> RSF

57. After which of the following water treatment units, the turbidity is maximum ?

a. Chlorination

b. Primary sedimentation

c. Flocculation basin

d. Secondary sedimentation

58. In context of water polluted, with sewage, what does BOD signify ?

a. Biological oxygen demand

b. Bacteriological oxygen demand

c. Biochemical oxygen demand

d. Biology of degradation

59. What is the most common cause of acidity in water ?

a. Carbon monoxide

b. Nitrogen

c. Hydrogen

d. Carbon dioxide

60. If total hardness & alkalinity of a water sample are 200 mg/l as CaCO3 and 260 mg/l as CaCO3 respectively, what are the values of carbonate hardness and non-carboness hardness?

a. 200 mg/l and zero

b. Zero and 60 mg/l

c. Zero and 200 mg/l

d. 60 mg/l and zero

61. Match List — I with List — II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List — I (Process/Bacteria)

A. Anabolism

B. Autotrophs

C. Catabolism

D. Heterotrophs

List — II (Energy/Material)

1. Providing energy for the synthesis of new cells and maintenance of other cell functions

2. Obtaining energy and material for growth from organic sources

3. Providing the material necessary for cell growth

4. Obtaining energy and material for growth from inorganic sources

A B C D

a. 1 4 3 2

b. 3 2 1 4

c. 1 2 3 4

d. 3 4 1 2

62. Consider the following clay minerals

1. Kaolinite

2. Illite

3. Montmorillonite

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the minerals given above in the increasing order of their grain size?

a. 3—2—1

b. 1—3—2

c. 1—2—3

d. 3—1—2




9 of 161. Mica is a clay mineral

2. Rock dust particles, even of clay size are non—plastic

3. A particle of Kaolinite is electrically charged


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. Only 1 and 2

c. Only 2 and 3

d. Only 1 and 3

64. Which one of the following relation gives the value of degree of saturation s, in terms of unit weight , water content w (as ratio) and specific gravity of soil solids Gs, w is unit weight of water?

a. s = / 1 1/w s

w

w G

b. s = / 1 1/w s

w

w G

c. s = / 1 1/w s

w

w G

d. s = / 1 1/w s

w

w G


List–I

A. Smooth wheel rollers

B. Sheep foot rollers

C. Pneumatic tyred rollers

D. Rammers

List-II

1. Most suitable for compacting cohesive soils

2. Most suited for compacting coarse grained soils

3. Used for compacting soils in confined places

4. Suitable for both cohesionless & cohesive soils

A B C D

a. 4 3 2 1

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 4 1 2 3

d. 2 3 4 1


List - I (Type of Soil)

A. Wet clays and silts

B. Crushed rock

C. Fills soils

D. Sands

List-II (Compaction Equipment)

1. Smooth wheel rollers

2. Vibrators

3. Pneumatic tyred rollers

4. Grid rollers

A B C D

a. 4 2 3 1

b. 3 1 4 2

c. 4 1 3 2

d. 3 2 4 1

67. A soil mass under seepage has a downward flow of water. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to stresses at any point in the soil mass ?

1. Effective stress is decreased by an amount equal to the seepage force

2. Effective stress is increased by an amount equal to the seepage force

3. Total stress will change

4. Total stress will be unaltered


a. 1 and 3

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 4

d. 2 and 4

68. In a consolidation test void ratio decreased from 0.80 to 0.70 when the load was changed front 40 kN/m2 to 80 kN/m 2 What is the compression index ?

a. 0.14

b. 0.16

c. 0.33

d. 0.66



10 of 1669. In a consolidation test the sample tested

has height H; water content is w; specific gravity of solids G. After increasing the loading by an increment p, the height decrease is H Which one of the following expresses the corresponding change in void ratio e?

a. e = 1

H

H wG

b. e = 1H wG

H

c. e = 1H wG

H

d. e = 1

H

H wG


1. A sand with its void ratio higher than its critical void ratio increases in volume when sheared.

2. A sand with its void ratio less than its critical void ratio increases in volume when sheared.

3. For a sand at critical void ratio, the volume change during shear is minimum.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. Only 1 and 2

c. Only 2 and 3

d. Only 1 and 3

71. Consider the following statements about the shearing resistance as a function of effective stress

1. Effective stress on the failure plane governs the shearing resistance and not the total stress.

2. Two soils equally dense, consolidated to same effective stress will show different shear resistance with drainage and undrained condition.

3. The post peak drop off in shearing resistance is less pronounced in over consolidated clays and more in normally consolidated clays at same effective stress.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. Only 1 and 3

c. Only 1 and 2

d. Only 2 and 3


1. Stress path is a locus of stress points developed by stress changes in the soil and can be obtained from Mohr’s Stress Circle.

2. Stress path can be used to determine the intensity of stress at a point due to the application of uniformly applied circular loaded area.

3. Stress path has a value in giving insight into probable soil response - particularly if a part of the previous history stress path can be reproduced.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. Only 1 and 2

c. Only 2 and 3

d. Only 1 and 3

73. A point load of 650 kN is applied on the surface of a thick layer of clay. Using Boussinesq’s elastic analysis, what is approximate value of the estimated vertical stress at a depth 2 m and a radial distance of 1.0 m from the point of application of load?

a. 55 kN/m2

b. 44 kN/m2

c. 41 kN/m2

d. 37 kN/m2

74. In a braced vertical excavation of 5 m height and 250 m width in a cohesive soil having undrained cohesion equal to 20 kN/m2 and bulk unit weight of 20 kN/m3 , what is the factor of safety against heave failure at its base ?

a. 1.0

b. 1.20

c. 1.40

d. 2.0



11 of 1675. During a sampling operation, the drive

sampler is advanced 600 mm and the length of the sample recovered is 525 mm. What is the recovery ratio of the sample?

a. 0.125

b. 0.140

c. 0.875

d. 0.143

76. A sampling tube with a cutting edge is used for extracting the samples. The sampling tube has the following dimensions:

Inner diameter of cutting edge = Dc. Outer diameter of cutting edge = Dw. Inner diameter of the sampling tube = Ds. Outer diameter of the sampling tube = Dt,.

What is the area ratio A, of the sampling tube?

a. 2 2

2100%w c

rc

D DA

D

b. 2 2

2100%t c

rc

D DA

D

c. 2 2

2100%t w

rw

D DA

D

d. 2 2

2100%t s

rs

D DA

D

77. Match List — I with List — II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists

List-I (Type of Foundations)

A. Spread footings

B. Underreamed piles

C. Raft foundation

D. Deep foundation

List-II (Suitability)

1. Soft clay for 20 m followed by hard rock stratum

2. Upto 3 m black cotton soil followed by medium dense sand

3. Compact sand deposit extending to great depth

4. Loose sand extending to great depth

A B C D

a. 4 1 3 2

b. 3 2 4 1

c. 4 2 3 1

d. 3 1 4 2


1. The proportioning of a footing is more often governed by its bearing capacity.

2. Friction piles are also called ‘floating piles.


a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

79. A test plate 30 cm square, settles by l2 m under a load of 4.5 kN in a sandy soil. By how much will a footing 2m x 2m subjected to a load of 200 kN settle by ?

a. 36.3 mm

b. 20.87 mm

c. 75.75 mm

d. 1815 mm


1. Initial load tests and routine tests are carried out on test piles and working piles, respectively.

2. A cyclic load test is performed to determine a pile’s skin resistance and base resistance separately.

3. In a pile load test, the safe load is taken as half the final load at which the settlement equals 10% of pile diameter.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. Only 1 and 2

c. Only 2 and 3

d. Only 1 and 3

81. Which one of the following verniers is employed in Abney Level?

a. Retrograde vernier

b. Double vernier

c. Double folded vernier

d. Extended vernier

82. What is the angle between two plane mirrors of an optical square ?



12 of 16a. 300

b. 600

c. 450

d. 900

83. Which of the following figures are equal to one acre?

1. 43560 sq. ft.

2. 40 gunthas

3. 10 sq. Gunter’s chain

4. 4850 sq. yds.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 4

d. 1, 3 and 4

84. What is the slope correction for a length of 30.0 m along gradient of 1 in 20?

a. 3.75 cm

b. 0.375 cm

c. 37.5 cm

d. 0.0375 cm

85.

The magnetic bearing of a line AB is S 30° E. If the declination is 6° West, then what is the true bearing ?

a. S 36°E

b. N 36°W

c. S 24° E

d. N 24° W

86. A 30 m metric chain is found to be 10 cm too short throughout a measurement. If the distance measured is recorded as 300 m, what is the actual distance ?

a. 300.1 m

b. 301.0 m

c. 299.0 m

d. 310.0 m

87. Diurnal variation is greater

a. In winter than in summer

b. At smaller latitudes than at higher latitudes

c. At magnetic equator points

d. In summer than in winter

88. What is the angle of intersection of a contour and a ridge line?

a. 30°

b. 0°

c. 180°

d. 90°


List-I

A. Adjustment of surveying instruments

B. Bowditch rule

C. Triangulation

D. Bessel’s method

List-II

1. Bringing the various fixed parts of the instruments into proper relations with one another

2. Solution of three point problem

3. Measuring all the angles and base line

4. Balancing the latitudes and departures

A B C D

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 3 4 1 2

c. 1 4 3 2

d. 3 2 1 4

90. A level when set up 25 m from peg A and 50 m from peg B reads 2.847 m on staff held on A and 3.462 m on staff held on B, keeping bubble at its centre while reading. If the reduced levels of A and B are 283.665 m and 284.295 m respectively, what is the collimation error per 100.0 m?

a. 0.0l5m

b. 0.30m

c. 0.045m

d. 0.060m

91. For air borne application and materialization of GPS receiver and easy construction, which is the most frequently used antenna ?



13 of 16a. Microstrip

b. Micropole

c. Spiral helix

d. Choke ring

92. What is the minimum length of a transition curve for a design speed of 80 kmph in a horizontal curve of 240 m radius?

a. 32 m

b. 42 m

c. 52 m

d. 72 m

93. A runway is located 450 m above the mean sea level. If the aeroplane reference field is 1800 m, what is the approximate corrected runway length for elevation ?

a. 1849 m

b. 1889 m

c. 1987 m

d. 2013 m


List-I (Type of Binder)

A. 80/100 Penetration grade bitumen

B. 85/25 Blownbitumen

C. MC—70 Cutback

D. RT-5 Road tar

List-II (Use)

1. Mastic—assphalt

2. Bituminous roads

3. Grouting works

4. Prime-coat

A B C D

a. 3 4 1 2

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 3 1 4 2

d. 2 4 1 3

95. What are the standards for testing of road macadam in Aggregate Impact Test ?

a. 14 kg wt, 38 cm drop, 15 blows

b. 14 kg wt, 35 cm drop, 20 blows

c. 18 kg wt, 35 cm drop, 15 blows

d. 18 kg wt, 30 cm drop, 20 blows

96. Which one of the following is the set of physical requirements of coarse aggregates for construction of WBM roads as per IRC recommendation?

LAV(%) AIV(%) Fl (%)

a. <50 <40 <15

b. <50 <30 <15

c. <40 <30 <20

d. <40 <30 <15

97. On a road the free speed was 65 kmph and the space headway at jam density was 625 m. What is the maximum flow which could be expected on this road?

a. 2600 vph

b. 1625 vph

c. 1300 vph

d. 406 vph

98. A mucking operation is to be carried out by hauling trucks of 6 m3 capacity. Further,

1. Volume of muck per blast = 60 m3

2. Time allotted for mucking is 60 minutes with operating efficiency = 50 minute per hour.

3. Effective cycle time of hauling truck 25 mm.

What is the number of hauling trucks required for mucking?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6


List-I (Signal)

A. Outer signal

B. Starter signal

C. Repeater signal

D. Disc signal

List-Il (Function)

1. Departure signal

2. Reception signal

3. Shunting signal

4. Coacting signal



14 of 16 A B C D

a. 4 1 2 3

b. 2 3 4 1

c. 4 3 2 1

d. 2 1 4 3

100. What is the value of the steepest gradient to be provided on a 2 degree curve for B.G. line having ruling gradient of 1 in 200?

a. 1 in 238 (b)

b. 1 in.227

c. 1 in 202

d. 1 in 198

101. The ruling gradient on B.G. section of railway is 1 in 150 and a 4° curve is also there on it. What is the allowable ruling gradient?

a. 1 in 146

b. 1 in 154

c. 1 in 196

d. 1 in 232

102. For design of a runway length, match List—I with List—II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List- I (Factor)

A. Standard basic length

B. Elevation

C. Temperature

D. Effective gradient

List - II (Correction)

1. 7% for every 303 metres

2. 0.5%

3. 20% for each 1% gradient

4. Depends upon aircraft and obtained from ICAO Standard Tables

A B C D

a. 4 1 2 3

b. 2 3 4 1

c. 4 3 2 1

d. 2 1 4 3

103. If Mi = Proportion of ith type of aircraft in the mix, Ti = “Gate occupancy time” of the ith type of aircraft. G = Number of gates

(considering that all the available gates can be used by all aircrafts).

Which one of the following equations gives the ultimate gate capacity C?

a. 1

1

n

ii

n

ii

G MC

T

b.

1

60n

i ii

GC

M T

c. 1

ni

ii

MC T

G

d.

1

n

i ii

GC

M T

104. The total correction percentage for altitude and temperature, in calculating the runway length from basic runway length, normally does not exceed

a. 7

b. 14

c. 28

d. 35

105. The present population of a community is 28000 with an average water demand of 150 lpcd. The existing water treatment plant has a design capacity of 6000 m3/d. It is expected that the population will increase to 48000 during the next 20 years. What is the number of years from now when the plant will reach its design capacity assuming an arithmetic rate of population growth ?

a. 86 years

b. 120 years

c. 150 years

d. 165 years

106. Which one of the following diagrams illustrates the relationship between flow value (FV) and percentage bitumen (% BIT)?

a.



15 of 16

b.

c.

d. 107. Match List — I with List —II and select

the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List – I (Method of Design for Flexible Pavement)

A. Group Index Method

B. CBR Method

C. US Navy Method

D. Asphalt Institute Method

List – II (Principle)

1. Semi—theoretical

2. Quasi—rational

3. Empirical method using soil classification test

4. Empirical method using soil strength test

A B C D

a. 3 1 4 2

b. 2 4 1 3

c. 3 4 1 2

d. 2 1 4 3

108. What ratio do the versines of a circular curve when measured at the quarter point of a full chord and, when measured at the same point on half chord bear?

a. 100 : 1

b. 60 : 1

c. 3 : 1

d. 1 : 1

109. The design speed of a highway is 80 km/hr and the radius of circular curve is 150 m in plain topography. Which one of the following is the minimum length of transition curve?

a. 115 m

b. 85 m

c. 65 m

d. 43 m

110. A rising gradient of 1 in 50 meets a falling gradient of 1 in 30. Which one of the following is the length of vertical curve if the stopping sight distance is 120 m ?

a. 174 m

b. 158 m

c. 140 m

d. 120 m

111. A 4–hour unit hydrograph of a basin can be approximated as a triangle with a base period of 48 hours and peak ordinate of 300m3/s. What is the area of the catchment basin ?

a. 7776 km2

b. 5184 km2

c. 2592 km2

d. 1294 km2

112. Hardness to water is caused by the presence of calcium (Ca+2) and magnesium (Mg+2) ions. Which are the least soluble forms of calcium and magnesium at normal water temperature?

a. CaCl2 and MgCO3

b. Ca(HCO3)2 and MgCl2

c. Ca(OH)2 and Mg(HCO3)2

d. CaCO3 and Mg(OH)2

113. Assertion (A) : Boundary layer theory is applicable only in the vicinity of the leading edge of the plate.

Reason (R) : Boundary layer theory is based on the assumption that its thickness is small when compared to other linear dimensions.






16 of 16d. A is false but R is true

114. Assertion (A) : It takes longer to drain a reservoir with a long vertical pipe taken down from its bottom discharging into atmosphere than with an orifice at the bottom.

Reason (R) : The relative height of the water surface elevation in the reservoir compensates for the friction loss in the pipe besides the entry and exit losses in the pipe.





115. Assertion (A) : The unit hydrograph cannot be applied for areas less than 5000 sq. km.

Reason (R) The run—off hydrograph reflects the physiographic factors of a catchment.





