THEME 1. Anesthesia in dental medicine

1. *The oro-maxillofacial territory is delimited:

A. Laterally: a plane passing through the anterior border of the

sternocleidomastoid muscle, the posterior border of the

mastoid apophysis, goes around the pavilion of the ear and

then passes vertically through the tragus, uniting with the

upper plane

B. Upward: a horizontal plane passing through the inferior

orbital edges

C. Downward: a horizontal plane passing through the basilar

edge of the mandible

D. Laterally: a plane passing through the anterior border of the

sternocleidomastoid muscle, the anterior border of the

mastoid apophysis, goes around the pavilion of the ear and

then passes vertically through the tragus, uniting with the

upper plane

E. Laterally: a plane passing through the anterior border of the

sternocleidomastoid muscle, the anterior border of the

pterygoid apophysis, goes around the pavilion of the ear and

then passes vertically through the tragus, uniting with the

upper plane

D slide 3

systematizati

on course

2. The maxillary nerve:

A. Is a mixed nerve, composed of both sensory and motor fibers

B. Has only one collateral branch

C. Has a sensory, voluminous root and a motor antero-lateral

root

D. Detaches from the posterior edge of the gasserian ganglion

E. Is an exclusively sensory nerve

CE slide 3

techniques

course

3. *The following is not a part of the lateral superficial regions:

A. Zygomatic

B. Masseteric

C. Infraorbital

D. Parotid

E. Labial

E slide 6

systematizati

on course

4. *The sensory innervation of the lower gingival mucosa between the

second premolar and the wisdom tooth is ensured by the:

A. Temporofacial branches

B. the auriculotemporal nerve

C. the buccal nerve, terminal branch of the mandibular nerve

D. The mylohyoid nerve

E. The buccal nerve, collateral branch of the mandibular nerve

C slide 5.

techniques

course

5. The "triple physiological infirmity" is characterized by:

A. Reduced reserves

B. High metabolic needs

C. Imperfect regulatory mechanisms

D. Viscerocranial anatomical variability

E. Psychological and emotional reactivity

ABC slide 28

patient

specificity

course

6. In the elderly patient's physiological history, the respiratory system

presents a number of changes:

A. Atrophy of the pulmonary parenchyma

B. Proliferation of the connective tissue determining pulmonary

sclero-emphysema

C. Decreased ventilatory capacity

D. Increased diaphragmatic breathing

ABCD slide 33

patient

specificity

course

E. Decreased stiffness in the rib cage

7. *In patients with myocardial infarction, the following measures are

taken into account, except for:

A. The cardiologist’s approval before performing dental or

surgical procedures

B. Mandatory sedative premedication half an hour before

starting the treatment

C. Dental treatment is contraindicated if it occurs within a

period of 6 months

D. Local anesthesia by injection without topical anaesthesia

E. e) Coronary-dilating medication will not be interrupted

D slide 50

patient

specificity

course

8. Arterial pressure is affected by:

a) Cardiac capacity

b) Pulse

c) Volume

d) Blood viscosity

e) Vascular elasticity

A, C,D,E slide 51

patient

specificity

course

THEME 2. Dental Extraction (pag. 39-41, 42-54, 54-58, 58-61, 61-64, 64-66, 71,72)

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1* Identify the false statement regarding the dry socket:

A. the dry socket is a rare complication of the tooth extraction

B. the dry socket has a more spectacular symptomatology but

fortunately responds quickly to treatment

C. the post extraction socket has an altered aspect

D the intraalveolar clot is absent or grey and fetide

E. the alveolar walls are infiltrated and soft

B 72

2* The tooth extraction do not have the following general contraindications,

with one exception:

A. cardiovascular diseases, hemorragiparous syndrome, diabetes

mellitus, acute leukemia, anticoagulant therapies, drug or local

anesthetic allergy, acute dental infections, seizure disorders,

cerebrovascular accidents, hepatic dysfunctions, nephropathy

B. hemorragiparous syndrome, diabetes mellitus, anticoagulant

therapies, hepatic dysfunctions, chemotherapy radiotherapy, severe

rhinogenic sinusitis, cardiovascular disease, kidney disease, AIDS

infection, immunosuppressive drugs

C. hepatic dysfunctions, hepatic dysfunctions, AIDS infection,

immunosuppressive drugs, chemotherapy radiotherapy, cardiovascular

disease, hemorragiparous syndrome diabetes mellitus, acute leukemia,

anticoagulant therapies

D. stomatitis, herpes, acute apical periodontitis, acute sinusitis, acute

pericoronitis, abscesses, suppuration

E. bisphosphonate treatment

C 41

3* The tooth extraction:

A. is a planned intervention

B. is an emergency

C. is a planned emergency intervention

D. is an emergency intervention, and therefore the complete complex

patient evaluation is necessary

E. is a non-surgical procedure

A 42

4* The Pre-extraction preparations involves the following aspects: B 42

A. preparation of the surgeon: hand washing, use of surgical gloves

(optional) and adequate surgeon clothing

B. preparation of the patient: informed and free consent of the patient:

the necessity to fill in a form regarding previous pathological disorders

and to be informed regarding risks of medical intervention, potential

extraction incidents and complications

C. The evaluation of blood pressure and pulse is only required for

patients with cardiovascular diseases

D. the presence of other general diseases requires (optional) a complete

interdisciplinary consultation

E. preparation of the instruments for dental consultation, anesthesia and

extraction as well as various accessory as instruments, has to be carried

out after proper general and systemic evaluation

5 The following are not indications for tooth extraction:

A. all teeth with coronary destruction

B. teeth which may cause, produce or maintain local infectious

complications, regional or general

C. irretrievable remaining roots

D. pulp gangrene and its associated complications

E. chronic superficial marginal periodontitis

A,E 39

6 The following are indications for tooth extraction:

A. teeth which may cause or may produce or maintain local infectious

complications, regional or general: chronic apical periodontitis, abscess

etc

B. teeth related to epulis, chronic ulceration

C. teeth on the bones with fractures

D. luxated teeth or crown fractures not enabling orthopedic restoration

E. teeth impeding prosthetic treatment

A,B,D,E 39

7 The following are indications for tooth extraction of temporary teeth:

A. teeth affected by physiological rhizalysis within or after the period of

their normal replacement

B. teeth undergoing complications due to pulp gangrene

C. teeth related to traumatic injuries

D. the orthodontist’s advice

E. teeth with coronary injuries

A,B,C,D 40

8 The tooth extraction does not have the following local

contraindications:

A. chronic dental infections

B. chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases

C. stomatitis

D. bisphosphonate treatment

E. pregnancy

A,B,D,E 41

THEME 3.

Chapter 4. Disorders of Permanent Tooth Eruption (pag. 107-108, 108-114, 114-124)

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1* The associated disorders of the tooth eruption are:

A. the neurological and trophic disorders

B. the dental transposition

C. the dental ectopy

D. the dental inclusion

E. the precocious eruption

A 107-108

2* The dental impaction represents:

A. the mucus retention of a completely mature tooth after its eruption

period with no tendency to erupt, usually due to a certain obstacle.

B. the submucus retention of a partially mature tooth before its eruption

period, with a tendency to erupt

C. intra-bone or submucus retention of a completely mature tooth after

its eruption period, with no tendency to erupt, usually due to a certain

obstacle.

D. the presence of a tooth that has ceased to erupt above the fibro-

mucosa

E. the absence of the tooth that has ceased to erupt under the fibro-

mucosa

C 108

3* The most common diagnosis in dental impaction is established by

radiologic examination, concerning the:

A. impacted tooth position

B. temporal position

C. the vitality of the tooth

D. the septic complications

E. the neurological disorders

A 108

4* By the therapeutically conduct in dental impaction consists of the tooth

removal by:

A. the simple extraction of the tooth

B. the odontectomy method or its bringing on the dental arch through

surgical-orthodontic recovery( mandibular molars)

C. the odontectomy method or its bringing on the dental arch through

surgical orthodontic recovery (maxillary canine)

D. the patient is recommended to do the extraction immediately

E. the odontectomy method or its bringing on the dental arch only

through orthodontic recovery(maxillary molar)

C 114

5 Which are the chronological disorders of the permanent tooth eruption:

A. the trophic disorders

B. the precocious eruption

C. the neurological disorders

D. the delayed eruption

E. the septic complications

B,D 107

6 The topographic disorders of the permanent tooth eruption are:

A. the precocious eruption

B. the heterotopias

C. the dental inclusion

D. the dental transposition

E. the dental ectopy

B,D,E 107

7 The considered criteria to determine the surgical steps and the difficulty

degree of the mandibular third molar odontectomy are connected to:

A. the relation with the mandibular and occlusal plane

B. the relation with the premolar 2 and the mandibular canal

C. the tooth morphology

D. the dimension of the pericoronary (follicular) sack

E. the nature of the overlying tissue

A,C,D,E 114

8 The treatment options that can be considered for impacted teeth are:

A. the observation

B. the dental extraction

C. the guided eruption

D. the modification of dentition only with orthodontic treatment for

impacted molars

E. the modification of dentition only with the orthodontic treatment

A,B,C,E 124

Theme 4.

Chapter 3. Endodontic Surgery (pag.77-99, 99-101, 101-104)

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1* Endodontic surgery techniques aim to:

A. remove the pathological periodontal tissue

B. remove the pathological periapical tissues

C. remove the tooth

D. remove the excess gingival margin

E. none of the above

B 77

2* Transmaxillary drainage (maxillary osteotomy) is indicated:

A. when the obturation of the tooth cannot be removed.

B. when the obturation of the tooth is incomplete

C. when the tooth is over filled

D. in cases of apical periodontitis stages 3 and 4

E. all of the above

A 99

3* The sequence of all phases of an apical resection is:

A. incision, reflection of the flap, endodontic obturation

B. incision, endodontic obturation, reflection of the flap and suture

C. incision, reflection of the flap, bone trepanation, suture

D. incision, bone trepanation, endodontic obturation , suture

E. none of the above

E 79

4* The main techniques in endodontic surgery refer to:

A. dental implants

B. radicular amputation

C. periodontal curettage

D. gingival resection

E. all of the above

B 77

5 The main techniques in endodontic surgery refer to:

A. apical resection

B. periodontal curettage

C. periapical curettage

D. transmaxilary drainage

E. all of the above

A,C,D 77

6 The main techniques in endodontic surgery refer to:

A. radicular amputation/ hemisection

B. transmaxillary drainage

C. dental extraction

D. apical resection

E. periapical curettage

A,B,D,E 77

7 Apical resection represents:

A. exposal of the tooth

B. exposal of all root

C. disposal of the dental apex

D. radicular resection

E. tightening of the root canal (root canal filling)

C,E 77

8 The purpose of the apical resection is:

A. removal of periapical inflammation

B. removal of mouth inflammation and infection

C. cessation of bacterial dispersal from the root canal

D. root canal filling as appropriately as possible

E. composite crown filling

A,C,D 77

THEME 5

Chapter 5. Surgical Preprosthetic Procedures (pag. 127-136, 136-139)

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1* The preprosthetic surgery consists of the

A. surgical interventions aimed at creating the necessary conditions for

the stability of the total denture

B. surgical interventions treating the periapical osteitis

C. enucleating the folicule of the tooth

D. preparing for prosthetic surgery

E. first part of the prosthetic surgery

A 127

2* The bone preprosthetic surgery is indicated in cases such as:

A. irregular alveolar crest

B.gingival fibromatosis at the level of maxillary tuberosity

C. apparent hypertrophy of the gingival mucosa

D. short or voluminous labial frenulum;

E. iinflammatory fibrous hyperplasia or irritant fibroma due to the micro

traumas

A 127

3* In the molding resection of the hypertrophic genial tubercle

A. the surgical intervention begins with the horizontal incision under the

mucogingival line, on both sides of the median line

B. the flap is not scraped lingually and the tendons of the genioglossus

muscles are not exposed

C. superior genial tubercle are not resected with the acrylic bur but with

the rongeur

D. the tendons are not sutured to the tendons of the geniohioid muscles

E.the surgery begins with a vertical incision under the hypertrophic

genial tubercle

A 136

4* The molding resection of the anterior nasal spine

A. start by the horizontal incision along the anterior nasal spine or the

vertical one on top of the alveolar crest

B. it belongs to preprosthetic soft tissues surgery

C. the osseous resection of the alveolar crest it is done with the rotating

tool or with the rongeur.

D. is frequently associated with vestibuloplasty

E. it is also named Celesnik plasty

D 137

5 The soft tissue preprosthetic surgery is indicated in the next

circumstances:

A. prominent palatal tori

B. gingival fibromatosis at the level of maxillary tuberosity

C. hypertrophy of the gingival mucosa

D. short or voluminous labial frenulum

E. parodontitis marginalis

B,C,D 127

6 The upper or lower lip frenum

A. is formed by the fibrous tissue

B. is covered with mucosa

C. with ulceration represent an indication for preprosthetic surgery

D. is inserted at the level of the lip and alveolar periosteum

E. pathologically, can go down to the level of torus

A,B,D 127

7 Conjunctival epithelial hyperplasia

A. is a pseudo-tumoral or inflammatory formation

B. produced by the chronic irritation from an incorrect adapted denture

at the level of the buccal area

A,B,D,E 130

C. it is only upper jaw located

D. it is named also denture hyperplasia

E. need one of the preprosthetic surgery methods

8 Gingival hyperplasia

A. consists of a slow, progressive inflammatory volume increase of the

gum

B. has an infectious etiology – mechanical, hormonal or medicamentary

either located in a certain tooth or in a whole group of teeth or

generalized

C. it is excised at the same time with the extraction of the highly mobile

teeth and is followed by its suture

D. represents the increase of the conjuctival tissue of the alveolar crest

mucosa

E. mostly situated in the maxillary molar area

A,B,C 132

Theme 6. Oro-maxillo-facial infections

1. Which of the following are anatomical favoring factors for infections of dental origin?

a) The thickness and structure of the bone with respect to teeth

b) The morphology of the dental crown

c) The structure of the enamel

d) Leucopenia

e) The age of the patient

A

2. The determining factors for infections of dental origin are:

a) The microbial flora of the oral cavity and the flora brought by alimentation and respiration

b) The thickness and structure of the bone with respect to teeth

c) The disposition of the soft tissues, content of anatomical spaces, adipose, conjunctive and

lymphatic tissues

d) Insertion of the mobile mucosa related to the dental apices

e) The morphology of the dental crown

A

3. The following factors favor the onset of infections with dental origin:

a) Flora of the oral cavity

b) Dental-periodontal lesions (gangrene, acute apical periodontitis)

c) The flora brought by alimentation and respiration

d) Aerobes

e) Anaerobes

B

4. Which of the following does not represend a spreading route for dental infections?

a) Transosseous route

b) Submucosal route

c) Lymphatic and venous route

d) Direct route (septic puncture)

e) Air route

E

5. The following are not infections of fascial spaces:

a) The vestibular abscess, the migratory abscess

b) Infection of the maseterin space and the submandibular space

c) Infection of the parotid space, the palatal abscess

d) the semilunar abscess

e) The palatal abscess

A, C, D, E

6. The surgical treatment of maxillofacial infections does not include:

a) Incision and drainage of the collection and removal of the etiologic factor

b) Endodontic drainage

c) Only the extraction of the causal tooth

d) Hydration, nutrition

e) AINS, sedatives

B, C, D, E

7. What is the correct prescription of antibiotics in maxillofacial infections?

a) Effective doses and intervals

b) effective doses in unequal intervals at least 14 days

c) given at least 7 days

d) alleator spectrum, unequal intervals, 7 days

e) they are given at least 30 days

A, C

8. The periapical stage of the acute periapical periodontitis is not characterized by:

a) mobile tooth

b) swelling, fluctuation, excruciating pain

c) vestibular abscess

d) spontaneous pain or pain with the percussion in the axis of the tooth

e) pain with lateral percussion of the tooth

A, B, C, E

Theme 7.

Maxillary sinus diseases with dental origins

1. The following symptoms are found in the case of an old oro-antral fistula, except for:

a) Symptoms of chronic maxillary sinusitis

b) Abundant bleeding from the alveolus

c) Fistulous opening in the maxillary alveolar ridge

d) Positive valsalva manoeuvre

e) Phonetic disturbances

B

2. The treatment of a large (>7mm) immediate postprocedural oro-antral fistula is represented by:

a) Direct suture of the alveolus mucosa

b) Closure of the fistula in one or two layers

c) Application of a gauze on top of the alveolus maintained by use of an ”8 ligature”

d) No surgical treatment is needed

e) Application of an acrylic guard

B

3. Chronic maxillary sinusitis of dental origin is characterised by the following statement:

a) Intense pain in the region of the maxillary sinus

b) Intense pain in the region of the maxillary sinus especially in the morning

c) Moderate pain in the region of the maxillary sinus especially in the morning

d) Moderate pain in the region of the maxillary sinus especially in the evening

e) Moderate pain in the region of the maxillary sinus especially in spring

C

4. Major clinical signs of acute maxillary sinusitis of dental origin are the following except for:

a) Purulent rhinorrhea

b) Fever

c) Nasal obstruction

d) Unilateral sinus pain

e) Dental pain

E

5. The following maxillary teeth are in close relation with the maxillary sinus:

a) First molar

b) First premolar

c) Second premolar

d) Lateral incisor

e) Third molar

A, B, C, E

6. The following statements are true regarding the maxillary sinus:

a) It is present in the new-born

b) It opens in the inferior meatus

c) Its development is complete at the age of 25

d) Its development is complete at the age of 7

e) It opens in the middle meatus

A, C, E

7. The contributing factors of the maxillary sinusitis are:

a) Decrease of mucus secretion

b) Local and general factors

c) Chronic inflammation of the sinus mucosa

d) Vitamin therapy

e) Immunosuppression

B, C, E

8. The determinant factors of maxillary sinusitis of dental origin can be:

a) Oro-nasal fistula

b) Serous pulpitis

c) Periapical osteitis

d) Infected radicular cysts

e) Chronic periodontal disease

A, C, D

Theme 8. Oro-maxillo-facial traumatology

1. The zones of increased resistance of the mandible are:

a) The mandibular symphysis and the basilar border

b) The mandibular symphysis and the mandibular angle

c) Mental foramen

d) Maximal curvature in the region of the canine

e) The coronoid

A

2. The zones of decreased resistance of the mandible are:

a) The mandibular symphysis

b) The basilar border

c) Mental foramen and the mandibular angle

d) External oblique line

e) The coronoid and the basilar border

C

3. Choose the other predisposing factors of mandibular fractures:

a) Increased number of road accidents

b) Malocclusion

c) The dental germs in children an presence of impacted teeth

d) Prominent chin

e) The lifestyle of the patient

C

4. An indirect fracture of the mandible implies:

a) Fracture at the level of the impact point

b) Opening or closure of the mandible arc

c) A single fracture site

d) Fracture at a different level from the impact point

e) Comminuted fracture

D

5. The following statements are not true regarding ecchymosis:

a) Accumulation of extravagated blood following the breakdown of deeper or larger blood vessels

b) The result of the extravasation of blood in the intercellular space due to the rupture of blood

vessels

c) Superficial abrasions, interrupting the continuity tissues, scratch, abrasion

d) Lymphatic serous effusion, viscous, yellow, due to the action of a violent agent tangentially

e) Muscular concussion

A, C, D, E

6. The following statements regarding the excoriation are false:

a) It represents an open wound

b) Superficial abrasion

c) Interruption of tissue continuity, abrasion

d) Deep wound, Interruption of tissue continuity, abrasion

e) Accumulation of extravagated blood following the breakdown of deeper or larger blood vessels

