Tests for examination on general surgey and semiology (years 2020-2021) 1. What is antisepsis? 2. Specify historical periods in the development of antisepsis. 3. Who is the founder of modern antisepsis? 4. Which antiseptic was used by Joseph Lister to destroy microorganisms in the

wound? 5. Why does Joseph Lister remain in the history of surgery as the founder of

antisepsis? 6. Specify current types of antisepsis. 7. What type of antisepsis is most frequently used in surgery? 8. Purulent wound is drained by gauze dressing imbibed with Betadine. What type

of antisepsis was used? 9. Wound irrigation through the drain with Dioxidine solution is referred: 10. How is wound toilet performed? 11. Which of these surgical measures are related to mechanical antisepsis? 12. Which of the following refers to mechanical antisepsis? 13. What characterizes correctly the primary surgical processing of wound? 14. Edges and bottom of the infected wound were excised. What type of antisepsis

was used? 15. Which of the following surgical measures are related to mechanical antisepsis? 16. To the methods of physical antisepsis in treatment of wounds refers: 17. To the methods of physical antisepsis refers: 18. What is common in the principles of action of hygroscopic dressing material and

hypertonic saline solution? 19. Which of the following are the methods of wound drainage? 20. An active drainage of a purulent focus involves: 21. A flow-irrigative drainage of purulent focus involves: 22. Specify additional methods of physical antisepsis. 23. What is characteristic of the method of wound treatment into isolator with

abacterial environment? 24. The effect of cavitation, having a devastating effect on microorganisms in the

wound, is caused by the action of: 25. What is effect of high-energy surgical laser, as an additional method of wound’s

processing? 26. Irradiation with ultraviolet rays is effective in: 27. To chemical antisepsis refers administration of: 28. What is a chemical antiseptic Cidex? 29. Specify chemical antiseptics from the group of haloids. 30. Specify the chemical antiseptics, used for local irrigation of wounds. 31. In what kind of infection the local use of boric acid is particularly effective? 32. Which antiseptic agent has both bactericidal effect and mechanical action,

cleaning the wound of pus and foreign bodies in local application? 33. Specify the correct statements that characterize metronidazole. 34. Which of the antiseptics can be used both locally and systemically (orally or

parenterally)? 35. Unlike antiseptics, disinfectants are used for: 36. Specify the antibiotics which are used in surgery. 37. Specify the principles of rational antibiotic therapy.

38. How to administrate antibiotics correctly at admission of patient with severe surgical infection?

39. If prolonged antibiotic therapy is required, in order to avoid resistance of microorganisms to antibiotics, they should be replaced every:

40. What complications may occur during antibiotic therapy? 41. Which of the following methods relate to biological antisepsis? 42. What are the effects of curative serums in patients with surgical infections? 43. What is the action of bacteriophages in patients with surgical infections? 44. What are the effects of vaccines and anatoxins in patients with surgical infection? 45. What medications are related to biological antiseptics of direct action? 46. What medications are related to biological antiseptics of indirect action? 47. The actions of proteolytic enzymes in the infected wound are the following: 48. The most common types of nosocomial infection among all hospitalized patients

are: 49. The most common type of nosocomial infection among operated patients is: 50. Specify the criteria used for definition of term “surgical site infection”. 51. During what time frame development of septic process in the operating wound

after appendectomy is defined as nosocomial surgical site infection? 52. During what time frame development of septic process in the operating wound

after hernia repair with synthetic mesh is defined as nosocomial surgical site infection?

53. According to anatomical principle the surgical site infections are classified as: 54. According to the anatomical classification, deep surgical site infection involves: 55. In general surgery surgical site infection is most frequently caused by: 56. What is asepsis? 57. Endogenous infection can cause suppuration of postoperative wounds,

penetrating to the human body in the following ways: 58. Which of the following possible sources of infection belong to endogenous? 59. Specify the possible sources of endogenous infection. 60. Specify the possible sources of exogenous infection in a patient, who is operated

on for uncomplicated inguinal hernia? 61. It is planned to perform five surgical interventions during the day in one operating

room. What kind of procedure should be carried out first? 62. Specify necessary actions of a surgeon during preparation for surgery. 63. Operating bloc (department) is divided into the following areas of sterility: 64. How often is a general cleaning performed in the operating room? 65. Accepted critical threshold for contamination of air in the operating room is: 66. The methods of prevention of airborne infection in the operating room are: 67. What elements of surgical attire are not sterile? 68. What distinguishes the ideal (super sterile) operating room from the usual

operating room? 69. To the scrubbed (sterile) personnel working in the operating room refers: 70. What is the source of contact infection in surgery? 71. What physical methods of sterilization are used in modern asepsis? 72. What chemical methods of sterilization are used in modern asepsis? 73. Metallic surgical instruments are usually sterilized by: 74. Sterilization of metallic surgical instruments by dry heat is performed in the

following regime (time + temperature): 75. What method is used for sterilization of optical surgical instruments

(laparoscope)?

76. Standard regime of sterilization of surgical linens in autoclave is: 77. When closed the Schimmelbusch box keeps contents sterile during: 78. If the side holes of Schimmelbusch container are open, it can mean the following: 79. How surgeon's hands are decontaminated with alcohol before surgery? 80. Which antiseptic can guarantee complete sterilization of the surgeon’s hands

prior to surgery? 81. Sterile surgical gloves are considered contaminated and should be changed

during surgery if: 82. Maximum interval of time from the moment of shaving (depilation) of surgical site

till incision of the skin should not exceed: 83. Specify the rule of patient’s skin preparation before surgery. 84. Decontamination of the operating field with antiseptic solutions should be

repeated in the following stages of surgery: 85. An implantable device is a device, that is placed into a surgically or naturally

formed cavity of the human body, if it is intended to remain there for a period of: 86. Infection by implantation is characterized by the following: 87. Indicate the minimal quantity of pathogenic germs required for development of

surgical site infection (without implant in the wound). 88. Specify the sources of contamination by implantation of infected materials in

surgery. 89. Nowadays, the single acceptable method of sterilization of suture material is: 90. What characterizes the direct method of sterility control? 91. What method of sterility control of surgical instruments and dressing material is

the most accurate? 92. What is characteristic of indirect method of sterility control? 93. What is a nosocomial infection? 94. When antibacterial prophylaxis is not indicated? 95. When antibacterial prophylaxis is mandatory? 96. Indicate the “first-line” drugs for antibacterial prophylaxis in general surgical

interventions. 97. How to perform the antibacterial prophylaxis correctly? 98. Choose the correct definition of local anesthesia. 99. Choose the stages of local anesthesia. 100. What is the action of the local anesthesia upon the central nervous system? 101. Choose surgical interventions that may be performed under local anesthesia. 102. To the superficial local anesthesia refer: 103. Superficial local anesthesia is more frequently used in: 104. Advantages of local anesthesia comparing with general anesthesia are: 105. What concentrations of anesthetic solution are used for local tumescent

anesthesia? 106. Technique of local tumescent anesthesia by Vishnevsky’s method includes: 107. What substances are used for loco-regional (conductive) anesthesia? 108. What local anesthetics refer to the etheric type group? 109. Select the local anesthetics that can be administrated without previous skin test

for allergy. 110. Specify the contraindications for local anesthesia. 111. What local anesthetics refer to the amide type group? 112. Epidural anesthesia represent a variant of: 113. What types of local anesthesia refers to the regional anesthesia? 114. Select the correct statements regarding regional anesthesia.