116. Assertion (A) : The USBR type 11 stilling basin length requirement is less than that in type III basin for similar design conditions.

Reason (R) : Energy dissipation is primarily accomplished by hydraulic jump in USBR type II stilling basin.





117. Assertion (A) : Flocculating particles settle in curved path in a long rectangular sedimentation tank designed for a constant flow rate.

Reason (R) : The downward settling velocities of particles as well as their

respective horizontal velocities remain constant during their stay in the tank.





118. Assertion (A) : Large weir overflow rates will result in excessive velocities at the outlet of. A settling basin.

Reason (R) : These excessive velocities will extend backward into the settling zone, causing particles and floes which would otherwise be removed as sludge to be drawn into the outlet.





119. Assertion (A) : The state of earth pressure at rest is the state of equilibrium with zero strain condition.

Reason (R) : In rest condition neither the wall nor the soil moves.





120. Assertion (A) : The super elevation provided on a curve of a railway track is less than the equilibrium cant.

Reason (R) : Subject to a maximum value depending on speed and gauge, cant deficiency is allowed and therefore actual cant provided is less than the equilibrium cant.







1 of 15

(PAPER–I)

1.

What is the most appropriate method for analysis of a skeletal plane frame shown in the figure above?

a. Slope - deflection method

b. Strain energy method

c. Moment distribution method

d. None of the above

2. A fixed beam AB of span l carries a uniformly distributed load w/unit length. During loading, the support B sinks

downwards by an amount . If = 4

72

wl

EI,

what is the fixing moment at B?

a. 2

12

wl

b. 2

6

wl

c. 2

6EI

l

d. Zero

3. What does the Williot - Mohr diagram yield?

a. Forces in members of a truss

b. Moments in a fixed beam

c. Reactions at the supports

d. Joint displacement of a pinjointed plane frame

4. Two shafts, one of solid section and the other of hollow section, of same material and weight having same length are

subjected to equal torsional force. What is the torsional stiffness of hollow shaft?

a. Equal to that of the solid shaft

b. Less than that of the solid shaft

c. More than that of the solid shaft

d. Exactly half of that of the solid shaft

5. What is the inclination of resultant reactions at A with the vertical for the frame shown in the above figure?

a. 600

b. 400

c. 30°

d. 50°

6. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Load Case)

A. Slope for tip load of W

B. Deflection for tip load of W

C. Slope for total UDL of W

D. Deflection for total UDL of W

(Flexural rigidity = El)

List-II (Expression for Slope/Deflection)

1. WL3 / 8E1

2. WL2 / 6E1

3. WL3 / 3E1

4. WL2 / 2E1

A B C D

a. 4 2 3 1

b. 1 3 2 4

c. 4 3 2 1

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2007




2 of 15d. 1 2 3 4

7.

What is the magnitude of the force in the member BD in the figure given above?

a. 5 kN

b. 7 kN(App)

c. 4 2 kN

d. Zero

8. A cantilever beam of T cross -section carries uniformly distributed load. Where does the maximum magnitude of the bending stress occur ?

a. At the top of cross - section

b. At the junction of flange and web

c. At the mid- depth point

d. At the bottom of the section

9.

What is the vertical deflection of joint C of the frame shown above?

a. PL/AE

b. 2PL/AE

c. PL / 2AE

d. 3PL / AE

10.

What are the magnitudes of horizontal and vertical support reactions, respectively at support A of the frame shown above ?

a. 16 kN, 18 kN

b. 16 kN, 6 kN

c. 6kN,l6kN

d. 8kN,6kN

11.

A circular shaft of diameter 30 mm having shear modulus G = 80 GPa is subjected to moment as shown above.

What is the maximum shear stress developed at periphery of shaft at A?

a. 20.6 MPa

b. 15.3 MPa

c. 7.4 MPa

d. Zero

12. A close - coiled helical spring with n coils, mean radius R and diameter d is subjected to an axial load W. What is the compression in the spring?

a. 3

3

64WR n

Cd

b. 3

4

64WR n

Cd

c. 3

3

32WR n

Cd

d. 3

4

32WR n

Cd


1. In a beam, the maximum shear stress occurs at the neutral axis of the beam cross - section.

2. The maximum shear stress in a beam of circular cross - section is 50% more than the average shear stress.

3. The maximum shear stress in a beam of triangular cross-section, with its vertex upwards occurs at b/6 above the neutral axis.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only



3 of 15d. 1 and 3 only

14. Length of plastic hinge of a beam depends on which of the following?

1. Span of the beam

2. Type of loading

3. Shape of cross - section

4. Yield strength of steel


a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

b. 1, 2 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1 and 4 only

15.

If a uniform beam shown in the figure above has the plastic moment capacity Mp for span AB and 0.9 Mp for span BC, what is the correct virtual work equation?

a. 2θ

θ θ .2θ3p pM M W

b. 2θ

θ θ 0.9 .2θ3p p pM M M W

c. 2θ

θ 0.9 θ .2θ3p pM M W

d. 2θ 2θ

θ 0.9 θ .2θ3 3p pM M W

16.

Collapse moment for the frame shown above has been worked out as Mp = Wl/5.

What is the horizontal reaction at A at collapse conditions

a. 0

b. 0.1 W

c. 0.2 W

d. 0.4 W

17. Consider the following statements in respect of gantry girders:

1. Gantry girders are designed for 23% extra load of crane capacity for impact.

2. Maximum deflection for dead and imposed loads without impact is limited to span / 500


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

18. Diagonal member of a roof truss of length I has been designed with tube of 100 mm mean diameter and 3 ruin thick. The force in the member is tensile due to dead and live loads, and compressive due to occasional winds. What is the maximum permissible effective length of the member?

a. 63m

b. 875m

c. 1225m

d. 140m

19. At what value (nearly) is the maximum spacing of purlins for standard asbestos roofing sheets kept ?

a. 1.0 m

b. 1.4 m

c. 1.8 m

d. 2.0 m

20. Horizontal stiffeners are needed in plate girders if the thickness of web is

a. < 6 mm

b. < d/200

c. <L / 500

d. nearly equal to flange thickness



4 of 15where d distance between the flanges and L = span

21. Consider the following statements pertaining to intermediate stiffeners

1. Stiffeners are provided to exclusively bear concentrated loads.

2. Stiffeners should bear tightly against top and bottom flanges.

3. Maximum spacing of stiffeners is restricted 180t, where t is the thickness of web.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 3 only

d. 2 only

22. A symmetrical plate girder has been fabricated with three equal plates. If a circular hole of diameter equal to half of its height is centrally cut in the web, what is the approximate ratio of the strength of this punctured girder to that of the original girder?

a. 93%

b. 85%

c. 75%

d. 56%

23. For a pair of identical steel channel sections, tack - welded as a tension element, what is the net area of cross - section for design purposes ?

a. Net area of the webs only

b. Net area of the flanges only

c. Net area of the webs and flanges

d. Web area plus a portion of the area of the flanges

24. The portal bracing is designed for which of the following?

a. Wind forces only

b. Wind force + 11

4 % of the

compression force in two end posts

c. Wind force + 25% of the compression force in two end posts

d. Lateral shear + 25% of the compression force in two end posts

25. Why are intermediate vertical stiffeners provided in plate girders?

a. To eliminate web buckling

b. To eliminate local buckling

c. To transfer concentrated loads

d. To prevent excessive deflection

26.

Four bolts share the load P as shown in the figure above. The shear strength of bolt is 30 kN and tension strength of bolt is 40 kN.

Which one of the following is the value of P?

a. 96 kN

b. 105 kN

c. 117 kN

d. 134 kN

27. What is the ratio of the permissible bearing stress in power -driven shop rivets relative to the yield stress of mild steel?

a. 1.0

b. 0.8

c. 0.6

d. 0.4

28. A reduction in the allowable stress in steel chimney construction is necessary if the temperature exceeds

a. 75°C

b. 100°C

c. 200 °C

d. 300 °C

29. A compound column had been fabricated with 4 angles of ISA 50 50 6 placed at corners of a square 300 mm 300 mm. The radius of gyration of the angle is 10 mm. For the fabricated column, the overall slenderness ratio is 40. What is the



5 of 15maximum distance between lacing bar attachments at the fabricated columns ?

a. 500 mm

b. 400 mm

c. 300mm

d. 280 mm

30. In the case of a continuous RC beam, in order to obtain the maximum positive span moment, where should the live load be placed?

a. On all the spans

b. On alternate spans starting from the left

c. On spans adjacent to the spans under consideration

d. On the span plus alternate spans

31. What is the allowable upward deflection in a prestress concrete member under serviceability limit state condition ?

a. Span/250

b. Span/300

c. Spacn/350

d. Span/500

32. Which one of the following predicts the effective modulus of elasticity of concrete.

a. 1

cE

b. 1 2

cE

c. 1 3

cE

d. 1 5

cE

where Ec is short-term elastic modulus and is the ultimate creep coefficient

33. What is the limiting principle tensile stress in prestress uncracked concrete member of M 25 grade?

a. 1 MPa

b. 1.5 MPa

c. 2 MPa

d. 2.5 MPa

34. What is the minimum nominal percentage longitudinal reinforcement to be provided

in a concrete pedestal as per relevant IS code ?

a. 0.4

b. 0.2

c. 0.15

d. 0.1

35. Which one of the following is the correct expression to estimate the development length of deformed reinforcing bar as per IS code in limit state design?

a. 4.5

s

bd

b. 5

s

bd

c. 6.4

s

bd

d. 8

s

bd

where is diameter of reinforcing bar, s is the stress in the bar at a section and bd is bond stress

36. The cover of longitudinal reinforcing bar in a beam subjected to sea spray should not be less than which one of the following?

a. 30 mm

b. 70 mm

c. 75 mm

d. 80 mm

37. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the material efficiency of RCC flexural elements in rectangular beam, T-beam and two-way slab?

a. All the three sections are equally efficient

b. T-beam section is most uneconomical

c. Two-way slab is most economical

d. The efficiency of rectangular section lies between that of T-beam and two-way slab sections

38. Which one of the following is correct working stress method of design for reinforced concrete is

a. not a limit state design



6 of 15b. a serviceability limit state design

c. a Limit state for crack width

d. a collapse limit state

39. At the time of initial tensioning, the maximum tensile stress immediately behind the anchorage should not exceed which one of the following?

a. 0.50 ultimate tensile stress

b. 0.60 ultimate tensile stress

c. 0.70 ultimate tensile stress

d. 0.80 ultimate tensile stress

40. Which one of the following is correct for horizontal spacing between the group of prestressing cables as per IS code ?

a. Greater of, 40 mm and 5 mm plus maximum size of coarse aggregate

b. Greater o1 40 mm and -5 mm plus maximum size of coarse aggregate

c. 50mm

d. 25mm

41. High strength steel used in prestressed concrete can take how much maximum strain?

a. 2%

b. 3 %

c. 4%

d. 6%

42. In pretensional beams, which of the following losses is/are not considered ?

1. Anchor loss

2. Shrinkage

3. Creep

4. Relaxation

5. Friction

6. Elastic shortening


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 4, 5 and 6 only

c. 5 only

d. 6 only

43. Prestressing force in a wire under thermal stressing can be estimated from which of the following?

1. Pressure gauge with jack

2. Elongation of wire

3. Temperature rise


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 2 only

44. Consider the following statements Modulus of elasticity of concrete is

1. tangent modulus

2. secant modulus

3. proportional to ckf

4. proportional to 1/ ckf


a. 1 and 3 only

b. 1 and 4 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 2 and 4 only

45. Which one of the following is employed to determine strength of hardened existing concrete structure ?

a. Bullet test

b. Kelly ball test

c. Rebound hammer test

d. Cone penetrometer

46. Which one of the following is the correct expression for the target mean strength ft of concrete mix ?

a. ft = kfck + S

b. ft = fck + KS

c. ft = fck + S

d. ft = kfck + S

Where fck is characteristic strength, K is probability factor and S is standard deviation



7 of 1547. What is the correct sequence of the

following metals in the decreasing order of their Poission’s ratio ?

1. Aluminium

2. Cast iron

3. Steel


a. 1-2-3

b. 2-1-3

c. 1-3-2

d. 3-1-2

48. A steel rod, 100 mm long is held between two rigid supports. It is heated by 20 °C. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of the material of the rod is 15 10–6/°C and modulus of elasticity is 200 103 MN/m2, what is the stress in the rod?

a. 20 MN/m2

b. 40 MN/m2

c. 60 MN/m2

d. 80 MN/m2

49.

An element is subjected to stress as given above

For this state of stress, what is the maximum shear stress ?

a. 2.5 MPa

b. 5 MPa

c. 10 MPa

d. 15 MPa

50. If modulus of elasticity of a material is 189.8 GN/m2 and its Poissons ratio is 0.30, what is the approximate value of shear modulus of the material?

a. 73 GN/m2

b. 93.3 GN/m2

c. 103.9 GN/m2

d. 123.3 GN/m2

51. A 20 cm long rod of uniform rectangular section, 8 mm wide 1.2 mm thick is bent into the form of a circular arc resulting in a central displacement of 0.8 cm. Neglecting second – order quantities in computations, what is the longitudinal surface strain (approximate) in the rod?

a. 7.2 10–4

b. 8.4 10–4

c. 9.6 10–4

d. 10.8 10–4

52. Mohr’s stress circle helps in determining which of the following ?

1. Normal stresses on one plane

2. Normal and tangential stresses on two planes

3. Principal stresses in all Three directions

4. Inclination of principal planes


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 and 4 only

d. 2 and 4 only


Mohr’s strain circle can be drawn

1. for plane stress conditions

2. if strains in three directions are known

3. if strains on two mutually perpendicular planes are known


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1 and 3 only

54. What is the angle between principal strain axis and maximum shear strain axis?

a. 00

b. 300

c. 450

d. 900



8 of 1555. In a strained material, the principal stresses

in the x and y directions are 100 N/mm2 (tensile) and 60 N/mm2 (compressive). On an inclined plane, the normal to which makes an angle 30° to the x- axis, what is the tangential stress in N/mm2?

a. 30 3

b. 40 3

c. 60

d. 40

56. For a masonry dam of base width b, at which location w.r.t. the central line, should the resultant loading intersect the sections. to avoid tension in any horizontal section ?

a. Outside of b /6

b. Within b /6

c. Within b / 8

d. At the central line

57. According to maximum shear stress criterion, at what ratio of maximum shear stress to yield stress of material, does the yielding of material take place ?

a. 2

b. 2 3

c. 1/ 3

d. 1/2

58. At what value of the ultimate shear strength, shall the material under the action of uniform axial tension fail due to shear?

a. <0.5 times the ultimate tensile strength

b. <0.7 times the ultimate tensile strength

c. = ultimate tensile strength

d. > the ultimate tensile strength

59.

At what distance from left support of the above beam, is the shear force zero?

a. 1 m

b. 1.25 m

c. 1.5 m

d. 2.5 m

60.

For the simply supported beam in the figure above, C is the centre of the span. C is also the point through which the resultant of the column load W passes. The column rests on the beam over a small length symmetrically on either side of C. What is the shearing force at C ?

a. W/2

b. W14

c. W

d. 0

61. The depreciation charges for a machine are thirty paise per working hour. The machine has a scrap value of Rs 2,000 and a working hour average life of 24000 hours. What is the purchase price of the machine ?

a. Rs 1,800

b. Rs 7,200

c. Rs 9,200

d. Rs 14,275

62. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I

A. Agitator truck

B. Needle vibrator

C. Concrete pump

D. Tremie pipe

List-II

1. Placing of concrete

2. Underwater concreting

3. Compaction of concrete

4. Ready mixed concrete transport

A B C D



9 of 15a. 1 3 4 2

b. 4 2 1 3

c. 1 2 4 3

d. 4 3 1 2

63.

