Úe$e-Øeefle%ee - mount litera zee school varanasi class xi student... · these are subject...

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1 STUDENT PLEDGE India is my country / all Indians are my brothers and sisters. I love my country / and I am proud of its rich / and varied heritage. I shall always strive to be worthy of it. I shall give my parents / teachers / and all elders respect / and treat everyone with courtesy. To my country and my people / I pledge my devotion. In their well-being and prosperity alone / lies my happiness. Úe$e-Øeefle%ee Yeejle nceeje osMe nw~ nce meye YeejleJeemeer YeeF&-yenve nQ~ nceW Dehevee osMe ØeeCeeW mes Yeer hÙeeje nw~ Fmekeâer mece=efæ Deewj efJeefJeOe mebmke=âefle hej nceW ieJe& nw~ nce Fmekesâ megÙeesiÙe DeefOekeâejer yeveves keâe ØeÙelve meoe keâjles jnWies~ nce Deheves ceelee-efhelee, efMe#ekeâeW SJeb ieg®peveeW keâe Deeoj keâjWies Deewj meyekesâ meeLe efMe°lee keâe JÙeJenej keâjWies~ nce Deheves osMe Deewj osMeJeeefmeÙeeW kesâ Øeefle Jeheâeoej jnves keâer Øeefle%ee keâjles nQ~ Gvekesâ keâuÙeeCe Deewj mece=efæ ceW ner nceeje megKe efveefnle nw~

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1

STUDENT PLEDGE India is my country / all Indians are my brothers and sisters.

I love my country / and I am proud of its rich / and varied heritage.

I shall always strive to be worthy of it.

I shall give my parents / teachers / and all elders respect / and treat everyone with courtesy.

To my country and my people / I pledge my devotion.

In their well-being and prosperity alone / lies my happiness.

Úe$e-Øeefle%ee Yeejle nceeje osMe nw~ nce meye YeejleJeemeer YeeF&-yenve nQ~

nceW Dehevee osMe ØeeCeeW mes Yeer hÙeeje nw~

Fmekeâer mece=efæ Deewj efJeefJeOe mebmke=âefle hej nceW ieJe& nw~

nce Fmekesâ megÙeesiÙe DeefOekeâejer yeveves keâe ØeÙelve meoe keâjles jnWies~

nce Deheves ceelee-efhelee, efMe#ekeâeW SJeb ieg®peveeW keâe Deeoj keâjWies Deewj meyekesâ meeLe efMe°lee keâe JÙeJenej keâjWies~

nce Deheves osMe Deewj osMeJeeefmeÙeeW kesâ Øeefle Jeheâeoej jnves keâer

Øeefle%ee keâjles nQ~

Gvekesâ keâuÙeeCe Deewj mece=efæ ceW ner nceeje megKe efveefnle nw~

2

SCHOOL UNIFORM Summer Uniform - (March to October) 1. Girls : Half-sleeved shirt, divided skirt, school socks and shoes, Tie, Belt. 2. Boys : Half-sleeved shirt, shorts (classes Jr. Kg. to III) and trousers (classes IV to XII),

school socks and shoes, Tie, Belt. Winter Uniform - (November to February) 1. Girls : Full-sleeved shirt, trouser or skirt (for all classes) school socks and shoes, school

tie, school sweater and school blazer. 2. Boys : Full-sleeved shirt, trousers (for all classes), school socks, shoes, tie, school

sweater and school blazer Uniform of Jr. KG and Sr. KG on Friday Coloured/Casual Dress House Uniform :

Class I-V (Friday) : House T-Shirts, House Shorts / Skirt / Lowers, School Shoes and Socks.

Class VI-XII (Saturday) : House T-Shirts, House Skirt / Lowers, School Shoes and Socks.

3

Dear Parent

CBSE has done away with the home examination system and has re-instated the Board examination for class X w.e.f. session 2017-18.It has also implemented uniform system of assessment and examination with a universal report card pattern. The assessments of classes VI-VIII have also been designed for gradual increase in assessment content to prepare students for the challenging task of taking class X Board examination covering the syllabus of the complete academic year.

SCHOLASTIC AREAS

For classes I-V: The 1st term syllabus of the grammar and writing portion in English & Hindi along with Mathematics shall also be assessed in the 2nd term examination

For Classes VI-VIII: Few chapters of Science & Social Science of 1st term will also be assessed in the 2nd term. These chapters have been marked with a * (asterisk) in the syllabus in the following pages. The 1st term syllabus of the grammar and writing portion in English & Hindi along with Mathematics shall also be assessed in the 2nd term examination.

For classes IX upwards: Complete syllabus of the 1st term shall be included in the final /Term end examination for ALL SUBJECTS.

General Knowledge for classes I – VIII shall be a graded subject.

There will be marks for Notebook Submission and Subject Enrichment Activities in each term.

Notebook Submission (5 marks in each term)

Notebook submission as a part of internal assessment is aimed at enhancing seriousness of students towards Class work/Homework/Preparing notes for the topics being taught in the classroom as well as assignments. This also addresses the critical aspect of regularity, punctuality, neatness and notebook upkeep.

Subject Enrichment Activities (5 marks in each term)

These are subject specific application activities aimed at enrichment of the understanding and skill development. These activities will be recorded internally by the respective subject teachers .

• For Languages : These activities will include those which will aim at equipping the learner to develop effective listening & speaking skills

• For Mathematics: Subject based activities as prescribed in the curriculum / Books • For Science: Various practical based activities. • For Social Science: Map, Project work & Group discussions will be undertaken.

CO SCHOLASTIC AREAS

To promote holistic development, students will be judged in Visual Arts (Art & Craft), Performing Arts (Music & Dance) along with Health & Physical Education.. These activities will be graded on a 5-point grading scale (A to E) and will have no descriptive indicators.

Please understand and follow the new examination pattern.

A comprehensive mark wise description of the examination pattern is given below:

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Mount Litera Zee School, Varanasi Session 2017-18

Class - XI Subject – English (301)

Month Hornbill Snapshots Writing Skill April & May

• The Portrait of a Lady,

• A Photograph

• The Summer of the Beautiful White horse

• Notice Writing • Advertisement • Report Writing,

Integrated Grammar June & July

• We’re not Afraid to Die

• The Address • Note making, • Letter to the Editor

August • The Voice of the Rain,

• Discovering Tut

• Ranga’s Marriage • Business • Official letters • Integrated Grammar

September Mid Term Examination October • The Ailing Planet

• Childhood • Albert Einstein at

School • Birth

• Business / official letters

• Poster Designing • Integrated Grammar

November • The Browning Version

• Mother’s Day • Article / Speech Writing

• Debate Writing December • Father to Son

• The Tale of Melon City

• Mother’s Day • Novel Reading

(The Canterville Ghost)

January & February

Revision & Term End Examination

5

Subject – Mathematics (041) Month Contents

April • Sets • Relations and Functions

May + June • Trigonometry July • Principle of Mathematical Induction

• Complex Number and Quadratic Equation • Linear Inequality. • Permutation and Combination

August • Permutation and Combination (Contd…) • Binomial Theorem

September Mid Term Examination October • Sequence and series

• Straight Lines November • Conic sections

• Introduction to Three dimensional Geometry December • Limits and Derivatives

• Mathematical Reasoning • Statistics

January • Probability + Revision February Revision & Term End Examination

6

Subject – Physics (042)

Month Unit Practical April • Physical world and

measurement • Kinematics

• To measure the diameter of a small spherical/cylindrical body by using Vernier Callipers (a) Internal diameter (b) External diameter (c) Depth of cylindrical body

• To Measure the diameter of a given wire using screw gauge

• To determine the radius of curvature of a given spherical surface by a spherometer

May + June • Kinematics • Laws of motion • Circular Motion • Projectile Motion

• To determine the mass of two different objects using a beam balance

• To find the weight of a given body using parallelogram law of vectors.

• To study the relationship between force of limiting friction and normal reaction and to find the coefficient of friction between a block and a horizontal surface

July • Work Power and energy • Motion of system of

particles

• Using a simple pendulum, plot L–T and L–T2 graphs and use it to find the effective length of second’s pendulum.

• To determine young’s modulus of elasticity of the material of the given wire.

August • Motion of system of particles and rigid body

• Gravitation

• To find the force constant of a helical spring by plotting a graph between load and extension

• To measure the force of limiting friction for rolling of a roller on a horizontal plan.

September Mid Term Examination October • Properties of Bulk Matter • To study the relation between frequency and

length of a given wire under constant tension using sonometer.

November • Thermodynamics • Behavior of perfect Gas

and Kinetic Theory of gases

December • Oscillation & Waves

January • Oscillation & Waves February Term End Examination

7

Subject – Chemistry (043)

Month Unit Practical April UNIT – 1 – Some basic concepts

of Chemistry • Experiments related to pH

May + June UNIT – 2 – Structure of atom UNIT – 3 – Classification of elements

July UNIT – 4 – Chemical Bonding UNIT – 5 – States of Matter

• Volumetric analysis

August UNIT – 6 – Thermodynamics UNIT – 7 – Equilibrium

• Qualitative Analysis •

September Mid Term Examination October UNIT – 8 – Redox reaction

UNIT – 12 – Organic chemistry : some basic principle and technique

• Qualitative analysis

November UNIT – 13 – Hydrocarbon • Detection of elements (S.N and Halogens) in the organic compounds

December UNIT – 9 – Hydrogen UNIT – 10 – The s – block elements

January UNIT – 11 – The p – block elements And revision UNIT – 14 – Environmental chemistry

February Term End Examination

8

Subject – Biology (044)

Month Theory Practical April • The Living World

• Biological Classification • Study of Compound Microscope • To test the presence of nutrients in the

provided samples May + June • Plant Kingdom

• Animal Kingdom • Morphology of Flowering Plant

• To identify and comment on the specimens of Plant and Animal Kingdom

• To study the T.S of dicot stem and root July • Anatomy of Flowering Plants

• Structural Organisation in animals

• Cell: The Unit of Life

• To study and describe the flowering plant

• To identify and comment on the plant and animal tissues

August • Cell: The Unit of Life • Bio – molecules • Cell Cycle and Cell Division

• To study the different stages of Mitosis by permanent slides

• To study the morphology of Earthworm and Cockroach

September Mid Term Examination October • Transport in Plants

• Mineral Nutrition • Photosynthesis in Higher Plant

• To study the process of Osmosis by Potato Osmometer

• To study the process of Plasmolysis November • Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

• Respiration in Plants • Plant growth and Development

• To study the Imbibition in seeds • To compare the distribution of stomata

on the dorsal and ventral side of a dicot leaf

December • Digestion and Absorption • Breathing and Exchange of

Gases • Body Fluid and Circulation • Excretory Product and Their

Elimination

• To study the action of Salivary Amylase on Starch

• To test the presence of Urea, Sugar and albumin in Urine

January • Locomotion and Movement • Neural Control and

Coordination • Chemical Coordination and

Integration

• To study the different types of joints • To study the different types of

Inflorescence

February Term End Examination

9

Subject – Accountancy (055)

Month Theme April • Meaning and objectives of Accounting Basic Accounting term

• Theory Base of Accounting May + June • Accounting Principles, Accounting Equation, Journal

July • Cash Book, Subsidiary Book, Ledger & Trial Balance

August • Bank Reconciliation Statement, Depreciation September Mid Term Examination October • Financial statements of Sole Proprietorship with and without adjustment November • Rectification of errors

• Bills of exchange December • Accounting from Incomplete records

• Fundamentals of Partnership January Term End Examination

Subject – Business Studies(054)

Month Theme April • Nature and Purpose of Business

• Forms of Business Organisations May + June • Private , Public and Global Enterprises

July • Business Services

August • Emerging Modes of Business September Mid Term Examination October • Social responsibility of Business and Business Ethics November • Source of Business Finance December • Internal Trade January • International Business February Term End Examination

10

Subject – Economics (030)

Month Theme April Unit – 1 – Introduction

Unit – 2 – Collection, Organisation and Presentation of Data May + June Unit – 2 – Collection, Organisation and Presentation of Data

Unit – 4 – Development Experience (1947 – 90) and Economic reforms since 1991 July Unit – 3 – Statistical tools and Interpretation (measures of dispersion)

Unit – 4 – Economic Reforms since 1991 August Unit – 3 – Statistical tools and Interpretation (Median and Mode)

Unit – 5 – Current challenges facing Indian Economy September Mid Term Examination October Unit – 5 – Current challenges facing Indian Economy

Unit – 3 – Statistical tools and Interpretation (measures of dispersion) November Unit – 3 – Statistical tools and Interpretation (correlation and Index Number)

Unit – 5 – Current challenges facing Indian Economy (Employment, Inflation) December Unit – 3 – Statistical tools and Interpretation (correlation and Index Number)

Central problems of Economy same basic concept of Marco Economics January & February

Term End Examination

Subject – History (027) Month Topics

April • Introduction to World History Section A: Early Societies

• Introduction May + June • From the beginning of Time

• Early Cities July Section B: Empires

• Introduction • An empire across three continents

August • Central Islamic Lands • Nomadic Empires

September Mid Term Examination October Section C: Changing Traditions

• Introduction • Three Orders

November • Changing Cultural Tradition • Confrontation of Cultures

December Section D: Path to Modernization • Introduction • Industrial Revolution

January • Displacing Indigenous people • Path to Modernization

February Term End Examination

11

Subject – Geography (029)

Month Theme April Part A: Fundamentals of Physical Geography

Unit 1 – Geography as a Discipline Unit 2 – The Earth

May + June Unit 3 – Landforms

July Unit 4 – Climate Unit 5 – Water (Oceans)

August Unit 6 – Life on the Earth Practicals • Fundamentals of Maps • Maps – Types • Latitude, Longitude and time • Map Projections

Map Work World Map related to Unit 1 to 6

September Mid Term Examination October Part B: India Physical Environment

Chap 1 – Size and Location Chap 2 – Geological structure and Physiography

November Chap 3 – Drainage System Chap 4 – Climate Chap 5 – Natural Vegetation

December Chap 6 – Soils Chap 7 – Natural Hazards and Disasters

January Practicals • Topographical Maps • Introduction to Aerial Photographs • Introduction of Remote Sensing • Weather Instruments, Maps & Charts

February Term End Examination

12

Subject – Political Science (028)

Month Theme April Section A: Indian Constitution at work

• Constitution: Why and How? • Rights of the Indian Constitution

May + June • Election and Representation • Legislature • Executive

July • Judiciary • Federalism • Local Governments

August • Constitutional as Living Document • The Philosophy of the Constitution • Political; Theory: An Introduction

September Mid Term Examination October • Freedom

• Equality November • Social Justice

• Rights • Secularism

December • Nationalism • Citizenship

January • Peace • Development

February Term End Examination

13

Subject – Physical Education (048)

Month Theory Practical April • Physical fitness wellness and life style

• Changing trends and career in physical education

• Health fitness activities medicine ball, thera tube, rope skipping

• Pull ups & Fixed arm hang May + June • Olympic movement

• Yoga • Preparation of Practical File /

4x10 m shuttle run July • Doping

• Physical Activity and Environment • Skill of game / sports 600 m

run / walk August • Test and Measurement • 60 Mt Sprint / Standing Board

Jump September Mid Term Examination October • Fundamental of anatomy and physiology • Physical fitness test November • Biomechanics and sports • Sit ups and push ups December • Psychology and sports • Track and field events January • Training in sports • AAPHER Youth fitness test February Term End Examination

14

Subject – Informatics Practices (065)

Month Theory Practical / Activity April • Hardware Concepts / Software

Concepts • MS – Windows and its basic

commands / Quiz May + June • Getting Started with

Programming using IDE • Programming Fundamentals

• Basic Programs based on Java . MCQ

July • Flow of Control • Programs based on Control Statements / programming Quiz

August • Java GUI Programming using Swing – I , II and III

• Programs based on Advanced Controls of Java / MCQ & Project Distribution

September Mid Term Examination October • Programming Guidelines

• DBMS Concepts • Introducing to MySQL

• Simple Queries in MySQL / Project Work

November • Simple Queries in MySQL • MySQL Functions • Table creation and Data

Manipulation Commands

• Queries in MySQL using MySQL Functions and Creation Tables / Programming Quiz & Project Submission

December • IT – Applications • Exploring websites, which describe the e – business, e – learning / MCQ

January Term End Examination

15

Subject – Painting (049)

Month Content Practical April • Prehistoric Rock Painting • Nature and Object Study

May + June • Art of Indus Valley (2500 B.C. to 1500 B.C.)