115. Select the typical complications of spinal anesthesia. 116. During spinal anesthesia the puncture usually performed: 117. For prevention of spinal cord injury puncture during spinal anesthesia should be

performed at the level of: 118. Select the correct order of sensation loss during the spinal anesthesia. 119. During the spinal anesthesia the main volume of anesthetic substance is

introduced in: 120. Specify the causes of hypotension during spinal anesthesia. 121. Select surgical interventions that may be performed under spinal anesthesia. 122. Specify the contraindications for spinal anesthesia: 123. Specify the most frequent complication of spinal anesthesia. 124. Specify complications characteristic for spinal anesthesia. 125. Specify the correct statements regarding epidural anesthesia. 126. Epidural anesthesia can be used for: 127. For arterial bleeding is characteristic: 128. For venous bleeding is characteristic: 129. For capillary bleeding is characteristic: 130. According to anatomical classification, parenchymatous hemorrhage refers to: 131. Specify the possible mechanisms of bleeding occurrence. 132. On what basis bleeding are classified into “per diabrosin”, “per rhexin” и “per

diapedesin”? 133. The term “haemorrhagia per rhexin” means: 134. The term “haemorrhagia per diabrosin” means: 135. The term “haemorrhagia per diapedesin” means: 136. The direct causes of “haemorrhagia per diabrosin” may serve: 137. The direct causes of “haemorrhagia per diapedesin” may serve: 138. The internal bleeding include: 139. To the internal intracavitary bleeding refers: 140. Which of these bleeding refers to the internal intracavitary? 141. The accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity is called: 142. To the internal intraluminal bleeding refers: 143. To the manifestations of internal intratissular bleeding refers: 144. Purpura, which occurs in the internal intratissular bleeding, is called: 145. Ecchymosis, which occurs in the internal intratissular bleeding, is called: 146. Hematoma, which occurs in the internal intratissular bleeding, is called: 147. According to classification of bleeding by time of their development, the primary

bleeding occurs: 148. According to classification of bleeding by time of their development, early

secondary bleeding occurs: 149. The causes of early secondary bleeding are: 150. According to classification of bleeding by time of their development, late

secondary bleeding occurs: 151. The causes of late secondary bleeding are: 152. According to classification of hemorrhage on their evolution (intensity), bleedings

are divided into: 153. Acute blood loss of 750-1500 mL in an adult man, corresponds to circulatory

blood volume deficits: 154. In normal physiological conditions venous system contain: 155. Specify the life-threatening consequences of bleeding.

156. In case of bleeding, decrease of blood pressure and stimulation the baroreceptors of carotid sinus and aortic arch lead to:

157. Specify the compensatory reaction of human organism in the initial phase of hemorrhage.

158. Physiological mechanisms of compensation in case of bleeding are following: 159. The centralization of circulation in case of bleeding is characterized by: 160. The mechanism of compensatory hyperventilation (increased rate and volume of

respiratory movements) in case of bleeding is caused by: 161. Compensatory hemodilution in case of bleeding contributes to: 162. Specify the pathological phenomena of decompensation, which develop in the

human organism in hemorrhage. 163. Complaints of patients with chronic bleeding include: 164. Specify the general symptoms of hemorrhage. 165. Specify the local symptoms of hemorrhage. 166. What is hemoptysis? 167. Which of these symptoms are characteristic for epistaxis? 168. Specify the local symptoms of esophageal or gastric bleeding. 169. For what type of hemorrhage is characteristic melena? 170. A “coffee-ground” vomiting may be a manifestation of: 171. Which of these symptoms indicate hemorrhage from the large bowel? 172. What is metrorrhagia? 173. Specify the possible causes of hemoperitoneum. 174. In case of hemothorax is observed: 175. In case of hemoperitoneum is observed: 176. In case of hemarthrosis is observed: 177. The severity of blood loss is reflected by following laboratory parameters: 178. Specify the normal values of hematocrit. 179. The following parameters are requiring for determination of Allgower shock index: 180. The Allgower shock index is calculated by: 181. To estimate the volume of intraoperative blood loss according to Gross’s formula

are used: 182. Formulas of Moore or Nadler are used for: 183. What diagnostic methods are helpful for confirmation of hemothorax? 184. What diagnostic method is indicated to confirm the diagnosis of gastric bleeding? 185. What diagnostic methods may confirm the hemorrhage into the joint? 186. What diagnostic methods may confirm the intraperitoneal hemorrhage? 187. The process of blood coagulation includes three main phases: 188. Platelet clot formation occurs through the action of the following factors: 189. The intrinsic pathway of plasmatic coagulation is initiated by activation of: 190. The extrinsic pathway of plasmatic coagulation is initiated by activation of: 191. What factor of coagulation is activated at the end of both intrinsic and extrinsic

pathways of plasmatic coagulation? 192. Which of the following events refer to a common pathway of plasmatic

coagulation? 193. Specify the physiological mechanisms for restricting of local coagulation and

prevention of generalized uncontrollable intravascular coagulation. 194. The disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome manifests by the following

phenomenon: 195. The etiology of disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome includes:

196. In pathogenesis of disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome, the main cause of blood incoagulability is:

197. Specify clinical forms of disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome. 198. Specify the phases of disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome. 199. Specify the clinical symptoms of the first phase of disseminated intravascular

coagulation syndrome. 200. Specify the clinical symptom of the second phase of disseminated intravascular

coagulation syndrome. 201. What findings in laboratory parameters confirm the disseminated intravascular

coagulation syndrome? 202. Specify three main components of complex treatment for disseminated

intravascular coagulation syndrome. 203. What medications are indicated for the treatment of patients with disseminated

intravascular coagulation syndrome? 204. To the methods of temporary hemostasis refer: 205. Specify the methods of temporary hemostasis. 206. What methods of hemostasis refer to temporary? 207. What method of temporary hemostasis is the optimal during urgent surgery for

ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm? 208. Specify the principles of correct application of hemostatic tourniquet. 209. Where should be applied a hemostatic tourniquet in case of external arterial

bleeding from the wound of a shin? 210. Where should be applied a hemostatic tourniquet in case of external arterial

bleeding from the wound of a hand? 211. To stop bleeding temporary, the hemostatic tourniquet on a limb should be

applied for a period no more than: 212. Specify the possible complications of hemostatic tourniquet application on a limb

for more than 1.5 hours. 213. To the methods of definitive hemostasis refer: 214. Specify the methods of definitive hemostasis. 215. What methods of hemostasis refer to definitive? 216. Which of these types of bleeding require ligation of vessel at the distance from

the wound to achieve definitive hemostasis? 217. The methods of definitive hemostasis are classified depending on their nature to: 218. To the methods of definitive mechanical hemostasis refer: 219. What methods of definitive hemostasis are indicated for injury of a common

femoral artery? 220. Specify the methods of definitive physical hemostasis. 221. Specify the methods of definitive chemical hemostasis. 222. Which of the following drugs are used for definitive chemical hemostasis? 223. The mechanism of hemostatic action of cyanoacrylate the following: 224. Specify the methods of definitive biological hemostasis. 225. Hemostatic sponges for local application contain: 226. Specify the main components of fibrin glue Tissucol and hemostatic sponge

Tachocomb, used for definitive biological hemostasis. 227. Who discovered the blood groups? 228. Who discovered the Rh factor? 229. The contemporary era in the development of transfusiology is characterized by

the following principles: 230. What is the blood group?