The performance of a centrifugal pump [H and P vs. Q] is typically shown in the figure with four curves numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. which one of the following is correct?

a. 1 and 2 refer to P, with P along 1 referring to greater speed than P along 2

b. 1 and 2 refer to H, with H along 1 referring to greater speed than H along 2

c. 3 and 4 refer to P. with P along 3 referring to lesser speed than P along 4

d. 3 and 4 refer to H, with H along 3 referring to greater speed than H along 4

64. Consider the following types of bridges

1. Arch bridge

2. Double cantilever bridge

3. Suspension bridge 4. Truss bridge

What is the correct sequence in the ascending order of the span ranges generally adopted for the bridges given above ?

a. 2-4-l-3

b. 1-3-2-4

c. 2-3-l-4

d. 1-4-2-3

65. As the span of a bridge increases, how does the impact factor vary?

a. It decreases

b. It increases

c. It remains constant

d. It increases up to a critical value of span and then decreases

66. The optimistic, most likely and pessimistic time estimates of an activity are 5, 10 and 21 days respectively. What are the expected time and standard deviation?

a. 12, 3

b. 11,4

c. 11,267

d. 10, 16

67. What is the time by which the completion of an activity can be delayed without affecting the start of succeeding activities, called?

a. Total float

b. Interfering float

c. Independent float

d. Free float

68. Duration along the critical path defines which of the following?

1. Shortest duration needed

2. Shortest duration permissible

3. Longest duration needed

4. Longest duration permissible


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 4 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 3 and 4 only.


1. Setting and hardening of cement takes place after the addition of water.

2. Water causes hydration and hydrolysis of the constituent compounds of cement which act as binders


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

70. Assertion (A) : Wooden window shutters should be fitted, leaving proper tolerances for dimensional changes.



10 of 15Reason (R) : Timber sections change in volume with change in seasons.

a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.



71. Assertion (A) : Time - cost studies have to be firmed up before the EOQ and ABC analyses can be undertaken

Reason (R) : Time-cost studies can be premised on no bottlenecks or shortages in materials procurement.





72. Assertion (A) : Critical path can pass through dummy arrows also.

Reason (R) : Necessary additional nodes are introduced to ensure uniqueness of i-j notation for activities.





73. Assertion (A) Slenderness ratio of tension members is restricted to 250.

Reason (R) : Slenderness ratio for tension members is a stiffness criterion associated with self - weight.





74. Assertion (A) Even though vibration is the best technique of obtaining a durable and strong concrete, it cannot produce a

compact concrete, if the mix is not properly graded or designed.

Reason (R) : Over-vibrating of concrete with a slump of more than 10 cm may lead to honeycombing and a top surface which is not durable.





75. Which one of the following is the most preferred wood for high quality and durable furniture?

a. Sandalwood

b. Deodar wood

c. Teakwood

d. Shishani wood

76. As a natural material, timber is which one of the following?

a. Isotropic

b. Anisotropic

c. Homogeneous

d. Heterogeneous

77. Shear strength of timber depends on which one of the following ?

a. Lignin with fibres

b. Medullary rays

c. Heartwood

d. Sapwood

78. The defect which develops due to uncontrolled and non - uniform loss of moisture from wood is known as which one of the following?

a. Kont

b. Shake

c. Warping

d. Cross grain

79. For ornamental work, which type (s) of bricks is/are preferred?

1. Silica bricks

2. Silica lime bricks

3. Bricks produced in autoclaves



11 of 15Select the correct answer using the code given below

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 2 only

80. Which one of the following is the nominal size of standard modular brick?

a. 25 cm 13 cm 8 cm

b. 25cm 10 cm 8 cm

c. 20 cm 10 cm 10cm

d. 20 cm 15 cm 10 cm

81. Why are bricks soaked in water before using in brick masonry?

a. For removing dust

b. For reducing air voids

c. For preventing depletion of moisture from mortar

d. For reducing efflorescence

82. Which type of brick masonry bond is provided for heavy loads on masonry?

a. English bond

b. Zigzang bond

c. Single Flemish bond

d. Double Flemish bond

83. Consider the following type of cements:

1. Portland pulverized fuel ash cement

2. High alumina cement

3. Ordinary Portland cement

4. Rapid hardening cement

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above cements in terms of their increasing rate of strength gain?

a. 2-3-4-l

b. 1-3-4-2

c. 2-1-3-4

d. 3-1-2-4

84. Ultimate strength of cement is influenced by which one of the following?

a. Tricalcium silicate

b. Dicalcium silicate

c. Tricalcium aluminate

d. Tetracalcium alumino - ferrite

85. Why is lime added to cement slurry for the topcoat of plastering?

a. To improve the strength of plaster

b. To stiffen the plaster

c. To smoothen the plaster for ease of spread

d. To make the plaster non - shrinkable


List-I

(Cement Mortar for Different Work)

A. Cement mortar for normal brick work

B. Cement mortar for plastering work

C. Cement mortar for grouting the cavernous rocks

D. Cement mortar for guniting

List - II(Cement : Sand in Mortar)

1. 1 : 4

2. 1: 3

3. 1: 6

4. 1 : 1.5

A B C D

a. 3 2 4 1

b. 4 1 3 2

c. 3 1 4 2

d. 4 2 3 1

87. In what context is the slump test performed?

a. Strength of concrete

b. Workability of concrete

c. Water-cement ratio

d. Durability of concrete


The use of superlasticizers as admixture

1. increases compressive strength of concrete

2. permits lower water - cement ratio, thereby strength is increased

3. reduces the setting time of concrete



12 of 154. permits lower cement content, thereby

strength is increased


a. 1 and 3 only

b. 3 and 4 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 2 only


Curing of concrete is necessary because

1. concrete needs more water for chemical reaction

2. it is necessary to protect the water initially mixed in concrete from being lost during evaporation

3. penetration of surrounding water increases the strength of concrete


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 3 only

90. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists

List-I

A. Absorption and surface moisture in aggregates

B. Deleterious material

C. Grading of aggregate

D. Chemical stability

List-II

1. Interferes with hydration of cement

2. Improves workability of mix

3. Ensures durability of all types of structures

4. Affects the mix proportions

A B C D

a. 3 1 2 4

b. 4 2 1 3

c. 3 2 1 4

d. 4 1 2 3

91. What is the maximum permissible longitudinal pitch in staggered riveted compression joints ?

a. 500 mm

b. 400 mm

c. 300mm

d. 100mm

92. A concentrated load W moves on the span of a three- hinged arch. The horizontal thrust at the supports is maximum when the load is at which one of the following ?

a. The springing

b. One-sixth of the span from one end

c. Quarter span

d. The crown

93. Which one of the following is the correct statement ? In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined for complete bearing on the base plate, the axial load is assumed to be transferred to the base plate

a. fully by direct bearing

b. fully through the fastenings

c. 50% by direct bearing and 50% through fastenings

d. 75% by direct bearing and 25% through fastenings

94.

In the structure shown in the figure above, what is the distance through which the points A move towards each other?

a. 4 Pa3 / EI

b. l6 Pa3 / 3EI

c. 28 Pa3 / 3EI

d. 6 Pa3 / EI

95. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists

List - I (Shape of Structural Section)



13 of 15A. Rectangular

B. Circular

C. I-section

D. Diamond

List - II (Shape Factor)

1. 2.0

2. 1.1 to 1.2

3. 1.5

4. 1.7

A B C D

a. 3 1 2 4

b. 2 4 3 1

c. 3 4 2 1

d. 2 1 3 4

96.

What is the ultimate load for the frame shown in the figure above ?

a. M / a

b. 2 Mp / a

c. 3 M / a

d. 4 Mg / a

97. What is the number of plastic hinges which will cause the overall total collapse of a structure ?

a. One more than the order of statical indeterminacy

b. Equal to order of statical indeterminacy

c. One less than the order of statical indeterminacy

d. Not determinable

98.

The above figure shows a fix - ended beam of elastic material possessing sufficient

ductility and of uniform cross-section. It carries a uniformly distributed load which is gradually increased to its ultimate value Wu/unit length, at which the beam is transformed into a failure mechanism. What is the magnitude of Wu in terms of the ultimate moment Mu of the beam - section and span l

a. 8 Mu / l2

b. 12 Mu / l2

c. 16 Mu / l2

d. 24 Mu / l2

99. What is / are the use(s) of influence lines ?

a. To study the effect of moving loads on the structure

b. To calculate the value of stress function with the critical load condition

c. To find the position of live load for a maximum value of particular stress function

d. Towards all the above purpose

100. What is the variation of influence line for stress function in a statically determinate structure ?

a. Parabolic

b. Bilinear

c. Linear

d. Uniformly rectangular

101.

Which one of the following is the reaction of the cantilever at B as shown in the figure above ?

a. 3/8 wl

b. 5/8 wl

c. 6/17 wl

d. 3/21 wl

102. The displacement method is also referred to as which one of the following?

a. Minimum strain energy method



14 of 15b. Maxwell-Mohr method

c. Consistent deformation method

d. Slope-deflection method

103. A beam carries a uniformly distributed load throughout its length. In which of the following configurations will the strain energy be maximum?

a. Cantilever

b. Simply supported beam

c. Propped cantilever

d. Fixed beam

104.

The shear equation for the portal frame shown in the above figure will be

a. 1 2

0CD DCAB BA M MM MP

L L

b. 1

0BC CBAB BA M MM MP

L L

c. 2

0BC CB CD DCM M M MP

L L

d. 1

0AB CD BA DCM M M MP

L L


a. In slope-deflection method, the forces are taken as unknowns

b. In slope-deflection method, the joint rotations are taken as unknowns

c. Slope-deflection method is not applicable for beams and frames having settlement at the supports

d. Slope-deflection method is also known as force method

106.

What are the bending moments at the ends A and B of a uniform beam AB fixed in

direction and position at A and B when acted upon by two concentrated loads at 1/3rd span as shown in the figure above?

a. 2/9 WL

b. 4/9 WL

c. 6/9 WL

d. 8/9 WL

107. A tractor-trailer assembly has a gross weight of 25 tonnes. When moving over a level road, its rolling resistance is 42 kg per tonne. It is moved up a road of 5% grade. What is the required tractive effort ?

a. 1050.5 kg

b. 1060.5 kg

c. 1085 kg

d. 1102.5kg

108. Which one of the following shovel excavators is considered most efficient in loading carriers ?

a. Dipper shovel

b. Dragline

c. Backhoe

d. Clamshell

109. Bottom-dump wagons are suitable for handling which of the following?

a. Wet sticky clay

b. Sand and gravel

c. Quarry rocks

d. Any type of material

110. Vibratory rollers are more useful for compacting which of the following?

a. Sandy soils

b. Silty soils

c. Clayer soils

d. Mixed soils

111. When power shovels are operated under different site conditions (in terms of material handled), what is the correct sequence in. the increasing order of the output for the following materials?

1. Well - blasted rock

2. Hard and tough clay

3. Poorly blasted rock

4. Moist loam or sand




15 of 15a. 1-2-3-4

b. 1-4-3-2

c. 4-2-3-l

d. 4-3-1-2

112. For three - dimensional movement of a weight, which one of the following is most suitable ?

a. Chain hoist

b. Winch

c. Crane

d. Jack

113. Match List-I with List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List - I (Crane)

A. Tower crane

B. Floating crane

C. Mobile crane

D. Gantry crane

List - II (Suitable for)

1. Hydraulic structures

2. High industrial plant

3. Longitudinal and lateral movements of load

4. Railway electrification

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 3 4 1 2

c. 2 4 1 3

d. 3 1 4 2

114. How are concrete mixers specified?

a. By the number of cement bags used in a batch

b. By the nominal volume of concrete that can be mixed in a batch

c. By the volume of water used

d. By the volume of aggregate used

115. What is the minimum width of roadway for a six - lane high -level bridge constructed for the use of road traffic only?

a. 215 m

b. 225 m

c. 240 m

d. 255 m

116. What is the optimum mortar mix type for maximum masonry unit strength of 15 N / mm2

a. M1

b. M2

c. H1

d. H2

117. In load- bearing wall, the depth of horizontal chassis should not exceed which one of the following?

a. 1 / 3 thickness of masonry

b. 1/4 thickness of masonry

c. 1/5 thickness of masonry

d. 1/6 thickness of masonry

118. What is a tendon profile, in which the eccentricity is proportional to the bending moment caused by any loading on a rigidly supported indeterminate structure, at all cross - sections ?

a. Cable profile

b. Resultant profile

c. Concordant profile

d. Reduced profile

119. What is the distance between the kems for the section given below?

a. 100 units

b. > 100 units, < 150 units

c. <100 units

d. > 150 units

120.

For a rectangular prestressed beam designed for operating stress conditions, what is the maximum prestressing force ?

a. bdc

b. 1

2(bdc)

c. 1

3(bdc)

d. 1

6 (bdc )



1 of 15

(PAPER–II)

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List – I (Format of Representation)

A. u v

x y

B. v u

x y

C. u v

u vx y

D. 2

q

List-II (Context /Relevant to)

1. Relevant to a velocity potential

2. Rate of rotation about a relevant axis

3. Pressure gradient in a relevant direction

4. Continuity of flow

A B C D

a. 3 2 4 1

b. 4 1 3 2

c. 3 1 4 2

d. 4 2 3 1

2. Which one of the following expresses the height of rise or fall of a liquid in a capillary tube ?

a. 4

cos

wd

b. cos

4w

c. 4cos

wd

d. 4 cos

wd

w = Specific weight of the liquid

= Angle of contact of the liquid surface

= Surface tension

3. If the stream function = 3x2 – y3, what is the magnitude of velocity at point (2, 2)?

a. 9

b. 13

c. 15

d. 17

4. During a flood in a stream of width 200 (taken as rectangular section), the gauge reading was found to rise by 18 cm per hour. What would be the difference in discharges at two sections, each 250 m on either side of the gauge station ?

a. 10 m3/ s less at downstream section

b. 75 m3/ s less at downstream section

c. 5 m3/ s less at downstream section

d. 5 m3/ s more at downstream section

5. A flat plate with a sharp leading edge placed along a free stream of fluid flow. Local Reynolds number at 3 cm from the leading edge is 105.What is the thickness of the boundary layer?

a. 0.47 mm

b. 0.35 mm

c. 0.23 mm

d. 0.12 mm

6. Which one of the following is the correct statement? A streamlined body is one for which the

a. skin friction is zero.

b. thickness of the body is less than 1/100 of its length

c. corners are rounded off.

d. separation occurs, if at all, at the farthest downstream part of the body

7. A circular pipe of radius R carries a laminar flow of a fluid. The average velocity is indicated as the local velocity at what radical distance, measured from the centre?

a. 0.50 R

I.E.S-(OBJ) 2007




2 of 15b. 0.71 R

c. 0.67 R

d. 0.29 R

8. In the model of a highway bridge constructed to a scale of 1 : 25, the force of water on the pier was measured as 5 N. What is the force (approximate) on the prototype pier?

a. 15.6 kN

b. 25.3 kN

c. 78 kN

d. 90 kN

9. A river model is constructed to a horizontal scale of 1: 1000 and a vertical scale of 1:100. A model discharge of 0.1 m3/ s would correspond to a discharge in the prototype, of what magnitude?

a. 102 m3/s

b. 103 m3/s

c. 104 m3/s

d. 10 m3/s

10. Body M has twice the weight, twice the projected area and twice the drag coefficient of body N. How many times is the terminal velocity of the body M in air, compared to that of the body N ?

a. 8

b. 2

c. 2

d. 1/ 2

11. A rectangular channel 3 m wide is laid on a slope of 0.0002. When the depth of flow in the channel is 1.5 m, what is the average boundary shear stress (nearly) ?

a. 0.3 N/m2

b. 0.15 N/m2

c. 3.0 N/m2

d. 1.5 N/m2

12. A right-angled triangular channel, symmetrical in section about the vertical, carries a discharge of 5 m3/s with a velocity of 1.25 m/s. What is the approximate value of the Froude number of the flow?

a. 0.3

b. 0.4

c. 0.5

d. 0.6

13. Flow depths across a sluice gate are 2.0 m and 0.5 m. What is the discharge (per metre width) ?

a. 1.0 m2/s

b. 1.4 m2/s

c. 2.0 m2/s

d. 2.8 m2/s

14. A rectangular channel is 6 m wide and discharges 30 m3 s–1. The upstream depth is 2.0 m, acceleration due to gravity is 10 m s–2. Then, what is the specific energy (approximate)?

a. 2.5

b. 0.3

c. 2.3


15. For a smooth hump in a sub-critical flow to function as a broad crested weir, the height Z of the hump above the bed must satisfy which one of the following ?

a. Z (E1 — yc)

b. Z (E1 — Ec)

c. Z (E1—yc)

d. Z (E1—Ec)

16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List - I (Flow Section Type)

A. Shallow parabolic

B. Triangular

C. Rectangular

D. Trapezoidal

List - II (Critical Discharge is proportional to :) [where y is the depth of fowl]