• Painting Composition • Pencil Shading

July • Buddhist

August • Jain & Hindu Art September Mid Term Examination October • Temples Sculpture • Portfolio assessment

(Water Colours , Oil Paintings And Pencil Shading)

November • Bronzes & Artistic Aspects of Indo – Islamic Architecture

December • Bronzes & Artistic Aspects of Indo – Islamic Architecture (Contd…)

January Revision February Term End Examination

16

Subject – Multimedia and Web Technology (067)

Month Theme Practical April Introduction to Computer System

• Hardware Concepts , Memory Concept , Software Concept

• A project based on HTML , DHTML , CSS JavaScript and Image Editing Tools

May + June • Web Page Development HTML • Assignments based on HTML , DHTML , CSS and JavaScript

July Web Page Development • Hyperlink , Table , Frame , Forms

• Assignments based on HTML , DHTML , CSS and JavaScript

August • Web Page Development CSS and XML • Assignments based on HTML , DHTML , CSS and JavaScript

September Mid Term Examination October Web Scripting

• Java Scripting a Program , Operators and Functions in Java Script

• Practical Programs based on Java Script

November Multimedia and Authoring Tools Concept and Format , Image Editing , Platters

December Working on Layers , various Formatting Styles in Photoshop Sound Recording and Importing audio files.

January Revision February Term End Examination

17

Bharatnatyam (057)

Month Theory Practical April & May

• History of Bharatnatyam • Dhyan Shlok with meaning

• Basic foot & hand steps (Taltadas & Natyadavu)

• Aramandi & Murumandi

June & July

• Mahabharata (Raas & Maharaas) • Bhagwat Purau • Krishna Leela

• Revision of Tatadavus & natyadavus

• Streaching and body balance August • Study of Natraj

• Uma parinayam (Shiv Vivah) • Geet govinda • Mahishasur Mardini

• Dhit – Dhit Tai Adavu • Kuditti – Mettu Adavu • Eye & neck movement with

Shloka September Mid Term Examination October • Natyotpatti story

• Description about Devdasi period • Bharatnatyam

• Ta – dhing – gi – na – tom adavu • Single & double hand gesture • Tat – tai – ta – ha adavu

November • Define Puspanjali • Define Mallari • Define Kautuvam • Define Alaripu • About Margam

• Revision of Adavus • Mandi jumps

December • Define jatiswaram • Define Shabdam • Define Vernam • Define Keertanam

• Starting of Alaripu • Mandi Adavu

January • Define Padam, Astpadi, Javati & Thillana

• Costume & Jwellery

• Alaripu (Dance) • Alaripu (Taal)

• Music style • Notation of Alaripu

• Revision of Alaripu • Finishing

February Term End Examination

18

Kathak Dance (056)

Month Theory Practical April & May • A brief history of Indian dance • Practice of basic standing position

and various patterns of tatkar June & July • Acqaintance with the themes of

Ramayana, Mahabharata, Bhagvata Purana and Gita govinda in context of Kathak.

• Acqaintance with other myths and legends pertinent to the dance drama or gat bhaav like kalia deewan, govardhan lila, Panghat lila, Daurpadi cheer haran, Makhan chori, marich vadh, Bhasmasur vadh, Mudundahan

a. Practice of exercise of different parts of the human body particularly anga, Pratyanga, upanga.

August • A brief history of Kathak dance Refrence from ancient text (vedic, Puranic, epics and other scriptnres). Evolution of Kathak Dance in Pracheen kal / mandir kal (katha – vachak and Rasdhar tradion, etc) madhyan kal / Darbarkal, Adhunik kal covering british and post-independence era till the present time.

• Practice of exercise of ten different movement (Hastak) chakkars in teen taal in thah, dugun, chaugun laya.

September Mid Term Examination October • Acquaintance with its repertory

Rang Pradesh / invocation, composition (Bandish) from traditional technical dance part of Kathak

• Literary Contents:- Abhinay, Bhajans, thumari, dadra, ghazals, dhrupad, Kavitt etc.

• Prahant of teentaal, Jhaptaal with hast kriya in thah, dugun, chaugun.

November • Rhytemic musical composition like Tarana, trival, upaj, Costume etc.

• Practice of tatkaar set to teental in a slower tempo (thah laya)and in its double (dugun) and four times (chaugun)

December • Distinctive aspects of Kathak using of ghangrus, chakkers, Upaj costume etc.

• The studnets should know the following comositions. That, Amad, Fast Aamd, Vandana

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January • Ability to write notation of teentaal and jhaptal (thah, dugun, chaugun)

• The students should know the following compositions a. Tukda / Toda b. Natwari ka Tukda c. Gatnikas d. Gatbhav

• Defintion of Nritta, Nritya, Natya, Tandav, Lasya, Aanga, Upanga, Pratyanger

• The students should know the following compositions a. Paran b. Tihaayi c. Ladi / layer Baant d. Parhant 8 / tukda with hastya

kriya February Term End Examination

Music (Melodic Instrument) (035)

Month Theory Practical April & May

• Description of Raaga Definition of Sangeet, Dhwani, Nada life sketch of Pt. V. N. Bhatkhande

• Raaga Bihag, Razakhani Gat, taal Teentaal

June & July • Description of Raaga, Definition of Shruti, Swar, Saptak, taal notation life sketch of V.D. Paluskar

• Raaga Vrindavani Sarang, Gat, taal-Kaharwa, Dadra

August • Description of Raaga, notation of Gat, notation of Taal (Thah, dugun) life sketch of Miyan Taansen, definition of Thaat, Jaati, Raaga, Gat

• Raga Bhimpalasi, Gat, Taal Dhamar

September Mid Term Examination October • Description of Raaga, notation

of Gat, definition of Tarana, Nibaddha, Anibaddhagat, Laya, Taal

• Raaga Bhairavi Gat, taal-Ektaal

November • Brief history of Dhrupad, Mastikhani and Razakhani Gat. Brief knowledge of Gharana

• One Dhun, Revision

December • Brief history of Musical elements in Natya Shastra

• Revision of Taal, one Dhun Raaga

January Term End Examination

20

Music (Vocal) (034)

Month Theory Practical April & May

• Description of Raaga, notation of Raaga along with Alap Taan. Notation of Taal (thah Dugun) definition of Naad, Swar

• Raga Bihag, Aroh, Avaroh, Pakad, Taal Teentaal.

June & July

• Description of Raaga.Notation of Raaga, Notation of Taal, life sketch of V.N.Bhatkhande.Definition – Sangeet, Dhwani,Shruti Saptak.

• Raaga Vrindavani Sarang, Aroh, Avaroh, Pakad,Taal,Dadra,Keharwa

August • Description of Raaga along with alap,taan.Notation of Bandish,Notation of Taan, life sketch of V.D.Paluskar. Definition of Thaat,Jati,Raga Swarmalika.

• RaagaJaunpuri,Aroh,Awaroh,Pakad,Taal-Chautaal.

September Mid Term Examination October • Description of

Raaga,Notation of Raaga along with alap,taan,Notation of taal,Definition of Lakshan Geet,Nibadhagana, Anibaddhagana, Laya,Tala.

• Raaga Bhairavi Aroh,Awaroh,Pakad,Taal-Ektaal.

November • Life sketch of Miyan Taansen

• Brief history of Dhrupad, Khayal and Tarana

• One lakshangeet of any Raaga.

December • Brief knowledge of Gharana.Brief study of Musical elements in NatyaShastra.

• One Devotional Song,Taal.

January & February

Revision & Term End Examination

21

Hindustani Music (Percussion Instrumental) (036)

Month Theory Practical April & May

• Descritpion of the Talas – Teentala, Jhaptala, Sultala, Ektala, Chautala. Dadratala and Keharwatala

• Playing Theka given above Talas

June & July • Descritpion Graha, Jati, Kala, laya

• Playing Kayada in teentala with two Paltas

August • Description – Sangeet, Nad, Swar, Saptak, Raaga

• Playing Kayada in teentala in Dugun laya with four Palta and Tihai

September Mid Term Examination October • Contribution and short life

sketch of Pandit Anokhelal, Ustad Ahmad Jan and Ustad Allarakha

• Playing Rela, Chakradar and Tukras in Teentala

November • Write a brief note on Banaras Gharana and Punjab Gharana

• Playing other Kayada in Teentala with Four Paltas and Tihai

December • Brief Knoweldge of Natyashastra with special reference to Awanadh Adhyay

• Playing Kayada in Ektala with four Paltas and one Tihai

January • Write in notation of the prescribed Talas and compositions in Thah, Dugun and Chaugun

• Playing Kayada, Rela, Tukda and Chakradar in Jhaptala and Chautala. Playing Teentala with Thah, Dugun, Tigun and Chaugun

• Revised • Practice solo performance and accompaniment in Teentala, Jhaptala and Ektal

February Term End Examination

22

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Accountancy Marks: 80 Grade: XI Time: 3 Hrs.

1. Give any two cause of depreciation. [1] 2. What is depreciable cost? [1] 3. Write four advantage of the double entry system. [2] 4. Define balance sheet. [2] 5. Define An accounting equation. [2] 6. State any two causes of difference between cash book and Bank pass book balances. [2] 7. How will you deal with the following items in Accounting equation: [2]

a. Interest due not received ` 500. b. Rent received in advance ` 1,000. c. Insurance premium paid in advance ` 1,500 and d. Salaries due but not paid ` 2,000?

8. Create an Accounting Equation on the basis of the following transactions. [4] `

a. Manu started business with cash 5,00,000 b. Purchases a building from Sohan. Paid by raising a loan from SBI. 10,00,000 c. Paid interest on loan ` 20,000 and installment of ` 2,00,000. d. Purchased goods from Sohan on credit. 1,00,000 e. Goods returned to Sohan costing. 20,000 f. Sold goods costing ` 40,000 for ` 50,000 on credit to Ram. g. Accrued interest. 5,000 h. Commission received in advance. 20,000 i. Cash received from Ram. 10,000

9. On 31st March 2013, the total assets and external liabilities were ` 1,00,000 and ` 3,000 respectively. During the year, the proprietor had introduced additional capital of ` 10,000 and had withdrawn ` 6,000 for personal use. He made a profit of ` 10,000 during the year. Calculate the capital as on 1st April, 2012. [3]

10. Journalise the following transactions in the books of Gupta Bros. [10] Date Particulars ` 2013 March 1

Started business with cash ` 30,000; goods ` 15,000 and furniture ` 20,000

20,000

March 2 Paid into bank 7,000 March 3 Bought goods from Mohan Bros. on credit 6,000 March 4 Sold goods to Goyal Bros. on credit March 5 Bought a vehicle for ` 10,000 for delivering goods to customers March 7 Received from salesman for goods sold by him after deducting

commission ` 150 3,000

23

March 9 Drawn a cheque for ` 800 for personal use 6,000 March 10 Goyal Bros. gave cheque; deposited in the bank 6,700 March 11 Paid to Mohan Bros. by cheque

Discount allowed by him 300

March 13 Paid for repairs of furniture 200 March 13 Received an order for goods from Mahesh 5,000 March 14 Sold old newspapers 80 March 15 Interest received from bank 400 March 16 Paid ` 300 for expenses on goods sold to Goyal Bros. This amount to be

realized from Goyal Bros.

March 19 Bought goods from Sohan Lal & Sons. Paid cartage on these goods

400 50

March 20 Bank intimates that the cheque of Goyal Bros. has been returned dishonoured

March 22 Paid rent by cheque 600 March 23 Salaries for the month of February remain unpaid 300 March 25 Paid Municipal taxes in cash 800 March 31 Depreciation charged on furniture @ 10%

Received an order for goods ` 5,000 from Shyam and received ` 1,000 as advance

11. Prepare Cash Book from the following transaction of M/s. Advance Technology Zone for

the month of April, 2014. [8] Date Particulars ` 2014 April 1

Cash in Hand

14,000

Bank Overdraft 13,200 April 4 Wages paid 1,400 April 5 Cash sales 17,000 April 7 Purchased goods from Rahul for ` 12,250 paid by cheque in full

settlement on April 8 12,000

April 9 Purchased furniture for cash 10,000 April 10 Cash paid to Rohit, discount received ` 100 5,000 April 11 Cheque issued to Rahul was dishonoured April 13 Cash sales 4,500 April 16 Bank charged interest on overdraft 500 April 18 Deposited into Bank 7,000 April 20 Paid telephone bill by cheque 600 April 25 Sold goods for ` 23,500 to Vikas and received cheque in full settlement

(Deposited same day) 23,000

April 27 Paid rent 800 April 29 Drew cash for personal use 1,000 April 30 Paid salary 2,000

April 30 Interest collected by bank 2,500

24

12. Prepare an Analytical Petty Cash Book on the Imprest System from the following: [8] Date Particulars ` 2014 Jan. 1

Received ` 10,000 for Petty Cash

Jan. 2 Paid Bus fare 50 Jan. 2 Paid Cartage 250 Jan. 3 Paid for Postage and Telegrams 500 Jan. 3 Paid Wages for Casual labourers 600 Jan. 4 Paid for Stationery 400 Jan. 4 Paid Auto charges 200 Jan. 5 Paid for Repairs to chairs 1,500 Jan. 5 Paid Bus fare 100 Jan. 5 Paid Cartage 400 Jan. 6 Paid for Postage and telegrams 700 Jan. 6 Paid for Conveyance charges 300 Jan. 6 Paid Cartage 300 Jan. 6 Paid for Stationery 200 Jan. 6 Paid for Refreshment to Customers 500

13. Prepare the Purchase Book and Sales Book from the following transactions. [8]

Date Particulars 2013 Jan. 1

Bought from M/s. Uma Datt, Bombay, on credit: 100 copies Business Statistics @ ` 80 each 100 copies Business Methods Without Tears by O.P. Goela @ ` 50 each

Jan. 2 Sold to Shri Dayal: 24 copies Business Statistics @ ` 85 each 25 copies Business Methods Without Tears @ ` 57 each

Jan. 8 Bought from S. Chand, Delhi: 40 copies Economics by K.K. Dewet @ ` 80 each Less: 15% Trade Discount

Jan. 12 Sold to Gupta Bros. 20 copies Economics @ ` 80 each

Jan. 18 Sold to Ram Saran Das: 20 copies Business Statistics @ ` 85 each

Jan. 22 Bought from Rajab Ali, Agra: 100 copies M. S. L. C. Arithmetic @ ` 45 each Less: Trade Discount 20%

Jan. 25 Bought from Hari Ram, Delhi: 50 copies history of England @ ` 50 each Less: 15% Trade Discount

Jan. 31 Sold to Rishi Kumar: 25 copies M.S.L.C, Arithmetic @ ` 45 each

25

14. On 31st March, 2014, Bank Statement of Dinesh showed credit balance of ` 15,650 whereas Cash Book showed debit balance of ` 15,200. The reasons for the differences were: [6] a. Cheques issued to Roshan for ` 6,000 and to Daniel for ` 3,840 were not presented for

payment. b. Bank charged ` 350 for bank charges. c. Nitesh directly deposited ` 8,160 into the Bank Account of the trader which was not

entered in the Cash Book. d. Two cheques one from Shyam for `5,150 and another from Kailash for ` 12,500 were

collected by bank in the first week of April, 2014 although they were banked on 25th March, 2014.

e. Interest credited by bank ` 450. Prepare Bank Reconciliation as on 31st March, 2014.