231. The first blood group is characterized by: 232. The second blood group is characterized by: 233. The third blood group is characterized by: 234. The fourth blood group is characterized by: 235. Ottenberg's rule: 236. The „universal recipient” (according to the Ottenberg's rule) is called individual

with: 237. The „universal donor” (according to the Ottenberg's rule) is called individual with: 238. Choose methods for determination (typing) of blood group according to AB0

system. 239. During determination (typing) of blood group with standard serums the following

actions are performed: 240. During the determination of blood group by serum-test, agglutination with all

standard serums (group I, group II and group III) was obtained. Indicate the correct blood group.

241. During the determination of blood group by erythrocyte -test, agglutination with standard erythrocytes of I, II and III blood groups was obtained. Indicate the correct blood.

242. During the determination of blood group with monoclonal antibodies (Tsoliclon-test), agglutinations with Tsoliclon Anti-A and Tsoliclon Anti-B was obtained. Indicate the correct blood group.

243. During the determination of blood group by serum-test, no agglutination was obtained with all standard serums (group I, group II and group III). Indicate the correct blood group.

244. During the determination of blood group with monoclonal antibodies (Tsoliclon-test), no agglutination was obtained with Tsoliclon Anti-A and Tsoliclon Anti-B. Indicate the correct blood group.

245. During the determination of blood group by serum-test, agglutination with standard serums of group II and group III was obtained and no agglutination with serum of group I was registered. Indicate the correct blood group.

246. During the determination of blood group by serum-test, agglutination with standard serum of group I and group II was obtained and no agglutination with serum of group III was registered. Indicate the correct blood group.

247. During the determination of blood group with monoclonal antibodies (Tsoliclon-test), agglutination was obtained with Tsoliclon Anti-A and no agglutination was registered with Tsoliclon Anti-B. Indicate the correct blood group.

248. During the determination of blood group with monoclonal antibodies (Tsoliclon-test), agglutination was obtained with Tsoliclon Anti-B and no agglutination was registered with Tsoliclon Anti-A. Indicate the correct blood group.

249. For determination of the Rh-factor is used: 250. What method of Rh-factor determination is used only in immunological

laboratory? 251. Method of blood autotransfusion is performed as follows: 252. Acute preoperative normovolemic haemodilution means the following measures: 253. In a patient with traumatic rupture of the spleen and hemoperitoneum, the blood

from abdominal cavity was collected using the “Cell Saver” device and transfused intravenously to the patient. How is called this method?

254. Blood reinfusion can be performed in case of: 255. Reinfusion of blood collected from the abdominal cavity is impossible in case of: 256. Choose the components of blood used in transfusiology.

257. Which of the following does not refer to the blood components? 258. Choose the plasma derivates used in transfusiology. 259. Which of the following does not refer to the plasma derivates? 260. Erythrocyte concentrate (packed red blood cells) is characterized by the

following: 261. What temperature is required for red blood cells concentrate preservation? 262. At what level of hemoglobin the transfusion of packed red blood cells is always

indicated? 263. At what level of hemoglobin the transfusion of packed red blood cells is not

recommended? 264. At what level of hemoglobin the indications for transfusion of packed red blood

cells depend on the clinical data (general condition of the patient, presence of concomitant diseases, severity of hypoxia)?

265. After a single dose of transfused packed red blood cells is expected an increase of hemoglobin level by an average:

266. After a single dose of transfused packed red blood cells is expected an increase of hematocrit level by an average:

267. Platelet concentrate is characterized by the following: 268. The platelet concentrate transfusion is indicated if: 269. Transfusion of the fresh frozen plasma: 270. Which of the following coagulation factors contains cryoprecipitate? 271. The plasma derivate thrombin is characterized by the following: 272. According to international classification the blood substitutes are divided into: 273. Choose the crystalloid blood substitutes. 274. Choose the colloidal blood substitutes. 275. Crystalloid blood substitutes are characterized by the following: 276. Colloidal blood substitutes are characterized by the following: 277. Which of the following effect cause transfusion of the Polyglucine (colloidal blood

substitute)? 278. Quality control of blood before transfusion include the following steps: 279. Test for individual compatibility according to AB0 system, performed before blood

transfusion, is based on agglutination between: 280. What test should be done prior of transfusion of fresh frozen plasma? 281. What test is not performed during the blood transfusion? 282. How is performed the biological test during blood transfusion? 283. The maximum allowed time from the moment of puncture of container with the

blood component until the end of transfusion is: 284. Specify the correct rate (rapidity) for transfusion of blood components. 285. From the start of transfusion, the patient's condition is assessed: 286. After completing of transfusion the patient's condition is assessed: 287. According to current classification, posttransfusion reactions and complications

are divided into: 288. Acute non-immune posttransfusion reactions and complications include: 289. Acute immune posttransfusion reactions and complications include: 290. The mild posttransfusion reactions are characterized by: 291. The posttransfusion reactions of moderate severity are characterized by: 292. The severe posttransfusion reactions are characterized by: 293. Within blood transfusion the recipient can be contaminated by the following

infections: 294. What periods do not refer to evolution of the hemolytic shock?

295. In all types of surgical pathology preoperative period starts: 296. Preoperative period in all surgical pathologies is finalized at the moment when: 297. Which of the following refers to the main goals of preoperative period? 298. Preoperative period includes the following stages: 299. Shtanghe’s and Ghence’s tests can be used in preoperative period for the

assessment of: 300. Specify the routine diagnostic tests done before any surgical intervention. 301. During the physical examination of a patient, admitted to the surgical department

for elective surgery, a surgeon finds the heart bruits and abnormal cardiac rhythm. What actions should be performed in such a case?