1. y(z3/2)

2. y3/2

3. y5/2

4. y2

A B C D

a. 2 3 4 1

b. 4 1 2 3



3 of 15c. 2 1 4 3

d. 4 3 2 1


A control section in an open channel is the site

a. where the flow quantity can be controlled

b. at which flow is known to be critical

c. where the discharge can be measured

d. where the specific energy is determined

18. What is the normal depth in a wide rectangular channel carrying 0.5 m2/s discharge at a bed slope of 0.0004 and Manning’s n = 0.01 ?

a. 0.13 m

b. 0.32 m

c. 0.43 m

d. 0.50 m

19. Flow happens at a critical depth of 0.5 m in a rectangular channel of 4 m width. What is the value of discharge?

a. 5.4 m3/s

b. 5.1 m3/s

c. 4.9 m3/s

d. 4.4 m3/s

20. In a 4 cm diameter pipeline carrying laminar flow of a liquid with it = 1.6 centipoise, the velocity at the axis is 2 m/s. What is the shear stress midway between the wall and the axis ?

a. 0.01 N/m2

b. 0.0125 N/m2

c. 0.0175 N/m2

d. 0.02 N/m2

21. A hydraulic jump occurs at the toe of a spillway. The depth before jump is 0.2 m. The sequent depth is 3.2 m. What is the energy dissipated in m (approximate)?

a. 27

b. 10.5

c. 15

d. 42

22. In connection with a gradually varied flow with notations y0 = normal depth, yc =

critical depth and y = depth in the gradually varied flow, Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List-I

A. Y > y0 > y

B. y0 > y > y

C. y > yc > yo

D. y > y0 > yc

List-II

1. M1

2. S3

3. M2

4. S1

A B C D

a. 4 1 2 3

b. 2 3 4 1

c. 4 3 2 1

d. 2 1 4 3

23. In a wide rectangular channel, an increase in the normal depth 20% corresponds to how much (approximate) increase in discharge ?

a. 12%

b. 20%

c. 36%

d. 48%

24. A penstock is 2000 m long and the velocity of pressure wave in it is 1000 m/s. Water hammer pressure head for instantaneous closure of valve at the downstream end of the pipe is 60 m. If the valve is closed in 4 s, then what is the peak water hammer pressure in m of water?

a. 15

b. 30

c. 60

d. 120

25. At a rated capacity of 44 cumec, a centrifugal pump develops 36 m of head when operating at 725 r.p.m: What is its specific speed?

a. 327

b. 255

c. 350



4 of 15d. 45

26. In an air flow the velocity is measured by a Pitot tube (coefficient = 1.0). The mass density of air can be taken as 1.2 kg/m3. If the head difference in a vertical U - tube holding water is 12 mm, then what is the velocity of air in m/s

a. 10

b. 14

c. 17

d. 20

27. A single-acting reciprocating pump has a plunger diameter 25 cm and stroke 35 cm. The speed of the pump is 60 r.p.m., and it delivers 165 litres/second of water. What is the value of the theoretical discharge ?

a. 16.8 lps

b. 17.2 lps

c. 18.0 lps

d. 18.4 lps

28. To generate 8100 kW under a head of 81 m while working at a speed of 540 r.p.m., what type of turbine is suitable?

a. Pelton

b. Kaplan

c. Bulb

d. Francis

29. During a certain week a power plant turns out 8,400,000 kWhr and the peak load during the week is 100,000 kW. What is the load factor during the week

a. 40%

b. 45%

c. 50%

d. 60%

30. A standard, ground-based evaporation pan, corresponding to Indian Standards, is installed at the banks of a surface reservoir. The water surface area on a particular day is 100 heactares. The recorded evaporation loss from the pan, on a certain day, is nearly 4.0 cm. What is the anticipated evaporation loss from the reservoir for that day?

a. (1.8 to 2) 104 m3 per day

b. (2.5 to 2.75) 104 m3 per day

c. (3.0 to 3.25) 104 m3 per day

d. (3.8 to 4.05) 104 m3 per day

31. What is the probable maximum precipitation (PMP)?

a. Projected precipitation for a 100-yr return period

b. Maximum precipitation for all past recorded storms

c. Upper limit of rainfall, which is justified climatologically

d. Effective perceptible water

32. Which one of the following is a method of extending the length of record for a frequency curve at a station ?

a. Double Mass Curve method

b. The Station Year method

c. Thiessen method

d. Isohyetal method


List - I (Parameter)

A. Rainfall Intensity

B. Rainfall Excess

C. Rainfall Averaging

D. Mass Curve

List - II (Relatable Term)

1. Isohyets

2. Cumulative rainfall

3. Hyetograph

4. Direct Runoff hydrograph

A B C D

a. 1 3 2 4

b. 3 4 1 2

c. 1 3 4 2

d. 3 4 2 1

34. The total observed runoff volume during a 4 hour storm with a uniform intensity of 2.8 cm/hr is 25.2 106 m3 from a basin of 280 km2 area. What is the average infiltration rate for the basin?

a. 36 mm/hr

b. 48 mm/hr

c. 52 mm/hr

d. 55 mm/hr



5 of 1535. The rainfall hyetograph shows the

variation of which one of the following?

a. Cumulative depth of rainfall with time

b. Rainfall depth with area

c. Rainfall intensity with time

d. Rainfall intensity with cumulative depth of rainfall

36. In constructing a 4 hour synthetic unit hydrograph for a basin, the lag time is estimated to be 40 hours. When will the peak discharge in the synthetic unit hydrograph occur from start of the storm?

a. 36 hours

b. 40 hours

c. 42 hours

d. 44 hours


1. Only the surface flow constitutes the flood hydrograph due to an isolated storm.

2. For a given storm, the flood peak is dependent on the drainage density.

3. Fan shaped catchments give narrow hydrograph with low peak.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 only

d. 3 only

38. A unit hydrograph for a watershed is triangular in shape with base period of 20 hours. The area of the watershed is 500 ha.

What is the peak discharge in m3/hour?

a. 7000

b. 6000

c. 5000

d. 4000

39. How is the average velocity along the vertical in a wide stream obtained?

a. By averaging the velocities at 0.2 & 0.8 depth from surface

b. By measuring velocity at 0.6 depth below the surface

c. By measuring velocity at half the depth

d. By measuring velocity at 01 times the depth below the surface

40. Groynes are adopted for river bank protection works. When it is placed inclined downstream in the direction of flow in the river, it is designated as which one of the following?

a. Repelling groyne

b. Attracting groyne

c. Neither repelling nor attracting groyne

d. Fixed groyne

41. The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic jump in a rectangular channel is 16.48. What is the Froude number (approximate) at the beginning of the jump?

a. 9.0

b. 12.0

c. 5.0

d. 8.0

42. The quantitative statement of the balance between water gains and losses in a certain basin during a specified period of time is known as which one of the following ?

1. Water budget

2. Hydrologic budget

3. Groundwater budget


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only


43. A soil sample has an exchangeable sodium percentage of 16%, its electrical conductivity is 32 milli - Mhos/cm and pH of 9.5. How is the soil classified ?

a. Saline soil

b. Saline - alkaline soil

c. Alkaline soil


44. How is the determination of aquifer parameters S (Storage Coefficient) and T (Transmissivity Coefficient) done?

1. By recording the drawdown in a pumped well at different time intervals.



6 of 152. By recording the drawdown in

installed observation wells at different time intervals.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2


An aqueduct is a cross drainage work in which

1. a canal is carried over the drainage channel

2. a drainage channel is carried over the canal

3. both drainage channel and canal are at the same level.


a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

46. If the discharge required for different crops is 0.4 cumes in the field and the capacity factor and time factors are 0.8 and 0.5 respectively, then what is the design discharge for the distributory t its head

a. 0.80 Cumecs

b. 0.16 Cumecs

c. 1.0 Cumecs

d. 1.24 Cumecs

47. Which one of the following is the purpose of providing the downstream sheet pile in a barrage?

a. To control failure due to piping by high value of exit gradient

b. To control failure due to scour

c. To stop failure due to sliding

d. To stop failure due to uplift pressure

48. What are the recommended setting options of an adjustable proportional module worked with an open flume type outlet?

1. 3/10

2. 9/10

3. 1/2

4. 5/3


a. 1 and 2

b. 1and 3

c. 3 and 4

d. 2 and 4

49. The flood plain of a river carries a discharge of 2000 m3/s. What are the values of the meander length and dominant flow width?

a. 160 m,48 m

b. 180 m,42 m

c. 200 m, 38 m

d. 220 m, 36 m

50. What is eutrophication of lakes primarily due to ?

a. Multiplication of bacteria

b. Excessive inflow of nutrients

c. Increase in benthic organisms

d. Thermal and density currents


List - I (Parameter)

A. Excess sulphates

B. Lack of iodide

C. Excess hardness

D. Excess dissolved oxygen

List - H (Impact)

1. Greater soap consumption

2. Laxative effect

3. Goitre

4. Corrosion of pipes

A B C D

a. 2 1 3 4

b. 4 3 1 2

c. 2 3 1 4

d. 4 1 3 2

52. The concentration of hardness producing cations estimated using which one of the following ?

a. Conductivity meter



7 of 15b. pH meter

c. Spectrophotometer

d. Flame photometer

53. Which one of the following treatments is economically effective in the control of guinea worm disease?

a. Chlorination

b. Filtration

c. Ozonation

d. Sedimentation

54. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using may be the code given below the lists :

List - I (Disinfectant)

A. Chlorine

B. Ozone

C. Iodine

D. Ultra-violet rays

List - II (Property)

1. No carcinogenics result

2. Ineffective in the presence of suspended solids

3. Not affected by the Ammonium ion

4. Feasible residual content

A B C D

a. 4 3 1 2

b. 1 2 4 3

c. 4 2 1 3

d. 1 3 4 2

55. What is the predominating coagulation mechanism for raw water having high turbidity and high alkalinity?

a. Ionic layer compression

b. Adsorption and charge neutralization

c. Sweep coagulation

d. Inter particle bridging


List – I (Physical properties of filtering material for trickling filters)

A. Crushing strength, N/mm2

B. Hardness

C. Percent wear

D. Specific gravity

List-II (Limiting Value)

1. 12.0

2. 100.0

3. 4.0

4. 2.6

A B C D

a. 3 1 2 4

b. 2 4 3 1

c. 3 4 2 1

d. 2 1 3 4


List-I (Contaminant)

A. Suspended solids

B. Nutrients

C. Heavy metals

D. Dissolved inorganic solids

List-II (Environmental significance)

1. May cause eutrophication

2. Toxic, may interfere with effluent reuse

3. May interfere with effluent reuse

4. Cause sludge deposits

A B C D

a. 4 1 2 3

b. 2 3 4 1

c. 4 3 2 1

d. 2 1 4 3

58. Which one of the following methods of solid waste management conserves energy most efficiently in the form of gas or oil?

a. Incineration with heat recovery

b. Composting

c. Fluidized - bed incineration

d. Pyrolysis


List - I (Equation/Method)

A. Manning’s Equation

B. Darcy-Weisbach Equation



8 of 15C. Hardy Cross Method

D. Rational Method

List - II (Application)

1. Frictional head loss estimation in pipe flow

2. Sanitary sewer design

3. Storm sewer design

4. Water distribution system design

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 1 4 3 2

c. 2 1 3 4

d. 1 4 2 3

60. In conventional activated sludge process, MLSS is generally kept in which range ?

a. < 100 mg/l

b. 1000 - 2000 mg/l

c. 2000 - 3000 mg/l

d. 3000 - 5000 mg/l

61. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List - I (Pathogen)

A. Bacteria

B. Virus

C. Protozoa

D. Helminth

List- II (Epidemic)

1. Gastroenteritis

2. Cholera

3. Worms

4. Polio

A B C D

a. 2 4 1 3

b. 3 1 4 2

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 3 4 1 2

62. Which among the following brings about the Hazardous Waste Management and Handling Rules in India?

a. Central Pollution Control Board

b. Ministry of Environment and Forests

c. Ministry of Urban Development

d. Ministry of Rural Development

63. The daily cover of MSW landfills consists of which one of the following?

a. Compacted soil

b. Geomembrane

c. Geotextile

d. Geocomposite


List-I (Air Pollutant)

A. Particulates

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Sulphur oxides

D. Photochemical oxidants

List-II (Impact on Human Health)

1. Impairs transport of O2 in bloodstream

2. Irritation of mucous membranes of respiratory tract

3. Causes coughing, shortness of breath headache etc.

4. Causes respiratory illness

A B C D

a. 2 3 4 1

b. 4 1 2 3

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 4 3 2 1

65. Which type of plume may occur during winter nights?

a. Looping

b. Inversion

c. Coning

d. Lofting

66. A machine in a steel plate fabricating industry is found to be producing a sound level of 50 dB. In the expansion plans one more such machine needs to be added. What will be the combined noise level?

a. 80 - 100 dB

b. 101 - 150 dB

c. 51 - 70 dB

d. 40 - 50 dB



9 of 1567. Which one of the following is the correct

statement? A heterotroph is an organism that obtains

a. its cell carbon from an inorganic source.

b. its energy from the oxidation of simple inorganic compounds.

c. its cell carbon as well as its energy from organic matter.

d. its energy from a natural ecosystem.

68. The term ‘biological magnification’ indicates which one of the following?

a. Likelihood of increasing size of animals during evolution

b. Magnification pertaining to microscopy

c. Accumulation of pollutants in soil

d. Accumulation of pollutants in successive consumers

69. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?

The contact pressure distribution below rigid footing on the surface of a clay soil is

a. uniform for the full width

b. maximum at the centre and minimum at the edges.

c. maximum at the edges and minimum at the centre.

d. of an irregular shape.

70. The following soils are compacted at the same compactive effort in the field. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the increasing order of their maximum dry density?

a. Silt clay - Clay - Sand - Gravel sand clay mixture

b. Sand - Gravel sand clay mixture - Silty clay - Clay

c. Clay - Silty clay - Sand - Gravel sand clay mixture

d. Sand - Gravel sand clay mixture - Clay - Silty clay


On addition of lime to a clay soil, generally

1. M.D.D. and strength both increase.

2. M.D.D. decreases but strength increases.

3. M.D.D. and O.M.C. both increase.

Which of the statements given above is correct ?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only


72. From a flow net which of the following information can be obtained ?

1. Rate of flow

2. Pore water pressure

3. Exit gradient

4. Permeability


a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

b. 1, 2 and 3

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1 only


1. Organic matter increases the permeability of a soil

2. Entrapped air decreases the permeability of a si1


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2


Dewatering increases the slope stability of a cohesionless soil mainly because

1. it causes changes in pH.

2. it reduces pore water pressure.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

75.



10 of 15

The virgin compression curve for a soil is shown in the figure above. What is the compression index of the soil ?

a. 0.3

b. 0.5

c. 1.5

d. 15

76. What does the confining pressure used in triaxial compression tests on an undisturbed soil sample represent ?

a. The in-situ total normal stress

b. The in-situ total lateral stress

c. The in-situ effective average principal stress

d. The in-situ shear stress


Liquefaction is a phenomenon

1. observed in fine sands

2. associated with development of positive pore pressure.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

78. A static cone penetration test is usually conducted when the structure is likely to be founded on which of the following?

a. Shallow foundations

b. Pile foundations

c. Drier foundations

d. Improved ground

79. A machine and its foundation weigh 981 kN and has a spring constant k = 10,000 kN/m. What is the value of damping coefficient Cc if system is to be critically damped ? (Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.81 m/s2)

a. 1000 kN s/m

b. 4000 kN s/m

c. 2000 kN s/m

d. 8000 kN s/m


1. The bearing capacity of a footing on clay does not significantly get altered by the presence of water table

2. The bearing capacity of a footing on saturated clay ( = 0) is a function of its size.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

81. Which of the following types of piles is likely to have the highest load capacity in compression?

a. Driven pre - cast concrete pile

b. Pre - cast pile placed in a pre - drilled bore

c. Driven steel pipe pile

d. Steel pipe pile placed in a pre-drilled bore

82. What is the value of negative skin friction for a group of piles of 30 cm diameter, 5 M long and spaced at 80 cm c/c and having cohesive strength of soil as 25 kN/m2 (Neglect bottom contribution in bearing capacity)

a. 925 kN

b. 950kN

c. 975 kN

d. 1000 kN

83. If the coefficient of active earth pressure is 1/3, then what is the value of the coefficient of passive earth pressure ?

a. 1/9

b. 1/3

c. 3

d. 1


Criteria for satisfactory performance of footings are that the



11 of 151. soil supporting the footing must be

safe against shear failure.