A, D, E

7. The surgical measures of mandibular fracture treatment do not include the following:

a) Osteosynthesis by use of miniplates, metallic ligatures or mouthguard

b) Maxillary-mandibular fixation

c) Osteosynthesis by performing maxillary-mandibular fixation

d) Endodontic treatment

e) Orthodontic treatment

B, C, D, E

8. The following affirmations do not represent the final treatment of mandibular fractures:

a) Antibiotic therapy

b) Corticoid therapy

c) The reduction and fixation in anatomic positioning

d) It is always surgical

e) It is always orthopedic

A, B, D, E

Theme 9. Cysts and benign tumors of the oral, cervical and facial soft tissues

1. The following statement is not true concerning teratoma:

a) It is compound of tissues distant from the place of development

b) It originates in all the germinative layers

c) In the head and neck it is frequently located in the floor of the mouth

d) It is frequently encountered as an ovarian tumour, usually benign

e) It is formed by the increasing volume of the cells of the local tissue

E

2. The definition of a cyst is:

a) A pathological cavity, delineated by an epithelial membrane, with liquid or semisolid content

b) A pathological cavity that is not delineated by an epithelial membrane, with liquid or solid

content

c) A cavity with solid content

d) A physiological cavity without a membrane and liquid or semisolid content

e) A iatrogenic cavity delineated by a synthetic membrane with liquid or semisolid content

A

3. Salivary cysts are represented by:

a) Dermoid cyst

b) Keratocyst

c) Ranula

d) Sebaceous cyst

e) Branchial cyst

C

4. Cysts originating in the epidermal structures are represented by:

a) Dermoid cyst

b) Keratocyst

c) Branchial cyst

d) Sebaceous cyst

e) Keratocyst

D

5. Epulis fissuratum:

a) In elderly patients wearing removable dentures

b) Cauliflower appearance

c) Usually located in the vestibular maxillary fold

d) Fibrous appearance, ferm consistency

e) Located on the hard palate it is also called fibro-epithelial polyp

A, C, D, E

6. The differential diagnosis of the sublingual ranula is made with:

a) Sebaceous cyst

b) Teratoid cyst

c) Tumours of the sublingual glands

d) Keratocyst

e) Dermoid cyst

B, C, E

7. The sialocyst:

a) They are never encountered in major salivary glands

b) It is formed due to the dilatation of the salivary duct due to obstruction and saliva accumulation

c) It is formed due to the perforation of the salivary duct and saliva accumulation

d) It can follow the chronic evolution of a mucocele

e) It forms a submucous nodule

B, D, E

8. The mucocele:

a) It is associated with repeated trauma of the lip

b) It is formed due to the dilatation of the salivary duct due to obstruction and saliva accumulation

c) It is formed due to the perforation of the salivary duct and saliva accumulation

d) It usually breaks and spontaneously heals

e) It forms due to the chronic evolution of a sialocyst

A, C

Theme 10.

Cysts, benign tumours and osteopathies of maxillary bones

1. The following entity represents an odontogenous developmental cyst:

a) Nasopalatine cyst

b) Nasolabial cyst

c) Radicular cyst

d) Follicular cyst

e) Residual cyst

D

2. One of the following is an inflammatory cyst:

a) Keratocyst

b) Periapical cyst

c) Dentigerous cyst

d) Nasopalatine cyst

e) Aneurysmal cyst

B

3. The Malessez remnants result from:

a) Disintegration of the enamel organ

b) Desintegration of the dental lamina

c) Disintegration of the Hertwig radicular sheath

d) Formation of the Hertwig radicular sheath

e) Formation of the enamel organ

C

4. The nasopalatine cyst is:

a) An odontogenous developmental cyst

b) A non-odontogenous developmental cyst

c) An inflammatory cyst

d) A pseudocyst

e) An odontogenous pseudocyst

B

5. The differential diagnosis of the palatal torus includes:

a) The vestibular abscess

b) The palatal abscess

c) The radicular cyst

d) The adenoid cystic carcinoma of small palatal salivary glands

e) Epulis fissuratum

B, D

6. The following statements are true concerning the mandibular torus:

a) Located on the lingual side of the mandibular body

b) Present in young adults

c) Associated with bruxism

d) Present only in elderly patiens

e) Located on the vestibular side of the mandibular body

A, B

7. The palatal torus:

a) Is located on the midline of the hard palate

b) Osseous consistency

c) Ulcerated overlying mucosa

d) Normal overlying mucosa

e) Fluctuant

A, B, D

8. The following statements are true regarding the brown tumour

a) The treatment is represented by radical surgical removal

b) It is associated with primary or secondary hyperparathyroidism

c) It is pathologically identical with the giant cell central tumour

d) It is associated with primary or secondary hyperthyroidism

e) The treatment is represented by radical surgery and radiotherapy

B, C

Theme 11. Oro-maxillo-facial malign tumors

1. Which ones of the following are considered potentially malignant lesions of the oral mucosa?

a) Erithroplasia

b) Oral papilloma

c) Oral candidosis

d) Glossitis

e) Gingival fibromatosis

A

2. Malignant melanoma:

a) Malignant tumour derived from basal cells

b) Malignant tumour derived from melanocytes

c) It is not locally aggressive

d) It never develops on pre-existing pigmentary lesions

e) Does not have potential for lymphatic spread

B

3. cTNM refers to:

a) Pathologic exam from the biopsy specimen

b) Final pathologic exam of the surgical specimen

c) Staging of a relapsed tumour

d) Staging of an occult tumour

e) Clinical staging after careful clinical examination

E

4. pTNM is determined by the:

a) Careful clinical evaluation of the patient

b) Imagistic studies in dynamic

c) Pathologic exam from the biopsy specimen

d) Final pathologic exam of the surgical specimen

e) Staging of a relapsed tumour

D

5. The following statements refer to the cancer of the midface:

a) Cancer of the mesostructured involves the ethmoido-orbito-maxilo-malar complex

b) Cancer of the superstructure involves the ethmoido-orbito-maxilo-malar complex

c) Cancer of the mesostructure involves the rhinosinusal cancer

d) Cancer of the infrastructure is represented by gingiva-alveolar cancer

e) Cancer of the infrastructure is represented by the rhinosinusal cancer

B, C, D

6. The intraosseous debut of the mandibular cancer Is associated with the following signs:

a) Neuralgiform pain

b) Otalgia

c) Dentalgia

d) Hypoesthesia

e) Dental mobility

A, C, D, E

7. The orbital floor syndrome in the cancer of the superstructure is represented by:

a) Infraorbital anaesthesia

b) Inferior palpebral oedema

c) Epistaxis

d) Diplopia

e) Exophtalmos

A, B, D, E

8. The etiologic factors of mesostructured cancer include the following:

a) Septal deviation

b) Environmental factors- professional exposure

c) Smoking

d) Chronic sinusitis

e) Nasal polyp

B, C, D, E

Theme 12. The pathology of temporo-mandibular joint

1. The clinical symptoms in case of TMJ pathology are:

a. Pain syndrome

b. Join sounds

c. Jump sensation

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

D

2. The clinical symptoms in case of TMJ pathology are:

a. Pain syndrome

b. Join sounds

c. Jump sensation

d. Mobility disorders of the mandible

e. None of the above

ABCD

3. The clinical symptoms in case of TMJ pathology are not:

a. Pain syndrome

b. Swelling of the temporal region

c. Jump sensation

d. The TMJ radiography shows a notch and a gap on the condyle

e. None of the above

BD

4. The joint sounds are the following except:

a. Pops

b. Crunches

c. Cracks

d. Squeaks

e. Grinding sounds

C

5. The joint sounds are the following except:

a. Melodic sounds

b. Crunches

c. Cracks

d. Squeaks

e. Grinding sounds

AC

6. The joint sounds are the following:

a. Melodic sounds

b. Crunches

c. Cracks

d. Squeaks

e. Grinding sounds

BDE

7. The otologic signs in case of TMJ disorders are:

a. Otoragy

b. Hearing loss

c. Tinnitus

d. Vertigo

e. All of the above

E

8. The otologic signs in case of TMJ disorders are:

a. Otoragy

b. Hearing loss

c. Tinnitus

d. Vertigo

e. Swelling of the ear lobe

BC

Theme 13. The pathology of salivary glands

1. Sialomegalies represent:

a) The decrease in volume of the salivary gland

b) Increased salivary flow

c) The increase in volume of the salivary glands

d) Decreased salivary flow

e) Facial nerve paralysis

C

2. The preventive treatment of acute bacterial parotitis consists of

a) Removal of the parotid gland

b) Rehydration to ensure a good salivary flow

c) Antibiotics

d) Pain killers

e) Ligature of the Stenon’s duct

B

3. The etiology of recurrent bacterial parotitis of the child is represented almost always by:

a) HPV

b) Gram negative germs

c) Gram positive germs

d) Herpes virus

e) HIV

C

4. In acute bacterial parotitis the origin of the infection of the salivary tissue and cannals can be:

a) Descendent

b) Bacterial lymphatic spread

c) Ascendent

d) Of extraorally origin

e) None of the above

C

5. The clinical signs of acute bacterial parotiditis is:

a) The opening of Stenon’s duct is congestive and turgescent with muco-purulent salivary fluid

b) Fever associated to pain in the parotid region and otalgia

c) Increased flow of clear saliva

d) Swelling of the parotid region with congestive overlying skin

e) Seldom, facial nerve paralisis

A, B, D, E

6. The characteristic of mumps are:

a) Appears particularly in children

b) More frequent in the elderly

c) Initially unilateral, then bilateral

d) The saliva remains clear

e) More frequent in boys

A, C, D, E

7. Sjogren’s syndrome is characterised by:

a) Hair dryness

b) Nasal dryness

c) Palm dryness

d) Ocular dryness

e) Oral dryness

B, D, E

8. The contributing factors of acute bacterial parotitis are:

a) Hyposialia

b) The valves salivary dysfunction

c) The failure of the salivary enzymes

d) Local or general

e) Hypersialia

A, C, D

Theme 14.

The surgical treatment of severe dento-maxillary anomalies

1. The following are Indications for orthognathic surgery with one

exception:

a. Severe abnormalities

b. Exceeded duration of orthodontic treatment

c. Surgery filling orthodontics

d. Failed orthodontics

e. Short duration of orthodontic treatment

e

2. Among the Goals of orthognathic surgery we find the following with

one exception:

a. Balancing the dental arches

b. The optimization of functions

c. Getting a facial harmony

d. Balancing the occlusion

e. Making space for dental implants

e

3. The pre-operative clinical exam includes:

a. Cephalometric analysis, Gypsum models, Moldings analysis

b. Blood test;

c. Pulmonary Radiography;

d. CBCT

e. CTx

a

4. During the extra-oral examination the surgeon takes a careful attention

to:

a. Face, chin, nose, dental arches;

b. Chin, nose, upper and lower lip;

c. Upper lip, nose, face, occlusion;

d. Lower lip, face, chin, teeth

e. Face, chin, nose, occlusion

b

5. During the extra-oral examination the surgeon takes a careful attention

to:

a. nose

b. chin,

c. Upper lip

d. Lower lip

e. occlusion

abcd

6. The pre-operative clinical exam includes:

a. Cephalometric analysis

b. Gypsum models

c. Moldings analysis

d. CBCT

e. CTx

abc

7. The cephalometric analysis consist in the following:

a. maxillary and skull

b. mandible and skull

c. mandible and nose

d. maxillary and mandibular teeth

e. prominence of the chin to the base of mandibular dental arch

abde

8. The surgical phase of the orthognatic treatment involves the following

with the exceptions:

a. Simulation

b. Manufacturing of surgical splints

c. Blood testing

d. Pulmonary Rx

e. Clinical evaluation and imagistic result documentation

cd

Theme 15. Clefts

1. The embryologic stage of the primary palate formation reveals the following with one exception:

a. Fusion of the mandibular process of default with the milohiod line;

b. Fusion of the maxillary process occurs between the 5th and 7th embryonic week (for the

primary palate)

c. The nasal-labial region is forming in front of the incisive foramen

d. maxillary process fusion with the internal nasal process

e. the peripheral part of the palate is forming in front of the incisive foramen

A

2. From embryologic point of view the formation of the second palate involves the following with one

exception:

a. maxillary process fusion with the internal nasal process

b. the second palate formation occurs Between the 7th and 12th week

c. the fusion of the second palate occurs between a median sagittal partition and two horizontal

partitions;

d. sagittal partition and two horizontal partitions meet in the midline;

e. the fusion of the second palate take place at the incisive papilla, back and forth until the uvula

A

3. Cleft lip with or without palate:

a. Average birth prevalence 1: 700

b. More common in females

c. More common unilateral

d. right side > left side

e. association with other anomalies 20%

A

4. Among the etiology of oral clef we find the following with just one exception:

a. environmental

b. genetic factors

c. a family history of cleft lip and palate in 40% of cleft of the primary palate

d. a family history and of the cleft in 20% of the secondary palate

e. Alcohol

E

5. The primary palate :

a. Fusion of the maxillary process of default with the internal nasal process

b. Between the 1st and 3rdth embryonic week (for the primary palate)

c. Between the 5th and 7th embryonic week (for the primary palate)

d. Fusion of the maxillary process of default with the external nasal process

e. The nasal-labial region and the peripheral part of the palace situated in front of the incisive

foramen

ACE

6. The ethiologic factors for CLP are:

a. A family history of cleft lip and palate in 40% of cleft of the primary palate and in 20% of the

cleft of the secondary palate

b. A personal history of cleft lip and palate in 40% of cleft of the primary palate and in 20% of

the cleft of the secondary palate

c. Phenytoin, tobacco

d. Some food aditives

e. Marijuana

AC

7. The pathologies associated with CLP are :

a. Frey syndrome

b. Trisomy 18

c. Trisomy 13

d. Down syndrome

e. Treacher Collins syndrome

BCE

8. The pathologies associated with CLP are not :

a. Frey syndrome

b. Trisomy 18

c. Trisomy 13

d. Down syndrome

e. Treacher Collins syndrome

AD

Theme 16. ORO-FACIAL PAIN

1. Among the etiology of oro-facial pain we identify the following with one exception:

a. Peripheral / central

b. Inflammation / irritation +/-

c. Demyelination +/-

d. Vascular or nerve compression +/-

e. Vasodilatation

e

2. Classification of the orofacial pain: a. Acute stage, inflammatory stage, Chronic stage(pain lasting for more than5 months)

b. subacute stage, chronic stage(pain lasting for more than6 months)

c. rubor, calor, dolor, subacute stage, chronic stage(pain lasting for more than6 months);

d. inflammatory stage, subacute, chronic stage;

e. acute stage, subacute stage, chronic stage(pain lasting for more than6 months)

e

3. Classification of the orofacial pain: select the false answer:

a. Musculoskeletal and soft tissue

b. Dentoalveolar

c. Neurological and vascular

d. Psychogenic

e. Visceral

e

4. Make the right correlation:

a. Temporomandibular joint disease acute rahitism

b. The nose and sinuses refractive errors

c. The eye and orbital affections heterophoria

d. The ears acute sinusitis

e. Acute rahitism temporomandibular joint disease

c

5. The etiology of orofacial pain is

a. Peripheral / central

b. Inflammation / irritation +/-

c. Demyelination +/-

d. Vascular or nerve compression +/-

e. Vasodilatation

a, b, c, d

6. Classification of the orofacial pain is:

a. Acute stage

b.Subacute stage

c.Chronic stage (pain lasting for more than 6 months)

d. Chronic stage (pain lasting for more than 9 months)

e. Subacute stage ( pain lasting for more than 4 months)

a, b,c

7. Classification of the orofacial pain is:

a.Musculoskeletal and soft tissue

b. dentoalveolar

c. Neurological and vascular

d.Psychogenic

e.neurological and psychogenic

a, b, c, d

8. The diagnostiec evaluation is made on:

a. The patient's general dates

b. The patient's medical history

c. The characteristics of the pain

d. The associated signs

e. height and weight

a, b, c, d

Theme 17a.

Local prevention methods for dental caries in pits and fissures Nr.C

rt.

Enunț Răspuns Pag.

1* Among the characteristics of 3-6 years period is NOT included: A. egocentrism

B. affectivity

C. lack of immitative character in action and behaviour

D. excessive episodic negativity

E. auditory, optical and tactile fear

C Stomatologie

comportamental

ă, pg.50

Slide no.20,21 –

Childhood

course

2* In young permanent teeth, in enlarged sealing and in superficial cavities,

pulpal-dentinal protection is provided by:

A. thickness of dentine layer

B. thickness of enamel layer

C. thickness of enamel and dentine layer

D. thickness of liner

E. thickness of permanent restoration material

B Practica

pedodontică,

pg.258

Slide no.15 –

Young

permanent teeth

caries course 3* Treatment of dental decay in temporary incisors is recommended by the age

of:

A. 7 years old

B. 4 years old

C. 5 years old

D. 6 years old

E. 8 years old

C Practica

pedodontică,

pg.207

Slide no.14 –

Temporary teeth

caries_1 course

4* In proximal cavity preparation from the preparation of class II cavities for

amalgam restorations in temporary teeth should be avoided: A. rounded proximal angles

B. lingual walls fragility by wrong orientation of the cavity axis

towards buccal

C. maintaing the sustained enamel

D. sharp angles at proximal level

E. none of the above answer is correct

D Practica

pedodontică,

pg.212

Slide no.25 –

Temporary teeth

caries_2 course

5 Frankl behavioural rating scale class III, is characterized by the following

elements:

A. the child has the willingness to comply to dental team

B. the child does not accept the treatment

C. the child accept the treatment

D. the child is uncooperative

E. the child does not have a positive attitude voluntarily

A, C, E Stomatologie

comporatmental

ă, pg.137

Slide no.14 –

Behavioural

management

course

6 HOM (hand-over-mouth) method is NOT reccomended for use in:

A. too small children

B. children with psychomental deficiency

C. too big children

D. adults

E. children without psychomental deficiency

A, B Stomatologie

comportamental

ă, pg.163

Slide no.14 –

Behavioural

management

course

7 Permanent young teeth decays are frequently located on :

A. proximal surfaces

B. vestibular surfaces

C. oral surfaces

D. occlusal surfaces

E. palatal surfaces

A, D Practica

pedodontică,

pg.253

Slide 7

8 Permanent young teeth can be protected from carious lesions by four simple

methods:

A. topical fluoridation

B. oral hygiene and diet control

A, B, C, E Practica

pedodontică,

pg.252

Slide 8

C. pits and fissures sealing

D. vestibular surfaces filling

E. trauma prevention

THEME 17b.