302. The most often system used for stratification of surgical risk is: 303. According to the ASA classification of surgical risk, a patient with life-threatening

concomitant disorders (comorbidities) supposed to emergency intervention should be classified as:

304. Choose the situation that serves as an absolute indication for surgery. 305. Specify the diagnosis which serve as absolute indications for surgery. 306. Specify the diagnosis which serve as relative indications for surgery. 307. What diseases or pathological conditions may be a contraindication for surgery in

case of severe active intraperitoneal bleeding? 308. What information should be provided to a patient during the preparation for

surgery? 309. Informed consent for surgery should be signed by: 310. Specify the situations when life-saving emergency surgery may be performed

without informed consent for surgery signed by patient. 311. What factors do not increase the risk of postoperative venous thromboembolism? 312. Specify the correct statements regarding postoperative pulmonary artery

embolism. 313. Indicate measures used for prevention of postoperative venous

thromboembolism. 314. Choose the correct regime of administration of antibiotics to prevent

postoperative surgical site infection. 315. Preparation of digestive tract for elective abdominal surgery includes: 316. Choose the examples of special preoperative care. 317. Preoperative conclusion must be written by: 318. Preoperative conclusion must include the following data: 319. Trendelenburg’s position of a patient on the operating table is used for: 320. “Anti-Trendelenburg’s position” of a patient on the operating table is used for: 321. Lateral position of the patient on operating table is used for surgical interventions

on: 322. Choose the steps of surgical intervention. 323. Patient was diagnosed with acute appendicitis and decision to operate was done.

During surgery the correctness of diagnosis should be confirmed at stage of: 324. The last step of surgical intervention includes: 325. Emergency surgery is performed in case of: 326. Elective surgery is performed in case of: 327. In a patient with advanced unresectable cancer of esophagus, an external

artificial fistula of the stomach (gastrostomy) was created surgically with the aim of enteral feeding. How is this type of surgery classified?

328. In a patient with inguinal hernia, resection of hernia sac, repair of inguinal channel and implantation of synthetic mesh were performed. How this type of surgery is classified?

329. Which of the following refers to diagnostic surgical interventions? 330. Two hours after stomach resection a patient was transported back to the

operating room due to abundant leakage of blood from the intraperitoneal tubes. Abdominal cavity was reopened to provide hemostasis. What is the correct term of surgical intervention?

331. Which of the following interventions refer to simultaneous surgery? 332. Which of the following interventions refer to combined surgery? 333. According to the classification by grade of infection, the bowel resection is

considered: 334. According to the classification by grade of infection, the gastric resection is

considered: 335. Specify local complications that can develop during surgical procedures in

general surgery. 336. The physiological stages of the postoperative period are: 337. Catabolic stage of the postoperative period is characterized by: 338. What physiological stage of the postoperative period is characterized by

synthesis of proteins? 339. Duration of the early postoperative period is: 340. Specify the complications characteristic of the early postoperative period. 341. Specify the complications characteristic of the late postoperative period. 342. Specify the complications, characteristic of the delayed postoperative period. 343. Gastric resection for peptic ulcer and cholecystectomy for gallstone disease were

performed during the same surgical intervention. How may this type of surgery be classified according to various principles?

344. Femoral-popliteal bypass for atherosclerosis and lower limb ischemia was associated with transection of lumbar sympathetic chain (sympathectomy) during the same surgical intervention. How may this type of surgery be classified according to various principles?

345. Specify the surgical instruments designed for dissection of tissues. 346. Specify the surgical instruments, designed for hemostasis. 347. Specify the surgical instruments, designed for grasping of tissues. 348. What retractor has teeth at the end of the working blade? 349. Specify mechanical retractors. 350. Specify the surgical instruments, designed for exploration. 351. Round surgical needles are used for suturing of: 352. Triangular (cutting) surgical needles are used for suturing of: 353. What curvature may a surgical needle have? 354. What are the requirements for suture materials used in surgery? 355. Specify the biological suture material used in surgery. 356. Specify the synthetic absorbable suture material used in surgery. 357. Specify the synthetic nonabsorbable suture material used in surgery. 358. According to classification of suture material, polypropylene refers to: 359. According to classification of suture material, kapron refers to: 360. According to classification of suture material, silk refers to: 361. The most safer knot, used in surgery is considered: 362. Specify the types of interrupted sutures, which are used for closure of skin

wounds in surgery.

363. Specify the types of continuous sutures, which are used for closure of skin wounds in surgery.

364. Why is weight deficit dangerous in surgical patients? 365. What are the main causes of malnutrition in surgical patients? 366. Deficiencies of weight in patients with cancer is caused by: 367. What signs of malnutrition may be detected on the inspection of patient’s skin? 368. What signs of malnutrition may be detected on the examination of patient’s

extremities? 369. What signs of malnutrition may be detected on the inspection of patient’s nails? 370. What signs of malnutrition may be detected on the examination of patient’s eyes? 371. What signs of malnutrition may be detected on the inspection of patient’s

tongue? 372. What data that predispose to malnutrition, can be found on examination of the

abdomen of patient? 373. Specify the most frequent clinical reasons for decrease of serum electrolyte

concentration. 374. Which of the following laboratory parameters most closely correlates with body

protein deficiency? 375. What alterations of immune function are characteristic for patients with

malnutrition? 376. What methods of the nutritional status assessment are related to anthropometric

ones? 377. The following indicators can be used for the assessment of body weight loss: 378. The calculation of the body mass index is done using the following formula: 379. Which of the following values of the body mass index correspond to normal

weight? 380. Which of the following values of the body mass index correspond to morbid

obesity? 381. Measurement of thickness of the triceps skin fold is used for assessment of: 382. Calculation of correlation between the thickness of the triceps skin fold and the

mid-arm muscle circumference is used to assess: 383. What methods are used to determine patients’ energy requirements? 384. In what surgical conditions the daily energy consumptions of patients are

maximal? 385. Enteral feeding is indicated for patients: 386. Enteral feeding is contraindicated for patients: 387. What ways are used for enteral feedings administration? 388. Energy value of standard solutions for enteral feeding is: 389. What enteral feeding solutions (formulas) are available? 390. What enteral feeding solutions are prepared from conventional food that can be

mixed? 391. What enteral feeding solutions are prepared for administration in specific clinical

situations (pulmonary, renal or hepatic failure, immune dysfunction)? 392. What enteral feeding solutions contain protein in the form of free amino acids? 393. What protocols of enteral feeding are used? 394. How frequently is recommended to introduce nutritional formulas in bolus

(fractional) enteral feeding? 395. What complications are characteristic of enteral nutrition? 396. Hyperglycemia refers to the following group of enteral nutrition complications:

397. Which patients have the greatest risk of tracheobronchial aspiration during the enteral feeding?

398. Parenteral nutrition is indicated for patients: 399. The types of parenteral nutrition are: 400. Specify the components which are included in solution for parenteral nutrition. 401. How should solutions for parenteral nutrition be administered? 402. What complications of total parenteral nutrition are distinguished? 403. What complications are common for morbid obesity? 404. Specify the most effective method of treatment for morbid obesity. 405. The common principle of gastroplasty in surgical treatment of morbid obesity is: 406. The local manifestations of wounds are the following: 407. Why should damage to the liver in blunt abdominal trauma be considered as a

rupture, rather than a wound? 408. What is the main clinical symptom, which distinguishes a wound from contusion? 409. What is the mechanism of traumatic injury in open fracture of extremity, when the

fragment of the broken bone perforates the soft tissue? 410. Pain in the wound is causes: 411. Severity of pain in a wound depends on the following factors: 412. In what circumstances the pain at injury (in the wound) can be significantly

reduced or absent? 413. Intensity of bleeding from a wound is determined by: 414. In what circumstances the injury, even small-caliber vessels may be