2. footing must not settle more than a pre-specified value.

3. footing must be rigid.

4. footing should be above water table.


a. 3 and 4

b. 1 and 2

c. 1 and 3

d. 2 and 4

85. Why are weep holes provided at the back of retaining walls?

a. To reduce the active earth pressure on the walls

b. To reduce the build - up of hydrostatic pressure

c. To provide better compaction

d. To increase the passive earth pressure

86. An increase in compaction effort will lead to which of the following?

a. Decrease in both the optimum moisture content (OMC) and maximum dry density

b. Decrease in both the optimum moisture content (OMC) and increase in the maximum dry density

c. Increase in the optimum moisture content (OMC) and decrease in the maximum dry density

d. Increase in both the optimum moisture content (OMC) and maximum dry density

87. A 20 m chain was found to be 10 cm too long after chaining a distance of 2000 m. It was found to be 18 cm too long at the end of the day’s work after chaining a total distance of 4000 m. What is the true distance if the chain was correct before the commencement of the day’s work ?

a. 3962 m

b. 4019 m

c. 3981 m

d. 4038 m

88. There are ten instrument stations occupied in succession during a traverse survey. An

observer makes equal error in each station, the magnitude of which is in each instance at all the stations. What is the probable error of the final bearing at the end of the traverse ?

a. ± 10

b. + 100 ()2

c. ± 10 δθ

d. ± 10

89. Which of the following instruments have both horizon glass and index glass?

1. Optical square

2. Line ranger

3. Box sextant

4. Pedometer


a. 2, 3 and 4

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 and 4 only

90. Which one of the following instruments can be used as a clinometer?

a. Prism square

b. Line ranger

c. Abney level

d. Optical square

91. Match List I with List 11 and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List - I (Instrument)

A. Subtense bar

B. Sextant

C. Tangent clinometer

D. Range finder

List - II (Use)

1. To determine difference in elevation between points

2. To determine horizontal distance

3. To measure angles

4. To establish right angles

A B C D

a. 2 4 1 3



12 of 15b. 1 3 2 4

c. 2 3 1 4

d. 1 4 2 3

92. A sailor, standing on the deck of a ship, just sees the light beam from a lighthouse on the shore. If the height of the sailor’s eye and of the light beam at the lighthouse, above the sea level, are 9 m and 25 m respectively, what is the distance between the sailor and the lighthouse ?

a. 29.8 km

b. 31.1 km

c. 31.9 km

d. 33.2 kin


a. The axis of plate level should be parallel to the vertical axis.

b. The axis of striding level must be parallel to the horizontal axis.

c. The axis of the altitude level must be perpendicular to the line of collimation.

d. The line of collimation must be perpendicular to the plate level axis.


List- I (Triangulation Station)

A. Main Stations

B. Subsidiary

C. Satellite Stations

D. Pivot Stations

List—II (Definition)

1. Control points of triangulation network

2. Points not for observation but for continuation of triangulation network

3. Points to provide additional rays to intersected points

4. Points close to main stations to avoid intervening obstructions

A B C D

a. 1 3 4 2

b. 1 3 2 4

c. 3 1 4 2

d. 3 1 2 4


List I(Term)

A. Apparent solar day

B. Sidereal day

C. Tropical year

D. Sidereal year

List - II (Definition)

1. The time interval between two successive upper transits of the first point of Aries over the same meridian

2. 2. Time interval between two successive lower transits of the center of the Sun across the same meridian

3. 3. Time interval between two successive passage of the Sun over the meridian of any of the fixed stars

4. The time interval between two successive vernal equinoxes

A B C D

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 2 1 3 4

d. 1 2 4 3

96. If the mean temperature of Sun’s surface 6000 K and m of its radiation is 0.5 what is the mean temperature of Each surface for which m is 100 m, according to Wien’s Displacement Law in Remote Seniror Concept?

a. 25 °C

b. 28 °C

c. 27°C

d. 30 °C


List - I (Type of Construction)

A. Bituminous macadam

B. Dense bituminous macadam

C. Bituminous concrete

D. Bitumen mastic

List - H (Binder Content Generally Specified)

1. 8- 15%



13 of 152. 3 - 35%

3. 4 - 45%

4. 45 - 60%

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 4 3 2 1

c. 2 3 4 1

d. 4 1 2 3

98. If a road surface is adequately superelevated on horizontal curve, which one of the. following is the proper distribution of pressure on the vehicle wheels ?

a. Pressure on both outer and inner wheels is equal

b. Pressure on inner wheels is more than the outer wheels

c. Pressure on inner wheels is less than the outer wheels

d. Pressure on front wheels is thrice the pressure on rear wheels

99. Consider the following statements related to interchanges

1. In diamond interchange there is the possibility of illegal wrong - way turns.

2. Diamond interchange is far superior to cloverleaf design.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

100. Based on Fuller’s maximum density criterion, for 4 mm maximum size of soil particles, what is the percentage of particles between 4 mm and 2 mm by weight?

a. 80

b. 50

c. 30

d. 20

101. What are the maximum value of CBR and minimum value of G.I. of any material, respectively?

a. 100,0

b. 100,20

c. 50, 5

d. 10, 0

102. Consider the following statements related to Los Angeles Abrasion test on aggregates

1. It evaluates hardness of source - rock.

2. It has a coefficient of variation of about 30 percent


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

103. A road surface is corrected by spreading a layer of dry sand in a thickness varying from 5 mm to 10 mm and rolling the surface by heavy rollers. Which one of the following maintenance works does it apply to?

a. Repair of ruts and patches

b. Repairing of blow ups

c. Repair of bleeding surface

d. Sealing of joints and cracks

104. The weight of aggregate having specific gravity 2.65, completely filled into a cylinder of volume 0.003 m3 is 52 kg. What is the value of the angularity index of aggregate (approximately) as given by Murdock?

a. 1

b. 0.34

c. 0.15

d. 0.05

105. Which one of the following criteria is used for obtaining the value of modulus of subgrade reaction from plate bearing test data?

a. Slope of pressure settlement graph

b. Pressure corresponding to the settlement of 1.25 mm

c. Deflection corresponding to a pressure of 1.25 kg/cm2

d. Pressure corresponding to the settlement of 1.50 mm



14 of 15106. Which of the following factors are used for

calculating temperature stress at the critical edge region in rigid pavement design ?

1. Maximum temperature difference between summer and winter

2. Coefficient of thermal expansion of concrete

3. Slab length

4. Slab width


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1 and 3 only


List - I (Type of Wall)

A. Parapet wall

B. Check wall

C. Breast wall

D. Gabion wall

List - II (Feature)

1. Constructed with dry stone masonry encased in wire mesh

2. To add the overall stability to the hill face

3. To buttress the uphill slopes of the road cross - section

4. To give protection to the motorists

A B C D

a. 2 4 1 3

b. 4 2 1 3

c. 4 2 3 1

d. 2 4 3 1

108. Emulsion is used as a binder in which the following stages of construction ?

1. Surface dressing work

2. Sealing open textured surfacing

3. Filling cracks in pavement

4. Prime coat

5. Pre-coating of aggregates


a. 1, 2, 3 and 5

b. 2, 3, 4 and 5

c. 1, 2 and 4

d. 1 and 3 only


List-I (Speed)

A. Space mean speed

B. Journey speed

C. Running speed

D. Spot speed

List-Il (Application)

1. Road conditions studies

2. Regulatory measures

3. Traffic flow studies

4. Delay studies

A B C D

a. 3 2 1 4

b. 1 4 3 2

c. 3 4 1 2

d. 1 2 3 4

110. Which one of the following methods is generally considered the best for tunnel ventilation ?

a. Driving a drift through the tunnel

b. ‘Blow in’ method

c. ‘Blow out’ method

d. Combination of ‘Blow in’ and Blow out’ methods

111. Which one of the following is not related to theories of creep of rails ?

a. Wave theory

b. Percussion theory

c. Drag theory

d. Reversal theory

112. What is the steepest gradient permissible on a 20 curve for B.G. line having reeling gradient of I in 200?

a. 1 in 250

b. 1 in 238

c. 1 in 209



15 of 15d. 1 in 198

113. Which one of following is not correct for container ports ?

a. The berth capacity is great

b. Overall transit time is less

c. There is minimal damage to cargo

d. Minimal land is required for the marshalling area

114. Which one of following statements associated with groynes :

1. Hydraulic behaviour of a system of groynes is influenced by the characteristics of particles that constitute the littoral drift.

2. Groyne is constructed approximately parallel to shore.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

115. What is the wave velocity for a uniform train of wave beyond the storm centre for a wave length of 20 m in 14 m deep water?

a. 5.5 m/s

b. 11.2 m/s

c. 4.5 m/s

d. 9 m/s

116. As the elevation increases, the runway length has to be changed at what rate ?

a. Decreased @ 5% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L.

b. Increased @ 7% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L.

c. Decreased @ 9% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L.

d. Increased @ 15% per 300 m rise in elevation above M.S.L.

117. Assertion (A) : A discrete particle (of diameter d0) setting in a circular sedimentation tank follows a parabolic path.

Reason (R) : The downward settling velocity (v0) of the discrete particle (of diameter d0) in a circular sedimentation tank does not change with time.





118. Assertion (A) : Shear strength parameters of sand can be estimated by conducting unconfined compression test.

Reason (R) : The effective angle of shearing resistance of sand is nearly the same for thy and saturated sands, in drained condition.





119. Assertion (A) : Estimation of settlement of foundations on sandy soils can be done by using SPT values.

Reason (R) : Sampling- in cohesionless soils without disturbing the structure is difficult.





120. Assertion (A) : The water content of inorganic soils is determined by heating the soil in an oven at a temperature of 105° to 1100 C.

Reason (R) : The free water, adsorbed water & structural water are all completely removed from the soil by heating it at 105° to 1100 C.







1 of 15

(PAPER–I) 1.

What is the total degree of indeterminacy (both internal and external) of the triangular planar truss shown in the figure above? a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

2. What is the total degree of indeterminacy in the continuous prismatic beam shown in the above figure? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

3. What is the total degree of indeterminacy (both internal and external) of the cantilever plane truss shown in the above figure? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

4. What is the number of independent degrees of freedom of the tow-span continuous beam of uniform section shown in the above figure? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

5. What is the kinematics indeterminacy for the frame shown above? (member inextensible) a. 6 b. 11 c. 12 d. 21

6. If the axial deformation is neglected, what is the kinematics indeterminacy of a signal bay portal frame fixed at base? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6

7.

I.E.S– (OBJ) 2008




2 of 15For the rigid frame shown above, what is the moment reaction at A? a. 5 kNm b. 10 kNm c. 12.33 kNm d. 15 kNm Ans. b

8. If the free end of a cantilever of span l and flexure rigidity EI undergoes a unit displacement (without rotation), what is the bending moment induced at the fixed end?

a. 2

3

l

EI

b. 2

4

l

EI

c. 2

5

l

EI

d. 2

6

l

EI

Ans. d 9.

A fixed beam AB, of constant EI, shown in the above figure, supports a concentrated load of 10 kN. What is the fixed end-moment MFAB at support A? a. 4.8 kNm b. 6.0 kNm c. 7.2 kNm d. 9.5 kNm Ans. c

10. In the portal frame shown above, what are the distribution factors for members BA, BC and BD respectively?

a. 3

1,3

1,3

1

b. 4

1,

4

1,

2

1

c. 0,3

1,

3

2

d. 2

1,

4

1,

4

1

Ans. a 11. Match List I with List II and select the

correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Analysis Method) A. Kane’s method B. Force method C. Column method D. Displacement method List II (Structure Type)

1.

2.

3.

4. Code: A B C D a. 4 1 3 2 b. 4 3 1 2 c. 2 1 3 4 d. 2 3 1 4 Ans. b

12. Muller-Breslau Principle is applicable to get influence line for which one of the following? a. Reaction at the ends of simple beam b. Bending moment at a section c. Shear force at a section d. Forces and moments at any section Ans. d



3 of 1513. What is the number of plastic hinges

formed if an indeterminate beam with redundancy R is to become determinate? a. R -1 b. R c. R + 1 d. R + 2 Ans. b

14. A portal frame has a collapse mechanism as shown above. What is the type? a. Pure portal mechanism b. Panel mechanism c. Combined mechanism d. Dual beam mechanism

15. A steel beam is connected to a steel column by means of two angles placed on the two sides of the web of the beam. What is it called? a. Stiffened seat connection b. Unstiffened seat connection c. Framed connection d. Rigid connection

16. What is the failure of a section in the figure above called? 1. Web buckling 2. Web crippling 3. Web crimpling 4. Column bucking Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 4 d. 2 and 4

17. In the plastic analysis of a steel beam, which of the following assumptions is/are made?

1. Plane sections under bending remain Plane at all stages of bending.

2. The stress-stair, relation is bilinear, i.e. consisting of tow straight lines.

3. Shear deformations are neglected. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

18. A load P is applied at the middle of a simply supported beam of span L. If the beam is made of ductile material, and MP

is the plastic moment, what is the ultimate value of P? a. MP / (4L) b. 2MP / L c. 2.5 MP /L d. 4 MP / L

19. What value of the shape factor is taken for a rectangular section in plastic design? a. 1.0 b. 1.5 c. 2.0 d. 2.5

20. Plastic analysis of structures is applicable to the structures made of which one of the following? a. Ductile and brittle materials b. Any structural material c. Brittle material only d. Ductile material only

21. The effective length of an angle member in a riveted truss is equal to which one of the following? (Where l is the centre to centre between the joints). a. l b. 0.85 l c. 0. 65 l d. 0.5 l

22. Which one of the following is correct: The purling in the roof trusses are subjected to unsymmetrical bending because the loading a. is parallel to the minor principle axis,

but doesn’t coincide b. is perpendicular to the minor principle

axis c. is inclined to the minor principal axis



4 of 15d. coincides with the minor principal axis

23. Which one of the following is correct? An intermediate vertical stiffener connected to the web is designed to withstand a shearing force of not less than

a. h

t100

b. h

t 2150

c. 2

125

t

h

d. h

t 2125

Where t is web thickness in mm and h is the outstand of stiffener in mm.

24. Which one of the following forces is used for the design of battens of a built-up column? a. Axial load b. Twisting moment c. Vertical shear d. Transverse shear

25. Which of the following parameters govern the permissible stress in compression in columns? 1. Modulus of section 2. Effective length 3. Radius of gyration Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 3 only

26. What is the maximum permissible slenderness ratio for steel ties likely to be subjected to compression? a. 400 b. 350 c. 250 d. 180

27. For field rivets, the permissible stresses are reduced by what percentage? a. 10 % b. 15 % c. 25 %

d. %3

133

28. An equal angle of are A has been welded on one side of a Gusset plate and carries

tension along the axis. What is the effective area of the angle? a. 0.5 A b. 0.75 A c. 0.875 A d. A

29. Which one of the following is correct? The permissible stresses in a weld are usually taken as a. less than those of the parent body b. equal to those of the parent body c. more than those of the parent body d. any desired value

30. How are structural members composed of two angles back to back connected throughout their length? a. By locking rivets b. By spacing rivets c. By gripping rivets d. By tacking rivets

31. Which one of the following is correct? Steel structures are ideally suitable for impact loads because they have high a. toughness value b. elastic modulus c. design stress d. plastic modulus

32. What is the allowable direct tensile stress in structural steel (approximately)? a. 0.45 fv b. 0.6 fy c. 0.66 fy d. 0.80 fy Where fy is the yield stress or proof stress.