15. Prepare Bank Reconciliation Statement of Shri Krishan as on 31st March, 2014 from the following information. [8] a. Balance as per Pass Book is ` 10,000. b. Bank collected a cheque of ` 500 on behal of Shri Krishna but wrongly credited it to Shri

Kishan’s Account (another customer). c. Bank recorded a cash deposit of ` 2,589 as ` 2,598. d. Withdrawal column of the Pass Book undercast by ` 100. e. The credit balance of ` 1,500 as on Page 10 of the Pass Book was recorded on Page 11 as a

debit balance. f. The payment of cheque of ` 350 was recorded twice in the Pass Book. g. The Pass Book showed a credit for a cheque of ` 1,000 deposited by Shri Kishan (another

customer of the Bank). h. Dividend directly collected by bank ` 125.

16. From the following Ledger account balances extracted from the books of R.J. Gupta,

prepare a Trial balance as on 31st March, 2013: [5] Particulars ` Purchases 1,04,000 Sundry Debtors 18,550 Premises 62,000 Sales 1,49,000 Returns Outward 8,900 Rates and Taxes 780 Cash at Bank 1,560 Carriage Inwards 650 Salaries 3,900 Stock (31st April, 2012) 25,000 Drawings 7,950 Sundry Creditors 8,300 Returns Inward 5,360

26

Furniture 15,600 Cash in Hand 390 Capital 85,000

Factory wages 5,830 Carriage Outwards 260 Rent Received 2,990 Insurance 2,100 Bad Debts 260

17. On 1st January, 2011, Jaipur Golden Transport Company purchased a truck for ` 8,00,000. On

1st July, 2012 this truck was involved in an accident and was completely destroyed and ` 6,00,000 were received by a cheque from the Insurance Company in full settlement on 1st October, 2012. On the same date (i.e., 1st July, 2012) another truck was purchased by the company for ` 10,00,000.

18. The company writes off 20% Depreciation per annum under the Written Down value Method. Prepare the Truck Account for 2011 to 2013 when books are closed on 31st March every year. [8]

27

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Biology Marks: 70 Grade: XI Time: 3 Hrs.

1. Answer the following questions. [10x1 = 10]

a. What does the excretion take place through in case of Arthropoda?

b. Name the largest phylum of Kingdom Animalia.

c. In which language are biological names generally written?

d. Store house of collected plant specimens that are dried pressed, preserved on sheet are

collectively termed as ___________________.

e. Cyanobacteria have ‘chlorophyll a’ similar to green plants and are referred to as

____________.

f. Most of the fungi are heterotrophic and absorb soluble organic matter from dead

substances and are called __________________.

g. Asexual reproduction is by production of different types of spores, most common being

____________________.

h. Brown algae found in marine habitats are members of ___________________.

i. Beginning of what stage is recognised by dissolution of synaptonemal complex?

j. When the number of chromosomes in parent and progeny cells is not the same, this is

referred to as ____________________.

2. Answer the following briefly. [2x5 = 10]

a. Why thermoacidophiles survive in extreme of heat and acidic environment?

b. List four differences between Anabolism and Catabolism.

c. Why the obligatory anaerobes get killed in presence of oxygen?

d. What is gullet and cytopie in paramecium?

e. What are plasmid and episomes?

3. Mention two modification in reptiles required for terrestrial mode of life [2]

4. Draw the structure of bacteriophage. [2]

5. Give the biochemical composition of plasma membrane. How are lipid molecules arranged in

the membrane? [2]

28

6. What are the various means of sexual reproduction in bacteria? [3]

7. Comment on statement ‘Telophase is reverse of Prophase’. [3]

8. List the phases of cell cycle and describe sequence of events that occur during each phase.

[3]

9. Why is there a necessity of scientific classification? [3]

10. List four differences between monera and protista. [4]

11. What are mycoplasma? Give its characteristic features. [4]

12. Which group of algae shows evolution of sex? Describe briefly. [4]

13. What is the relationship between germinal layers and the formation of body cavity in case of

coelomates, acoelomates and pseudocoelomates? [5]

14. Broadly classify Kingdom Animalia based on common fundamental features. [5]

15. Give the difference of the following. [5x2 = 10]

a. Homosporous and heterosporous heteriophyte

b. Plasmogamy and Karyogamy

c. Ashelminthes and Platyhelminthes

d. Pilli and Fimbriae

e. Meiosis and Mitosis

29

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Business Studies Marks: 80 Grade: XI Time: 3 Hrs.

General instructions. Answer to questions carrying 1 mark may be from one word to one sentence. Answer to questions carrying 3 marks may be from 50 – 75 words. Answer to questions carrying 4 – 5 marks should be for approximately 150 words. Attempt all parts of questions together.

1. Mention the two types of human activities. [1]

2. A housewife sells old newspapers every month. Is it a business activity? [1]

3. Swati is the only owner of her restaurant. Name this form of business organisation. [1]

4. Name the type of company in which there is restriction on the maximum number of members.

What is the number? [1]

5. What is that enterprise called in which a project or service is financed and operated through a

partnership of a government and private enterprise? [1]

6. Mohan uses Internet to deposit and withdraw money from his bank. Name this type of banking.

[1]

7. Internet is responsible for the popularity of the phrase: “Networked individual and firms are

more efficient than networked individuals”. What does this mean? [1]

8. Name the electronic currency that exists only in the cyberspace. [1]

9. Jamshedji Tata conceived an idea of formation of company in 1908 when East India Company

was ruling Indian market. He selected hilly region bordering three states Jharkhand (the part of

Bihar), Orissa and West Bengal. All states were thickly populated and poor. The area he chose

was rich in Iron Ore, so he decided to develop Iron and steel industry. He wanted to tap

unproductive savings of public and issued capital of `5, 00,000. Area was undeveloped, so he

decided to spend 10% of profits every year for providing infrastructure to employees. To begin

with he provided them accommodation and later he spent amount for schools, hospitals,

development of playground and gardens and also built temples, mosques and churches.

Employees were satisfied and worked hard. As a result profit grew substantially 20% every year

and more industries were floated by him.

30

Which values led him to this road of success? [3]

10. Distinguish between extractive industry and genetic industry by giving examples. [3]

11. Distinguish between a sole proprietorship and Joint Hindu Family Business on any four basis.

[4]

12. Give relative advantages of statutory corporations over department undertakings in respect of

efficiency, organisation and control. [4]

13. A factory owner gets his stock of goods insured, but he hides the fact that the electricity board

has issued him a statutory warning letter to get his factory’s wiring changed. Later on, factory

catches fire due to short circuit of wiring. Can he claim compensation? [4]

14. Give comparative differences between Life Insurance, Fire Insurance and Marine

Insurance on the basis of [4]

a. Subject Matter b. Insurable Interest

15. What is e-Banking? Explain the benefits of e-banking to customers and banks. [4]

16. What do you mean by [4]

a. B2B Commerce b. B2C Commerce

c. Intra-B-commerce d. C2C Commerce

17. Why are e-business and outsourcing referred to as the emerging modes of business? Discuss the

factors responsible for the growing importance of these trends. [4]

18. Shubham has taken a loan from Saurabh against security of his factory. Can Saurabh take a Fire

Insurance Policy of that factory? Explain any three principles of Insurance. [4]

19. Explain the following banking services [4]

a. Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) b. National electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT)

20. Anshul is a farmer. His elder brother Ankur is an advocate while his sister Priyanka is a

clerk in a government office. Name the economic activities (Business, Profession,

Employment) in which they are engaged and distinguish among them on basis of [5]

a. Reward / Return b. Capital investment c. Risk

21. What is partnership deed? What is its role in partnership firm? Discuss its main contents.[5]

22. Public sector enterprises have played vital role in the economic development of India. However,

government of India vigorously pursue the policy of disinvestment of such units. What is the

rationale of disinvestment at this time? [5]

23. Write a detailed note on various facilities offered by Indian Postal Department. [5]

31

24. “Business is essentially a social institution and not merely a profitmaking activity”. Explain.

[5]

25. ABC Ltd. is engaged in producing electricity from domestic garbage. There is almost equal

division of work and responsibility between workers and management. The management even

takes workers into confidence before taking important decisions. All the workers are satisfied as

the behaviour of the management is very good.

Identify any two values which the company wants to communicate to the society.

f. Describe the Industrial Policy, 1991 towards the public sector. [5]

32

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Chemistry Marks: 70 Grade: XI Time: 3 Hrs.

General instruction.

Solve all the questions.

Questions 1 to 5 are for 1 mark each.

Questions 6 to 10 are for 2 marks each.

Questions 11 to 22 are for 3 marks each.

Questions 24 is for 4 marks each.

Questions 25 to 27 are for 5 marks each.

16. What is the total number of radial nodes for 3 p orbital?

17. What is the IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 118?

18. What are representative elements?

19. Why Nobel gases have larger atomic size?

20. What are intensive and extensive properties?

21. Explain the following.

k. Pauli’s exclusion principle.

l. Hund’s Rule of maximum multiplicity

22. Explain Charle’s Law with the help of graph.

23. A balloon is filled with hydrogen gas at room temperature. It will burst if pressure exceeds 0.2

bar. If at 1 bar pressure the gas occupies 2.27 l. volume, upto what volume can the balloon be

expanded?

24. What is the relationship between Cp and Cv?

25. What is Hess’s Law?

26. If the concentration of glucose in blood is 0.9 g/lit, what will be the molarity of glucose in

blood?

27. What is photoelectric effect? What are the observations of the photoelectric effect experiment?

28. Calculate the energy of the radiation emitted when an electron jumps from n = 3 to n = 2 in a

hydrogen atom.

33

29. Table-tennis ball has wt of10g and speed of 90 m/s. If speed can be measured within an

accuracy of 4%, what will be the uncertainty in speed and position?

30. An element with mass number 81 contains 31.7% more neutrons as compared to protons.

Assign the symbol to the element.

31. a. Why are D-block called as transition elements.

b. Name the elements which are not considered as transition element but are D-block

elements.

32. Arrange Gp 13 elements in increasing order of atomic size.

33. What are the anomalous behaviour of 2nd period elements?

34. a. Arrange Cl , Cl– and Cl+ ions in order of increasing size.

b. N has positive electron gain enthalpy while O has negative value. Why?

c. Arrange the O2– Na+ S2– Ca+2 Sc+3 in increasing ionisation enthalpy.

35. Explain the hybridization of H2O and PCl5.

36. What are the postulates of MOT?

37. A gas absorbs 2000 J of heat and expands against an internal pressure of 2 atom from a

volume of 0.5 l to 10.5 l. What is the change in internal energy? [1 Latm = 101.5 J]

38. a. Explain why PCl is trigonal bipyramidal whereas IF5 is square pyramidal?

b. Compare the bond angle in CH4 , NH3 and H2O. Give reason.

39. a. The density of 3 molal solution of NaOH is 1.110 g/ml–1. Calculate the molarity of the

solution.

b. A compound on analysis was found to contain C = 34.6% H = 3.85% and O = 61.55%.

Calculate its empirical formula.

40. a. Arrange O2 , 𝑂𝑂2– , 𝑂𝑂22− , 𝑂𝑂2+ in increasing order of bond length.

b. Among O2 and B2 which is / are paramagnetic / diamagnetic in nature.

What are the postulates of Kinetic molecular theory of Gas?

34

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Economics Marks: 100 Grade: XI Time: 3 Hrs.

General instructions. All questions are compulsory in both sections. Questions no. 1 -8 and 19 – 26 are carrying 1 mark each. They are required to be

answered in one word or one sentence each. Questions no. 9 – 12 and 27 – 30 are carrying 3 marks each. Answer to them should not

exceed 40 words each. Questions no. 13 – 15 and 31 – 33 are carrying 4 marks each. Answer them should not

exceed 70 marks each. Questions no. 16 – 18 and 34 – 36 are carrying 6 marks each. Answer them not exceed

100 words. Indian Economy (50 Marks)

1. What do you understand by drain of Indian wealth during colonial period?

2. Why is 1921 known as “Year of Great Divide”?

3. What do you mean by commercialisation of agriculture?

4. In which state were land reforms successful?

5. What do you mean by marketable surplus?

6. What is trade surplus?

7. Name any two Navratna companies.

8. What do you mean by devaluation of rupee?

9. What was the state of occupational structure of India on eve of independence?

10. The traditional handicraft industries were ruined under British rule. Do you agree with view?

Give three reasons.

11. Explain how import substitution can protect domestic industry.

12. Do you think outsourcing is good for India? Why are developed countries opposed to it?

13. What was the state of India’s foreign trade under British rule?

14. Does modernization as a planning objective create contradiction in light of employment

generation? Explain.

15. Explain two positive and two negative impacts of privatisation.

35

16. Legally, Zamindari system of land revenue has been abolished in independent India. Yet

Indian agriculture continues to be in state of backwardness. What in your opinion is principal

reason for this situation? Explain six points.