Local prevention methods for dental caries in pits and fissures

1. 1 Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Sealing is a method of immunization of hard dental tissues with

retentive occlusal relief performed in patients with high carious

risk;

b) Sealing is a method used for approximal surfaces performed in

patients with high carious risk;

c) Sealing is a method of immunization of hard dental tissues with

retentive occlusal relief performed in patients with low carious

risk;

d) Sealing is a method of immunization of hard dental tissues with

flat occlusal relief performed in patients with high carious risk;

e) Sealing is a method used for approximal surfaces performed in

patients with low carious risk;

a

2. What is the main objective for sealing the dental hard surfaces?

a) Sealing retentive occlusal relief of teeth immediately after

eruption;

b) Sealing retentive proximal relief of teeth immediately after

eruption;

c) Sealing flat occlusal relief of teeth immediately after eruption;

d) Sealing vestibular retentive relief of teeth immediately after

eruption;

e) No answer above is correct.

a

3. Which of the following statements is false?

a) After sealing 95% of the microorganisms lose their viability by

the absence of nutritious substrate;

b) Sealing is a method of immunization of hard dental tissues with

retentive occlusal relief performed in patients with low carious

risk;

c) The main objective of sealing is the closing of occlusal retentive

reliefs;

d) In case of uncertain diagnosis of caries one must act according to

the phrase "when in doubt seal” rather than „when in doubt

restore” because there is no known side effect of sealing;

e) Sealing is a method of immunization of hard dental tissues with

retentive occlusal relief performed in patients with high carious

risk;

b

4. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Sealing as a means of primary prevention is indicated in patients

with high caries risk;

b) Sealing as a means of primary prevention is indicated for supra-

cingular pits;

c) Sealing as a means of primary prevention is indicated in patients

with low caries risk;

d) Sealing as a means of primary prevention is indicated for

occlusal pits and fissures of premolars;

e) Sealing as a means of primary prevention is indicated for

occlusal, buccal and palatal pits and fissures of permanent and

c

temporary molars.

5. Sealing as a means of primary prevention is indicated in the following

situations:

a) Patients with low risk of caries;

b) Occlusal, buccal and proximal pits and fissures of permanent and

temporary molars ( primarily the occlusal surface of the first

permanent molar immediately after eruption);

c) Occlusal pits and fissures of the premolars;

d) Supra-cingular pits;

e) Pits and fissures showing enamel stains, without dentin caries

developed underneath;

b,c,d,e,

6. Sealing as a means of primary prevention is indicated in the following

situations:

a) Patients with low risk of caries disease;

b) Proximal pits and fissures (primarily the proximal surface of the

first permanent molar immediately after eruption);

c) Proximal pits and fissures of the premolars;

d) Supra-cingular pits;

e) Pits and fissures showing enamel stains, without dentin caries

developed underneath;

d,e

7. Sealing as a means of primary prevention is indicated in the following

situations:

a) Pits and fissures showing enamel stains, without dentin caries

developed underneath;

b) Patients with good oral hygiene;

c) Cooperating patients;

d) Teeth with proximal caries;

e) Pits and fissures that are not retentive and are considered low

caries risk areas.

a,b,c

8. Sealing as a means of primary prevention is indicated in the following

situations:

a) Patients with low risk of caries;

b) Pits and fissures showing enamel stains, without dentin caries

developed underneath;

c) Patients with good oral hygiene;

d) Patients with occlusal deficiencies;

e) Patients with deficient diet and oral hygiene.

b, c

Theme 18:

The role of functional factors in the development of the dento-maxillary system

Nr Question Answer References

(book and

page)

1* The strong development of goniac angle region is caused by the

emphasized activity of the following muscles:

A. masseter and internal pterygoid

B. masseter and external pterygoid

C. masseter and mylohyoid

D. masseter and hyoid

E. external and internal pterygoid

A Gh. Boboc,

Pg. 405

2* The balance between the skeletal and muscle morphology is:

A. immobile

B. temporary

C. absolute

D Gh. Boboc,

Pg. 411

D. relative

E. permanent

3 The interposition of the lower lip can determine:

A. Upper proclination

B. Lower proclintion

C. Upper retroclination

D. Lower retroclination

E. Upper and lower proclination

A,D Gh. Boboc,

Pg. 443

4 Heterotopically interposition imply the interposition

between dental arches of:

A. Elements that do not belong to dento-maxillary system

B. Elements that belong to dento-maxillary system

C. Fingers

D. Pencil

E. Tongue

A,C,D Gh. Boboc,

Pg.437

5 For developing a dento-maxillary anomaly by vicious habits, the

following conditions are needed:

A. The intensity of the vicious habit

B. The duration of the vicious habit

C. The frequency of the vicious habit

D. Pattern factor- forming deformable pattern

E. No answer is correct

A,B,C,D Gh. Boboc,

Pg 444

6 The supporting facial areas in the context of abnormal postural attitudes

are:

A. Mental region

B. Labial region

C. Lateral areas of the inferior region of the face

D. The auricular region

E. The goniac angle

A, B, C Gh. Boboc,

Pg 436

Theme 19.

The development of dental occlusion

1. During mixed dental occlusion development it takes place:

A. the first occlusion height

B. the first mesial movement (drift) of the mandible

C. the third occlusion height

D. the second mesial movement (drift) of the mandible

E. the second occlusion height

E Dorobat,

Stanciu, pg.

45

2. In the predental period normally it takes place:

A. the second occlusion height

B. the second mesial movement (drift) of the mandible

C. the third occlusion height

D. the first occlusion height

E. the first mesial movement (drift) of the mandible

E Dorobat,

Stanciu,, pg

38

3. Which of the following statements it is NOT true:

A. deciduous teeth break out every 12 months

B. during the first year of life, the alveolar arches become wider and

higher due to the development of the dental excrescences

C. during eruption, the lower incisors have a lingual movement,

determining a decreased arch perimeter

D. dental attrition determines the second mesial movement (drift) of the

mandible

E. the lower central incisors erupt in a more lingual position than the

deciduous incisors

A, C Dorobat,

Stanciu,

pg.40-42

4. The post-lacteal plane:

A. in mesial step gives a mesialized relation

B. in slight mesial step gives a cusp in intercuspal groove relation

C. in mesial step gives a cusp to cusp relation

D. in straight terminal plane gives a cusp to cusp relation of the first

molar

E. in distal step gives a distalized relation at the molars

A, B,D,E Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg.

43

5. The first permanent molar eruption:

A. gives the second occlusion height

B. modifies the arch form

C. by the mesializing spurt doesn’t reduce the primate space

D. modifies the arch length

E. modifies the form of the arch from semielliptical the semicircle

A,B,D Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg

45

6. The following statements are true regarding the dental occlusion

development between 6 and 30 months:

A. the lateral incisor erupt first on the maxilla and than on the mandible

B. the teeth erupt first on the maxilla and than on the mandible

C. upper and lower incisors eruption establish the first occlusal relations

D. the first deciduous molar eruption determines the first occlusal

height

E. deciduous teeth erupt every 6 months

A,C,D,E Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg.

39

Theme 20.

The etiopathogeny of dento-maxillary anomalies

1. The Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by the following aspects,

with one exception:

A. mandibular micro-retrognathia

B. palate cleft

C. anterior crossbite

D. osteo-muscular dystrophy

E. glossoptosis

C Zegan, Pg.85

2. Premature loss of temporary teeth can have the following consequences,

with the exception of:

A. Serious three-dimensional disorders in the dental arch

B. Dento-alveolar crowding

C. Supereruption of the anatagonist teeth

D. The absence of crossbite

E. Premature contacts and occlusal interferences

D Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg

74

3. At the patients with Turner syndrome, one can observe the following

aspects:

A. mandibular retrognathia

B. number dental anomalies

C. mesioclusion

D. shape dental anomalies

E. mandibular prognathia

A, B, D Zegan, pg. 85

4. At the patients with Turner syndrome can be observed the following

aspects:

A. mandibular retrognathia

B. hypertelorism

C. round face

D. mandibular prognathia

E. distocclusion

A, B, C, E Zegan, pg. 85

5. Delayed eruption of the permanent teeth can be caused by: A,D,E Dorobat,

A. Genetic pattern

B. Teratogenic factors

C. General factors

D. Fibrous obstruction

E. Osseous obstruction

Stanciu, Pg

75

6. Premature loss of temporary teeth has the following consequences:

A. Migration of permanent teeth during intrabone or oral eruption

B. Dento-alveolar crowding

C. Supereruption of the anatagonist teeth

D. Widening of the arch

E. Crossbite

A,B,C,E Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg

74

Theme 21.

Classification of dento-maxillary anomalies 1. Division 1 of class II Angle malocclusion is characterized by:

A. Bilateral distalized relation and deep overbite

B. Bilateral mesialized relation and simple deep bite

C. Bilateral distalized relation and open bite

D. Unilateral distalized relation and deep over bite

E. Bilateral distalized relation and simple deep bite

E Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg.

78

2. Division 2 of class II Angle malocclusion is characterized by:

A. Bilateral distalized relation and deep over bite

B. Bilateral mesialized relation and deep over bite

C. Bilateral distalized relation and open bite

D. Unilateral distalized relation and open bite

E. Bilateral distalized relation and simple deep bite

A DS, Pg. 78

3. The maxillary constriction syndrome classified by the German school

has the following variants:

A. Forced guidance

B. Protrusion with spacing

C. With deep over bite

D. With crowding

E. Protrusion without spacing

B,D,E Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg.

79

4. The German school classifies the malocclusions in:

A. Maxillary constriction syndrome

B. Disharmonies

C. The crossbite syndrome

D. The progenic syndrome

E. The simple deep bite syndrome

A,C,D Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg.

79,80

5. The progenic syndrome described by the German school can be:

A. By condylar guidance

B. By forced guidance

C. False (mandibular prognathia)

D. True

E. False (maxillary retrognathia)

B,D,E Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg.

80

6. The terms used by the French school for defining the occlusal

modifications in vertical plane are:

A. infraposition

B. supraposition

C. infraocclusion

D. labioposition

E. supraocclusion

C,E Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg.

82

Theme 22.

The radiological examination in orthodontics

1. The posterior mandibular rotation is characterized by:

A. increased lower face height

B. open gonial angle

C. decreased lower face height

D. strong mandibular condyle with upper and forward development

direction

E. the tendency to deep bite

A, B Zegan, Pg 61

2. The references planes used in lateral cephalometric analysis are the

following:

A. Frankfurt plane- Po-Or

B. Cranial base plane - Po-Or

C. Mandibular plane- Nsa-Nsp

D. Maxillary plane- Nsa-Nsp

E. e) Y axis of growth- S-N

A, D Dorobat,

Stanciu,

Pg155

3. The Gn point (on the lateral cephalometry) is:

A. The most inferior point of the mental symphysis

B. The most anterior point of the mental symphysis

C. The most posterior point of the mental symphysis

D. The most anterior and inferior point of the mental symphysis

a) The most inferior and posterior point of the mental symphysis

D Dorobat,

Stanciu,

Pg154

4. In lateral cephalometry analysis, the 3 sides of the Tweed triangle are:

A. Frankfurt plane

B. Simion plane

C. The axis of upper incisor

D. Mandibular plane

E. The axis of lower incisor

A,D,E Dorobat,

Stanciu,

Pg163

5. About the Ao-Bo distance the following statements are true:

A. Represents the absolute interbasal sagital discrepancy

B. It is in direct relation with angles SNA, SNB

C. Represents the relative interbasal sagital discrepancy

D. Is in invers relation with ANB angle

E. Completes the skeletal class

A,B,E Dorobat,

Stanciu,

Pg164

6. The angle formed by the mandibular plane and Frankfurt plane is

represented by:

A. FMIA

B. FMA

C. IMPA

D. IMFA

E. ANB

B Dorobat,

Stanciu,

Pg169

Theme 23– Class II/1 malocclusion

1. The class II division 1 Angle malocclusion is characterized by the

following bilateral molar relation:

A. neutral and deep bite

B. mesialized and anterior crossbite

C. distalized and simple deep bite

D. buccal nonocclusion and deep over bite

E. lingual nonocclusion and anterior open bite

C Zegan, pg

183

2. The dysfunctional etiological factor of class II division 1 malocclusion

is:

A. rachitism

D Zegan, pg

184

B. hypophysal dwarfism

C. Marfan syndrome

D. simple anterior tongue-thrust

E. premature loss of deciduous teeth in posterior area

3. In class II division 1 Angle dento-maxillary anomalies,can ne observed

the following modification between alveolar and coronal base of the

arch:

A. The apical base is small

B. The apical base is big

C. The coronal base is wide

D. The coronal base is narrow

E. No answer is correct

A, C Dorobat,

Stanciu, pg.

385

4. The facial aspect in class II division 1 Angle malocclusion is

characterized by:

A. Pale skin

B. Thick upper lip

C. Thin upper lip

D. Open labial slit

E. Hypertonic mentalis

A, C, D, E Dorobat,

Stanciu, pg.

383

5. In class II division 1 Angle malocclusion the following can be observed:

A. Uni- or bilateral hypotonia of nasal muscles

B. Uni- or bilateral hypertonia of nasal muscles

C. Hypertonia of mentalis muscle

D. Hypertonia of lower lip

E. Hypotonia of lower lip

A, C, D Dorobat,

Stanciu, pg

385-386

6. In class II division 1 Angle malocclusion the dento-alveolar arch form

cand be modified regarding the constriction side:

A. Omega

B. ”V”

C. ”U”

D. ”M”

E. ”Z”

A, B, C, D Zegan, pg

185

Theme 24– class II/2 malocclusion

1. The class II division 2 Angle malocclusion is characterized by the

following bilateral molar relation:

A. neutral and deep bite

B. mesialized and anterior crossbite

C. distalized and deep over bite

D. distalized and simple deep bite

E. lingual nonocclusion and anterior open bite

C Zegan, pg

189

2. The etiological factors of class II division 1 malocclusion are:

A. genetic

B. functional

C. constitutional

D. general

E. local

A Dorobat,

Stanciu, pg

396

3. In malocclusion class II/2 Angle it can be observed:

A. Reduced premolar and molar diameters

B. Incisor retroclination and deep bite

C. Different degrees of dental spacing

D. Open bite

E. Different degrees of dental crowding

A, B, E Dorobat,

Stanciu, pg

398

4. In classII/2 Angle malocclusion, the following clinical signs can be D, E Zegan, pg

noticed:

A. Superficial labio-mental sulcus

B. Increased height lower face

C. Flattened chin

D. Firmly closed labial slit

E. Accentuated labio-mental sulcus

190

5. In class II/2 Angle malocclusion, it can be observed different degrees of

abrasion on:

A. Buccal surface of upper incisors

B. Buccal surface of lower incisors

C. Lingual surface of lower incisors

D. Palatal surface of upper incisors

E. All the answers are correct

B, D Dorobat,

Stanciu, pg.

398

6. At the facial exam in class II/2 Angle malocclusion it can be noticed:

A. Euriprosop pattern

B. Firmly closed labial slit

C. Thick and reversed upper lip

D. Short and thin upper lip

E. Accentuated labio-mental sulcus

A, B, D, E Zegan, pg

190

Tema 25 – Class III malocclusion

1. Class III malocclusion is characterized by:

A. distalized relation and simple deep bite

B. mesialized relation and anterior crossbite

C. distalized relation and deep over bite

D. normal relation and anterior crowding

E. no answer is correct

B Dorobat,

Stanciu,

Pg.405

2. In class III malocclusion on the cephalometric analisys it can be noticed:

A. SNA angle higher than 800

B. SNB angle lower than 780

C. SNA angle lower than 800

D. Positive ANB angle

E. No answer is correct

C

Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg.

406

3. At the clinical facial examination in class III malocclusion it can be

noticed:

A. flat face

B. flattened cheeks

C. convex profile

D. concave profile

E. straight profile

A,B,D Dorobat,

Stanciu,

Pg.406

4. In class III malocclusion with mesialized closing path, the anterior

dento-alveolar region responasable for the reverse guidance is

caractheryzed by:

A. lower proclination

B. upper retroclination

C. upper proclination

D. lower retroclination

E. no answer is correct

A, B Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg

408

5. Facial aspect in mandibular prognathia is carachterized by:

A. concave profile

B. reverse lip step

C. rigid and voluntary aspect of the face

D. convex profile

E. flattened face

A, B, C, E Zegan, pg

207

6. Facial aspect in maxillary retrognathia is characterized by:

A. concave profile

B. retruted upper lip area

C. upper lip retrusion

D. convex profile

E. upper lip protrusion

A, B, C, Zegan, pg

211

Theme 26- The open bite syndrome

1. Dental phonemes whicg are affected in open bite syndrome are:

A. ‘’B’’

B. ‘’D’’ and ‘’T’’

C. ‘’M’’ and‘’T’’

D. ‘’D’’

E. ‘’C’’ and‘’T’’

B Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg

431

2. In the open bite syndrome the most frequently involved in muscle

disorder is :

A. internal pterygoid

B. masseter

C. buccinators

D. external pterygoid

E. temporal

D Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg

433

3. Which of the following esthetic modifications are seen in open bite

syndrome:

A. hyper leptoprosopic pattern

B. labial slit is closed without effort

C. superficial labiomental sulcus

D. accentuated labiomental sulcus

E. a characteristic disharmonious profile

A, C, E Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg

434-435

4. In the open bite syndrome, the development disordes of the facial

complex involve:

A. the cranial base

B. the mandible

C. the upper maxillary

D. the dentition

E. alveolar process

A, B, C, E Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg

436-438

5. In the anterior open bite syndrome , the genetic factor appears in :

A. Rachitism

B. Down syndrome

C. Chondrodystrophies

D. The persistence of infant swallowing

E. No answer is correct

B, C Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg

419

6. Which of the following disorders can be seen in the open bite syndrome:

A. Functional

B. Periodontal

C. Dental

D. Muscular

E. Neurological

A, B, C, D Dorobat,

Stanciu, Pg

431

Theme 27- Anomalies of the dental system

1. Complete dental transposition represents::

A. the partial positional interchange of two neighbouring teeth

B. the eruption of a tooth at the distance from the dental arch

C. the partial positional interchange of two antagonist teeth

D Zegan, Pg

168

D. the total positional interchange of two neighbouring teeth

E. the remaining inside the bone of a tooth with completely formed root

and with the apex closed

2. Supernumerary teeth do not cause:

A. impaction of teeth

B. dental malpositions

C. occlusal imbalance

D. pathologic root reserbtion of the antagonist teeth

E. pathological diastema

D Zegan, Pg

158

3. In the etiopathogeny of dental transposition, the following local factors

are involved:

A. disorders in exfoliation of the deciduous tooth

B. disorders in the development of the dental buds

C. inversed sequence of eruption

D. dental trauma

E. delayed dental eruption

A, B, C, E Zegan, Pg

168

4. The differential diagnosis of heterotopy can be made with:

A. delayed dental eruption

B. dental impaction

C. ectopy

D. dental extraction

E. hipodontia

A,B,C,E Zegan, Pg

168

5. The surgical-orthodontic treatment of dental impaction consists in:

A. creating the space on the arch

B. removing the etiological causes

C. surgically revealing of the impacted tooth

D. anchoring and drawing of the tooth to the dental arch

E. tooth reimplantation

A, B, C, D Zegan, Pg

167

6. Clinical forms of dental anomalies of coronary form are as follows:

A. Zuckerkandl tubercle on mesiopalatal surface of the deciduous

molars

B. Bolk tubercle on mesiolabial surface of second permanent molar or

third molar

C. Zuckerkandl tubercle on mesiolabial surface of permanent molar

D. Sixtum – at the level of the first permanent molar

E. Bolk tubercle – on the mesiolingual surface of the second permanent

lower molar

A, B, D Zegan, pg

162

Theme 28– The clinical examination in orthodontics

1. The clinical facial examination of the patient establishes:

A. chronic general diseases

B. general indication for orthodontic treatment

C. the equality of face heights

D. psychological development

E. the beginning of puberty

C Zegan, pg

101

2. Functional examination of the patient:

A. establishes the normality or the abnormality of the dento-maxillarry

complex function

B. identifies parafunctions

C. identifies vicious habits

D. all the answers are correct

E. all the answers are incorrect

D Zegan, pg

105

3. At the clinical facial examination, can be observed the following facial

types:

A, C, E Zegan, pg

100

A. Euryprosop

B. Mesocephal

C. Mesoprosop

D. Brachycephal

E. Leptoprosop

4. At the clinical facial examination, can be observed the following

cephalic types:

A. Euryprosop

B. Mesocephal

C. Mesoprosop

D. Brachycephal

E. Leptoprosop

B, D Zegan, pg

100

5. The breathing function can be evaluated by the following tests:

A. Comanding 35 rhythmic inspirations

B. Comanding profound inspiration and expiration

C. Clamping the nostrils

D. Comanding 20 rhythmic inspirations

E. The mirror test

B, C, D, E Zegan, pg

105

6. At the clinical facial examination, can be observed the following facial

types:

A. Euryprosop- low face

B. Leptoprosop- low face

C. Mesoprosop- medium face

D. Leptoprosop- high face

E. Euryprosop- high face

A, C, D Zegan, pg

100

Theme 29– The analysis of the study model in orthodontics

1. Nominal values of incisor sum are between:

A. 28-35 mm

B. 22-34 mm

C. 27-37 mm

D. 26-39 mm

E. 28-38 mm

A Zegan, pg

111

2. In Pont analysis of study model, the incisor sum is calculated by

measuring with compass the biggest mesio-distal coronar distance of:

A. The four lower incisor

B. The two central upper incisor

C. The two central lower incisor

D. The four upper incisor

E. The four lower incisor and the four upper incisor

D Zegan, pg

111

3. In Pont analysis of study models, maxillary anterior width:

A. Is the distance between the landmarks of upper first premolars

B. Is calculate with the formula Six100/80

C. Is the distance between the landmarks of upper second premolar

D. Is calculate with the formula Six100/64

E. Is calculate with the formula Six100/65

A, B Zegan, pg

111

4. In Pont analysis of study models, maxillary posterior width:

A. Is the distance between the landmarks of upper first premolars

B. Is calculate with the formula Six100/80

C. Is the distance between the landmarks of upper second premolar

D. Is calculate with the formula Six100/64

E. Is calculate with the formula Six100/85

A, D Zegan, pg

111

5. In Pont analysis of study models, mandibular posterior width:

A. Is the distance between the landmarks of lower first premolars

C, D Zegan, pg

111

B. Is calculate with the formula Six100/80

C. Is the distance between the landmarks of lower first molars

D. Is calculate with the formula Six100/64

E. Is calculate with the formula Six100/85

6. Reference points for the Pont’s index analysis on the model of study are

the following:

A. Midsagital grouve of upper first premolar

B. Central fossa of upper second molar

C. Buccal contact point of inferior molar

D. The tip of the distal buccal cusp of the lower first molar

E. The tip of the central buccal cusp of the lower first molar

A, C, E Zegan, pg

111

Theme 30– Principles in the orthodontic therapy 1. The orthodontic treatment according to the means used is classified as

follows:

A. prophylactic, interceptive and corrective treatment

B. biomechanical, functional and surgical treatment

C. precocious, normal and late treatment

D. etiological and morpho-functional treatment

E. morpho-functional and surgical treatment

B Zegan, pg

226

2. Ingression is a dental movement:

A. in the long axis, towards the occlusal plane

B. bodily movement of the tooth

C. along the root’s long axis

D. in the long axis, towards the maxillary base

E. tipping of the tooth

D Zegan, pg

249

3. The orthodontic forces can be classified by the intensity of the force in :

A. Extra-oral forces

B. Light forces

C. Intra-oral forces

D. Average forces

E. Intermittent forces

B, D Zegan, pg

246

4. The orthodontic forces can be classified by the rhythm applied in :

A. Extra-oral forces

B. Continuous forces

C. Intra-oral forces

D. Average forces

E. Intermittent forces

B, E Zegan, pg

246

5. Version is a dental movement:

A. tipping of the tooth

B. bodily movement of the tooth

C. the crown and the root move simulataneous, but in different

directions

D. in the long axis, towards the maxillary base

E. in the long axis, towards the occlusal plane

A, C Zegan, pg

248

6. Total displacement is a dental movement:

A. tipping of the tooth

B. bodily movement of the tooth

C. the crown and the root move simulataneous, parallel to the long axis

of the tooth

D. in the long axis, towards the maxillary base

E. e) in the long axis, towards the occlusal plane

A, C Zegan, pg

250

Theme 31– Removable orthodontic appliances

1. Coffin’s arch has the following action:

A. Radial expansion of maxillary arch

B. Asymmetric expansion of maxillary arch

C. Distalization of teeth from maxillary lateral region

D. Mesialisation of teeth from mandibular lateral region

E. Derotation of teeth from frontal maxillary region

A Zegan, pg

267

2. Orthodontic screw develops orthodontic forces:

A. Medium and continuous

B. Light and intermittent

C. Medium and intermittent

D. Light and continuous

E. Light and medium

C Zegan, pg

267

3. Anchorage elements of biomechanical removable appliances are:

A. Stahl clasp

B. Adams clasp

C. Cantilever spring

D. Labial shield

E. Coffin arch

A, B Zegan, pg

264-265

4. Double loop spring is indicated in:

A. Palato-version of incisior

B. Vestibulo-version of incisior

C. Rotation of incisior

D. Mesialisation of incisior

E. Ectopy of incisior

A, C Zegan, pg

270

Theme 32– Functional orthodontic appliances

1. The following statements are true about the type III Frankel regulator,

with one exception:

A. is an elastic activator

B. is indicated for the correction of class III malocclusion by functional

causes, in mixed dentition

C. is indicated for the correction of class II/2 maloclusion by functional

causes, in mixed dentition

D. is a miodynamic activator

E. the principle of action is based on the concept of recovery functional

oral space

C Zegan, pg

285

2. Robin’s monobloc has the following characteristics, with one exception:

A. is a functional removable appliance

B. is a functional bimaxillary appliance

C. is a functional elastic appliance

D. is a functional passive appliance

E. is a functional rigid appliance

C Zegan, pg

280

3. According the effects caused on the groups of muscles, functional

appliances are classified as follows:

A. myotonic appliances

B. active appliacens

C. passive appliances

D. myodynamic appliances

E. bimaxillary appliances

A, D Zegan, pg

278

4. According the site they occupied, functional appliances are classified as

follows:

A. myotonic appliances

B. oral appliances

C. passive appliance

D. myodynamic appliances

E. buccal appliances

B, E Zegan, pg

278

Theme 33. Retention and relapse in orthodontics

1. Duration of retention period is influenced by many factors, except:

A. The patient's constitutional type

B. The patient's facial growth type

C. The age when the malocclusion was treated

D. The duration of active orthodontic treatment

E. Patient’s sex

E Zegan, pg

376

2. Duration of retention period is influenced by many factors, except:

A. The patient's constitutional type

B. The family medical history

C. The duration of active orthodontic treatment

D. The patient's facial growth type

E. The age when the malocclusion was treated

B Zegan, pg

376

3. The general causes of relapse are:

A. The patient’s constitutional type

B. The patient’s facial type

C. The break out of third molars

D. The position of teeth outside of basal bone

E. The patient's endocrine disorders

A, B, E Zegan, pg

375

4. The general causes of relapse are:

A. The patient’s facial type

B. Type the patient's facial growth

C. The position of teeth outside of basal bone

D. The patient’s constitutional type

E. Hypocorrection of malocclusion

A, B, D Zegan, pg

375

Theme 34

Refference: 34. The treatment of dental caries. (Power Point Presentation). Nr.

crt

Question Correct

Answer

Slide

1.* The carious dentin can be removed using:

A. rotary instruments

B. hand-instruments

C. chemomechanical method

D. laser

E. all the methods and instruments mentioned above

E 64

2.* The retention in a class I cavity (according to Black’s classification)

prepared for amalgam restoration is provided by:

A. keeping the preparation of the pulpal wall in enamel, whenever it

is possible

B. beveling of the enamel margins in order to increase the surface of

D 94

retention

C. divergence of lateral walls towards occlusal

D. parallelism or slight occlusal convergence of two or more

opposing, external walls

E. convex floor

3. The adhesion in cavities restored with composite resins results from:

A. The beveling of enamel margins

B. Etching of enamel and dentin

C. Application of adhesive systems

D. Application of Ca(OH)2 liners

E. Application of varnishes

A, B, C 82

4. Retention form in box-only preparation for class II amalgam restoration

involves :

A. proximal retention locks

B. a gingival groove

C. occlusal grooves

D. the buccal and lingual walls should converge slightly toward the

occlusal surface

E. an occlusal “dove-tail” cavity

A, B, D 127

5. The beveled conventional preparation in class II cavity for composite

restoration:

A. Increases the surface available for adhesion and allows the etching

of enamel rod ends

B. Decreases the marginal micro leakage

C. Increases the resistance of the walls and remaining tooth

D. Increases the resistance of the restoration

E. Stops the polymerization shrinkage of the composite resin

A, B, C 137

6.* For tunnel preparation:

A. the marginal ridge is only partially broken in order to create

access

B. one of the disadvantages is the poor control of caries removal

C. only hand instruments can be used for preparation

D. the main indication is uncavitated proximal caries limited to

enamel

E. amalgam is the best choice for restoration

B 143

7. In class III cavities (according to Black’s classification) the resin

modified glass ionomer restorations are indicated for:

A. small cavities

B. patients with high risk for caries

C. areas with low occlusal stress

D. large lesions

E. areas with heavy occlusal stress

A, B, C 159

8. The retentive form in V class cavity (according to Black’s classification)

prepared for amalgam restoration involves:

A. convergent external walls towards the outer surface of the tooth

B. retention grooves along the axio-occlusal line angle and axio-

gingival line angle

C. circumferential groove along the line angle between the external

walls and the axial wall

D. beveling of the gingival margin

E. divergent external walls towards the outer surface of the tooth

A, B, C 173

Theme 35

Refference: 35. The etiology and pathogeny of dental caries.

(Power Point Presentation). Nr.

crt

Question Correct

Answer

Slide

1. The following factors are involved in the antimicrobial function of

saliva:

A. lysozym

B. lactoferrin

C. mucins

D. phosphate

E. amylase

A, B, C 77

2. In both stimulated and resting saliva, the major buffer systems are:

A. bicarbonate system

B. histatins and mucins, cystatins

C. phosphate system

D. peroxidase-thyocianat system

E. salivary proteins

A, C, E 104

3. The size of the dental crown:

A. is not correlated with the caries susceptibility

B. influences the caries susceptibility because of the variation of

enamel thickness

C. is inversely proportional with caries susceptibility

D. influences the caries susceptibility because of the surface

available for caries attack

E. influences the caries susceptibility because of the required

eruption period

D, E 42

4. The morphological characteristics which increase caries susceptibility

are:

A. Abraded pits and grooves

B. Attenuated convexity of crown

C. Open cementoenamel junction

D. Cusp of Carabelli in first mandibular molars

E. Deep, narrow grooves and pits

C, E 43

5. Bacteria involved in caries etiopathogenesis are:

A. Streptococcus mutans, Lactobacillus

B. Streptococcus sobrinus, mitis

C. Actinomyces

D. Candida

E. Legionella

A, B, C, D 170

6. The cariogenic bacterial plaque is characterized by:

A. High concentration of aciduric and acidogenic bacteria

B. Low resting pH

C. Low permeability for saliva

D. Low concentration of calcium and phosphate

E. High concentration of urea

A, B, C, D 158

7. By catabolism, acidogenic bacteria of bacterial plaque may produce:

A. phosphoric acid

B. lactic acid

C. propionic acid

D. hydrochloric acid

E. pyruvic acid

B, C, E 154

8. Streptococcus Mutans is considered to be the most cariogenic bacteria B, C 162

because :

A. it produces acid at pH between 4.3 and 3.8

B. it produces the largest amount of acid/unit of time when sucrose

is provided

C. it synthesizes storage polysaccharides that allows it to survive

and produce acid even after stopping the carbohydrates intake

D. it produces the most harmful acid: carbonic acid

E. it has a very low threshold dose for colonization of dental

surfaces

36TH

Theme: Anatomical and clinical forms of pulpitis in permanent teeth References:

1. Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria Vataman.”Gr.T.Popa”

Publisher,UMF Iasi 2014.

2. Endodontic courses. ( C, slide)

Nr.

Crt.

Raspuns Pagina

1.* In partial serous pulpitis:

a. the axial percussion is painful;

b. horizontal percussion is painful;

c. vitality tests are weakly positive;

d. respond at vitality tests with a high intensity of stimulation;

e. the answer at vitality tests is intense positive with prolonged pain.

e 1/91-92

2.* Subjective symptoms of total acute serous pulpitis are dominated

by:

a. violent painful crises alternated with periods of remission;

b. diffuse pain;

c. throbbing pain;

d. positive axial percussion;

e. the presence of deep carious process.

b 1/91-92

3 .* "Rages des dents" is a phrase known for illustrating the intensity of

pain in:

a. acute partial serous pulpitis;

b. acute total serous pulpitis;

c. acute apical serous periodontitis;

d. acute partial purulent pulpitis;

e. acute total purulent pulpitis.

b 1/91-92

4.* Vitality tests are strongly positive in the following situations:

a. simple decay;

b. acute serous pulpitis;

c. acute purulent pulpitis;

d. chronic open pulpitis;

e. chronic closed pulpitis.

b 1/91-92

5 The following statements about the treatment indications for pre-

inflammatory hyperemia are true:

a. treatment of dental caries and indirect pulp capping;

b. the treatment of dental caries and direct pulp capping in a session,

when pulp chamber is accidentally open;

c. the treatment of dental caries and direct pulp capping in two session,

a, c, d, e 1/88

when accidental opening of the pulp chamber;

d. vital amputation;

e. vital extirpation.

6 The differential diagnosis of pre-inflammatory hyperemia is made

with:

a. dentin hypersensitivity and hyperaesthesia;

b. pulp gangrene;

c. chronic open ulcerated pulpitis;

d. chronic proper closed pulpitis;

e. acute partial serous pulpitis.

a, e 1/88

7 Differential diagnosis of partial acute serous pulpitis is made with:

a. simple dental caries;

b. pre-inflammatory hyperemia;

c. acute total serous pulpitis;

d. acute partial purulent pulpitis;

e. acute total purulent pulpitis.

b,c, d, e 1/91

8 In acute total serous pulpitis at upper jaw tooth , the pain may be

diffused to:

a. the neighboring teeth;

b. the opposing teeth;

c. opposite half of the jaw;

d. the temporal area;

e. orbital area.

a,b, d, e 1/92

37TH

Theme: pulp necrosis and gangrene References:

1. Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria Vataman.”Gr.T.Popa”

Publisher,UMF Iasi 2014.

2. Endodontic courses. ( C, slide)

1*. Causative factors with a positive action in pulp necrosis may be:

a. low-intensity trauma, but repeated;

b. dislocations, intrusions;

c. diabetes, hypertension;

d. the higher temperature than 75 ° C;

e. temperatures below 0 ° C;

c 1/106

2*. The first elements that may suffer in the evolution of pulp necrosis

are:

a. cells;

b. connective fibers;

c. vascular walls;

d. nerve fibers;

e. the fundamental substance.

a 1/106

3*. Liquefaction necrosis :

a. is a form of the pulp gangrene;

b. is produced by the enzymes;

c. is dominated by protoplasm coagulation phenomenon;

d. is commonly installed after applying arsenic substances;

b C 7,

S 20

e. may be caused by the antiseptic solutions-antiformin type;

4*. About of liquefaction necrosis the following are true, except:

a. is an aseptic mortification of pulp;

b. the tooth color is changed;

c. biochemical tests are negative;

d. vitality tests with electric stimulus cannot give a false

negative response;

e. vitality tests by electric stimulus may give a false positive

response.

d C7,

S9

5*. Decisive action of causative factors in pulp gangrene are:

a. vascular spasms followed by a prolonged ischemia;

b. including vitamin (A and C);

c. microorganisms reached the endodontic space;

d. physiological: menstruation, prolonged labor;

e. dislocations with intrusions.

c C7,

S11

6. Differential diagnosis of pulp necrosis is made with:

a. simple pulp gangrene;

b. chronic open pulpitis;

c. chronic closed pulpitis;

d. dental fracture ;

e. chronic apical periodontitis.

a, b, c e 1/106

7. Pulp necrosis:

a. is treated as a chronic closed pulpitis;

b. devital extirpation is the first choice;

c.respects the mecano-chemical treatment, completed with an

appropriate root fillings;

d. does not require antiseptic treatment step, being an aseptic

mortification;

e. is treated as a pulp gangrene.

c, e 1/106

8. Devitalization with arsenic preparations can produce:

a. coagulation necrosis;

b. liquefaction necrosis;

c. the opening of the pulp chamber produces a profuse bleeding;

d. pulp necrosis looks dry;

e. pulp necrosis looks yellow-brown or black-purple.

a,d,e 1/106 -109

38th

Theme: Acute and chronic apical periodontitis References:

1. Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria Vataman.”Gr.T.Popa”

Publisher,UMF Iasi 2014.

2. Endodontic courses. ( C, slide)

Nr.

Crt.