33. Consider the following statements: Compared to mild steal, aluminum has 1. lesser ductility 2. lesser value of Young’s modulus. 3. lesser tensile strength. 4. no definite yield point. Which of the statements given above are correct? a. 2 and 3 only b. 1, 3 and 3 only c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 d. 1 and 4 only

34. Which one of the following is the correct range of fineness modulus of medium sand usable in preparing cement mortar? a. 1.5 to 2.2



5 of 15b. 2.6 to 2.9 c. 2.9 to 3.2 d. 5.5 to 6.5

35. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Particle size: Affects workability 2. Absorption and surface moisture:

Affects mix proportions 3. Grading: Maximizes cement 4. Bulk density: Significant for stability Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 3 and 4 d. 1 and 3

36. Consider the following statements: 1. Rise in temperature does not cause any

change in the color of cement concrete. 2. Curing minimizes the shrinkage of

cement concrete when it sets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2

37. Consider the following statements: 1. In reinforced cement concrete, modular

ratio is defined by ratio (modulus of elasticity of steel) (modulus of elasticity of concrete).

2. Modulus of rupture of cement concrete is a function of its characteristic compressive strength.

3. The characteristic compressive strength of M20 grade cement concrete at 7 days is 20 N/mm2.

Which of the statements given above are correct? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 3 only

38. What is the percentage of the fine aggregate of fineness modulus 2.6 to be combined with coarse aggregate of fineness modulus 6.8 for obtaining combined aggregate of fineness modulus 5.4? a. 30 %

b. 40 % c. 50 % d. 60 %

39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Admixture) A. Calcium lignosulphonate B. Aluminum powders C. Tartaric acid D. Sodium silicate List-II (Action in concrete) 1. Accelerators 2. Retarded 3. Air entertainer 4. Water reducer Code: A B C D a. 1 3 2 4 b. 4 3 2 1 c. 4 2 3 1 d. 1 2 3 4

40. Which factors influence the workability of concrete without sacrificing strength? 1. Fine aggregate 2. Quality of mixing water 3. Maximum size of coarse aggregate 4. Shape of coarse aggregate. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 2 d. 3 and 4

41. The workability of concrete can be increased by which of the following? 1. Increasing the quantity of coarse

aggregate without altering the total aggregate quantity

2. Decreasing the quantity of coarse aggregate and at the same time correspondingly increasing the quantity of fine aggregate

3. Using round aggregate Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 and 3 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only



6 of 15d. 1, 2 and 3

42. Consider the following statements regarding cement concrete: 1. Bleeding indicates deficiency of

coarser materials in the mix. 2. Segregation generally indicates poor

aggregate grading. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 3

43. Consider the following statements: Curing of concrete by steam under pressure 1. increases the compressive strength of

concrete. 2. reduces the shear strength of concrete. 3. increases the speed of chemical

reaction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 3 only

44. Match the sequence of determination of components of a concrete mix as per Indian standard method of mix design and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I A. Cement content B. Aggregate content C. Water content D. Water cement ratio List-II 1. First step 2. Second step 3. Third step 4. Fourth step Code: A B C D a. 1 2 4 3 b. 3 2 4 1 c. 3 4 2 1 d. 1 4 2 3

45. In a body loaded under plane stress conditions, what is the number of independent stress components in order to

completely specify the state of stress at a point? a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 9

46. The value of modulus of elasticity for a material in 200 GN/m2 and Poisson’s ratio is 0.25. What is its modulus of rigidity? a. 250 GN/m2 b. 320 GN/m2 c. 125 GN/m2 d. 80 GN/m2

47. A stepped column carries loads as shown above. What is the maximum normal stress in the column at B in the larger diameter column?

a. A

P

5.1

b. A

P

c. A

P

5.1

2

d. A

P2

48. A composite system where the components are of equal lengths is subjected to temperature rise. Which one of the following stresses will be developed in the component having highest coefficient of linear expansion? a. Compressive stress b. Tensile stress c. Shear stress d. Zero stress

49. What is the nature of stress in a ceiling fan rod? a. Bending b. Tensile c. Compressive d. Shear



7 of 1550.

What is the diameter of Mohr’s circle of stress for the state of stress shown above? a. 20

b. 210 c. 10 d. Zero

51. In a plane strain situation in xy plane, the displacements at a point are given as: u = (-2x + 8y) 10-6 unit. v = (-3x + 5y) 10-6 unit What is the shearing strain? a. 9 10-6 b. 7 10-6 c. 5 10-6 d. 3 10-6

52. If a body carries two unlike principal stresses, what is the maximum shear stress? a. Half the difference of magnitude of the

principal stresses. b. Half the sum of the magnitude of

principal stresses. c. Difference of the magnitude of

principal stresses. d. Sum of the magnitude of principal

stresses 53. In a bi-axial strain system x and y, what is

the maximum engineering shearing strain? a. x + y b. x - y

c. 2

yx

d. 2

yx

54. A symmetrical I section is subjected to shear force. The chear stress induced across induced across the section is maximum at which location? a. Extreme fibers

b. At the bottom of flanges in flanges

c. At the bottom of flanges in web portion

d. At the neutral axis 55. A simply supported beam AB of span L

carries two concentrated loads W each at points L/3 from A and B. What is the S.F. in the middle one-third portion of the beam? a. W/2 b. 2W c. W d. Zero

56. A beam is made of two identical metal flats soldered together. What is the ratio of stiffness of this beam to the stiffness of a beam in which the two flats are not soldered and which acts independently? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

57. A circular shaft is subjected to a bending moment Mb and a twisting moment Mt. What is the ratio of maximum shear stress and the maximum bending stress?

a. b

t

M

M2

b. b

t

M

M

c. b

t

M

M

2

d. b

t

M

M5.1

58. A thin cylinder of unit length, thickness ‘t’ and radius ‘r’ is subjected to internal pressure ‘p’. What is the circumferential stress?

a. Et

pr

2

b. t

pr

2

c. t

pr



8 of 15

d. t

pr2

59. What is the force in the vertical member CD of the pin-jointed frame shown above? a. 12 T (tension) b. 2 T (compression) c. 7 T (compression) d. 5 T (tension)

60. What if the ratio of load carrying capacity of a fixed beam to the of a cantilever beam of same span, having same maximum bending moment and loaded with uniformly distributed load throughout the span? a. 6 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2

61. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Chart) A. Bar chart B. Milestone C. W.B.S D. Linked Bar chart List II (Facilitation) 1. Activity dependencies can be implied 2. Resource requirement can be depicted 3. Higher level of authority can effect

monitoring and control 4. Trade based site supervision can be

assigned Code: A B C D a. 4 3 2 1 b. 2 1 4 3 c. 4 1 2 3 d. 2 3 4 1

62. Fill factor range of a power shovel when used for well blasted rock is a. 0.9 – 1.0 b. 0.8 – 0.9 c. 0.6 – 0.75 d. 0.4 – 0.5

63. Which of the following are the advantages of a crawler mounted power shovel over a rubber-typed equipment? 1. It can operate of soft and hard soil. 2. It is less expensive than rubber-tyred

equipment. 3. It works faster than rubber-tyred

equipment, Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 3 only

64. The strain of the boom of a hoist is minimum when it is in the a. Vertical position b. Horizontal position c. Inclined position general d. 45° inclined position

65. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List –I (Equipment) A. Clamshell B. Designation S C. Designation E D. Centralized production List –II (Used as with) 1. Paving mixer 2. Aggregate storage bins at batching and

mixing plant 3. Transit mixer 4. Construction mixer Code: A B C D a. 2 3 1 4 b. 2 4 1 3 c. 1 3 2 4 d. 1 4 2 3

66. For high class brick masonry, which area the proper bricks? a. Refractory bricks



9 of 15b. Jhumb bricks c. Bull nose bricks d. Modular bricks

67. Which one of the following is correct? Fully priestesses concrete beams a. resist all the working loads by priestess b. resist the full live load by priestess c. resist the part of the load by priestess d. resist only the dead loads

68. What is the assumption in the steel beam theory of doubly reinforced beams? a. Only steel bars will resist tension b. Only concrete will resist tension c. Stress in tension steel equals the stress

in compression steel d. Both concrete and steel will resist

compression 69. Consider the following statements

regarding CPM technique of project planning: 1. The critical path consists of those

activities for which the total float is zero.

2. Independent float is expressed as the difference between total float and the slack at the head event.

3. It is not possible to complete an activity earlier than the crash time.

Which of the statements given above are correct? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 3 only

70. A compounded bar consists of material A encased in material B. It is tightly secured at the ends. The coefficient of thermal expansion of A is more than of B. If the temperature of the bar is increased, the stresses induced will be a. tensile in both materials b. compressive in both materials c. tensile in material B and compressive

in material A d. compressive in material B and tensile

in material A 71. Match List-I with List-II and select the

correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Equipment)

A. Derrick crane B. Hoe C. Clam shell D. Dumper truck List-II (Category) 1. Excavating equipment 2. Hauling equipment 3. Hoisting equipment 4. Lifting equipment Code: A B C D a. 3 1 4 2 b. 4 2 3 1 c. 3 2 4 1 d. 4 1 3 2

72. The approximate hourly output of a

scraper is given by 28)30/(

100

D

C where c

is the struck capacity of the scraper in m3

and D is the one-way haul distance in meters. For a nominal 7 m3 scraper hauling over 65 m, the hourly output will nearly be a. 170 m3 b. 160 m 3 c. 150 m 3 d. 140 m 3

73. Which one of the following techniques is most suitable in case of research and development type of activity? a. Critical Path Method b. Project Evaluation and Review

Technique c. Bar chart d. Graphical Evaluation and Review

Technique 74. A tunnel of length of 800m is to be driven.

Part of the total length is through granite and balance is through sandstone. Granite can be tunneled at 10m per day and sandstone at 20m per day. Two mutually exclusive site conditions can be. (1) A probability of 0.4 for 600m granite with 200m sandstone; (2) Probability of 0.6 that each is 400m lone. The probabilistic estimate of total tunneling duration is a. 74 bays b. 68 days c. 64 days d. 60 days



10 of 1575. Assertion (A): addition of calcium chloride

while preparing concrete proves more effective with slow hardening Portland cement than with rapid hardening cement. Reason (R): Calcium chloride is an effective accelerator in increasing the rate of relevant reaction. a. Both A and R are individually true and


R is the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

76. Assertion (A): The volume of mortar needed for plastering on both faces of a one-brick wall is more than that for the same are on both faces together of any other thickness of brick wall. Reason (R): More water evaporates form the wetted bricks in case of a one-brick wall and also the joints have to be more commonly raked. a. Both A and R are individually true and



77. Assertion (A): In a tension test on a case iron specimen, the failure of the specimen is one a cross section perpendicular to the axis of the specimen. Reason (R): The failure of the specimen is on a plane subjected to maximum tensile stress and cast iron is relatively weak in tension. a. Both A and R are individually true and



78. Assertion (A): In a tension test on a mild steel specimen, the failure of the specimen is along a plane at 45° to the cross section. Reason (R): The failure of the specimen is on a plane subjected to maximum shear stress and mild steel is relatively weak in shear. a. Both A and R are individually true and


b. Both A and R are individually true but R is the correct explanation of A


79. Assertion (A): Linked bar chart cannot be developed form an AON network as easily as form an AOA network. Reason (R): AON networks do not incorporate information corresponding to dummy arrows of AOA networks. a. Both A and R are individually true and



80. Assertion (A): Where as crashing considers only the negative cost slop aspects, resource allocation may need consideration of the positive cost slope aspects also. Reason (R): Implement ability is based on manageability and affordability of resource histograms. a. Both A and R are individually true and



81. For the propped cantilever shown in the above figure, a hinge is provided at C.A and B is at the same level. What is the force reaction at the fixed end A? a. (4/3) P b. P c. (3/4) P d. P/2

82. Which one of the following is correct? A suspension bridge with a two-hinged stiffening girder is a. Statically determinate b. Indeterminate of one degree c. Indeterminate of two degrees d. A mechanism



11 of 1583.

What is the shear equation in slope deflection method for the portal frame shown above?

a. 0

PL

MM

L

MM DCCDBAAB

b. 0

PL

MM

L

MM CBBCBAAB

c. 0

PL

MM

L

MM DCCDCBBC

d. 0

pL

MM CBBC

84.

The fixed beam AB has hinge C at mid span. A concentrated load P is applied at C. What is the fixed end moment MA? a. Pl b. Pl/2 c. Pl/4 d. Pl/8

85. The propped cantilever AB carries a uniformly distributed load of q/unit length. In this condition the moment reaction

MA = 8

2qlWhat is the clockwise

moment required at B to make the slope of the deflection curve equal to zero?

a. 8

2ql

b. 16

2ql

c. 12

2ql

d. 4

2ql

86. What is the statical indeterminacy for the frame shown above? a. 12 b. 15 c. 11 d. 14

87. Which one of the following is correct? A statically indeterminate structure is the one which a. cannot be analysed at all b. can be analysed using equations of

static’s only c. can be analysed using equations of

static’s and compatibility equations d. can be analysed using equations of

compatibility only 88. By which one of the following methods is

an approximate quick solution possible for frame subjected to transverse loads? a. By cantilever or portal method b. By strain energy method c. By moment distribution method d. By matrix method

89. match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I A. Maxwell’s diagram



12 of 15B. Henneberg’s method C. New mark’s method D. Williot-mohr diagram List-II 1. Displacement of joints in a truss 2. Deflection by numerical procedure 3. Forces in bar members 4. Concept of substitute member Code: A B C D a. 1 2 4 3 b. 3 4 2 1 c. 3 2 4 1 d. 1 4 2 3

90. Some structural members subjected to long time sustained loads deform progressively with time especially at elevated temperatures. What is such a phenomenon called? a. Fatigue b. Creep c. Creep relaxation d. Fracture

91. What is the reaction at the support D of the rigid –jointed structure shown above? a. 10 kN b. 20 kN c. 30 kN d. 40 kN

92. Which one of the following is correct? A determinate structure a. Cannot be analyzed without the correct

knowledge of modulus of elasticity b. Must necessarily have roller support at

one of its ends c. Requires only statical equilibrium

equations for its analysis d. Will have zero deflection at its ends

93. Which one of the following is correct?

When a load is applied to a structure with rigid joints a. There is no rotation or displacement of

joint b. There is no displacement of joint c. There is no displacement of joint d. There can be rotation and displacement

of joint but the angle between the members connected to the joint remains same ever after application of the load

94. In the frame shown above, what is true horizontal reaction at left support? a. 15 kN b. 13 kN c. 7 kN d. 2 kN

95. What is the force in the member BC of the place frame shown above? a. 10 kN tensile b. 10 kN compressive c. 5.76 kN compressive d. Zero

96. Consider the following statements: 1. The bending stiffness of a beam cannot

be determined and the dimensions of cross-section of the beam.

2. The boundary conditions of a structure are important in sketching its deflected shape qualifiedly as well as for computing the displacement quantitatively.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only



13 of 15b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2

97. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Wood Element) A. Pitch B. Sapwood C. Heart wood D. Cambium layer List-II (Description) 1. Innermost portion of the tree 2. Inner annual rings surrounding the

pitch 3. Outermost annual rings 4. Thin layer of sap between sapwood

and inner bark Code: A B C D a. 1 3 2 4 b. 2 4 1 3 c. 1 4 2 3 d. 2 3 1 4

98. In respect of moisture content in wood fiver saturation point refers to which one of the following? a. Free water present in the cells b. Free water present in cell walls and

cell cavities c. No moisture present in cell walls and

cell cavities d. No free water exists in cell cavities but

cell walls are saturated 99. The moisture content of timber used in

building frames can be a. 2% to 5% b. 8% to 12% c. 12% to 18% d. > 20%

100. Match list-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Disease of Timber) A. Dry rot B. Grey rot C. Wet rot D. White rot

List-II (Effect of Disease) 1. Attack of sapwood by fungus 2. Damage to wood fibers due to

chemical decomposition of wood 3. Destruction of cellulose of wood due o

fungal attack 4. Destruction of lignin of wood due to

fungal attack Code: A B C D a. 1 3 2 4 b. 1 4 2 3 c. 2 3 1 4 d. 2 4 1 3

101. For flatly laid single brick soling, what is the number of bricks required of nominal size 20 cm 10 cm, with 1.2 cm wide cement mortar all around and with allowing up to 1% wastage for 10 m2 area? a. 400 b. 410 c. 425 d. 440

102. Consider the following statements: 1. Soil containing more than 30% of

calcium hydroxide is used for manufacture of sand lime brick.

2. Carbon brick is made form crushed coke bonded with tar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2

103. What is the number of traditional bricks required for 10m3 of brickwork with standard thickness of cement mortar (1:3 to 1:5, as the case may be)? a. 4750 b. 4850 c. 4950 d. 5050

104. Consider the following statements on cement mortar in brick masonry: 1. Cracking in brick masonry in most of

the cases is due to differential movement of the structure.