17. Explain three achievements and three failures of green revolution.

18. Explain concept of Sircilla Tragedy and also explain the demerits of globalisation. Statistics (50 Marks)

19. Who is known as the “Father of Statistics”?

20. What is statistical error?

21. Construct discrete series with help of data given. Marks obtained by 10 students in class test:

10 , 14 , 16 , 14 , 10 , 17 , 18 , 20 , 18 , 14

22. What do you mean by inclusive series?

23. The monthly expenditure of 5 households are:

1550 , 1715 , 1690 , 820 , 1150.

Calculate arithmetic mean by direct method.

24. Given below is the age of 8 students. Find out median age:

21 , 18 , 19 , 14 , 10 , 22 , 12 , 8

25. Write one demerit of mean.

26. Write full form of: NSSO and CSO.

27. “Statistical methods are dangerous weapons in hands of unqualified persons”. Explain.

28. Convert the following cumulative series into exclusive series: Wages No. of workers

More than 0 80 More than 1000 60 More than 2000 40 More than 3000 20 More than 4000 10

29. 80 students of section A of class XI obtained 40 mean marks in Statistics, 40 students of

section B obtained 50 mean marks in Statistics. Find combined mean.

30. Mean marks obtained by 100 students are estimated to be 80. Later on it is found that one

value was read as 86 instead of 26. Find corrected mean.

31. Explain two differences between primary source of data and secondary source of data.

32. Explain any two reasons of importance of Statistics.

33. Explain any two methods of classification.

36

34. Calculate P60 and Q3 from following data: Marks (less than) 10 20 30 40 50 60 No. of Students 10 15 20 30 35 50

35. Calculate arithmetic mean by short cut method: Marks 0 – 4 4 – 8 8 – 12 12 – 16 16 – 20 No. of Students 4 8 2 1 5

36. Find median: C.I. More than 0 More than 5 More than 10 More than 15 More than 20 C.F 50 40 25 15 10

37

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: English Marks: 80 Grade: XI Time: 3 Hrs. General instructions. This paper is divided into three sections A , B and C. All sections are compulsory.

Separate instructions are given with each section and question , wherever necessary.

Do not exceed the prescribed word limit , while answering the questions.

Section – A (Reading) (20 Marks)

19. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. [12]

1. Ravindra Nath Tagore raised the stature of our country in the eyes of the world. A versatile

genius , a literary artist , an educator , a composer , a singer , an actor , RN Tagore had all

the gifts of nature and fortune in his favour. Born in a renowned Hindu family , RN Tagore

pleaded not only for concord with the past but also for freedom from the past.

All healthy growth needs continuity and change. We are not free unless our minds are

liberated from dead forms , tyrannical restrictions and crippling social habits. Tagore

condemned the corruption of many of our social practices. He believed that the essence of

life was perpetual renewal and rededication to self development.

2. RN Tagore did not live in an ivory tower. He led a procession in 1905 through the streets

of Calcutta signing his song, “Are you so mighty as to cut asunder the bond forged by

Providence?” Millions of voices have sung the “National Anthem” “Jana Gana Mana”

calling upon us to nourish the unity of our country and be devoted to it.

He was not only a playwright but a novelist and a story teller , a nationalist and an

internationalist. As if these activities were not enough , he turned towards painting at the

end of his life. He rejected traditional canons and experimented with new forms and colour

compositions.

We honour him not only for his many sided genius , but also for the guidance of his life

and work in this troubled world. Rabindra Nath Tagore’s mission was one of reconciliation

between East and West in a spirit of understanding and mutual enlightment. For India,

unity is truth and division is evil. The poet’s name is symbolic of the day , the sun which

38

dispels the mist of darkness , the clouds of suspicion and restores health to the human

system.

3. Though his work was rooted in Indian soil , his mind ranged over the wide world and

hence had a universal appeal. Rabindra Nath Tagore’s writings have been translated into

many languages , but even the best translations do not bring out the music and the melody

or the force of the original. As Rabindra Nath Tagore was born at a difficult stage when

India was in a revolutionary mood , he participated in the movement revolting against

social , political and religious institutions.

He was all the time convinced of the validity and vitality of the fundamental ideas set forth

by the seers and saints of India. Tagore’s philosophy was one of wholeness and unity. For

Tagore , God , man and nature are bound together in a single unity.

He was not a dreamer or a visionary. He kept constant vigil over the world. He was a great

sentinel , as Gandhi called him. The moral health of a nation depended on the inspiration

the people derived from their poets and artists. Asceticism for Rabindra Nath Tagore meant

self-control and not abstention from world activities.

Very early in his life when he was seventeen , he had the need to control his emotions. He

was not an unworldly saint. He had a tough earthly quality. The ideals of social life,

economic pursuits and the enjoyment of beauty should be cultivated equally.

Water surrounds the lotus flower but does not wet its petals. Even so , human beings

should work in this world without being affected by it. Tagore himself was a harmonious

man in whom there was a happy blend of contemplation and action. For Tagore , as for

Gandhi , the measure of man’s greatness is not his material possessions , but the truth in

him which is universal. His voice was the conscience of our age. He bequeathed to the

country and the world a life which had no littleness about it.

a. On the basis of your reading of the passage , answer the following questions by choosing the correct option. A. Rabindra Nath Tagore was a versatile genius whose talents included being a

(i) Literary artist (ii) Composer

(iii) Singer (iv) All of these

B. What does healthy growth need?

(i) Stability (ii) Creativity

(iii) Continuity and change (iv) Both (i) and (ii)

39

C. Identify the statement which is not true , as per the passage

(i) RN Tagore led a procession in 1905 through the streets of Calcutta singing a song

(ii) He was a versatile genius

(iii) He participated in the movement revolting against social , political and religious

institutions

(iv) For RN Tagore , Asceticism meant abstention from world activities

D. Which of the following statements is true about RN Tagore?

(i) He was a dreamer

(ii) He was an unworldly Saint

(iii) For Tagore , the measure of man’s greatness is his material possessions

(iv) He condemned the corruption of many of our social practices

E. How should a human being work in the world , according to RN Tagore?

(i) He should work in the world by affecting all the people

(ii) He should work in the world without being affected by it

(iii) He should not work in the world harmoniously

(iv) He should work in the world carelessly

F. Which of the following words in para 1 is the synonym of ‘despotic’?

(i) Versatile (ii) Cripping

(iii) Liberated (iv) Tyrannical

b. On the basis of your reading of the passage , answer the following questions briefly.

(i) How was Rabindra nath Tagore a versatile genius?

(ii) How should human being go their worldly pursuits , according to Tagore?

(iii) What was Tagore’s philosophy of life rooted in?

(iv) What word used in para 1 means the same as ‘famous’?

(v) What word used in para 3 means the same as ‘living a life of simplicity’?

(vi) What word used in para 3 means the same as ‘left behind’?

20. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. [8]

The work of the heart can never be interrupted. The heart’s job is to keep oxygen rich blood-

flowing through the body. All the body’s cells need a constant supply of oxygen , especially

those in the brain. The brain cells live like only four to five minutes after their oxygen is cut

off and death comes to the entire body.

40

The heart is a specialised muscle that serves as a pump. This pump is divided into four

chambers connected by tiny doors called valves. The chambers work to keep the blood

flowing round the body in a circle.

The whole process is in like a circuit that connects the heart to the other parts of the body. At the end of each circuit, veins carry the blood to the right atrium, the first of the four chambers. 2/5 oxygen by then is used up and it is on its way back to the lung to pick up a fresh supply and to give up the carbon dioxide it has accumulated. From the right atrium , the blood flows through the tricuspid valve into the second chamber , the right ventricle. The right ventricle contracts when it is filled , pushing the blood through the pulmonary artery, which leads to the lungs. In the lungs , the blood gives up its carbon dioxide and picks up fresh oxygen. Then it travels to the third chamber , the left atrium. When this chamber is filled, it forces the blood through a valve to the left ventricle. From here it is pushed into a big blood vessel called aorta and sent round the body by way of arteries. Heart disease can result from any damage to the heart muscle , the valves or the pacemaker. If the muscle is damaged , the heart is unable to pump properly. If the valves are damaged , blood cannot flow normally and easily from one chamber to another and if the pacemaker is defective , the contractions of the chambers will become un-coordinated. Until the twentieth century , few doctors dared to touch the heart. In 1953 all this changed after twenty years of work , Dr. John Gibbon in the USA had developed a machine that could take over temporarily from the heart and lungs. Blood could be routed through the machine bypassing the heart so that surgeons could work inside it and see what they were doing. The era of open heart surgery had begun. In the operating theatre , it gives surgeons the chance to repair or replace a defective heart. Many parties have plastic valves inserted in their hearts when their own is faulty. Many people are being kept alive with tiny battery operated pacemakers ; none of these repairs could have been made without the heart – lung machine. But valuable as it is to the surgeons , the heart lung machine has certain limitations. It can be used only for a few hours at a time because its pumping gradually damages the blood cells. a. On the basis of your reading of the above passage , make notes on it using headings and

sub-headings. Use recognisable abbreviation wherever necessary (minimum 4). Supply an

appropriate title to it. [5]

b. Write a summary of the above passage in about 80-100 words. [3]

41

Section – B (Writing and Grammar) (30 Marks)

21. You are Manoj / Abha of 354 , Pitampura , New Delhi. You want to sell the first floor of your

newly constructed house. Draft an advertisement for publication in the Indian Express under

their classified column , marked , ‘Property’. Include all relevant details like location , type of

accommodation and contact address etc. [4]

OR

A National-level Book fair is being celebrated in Pragati Maidan , New Delhi. Your school is

planning to take a group of students on a visit to the fair. Write a notice inviting students to

join the visit. Your are Rashi / Sushil , secretary , Readers club of Delhi Public School , Noida.

(50 words)

22. Write a letter to the Editor of a national daily in about 120-150 words highlighting the

increasing stress in the lives of students in the present competitive world. Give a few

suggestions on combating this evil. [6]

OR

As Manish Batra , the sports secretary of Apex Model School , Janakpuri , New Delhi , write a

letter of complaint to M/s Champion sports , 237 Fatehpuri , Delhi for supplying defective /

damaged sports goods. Ask for replacement.

23. Write an article on the topic “Joint Family – A Boon to the growing child” to he published in your school magazine. Sign yourself as Shaan. [10]

OR

Your school recognises the academic excellence of the students by giving them certificates

and medals on the Recognition Day. Parents are invited and a cultural programme is

organised. The highlight of the day is the Principal’s address. Write a report for publication in

your school magazine describing the event in about 150-200 words. Sign your report as Kabir /

Kanchan.

24. The following passage has not been edited. There is one error in each line , write the

incorrect word and the correction in your answer sheet. [½x8 = 4]

Incorrect Correct

Eg. The next day during an break an the

a. when all the teacher and students ____________ ____________

b. was eating their snacks , the mother ____________ ____________

42

c. left the school building hurrily ____________ ____________

d. the boy saw him walking ____________ ____________

e. quickly from the school gate ____________ ____________

f. when he was drank water after ____________ ____________

g. his meal and wonder where ____________ ____________

h. his mother is going ____________ ____________

25. Rearrange the following words / phrases into meaningful sentences. [1x2 = 2] a. The / on / forests / the / industry / oil / depends

b. do / get / the / forests / form / what / we / products?

26. Read the conversation given below and complete the following passage by filling in the blank places appropriately. Do not add any new information. [1x4 = 4] Seema: Are you going to attend Deepti’s marriage?

Preeti: I have an interview tomorrow. So I’ll not be able to go.

Seem: The function is at 12 o’ clock.

Preeti: Then , may be , I can , come after the interview.

Seema: That is a good idea.

Seema asked Preeti if (a) ______________ Deepti’s marriage. Preeti replied that (b)

______________ so (c) ______________ Seema said that the function was at 12 o’ clock.

Preeti hoped that she (d) _______________ which Seema thought was a good idea.

Section – C (Literature and Long Reading Text) (30 Marks) 27. Read the extract carefully and answer the question. [1x3 = 3]

“……………….. The sea holiday

was her part , mine is her laughter. Both wry

with the labored ease of loss”.

a. Her in these lines refers to ______________.

b. ‘Her’ laughter is a thing of past because ______________.

c. The word wry means ______________. OR

“And who art thou? Said I to the soft falling shower which strange to tell , gave me an answer , as here translated: I am the poem of Earth , said the voice of the rain , Eternal I rise impalpable out of the land and bottomless sea ,

43

a. Why was the answer ‘strange? b. What does the rain call itself? c. Where does the rain originate from?

28. Answer any three of the following. [3x3 = 9]

a. Describe the odd way in which the grandmother behaved just before she died. b. Why did the narrator wait a long time before going to the address number 46 , Marconi

street? c. How did Carter defend his action of cutting the mummy free? d. Why was Shyama impressed by Ranga?

29. Answer the following questions in about 120-150 words.

What message does ‘We’re not afraid to die – give? [6] OR

“Scientific intervention is necessary to unearth buried mysteries”. Discuss. Long Reading Text (Novel)

30. What is the plot of the novel “The Canterville Ghost”? [6] OR

“I was one of the happiest soul on Earth”. What made Booker say this? 31. Describe Otis’ first day at the Canterville mansion. What unusual things happened on that

day? [6] OR

Describe how the Negroes were being ill-treated by their white skinned counterparts.

44

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: History Marks: 80 Grade: XI Time: 3 Hrs.

Part - A Answer all the questions. [2x3 = 6]

1. Define ‘Fossils’. 2. What is the meaning of the word ‘Mesopotamia’? 3. What do you mean by the ‘Augustan Age’?

Part - B (Section I) [4x5 = 20] Answer any five of the following questions.

4. Explain the effects of changing environment around 12,000 years ago. 5. How did the use of language prove advantageous in hunting expedition? 6. “The use of seals played significant role in the development of trade in urbanisation in

“Mesopotamia”. Discuss. 7. What does the term ‘Republic’ refer to in the history of the Roman Empire? 8. What are the five pillars of Islam? 9. What were crusades? Describe its two impacts on the Christian Muslim relations?

Part - B (Section II) VALUE BASE QUESTION 10. a. “Rivers play crucial role in the emergence of civilization” justify this statement in context

to Mesopotamia. [2] b. “Undoubtedly the modern man made tremendous progress since coming into being”. Justify the statement. [2]

45

Part - C (Long Answer Question) Answer any three of the following questions. [8x3 = 24]

11. Discuss in detail about the places of residence of early humans. 12. State the points of similarities and differences between Indus Valley and Mesopotamian

Civilization. 13. What do you think about the importance of Latin and Greek languages in the Roman Empire? 14. Describe the major beliefs and practices that characterised Sufism.

Part - C (Passage Based Questions) 15. Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow: [7x3 = 21] A major difference between the two superpowers and their respective empires was that the Roman Empire was culturally much more diverse than that of Iran. The Parthians and later the Sasanians, the dynasties that ruled Iran in this period, ruled over a population that was largely Iranian. The Roman Empire, by contrast, was a mosaic of territories and cultures that were chiefly bound together by a common system of government. Many languages were spoken in the empire, but for the purposes of administration Latin and Greek were the most widely used, indeed the only languages. The upper classes of the east spoke and wrote in Greek, those of the west in Latin, and the boundary between these broad language areas ran somewhere across the middle of the Mediterranean, between the African provinces of Tripolitania (which was Latin speaking) and Cyrenaica (Greek-speaking). All those who lived in the empire were subjects of a single ruler, the emperor, regardless of where they lived and what language they spoke.