Raspuns Pagina

1*. Acute apical periodontitis - hyperemic stage:

a. is the initial phase of pulp inflammation

b. is the initial phase of inflammation at periodontal ligament

c. is the initial phase of inflammation at apical alveolar bone

c 1/119

d. is the initial phase of inflammation of the interradicular septum

e. is the initial phase of inflammation at interdental septum

2*. The second phase in the evolution of periodontal inflammation in

acute apical hyperemic periodontitis:

a. is called the ,,silent time’’

b . is characterized by vascular and clinical manifestations

c . is the alteration of primary tissue phase

d . is the passive type of hyperemia

e. lasts between several hours and several days

b 1/117

3*. Among chronic apical periodontitis with radiolucent area, one can

be mention the following, except:

a. chronic apical fibrous periodontitis

b. simple connective granuloma

c. epithelial granuloma

d. cystic granuloma

e. chronic apical condensed periodontitis

e 1/128

4*. The axial percussion is positive in chronic apical periodontitis:

a. in 90% of cases

b. in 20 % of cases

c. in 100 % of cases

d. in 70 % of cases

e. in 50 % of cases

b 1/128

5 The pain in chronic apical periodontitis may include the following

aspects:

a. absent

b . neuralgia

c . feeling easy egress

d . ache with tiredness after mastication

e. pulsatile

b,c,d C7,

S 110

6 About simply connective granuloma can be mentioned:

a.it is a chronic apical osteitis

b. it is a chronic apical periodontitis

c. it is called Palazzi 's internal granuloma

d. it has 4 zones

e. the most convincing is the radiological exam

a,b,d,e 1/129

7 The symptoms of apical hyperemic periodontitis :

a. are different depending on the etiological factors

b.lateral percussion is positive

c. the axial percussion is negative

d. the dominated pain is at the causally tooth

e. the axial percussion is positive

a,d,e 1/117

8 The swelling of acute serous apical periodontitis involves:

a. upper lip zone by the upper incisors teeth

c. upper eyelid region by canines

d. chin region by lower incisors

e. genian region by lower molars

a,c,d 1/119

39th

Theme: Treatment of pulp necrosis and gangrene References:

1. Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria Vataman.”Gr.T.Popa”

Publisher,UMF Iasi 2014.

2. Endodontic courses. ( C, slide)

Nr

crt

Raspuns Pag

1* The methods used in preparing root canals are:

a. manual

b. sonic

c. ultrasonic

d. laser

e. all of the above

e 1/183

2* Walkhoff solution contains: a. phenol 30%, camphor 60%, alcohol 10%

b. monoclorphenol and alcohol 10%

c. p-monoclorphenol, camphor and menthol

d. p-monoclorphenol and tricrezol

e. p-monoclorphenol, alcohol and ether 10%

c 1/ 195

3* Which method for measuring root canal lenght is considered the

most accurate:

a. clinical method

b. clinical and radiological method

c. radiological method

d. electronic method

e. apical stinging method

d 1/170

4* Among the local causes of canal bleeding may be mentioned:

a. incomplete pulp extirpation

b. perforation of pulp chamber floor

c. false ways with marginal periodontal damage

d. wide open apex in children and young

e. all of the above

e 1/ 157

5 If there are obstacles like mineralizations inside canal, the

mechanical treatment can be associated with these chemical

solutions:

a. EDTA solution 17%

b. 50-60% sulfuric acid solution

c. 30% chlorhidric acid solution

d. 1% chlorhexidine solution

e. EDTA gel, 17%

a,e 1/194

6 The general causes of intracanalar bleeding during endodontic

treatment can be the followings:

a. hemophilia

b. bleeding disorders

c. hepatic diseases with altered blood clotting mechanisms

d. physiological states congestive: menstruation

e. pregnancy

a,b,c,d 1/ 157

7 Walkhoff-iodoform paste contains the followings : a. iodoform

b. chlor phenol

c. thymol

d. zinc oxide

e. formalin

a,b,c,d 1/ 157

8 Quaternary ammonium compounds: a. are cationic detergents

b. reduce the surface tension of the solution

c. are less active in acidic environment

d. are more active in acid environment

e. all the above is correct

a,b,c C12 , S27

40th

Theme: Root canal filling techniques References:

1. Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria Vataman.”Gr.T.Popa”

Publisher,UMF Iasi 2014.

2. Endodontic courses. ( C, slide)

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1* Advantages of warm vertical condensation technique are:

a. ensures a homogeneous root canal filling

b. does not require excessive widening of canals

c. does not require much time

d. requires no special tools

e. low incidence of overfillings than other techniques

a 1/ 212

2* Which of the following techniques of radicular filling is performed

by injecting soften hot gutapercha:

a. vertical warm condensation

b. Thermafil system

c. McSpadden technique

d. FibreFill system

e. Obtura system

e 1/ 216

3* Finger-spreaders have the following advantages over hand-

spreaders:

a. easy to use in distal areas

b. do not allow rotation around its axis in both directions

c. allow easy removal from the canal without dislocation of

gutapercha

d. are thinner

e. are more flexible

c C14 , S11

4* The technique of reinforced canal filling is based on the following

principle: a. placing a parapulpar post ( in dentine)

b. placing a post inside pulp chamber and root canal

c. canal does not require posts

d. glass-ionomer cement and the applying of a restorative crown as

final restauration

e. placing posts anywhere in dental structures

b 1/ 232

5 The warm gutta percha injection technique must respect several

conditions:

a. proper root canal cleaning

b. respecting the rules for root canals preparation

c. using a sealing cement to achieve a good apical closure

d. correct placement of the cannula tip

e. excessive widening of the root canal

a,b,c,d 1/ 195

6 The apical obturation using the condensation of dentin chips is

indicated in:

a. large canals

b. curved canals

c. wide apical foramen

d. apical delta

e. perforations in the coronal third of the canal

a, c C14 , S53

7 The election of Lentulo file is done after following criteria,:

a. the volume of the canal

b. topographyof the tooth

c. the physical integrity of the Lentulo file

d. the number of canals

e. the degree of canals curvature

a,b,c,e 1/ 206

8 The benefits of gutta percha thermoplastic condensation (Mc

Spadden) are:

a. is faster

b. possible compactor fracture

c. obturating all canal space

d. facilitate overfilling in the absence of a proper apical stop

e. no possibility of thermal lesions of periodontal support

a,c 1/ 213

41th

Theme: Treatment of acute and chronic apical periodontitis References:

1. Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria Vataman.”Gr.T.Popa”

Publisher,UMF Iasi 2014.

2. Endodontic courses. ( C, slide)

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1* Treatment of arsenical apical periodontitis, the severe form, consists

in:

a. tooth extraction

b. socket curettage until healthy bone

c. antibiotic conse application in the alveolar socket

d. protect the socket with a small cotton pad

e. all of the above

e C17,

S7

2* In acute suppurative apical periodontitis endosseous phase, is first

reccomended:

a. endodontic drainage

b. transosseous drainage

c. alveolar drainage

d. physicians analgesics

e. dressing with antiseptic

a 1/ 124

3* Treatment of chronic apical periodontitis generally follows the same

steps with the simple pulp gangrene therapy, with some changes due

to: a. working length

b. presence of fistula

c. number of the roots

d. medications used

e. general health status

b 1/ 196

4* In acute suppurative apical periodontitis, the antibiotics are

prescribed in the following circumstances:

a. in the endosseous phase, when drainage is unsatisfactory for

various reasons

b. in the subperiosteal phase

c. in the submucous phase

d. when we can not make a correct endodontic treatment

e. in the endosseous phase, when drainage is unsatisfactory and the

general condition of the patient is altered

e 1/ 124

5 If abundant serous secretion comes from canal in chronic apical

periodontitis, it’s indicated:

a. endodontic drainage

b. leaving the tooth open

c. creating a medicamentous artificial fistula

d. provisional filling paste based on calcium hydroxide

e. chemical cauterization with trichloroacetic acid

a,b,c,d C17 , S17

6 The therapeutic attitude towards apical acute arsenical

periodontitis, the mild form, includes:

a. treatment with calcium hydroxide

b. abundant irrigations

c. application in canal of thin braids with dimercaptopropanol

solution

d. introduction in canal of antibiotics paste

e. expectation of pathological phenomena remission

d, c

C17 , S7

7 Iatrogenic causes of the persistence of the canal secretion in chronic

apical periodontitis are: a. cotton pushed beyond the apex

b. chemical irritation inside canal

c. improper use of the isolation system

d. position of the tooth on the dental arch

e. patient’s age

a,c C17 , S9

8 To prevent progression of apical serous periodontitis to purulent

forms, is recommended a medication treatment:

a. antibiotics

b. anticoagulants

c. antispasmodics

d. antidepressants

e. analgesics

a,b C17 , S11

Theme 42. The Morphology of the marginal periodontium No. Question Answer page

1. 3 Gingiva:

a) Its role is to provide a conjunctive attachment

b) Begins at the muco-gingival line

c) Begins at the gingiva line

d) Covers the alveolar processes around the cervical of the tooth parts

e) Covers the alveolar processes around the coronal tooth

b,d

5

2. 7 Junctional epithelium specialized marginal gingiva free:

a) It forms gingival epithelial attachment at the tooth surface

b) Has a width of about 1 mm at coronal-apical direction

c) Represents the connection between gum and root surface

d) Surrounds each tooth at cervical level

e) He did not shall be renewed along the entirelife

a,d 10

3. 8 Gingival sulcus (sulcus):

a) The average depth of the sulcus is 1,8 mm (1-3 mm)

b) The depth of the gingival sulcus clinical does not correspond to the

histological depth

c) Represents the space created when the marginal gingiva is removed

from the tooth surface

d) Begins from the base of the marginal gingiva to the most coronal

level of the junction epithelium

e) Clinical depth gingival sulcus is greater than its histological depth

a,b,c 11

4. 9 Gingival innervation is provided by:

a) The collateral branches of the maxillary and mandibular branch of the

trigeminal nerve

b) At the mandibular the vestibular gingiva innervation for anterior

teeth is provided from the inferior alveolar nerve

c) Innervation of the palatine gingiva is provided by posterior palatine

nerve

d) The maxillary alveolar nerve innervation is provided by superior

e) The vestibular innervation of the mandibular nerve buccal Gingiva is

provided for molars and premolars

a,d,e 12

5. 1

0

The periodontal ligament (desmodontium):

a) The average width of desmodontal space at a functional tooth adult is

0.18 mm

b) The narrower area is at the apex

c) Basically it is a lax conjunctive tissue

d) Has the widest portion in the rotation area (hypomochlion)

e) The dento - alveolar total space varies depending on the dental arch

morphology

a,c 13

6. 1

2

The collagen fibers are arranged in several groups:

a) Horizontal fibers

b) Apical fibers

c) Oblique fibers

d) Vertical fibers

e) Circular fibers

a,b,c 13-14

7. 1

3

What is the function of the periodontal ligament:

a) Mechanical function

b) Nutritional function

c) Vegetative function

d) Sensorial Function

e) Chemical Function

a,b,d 14

Theme 43.

The etiopathogeny of chronic marginal periodontitis No. Question Answer Page

1. 3 Plaque has the following characteristics:

a) It has a homogeneous composition

b) It is a deposit with a certain ordering

c) Its composition does not change

d) It is formed of matrix material

e) It represents a mineral deposit from saliva

b,d

19

2. 7 Calculus acts on periodontium:

a) By the mechanical action

b) By the chemical action

c) By the physico-chemical action

d) By the action of microorganisms

e) By the biological action

a,d 23

3. 8 The consistency of food:

a) Can play the role on the rate formation of plaque

b) Soft and sticky foods produce more plaque

c) Soft and sticky foods act as favorable environment to the plaque

retention

d) Acts on lithic bacteria

e) Favors the production of lactic acid

a,b,c 23

4. 9 The absence of teeth can lead to:

a) Dental migrations

b) Dental inclusions

c) Root resorption of adjacent teeth

d) Tippings

e) Extrusions

a,d,e 24

5. 1

0

Malocclusion:

a) Can cause harmful occlusal forces

b) Can suppress the attached gingiva

c) May aggravate parafunctions

d) Create liminal forces on periodontal tissue

e) Mostly due to incomplete labial occlusion

a,c 24

6. 1

2

The clinical symptoms of severe deficiencies in proteins, calories, iron,

zinc, vitamins A, B, C are manifested by:

a) Specific lesions

b) Color and topography alterations of oral mucosa

c) Color and topography alterations of lingual mucosa

d) Occlusal disorders

e) Cervical caries lesions

a,b,c 26

7. 1

3

Certain medications that cause tissue modifications accentuated by the

presence of plaque are:

a) Diphenylhydantoin

b) Nifedipine

c) Cephalosporins of third generation

d) Cyclosporin A

e) Chemotherapeutic agents

a,b,d 26

Theme 44.

Diagnosis of gingival-periodontal disease No. Question Answer Page

1. 3 Aspects of establishing the diagnosis are:

a) The degree of gingival bleeding

b) Type of disease

c) Status of gingival inflammation

d) The importance of attachment loss

e) Dental malocclusion

b,d

75

2. 7 The criteria for evaluation of periodontal disease activity are:

a) Biological

b) Biochemicals

c) Genetic

d) Microbiological

e) Clinical

a,d,e 76

3. 8 The necessary conditions for the loss of attachment are:

a) The presence of virulent bacteria

b) A favorable environment for virulent bacteria

c) Poor host defense systems

d) The presence of protective bacteria

e) Effective host defense systems

a,b,c 77

4. 9 Pathogenicity of bacteria consists of:

a) Antigenic action

b) Lack of production of exo and endotoxins

c) Chemical action

d) Enzymes produced

e) Bacterian degradation products

a,d,e 77

5. 1

0

Plaque microorganisms produce tissue alterations through mechanisms

such as:

a) Bacterial antigens

b) Inhibition of antibody production

c) Bacterial degradation products

d) Production of enzymes

e) Production of toxins

a,c,d,e 77

6. 1

2

Pathogenic bacterias are:

a) Anaerobic gram negative

b) Spirochetes

c) Parasites

d) Coccobacillus

e) Mycoplasma

a,b,c 78

7. 1

3

The main characteristics of bacteria virulence are:

a) The cocoide form

b) The filamentous aspect

c) The secretion of hydrogen peroxide

d) The lack of mobility

e) The presence of mobility

a,b,d 79

Theme 45. Classification of marginal periodontium diseases Nr

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Raspuns

corect

Pag

1* The most common type of gingival disease is:

A. a simple inflammatory affection, provoked by dental plaque

B. an inflammatory affection in presence of systemic factors

A 90

C. rapidly progressive periodontitis

D. juvenile periodontitis

E. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

2* Acute gingivitis:

A. is painful, debuts abruptly and has a short duration

B. is less severe

C. disappears spontaneously and appears again

D. is the most frequent type

E. is common in elder people

A 91

3* Bacteria determined chronic gingivitis is:

A. a form of disease with a slow debut

B. of short duration

C. always painful

D. always associated with systemic diseases

E. generalized

A 91

4* Generalized gingivitis is comprised of:

A. affection of free gingival margin and less or at all of fixed gingiva

B. interdental papilla, free gingival margin and fixed gingiva

C. one or a low number of teeth

D. superficial periodontium and profound periodontium

E. adjacent gingiva of all teeth

E 91

5 Hyperplasic gingivitis, as a secondary effect to some drugs can be

induced by:

A. hidantoine

B. calcium channel blockers

C. cyclosporine

D. vitamin C

E. anticoagulants

A, B, C 95

6 A patient with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, the patient complains of:

A. fever

B. affected general status

C. increase of pain on contact with cold foods

D. slight halitosis

E. halitosis

A, B, E 101

7 Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis has the following local factors:

A. unsatisfactory oral hygiene

B. smoking

C. age

D. seasons

E. spirochettes, fusiform bacteria

A, B, E 100

8 From a clinical point of view, gingivitis manifestations are:

A. form modification

B. color modification

C. volume modification

D. gingival pruritus

E. real periodontal pockets

A, B, C, D 125

Theme 46. Clinical forms – symptoms in marginal periodontitis Cap: Semnele clinice ale gingivitelor, pag 102-104

Cap : Semne clinice ale parodontitelor marginale, pag 105-136

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Question text Correct

answer

page

1* Hystopathologically, color modification of the gingiva means:

A. circulatory stasis

A 108

B. edema

C. atrophy

D. ulcerations

E. inflammation

2* Which of the following statement does not characterize marginal

periodontitis?

A. tissue inflammation is present

B. during its evolution, periodontal pockets can appear

C. the inflammatory process is located in accordance to the apex of the

root

D. bone resorbtion also appears

E. dental mobility may also appear

C 106

3* Mild periodontitis is characterized by:

A. there is no attachment loss

B. attachment loss of 1/2 of the root lengh

C. attachment loss of more than 1/2 of root lengh

D. Periodontal pockets of 5-6 mm

E. probing depth (clinically) is up to 4-5 mm

E 106

4* Inter-radicular lesions:

A. may appear at inferior canines

B. most affected are first inferior molars

C. in the horizontal plane, 1st degree lesion implies passing the probe

completely through the furcation area, from one side to the other

D. 3rd degree lesion is an incipient lesion

E. cannot be measured in the vertical plane

B 112-114

5 Prepubescent periodontitis can be asociated with:

A. Down syndrome

B. Papillon-Lefevre syndrome

C. Kaposi sarcoma

D. HPV viral infections

E. Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A, B 125

6 Juvenile periodontitis is:

A. a rare affection which affects 0.06-0,22% of children between 14 and

25 years old

B. a necrotizing-ulcerative periodontitis

C. an aggressive periodontitis

D. a periodontal atrophy

E. a form of hyperplasic gingivitis, as a secondary effect to some drugs

A, C 126

7 Juvenile periodontitis. The main signs of disease are not:

A. pathological dental mobility

B. false periodontal pockets

C. gingival hypergrowth

D. low gingival inflammation

E. diminished bone support

B, C 126

8 Periodontal manifestations in AIDS are asociated with:

A. HIV gingivitis

B. HIV periodontitis

C. oral candidosis

D. Kaposi sarcoma

E. allergic gingivitis

A, B, C, D 102

Theme 47.