accompanied by severe bleeding, and to be life-threatening for patient? 415. What factors determine the degree of wound edges dehiscence? 416. What factors cause general clinical manifestations of wounds? 417. What wounds are considered to be intentional? 418. What wounds are distinguished according to the nature of traumatic agent? 419. What kind of damage does not refer to the classification of wounds by the nature

of traumatic agent? 420. To what type of wounds according to the nature of traumatic agent should be

attributed a surgical incision? 421. Specify the clinical features of stab wounds. 422. What is the mechanism of contusioned wound? 423. Specify the type of wounds, which is considered the most contaminated. 424. Specify clinical features of bite wounds. 425. According to the classification by grade of contamination, wounds are divided

into: 426. Which wound is considered as a contaminated one? 427. It is known that purulent process in the wound develops when the concentration

of microorganisms is more than: 428. What factors contribute to the development of infection in the wound? 429. What wounds of the abdomen should be considered as penetrating? 430. What zones of tissue alteration are distinguished in gunshot wounds? 431. The zone of molecular concussion in gunshot wounds is characterizes: 432. What features differentiate a gunshot wound? 433. What characterizes the perforating (through-out) gunshot wound? 434. Blind gunshot wound is characterizes by: 435. Tangential gunshot wound is characterizes by: 436. Wound healing process has the following phases:

437. What phase of wound healing process includes the period of angiogenesis and the period of wound cleaning?

438. Which periods includes the inflammation phase of wound healing process? 439. What is the approximate duration of the first phase of wound healing process

(phase of inflammation)? 440. Which of the following phenomena does not refer to the first phase of wound

healing process (phase of inflammation)? 441. Which of the following events refer to the first period (period of angiogenesis) of

the inflammation phase of wound healing process? 442. Which of the following events refer to the second period (period of wound

cleaning from necrotic masses) of the inflammation phase of wound healing process?

443. Which of the following cells play a key role in the first phase of wound healing process (phase of inflammation)?

444. What is the role of polymorphonuclear neutrophils in the first phase of wound healing process (phase of inflammation)?

445. What is the role of macrophages in the first phase of wound healing process (phase of inflammation)?

446. What is the role of lymphocytes in the first phase of wound healing process (phase of inflammation)?

447. Which of the following phenomena refers to the second phase of wound healing process (phase of proliferation)?

448. Which of the following cells play the main role in the second phase of wound healing process (phase of proliferation)?

449. What is granulation tissue? 450. What are physiological functions of granulation tissue? 451. The third phase of wound healing process (phase of epithelization and

reorganization of scar) is characterizes by: 452. The phenomenon of wound contraction during its healing explained by: 453. Wound epithelization begins: 454. Types of wound healing include: 455. Specify conditions, necessary for wound healing by primary intention. 456. Uncomplicated healing of surgical wound occurs: 457. Which of these wounds do not heal by secondary healing? 458. How do superficial wounds usually heal? 459. What complications occur in the first phase of wound healing process (phase of

inflammation)? 460. To local complication of wounds refers: 461. What complications occur in the third phase of wound healing process (phase of

epithelization and reorganization of scar)? 462. Which of the following refers to the measures of first aid for wounds? 463. In case of cut wound of the lower third of the calf with an external arterial

bleeding first medical aid should include: 464. How can secondary wound contamination be prevented during the first medical

aid? 465. In case of a large wound of the anterior abdomen with evisceration of inner

organs, the first medical aid consists in: 466. Describe the main components of the aseptic (surgical) wounds treatment. 467. In the treatment of surgical wounds pain is eliminated by: 468. In the treatment of surgical wounds dehiscence of borders is eliminated by:

469. Primary surgical debridement (processing) of contaminated wound includes: 470. At what stage of the primary surgical processing of wound can be established, if

the wound is penetrating or does not penetrate in the body cavities? 471. What are the options for the completion of primary surgical debridement

(processing) of contaminated wound? 472. In what cases is recommended do not suture the wound after its primary surgical

processing? 473. What types of wounds do not require the primary surgical processing? 474. What disadvantages are characteristic of secondary wound healing? 475. Primary sutures are placed on the wound: 476. Primary deferred sutures are placed on the wound: 477. Early secondary sutures are placed on the wound: 478. Late secondary sutures on the wound are placed: 479. What type of suture is applied after primary surgical debridement of gunshot

wound? 480. Specify principles of surgical debridement of purulent wounds. 481. Specify additional physical methods of purulent wound cleaning. 482. Specify medications that are recommended for the treatment of purulent wounds

in the first phase of wound healing process. 483. What is the purpose of local application of bandages with hypertonic saline

solution (10% solution of NaCl) in the first phase of wound healing process? 484. What are the advantages of local application of hydrophilic water-soluble

ointments on polyethylenglycol basis (Levosin, Levomikol) for the treatment of septic wounds?

485. Which of the following is used for early lysis and removal of necrotic tissue from the wound:

486. What is the purpose of local application of ointments in the second phase of wound healing process?

487. Specify medications that are recommended for the treatment of purulent wounds in the second phase of wound healing process.

488. Which of the following is used commonly for local treatment of wounds with already formed granulation tissue?

489. Which of the following is done in the appearance of signs of wound suppuration? 490. Central venous access is performed preferably by: 491. Which of the following can be indications for central veins catheterization? 492. Central venous access can be achieved through: 493. Placing the patient in the Trendelenburg position during jugular vein

catheterization: 494. Which kind of catheter is used to measure pressure in the pulmonary artery? 495. Choose the pathological states that require most frequently urgent

pericardiocentesis. 496. Which of the following condition can be an indication for installation of chest tube

(thoracostomy)? 497. Which of the given below refers to the complications of thoracentesis? 498. In case of pneumothorax thoracentesis is performed more frequently: 499. In case of hydrothorax thoracentesis is frequently performed: 500. Choose the aims of installation of nasogastric tube: 501. Which kind of tubes is used for esophagogastric hemostatic balloon tamponade

in variceal upper digestive bleeding?

502. Among the complications of esophagogastric balloon tamponade in variceal upper digestive bleeding may occur:

503. In case of variceal upper digestive bleeding esophagogastric balloon tamponade is indicated in:

504. In cases of upper digestive hemorrhage from varices with gastric localization hemostatic balloon tamponade is possible with:

505. In case of upper digestive bleeding from esophageal varices prolonged hemostatic balloon tamponade can cause:

506. To prevent esophageal mucosa necrosis following prolonged hemostatic balloon tamponade with Sengstaken-Blakemore tube it is recommended to:

507. Pathological conditions that can be diagnosed by anoscopy are: 508. Endoscopic examination with rigid sigmoidoscope allows the visualization of: 509. Which of the following catheters is used for urethral catheterization? 510. The complications of urethral catheterization are: 511. Laparocentesis is indicated in the following conditions: 512. Specify which of the listed conditions are related to surgical infection. 513. What infectious processes are related to acute specific surgical infection? 514. According to classification of surgical infection by clinical evolution, tuberculosis

refers to: 515. According to classification of surgical infection by clinical evolution, tetanus refers

to: 516. Specify the factors, which lead to the development of surgical infection. 517. Which biological characteristics of microorganisms determine the evolution of

surgical infection? 518. Specify the possible sources of surgical infection. 519. Specify the exogenous source of surgical infection. 520. Specify the non-specific mechanisms of the human body response to infection. 521. What is the role of mononuclear phagocytes in the inflammatory focus? 522. Which leukocytes provide the humoral immune response to surgical infection? 523. Specify the mechanism of skin hyperemia in purulent surgical infection of soft

tissues. 524. Specify the mechanism of skin hyperthermia in purulent surgical infection of soft

tissues. 525. Specify the mechanism of pain in purulent surgical infection of soft tissues. 526. Specify the mechanism of edema in purulent surgical infection of soft tissues. 527. Specify the cause of limb function disturbance in acute purulent surgical infection. 528. In surgical soft tissue infection pulsating pain is characteristic of the: 529. When the purulent cavity is formed, unlike infiltrative phase of inflammation, the

following symptoms can be revealed: 530. What does the symptom of fluctuations in surgical soft tissue infection suggest? 531. Specify the typical changes in blood analysis during acute surgical infection. 532. Specify the local complications of inflammatory processes, located on the soft

tissues of extremities. 533. What characterizes lymphangitis? 534. Specify the paraclinical methods used for the diagnosis of acute surgical infection

of soft tissues: 535. Specify the areas of the body, on which furuncles are not formed. 536. In case of furuncle purulent inflammation develops in: 537. Specify the phases of furuncle evolution. 538. Phase of healing and scarring in the evolution of furuncle occurs after:

539. In which cases hospitalization of patients with furuncle is required? 540. Which of the following symptoms is indicates reliably, that the furuncle in the

phase of abscess formation? 541. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a rare but very serious (and often fatal)

complication of a furuncle in its location on: 542. Conservative treatment of the patient with furuncle, complicated by cavernous

sinus thrombosis, have to include: 543. Purulent inflammation of sweat glands is called: 544. In case of hidradenitis a purulent inflammation develops in: 545. The typical localization of hidradenitis is: 546. Hidradenitis is characterized by the following features: 547. Which of the statements relating to abscess are correct? 548. Which of the statements relating to phlegmon are correct? 549. What differentiates the abscess from the phlegmon? 550. What is included in the surgical treatment of purulent focus? 551. What is the causative agent of furuncle and carbuncle? 552. Carbuncle is characterized by the following features: 553. Specify the rules of surgery for carbuncle. 554. In cases of suspected abscess of soft tissues the direct indications for surgery

are: 555. Common causative microbial agent of erysipelas is: 556. Specify the clinical forms of erysipelas. 557. Specify the clinical symptoms characteristic of the erythematous form of

erysipelas. 558. In what area of the body the erysipelas is most common? 559. What forms of erysipelas require surgical treatment? 560. Specify the components of a complex treatment of surgical infection? 561. What characterizes erysipeloid? 562. Puerperal mastitis develops: 563. The following forms of breast abscess are distinguished depending on the

location: 564. Specify the typical symptoms of acute mastitis. 565. Which of the following statements are correct? 566. Paraproctitis is: 567. Specify the forms of paraproctitis. 568. To development of pilonidal abscess contributes the accumulation in the cavity of

pilonidal cyst of: 569. What characterizes the pilonidal abscess? 570. Definitive surgery for pilonidal abscess consists in: 571. What characterizes the ingrowing toenail? 572. Penetration of pathogenic organisms in the soft tissues of hands most often

occurs: 573. In most cases, purulent processes on fingers and hands are caused by: 574. Specify the anatomical features of fingers and hand, which determine special

manifestations of the inflammatory process. 575. Tenosynovitis of which fingers can lead to the spread of infection into Pirogov-

Parona’s cellular space of forearm? 576. Specify the reasons of particularly expressed pain in felon, which is not

comparable with pains in purulent processes of other localization. 577. In purulent tenosynovitis necrosis of the tendons is caused by:

578. What location of abscess is defined as a felon? 579. Specify the superficial forms of felon. 580. Paronychia is defined as a localization of purulent process: 581. Specify the deep forms of felon. 582. What characterizes the cutaneous felon? 583. What form of panaritium is most likely, if on the palmar surface of thumb is

determined a small vesicle filled with a purulent content? 584. Specify the optimal method of anesthesia for the treatment of cutaneous

panaritium. 585. What includes surgical treatment of cutaneous felon? 586. What characterizes the subcutaneous felon? 587. How to determine the most painful site and, therefore, location of purulent

collection in case of subcutaneous felon? 588. Specify the most common method of anesthesia used for surgical treatment of

subcutaneous felon. 589. How to drain the purulent focus in subcutaneous felon? 590. What characterizes the paronychia? 591. Clapp’s incision (arcuate, parallel to the edge of the nail) is used for the treatment

of: 592. How to drain the purulent focus in paronychia? 593. What characterizes the purulent tenosynovitis? 594. Select the classic signs of Kanavel, described in pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis. 595. What incision is recommended for purulent tenosynovitis? 596. How to drain the purulent focus in purulent tenosynovitis? 597. What characterizes the bone felon? 598. Presence of bone sequesters in inflammation of hand fingers is observed in: 599. Radiographic changes at bone felon appear: 600. Specify the compound components of bone felon treatment. 601. Increasing of pain on percussion along the axis of finger is especially

characteristic for: 602. The term “pandactylitis” refers to: 603. A forced amputation of the finger is most often necessary for: 604. Specify the anatomical forms of deep palmar surface phlegmon. 605. Specify the anatomical forms of phlegmon of the dorsal hand surface. 606. Specify the correct statements regarding the “forbidden zone” of hand. 607. Through drainage by small incisions on the palmar and dorsal surfaces of hand in

the areas of interdigital folds is used for treatment of: 608. In phlegmon of the palmar surface the edema of the dorsal surface of hand: 609. The term “osteomyelitis” means: 610. Which bones are most often affected by acute hematogenous osteomyelitis? 611. Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis most often affects: 612. Hematogenous osteomyelitis is usually classified as acute in: 613. Hematogenous osteomyelitis is usually classified as chronic after: 614. In children the most frequent form of osteomyelitis is: 615. Metaphyseal localization of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis results from: 616. In the first week of disease the clinical manifestations of acute hematogenous

osteomyelitis are: 617. What symptoms of inflammation appear in acute hematogenous osteomyelitis

first of all?