Questions (i) How would you differentiate the Roman Empire from Iran? (ii) Name two dynasties who ruled over Iran during this period. (iii) Which empire was bound together by a common system of government and why?

16. Today, Mesopotamian excavators have much higher standards of accuracy and care in

recording than in the old days, so that few dig huge areas the way Ur was excavated. Moreover, few archaeologists have the funds to employ large teams of excavators. Thus, the mode of obtaining data has changed. Take the small town at Abu Salabikh, about 10 hectares in area in 2500 BCE with a population less than 10,000. The outlines of walls were at first traced by scraping surfaces. This involves scraping off the top few millimetres of the mound

17. The Discovery of Australopithecus, Olduvai Gorge, 17 July, 1759 The Olduvai Gorge was first 'discovered' in the early twentieth century by a German butterfly collector. However, Olduvai has come to be identified with Mary and Louis Leakey, who worked here for over 40 years. It was Mary Leakey who directed archaeological excavations at Olduvai and Laetoli and she made some of the most exciting discoveries. This is what Louis Leakey wrote about one of their most remarkable finds: That morning I woke with a headache and a slight fever. Reluctantly, I agreed to spend the day in camp. With one of us out of commission, it was even more vital for the other to continue the work, for our precarious seven-week season was running out. So Mary departed for the diggings with Sally and Toots [two of their dogs] in the Land-Rover [a jeep-like vehicle], and I settled back to a restless day off. Some time later-perhaps I dozed off-I heard the Land-Rover coming up fast to camp. I had a momentary vision of Mary stung by one of our hundreds of resident scorpions or bitten by a snake that had slipped past the dogs.

46

The Land-Rover rattled to a stop, and I heard Mary's voice calling over and over: "I've got him! I've got him! I've got him!" Still groggy from the headache, I couldn't make her out. "Got what? Are you hurt?" I asked. "Him, the man! Our man," Mary said. "The one we've been looking for 23 years. Come quick, I've found his teeth!"

Part - E

18. On the given map of Asia mark and locate the following. [5] a. Mecca

b. Medina

c. Damascus d. Antioch e. Edessa

47

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Mathematics Marks: 100 Grade: XI Time: 3 Hrs.

General instructions. All questions are compulsory in both sections. This question paper contains 29 questions. Question 1 – 4 in Section A are very short answer type questions carrying 1 mark each. Question 5 – 12 in Section B are short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each. Question 13 – 23 in Section C are long answer I type questions carrying 4 marks each. Question 24 – 29 in Section D are long answer II type questions carrying 6 marks each.

Section - A 1. For any set A and B , is it true that P (A) ∪ P (B) = P (A ∪ B)? Justify your answer by giving

example. 2. Given A = {1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5} and R = (x , y) : x ∈ A , y ∈ A}. Find the set of ordered pairs

which satisfy the condition x + y < 5. 3. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 3:4:5 find the smallest angle in degrees and the

greatest angle in radians. 4. Express in the standard form a + ib

�13

+ 𝑖𝑖73� + �4 + 𝑖𝑖

3� – �−4

3+ 𝑖𝑖�

Section - B

5. Let T = �𝑥𝑥: 𝑥𝑥+5𝑥𝑥−7

− 5 = 4𝑥𝑥−4013−𝑥𝑥

�. Is T an empty set? Justify your answer. 6. If L = {1 , 2 , 3 , 4} M = {3 , 4 , 5 , 6} and N = {1 , 3 , 5} then verify that

L – (M ∪ N) = (L – M) ∩ (L – N)

7. Find the domain and range of the function f(x) = 𝑥𝑥2

1+𝑥𝑥2

8. If f(x) = y = 𝑎𝑎𝑥𝑥−𝑏𝑏𝑐𝑐𝑥𝑥−𝑎𝑎

then prove that f(y) = x.

9. If sin x = 1213

, find the quadrant in which x can lie. Also find the values of remaining trigonometric function of x.

10. If x – iy = �𝑎𝑎−𝑖𝑖𝑏𝑏𝑐𝑐−𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖

prove that (x2 + y2)2 = 𝑎𝑎2+𝑏𝑏2

𝑐𝑐2+𝑖𝑖2

11. The water acidity in a pool is considered normal when the average PH reading of three daily measurements is between 8.2 and 8.5. If the first two PH readings are 8.48 and 8.35, find the range of PH value for the third reading that will result in the acidity level being normal.

12. If n𝑐𝑐𝑟𝑟−1=36 , n𝑐𝑐𝑟𝑟 = 84 and n𝑐𝑐𝑟𝑟+1 = 126 then find r𝑐𝑐2

48

Section - C 13. What is the number of ways of choosing 4 cards from pads of 52 playing cards? In how many

of these a. Cards are of the same suit b. Are face cards c. Two are red and two are black cards d. Cards belong to different suits?

14. If all the letters of the word ‘MOTHER’ are written in all possible orders and the words so formed are arranged as in a dictionary order, then find the rank of the word ‘MOTHER’.

15. If P is a real number and if the middle term in the expansion of �𝑃𝑃2

+ 2�8is 1120, find P.

16. Find the coefficient of x5 in the expansion of the product (1 + 2x)6 (1 – x)7 17. Solve 𝑥𝑥

4 > 5𝑥𝑥−2

3 – 7𝑥𝑥−3

5 and graph the solution set on the number line.

18. Convert the – √3 + i complex number in the polar form and represent them in Argand plane. OR

Solve the equation: 3x2 – 4x + 203

= 0 19. For all n ∈N , prove by mathematical induction that

a + ar + ar2 + ------------ + arn–1 = a.1−𝑟𝑟𝑛𝑛

1−𝑟𝑟 , r ≠ 1

20. Solve the equation: 3tanx – cotx = 5 cosecx 21. Prove that 2 cos 𝜋𝜋

13 cos 9𝜋𝜋

13 + cos 3𝜋𝜋

13 + cos 5𝜋𝜋

13 = 0

22. Draw the graphs of the following real functions and hence find their range:

f(x) = 1 − 𝑥𝑥 , 𝑥𝑥 < 0

1 , 𝑥𝑥 = 0𝑥𝑥 + 1 , 𝑥𝑥 > 0

OR Draw the graph of signum function and find their domain and range.

23. In an examination 80% students passed in mathematics, 72% passed in science and 13% failed in both the subjects. If 312 students passed in both the subjects, find the total number of students who appeared in the examination.

Section - D 24. (i) Find the domain and the range of the real valued function f(x) = √16 − 𝑥𝑥2

(ii) Let f , g be two functions defined by f(x) = x2 + 7 and g(x) = 3x+ 5 , find the value of f(1/2) x g(14).

25. Prove that: cos2x + cos2(x+𝜋𝜋/3) + cos2 (x – 𝜋𝜋/3) = 32

26. Prove by induction that 8.7n + 4n+2 is divisible by 24 for all n ∈ N. 27. Solve the following system of inequalities graphically.

3y – 2x ≤ 4 , x + 3y > 3 , x + y ≥ 5 , y < 4 28. In how many ways can the letters of the word PERMUTATIONS be arranged such that

49

a. There is no restriction b. Word start with P and end with S c. All vowels are together d. T’s are together e. P comes before S f. There are four letters between P & S?

29. Find n if the ratio of the fifth term from the beginning to the fifth term from the end in the expansion of �√24 + 1

√34 �𝑛𝑛

is √6 : 1 OR

If the coefficients of 2nd , 3rd and 4th term in the expansion of (1+x)2n are in A.P. then find the value of n.

50

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Physics Marks: 70 Grade: XI Time: 3 Hrs.

1. Which one is larger, light year or parsec? How much? [1]

2. Why does the electric fan continue to rotate for some time after the current is switched off?

[1]

3. If escape velocity on the surface of earth is 11.2 km/s, then find the orbital velocity. [1]

4. A constant retarding force of magnitude 10 N is applied on a body of mass 2 kg initially moving with velocity 20 m/s. What distance will the body move before finally coming to rest? [2]

5. A pump on the ground flour of a building can pump up water to fill a tank of volume 30m3 in 15

minutes. If the tank is 40 m above the ground , and the efficiency of pump is 30% , how much

electric power is consumed by the pump? Take density of water to be 103 kg m–3 and

g = 9.8 ms–2. [3]

6. A stone tied to the end of a string 80 cm long is whirled in a horizontal circle with constant

speed. If the stone makes 14 revolutions in 25 sec, what is the magnitude and direction of

acceleration of stone? [3]

7. Obtain the relation between angular momentum and moment of Inertia. [3]

8. Derive an expression for the time period of a satellite revolving around the earth. Show how it

depends upon the density of the earth. [3]

9. How will you ‘weigh the sun’ - that is estimate its mass? The mean orbital radius of the earth

around the sun is 1.5 x 108 km. [3]

10. Derive an expression for the potential energy stored in a system of block attached to a massless

spring, when the block is pulled from its equilibrium position. [3]

11. Two bodies A and B of respective masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a

table against a rigid partition as shown. The coefficient of friction between the bodies and table

is 0.15. Find (i) The reaction of the partition (ii) The action-reaction forces on A and B. [3]

51

12. Find a unit vector perpendicular to both vectors 𝐴𝐴 = 3î + ĵ + 2𝑘𝑘� and 𝐵𝐵�⃗ = 2î – 2ĵ + 4𝑘𝑘�. [3]

13. Assuming that the mass m of the longest stone that can be moved by a flowing river depends

upon the velocity v of water, its density f and acceleration due to gravity. Show that m varies as

the sixth power of the velocity of water in river. [3]

14. Four masses m , 2 m , 3 m and 4 m are placed at corner of a square. If a mass m is placed at

centre of square then find the force experience by mass m due to others. [4]

15. In the given figure, find acceleration of the blocks and tension in the string (g = 10 m/s2) [4]

16. A solid cylinder of mass 20 kg rotates about its axis with angular speed 100 S–1. The radius of

cylinder is 0.25 m. what is the kinetic energy associated with the rotation of the cylinder? What

is the magnitude of angular momentum of the cylinder about its axis? [4]

17. Define escape velocity and find expression for it. [4]

18. From a uniform disc of radius R , a circular hole of radius R/2 is cut out. The centre of the hole

is R/2 from the centre of the original disc. Locate the centre of mass of resulting flat body. [4]

F = 200 N

52

19. A rocket is fired vertically with a speed of 5 km/s from the earth’s surface. How far from the

earth does the rocket go before returning to the earth? Mass of earth = 6x1024 kg , mean radius

of earth = 6.4x106 m , G = 6.67x10–11 Nm2 kg–2. [4]

20. Write Kepler’s law of orbits. What inferences can be drawn with the help of these laws? [4]

21. Prove that in an elastic collision in one-dimension , the relative velocity of approach before

impact is equal to the relative velocity of separation after impact. [5]

22. Explain why. [5]

a. Passengers are thrown forward from their seats when speeding bus suddenly stops.

b. A horse cannot pull a cart and run in empty space.

c. A cricketer moves his hands backward while holding a catch.

53

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Political Science Marks: 100 Grade: XI Time: 3 Hrs.

General instructions. All the questions are compulsory. Question nos. 1 to 5 are of 1 mark each. The answer to these questions should not exceed

20 words. Question nos. 6 to 10 are of 2 marks each. The answer to these questions should not

exceed 40 words. Question nos. 11 to 16 are of 4 marks each. The answer to these questions should not

exceed 100 words. Question nos. 17 to 21 are of 5 marks each. Question nos. 17 to 21 are paragraph based question. Question nos. 21 is map based question. Question nos. 22 to 27 are of 6 marks each. The answer to these questions should not

exceed 150 words. 26. What is the objective of constitution of India as embodied in the Preamble? [1]

27. What do you mean by local government? [1]

28. What are the factors which make a federalism successful? [1]

29. How is the Lok Sabha formed? [1]

30. Write down any two powers of the President of India. [1]

31. What are the merits of a good executive? [2]

32. What are Directive Principles of State Policy? [2]

33. What is the need and importance of Constitution? [2]

34. What do you mean by Election System? [2]

35. State whether the following are True of False. [0.5x4 = 2] a. The constitution of India is formed by the Parliament of India.

b. The members Constituent Assembly were elected indirectly.

c. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly.

d. The Constituent Assembly consisted of 289 members.

36. What is a constitution? How can we say that constitution is a living document?[2+2 = 4]

54

37. Which of the Fundamental Rights is in your opinion the most important right? Summarise its

provisions and give arguments to show why it is most important. [1+2+1 = 4]

38. What is the difference between the system of reservation of constituencies and the system of

separate electorate? Why did the constitution makers reject the latter? [1.5 + 1.5 + 1 = 4]

39. “Universal Adult Franchise is important in a democracy”. Justify the statement. [4]

40. Math the following. [1+1+1+1 = 4] a. Works within the particular state in (i) Indian Foreign Service

Which recruited b. Works in any central government (ii) State Civil Service

office located either at the national capital or elsewhere in the country.

c. Works in a particular state to which (iii) All India Services allotted; can also be sent on deputation to the centre.

d. Works in Indian Missions abroad (iv) Central Services 41. How has the system of parliament committee affected the overseeing and appraisal of

legislation by the Parliament? [4] 42. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

If a member remains absent in the House when asked by the party leadership to remain present or votes against the instructions of the party or voluntarily leaves the membership of the party, it is deemed as defection. Experience of the past twenty years shows that the anti-defection amendment has not been able to curb defections, but it has given additional powers to the party leadership and the presiding officers of the legislatures over the members. a. What is a defection? [1] b. Has the anti-defection amendment been able to curb defection? [2] c. Which Amendment Act is known as anti-defection amendment? [1] d. Identify the values according to you, which is violated by some members of legislature if

they decide to leave to their party. [1] 43. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Together the writ powers and the review power of the court make judiciary very powerful. In particular, the review power means that the judiciary can interpret the constitution and the laws passed by the legislature. Many people think that this feature enables the judiciary to protect the rights of citizens. The practice of entertaining PILs has further added to the powers of the judiciary in protecting rights of citizens. a. Which powers of courts make judiciary very powerful? [2]

b. What do you mean by review power? [1]

c. How does Judiciary protect the rights of citizens? [1]

55

d. Identify the values shown in above para. [1]

44. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

While border disputes are more about sentiments, the disputes over the sharing of river waters are even more serious, because they are related to problems of drinking water and agriculture in the concerned states. You might have heard about the Cauvery water dispute. This is a major issue between Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Farmers in both the states are dependent on Cauvery waters. Though there is a river water tribunal to settle water disputes, this dispute has reached the Supreme Court. In another similar dispute Gujrat , Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are battling over sharing the waters of Narmada river. Rivers are a major resource and therefore, dispute over river waters test the patience and cooperative-spirit of the states. a. Which major dispute between Tamil Nadu and Karnataka has reached the Supreme Court?