Evolution, prognostic and complications of periodontal diseases Nr

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Question text Answer page

1. The objective symptoms in acute periodontal abscess are:

A. oval or round tumefaction of the gingiva

B. painful gingiva

C. the covering mucosa is shiny stippled and purple in color

D. pain in vertical percussion of the respective tooth

E. spontaneous hurt of medium intensity

A, B 138

2. The following statements about acute periodontal abscess are not true:

A. it is not a chronic marginal periodontitis complication

B. it is localized only buccal

C. it is accompanied by radiological modifications of the bone

D. it is produced by virulent germ exacerbation within the periodontal

pockets when natural way drainage is low or blocked

E. is localized only palatal or lingual

A, B, E 138-139

3. Radicular hypersensitivity is represented by:

A. pain at contact with physical agents

B. pain at contact with chemical agents

C. pain at contact with thermal agents

D. gingival bleeding

E. false periodontal pocket

A, B, C 142

4. The favorable prognostic of the periodontal disease is given by:

A. adequate remaining bone support

B. adequate patient cooperation

C. there is no bone loss

D. 3rd degree interradicular lesions

E. high dental mobility

A, B 148

5*. Charon claims that a high risk patient is the one who:

A. in the absence of treatment and diagnosis, will have disabling

edentulousness before being 50 years old

B. smokes very much

C. suffers from a systemic disease

D. has a necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

E. has a bacterial chronic gingivitis

A 148

6. The cuneiform lesions:

A. appear in the cervical portion of the crown

B. are more frequent in the vestibular 1/3 of the tooth

C. is a lack of substance

D. have a triangular shape with the base towards the longitudinal axis of

the tooth and the tip towards the exterior

E. appear in the middle third of dental surfaces

A, B, C, D 141

7. In the chronic periodontal abscess:

A. a fistula appears, that opens on the gingival mucosa

B. there are not many symptoms

C. it has an evolution towards an acute state

D. the fistula orifice can be hard to detect

E. the general status of the patient is surely altered

A, B, C,D 139

8. A role in the formation of cuneiform lesions is given by:

A. the occlusion trauma

B. the acid chemical erosion

C. the wearing down of cement and dentin through excessive brushing

D. the nervous system - bulimia

E. none of the above

A, B, C, D 141

Theme 48. The gingivitis treatment

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1* The initial periodontal therapy has the goal:

A. to re-establish occlusal equilibrium

B. orthodontic treatment

C. to create an oral cavity lacking as much as possible plaque and

calculus

D. to accomplish odontal restorations

E. to initiate periodontal reactivation therapy

C 213

2* The means through which the patient accomplishes hygiene are:

A. gingival debridement

B. plaque removal through tooth brushing

C. mechanical treatment of accesible root surfaces

D. supragingival scaling

E. subgingival scaling

B 214

3* A correct brushing technique removes:

A. 85% of bacterial plaque at the most

B. all the bacterial plaque

C. up to 50% of the dental plaque

D. over 90% of the dental plaque

E. over 50% of the plaque quantity

A 215

4* As a general rule, the patient applies the plaque revelator at home:

A. after the evening meal

B. after brushing

C. after brushing and interdental cleaning

D. after breakfast

E. it is not indicated for the patient to use plaque revelator at home

C 214

5 The means of autocontrol of the bacterial plaque are:

A. professional brushing

B. dental brushes

C. interdental hygiene means

D. special oral hygiene means

E. supragingival scaling

B, C, D 214

6 Bacterial plaque autocontrol at home is done:

A. every other week

B. in the beginning, at 2-3 days

C. once a week

D. until dental brushing is corrected

E. it is not mendatory

B, C, D 214

7 Soft dental brushes:

A. are more flexible

B. are less traumatizing

C. are indicated in all brushign techniques

D. are indicated in gingival sulcus brushing

E. are indicated for interdental areas, with low accesibility

A, C, D 215

8 The BASS brushing technique has the following characteristics:

A. it is recommended only for patients with periodontal diseases

B. it is a secvential technique

C. it establishes the cleaning of the distal face of the last molar

D. it uses vibratory motions

E. it is recommended only to patients with periodontal recessions

B, C, D 216

Theme 49. The marginal periodontitis treatment

( pag 222-264, 229-235, 258-260,292-294 )

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Raspuns Pag

1* The attack angle in the use of Gracey curettes is:

A. 20 degrees

B. there is no particular angle

C. the angle in which the best adaptation of the curette is achieved

D. an angle with values between 45-90 degrees

E. 10 degrees

D 224

2* The immobilization of mobile teeth in the periodontal disease:

A. is a therapeutic means of functional equilibration within the complex

periodontopathic treatment

B. belongs to the curative-corrective prosthetic stage

C. is a prophylactic measure

D. is done exclusively in young patients

E. is counterindicated for patients with diabetes

A 229

3* Single plane immobilization is done at:

A. lateral teeth

B. frontal teeth

C. A and B

D. none of the above

E. all of the above

A 232

4* For the immobilization of frontal teeth when canines have a good

implantation:

A. it is not necessary to involve other teeth

B. it is necessary to involve other teeth

C. premolars are involved

D. canines are not involved

E. no answer is correct

A 234

5 Tetracycline has the following advantage in the periodontal disease

treatment:

A. has a high concentration in serum and crevicular fluid

B. it can be administered in lupus

C. it can be administered in cases of renal diseases

D. it inhibits bone resorbtion

E. has an anti-inflammatory effect

A, D, E 239

6 The counter indications of administering tetracycline are:

A. pregnancy

B. children under 12 years

C. renal affections

D. lupus

E. schizophrenia

A, B, C, D 240

7 Metronidazole is indicated in:

A. NUG

B. infections with more than 50% contents of spirochetes

C. infections with trichomonas present

D. can be administered to patient who also take lithium

E. patients with anticoagulant therapy

A, B, C 241

8 Major indications of temporary dental immobilization are:

A. stabilizing teeth before and after periodontal surgery

B. prevention of pathological migration

C. when mobility is not reduced after occlusal equilibration

A, B, C, D 231

D. evaluation of the prognostic

E. to restore the aesthetic function

Theme 50. Main therapeutical directions and treatment schemes in gingivitis and

periodontitis (pg. 306-320) Nr

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Question text Correct

answer

Page

1. The treatment for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is:

A. amendment of the chronic inflammation

B. amendment of acute inflammation

C. amendment of the generalized toxic symptoms

D. correction of the general status

E. biostimulation periodontal methods

B, C, D 306

2. Clinical manifestations of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis can be

associated with:

A. flu states

B. menstrual cycle

C. some foods

D. psychological stress

E. tiredness

B, C, D, E 307

3. A patient with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is treated like a non-

ambulatory patient if he / she:

A. has symptoms of general status alteration

B. presents fever

C. suffers from asthenia

D. presents a localized adenopathy

E. does not present systemic complications

A, B, C 307

4. In the first session, in the case of a patient with necrotizing ulcerative

gingivitis it is recommended:

A. the treatment is limited to the acute inflammation areas

B. the necrotic pseudo membranes are eliminated with a cotton pad

imbibed in peroxide

C. the treatment will involve the entire oral cavity

D. systemic antibiotics

E. oral rinses 2 times a day

A, B, D 307

5. In the first stage of treating a patient with necrotizing ulcerative

gingivitis, oral rinses have the following characteristics:

A. are done as many times a day as possible

B. are repeated every 2 hours

C. consist of a mix of equal parts warm water and peroxide 3%

D. can use chlorhexidine 0,12%

E. are repeated every 4 hours

B, C, D 307

6.* For a patient with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis:

A. systemic antibiotics administration is not mandatory

B. can resort to local antibiotherapy

C. systemic antibiotherapy is indicated

D. systemic antibiotherapy is indicated only as complementary to local

antibiotherapy

E. antibiotherapy is indicated only for patients treated ambulatory

C 307

7. For the necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis patient treated in ambulatory it

is recommended:

A. to administer injectable anesthesia after which the false membranes

are removed

B, C, E 308

B. to isolate the inflammation area and then it is dried

C. before removing the pseudo membranes, to apply a topic anesthesia

D. to use wiping motions for areas as large as possible using the same

cotton pad

E. to wash the area with warm water and then remove the superficial

calculus

8. In the first treatment stage of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis:

A. supra and sub gingival scaling are indicated

B. subgingival scaling is contraindicated

C. periodontal curettage in closed field is indicated

D. periodontal curettage is contraindicated

E. ultrasonic scaling is preferred

B, D, E 308

Theme 51 – Dental occlusion

1. When we apreciate the amplitude of mouth opening we must also add

the dimension of:

a) Overbite

b) Overjet

c) Occlusal clearance

d) Rest position vertical dimension

e) Centric position vertical dimension.

a

2. Deglutition happens in:

a) Maximum intercuspation

b) Centric relation

c) Rest position

d) No specific position

e) None above

b

3. Ideally lingual cusp of 1.4 contacts with:

a) Mesial fossa of 4.4

b) Distal fossa of 4. 4

c) Mesial fossa of 3.4

d) Distal fossa of 3.4

e) None above.

b

4. Ideally buccal cusp of 2.4 contacts with :

a) Mesial fossa of 4.4

b) Distal fossa of 4.4

c) Mesial fossa of 3.4

d) Diatal fossa of 3.4

e) None above.

e

5. Posterior insertion of lateral pterigoid is at:

a. Mandible condyle neck

b. Articular disc

c. Zygomatic arch

d. Coronoid process

e. Scafoid fossa

a, b

6. It is a TMJ component:

a) Mandible condyle

b) Temporal condyle

c) Coronoid process

d) Disc

e) Glenoid cavity

a,b,e

7. It is an elevator muscle:

a) Temporal

a,c,d,e

b) Lateral pterigoid

c) Median pterigoid

d) Maseter

e) Winslow fascicle

8. Normal value of minimum speech space is:

a) Lower than 2mm

b) 2-4mm

c) Bigger than 4mm

d) 0-2 mm

e) 3 mm.

b, e

Theme 52. Temporomandibular disorder-TMD

References:

3. Gnatologie clinica - Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni, ed. Apollonia, 2001

No. Question Answer Ref. Page

1.

Extrapostural malrelation throuht anterior translation means muscle tone:

a) Increased on elevators

b) Decreased on elevators

c) Increased on lower muscles

d) Decreased on lower muscles

e) Increased on propulsors

e 1 333

2.

Extrapostural malrelation throuht posterior translation means muscle

tone:

a) Increased on elevators

b) Decreased on elevators

c) Increased on lower muscles

d) Decreased on lower muscles

e) Increased on propulsors

e 1 333

3.

First degree for dental wearness (abrasion) means:

a) Wearness just at enamel level

b) Appearance of dentin spots

c) Apearance of dentin conected spots

d) Just dentin limitated by enamel

e) The wearness opened pulpal chamber

a 1 364

4.

Second degree for dental wearness (abrasion) means:

a) Wearness just at enamel level

b) Appearance of dentin spots

c) Apearance of dentin conected spots

d) Just dentin limitated by enamel

e) The wearness opened pulpal chamber

b 1 364

5. Suprasystemic ethiological factors for TMD are:

a) ischemic cardiopatie

b) depression

c) cronic kidney dephicensie

d) acromegaly

e) peptic ulcer

b,d 1 304-

305

6. Intrasystemic ethiological factors for TMD are

a) dental cavity

b) malocclusion

c) periodontal disease

d) granuloma

e) occlusal interferences

b,c,e 1 307-

308

7. There are disfunctional clinical signs in: c,d,e 1 308

a) ideal homeostasy

b) normal homeostasy

c) preclinic dishomeostasy

d) debut dishomeostasy

e) dishomeostasy

8. TMD clinical signs for TMJ are:

a) Pain

b) Reduced mouth opening

c) Mandible Anchilosis

d) Mandible constriction

e) Noises

a,b,e 1 313-

315

Theme 53. Clinical and paraclinical examinations in coronary odontal lesions and

partially reduced edentoulism

References:

2. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni,

ed. Apollonia, 2001

Nr.

crt. Intrebare

Raspuns

corect

Sursa

bibl.

Pagi

na

1.

In the clinical examination in partial edentoulism is not included:

a) the facial examination

b) superficial palpation

c) disease history

d) muscle palpation

e) oral examination

C 2 122-

128

2.

Postural terminal occlusion is:

a) Maximum contact in centric dental dental occlusion

b) The transition from RP to IM

c) Obtain a centric point

d) The transition from RP to RC

e) Interocclusal space in RP

B 2 148

3.

Physiological free space:

a) Examine both in the frontal and lateral side

b) is 1.8-2.7 mm in the front

c) is 2-4 mm in the lateral

d) is not influenced by dental abrasion

e) can be measured when the lower floor dimension is equal to the

middle floor

A 2 150

4.

Determining the state of hygiene:

a) not influence the prosthetic treatment plan

b) Does teaching purposes

c) It makes inspecting both the presence or absence of plaque and tartar

deposits

d) requires investigation plaque oral surfaces of the teetht 1.6, 1.2, 2.1,

3.6, 3.2, 4.1

e)Is a part of laboratory examination

C 2 152

5. Personal data of the patient involves investigating:

a) the identity of the patient

b) history of the disease and general history personal and familiall

c) Establishing the conditions of life and work

d) Investigation of identification data, the age, sex, residence, patient

profession

A, C, D 2 116-

117

e) Determination of hygiene of oral cavity

6. EPR functional impairment :

a) It is determined by the magnitude edentation

b)is influenced by food consistency

c) Depends on the location of missing teeth

d) the subjective character assessing functional failure does not depend

on education

e) involves highlighting objective functional disorders: chewing,

phonetic, esthetic and swallowing

A,C,E 2 117

7. Facial inspection means the analysis:

a) mimic and physiognomy

b) The integrity of the skin

c) facial profile

d) Chin position

e) cranio-facial type

A,B,E 2 123

8. Deep palpation involves:

a) Investigation skin temperature

b) The evidence of subcutaneous tissue elasticity and quantity

c) muscle palpation

d) lymph node groups palpation

e) palpation edentulous ridge

C,D 2 125

Theme 54. Treatment principles in unidental restorations by using dental bridges Bibliographical sources:

2.Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni,

Ed. Apollonia, 2001 (A Clinical Therapy of Partial Intercalated Edentation)

3. Terapia protetic conjuncta unitara - Gabriela Ifteni, Vasile Burlui, Ed. Gama, 2002( The Conjunct

Unitary Prosthetic Therapy)

No. Question Correct

answer

Sursa

bibl.

Pag

e

1.

1. The prophylactic principle supposes:

a) The morphological recovery by using an anatomic mould of the

occlusal areas/surfaces

b) Parodontal prosthetics through stomatological gum preparations

for the covering crowns

c) Elusion of the biological principle concerning the economy in

preparations

d) In such way that none of the therapeutical acts should aggravate

the already existent injuries and determine the apparition of other

new injuries

e) Mastering the knowledge of the details concerning the

biomechanical stability of the prosthetic devices and instruments

d 2 202

2.

2. Application of the temporary prosthesis has implemented the

following concepts:

a) The non-specific prophylactic therapy

b) The temporized prosthetic treatment

c) The general specific prophylaxis

d) Primary prophylaxis

e) Minimal invasive preparations

b 2 205

3. 3.In transitory prosthesis it can be used: A 2 204

a) The Scutan method or the use of vacuum thermoformed stents

b) Maeyland bridges

c) Fixed metal-acrylic devices because they are cheaper

d) Dental faceplates

e) None of the above answers is correct

4.

4.In the process of morphological recovery through fixed devices it

is not allowed:

a) The vestibular-oral narrowing of the dental bridge parts in

relation with the amplitude of the edentated space

b) Determining the height of the cuspids when the reduction of

the occlusal loading is wanted

b) Incomplete oral plate moulding of the dental bridge parts for

achieving an auto-cleaning space

c) Over-outlining and sub-outlining the covering crowns used as

elements of aggregation

d) Sacrificing the morphological restoration in order to observe the

prophylactic, biological and biomechanical principles

D 2 215

5.

11.Avoiding the crossed contamination the stomatological cabinet

aims at:

a) Observing the basic rules of asepsis and antisepsis

b) Maintenance of the sterilisers

c) Use of cold sterilisation when warm sterilisation is possible

d) Re-use of a disposable material, even sterilised

e) Use of a protection mask

a,b,e 2 210

6.

12.General prophylaxis:

a) It has a systemic feature specific to the proteic treatment

b) It grants a special importance to the process of avoiding the

crossed contamination

c) It has a non-specific systemic feature

d) It has to be considered in the integrated context of the

stomatognathic system

a) None of the above answers is correct

b, c, d 2 209

7.

13.The chlorinated compounds are used for pre-sterilisation of the

instruments because they present the following advantages:

a) They have a persistent smell

b) In increased concentrations they present a sporicidal activity

c) They have an large spectrum

d) They do not produce corrosion of metals

e) They have a slow and latent action in time

b, e 2 211

8.

14.The pre-eruptive prophylaxis aims at:

a) Preventing some serious diseases (congenital syphilis, rubella)

b) A correct nutrition of the mother

c) The prophylaxis of the endocrine diseases

d) The prophylaxis of the circadian rhythm troubles

e) Il is also named local primary prophylaxis

a, b, c 2 213

Theme 55. Intracoronal and extracoronal unidental restorations

Bibliographical sources:

2. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni,

Ed. Apollonia, 2001 (A Clinical Therapy of Partial Intercalated Edentation)

3. Terapia protetic conjuncta unitara - Gabriela Ifteni, Vasile Burlui, Ed. Gama, 2002

(The Conjunct Unitary Prosthetic Therapy)

1. Clinical preparation for corono—radicular encrust begins with:

a. Preparation of the vestibular side and of the incision edge

b. Preparation of the radicular place

c. Preparation of the oral side over cingulate surface

d. Preparation of the oral side lateral cingulate surface

Answer: b, page 156

2. Preparation of the partial crown 4/5 comprises:

a. Preparation of the occlusal vestibular side, and of the vestibular ½ of the proximal sides

b. Preparation of the occlusal oral side and of the oral 2/3 of the proximal sides

c. Preparation of the occlusal oral side, of the oral cuspid and of the internal cuspidian slope of the

vestibular cuspid and the oral 2/3 oral of the proximal sides

d. Only the proximal sides and the occlusal side

e. Only the oral side and the proximal sides

Answer: c, page161-163

3. Pinledge is an onlay to which the retention is achieved through:

a. 2 proximal ditches in the incisal 1/3

b. 3 dentinal wells placed on the oral side of the tooth

c. 2 proximal ditches and an incisal ditch

d. Only 1 incisal ditch

Answer: b, page 173

4. The opening of the carious process in the in order to achieve a cavity for inlay is made with:

a. Chisels for enamel cu and hatchets for dentine

b. Spherical mills

c. Thinning mills

d. Wheel mills

e. Chamfer mills

Answer: b, page 143

5. The indications of use of the inlays are:

a. in abnormal colorations of the limited parts of teeth

b. in aggregation elements in conjunct therapy of small amplitude bridges

c. for patients under 18 years old

d. in paradontopathies in order to immobilise the teeth

e. in extended odontal injuries

Answers: a,b,d page138

6. In order to stabilise the encrust we can use supplementary means of retention represented by:

a. Steps or thresholds

b. Axial or horizontal ditches

c. Dentinary wells and radicular pin

d. Stabilising wings

e. Supplementary cavities ( inlay box)

Answers: a,b,d,e page142

7. The opening of the carious process in the in order to achieve a cavity for inlay is made with:

a. Chisels for enamel cu and hatchets for dentine

b. Spherical mills

c. Thinning mills

d. Wheel mills

e. Chamfer mills

Answers: a,b page 143

8. The achievement of the retention form in order to have a cavity for inlay is made through :

a. Reciprocity ( parallel walls 2 by 2)

b. Lateral walls convergent to the occlusal

c. Implied angles between the pulpal walls and the laterals

d. Optimal ratio between the length and the depth

e. Lateral walls of the cavity must be lean

Answers: a,d page 145

Theme 56. Structural elements of dental bridges

Surse bibliografice:

2. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni,

Ed. Apollonia, 2001 (A Clinical Therapy of Partial Intercalated Edentation)

1. From the point of view of dental tissue economy in preparations of pillar teeth, it is indicated:

a) The use of partial dental crowns instead of inlays in case the pillar teeth are healthy

b) The use of partial dental crowns instead of inlays in case the teeth are affected by serious carious

processes

c) The total ceramic dental crowns require a smaller reduction than the metal-ceramic dental crowns

d) The metal dental crowns presents an economy in organic substructure preparation comparing to

the partial dental crowns

e) Mixed dental crowns are the most economical from the point of view of their preparations

comparing to the other covering dental crowns

Answer: a

Page: 305

2. Partial covering dental crowns with mixed aggregation:

a) Have the advantage of not producing injuries at the level of the pulpal organ

b) They do not require a revaluation before permanent cementation of the pulpal vitality

c) The radiological paraclinical examination is necessary before preparations

d) They refer to extrinsic dental coronary aggregation and the pulpal aggregation

e) They are totally contraindicated in modern therapy

Answer: c

Page: 307

3. The sources of parodontal supra solicitation determined by an aggregation element incorrectly built

up:

a) The occlusal surface of the dental body bridge

b) The peripheral joint area and the relating area between the dental bridge and the aggregation

elements

c) Only the marginal gum

d) The peripheral joint area and the relating area between the dental bridge and the aggregation

elements and the marginal gum

e) The « Ah » area

Answer: d

Page: 307

4. The plastic deformation of the dental bridge:

a) Represents a reversible deformation produced under the action of the masticatory force

b) A deformation in which a serious alteration of the structure is produced and which changes the

initial morphology

c) Is avoided through the use of some materials presenting an increased degree of plastic

deformation

d) Is avoided through the use of some materials presenting an increased degree of elastic

deformation comparing to the dental-parodontal support

e) It does not depend on the stretch of the dental bridge

Answer: b

Page: 325

5. In descending order, the most biological are the elements of aggregation

a) Collage dental bridges, metal dental crowns, ceramic dental crowns

b) Partial dental crowns, inlays, metal dental crowns

c) Partial dental crowns, collage dental bridges, mixed metal-acrylic dental crowns

d) Metal dental crowns, mixed dental crowns, ceramic dental crowns

e) Ceramic dental crowns mixed metal-ceramic dental crowns, substitute dental crowns

Answer: a,b,d

Page: 305

6. Biological conditions of aggregating elements consist of:

a) Assuring their unique insertion axis on the organic substructure

b) The minimal waste of amelo-dentinal substance

c) Conceiving a pulpal prophylaxis

d) The possibility of warm sterilising of the metal profile for the mixed dental crowns used as

elements of aggregation

e) Conceiving a parodontal prophylaxis

Answers: b,c,e

Page: 305-307

7. Supragingival positioning of the edges of aggregating elements is conditioned by:

a) Special aesthetic demand

b) Biomechanical conditions which require the reduction of the occlusal solicitation

c) The dental coronary injure with a subgingival injury

d) Very high clinical dental crowns

e) Pre-existent prosthetic restorations with subgingival placed edges

Answers: c,e

Page: 308

8. Morphological restoration for aggregating aims at:

a) Observing the form and the dimension of lateral sides in order to remake the contact points

b) Morphological molding of aggregating elements should be according to tooth morphology prior

to preparation

c) Must be classed within the habitual occlusion parameters even if the mandibular-cranial relations

are eccentric

d) Morphological molding print must remake the form, volume and position modifications

e) Building up some emphasized convexities of the lateral sides in view of parodontal protection

Answers: a,b,d

Page: 309

Theme 57. Stages of therapy though dental bridges: The Dental Molding Print

Surse bibliografice:

2. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni,

Ed. Apollonia, 2001 (A Clinical Therapy of Partial Intercalated Edentation)

1. The objectives of EPR dental molding print refer to:

a) Rendering the shape and the details of the accomplished preparations

b) Rendering the shape, the dimensions and the details of the accomplished preparations

c) Requires the use of fluid and accurate materials

d) Requires to be unique

e) Requires lack of air inclusions

Answer: b

Page: 478

2. The dental molding print materials are classified into:

a) Rigid and elastic

b) Rigid and plastic

c) Rigid, semi rigid and elastic

d) Depending on the necessary time for their manipulation

e) Depending on the accessory materials used in molding print

Answer: c

Page: 479

3. The choice of a global or segmentary dental molding print depends on:

a) The used molding print material

b) The model study

c) The practice experience of the doctor and the nurse

d) The allocation of the preparation on the dental arch the occlusal stability and the aesthetic criteria

e) All the above answers are wrong

Answer: d

Page: 480

4. The global dental molding print with unitary guidance:

a) Supposes two stages of molding print

b) It is the most biological one

c) It is the most used technique in dentistry practice

d) It can be used only in threshold preparations

e) It is conceived only for the organic substructure molding print prepared for partial dental crowns

Answer: a

Page: 480

5. For the lateral area of the dental arch, the segmentary dental molding print is indicated in the

following cases:

a) Unitary reconstructions concerning a premolar or a molar

b) Replacement of the absent molar I, only when the occlusion is stable

c) Reconstructions concerning a premolar or a successive molar

d) Reconstructions concerning the homologous mandibular premolars

e) When the clinical situation does not allow the investigation of a global dental molding print

Answers: a,b,c

Page: 504

6. The biological parodontal space:

a) Comprises the alveolar ridge and the attached gum

b) Comprises the conjunctive attachment and the junction epithelia

c) Is the restricted area for placing the prosthesis edges

d) The only clinical trace is the bone rebord since it can be measured

e) It is situated between the bone ridge and the inferior part of the sulcus

Answers: b,c,e

Page: 505

7. The clinical consequences of a supra delineation:

a) Are less harmful than the sub delineation

b) Are represented by bleeding

c) Are represented by halitosis

d) They produce gum retraction in time

e) They do not bring functional prejudices

Answers: b,d

Page: 506

8. If we design a preparation which did not injured the marginal parodont:

a) We can make the dental molding print during the same session

b) This dental molding print can serve us in designing the permanent dental molding print or a

temporary one

c) It is totally contraindicated to take a dental molding print during the same session

d) There is no bleeding at the level of the marginal parodont

e) There is no dental mobility

Answers: a,b

Page: 507

Theme 58. Fixed prosthodontics stages: Registration of mandibular-cranial

relationships

References:

3. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni,

Ed. Apollonia, 2001

No. Question Answer Ref. Page

1.

Relative to Frankfurt plan, a small inclination articular slope is of:

a. 5-10°,

b. 5-25°

c. 25-40°

d. 40-55°

e. 60°.

B 3

2. The internal wall of the glenoid fossa is evidenced in frontal plane as

vertical determinant and influences:

a. the height of the incisors

b. the depth of transversal curvature

c. the height of the cusps as well as the depth of the pits

d. the depth of the sagittal curve

e. the value of the anterior guidance

C 3

3.

Among the computational methods of examination of cranial-

mandibular relationships are:

a. Gysi articulator

b. LR 3Condylocomp

c. Denar articulator

d. SAM articulator

e. no answer is correct

B 3 186

4. In order to record, transfer and replicate the distance between odonto-

periodontal units and inter-condylar axis are necessary: A 3

a. systems composed of the face-bow and simulator

b. simple articulators

c. global impression

d. semi-adjustable articulators

e. sectoral impression

5.

The occlusion key:

a. is the oldest method of simulating ATM movements

b. cannot be used in the absence of a transfer face-bow

c. cannot simulate the opening and closing movements

d. is also called articulator

e. e. is indicated for fixed restorations of large amplitude

AC 3 184

6.

In terms of indications, the face-bows can be:

a. for hinge axis determining

b. for transfer

c. to simulate mandibular kinematics

d. for investigation of mandibular kinematics

e. e. to determine the suborbitar point

ABD 3 185

7.

Among the fully adjustable articulators are:

a. occlusion key

b. Hamann articulators

c. Gysi Simplex articulators

d. Denar Antoneark articulators

e. Denar Denar D4 and D4-A-B articulators

ABCD 3 184-185

8.

In a normal dental occlusion the dento-dental contact points must meet

certain conditions, including:

a. the existence of 0-2 mm over-jet

b. be multiple and uniformly distributed

c. 1/3 frontal overbite

d. be stable

e. be between smooth and convex surfaces

BDE 3 146-147

Theme 59.

Clinical and paraclinical examinations in partially and total edentation: partially

edentation 1. The history of the disease:

A. Will investigate the evolution of the edentation.

B. Insists on the aetiology of the teeth loss.

C. Will investigate the chronology of the teeth extractions.

D. Will investigate previous treatments.

E. All the answers are correct

E cap7,pag 93

2. Personal precedents:

A. Are not relevant.

B. Usually systemic probles do not influence stomatological

treatment.

C. In certain cases the presence of a disease in the family

history leads to the suspicion that it may occur.

D. Correct answers A,B.

E. All the answers are correct.

C Cap 7,94

3. True statements about physiological general personal precedents:

A. During pregnancy, hormonal disturbances appear which

affect the gingival vessels and lead to the "pregnancy

gingivitis".

E C.7/P.94-95

B. Puberty and menopause are characterized by hormonal

modifications that can lead to a general and local

dishomeostasia.

C. Birth control pills modify "the endocrine constellation"

having the well-known consequences.

D. Andropause leads to the psycho-somatic changes which

bring the disfunctional manifestations.

E. All the answers are right.

4. All are true but one:

A. The cardio-vascular problems impose precautions

regarding anaesthesia.

B. The cardio-vascular problems do not impose precautions

regarding duration of the treatment sessions.

C. Special precautions are required by the ischemic cardiac

disease.

D. The hypertensive patients require similar anaesthesia

precautions.

E. The diseases with infectious risk need a special attention,

especially if during one of the stages transiently germs

will be produced.

B C7/p95

5. The clinical examination classical procedures are:

A. Inspection.

B. Palpation.

C. Perception.

D. Hearing.

E. All the answers are correct.

E C7/p97

6. The frontal inspections will analyze the following elements but one :

A. The facial forms.

B. The morphological, static and dynamic aspect.

C. The proportion of the facial levels

D. Skin temperature.

E. The colour.

D C7/97

7. Vitality tests:

A. Are methods used to determine the pulp sensitivity.

B. The evaluation being done comparing to the neighbouring

or similar teeth, considered as being healthy.

C. Variants of a positive feed-back can be obtained from one

patient to another and from one tooth to the other.

D. Responsible for the pulp tissue vitality are the blood

vessels from the pulp.

E. Correct answers A,B,C.

A,B,C,D 7/116

8. The vitality tests can be realized with :

A. Cold.

B. Heat.

C. Fire.

D. Exploratory drilling.

E. Chemicals.

A,B,D 7/116

Theme 59: p. 32 -83

Clinical and paraclinical examination in partially and total edentation: total edentation

1. Goniac angle has an average value of:

a. 750-900 preschoolers;

b. 1100 -1250 after 12 years;

c. 1300-1400 in the elderly;

B, C

d. 1200 women;

e. all options are correct.

2. Static inspection, the ATM:

a. does not seek changes color, the front region of the tragus;

b. aims, front chin movements;

c. seeks symmetry or asymmetry regions before the tragus;

d. the comparison is made, the right-left;

e. are conducted on the level of the menton region.

C, D, E

3. Inspect profile:

a. aims facial profile;

b. aims lip posture;

c. does not seek the position chin;

d. naso-labial angle is not intended;

e. all options are correct.

p. 36

A,B

4. ⃰ Functional area peripheral jaw Eisenring bag, examined by:

a. anterior the traction of the lower lip;

b. the traction anterior upper lip;

c. palpation, with instruments from almost near.

d. wide opening of the mouth;

e. all options are correct.

p. 43

C

5. Plain radiographs, the TMJ:

a. not executed under various incidences;

b. is based on the photochemical effects of radiation;

c. radiation exposure is 70% higher;

d. allows visualization of articular changes interlining;

e. all options are correct.

p. 68

B, D

6. Palpation of bone surfaces:

A. aims integrity of ATM;

B. is ascending;

C. is descending;

D. is symmetrical compared;

E. aims atrophies.

CDE

7. Inspection of the face to the patient, consider:

A. type of food;

B. skin integrity;

C. facial symmetry;

D. regularity of meals;

E. all variations are correct.

BC

Theme 60. Partial removable prosthesis. Structure of removable prosthesis

1. * The removable partial gnathoprosthetic appliances are composed by:

A. Saddles.

B. Artificial teeth.

C. Main connectors.

D. Elements of maintenance and of sustainability.

E. All answers are correct.

E Cap 2,pag 252

2. * The Saddles:

A. Represent the main elements of the removable partial

prosthesis.

E cap 2,pag 252

B. Have the role of supporting the artificial teeth.

C. Have the role to transmit the masticator forces towards the

mucous-osseous support.

D. Have the role to transmit the masticator forces towards the

dento-periodontal support.

E. All answers are correct.

3. *The Saddles:

A. Transmit the soliciting forces toward the main connector.

B. They can’t oppose to the moving forces.

C. Don’t have an anti-movable function.

D. The saddles can be metallic.

E. All answers are correct.

A cap 2, 252

4. * The next affirmations are correct but one:

A. The acrylic saddles are made of polymethacrylate methyl of 2

mm thickness.

B. The vestibular versant shapes itself and stretches till the

reflection zone of the mobile mucosis.

C. This oral versant can miss from the saddle when the

edentulous ridge from this area is outlined.

D. At the tuberosity level the acrylic saddle will cover this

biostatic area.

E. The acrylic saddle will cover the piriform tuberculus.

C cap 2,253

5. Simple metallic clasps:

A. Can be made from metallic plates or wire.

B. Metallic clasps made from plates also called plane clasps.

C. Metallic clasps are placed on the prosthetic equator half in

the supporting cone, half in the retention cone.

D. Metallic clasps made from rounded or semirounded wire

have a high elasticity and a reduced contact zone with the

tooth.

E. Metallic clasps made from rounded or semirounded 0,9

mm in diameter.

ABCD cap 2,257

6. By the relation which it has with the tooth they can be classified in:

A. Opened dental cervico-occlusal clasp.

B. Edental opened cervico-occlusal clasp.

C. Bidental cervico-occlusal clasp.

D. Cervico-occlusal turned clasp.

E. Interdental cervico-occlusal clasp.

ABCDE Cap2,258

7. Opened dental cervico-occlusal clasp:

A. Also called the elbow clasp.

B. It is recommended for the teeth with high retentivity.

C. Ensures retentions through the rigid area.

D. It favours the movements of the prosthesis.

E. Ensures retentions through the elastic area.

ADE cap 2,257

8. Edental opened cervico-occlusal clasp:

A. the free extremity is orientated towards the edentation.

B. It is recommended for the terminal edentations.

C. It is recommended when between the supporting tooth

and the neighboring one there is a contact area.

D. It stops the movements of the prosthesis;

E. All answers are incorrect.

ABCD Cap 2,257

Theme 61. Structural elements of partially skeletized prosthesis 1. Secondary connectors:

a) Are rigid elements.

b) The secondary connectors can be: elastic, rigid, articulated. c) Elastic secondary connectors are "S" shaped and link the

segmented saddles with the main connector in the Rigolet

system.

d) Rigid secondary connectors are frequently used and can be

localized proximally.

e) All answers are correct.

e

2. The path of insertion:

a) The path followed by the denture from its first contact with the

teeth until it is fully seated.

b) This path doesn’t coincides with the path of withdrawal.

c) This path may or may not coincide with the path of displacement.

d) Correct answers A,C.

e) Correct answers A,B,C.

d

3. The Ney system:

a) The rigid structures are located in the supportive cone or supra-

equatorial areas.

b) The groove where the rest will be fixed will be 2.5 mm deep and

will have an oval form with rounded angles.

c) The groove length will be 1/4 of the vestibular-oral diameter of

the occlusal face.

d) The groove width is 1/3 of the mesio-distal diameter of the

occlusal face.

e) The groove has a round shape.

a

4. The partial prosthesis maxilla main connector :

a) Is placed on the vestibular side of the frontal alveolar ridge.

b) Is placed transversal on the palate.

c) Is an lingual acrylic plate.

d) The upper limit is placed on the remaining teeth over the

cingulum.

e) The mucosal face is situated at distance from the areas that don’t

support any pressure.

e

5. The clasps no. 1:

a) Is derived from the Ackers clasp.

b) Is applied on teeth with guideline no.2.

c) It offers sufficient embracing.

d) Correct answers A,C.

e) Correct answers B,C.

a

6. The Roach system:

a) In this system, there are 15 clasps divided into 2 groups.

b) A 2nd

group of 4 clasps.

c) The "C" shape clasp starts from the major connector.

d) Correct answers B,C.

e) It is recommended for the high premolars,the “C” shape

connector.

b

7. The T" shape clasp:

a) Is the best known and most frequently used.

b) It starts from the saddle in a secondary connector.

c) The vertical bar of the "T" comes in touch with the middle of the

lateral vestibular face.

d) All the answers are rong.

e

e) All answers are correct.

8. The ring clasp from the Roach second category:

a) Can be circular.

b) It has a small contact area with the tooth.

c) It offers excellent retention.

d) It in not a good supportive element.

e) All from above are true.

a

Theme 62. Biodynamics of skeletized prosthesis in oral cavity 1. Static stability diagram is useful to:

a) Determine the resistance force.

b) Determine the pressure force.

c) Calculate the polynomial law.

d) Mark the stability arches.

e) Orientate the RP vector.

d

2. The dynamic diagram is useful in :

a) Marking the stability arches.

b) Marking the maximum stability point of the palate.

c) Orientate the RP vector.

d) Marking the gravity point of the palate.

e) Establish the teeth that will support the maintenance and stability

elements.

c

3. The maxilla gravity centre is on the sagittal axis:

a) Found at the junction of anterior 2/5 with posterior 3/5.

b) On the middle of the axis.

c) Found at the junction of anterior 2/3 with posterior 1/3.

d) Found at the junction of posterior 2/5 with anterior 3/5.

e) Found at the junction of anterior 1/3 with posterior 2/3.

d

4. The direct traction forces :

a) Are vertical forces that dislocate the prosthesis.

b) Are horizontal forces.

c) Make the prosthesis to balance.

d) Are oblique forces on the artificial teeth.

e) Make the prosthesis stable in function of the oral system .

a

5. The indirect traction forces:

a) Are horizontal forces.

b) Are named also balance forces.

c) Are generated by sticky foods.

d) Are generated by the cheek and tongue muscles .

e) Are generated by the prosthesis weight.

b

6. The prosthesis dislocation means:

a) Movement of lifting, clogging, pressure making.

b) Lateral movement of the prosthesis.

c) Prosthesis movement because of the cheeks muscles.

d) Prosthesis movement because of the sticky foods.

e) Functional moving .

a

7. The medial movements of the prosthesis appears :

a) Incorrect bite.

b) Inverse occlusal sagittal curve .

c) Accentuated occlusal sagittal curve.

d) Sticky foods.

e) Because of the weight of the prosthesis.

a

8. Biomechanical features in class I Kennedy edentation are: b

a) The correspondence of the periodontal supporting polygon with

the muco-osseous supporting one.

b) The lack of correspondence of the periodontal supporting polygon

with the muco-osseous supporting one.

c) The static diagram will indicate the existence of the

asymmetrical edentations.

d) The dynamic diagram will show a posterior placement of the R.P.

vector.

e) The dynamic diagram will show a anterior placement of the R.P.

vector.