14 of 152. Rich mix cement mortar in brick

masonry makes the structure unnecessarily rigid.

3. small quantity of hydrated lime in cement mortar reduces shrinkage cracks.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1 and 3 only

105. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(Composition of raw material used in manufacture of cement)

A. 25%

B. 65%

C. 5%

D. 5%

List-II

(Component of raw material)

1. Silica

2. Calcium oxide

3. Aluminum oxide

4. Ferrous and magnesium oxides

Code:

A B C D

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 4 3 2 1

c. 1 3 2 4

d. 4 2 3 1

106. Match List-I with List-II in respect of ordinary Portland cement and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(Compound)

A. Tribalism silicate

B. Dualism silicate

C. Tribalism aluminate

D. Tertra calcium aluminoferrite

List-II

(Proportion)

1. 25 to 30%

2. 50 to 60%

3. 6 to 8%

4. 8 to 12%

Code:

A B C D

a. 2 3 4 1

b. 4 1 2 3

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 4 3 2 1


List-I

(Equipment)

A. Briquette testing machine

B. I e chatelier

C. Vicat apparatus

List-II

(Property)

1. Compressive strength

2. Consistency

3. Soundness

4. Tensile strength

Code:

A B C

a. 1 3 2

b. 1 2 3

c. 4 2 3

d. 4 3 2

108. When sand for construction work is stored at site in stacks of 61 cm height, what allowance due to sink age and shrinkage should be provided?

a. 5%

b. %2

17

c. 10%

d. %2

112

109. How can shear strength be ensured in a beam?

a. By providing binding wire on main bars



15 of 15b. By providing HYSD bars instead of

mild steel bars

c. By providing rounded aggregate

d. By providing stirrups

110. How is the depth of footing for an isolated column governed?

1. By maximum bending moment

2. By shear force

3. By punching shear


a. 2 and 3 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1,2 and 3

111. Usually stiffness of a simply supported beam is satisfied if the ratio of its span to depth does not exceed which one of the following?

a. 7

b. 10

c. 20

d. 26

112. When is an R.C.C roof slab designed as a two way slab?

a. If the slab is continuous over two opposite edges only

b. It the slab is un-supported at one edge only

c. If the ratio of spans in two directions is > 2

d. If the ratio of spans in two directions is < 2 s


When HYSD bars are used in place of mild steel bars in beam, the bond strength

a. Does not change

b. Increases

c. Decreases

d. Becomes zero

114. In a singly reinforced beam, the tensile steel reaches its maximum allowable stress earlier than concrete. What is such a section known as?

a. Under-reinforced section

b. Over-reinforced section

c. Balanced section

d. Economic section

115. Why is the design of a R.C. section as over-reinforced undesirable?

a. It consumes more concrete

b. It undergoes high strains

c. It fails suddenly

d. Its appearance is not good

116. What is the moment capacity of an under-reinforced rectangular RCC beam?

a. R b d2

b. R d b2

c. Ast st j d

d. Ast j d

(Symbols have the usual meaning)

117. What is the bond stress acting parallel to the reinforcement on the interface between bar and concrete?

a. Shear stress

b. Local stress

c. Flexural stress

d. Bearing stress

118. In a singly reinforced concrete beam section maximum compressive stress in concrete and tensile stress in steel reach their permissible stresses simultaneously. What is such a section called?

a. Under reinforced section b. Economic section c. Balanced section d. Over-reinforced section

119. Which one of the following is correct? While designing combined footing, the resultant of the column loads passes through the centrc of gravity of the footing slab such that the net soil pressure obtained is a. Parabolic b. Trapezoidal c. Uniform d. Non-uniform

120. For shorter storey height, cheaper form work and better lighting facilities, what is the recommended slab floor? a. T beam and slab b. Two way slab c. Flat slab

d. Framed structure



1 of 15

(PAPER–II)

1. The type of jump that forms when initial Froude number lies between 2-5 and 4-5 is

a. Weak jump

b. Steady jump

c. undular jump

d. oscillating jump

2. During the consolidation of a clay layer, if instead of double drainage, the drainage is allowed at single face only, the rate of compression will be

a. 4 times slower

b. 4 times faster

c. 2 times slower

d. 2 times faster

3. For a proposed building, raft foundation isolated footings and combined footings are being considered. These foundations are to be listed in the decreasing order of preference in terms of performance. Which one of the following is the correct order of listing?

a. Raft foundation – combined footings – isolated footings

b. Isolated footings – Raft foundation combined footings

c. Combined footings – Raft foundation – isolation footings

d. Combined footings – isolated footings – raft foundation

4. Consider the following statements: foundation design in expansive soil can be done by

1. Isolating the foundation from the swelling soil

2. Taking measures to prevent the swelling

3. Employing measures to make the structure withstand the moment.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1,2 and 3

5. Which one of the following is carried out by two the dilate method?

a. Circular curve ranging

b. Tachometric survey

c. Geodetic survey

d. Astronomical survey

6. Electronic the odolites of various ranges in which measured angels are displayed originally on display board area based on which one of the following?

a. Special optical technology

b. Introduction of microprocessor technology

c. Electro-optical technology

d. Special gearing

7. If the weight of an angle A (= 40° 2424 say) is 2, then the weight of the angle A/3 (= 13°28 08) will be

a. 4

b. 3 c. 9

d. 18

8. Flam steed gave numbers to stats observed by him in each constellation according to their

a. Brilliance

b. Altitudes

c. Co-declinations

d. Right ascensions

9. If is the declination of a star and is the latitude of the place of observation, then for a circumpolar star

a. ≤

b. ≥

c. ≤ (90°-2)

d. ≤ (90°-2)

10. Which one of the following surveys employs alidade?

I.E.S– (OBJ) 2008




2 of 15a. Contour survey

b. Archeological survey

c. Plane table survey

d. Reconnaissance survey

11. A particular runway measures 6 cm on a vertical photograph, whereas the same runway measures 4 cm on a map plotted on a scale of 1/24000. The scale of the photograph at the runway elevation is :

a. 1/36000

b. 1/24000

c. 1/36000

d. 1/16000

12. Assertion (A): Rankine’s earth pressure theory should not be used for concrete retaining walls and coulomb’s theory should not be used for estimating passive earth pressures.

Reasons (R): Rankine assumed that the retaining wall has a vertical beck and coulomb assumed that the resultant reaction due to earth pressure acts at one-third the height of the wall.


b. Both A and R are individually true but R is the correct expiation of A



13. Assertion (A): generally driven pilcs are adopted in granular soils and not in clays.

Reason (R): Vibratory loading helps in densification of sands but it has adverse effects in clays.





14. Assertion (A): Under-reamed piles are suitable for loose filled up sites and black –cotton soils.

Reasons (R): Black cotton soil have expansive montmorillonite clay minerals.





15. Assertion (A): foundation on expansive soils must be designed for as high a bearing pressure as possible consistent with bearing capacity and settlement requirement.

Reasons (R) : Lightly loaded single and two strayed buildings experience maximum damage when built on expansive soils.





16. Assertion (A): Triangulation networks are to be formed by well conditioned triangles.

Reason (R): triangulation signals should be conspicuous and centered accurately over the stations.





17. Assertion (A): Road camber helps in surface drainage.

Reason (R): In a curved road alignment, super elevation serves the purpose of camber.





18. Assertion (A): California bearing ratio test is carried out to evaluate the stability of soil sub grade and other flexible pavement materials over stressed.

Reason: It is essential at no time are the soil sub grade as well as other flexible pavement materials over stressed.





R is the correct expiation of A



19. Assertion (A): wind rose diagrams, showing wind direction duration and intensity are an essential requirement for planning the best direction of main runway of the airport.

Reason (R): corrections for elevation, temperature and gradient have to be applied to determine the length of the main runway of an airport, as per ICAO recommendations.





20. Assertion (A): runway capacity will be more in airport operating under VFR than IFR.

Reason (R): VFR gives more clear visual reference of airport during good weather conditions.





21. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Lining of irrigation canals has necessarily to be carried out in the reaches where the channel passes through

1. Sandy soil

2. Coarse aggregate soil

3. Clay soil

4. Fine silt and clay


a. 1 and 3

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 2

d. 3 and 4

22. A 4 hr storm had 4 cm of rainfall and the resulting direct runoff was 20 cm. if the -

index remains at the same value, the runoff due to 10 cm of rainfall in 8 hrs in the catchment is:

a. 6.0 cm

b. 7.5 cm

c. 2.3 cm

d. 2.8 cm

23. While using darcy-weisbach equation for estimating head loss in a pipe flow the friction factor was misjudged by +20%. For this case, the error in estimating discharge is:

a. + 10%

b. + 40%

c. – 40%

d. – 10%


Due to aging of pipes in a pipe network

1. The roughness increases linearly with time.

2. The pipes get rusted and bent.

3. The pipes become smoother with time.


a. 1 and 3

b. 2 and 3

c. 3 only

d. 1 only

25. The shape number in the case of pumps refers to which one of the following?

a. Ratio of sizes of suction pipe and delivery pipe

b. Ratio of diameter and thickness of impeller

c. Non dimensional form of specific speed

d. Ratio of blade angle at the inlet to the blade angle at the exit


1. Hydraulically most efficient channel section for an open channel flow will carry maximum discharge for a given area of cross section.

2. For a given cross sectional area hydraulic radius maximum when the wetted perimeter is minimum.




4 of 15a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2


1. Fluids of low viscosity are all irrigational.

2. Rotation of the fluid is always associated with shear stress.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

28. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I

(component)

A. Taxiways

B. Control tower

C. Hanger

D. Apron

List II

(Design Feature)

1. Large span structure

2. Visibility all round and sound-proof

3. Turning radius

4. Waiting capacity for aircraft

Code:

A B C D

a. 1 4 3 2

b. 3 2 1 4

c. 1 2 3 4

d. 3 4 1 2

29. The size of hangar in an airport is guided by which of the following?

a. Speed and direction of wind and visibility

b. Weight of aircraft and turning needs

c. The fuelling capacity and storage space

d. The length, wingspan and height of aircraft

30. The orientation of runway is decided by which factors?

1. Maximum wind coverage and least cross winds

2. Landing characteristics of aircrafts

3. Scope for future expansion

4. Obstruction-free approaches


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1,2 and 3

c. 1,2 and 4

d. 2,3 and 4

31. Mean sea level at Indian ports and harbours has generally been established based on the analysis of tidal sea water level fluctuations over which period?

a. 10 years

b. 16 years

c. 19 years

d. 25 years

32. Match list-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List –I

(Component)

A. Keel and Bilge blocks

B. Capstons and Bolards

C. Fenders

D. Apron

List II

(Function)

1. Impact absorbers of quay walls

2. Floating indicators

3. Supports for ships in dry docks

4. Anchorage devices for ships

Code:

A B C D

a. 3 4 1 2

b. 4 3 1 2

c. 4 3 2 1

d. 3 4 2 1

33. Echo-sounding machine is used for which of the following?

1. Locating objects on sea shore

2. Measuring sea-surface levels

3. Determining depth of sea-bed below sea surface



5 of 154. Location sunken objects below sea

surface


a. 1 and 3 only

b. 1,2 and 3

c. 2 and 4

d. 3 and 4

34. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Vishakhapatnam Plymouth : Semi-natural harbor

2. Para dip and Mangalore: Lagoon harbor

3. New York : Natural harbor


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3


1. Piles are provided in groups, which are connected together by a pile cap. The structure rests on top of the pile cap. The pile cap is situated below the ground level.

2. For situations where pile is subjected to upward pull, pedestal piles or under-reamed piles are more suitable type of foundations.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

36. In comparison to Atterberg limits of normal soil, the expansive soils have which of the following?

1. More liquid limit

2. Less plastic limit

3. Less shrinkage limit

4. More volumetric shrinkage


a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

b. 1,3 and 4 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 4 only


On addition of lime to swelling soils,

1. Their liquid limit increases

2. Their plastic limit increases

3. Their shrinkage limit increases

4. Their swelling potential decreases


a. 1 and 3 only

b. 1, 2 and 4 only

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

38. Consider the following statements about the under-reamed pile in swelling soils:

1. Its bulb provides anchor against movement due to volume changes of soil.

2. It is a driven pile.

3. Its bulb diameter is 2-5 times its shaft diameter.


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1 and 3 only

39. A scale of 1 inch = 50 ft. is mentioned on an old map. What is the corresponding equivalent scale?

a. 1 cm = 5 m

b. 1cm = 6 m

c. 1cm = 10 m

d. 1 cm = 12 m

40. The whole circle bearings of lines AB and BC are 30° 15’ and 120° 30’. What is the included angle ABC between the lines AB and BC?

a. 229° 45’

b. 89° 45’

c. 269° 45’

d. 90° 15’

41. What is ABC if FB of line AB is 40° and BB of line BC is 280°?

a. 90°

b. 120°



6 of 15c. 240°

d. 320°


a. Change point is a point denoting shifting of level

b. For leveling work both centering and leveling of a dumpy level are prerequisite

c. Bench mark is a point whose R.L. is always known


43. Consider the following statements about the characteristics of contours:

1. Closed contour lines with higher values inside show a lake.

2. Contour is an imaginary line joining points of equal elevations.

3. Closely spaced contours indicate steep slop.

4. Contour lines can cross each other in case an overhanging cliff.


a. 2, 3 and 4

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 4

d. 1,2 and 3

44. Which of the following can be used as a map substitute?

a. Terrestrial photographs

b. Vertical aerial photographs

c. Oblique aerial photographs

d. Vertical aerial photo-mosaics

45. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list

List –I

A. Visual interpretation

B. Geographical information system

C. National remote sensing agency

D. Supervised image classification

List II

1. Creation of data bank of multi information for a project area

2. Visual identification of objects from image characteristics

3. Computer classification of digital image data

4. Supplier of aerial and satellite based remote sensing data products in India

Code:

A B C D

a. 2 1 3 4

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 1 3 2 4

d. 1 4 2 3

46. Which one of the following is not strictly a method of remote sensing?

a. Thermal and multi spectral scanning

b. Microwave sensing

c. Earth resource satellite

d. Stereoscopy

47. Consider the following bituminous surfacing:

1. SDBM

2. PMC

3. A.C.

4. S.D.

5. Mastic asphalt (M.A.)

Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing order with respect to their performance and wearing qualities?

a. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5

b. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

c. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5

d. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5

48. Consider the following statements with reference to water bound macadam (WBM) and wet mix macadam (WMM):

1. WBM is a road mix and WMM is a plant mix.

2. WBM usually has plastic filler, while WBM has non-plastic filler.

3. WBM is a modern road mix and WMM is a traditional road mix.


a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 only

d. 2 only



7 of 1549. A line load of infinite length has an

intensity q per unit length. What is the vertical stress z

at a depth z below the earth at the centre of the load?

a. 2

z

qzs

p=

b. 2

z

q

zs

p=

c. 22

z

qzs

p=

d. 2

2z

q

zs

p=

50. IRC code No. 37-1985 deals with which one of the following?

a. Design of rigid pavements, taking ESWL and CBR into account

b. Design of rigid pavements, taking axle load and CBR into account

c. Design of flexible pavement, taking ESWL and CBR into account

d. Design of flexible pavement taking cumulative axle loads and CBR into account.

51. Match list- I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I

A. Traffic volume

B. Traffic density

C. Traffic Regulations

D. Rotary Intersection

List II

1. Number of vehicles occupying a unit length of road at a given instant of time.

2. Number of vehicles passing a given point on road in a given unit of time in a given direction

3. Where all converging vehicles are forced to move in one direction around a large central traffic island

4. Rules covering all aspects of control of vehicles, drivers and all other road users

Code:

A B C D

a. 2 4 1 3

b. 3 1 4 2

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 3 4 1 2

52. Which of the following factors are not strictly related to design of traffic rotary intersections?

1. Radius of central island

2. Weaving length

3. Ramps and interchanges

4. Acceleration lanes


a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 4

c. 2 and 3

d. 3 and 4

53. A pressure gauge reads 57.4k pa and 80k pa respectively at heights of 8m and 5m fitted on the side of a tank filled with liquid. What is the approximate density of the liquid in kg/m3?

a. 393

b. 768

c. 1179

d. 7530

54. What is the momentum thickness for the boundary layer with velocity distribution

?u y

U

a. /6

b. /2

c. 3 /2

d. 2

55. In model similarity, if gravitational and inertial forces are the only important forces, then what is the discharge ratio?

a. L r3/2

b. L r1/2

c. L r5/2

d. L r1/3

Where L r = ratio of length dimension.