[1] b. Name the river for which Gujrat , Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are battling over

sharing water? [1] c. What do you understand by Cauvery water dispute? [2] d. Identify the values according to you which are essential for settlement of dispute over river

water among the states. [1] 45. Read the cartoon given below and answer the questions that follow.

a. What does cartoon represent? [1] b. Why do you think such situations occurs? [2] c. Who takes the final decision on all such cases? [2]

56

46. Study the map given below and answer the following questions.

a. Write the name of states having bicameral legislature. [3]

b. The highest court situated in your state. [1]

c. Supreme Court of your country. [1]

47. Give two examples each to support the following conclusions about the Indian

Constitution.

a. The constitution was made by credible leaders who commanded people’s respect.

b. The constitution has distributed power in such a way as to make it difficult to subvert it.

c. The constitution is the locus of people’s hopes and aspirations. [2+2+2 = 6]

48. Mention the fundamental duties of a citizen in Constitution of India. [6]

49. “Indian democracy is now ready to shift from a crude First Past the Post system to a system of

Proportional Representation”. Do you agree with this statement? Give reason for or against

this statement. [1+1+1+1+1+1 = 6]

57

50. It is said that there is too much political interference in the working of the administrative

machinery. It is suggested that there should be more and more autonomous agencies which do

not have to answer to the ministers. [4+1+1 = 6]

a. Do you think this will make administration more people-friendly?

b. Do you think this will make administration more efficient?

c. Does democracy mean full control of elected representatives over the administration?

51. The following are some proposals for making the Parliament more effective. State if you agree

or disagree with each of them and give your reasons. Explain what would be the effect if these

suggestions were accepted. [2+2+2 = 6]

a. Parliament should work for longer period.

b. Attendance should be made compulsory for members of Parliament.

c. Speakers should be empowered to penalise members for interrupting the proceedings of the

House.

d. What are the different provisions in the constitution in order to maintain the Independence of

Judiciary? [1+1+1+1+1+1 = 6]

58

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Guitar [5th Optional] Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

lHkh iz'uksa dks gy djuk gS A

uksV%& lHkh Á'u¨a ds mRrj 200 “kCnksa esa fy[kuk gS A

1. laxhr dh ifjHkk"kk ,oa ifjp; fy[ks A [6x1 = 6] 2. lIrd dh ifjHkk"kk nsrs gq, mldk foLrkj iw.kZ ifjp; nsa A [6x1 = 6] 3. /ofu fdls dgrs gSa\ iw.kZ ifjp; nsa A [6x1 = 6] 4. jkx fogkx dk ifjp; fy[ks A [6x1 = 6] 5. Rkkulsu dk foLr`r thou ifjp; fy[ksa A [6x1 = 6]

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Guitar [5th Optional] Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

lHkh Á'u¨a dks gy djuk gS A

uksV%& lHkh Á'u¨a ds mRrj 200 'kCnksa esa fy[kuk gS A

1. laxhr dh ifjHkk"kk ,oa ifjp; fy[ks A [6x1 = 6] 2. lIrd dh ifjHkk"kk nsrs gq, mldk foLrkj iw.kZ ifjp; nsa A [6x1 = 6] 3. /ofu fdls dgrs gSa\ iw.kZ ifjp; nsa A [6x1 = 6] 4. jkx fogkx dk ifjp; fy[ks A [6x1 = 6] 5. Rkkulsu dk foLr`r thou ifjp; fy[ksa A [6x1 = 6]

59

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Guitar [5th Optional] Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

lHkh Á'u¨a dks gy djuk gS A

uksV%& lHkh Á'u¨a ds mRrj 200 'kCnksa esa fy[kuk gS A

1. laxhr dh ifjHkk"kk ,oa ifjp; fy[ks A [6x1 = 6] 2. lIrd dh ifjHkk"kk nsrs gq, mldk foLrkj iw.kZ ifjp; nsa A [6x1 = 6] 3. /ofu fdls dgrs gSa\ iw.kZ ifjp; nsa A [6x1 = 6] 4. jkx fogkx dk ifjp; fy[ks A [6x1 = 6] 5. Rkkulsu dk foLr`r thou ifjp; fy[ksa A [6x1 = 6]

60

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016-17 Informatics Practices (code: 065) [5th Optional] Marks: 70 GRADE: XI Time: 3 Hrs.

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory. • Answer the questions after carefully reading the text. • Please check that this question paper contains 12 questions. • Do all the parts of same questions together.

1. Answer the following (one word answer) 1x6=6

a. Give two-two examples of Operating System and Language Processor.

b. Name the Operator that acts upon two operands.

c. It refers to the occurrence of an activity. Name it.

d. Name the math function that returns x raised to y(xy) e. What is the short cut key to open Properties Window?

f. It is a blueprint that represents a set of similar objects.

2. Write full form of : 6 a) OCR c) ASCII e) LCD

b) DMP d) IDE f) CRT

3. Fill in the blanks: 10

a. A ________ is a self-replicating program, which eats up the entire disk space.

b. _______________ is software that assists the computer by performing housekeeping

functions.

c. A system designed to prevent unauthorized access to or from a private network is called

_______________.

d. By default, Java assumes the fractional numbers to be of __________ data type.

e. _______________ is a method to extract numbers from a string.

f. Java was originally named as _______ .

g. ___________ is a blue print that represents a set of similar objects.

h. Java provides three jump statements _______, _______, ________.

61

4. Which of the following are Invalid identifiers? Give reason for that. 2 _ds, break, f.num,, $1_to_$10, 16ABB

5. Name the math function in Netbeans that returns - 2

a) The absolute value of a. b) E raised to x (ex)

6. State whether the following statements are True or False: 1x4=4

a) Nibble is a group of 8 bits.

b) Dot Matrix printers are non-impact printers.

c) Analog computer deals with physical quantities and measuring.

d) System.out.println () is a way to print/display output on output window of Netbeans IDE.

7. Answer the following questions: 2x7=14 a. In Java program there are 5 types of Tokens. Name them.

b. What do you understand by Java Byte Code?

c. What are iteration statements? Name the iteration statements provided by Java.

d. Which escape sequences represent the newline character and null character?

e. What is the significance of a Break statement in a switch statement?

f. What command do you need to write in action Performed() event handler of a button, in

order to make it exit button.

g. Convert the decimal number (31)10 into binary digits.

8. What will be displayed in jTextArea1 after executing the following statements? 2

jtextArea1.setText(“Informatics \t Practices \n Sumita \t Arora”);

9. Evaluate the following java expression: 2x6=12 a) P=P * ++J where J=22 and P=3

b) (7==3) && (4==4) true/False

c) 1 > 0 II 8 < 0 true/False

d) (13 * k++)%4 if k = 3 e) a= p*3/4 + k/4 + 8 – p +5/8; (int a, p=2, k=4) f) a1 * a2 < 210 ? 150 : 10 (if a1=70, a2=3)

62

10. Write a For loop that displays the numbers from 10 to 1 i.e. 10, 9, 8 …2, 1. 3

11. What will be the output of following code fragment: 3

i = 10; j = 10; if (a<100) * if the input given is a = 30 and b=30 if (b>50) ++i ; Else ++j System.out.println (“i = “ +i); System.out.println (“j = “ +j);

12. Write a program in Netbeans to calculate commission for the salesman. The commission is calculated according to the following rates: 6

Sales Commission

30000 onwards 15%

22001 – 30000 10%

12001 – 22000 7%

e. 0 – 12000 3%

63

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Kathak [5th Optional] Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

All questions are compulsory.

1. Describe the definition of “Bhajan”. [6] 2. Describe the one story of “Krishna lila”. [6] 3. Describe the evaluation of Kathak dance Pracheen Kal to present era. [6] 4. Describe the definition of Aangika , Vachika Aaharya and Satwika. [6] 5. Describe the history of all classical dance form. [6]

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Kathak [5th Optional] Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

All questions are compulsory.

1. Describe the definition of “Bhajan”. [6] 2. Describe the one story of “Krishna lila”. [6] 3. Describe the evaluation of Kathak dance Pracheen Kal to present era. [6] 4. Describe the definition of Aangika , Vachika Aaharya and Satwika. [6] 5. Describe the history of all classical dance form. [6]

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Kathak [5th Optional] Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

All questions are compulsory.

1. Describe the definition of “Bhajan”. [6] 2. Describe the one story of “Krishna lila”. [6] 3. Describe the evaluation of Kathak dance Pracheen Kal to present era. [6] 4. Describe the definition of Aangika , Vachika Aaharya and Satwika. [6]

Describe the history of all classical dance form. [6]

64

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Multimedia and Web technology [5th Optional] Marks: 70 Grade: XI Time: 3 Hrs.

1. Name the port which is used to connect a Pointing device. 1

2. What is Web browser? 1

3. What is IMG SRC? 1

4. What is Web server? 1

5. What is WIMAX? 2

6. What is the difference between the Container & Empty tags used in HTML? 2

7. How is <BR> tag different from <P> tag? 2

8. List any attribute of <HR> tag. 2

9. Explain briefly about Volatile and non volatile memory. 2

10. What is the advantage & disadvantage of OCR? 2

11. Identify and name the following Operating Systems. 2

12. How does the wireless mouse communicate with computer? 2 13. What are utility Programs? 2 14. Write the names of any four most commonly used operating system for PC. 2 15. Why is secondary storage needed in computer? Explain briefly. 3 16. What is cache memory? How is it different from the Primary memory? 3 17. Write the steps for creating a folder in D Drive of computer. 3 18. What is the output of the following segment of the HTML code: 3

<html> <body> <img src="html5.gif" alt="HTML5 Icon" style="width:128px;height:128px;"> </body> </html>

65

19. What is the output of the following segment of the HTML code: 4

<html>

<body>

<h2>An unordered HTML list</h2>

<ul>

<li>Coffee</li>

<li>Tea</li>

<li>Milk</li>

</ul>

</body>

</html>

20. Explain the types of Operating system. 5

21. Explain the attribute of <TABLE> tag ? 5

22. Write the expansions of the following tags used in HTML: 6

a) <P>

b) <UL>

c) <B>

d) <!>

e) <BR>

f) <HR>

66

23. Write the difference between the following: 2x3 = 6

a) Compiler & interpreter

b) Encryption& decryption

24. Do as directed. 8 10

Notes :

(a) Title of the page is "Save the Earth".

(b) The background color of the page is Silver.

(c) The font used for heading is 'Arial', size is 6 and color is Black.

(d) The sub heading is in "Verdana" font, font size is 4 and color is Brown.

Rest of the text is in "Verdana" font, font size 4 and black color.

(e) Image used is from file "Main.jpg".

(f) The links are provided in an Unordered list with ordered list used in between.

(g) The pages are linked as follows :

Home : Home.htm

Faqs : Faq.htm

67

Pollution : Poll.htm

Deforestation : Defores.htm

Poaching : Poach.htm

Forests : Forest.htm

Endangered Species : Specie.htm

(h) The categories 'Controlling' and 'Saving' in the un-ordered list are not linked to any page.

(i) The width and height of the horizontal line is 820 and 80 respectively.

Note: You can use any other attributes that are not otherwise mentioned above to produce a similar

output.

68

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Music (Vocal) [5th Optional] Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

Word limit minimum 300 words. All the questions are compulsory. All the questions carry equal mark. 1. How many shudh swar are there in raaga Jaunpuri? [3] 2. Write the life sketch of Pt. V. D. Paluskar. [3] 3. Write the description of raaga jaunpuri along with aroh, avroh, pakad. [3] 4. Write the description of the following [3]

a. Swar and Tarana b. Sargamgeet and Khayal c. Naad

5. How many jati and subjati are there in Indian classical music? Give full description.[3] 6. Write short note on Drupad. [3] 7. Write the description of raaga bihag along with notation of the raaga. [3] 8. Write the theka and dugun of Ektaal and Chartaal along with description. [3] 9. Write the contribution of Pt. V. N Bhatkhande in Indian classical music. [3] 10. Write the notation of Bandish in Vrindavani sarang along with description. [3]

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Music (Vocal) [5th Optional] Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

Word limit minimum 300 words. All the questions are compulsory. All the questions carry equal mark. 1. How many shudh swar are there in raaga Jaunpuri? [3] 2. Write the life sketch of Pt. V. D. Paluskar. [3] 3. Write the description of raaga jaunpuri along with aroh, avroh, pakad. [3] 4. Write the description of the following [3]

a. Swar and Tarana b. Sargamgeet and Khayal c. Naad

5. How many jati and subjati are there in Indian classical music? Give full description.[3]

69

6. Write short note on Drupad. [3] 7. Write the description of raaga bihag along with notation of the raaga. [3] 8. Write the theka and dugun of Ektaal and Chartaal along with description. [3] 9. Write the contribution of Pt. V. N Bhatkhande in Indian classical music. [3] 10. Write the notation of Bandish in Vrindavani sarang along with description. [3]

70

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Painting [5th Optional] Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

1. Describe the ‘Painting Padmapani Bodhisattva? [5] 2. What is Mara Vijaya? Describe the compositional arrangement of this relief? [5] 3. Describe the theme of Ajanta Paintings. [5] 4. Describe the seated Buddha – Gupta period, Sarantha style. [5] 5. Describe the Bodhisattva Head, Kusan period. [5] 6. Describe the chauri bearer (yakhini) [2½] 7. Describe the seated Buddha – Katra Maind, Mathura style (Kushan period) [2½]

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi

Mid Term Examination 2016 – 17

Subject: Painting [5th Optional] Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

1. Describe the ‘Painting Padmapani Bodhisattva? [5] 2. What is Mara Vijaya? Describe the compositional arrangement of this relief? [5] 3. Describe the theme of Ajanta Paintings. [5] 4. Describe the seated Buddha – Gupta period, Sarantha style. [5] 5. Describe the Bodhisattva Head, Kusan period. [5] 6. Describe the chauri bearer (yakhini) [2½] 7. Describe the seated Buddha – Katra Maind , Mathura style (Kushan period) [2½]

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi

Mid Term Examination 2016 – 17

Subject: Painting [5th Optional] Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

1. Describe the ‘Painting Padmapani Bodhisattva? [5] 2. What is Mara Vijaya? Describe the compositional arrangement of this relief? [5] 3. Describe the theme of Ajanta Paintings. [5] 4. Describe the seated Buddha – Gupta period, Sarantha style. [5] 5. Describe the Bodhisattva Head , Kusan period. [5] 6. Describe the chauri bearer (yakhini) [2½] 7. Describe the seated Buddha – Katra Maind , Mathura style (Kushan period) [2½]

71

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Physical Education [5th Optional] Marks: 70 Grade: XI Time: 3 Hrs.

General instruction.

The question paper is divided into two parts. Part A and Part B.

All questions are compulsory.

Answer to questions carrying 1 mark should be in 30 words.

Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should be in 60 words.