9. The classification of the forces at the level of the stomatognathic system

according to the direction is:

a) Vertical, forces of pressure and traction.

b) Horizontal forces.

c) Tangent forces.

d) Radiary forces directed towards the exterior of the arch.

e) All are correct answers.

e

10. The tangent forces:

a) Are exercised at the level of the bucal side of teeth.

b) Are exercised at the level of the contact points.

c) These forces are transmitted from the intensity point of view in "oil

spot".

d) Correct answer B,C.

e) Correct answer A,B.

d

Theme 63. Stages of therapy using partially removable prosthesis: dental impression

1. * Which of the following statements are features of the muco-dynamic

functional impression:

A. It uses standard dental impression trays

B. It uses customized individual dental impression trays

C. Impressions which fail to by-pass peripheral mobile formations

are obtained

D. Non-functional impressions are obtained

E. Exceedingly short-rimmed impressions are obtained.

B

2. *In prosthetic therapy using partial removable prosthesis, the

masticatory movements made within the functional impression of the

prosthetic field are not carried out with:

A. Occlusion braces

B. Individual impression trays fitted with lingualized occlusion

C. With the help of old prostheses

D. With occlusion wax

E. Correct answer A, D

E

3. * What types of materials may be used in the functional impression of

the prosthetic field with partial extended edentation.

A. Rigid materials

B. Decorative materials

C. Semi-rigid materials

D. Solid materials

E. Correct answers A, D

E

4. * Documentary impression is used to:

A. Obtain a preliminary model

B. Obtains a functional model

C. Medico-legal purpose

D. Obtain a studio model

E. It is no longer used

C

5. Which of the following statements are correct from the point of view of

impression techniques with corrected model:

A. They use standard gypsum impression trays addressing

terminal edentations

B. They address terminal intercalate edentations

C. They address reduced intercalate edentations

D. They use the metallic frame equipped with acrylic saddles

E. They record the functional relationship of the mucous bony

support in relation to the dento-periodontal support

BDE

6. In case of impression techniques using a corrected model, the model

sectioning occurs:

A. At the level of terminally edented ridges

B. At the level of intercalate edented ridges

C. At the level of frontal teeth

D. 1-2 mm distally from restant teeth

E. At the level of median line of the model

AD

7. Which are the features of the global impression used in the composite

prosthesis:

A. It records the prepared dental organic substructures

B. It records edented breaches

C. It records the color of teeth

D. It allows the realization of the fix denture

E. It allows the realization of the removable denture

ABDE

Theme 64. Clinical stages of partial edentation through removable means - Mandibulo-

cranial relations record in treatment of partial edentation.

1. * In the partial removable denture therapy, the stage of recording the

inter-maxillary relationship follows after:

A. The test of standard impression tray

B. Preliminary impression

C. Adjustment of individual impression tray

D. Functional impression and the realization of the functional mould

E. The test of teeth mould

D

2. * In the partial removable denture therapy, in the case the two arches are

mutilated by partial edentation, the main issue of prosthesis is:

A. The evaluation of the support teeth

B. Preliminary impression

C. Restoration of posture relationship and centric relationship

D. Verification of metallic skeleton

E. Sealing the terminal saddles

C

3. * In the partial removable denture therapy, the recording of mandible-

cranial relationships aims at:

A. Repositioning the mandible in correct centric relationship ,

repositioning of the mandible in posture position

B. Repositioning of the mandible in the convex profile position

C. Maximum intercuspidation

D. Determination of the basal mandibular plane

E. Determination of exact positioning of the medio-sagittal

plane

A

4. * The “linguo-mandibular homotropism” method to determine the

centric relation is based on the fact that:

A. The mandible follows the position of the palate

B. The mandible follows the tongue in its static and dynamic

course

C. The compression of the bilateral masseter positions the

mandible in centric relation

D. The vestigial reflexes of centric positioning are stimulated

E. The Valsalva maneuver positions the mandible in centric

relation.

B

5. Which of the mandible-cranial positions have a paramount importance

in the evaluation of the normality condition as well as of the degree of

impairment of the morphology and functions of the stomatognathic

system:

A. The centric relation

B. The posture relation

C. The maximum intercuspidation relation

D. Bennett movement

E. The head to head protrusion position

AB

6. The extra-oral verification of the occlusion moulds aims that

A. the base is rigid, non-deformable

B. the base is elastic

C. the margins of the base are rounded

D. the margins of the base are placed at the level of the white line

E. the margins of the base are placed at the level of the mobile mucosa

ACD

7. In the therapy using partial removable dentures, the simple methods of

determining the centric relations are:

A. The method of head forced flexion

B. Stimulation of the molar occlusion reflex

C. Stimulation of the incisive occlusion reflex

D. Condylar maneuver

E. Patterson method

ABDE

8. In the therapy using partial removable dentures, the solidification of

occlusion moulds can be performed through the following procedures:

A. Use of interposition studs between the two moulds

B. Use of a Repin type material

C. Use of alginate

D. Performance of certain recesses or anchors in the two

occlusion mounts at the level of the first premolars

E. Performance of a recess in the two occlusion mounts

at the level of the median line

ABD

Theme 65: p. 465-544

Stages of therapy by dentures: Impression 1. ZOE pastes are indicated in:

a. Preliminary impressions in total edentulous;

b. impressions for relining of dentures;

c. in all impression techniques, muco-dynamic;

d. All muco-static impression techniques;

e. No variable is correct.

p. 535

B, D

2. ⃰ Lejoyeux technique consists of:

a. engraving pattern on an area of 2-2.5 mm, the line of flexion, the soft

palate and hard palate;

b. the realization, individual tray on the preliminary model, in contact

with the engraved;

c. engraving pattern on an area of 2-5 mm, the line of flexion, the soft

palate and hard palate;

d. impression of the prosthetic field, resilient material;

e. all options are correct

p.549

C

3. ⃰ The stage, reading anatomic landmarks, on the final impression

mandibular vestibular area is:

a. recess or folded outwards;

b. flat and wide;

c. as a depression which lies near a retentivitate;

d. as a depression at the distal end of the depression alveolar

e. all that apply;

p. 543

B

4. ⃰ Poly-ether:

a. no particular fidelity;

b. they smell unpleasant;

c. not good dimensional stability.

d. are hydrophilic;

e. all that apply.

p. 536

D

5. For preliminary impression, made with thermoplastic material:

A. can use trays, larger;

B. can use trays, smaller;

C. trays can be used with a profile less evident;

D. material used must not deform after setting;

E. no variable is correct.

BCD

6. Anatomical landmarks from the maxillary prosthetic field are:

A. labial vestibule;

B. buccal frenulum;

C. maxillary pterygoid ligament;

D. incisive papilla;

E. no variable is correct.

ABCD

7. Equipment necessary for preliminary fingerprinting involves:

A. Individual trays;

B. impression trays;

C. waxes;

D. timer;

E. all variations are correct.

BCD

8. Drawing the lines of demarcation of individual tray:

A. is done with pencil, aniline; BD

B. is made with a marker;

C. is at 2-3mm distance of the bottom of vestibular sac;

D. is at 1 mm distal to the line vibration, and pterigomandibular

ligament insertion;

E. all variations are correct.

Theme 66 - P.550-564

Stages of therapy by dentures: Determination of inter-maxillary relations 1. ⃰ Method of lingual-mandibular homo-tropism consists of:

a) positioning the mandible in relation to the posture, by resuming

periodontal muscle reflexes

b) position of the mandible in relation to posture, movement and

swallowing;

c) positioning the mandible in centric relation, closing the mouth with

his tongue on Walchoff pearls;

d) position of the mandible in centric relation by compression chin;

e) any variation is not correct.

p. 558

c

2. ⃰ Smile line:

a) is assessed according to the frenulum of the upper lip;

b) is estimated based on the filter of the lower lip;

c) represents the level at which ranked edge incision of the inferior

artificial teeth;

d) represent maximum limit visibility to upper front tooth group;

e) all answers are correct.

d

3. In the analysis of the model after biofunctional Prosthetic System, the

maxillary residual ridge in the middle:

a. it marks the edentulous ridge side areas;

b. is delimited anterior by positioning peak points canines;

c. allowing the dental technician to fitted correctly then artificial teeth

from the side;

d. posterior, continues to mark, the middle tuberosities;

e. No variable is correct.

p. 565

a, b, c, d

4. ⃰ On analysis, models assembled:

a. considering only vestibular fornix jaw;

b. vestibular front bow is spaced sagittal direction by incisive papilla,

about 7cm;

c. vestibular front bow is spaced transverse direction by incisive papilla,

about 7mm;

d. maxillo-mandibular front line chord is called vestibular front bow;

e. all options are correct.

p. 568

d

5. ⃰The upper jaw model, Height, base plus artificial teeth, averages:

a. 8 -10 mm;

B.1 - 3 mm;

c. 20-22 mm.

D.18 - 20 mm;

e. 2-3 mm.

p. 568

c

6. Extra-oral control, the layouts for occlusion:

A. is in the presence of the patient;

B. is in the absence of the patient;

C. verify their implementation in the laboratory, as indicated by data

bc

sheet;

D. is a complex method that uses graphic inscription method;

E. all variations are correct.

7. Some simple methods for determining centric relation, include:

A. maneuver condylar

B. occlusal Lejoyeux memory;

C. Robinson method;

D. Patterson method;

E. all variations are correct.

ad

8. ⃰ The tuber pyriform:

a. not biostatic area;

b. on the model is used as reference point for interference plans;

c. on the model is used as a reference point for interference of dynamic

lines;

d. on the model is used as a reference point for interference of static

lines;

e. all options are correct

p.564

d

Theme 67: p. 568 -582

Stages of therapy by dentures: Sample layouts 1. ⃰ The phonetic control:

a. if the phoneme F, V looks like , teeth superior are too to vestibular

b. if phoneme V F resemble the lower teeth are too long

T c.dacă D hears that lower teeth are oralizaţi

d.dacă D hears that Tproteza is too thick in the from palates prayers.

e.toate variants are correct

p. 579

d

2. Unloading areas:

a. are localized areas by drawing on the model

b. exostozele bone among them

c. their thickness is transmitted to the laboratory by shading on the

template

d. the degree of foliation not vary

e. the technician sets unloading, depending on model

p. 581

a, b, c

3. ⃰ Artificial teeth side, wax layouts:.

a. can be mounted on tuberosity and tubers if necessary;

b. shall be fitted on the mid-rise;

c. curvature of their vestibular must be symmetrical;

d. the superior must follow the law by Pound;

e. all that apply

p. 569

b

4. ⃰ Test, Buchmann / Ismail:

a. consists dripping wax on the the upper lateral teeth occlusal face, and

achieve some swallowing;

b. consists dripping wax occlusal tooth face lower side, and performing

the Valsalva maneuver several times;

c. consists dripping wax on the the upper lateral teeth occlusal face, and

making Valsalva maneuver several times;

d. consists dripping wax occlusal tooth face lower side, and achieve

some swallowing;

e. No variable is correct.

p. 576

d

5. Engraving of the model:

a. is made by the technician;

b. shall be made by the physician, patient presence;

c. is performed by a physician, in the absence of the patient;

d. is greater, for horizontal curbs;

e. is greater for vertical curbs;

p. 581

b, e

6. ⃰ When sample with a spatula is positive, it means that:

a. gear unit front and side is right

b. gear unit side is false

c. gear unit side is butt

d. gear unit side is reversed.

e. No variable is correct

p. 577

b

7. Examining the patient, his mouth half open, with the models in the oral

cavity:

a. intended as upper lateral teeth occlusal face is not visible;

b. aims to fit the 6 upper front, between canines lines

c. seeks to fit the 6 upper front between incisive and medio-sagittal

lines;

d. between vestibular faces of premolars and cheeks, there is no space.

e. No variable is correct.

p. 575

a, b

8. ⃰ If maintaining of the superior layout wax teeth, is poor:

a. the insertion of both models and indicate their solidarity with loops of

wire.

b. is shown in the first time, the insertion layout mandible;

c. shall be repeated evidence from functional impression ;

d. it is indicate to recovery the layout;

e. all options are correct.

p. 571

b

Theme 68 - P. 583-593

Checking and adjustment of the complete dentures 1. To reduce feelings of vomiting:

a. is recommended peripheral truncal anesthesia;

b. Rinse mouth with lukewarm water

c. Rinse mouth with hot water;

d. is recommended pulling flexed knee with both hands to the chest

e. recom leaving shoulders forced down

p. 588

D, E

2. The treatment of xerostomia can be done with:

a. articaine

b. novocaine;

c. substances choleretic

d. Pilocarpine

e. all correct answers

p. 588

C, D

3. Carriers of dentures:

a. should avoid soft foods

b. must appear on their first 48 hours after insertion of prostheses

c. may have mouth full and abundance salivation

d. should use toothpaste to washing dentures, no soap and water

e. should not wear dentures at night than indications physician

C, E

p. 591-592

4. The treatment of xerostomia can be done with:

a.xilină;

b. choleretic;

c. adrenaline;

d. articaine;

e. artificial saliva

p. 588

B, E

5. Overpressure areas:

a. be identified by clinical examination;

b. is identified with a silicone control;

c. shall be identified with the aid of a pressure indicator paste;

d. appear as mucosal areas from which pasta indicator was deleted in its

entirety

e. no correct version

p.586

B, C

6. The phonetic control:

a. is pronounced "Mississippi" to verify neutral color

b. phonetic test is performed first;

c. decide "Mississippi" to verify the minimum space speech;

d. be verified pronunciation F and V

e. no correct version.

p. 589

B, C

7. The phonetic control with two prostheses in the oral cavity:

a. may arise as a Zaza S emission phonemes if border superior to oral

too

b. phonemes S emission can occur as a ZaZa, where senior border, too

for vestibular

c. S phoneme emission can occur as a whistle, if inferior border, are to

vestibular

d. check for minimum space speech

e. all that apply

p. 590

A, D

8. Check maintaining of total prosthesis maxillary

a. it can be done when the patient holds open mouth

b. can be done when the patient holds the maximum open mouth

c. seeks adherence maxillary prosthesis

d. seeks maxillary denture stability

e. all that apply

p. 588-589

A, C

Theme 69. - P. 593-601

Prosthetic stomatitis to complete edentulous 1. Basal immediate reactions:

a. are the result of errors in impression

b. are the consequence of inadequate laboratory technology

c. accordingly, an embodiment of inadequate internal face of the

prosthesis

d. are the result of the irregular pattern of prosthetic field

e. the treatment of their injuries is different than the marginal

p. 596

C, D

2. ⃰ Marginal delayed reactions:

a. are the result of errors in impression

b. accordingly, an embodiment of inadequate internal face of the

C

prosthesis

c. may be caused by clogging of dentures worn long

d. does not require differential diagnosis with malignant oral lesions

e. occur more frequently in the piriform tubers

p. 596

3. ⃰ Marginal hyperplasia:

a. is maifestă through different pathological forms

b. the treatment consists in tumor excision and biopsy

c. is due to the action while margins denture irritation

d. as a form can also be epulis

e. all that apply

p. 597

E

4. Conjunctive epithelial hyperplasia:

a. may appear as fringes

b. are allergic in nature

c. may be caused by general diseases

d. appear especially in the lingual

e. in the jaw occur in the vestibule

p. 598

A,E

5. Atrophic chronic candidosis:

a. is the result of chronic irritation react to

b. Her appearance is not linked to the existence of local or general

factors predisposing

c. in clinically manifested not varied

d. is a rare

e. present acute and chronic forms with different degrees of severity

p. 599

D,E

6. Stomatitis:

a. their pathological lesions are manifested in several stages

b. does not require differential diagnosis

c. not inflammatory

d. the first stage of their own, is the erythematosus

e. their second stage, is at erythematosus

p.601

A,D

7. Local factors involved in the occurrence of stomatitis, are

a. haemopathies

b. Vascular disease

c. old age

d. self-cleaning

e. imperfections execution prosthesis

p.593-594

D,E

8. ⃰ Stomatitis:

a. First stage is characterized by redness;

b. The second stage is ulcerative;

c. The third stage is exudative;

d. Their first stage is characterized by epithelial degeneration

phenomena

e. no correct answer

p.601

A

Theme 70 - P.693-703

Reoptimization of the removable dentures 1. Times operators of direct lining are:

a. the removal of a layer of a, 5-1mm from the internal face of the saddle

b. sprinkling the surface of the monomer milled

c. shaping the edges of the prosthesis, as well as functional impression

d. shaping the edges of the prosthesis by the doctor

e. all that apply

p.694-695

A, B, C

2. Final Lining:

a. is the only direct

b. it is only indirectly

c. the materials used are elastic consistency

d. the materials used have increased degree of porosity

e. no correct version

p.696

C , D

3. ⃰ Preparation of fragments of the prosthesis, in order to retention acrylate:

a. is a stage work in direct lining

b. it is a step in the indirect lining

c. stage work includes the creation of a space of 3-4 mm between

fragments

d. Work includes the step of reducing the thickness 5-7 mm fragments

parallel to the fracture

e. all that apply.

p.699-700

D

4. If supplementing, one or more teeth, a partial denture adhesive:

a. the prosthesis retention is not achieved for the teeth to be replaced.

b. paste acrylate, will apply to the portion of the teeth in the key position

c. fitting teeth will be without key bucco-occlusal

d. fitting teeth will make bucco-occlusal key

e. no correct version.

p.702

B,D

5. Indirect Lining:

a. is made in the laboratory;

b. no risk of oral mucosal irritation;

c. is rapid;

d. has low consumption of materials;

e. no correct version

p.695

A, B

6. If repair, a simple fracture of the prosthesis, two fragments.

a. the repair is made with light cured acrylate

b. Self-curing acrylic repair is done;

c. if the fragment is small sizes, there is an alginate impression

d. if the fragment is small sizes, there is a impression elastic materials

e. No variable is correct

p.700

B, D.

7. The objectives of the lining are:

a. increased adhesion;

b. brake horizontal motion;

c. reduced sensitivity of the mucosal coverage

d. occlusal rebalancing

e. no correct version

p.693-694

A,B

8. When replacing a wire crochet: B,C,D

a. be recorded, alginate impression

b. Create a place in prosthetic plate in place will enter the queue

crocheted

c. The bodice is made of elastic wire

d. usually old queue crochet determines exactly where is the abode of

the prosthetic plate

e. all that apply

p.701-702