56. When discussing most efficient section of flow into open channels, what is the perimeter P as a proportion of depth of flow h (ie., P/h) fir (i) a triangular section, and (ii) a trapezoidal section, respectively?

a. 2.25, 2.83

b. 2.25, 3.15



8 of 15c. 2.83, 3.15

d. 2.83, 3.46

57. What is the energy loss through a length of pipe form which all the discharge is taken out unifo5rmly along its length, with respect to the case when all the discharge is delivered to the end?

a. 2/3

b. 1/3

c. 3/2

d. 1/2

58. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I

(Principle)

A. Hele Shaw flow

B. Strokes law

C. Hagen-Poiseuille flow

D. Pascal’s law

List II

(Effect)

1. Surface of equal pressure

2. Settling of fine particles

3. Laminar flow between parallel plates

4. Laminar flow in tubes

Code:

A B C D

a. 2 3 4 1

b. 3 2 4 1

c. 2 3 1 4

d. 3 2 1 4

59. A fast centrifugal pump impeller has which of the following?

a. Forward facing blades

b. Radial blades

c. Backward facing blades

d. Propeller type blades


An air vessel is fitted on the suction side of a reciprocating pump to

1. Achieve higher speed without separation

2. Reduce work in overcoming frictional resistance

3. Avoid excessive vibration

4. Have uniform discharge


a. 1, 2 and 4

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 3 and 4 only

d. 2, 3 and 4

61. Water is supplied form a height of 2.8 m at the rate of 35 lps to a hydraulic ram which delivers 2 lps to a height of 28 m above the ram. What is the Rankine’s efficiency?

a. 58%

b. 55%

c. 52%

d. 44%


List I

(Type of Power House)

A. Tidal Plant

B. Storage Plant

C. Pumped Stored Plant

D. Run-of-river Plant

List II

(Feature)

1. Utilizes reversible turbines and improves utilization factor

2. Utilizes current flow in stream, and has pond age to improve load factor

3. Utilizes current flow in stream, and has pond age to improve load factor

4. Utilizes annually average flow with storage

Code

A B C D

a. 3 4 1 2

b. 3 2 1 4

c. 1 2 3 4

d. 1 4 3 2

63. Kilpich equation is used to determine which one of the following?

a. Run-off form a given rainfall

b. Base time of a unit hydrograph

c. Time of concentration in run-off hydrograph




9 of 1564. Form the analysis of rainfall data at a

particular station, it was found that a rainfall of 400 mm had a return period of 20 years.

a. (0.95)10

b. 1-(0.95)10

c. 1-(0.05)10

d. (0.05)10

65. Inconsistency of rainfall data can be checked by which one of the following?

a. Normal ratio method

b. Mass curve method

c. Double-mass curve method

d. Depth duration frequency curve

66. What is the chemical symbol for ice as per UNESCO terminology?

a. H8 O4

b. H2 O

c. H6 O3

d. H4 O2

67. What is the depth of water seal in the traps?

a. < 2.5 cm

b. 2.5 – 7.5 cm

c. 7.5 – 12.5 cm

d. Not less than 15 cm

68. Bangalore and Indore process of composting are which of the following?

a. Both anaerobic processes

b. Both aerobic processes

c. Anaerobic process and aerobic process, respectively

d. Aerobic process and anaerobic process, respectively

69. A solid waste sample has been segregated and one of the components has been subjected to elemental analysis. The result of analysis in percent by mass revealed C (40%), H (6.0%), O (44%), N (0.3%). What is the likely waste component?

a. Food waste

b. Paper and cardboard waste

c. Plastic waste

d. Leather waste

70. Pneumoconiosis is caused due to inhalation of which one of the following?

a. Silica

b. NOx

c. Lead d. Cadmium

71. Which one of the following conditions of automobile gives maximum unburned hydrocarbons?

a. Idling

b. Cruise

c. Acceleration

d. Deceleration

72. Electrostatic precipitator is most useful for which one of the following industries?

a. Tannery

b. Hydroelectric power generation

c. Thermal power generation

d. Textile factory

73. What will be the resultant decibel level when two sources make noise of equal decibels?

a. Decibel level will be the same

b. Decibel level will increase by 3 decibels

c. Decibel level will decrease by 3 decibel

d. Decibels of the two sources

74. Match List –I with List-II and select the correct answer using the cod3e given below the lists:

List I

(Air pollutant)

A. CO

B. CO2

C. SO2

D. NOx

List II

(Effect)

1. Acid rain

2. Acute toxicity

3. Ozone liberation

4. Greenhouse effect

Code

A B C D

a. 4 3 1 2

b. 4 3 2 1

c. 2 4 1 3

d. 3 4 1 2



10 of 1575. Biological magnification of pesticides

takes place through which of the following?

a. Population pyramids

b. Hydrologic cycle

c. Food chains

d. Air cycle

76. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I

(Soil Classification Symbol)

A. GW

B. SW

C. ML

D. CL

List II

(Soil Property)

1. Soil having uniformity coefficient > 6

2. Soil having uniformity coefficient > 4

3. Soil having law plasticity

4. Soil having low compressibility

Code:

A B C D

a. 1 2 4 3

b. 2 1 3 4

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 1 2 3 4

77. Match List–I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(Soil)

A. Fine sand

B. Silt

C. Peat

List II

(Type)

1. Expansive oil

2. Coarse grained soil

3. Fine grained soil

4. Organic soil

Code:

A B C

a. 3 2 1

b. 4 3 1

c. 3 1 2

d. 2 3 4

78. Match List–I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(Symbol)

A. ML

B. SM

C. Pt

D. MH

List II

(Soil)

1. Silty sand

2. Inorganic silt with large compressibility

3. Inorganic silt with small compressibility

4. Soil with high organic content with high compressibility

Code:

A B C D

a. 3 2 4 1

b. 4 1 3 2

c. 3 1 4 2

d. 4 2 3 1

79. Maximum possible discharge form a small catchment corresponding to a particular rainfall intensity is independent of which one of the following?

a. Soil moisture conditions

b. Drainage characteristics of catchment

c. Area of the catchment

d. Duration of the rainstorm

80. The permissible tractive force in an erodible channel depends upon which of the following?

1. Angle of repose of the material

2. Particle size

3. Sediment content of water

4. Wetted perimeter of channel


a. 1, 2 and 4

b. 1, 2 and 3

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 and 4 only



11 of 1581. Which one of the following is correct?

Semi-module outlets are those outlets in which

a. Discharge gets affected by the change in water level of field channel

b. Discharge gets affected by the change in water level of the distributing channel but not with the change in water level of field channel

c. Discharge is independent of water levels in the distributing channel and the field channel


82. For calculating the maximum flood discharge in an alluvial stream, which is the best suited relation?

a. v R 2/3 S1/3

b. v R2/3 S1/2

c. v R1/2 S1/2

d. v D 0.64

83. For water supply to a medium town, what is the dailv variation factor?

a. 1.5

b. 2.5

c. 3

d. 3.5

84. Which one of the following factors has the maximum effect on figure of per capita demand of water supply of a given town?

a. Method of charging of the consumption

b. Quality of water

c. System of supply-intermittent or continuous

d. Industrial demand

85. Match List –I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I

(Predominance of Compounds)

A. Monochloramine

B. Dicholoramine

C. Nitrogen tricholoride

List II

(pH range)

1. Below pH 4.4

2. Over pH 7.5

3. Between pH 5 to 6.5

Code:

A B C

a. 1 2 3

b. 2 3 1

c. 3 1 2

d. 3 2 1

86. Which of the following are the advantages of cast-iron pipe for its use in water supply?

1. Resistant to corrosion to a reasonable extent

2. Very easy to join the pipes

3. Easy to transport

4. Longer life


a. 1, 3 and 4

b. 1, 2 and 3

c. 1 and 4 only

d. 2, 3 and 4

87. Which one of the following valves is seldom used in water distribution systems because of high head loss characteristics?

a. Butterfly

b. Globe

c. Plug

d. Sluice

88. Son scope is used for which one of the following?

a. Checking the accuracy of water meters

b. Regulating the fire hydrants

c. As a replacement of venturimeter for discharge measurement

d. Detection of leakage in underground water mains

89. In the design consideration of sewerage system, the sewers must have which one of the following?

a. Maximum velocity of flow

b. Only 50 percent of maximum velocity of flow

c. Minimum velocity of not less than cleansing velocity of flow

d. High pressure at all times



12 of 1590. Which one of the following is considered

as the thermophilic range of sludge digestion?

a. 60° C to 70°C

b. 50°C to 57°C

c. 29° C to 40°C

d. 20°C to 30°C


In context of sludge volume index (SVI).

1. The SVI is expressed as the volume (in cu. Cm) of the activated sludge for one gram of dry weight of the sludge.

2. A higher value of SVI indicates a light and fluffy sludge which is not easily settle able.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

92. Which one of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen?

a. Green algae

b. Blue green algae

c. Red algae

d. Brown algae

93. An industry has a sewage treatment plant which produces sludge with a moisture content of 98%. With the solid content remaining the same, the sludge is thickened so that the moisture content now is 96%. If the original quantity of sludge is P, what is the quantity of the quantity of the thickened sludge?

a. 0.98 P

b. 3 P/4

c. 2 P/3

d. P/2

94. a well operating activated sludge process unit, what is the value of sludge volume index?

a. < 50

b. 100-150

c. 200-300

d. >300

95. What does the presence of excess nitrates in river water indicate?

a. Recent pollution of water with sewage

b. Past pollution of water with sewage

c. Intermittent pollution of water with sewage

d. No pollution of water with sewage

96. What is the minimum turning radius for a passenger ship?

a. 2 ship length

b. 3 ship length

c. (1.5 ship length) + water depth

d. (2 ship length) + (1.5 draft)


List I

(Harbour Structure)

A. Dolphins

B. Groynes

C. Fenders

D. Slipways

List II

(Purpose)

1. To protect the beach or retained earth

2. To cushion to absorb shock of shine during loading the unloading

3. Mooring structure in combination with loading platform

4. Repairing and building ship

Code:

A B C D

a. 2 4 3 1

b. 3 1 2 4

c. 2 1 3 4

d. 3 4 2 1

98. Which of the following are related to maintenance of railway track?

1. Jim crow and gauge bar

2. Through packing and boxing

3. Buffer stop and sand hump

4. Creep adjustment


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 4



13 of 15d. 2, 3 and 4

99. The vertical water on tongue rail should not exceed which one of the following?

a. 6 mm

b. 10 mm

c. 12 mm

d. 15 mm

100. What is the hauling capacity of a railway locomotive having 4 pairs of driving wheels, carrying an axle load of 24 tonnes each? (Assume 0.166 as the coefficient of friction)

a. 16.5 tonnes

b. 16.0 tonnes

c. 15.5 tonnes

d. 17.0 tonnes

101. Which of the following factors help in ensuring track modulus, in a railway track?

a. Gauge and formation width

b. Track materials and sleeper density

c. Degree of curvature and super elevation

d. Length of rail and flange width

102. The ‘track modulus’ is an index of measure of which of the following?

a. Resistance due to friction

b. Resistance due to shear

c. Resistance due to deformation

d. Resistance due to rolling

103. How can additional access, quick removal of muck and natural ventilation in long tunnels be achieved?

a. By providing jumbos and pumps

b. By providing scaffolding and liner plates

c. By providing adits and shafts

d. By providing pilot tunnels and well points

104. Weishbach triangle method may be used for which one of the following?

a. To carry out surface alignment of a tunnel

b. To transfer levels underground tunnel surveys

c. To connect two ends of an underground tunnel surveys

d. To connect two ends of an underground tunnel

105. Which one of the following methods of tunneling is employed if the strata is sub-aqueous?

a. Shield tunneling

b. Drift system

c. Liner plate method

d. Pilot tunnel method

106. In modal choice studies which one of the following factors influences the shape of diversion curves?

a. Trip purpose

b. Trip length

c. Income

d. Residential density

107. In urban transportation planning, the modal split’ is the process of which one of the following?

a. Staggering of working hours

b. Segregation of fast and slow modes

c. Separation of traffic streams by flyovers

d. Deciding the choice for a mode


In laboratory compaction tests, the optimum moisture content of soil decreases

a. With increase of compaction energy and with decrease of coarse grains in the soil

b. With decrease of compaction energy and with increase of coarse grains in the soil

c. With increase of both compaction energy and coarse grains in the soil

d. With decrease of both compaction energy and coarse grains in the soil


1. Coefficient of consolidation normally increases with decreasing liquid limit of clay.

2. The larger the value of coefficient of consolidation, the longer it takes for full consolidation to occur.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only



14 of 15c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2


1. Pore pressure parameter a is a constant for a soil.

2. The shear strength of soil is a function of the effective stress in the soil and not of the total stress in the soil.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

111. Match List-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I

(Equipment)

A. Hydrometer

B. Plate load test set up

C. Pycnometer

D. Direct shear apparatus

List II

(Use)

1. Determination of shear parameter

2. Determination of bearing capacity of specific gravity

3. Determination of bearing capacity of soils

4. Grain size distribution tests for clays

Code:

A B C D

a. 2 1 4 3

b. 4 3 2 1

c. 2 3 4 1

d. 4 1 2 3

112. A vertical cut is to be made in saturated clay with C=15 kN/m2, = and Y= 20 kN/m3. What is the theoretical depth to which the clay can be excavated without side collapse?

a. 6 m

b. 2 m

c. 2.5 m

d. 3 m

113. In seismic exploration method, velocities V1 and V2 were 600 m/s and 4000 m/s the distance corresponding to the break point of velocities was 30 m. based on this detail, what is the depth of overburden?

a. 11.5 m

b. 12.5 m

c. 12.9 m

d. 13.2 m

114. Consider the following statements in respect of static cone penetration test:

1. The cone used has an apex angle of 60° and base area of 10 cm2.

2. This test gives a continuous record of cone resistance.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2


List-I

(Foundation)

A. Under-reamed piles

B. Floating rafts

C. Combined footing

D. Strap footing

List II

(Demanding Situation)

1. To restrict settlement of soft clays/silts

2. To transfer the moment in between two adjacent footings

3. To restrict damages due to volume changes of swelling soils

4. When columns are very close to the property line

Code:

A B C D

a. 3 2 4 1

b. 4 1 3 2

c. 4 2 3 1

d. 3 1 4 2



15 of 15116. A differential free swell test on a soil gives

a value of differential free swell of 40% what is the degree of swelling?

a. Low

b. Medium

c. High

d. Very high

117. Which factors influence the bearing capacity of a purely cohesion less soil?

1. Relative density of soil

2. Width and depth of footing

3. Unit weight of soil


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1,2 and 3

118. Match list –I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List II

(Field Test)

A. Plate load test

B. Standard penetration test

C. Vane shear test

D. Dilatancy test

List II

(Suitability)

1. To estimate bearing capacity of granular soil

2. To estimate in situ strength of soft clay

3. To identify silt from clay

4. To estimate bearing capacity for permissible settlement, in clays

Code:

A B C D

a. 4 3 2 1

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 4 1 2 3

d. 2 3 4 1

119. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I

(Test)

A. Field Density test

B. Plate load test

C. C.B.R test

List II

(Utility)

1. Stress deformation characteristics

2. Compaction characteristics

3. Design of pavement

4. Safe load bearing capacity of soil

Code:

A B C

a. 2 4 1

b. 4 2 1

c. 4 2 3

d. 2 4 3

120. Match list–I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(Method)

A. Static formulae

B. Dynamic formulae

C. Static pile load test

D. Cyclic pile load test

List-II

(Suitability)

1. To estimate allowable load for permissible settlement for a pile

2. To separate point bearing and friction bearing capacities of a pile

3. To estimate allowable load for driven piles in granular soils

4. To estimate allowable load for board piles in clays

Code:

A B C D

a. 4 2 1 3

b. 1 3 4 2

c. 4 3 1 2

d. 1 2 4 3



upsc objective type old question papers

Documents

soil sample

cpt test list

correct answer list

mari list

organic soil

alluvial soil

silty sand list

match list iin situ