Answer to questions carrying 3 marks should be in 100 words.

Answer to questions carrying 5 marks should be in 150 words.

Part - A

1. Explain briefly the meaning of word ‘yuj’. [1] 2. Define yoga in your words. [1] 3. List down the benefits of yoga. [1] 4. Define doping. [1] 5. Mention the doping substances. [1] 6. Explain the functions of WADA. [2] 7. Highlight harmful effects of prohibited substances. [2] 8. Explain the concept of sports environment. [2] 9. What is the need of sports environment? [2] 10. Give the importance of yoga in modern times. [2] 11. Discuss blood doping and its effect. [3] 12. Highlight the principles of physical activity environment. [3] 13. Discuss the activities for adolescence stage. [3] 14. Explain the use of stimulants and steroids in sports. [3] 15. Discuss any four Pranayams. What are their therapeutic effects? [3] 16. Discuss “Yoga as heritage of India”. [5] 17. Explain the elements of yoga. [5] 18. Describe the doping test procedure. [5] 19. Discuss the ill-effects of doping over individual’s health. [5]

72

Part - B

Answer the question no. 21 – 24 from one game / sport of your choice.

20. Write the history of the game / sport of your choice. [2]

21. Write about the achievements of any two international players of the game / sport of your

choice. [3]

22. Draw the field / court / table with all specifications and measurements of the game / sport

of your choice. [5]

23. Explain any four conditioning exercise for players of the game / sport of your choice.[5] 24. Explain any five terminology of game / sport of your choice. [5]

73

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Tabla [5th Optional] Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

funsZ'k%& dqy ik¡p iz'u gSaA lHkh iz'uksa ds vad leku gSa A lHkh iz'uksa dks gy djuk vfuok;Z gSa A 6. ia- vuks[ksyky feJ vFkok m0 vgen tku fFkjdok esa ls fdUgha ,d dykdkj dk thou ifjp; o ;ksxnku

dk o.kZu dfj, A 7. cukjl vFkok iatkc ?kjkus esa ls fdlh ,d ?kjkus dh ijaijk ,oa oknu “kSyh dk mYys[k dfj, A 8. dk;nk vFkok jsyk esa ls fdlh ,d cfUn'k dks rhurky esa pkj iYVksa o ,d frgkbZ lfgr fyfic) dfj, A 9. ,drky rFkk pkSrky ds e/; lekurk ,oa vlekurkvksa dk mYys[k dfj, A 10. fuEu esa ls fdUgha rhu rkyksa dks igpkudj mudk iw.kZ Bsdk fyfic) dfj, A

(i) &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& /kk f/ka f/ka /kk &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& 2 (ii) &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& /kh uk &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& 1 (iii) /kh uk &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& x (iv) &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& fna rk &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& xfn xu x x x (v) &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& /kk /kk f/ka f/ka &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& 3 x

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Tabla [5th Optional] Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

funsZ'k%& dqy ik¡p iz'u gSa A lHkh iz'uksa ds vad leku gSa A lHkh iz'uksa dks gy djuk vfuok;Z gSa A 1. ia- vuks[ksyky feJ vFkok m0 vgen tku fFkjdok esa ls fdUgha ,d dykdkj dk thou ifjp; o ;ksxnku

dk o.kZu dfj, A 2. cukjl vFkok iatkc ?kjkus esa ls fdlh ,d ?kjkus dh ijaijk ,oa oknu 'kSyh dk mYys[k dfj, A 3. dk;nk vFkok jsyk esa ls fdlh ,d cfUn'k dks rhurky esa pkj iYVksa o ,d frgkbZ lfgr fyfic) dfj, A 4. ,drky rFkk pkSrky ds e/; lekurk ,oa vlekurkvksa dk mYys[k dfj, A 5. fuEu esa ls fdUgha rhu rkyksa dks igpkudj mudk iw.kZ Bsdk fyfic) dfj, A

(i) &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& /kk f/ka f/ka /kk &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& 2 (ii) &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& /kh uk &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& 1

74

(iii) /kh uk &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& x (iv) &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& fna rk &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& xfn xu x x x (v) &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& /kk /kk f/ka f/ka &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& 3 x

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Guitar Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

funsZ'k%&

dqy ik¡p iz'u gSa A

lHkh iz'uksa ds vad leku gSa A

lHkh iz'uksa ds mRrj 200 'kCnksa esa fy[kuk gS A 11. laxhr dh ifjHkk"kk fyf[k, A [6]

12. Loj dh ifjHkk"kk fyf[k, A [6]

13. Rkhurky dks ifjHkkf"kr dhft, A [6]

14. jkx fogkx dk ifjp; fy[ks A [6]

15. rkulsu dk thou ifjp; fy[ks A [6]

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi

Mid Term Examination 2016 – 17

Subject: Guitar Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

funsZ'k%&

dqy ik¡p iz'u gSa A lHkh iz'uksa ds vad leku gSa A lHkh iz'uksa ds mRrj 200 'kCnksa esa fy[kuk gS A 1. laxhr dh ifjHkk"kk fyf[k, A [6] 2. Loj dh ifjHkk"kk fyf[k, A [6] 3. Rkhurky dks ifjHkkf"kr dhft, A [6] 4. jkx fogkx dk ifjp; fy[ks A [6] 5. rkulsu dk thou ifjp; fy[ksA [6]

75

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Kathak Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

All questions are compulsory.

6. Describe the brief history of all classical dance form. [6] 7. Describe the story of “Bhasmasur Vadh”. [6] 8. Describe the meaning of Abhinaya and definition of its four aspects. [6] 9. Write the history of Kathak dance in Mugal period , bhakti period,

later court influence and present. [6] 10. Describe the story of “Makhan Chori”. [6]

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Kathak Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

All questions are compulsory. 1. Describe the brief history of all classical dance form. [6] 2. Describe the story of “Bhasmasur Vadh”. [6] 3. Describe the meaning of Abhinaya and definition of its four aspects. [6] 4. Write the history of Kathak dance in Mugal period , bhakti period,

later court influence and present. [6] 5. Describe the story of “Makhan Chori”. [6]

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Kathak Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

All questions are compulsory.

1. Describe the brief history of all classical dance form. [6] 2. Describe the story of “Bhasmasur Vadh”. [6] 3. Describe the meaning of Abhinaya and definition of its four aspects. [6] 4. Write the history of Kathak dance in Mugal period , bhakti period,

later court influence and present. [6] 5. Describe the story of “Makhan Chori”. [6]

76

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Music (Vocal) Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

Word limit minimum 200 words.

All the questions are compulsory.

All questions carry equal marks.

11. Write the notation of Bandish in raaga Vrindavani Sarang. [6]

12. Write the Life Sketch of Pt. V. N. Bhatkhande. [6]

13. Write the Theka of Taal Dadra along with description of the taal. [6]

14. Write the description of Raaga Bihag. [6]

15. Write Aroh , Avaroh , Pakad of Raaga Vrindavani Sarang. [6]

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Music (Vocal) Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

Word limit minimum 200 words.

All the questions are compulsory.

All questions carry equal marks.

1. Write the notation of Bandish in raaga Vrindavani Sarang. [6]

2. Write the Life Sketch of Pt. V. N. Bhatkhande. [6]

3. Write the Theka of Taal Dadra along with description of the taal. [6]

4. Write the description of Raaga Bihag. [6]

6. Write Aroh , Avaroh , Pakad of Raaga Vrindavani Sarang. [6]

77

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Painting Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

8. What is Mara Vijay? Describe the compositional arrangement of this relief. [4] 9. Describe the Painting Padmapani Bodhisattva. [4] 10. Explain the “Buddha Hade of Taxila”. [4] 11. Explain the sculpture of Jain tirthankara. [4] 12. Explain the Sarnath Buddha. [4] 13. Explain the Mathura Buddha. [4] 14. Explain the rock painting ‘A Roaring Animal of Bhimbetka’. [2] 15. Explain the rock painting ‘Wizards Dance’ of Bhimbetka. [2] 16. Is the mother Goddess on idol? Explain with justification. [2]

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Painting Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

1. What is Mara Vijay? Describe the compositional arrangement of this relief. [4] 2. Describe the Painting Padmapani Bodhisattva. [4] 3. Explain the “Buddha Hade of Taxila”. [4] 4. Explain the sculpture of Jain tirthankara. [4] 5. Explain the Sarnath Buddha. [4] 6. Explain the Mathura Buddha. [4] 7. Explain the rock painting ‘A Roaring Animal of Bhimbetka’. [2] 8. Explain the rock painting ‘Wizards Dance’ of Bhimbetka. [2] 7. Is the mother Goddess on idol? Explain with justification. [2]

78

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Physical Education Marks: 70 Grade: XI Time: 3 Hrs.

General instruction. All questions are compulsory. Answer to questions carrying 1 mark should be in 30 words. Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should be in 60 words. Answer to questions carrying 3 marks should be in 100 words. Answer to questions carrying 5 marks should be in 120 – 150 words. 1. Define physical education. [1] 2. Mention the objectives of physical education. [1] 3. Define physical fitness. [1] 4. What do you understand by wellness? [1] 5. Mention the start and end of Ancient Olympic Games. [1] 6. What award was given to Ancient Olympic Games? [1] 7. Explain briefly the meaning of word ‘Yuj’. [2] 8. Define doping. [2] 9. Explain the use of stimulants and steroid in sports. [2] 10. Write a note on cryogenic aids. [2] 11. Explain the principles of integrated physical education. [2] 12. What do you understand by adopted physical education? [2] 13. Discuss the importance of physical fitness. [2] 14. Highlight the components of positive lifestyle. [2] 15. Give the working of IOC. [3] 16. Discuss any four programs and their efforts. [3] 17. Highlight harmful effects of prohibited substances. [3] 18. Explain “Chacha Nehru Sports Scholarship”. [3] 19. Explain Olympic Flag, Olympic Motto and Olympic Oath. [3] 20. What are the functions of IOA? [3] 21. Explain sports awards in India. [5] 22. Explain the elements of Yoga. [5] 23. Describe the doping test procedure. [5] 24. Explain the functions of WADA. [5] 25. Discuss “Yoga as a heritage of India”. [5] 26. Explain the components of physical fitness. [5]

79

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Tabla Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

funsZ'k%&

dqy ik¡p iz'u gSa A lHkh iz'uksa ds vad leku gSa A lHkh iz'uksa dks gy djuk vfuok;Z gSa A 1. fuEu esa ls fdUgha nks rkyksa dk iw.kZ ifjp; iznku dfj, & [2x3 = 6]

(i) rhurky (ii) ,drky (iii) >irky 2. rhurky ,oa :id rky ds Bsdksa dks Bkgxqu ,oa nqxqu esa fyfic) dfj, A [2x3 = 6] 3. ia- vuks[ksyky feJ vFkok vgen tku fFkjdok esa ls fdlh ,d dykdkj

dk thou ifjp; rFkk ;ksxnku dk mYys[k dfj, A [6x1 = 6] 4. ,drky rFkk pkjrky ds e/; lekurk ,oa vlekurkvksa dk mYys[k dfj, A [6x1 = 6] 5. fuEu rkyksa dh igpku dj iw.kZ dfj, A [3x2 = 6]

(i) /kk f/ka f/ka /kk &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&

x (ii) &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& /kh /kh uk 2 (iii) f/ka f/ka &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& x

Mount Litera Zee School Varanasi Mid Term Examination

2016 – 17 Subject: Tabla Marks: 30 Grade: XI Time: 1 Hr.

funsZ'k%& dqy ik¡p iz'u gSa A lHkh iz'uksa ds vad leku gSa A lHkh iz'uksa dks gy djuk vfuok;Z gSa A 1. fuEu esa ls fdUgha nks rkyksa dk iw.kZ ifjp; iznku dfj, & [2x3 = 6]

(i) rhurky (ii) ,drky (iii) >irky 2. rhurky ,oa :id rky ds Bsdksa dks Bkgxqu ,oa nqxqu esa fyfic) dfj, A [2x3 = 6] 3. ia- vuks[ksyky feJ vFkok vgen tku fFkjdok esa ls fdlh ,d dykdkj

dk thou ifjp; rFkk ;ksxnku dk mYys[k dfj, A [6x1 = 6] 4. ,drky rFkk pkjrky ds e/; lekurk ,oa vlekurkvksa dk mYys[k dfj, A [6x1 = 6] 5. fuEu rkyksa dh igpku dj iw.kZ dfj, A [3x2 = 6]

(i) /kk f/ka f/ka /kk &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&

(ii) &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&& /kh /kh uk (iii) f/ka f/ka &&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&

80

PLANNER FOR THE MONTH OF APRIL 2017 DATE DAY IX-XII

1-4-2017 SATURDAY 2-4-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 3-4-2017 MONDAY NEW SESSION BEGINS FOR ALL CLASSES 4-4-2017 TUESDAY RAM NAVAMI 5-4-2017 WEDNESDAY 6-4-2017 THURSDAY 7-4-2017 FRIDAY 8-4-2017 SATURDAY HOUSE MEET 9-4-2017 SUNDAY MAHAVIR JAYANTI/HOLIDAY

10-4-2017 MONDAY 11-4-2017 TUESDAY 12-4-2017 WEDNESDAY 13-4-2017 THURSDAY

14-4-2017 FRIDAY AMBEDKAR JAYANTI/ GOOD FRIDAY 15-4-2017 SATURDAY ENGLISH JAM 16-4-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 17-4-2017 MONDAY 18-4-2017 TUESDAY WORLD HERITAGE DAY 19-4-2017 WEDNESDAY 20-4-2017 THURSDAY 21-4-2017 FRIDAY 22-4-2017 SATURDAY WORLD EARTH DAY 23-4-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 24-4-2017 MONDAY WATER CONSERVATION DAY 25-4-2017 TUESDAY AD MAD SHOW 26-4-2017 WEDNESDAY 27-4-2017 THURSDAY 28-4-2017 FRIDAY 29-4-2017 SATURDAY GAME SHOW 30-4-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY

Theme: SEASONS

81

PLANNER FOR THE MONTH OF MAY 2017 DATE DAY IX-XII

1-5-2017 MONDAY SARAHANA - FELICITATION CEREMONY 2-5-2017 TUESDAY 3-5-2017 WEDNESDAY 4-5-2017 THURSDAY 5-5-2017 FRIDAY 6-5-2017 SATURDAY IQ Quest 7-5-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 8-5-2017 MONDAY 9-5-2017 TUESDAY

10-5-2017 WEDNESDAY BUDDHA PURNIMA 11-5-2017 THURSDAY 12-5-2017 FRIDAY 13-5-2017 SATURDAY MOMTASTIC DAY (Mother's Day Celebration & PTM) 14-5-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 15-5-2017 MONDAY 16-5-2017 TUESDAY 17-5-2017 WEDNESDAY WORLD TELECOMMUNICATION DAY 18-5-2017 THURSDAY 19-5-2017 FRIDAY 20-5-2017 SATURDAY 21-5-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 22-5-2017 MONDAY 23-5-2017 TUESDAY 24-5-2017 WEDNESDAY 25-5-2017 THURSDAY 26-5-2017 FRIDAY 27-5-2017 SATURDAY 28-5-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 29-5-2017 MONDAY 30-5-2017 TUESDAY 31-5-2017 WEDNESDAY

Theme: ENVIRONMENT SUMMER VACATION FOR CLASSES IX- XII FROM 26.05.2017 TO 25.06.2017

82

PLANNER FOR THE MONTH OF JUNE 2017 DATE DAY IX-XII

1-6-2017 THURSDAY 2-6-2017 FRIDAY 3-6-2017 SATURDAY 4-6-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 5-6-2017 MONDAY WORLD ENVIRONMENT DAY 6-6-2017 TUESDAY

7-6-2017 WEDNESDAY 8-6-2017 THURSDAY 9-6-2017 FRIDAY

10-6-2017 SATURDAY 11-6-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY

12-6-2017 MONDAY 13-6-2017 TUESDAY 14-6-2017 WEDNESDAY 15-6-2017 THURSDAY 16-6-2017 FRIDAY 17-6-2017 SATURDAY 18-6-2017 SUNDAY FATHER'S DAY / HOLIDAY 19-6-2017 MONDAY

20-6-2017 TUESDAY School Reopens after Vacation for classes IX -XII 21-6-2017 WEDNESDAY 22-6-2017 THURSDAY 23-6-2017 FRIDAY 24-6-2017 SATURDAY 25-6-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 26-6-2017 MONDAY ID UL FITR 27-6-2017 TUESDAY 28-6-2017 WEDNESDAY 29-6-2017 THURSDAY 30-6-2017 FRIDAY

Theme: ENVIRONMENT

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PLANNER FOR THE MONTH OF JULY 2017 DATE DAY IX-XII

1-7-2017 SATURDAY DOCTOR'S DAY / ENGLISH DEBATE 2-7-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 3-7-2017 MONDAY 4-7-2017 TUESDAY 5-7-2017 WEDNESDAY 6-7-2017 THURSDAY 7-7-2017 FRIDAY 8-7-2017 SATURDAY 9-7-2017 SUNDAY * BITS & BYTES

10-7-2017 MONDAY HOLIDAY- SAWAN SOMVAR 11-7-2017 TUESDAY 12-7-2017 WEDNESDAY 13-7-2017 THURSDAY 14-7-2017 FRIDAY 15-7-2017 SATURDAY 16-7-2017 SUNDAY * 17-7-2017 MONDAY HOLIDAY- SAWAN SOMVAR 18-7-2017 TUESDAY 19-7-2017 WEDNESDAY 20-7-2017 THURSDAY 21-7-2017 FRIDAY 22-7-2017 SATURDAY 23-7-2017 SUNDAY * TELL TALES 24-7-2017 MONDAY HOLIDAY- SAWAN SOMVAR 25-7-2017 TUESDAY 26-7-2017 WEDNESDAY 27-7-2017 THURSDAY 28-7-2017 FRIDAY 29-7-2017 SATURDAY 30-7-2017 SUNDAY * Spellathon 31-7-2017 MONDAY HOLIDAY- SAWAN SOMVAR

Theme: MUSIC & MYTHOLOGY

PERIODIC TEST I - (CLASSES I - XII) FROM 11.7.2017 TO 22.07.2017 * SUNDAYS FUNCTIONAL WITH THE TIMETABE OF SATURDAY & Saturday functional with the timetable of Monday

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PLANNER FOR THE MONTH OF AUGUST 2017 DATE DAY IX-XII

1-8-2017 TUESDAY 2-8-2017 WEDNESDAY 3-8-2017 THURSDAY 4-8-2017 FRIDAY 5-8-2017 SATURDAY FESTIVAL MANIA 6-8-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY

7-8-2017 MONDAY RAKSHA BANDHAN 8-8-2017 TUESDAY 9-8-2017 WEDNESDAY

10-8-2017 THURSDAY 11-8-2017 FRIDAY 12-8-2017 SATURDAY MOCK PARLIAMENT 13-8-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 14-8-2017 MONDAY 15-8-2017 TUESDAY JANMASHTAMI/INDEPENDENCE DAY 16-8-2017 WEDNESDAY 17-8-2017 THURSDAY 18-8-2017 FRIDAY 19-8-2017 SATURDAY TURN THE COAT 20-8-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 21-8-2017 MONDAY 22-8-2017 TUESDAY 23-8-2017 WEDNESDAY 24-8-2017 THURSDAY 25-8-2017 FRIDAY 26-8-2017 SATURDAY ANCHOR SEARCH 27-8-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 28-8-2017 MONDAY 29-8-2017 TUESDAY 30-8-2017 WEDNESDAY 31-8-2017 THURSDAY

Theme: WOMEN IN HISTORY EVALUATION 1 FOR CLASSES Jr. KG AND Sr. KG FROM 16.08.2017 TO 23.08.2017

85

PLANNER FOR THE MONTH OF SEPTEMBER 2017 DATE DAY IX-XII

1-9-2017 FRIDAY 2-9-2017 SATURDAY BAKRID 3-9-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 4-9-2017 MONDAY 5-9-2017 TUESDAY TEACHERS' DAY CELEBRATION 6-9-2017 WEDNESDAY 7-9-2017 THURSDAY 8-9-2017 FRIDAY 9-9-2017 SATURDAY WORD BATTLE

10-9-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 11-9-2017 MONDAY 12-9-2017 TUESDAY 13-9-2017 WEDNESDAY 14-9-2017 THURSDAY 15-9-2017 FRIDAY 16-9-2017 SATURDAY 17-9-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 18-9-2017 MONDAY 19-9-2017 TUESDAY 20-9-2017 WEDNESDAY 21-9-2017 THURSDAY 22-9-2017 FRIDAY 23-9-2017 SATURDAY 24-9-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 25-9-2017 MONDAY 26-9-2017 TUESDAY 27-9-2017 WEDNESDAY 28-9-2017 THURSDAY DUSSEHRA HOLIDAYS 29-9-2017 FRIDAY DUSSEHRA HOLIDAYS 30-9-2017 SATURDAY DUSSEHRA

Theme: BEAR - BE EXCITED ABOUT READING

DEAR - DROP EVERYTHING AND READ

MID TERM EXAMINATION - 15.09.2017 TO 27.09.2017 (I-XII)

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PLANNER FOR THE MONTH OF OCTOBER 2017 DATE DAY IX-XII

1-10-2017 SUNDAY BLOOD DONATION DAY - HOLIDAY 2-10-2017 MONDAY GANDHI JAYANTI - HOLIDAY 3-10-2017 TUESDAY 4-10-2017 WEDNESDAY 5-10-2017 THURSDAY 6-10-2017 FRIDAY 7-10-2017 SATURDAY ZEE RADIO JOCKEY 8-10-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 9-10-2017 MONDAY

10-10-2017 TUESDAY 11-10-2017 WEDNESDAY 12-10-2017 THURSDAY 13-10-2017 FRIDAY 14-10-2017 SATURDAY GLOBE TROTTING 15-10-2017 SUNDAY WORLD STUDENT'S DAY - SCHOOL FUNCTIONAL 16-10-2017 MONDAY DEEPAVALI HOLIDAYS 17-10-2017 TUESDAY DEEPAVALI HOLIDAYS 18-10-2017 WEDNESDAY DEEPAVALI 19-10-2017 THURSDAY DEEPAVALI HOLIDAYS 20-10-2017 FRIDAY DEEPAVALI HOLIDAYS 21-10-2017 SATURDAY 22-10-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 23-10-2017 MONDAY 24-10-2017 TUESDAY 25-10-2017 WEDNESDAY 26-10-2017 THURSDAY 27-10-2017 FRIDAY 28-10-2017 SATURDAY 29-10-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 30-10-2017 MONDAY 31-10-2017 TUESDAY

Theme: MONUMENTS

87

PLANNER FOR THE MONTH OF NOVEMBER 2017 DATE DAY IX-XII

1-11-2017 WEDNESDAY 2-11-2017 THURSDAY 3-11-2017 FRIDAY 4-11-2017 SATURDAY 5-11-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 6-11-2017 MONDAY 7-11-2017 TUESDAY 8-11-2017 WEDNESDAY 9-11-2017 THURSDAY

10-11-2017 FRIDAY 11-11-2017 SATURDAY

12-11-2017 SUNDAY ABHIVYAKTI 2017 13-11-2017 MONDAY HOLIDAY 14-11-2017 TUESDAY HOLIDAY 15-11-2017 WEDNESDAY 16-11-2017 THURSDAY 17-11-2017 FRIDAY 18-11-2017 SATURDAY SLOGAN QUEST 19-11-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 20-11-2017 MONDAY 21-11-2017 TUESDAY WORLD TELEVISION DAY 22-11-2017 WEDNESDAY 23-11-2017 THURSDAY 24-11-2017 FRIDAY 25-11-2017 SATURDAY MONUMENT QUEST 26-11-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 27-11-2017 MONDAY 28-11-2017 TUESDAY 29-11-2017 WEDNESDAY 30-11-2017 THURSDAY

Theme: BELIEVE IT OR NOT - AMAZING FACTS

88

PLANNER FOR THE MONTH OF DECEMBER 2017 DATE DAY IX-XII

1-12-2017 FRIDAY 2-12-2017 SATURDAY HINDI DEBATE 3-12-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 4-12-2017 MONDAY 5-12-2017 TUESDAY 6-12-2017 WEDNESDAY 7-12-2017 THURSDAY 8-12-2017 FRIDAY 9-12-2017 SATURDAY SPORTS QUIZ

10-12-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 11-12-2017 MONDAY 12-12-2017 TUESDAY 13-12-2017 WEDNESDAY 14-12-2017 THURSDAY 15-12-2017 FRIDAY 16-12-2017 SATURDAY DUMB CHARADES 17-12-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 18-12-2017 MONDAY 19-12-2017 TUESDAY 20-12-2017 WEDNESDAY 21-12-2017 THURSDAY 22-12-2017 FRIDAY 23-12-2017 SATURDAY 24-12-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 25-12-2017 MONDAY CHRISTMAS HOLIDAY 26-12-2017 TUESDAY 27-12-2017 WEDNESDAY 28-12-2017 THURSDAY 29-12-2017 FRIDAY 30-12-2017 SATURDAY 31-12-2017 SUNDAY HOLIDAY

Theme: SPORTS

PERIODIC TEST II - (CLASSES I - XII) FROM 18.12.17 TO 28.12.17

EVALUATION II FOR CLASSES JR. KG & SR. KG FROM 18.12.17 TO 26.12.17

89

PLANNER FOR THE MONTH OF JANUARY 2018 DATE DAY IX-XII

1-1-2018 MONDAY HOLIDAY 2-1-2018 TUESDAY 3-1-2018 WEDNESDAY 4-1-2018 THURSDAY 5-1-2018 FRIDAY 6-1-2018 SATURDAY CROSSWORD MANIA 7-1-2018 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 8-1-2018 MONDAY 9-1-2018 TUESDAY

10-1-2018 WEDNESDAY 11-1-2018 THURSDAY 12-1-2018 FRIDAY 13-1-2018 SATURDAY ANTAKSHARI 14-1-2018 SUNDAY HOLIDAY/MAKAR SANKRANTI 15-1-2018 MONDAY BASANT PANCHAMI /HOLIDAY 16-1-2018 TUESDAY SUBHASH CHANDRA BOSE JAYANTI 17-1-2018 WEDNESDAY 18-1-2018 THURSDAY 19-1-2018 FRIDAY 20-1-2018 SATURDAY MASTER CHEF 21-1-2018 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 22-1-2018 MONDAY 23-1-2018 TUESDAY 24-1-2018 WEDNESDAY 25-1-2018 THURSDAY 26-1-2018 FRIDAY REPUBLIC DAY 27-1-2018 SATURDAY MOVIE-QUIBBLO 28-1-2018 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 29-1-2018 MONDAY 30-1-2018 TUESDAY 31-1-2018 WEDNESDAY

Theme: CINEMASCOPE

90

PLANNER FOR THE MONTH OF FEBRUARY 2018 DATE DAY IX-XII

1-2-2018 THURSDAY 2-2-2018 FRIDAY 3-2-2018 SATURDAY SOLO SONG COMPETITION 4-2-2018 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 5-2-2018 MONDAY 6-2-2018 TUESDAY 7-2-2018 WEDNESDAY 8-2-2018 THURSDAY 9-2-2018 FRIDAY

10-2-2018 SATURDAY 11-2-2018 SUNDAY HOLIDAY

12-2-2018 MONDAY 13-2-2018 TUESDAY MAHA SHIV RATRI 14-2-2018 WEDNESDAY 15-2-2018 THURSDAY 16-2-2018 FRIDAY 17-2-2018 SATURDAY 18-2-2018 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 19-2-2018 MONDAY 20-2-2018 TUESDAY 21-2-2018 WEDNESDAY 22-2-2018 THURSDAY 23-2-2018 FRIDAY PREP LEAVE 24-2-2018 SATURDAY PREP LEAVE 25-2-2018 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 26-2-2018 MONDAY 27-2-2018 TUESDAY 28-2-2018 WEDNESDAY

Theme: FOOD & INTERNATIONAL CUISINES FINAL TERM EXAMINATION (CLASSES I-VIII) FROM 26.2.18 TO 10.3.18 EVALUATION III FOR CLASSES JR. KG AND SR. KG FROM 26.2.18 TO 10.3.18

91

PLANNER FOR THE MONTH OF MARCH 2018 DATE DAY IX-XII

1-3-2018 THURSDAY HOLI HOLIDAYS 2-3-2018 FRIDAY HOLI HOLIDAYS 3-3-2018 SATURDAY HOLI HOLIDAYS 4-3-2018 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 5-3-2018 MONDAY 6-3-2018 TUESDAY 7-3-2018 WEDNESDAY 8-3-2018 THURSDAY 9-3-2018 FRIDAY

10-3-2018 SATURDAY 11-3-2018 SUNDAY HOLIDAY

12-3-2018 MONDAY 13-3-2018 TUESDAY 14-3-2018 WEDNESDAY 15-3-2018 THURSDAY 16-3-2018 FRIDAY 17-3-2018 SATURDAY 18-3-2018 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 19-3-2018 MONDAY 20-3-2018 TUESDAY 21-3-2018 WEDNESDAY 22-3-2018 THURSDAY 23-3-2018 FRIDAY 24-3-2018 SATURDAY 25-3-2018 SUNDAY HOLIDAY 26-3-2018 MONDAY 27-3-2018 TUESDAY 28-3-2018 WEDNESDAY 29-3-2018 THURSDAY 30-3-2018 FRIDAY 31-3-2018 SATURDAY

Theme: FOOD & INTERNATIONAL CUISINES RESULT DECLARATION : JR. KG TO IV - 22.3.18 RESULT DECLARATION : V TO VIII - 24.3.18

NEW SESSION 2018-19 BEGINS ON 2.4.18

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