618. Which of the following affirmations are related to the acute hematogenous osteomyelitis?

619. What clinical form of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is the most common? 620. Specify clinical manifestations which allow early diagnosis of acute

hematogenous osteomyelitis? 621. Which of the following can be present in case of acute hematogenous

osteomyelitis? 622. Appearance of fluctuation in acute hematogenous osteomyelitis suggests: 623. The specific radiological signs of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis appear after: 624. Specify the indirect radiographic signs, that can be observed in acute

hematogenous osteomyelitis during the first 2 weeks of disease. 625. Specify the radiographic signs, typical for acute hematogenous osteomyelitis. 626. Specify the radiographic signs, characteristic of chronic osteomyelitis. 627. Specify the operations that are performed for treatment of chronic osteomyelitis. 628. Specify the operations that are performed for acute osteomyelitis. 629. Conservative treatment of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis includes: 630. Which of the following are used for treatment of acute septic arthritis? 631. Specify the clinical symptoms of bursitis. 632. Conservative treatment of bursitis includes: 633. What laboratory data are useful for diagnosis of acute septic arthritis: 634. According to what principle fractures are divided into open and closed ones? 635. Depending on features of the fracture line, the bone fractures are classified into: 636. Relative symptoms of bone fractures are: 637. Absolute symptoms of bone fractures are: 638. Pathological fracture may be caused by: 639. Which type of fractures is characterized by highest probability of bacterial

contamination of the bone? 640. Indicate the phases of fracture healing. 641. The dislocation is considered to be acute in the first: 642. Indicate the correct affirmations regarding the first aid in case of dislocation: 643. Which of the following fractures are termed as „complicated”: 644. Specify the types of immobilization used for holding of fracture until union. 645. Specify the most common complication of open fractures. 646. Specify the standard types of bone reduction in case of fracture. 647. In fractures the first medical aid includes: 648. Specify the splints used for first aid (transport immobilization) in fracture: 649. The O’Hare / Diterihs traction splint is used for: 650. In open fractures the first aid does not include: 651. What is sepsis? 652. Which of the following clinical phenomena is characteristic for sepsis? 653. What is bacteremia? 654. What is septicemia? 655. What is septicopyemia? 656. Which of the following statements about sepsis is true? 657. The following criteria are used to diagnose systemic inflammatory response

syndrome (SIRS): 658. Which of the following confirms the presence of systemic inflammatory response

syndrome (SIRS)? 659. What combination of patients’ parameters is corresponding to presence of

systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)?

660. Choose the definition of “severe sepsis”? 661. Specify the reasons of increasing incidence of sepsis at present. 662. The increased risk of sepsis have: 663. Specify the three cytokines of major importance in the pathogenesis of sepsis. 664. Which of the following refers to generalized effects caused by cytokines in

sepsis? 665. What are the main mechanisms of multiple organ failure in sepsis? 666. What is the mechanism of bacterial translocation phenomenon that leads to

sepsis and multiple organ failure? 667. What classifications of sepsis are used? 668. Specify the microbial agent, which is least likely to cause sepsis. 669. Which of the following types of sepsis is observed most commonly in clinical

practice? 670. The clinical diagnostics of severe sepsis is based on: 671. The laboratory diagnosis of severe sepsis is based on: 672. Which of the following results of investigations is crucial to confirm the diagnosis

of sepsis? 673. The positive blood culture in sepsis with isolation of Bacteroides fragiles

suggests, that source of infection most likely is situated in: 674. What characterizes the surgical treatment of primary purulent focus in sepsis of

soft tissues? 675. Specify the rules of antibiotic therapy administration in sepsis. 676. Specify the terms – synonyms of soft tissue anaerobic clostridial infection. 677. The most frequent causative bacterial agent of gas gangrene is: 678. Which biologic effects are caused by alpha exotoxin of Clostridium perfringens? 679. Forming of gas in the soft tissues is a classical characteristic of the following

types of infection: 680. Specify the wounds with high risk of anaerobic clostridial infection of soft tissues

(gas gangrene) development. 681. What pathophysiological mechanisms contribute to the development of ischemia

and create anaerobic conditions in anaerobic clostridial infection of soft tissues (gas gangrene)?

682. Anaerobic clostridial infection of soft tissues (gas gangrene) is classified in the following forms:

683. Spontaneous anaerobic clostridial infection of soft tissues (gas gangrene) most commonly develops in patients:

684. Specify the typical clinical signs of soft tissue anaerobic clostridial infection (gas gangrene).

685. What is Melnikov's test in anaerobic clostridial infection of soft tissues (gas gangrene)?

686. Crepitus defined on palpation in anaerobic clostridial infection of soft tissue is associated with:

687. In anaerobic clostridial infection of soft tissues (gas gangrene) affected muscles: 688. Which of the following imaging and laboratory studies are the most informative

for the diagnosis of anaerobic clostridial infection of soft tissues (gas gangrene)? 689. In anaerobic clostridial infection (gas gangrene) identification of gas layers in soft

tissues during radiographic examination or CT scan is also called: 690. What are histopathological findings in anaerobic clostridial infection of soft

tissues (gas gangrene)?

691. What is the aim of longitudinal incisions (fasciotomy) in anaerobic clostridial infection (gas gangrene) of extremity?

692. Which of these additional methods is optimal for the treatment of anaerobic clostridial infection of soft tissues (gas gangrene)?

693. Specify additional non-surgical treatment methods of anaerobic clostridial infection of soft tissues.

694. Specify the microorganisms responsible for anaerobic non-clostridial infection of soft tissue.

695. What are the typical clinical signs of anaerobic non-clostridial infection of soft tissue?

696. Non-clostridial anaerobic infection can clinically manifest as phlegmon with extensive damage of the following tissues:

697. Specify methods, which may be helpful for the diagnosis of anaerobic non-clostridial infection of soft tissue.

698. The complex treatment of patients with anaerobic non-clostridial infection includes:

699. What is the most common source of infection in tetanus? 700. Which of the following statements are true characteristics of tetanus? 701. Specify the correct classification of tetanus. 702. What form of tetanus is less dangerous? 703. Which symptoms are common for generalized tetanus? 704. What is trismus, which occurs in tetanus? 705. Local tetanus is characterized by: 706. What characterizes the initial clinical manifestations of tetanus? 707. Paraclinical diagnosis of tetanus is based on: 708. Specify the appropriate curative measures in patients with tetanus. 709. Specify measures for tetanus prevention. 710. What does the term “symptom” mean? 711. Specify which of the following conditions refers to symptoms. 712. What does the term “syndrome” mean? 713. Specify the examples of pathological syndromes. 714. What parts of a history of disease include subjective information? 715. What parts of a history of disease include objective information? 716. In surgical patients percussion can determine: 717. In surgical patients auscultation can determine: 718. Specify the data from a history of disease relating to the description of local

status. 719. Preliminary diagnosis is based on the following data: 720. Clinical diagnosis is based on the following data: 721. Final (definitive) diagnosis is made based on the following components: 722. Specify characteristic features of torticollis. 723. The diagnosis of torticollis is made on the basis of: 724. Specify characteristic features of inflammatory lesions of cervical lymph nodes. 725. Specify characteristic features of metastatic tumor lesions of cervical lymph

nodes. 726. Specify the rules of palpation of the thyroid gland. 727. Specify the most common benign tumors of the head. 728. To acquired deformities of the chest refers: 729. To congenital deformities of the chest refers: 730. The most common congenital deformity of the chest wall is:

731. What characterizes pectus excavatum? 732. In pectus excavatum the depression is centered commonly at the: 733. What are the complaints of a patient with pectus excavatum? 734. In patients with pectus excavatum the severity of symptoms is determined by: 735. What characterizes “bird chest” (pectus carinatum)? 736. On side inspection of patients with “bird chest” (pectus carinatum) the deformity

usually is maximal: 737. What are the complaints of a patient with “bird chest” (pectus carinatum)? 738. What forms of the sternal fissure are distinguished? 739. In superior sternal fissure is revealed: 740. What is the Poland’s syndrome? 741. What is the Poland’s syndrome? 742. What characterizes the Poland’s syndrome? 743. What characterizes the “barrel” chest? 744. What lung diseases can lead to the development of “barrel” chest? 745. What characterizes the paralytic chest? 746. Emphysematous chest is also called: 747. How the inspection of patient is performed to determine lordosis and kyphosis of

spine? 748. Concavity (anterior direction) of the spine is called: 749. Convexity (posterior direction) of the spine is called: 750. Specify the physiological curvatures of the spine. 751. Specify the pathological anteroposterior spine deformities. 752. Flattering of the spinal curvature (dorsum platum) is often caused by: 753. Lumbar hyperlordosis of the spine is caused by: 754. Thoracic hyperkyphosis of the spine is caused by: 755. What is gibbus? 756. What are the main causes of gibbus? 757. Specify the correct landmarks, which are identified on examination of patient with

diseases of the spine from behind. 758. How is the lateral twist of spine called? 759. How is the inspection of patient performed to determine the scoliosis? 760. Which of the following is characteristic of lateral tilt of the spine as a result of

muscle spasm? 761. What are the causes of structural scoliosis? 762. What is the most common cause of functional scoliosis? 763. Which of the following is characteristic for structural scoliosis? 764. For functional scoliosis is characteristic: 765. Palpation of the spine is performed: 766. Specify some risk factors for breast cancer in women. 767. Congenital anomalies of the breast are: 768. Inflammatory diseases of the breast include: 769. Dyshormonal diseases of the breast include: 770. Which of the following diseases refers to anomalies of the breast? 771. What is characterized polythelia correctly? 772. Which of the following is characteristic of aberrant breast? 773. Inspection of the breast is performed in following positions of patient: 774. When is it better to perform prophylactic physical examination of the breast? 775. On examination of the breast the correct sequence is the following:

776. What is the purpose of breast examination, when woman press her hands against her hips?

777. What signs can be noted during visual inspection of the breast? 778. In which diseases during the inspection may be observed redness of the breast

skin? 779. On inspection of the breast that is affected by inflammatory process, is noted: 780. Symptoms of contraction in case of the breast tumors include: 781. Unilateral nipple retraction is usually a sign of: 782. Adenocarcinoma of the breast is characterized by: 783. What should be suspected if the areola and nipple are covered with erosions and

crusts? 784. Postpartum mastitis is also called: 785. Palpation of the breast is done in lying position of a patient with her arm rested

over her head with all fingers flat on the breast; compress the tissue gently in a rotary motion against the chest wall. This technique is called:

786. Palpation of the breast by method of Velpeau is performed according to the following rules:

787. What pathological symptom can be identified both on inspection and palpation of the breast?

788. Specify the synonyms of the term “mastopathy”. 789. The clinical presentation of mastopathy includes the following symptoms: 790. What occurs in case of mastopathy in the mammary gland? 791. What is the symptom of mastopathy, when palpable mass is in upper right

position disappears in repeated palpation in a lying position? 792. How are called the sectors, into which the mammary gland is divided

conventionally? 793. Which characteristics are obligatory in the description of palpable breast mass? 794. Breast tumor is attached to the ribs and intercostal muscles, if on palpation: 795. Breast tumor is attached to the pectoral fascia, if on palpation: 796. Sometimes palpation of the breast may detect a mass with its usual subareolar

location, which is called: 797. Nonpuerperal galactorrhea is characterized by the following features: 798. With the presence of bloody discharge from the nipples should be suspected: 799. In case of purulent discharge from the nipple should be suspected: 800. Central axillary lymph nodes are located: 801. Specify the optimal position of patient during palpation of central axillary lymph

nodes. 802. If there is a suspicious on the breast mass, and the central axillary lymph nodes

fell large, hard, or tender, the following groups of lymph nodes should be detected:

803. Malignant breast tumors metastasize to the: 804. Rules of the breast self-examination are the following: 805. Specify the imaging and instrumental methods in suspicious on breast diseases. 806. What diagnostic test is used for screening for early detection of breast cancer? 807. Pathological enlargement of the breast in men is called: 808. What is gynecomastia? 809. The main causes of gynecomastia are the following: 810. The method of choice for treatment of idiopathic gynecomastia is: 811. In men breast cancer: 812. Symptoms of breast cancer in men are the following:

813. The term “acute abdomen” is: 814. The diagnosis of “acute abdomen” is: 815. Which of the following diseases, given rise to the symptoms of “acute abdomen”

have an inflammatory nature? 816. Which of the following diseases, causing the clinical picture of “acute abdomen”,

does not relate to inflammatory ones? 817. Which of the following conditions are accompanied by perforation of a hollow

organ into the peritoneal cavity? 818. Which of these conditions does not refer to perforation of a hollow organ into the

peritoneal cavity? 819. Which of the diseases, causing the clinical picture of “acute abdomen”, is related

to the syndrome of “acute intestinal obstruction”? 820. Which of the following diseases is accompanied by intraperitoneal hemorrhage? 821. Which of the following diseases is not accompanied by intraperitoneal

hemorrhage? 822. Which of the following extraabdominal diseases can cause the clinical picture of

“acute abdomen”? 823. Specify the management options for patients, who presented with “acute

abdomen”. 824. Which of the following diseases is typical for children? 825. Which of the following diseases is not typical for pediatric patients? 826. Which of the following diseases is typical for patients older than 60 years? 827. Which of the following diseases is characteristic for middle-aged patients? 828. In visceral pain irritation from the gastrointestinal organs is distributed by: 829. In somatic pain irritation from the gastrointestinal organs is distributed by: 830. What characterizes visceral pain in “acute abdomen”? 831. What is the character of visceral pain in “acute abdomen”? 832. What characterizes somatic pain in “acute abdomen”? 833. What is the character of somatic pain in “acute abdomen”? 834. In which of the following conditions abdominal pain has a visceral nature? 835. For descriptive purposes the abdomen is divided into: 836. The epigastric part of abdomen includes: 837. The mezogastric part of abdomen includes: 838. The hypogastric part of abdomen includes: 839. In which abdominal disease patients may indicate the exact time of the onset up

to a minute? 840. Which of the following diseases are characterized by a gradual increase of

abdominal pain intensity? 841. Which of the following diseases usually starts after weightlifting or abrupt change

of body position? 842. What variants of pain are typical for acute abdominal surgical diseases? 843. Which of the following diseases is accompanied by a “knife-like” pain in the

abdomen? 844. Where is abdominal pain caused by disorders of the small intestine initially

localized? 845. Shifting of pain from the epigastrium to the right iliac fossa suggests: 846. Abdominal cramps are typical for: 847. “Knife-like” pain in the abdomen is characteristic of: 848. Radiation of pain in the inferior angle of the right scapula is characteristic in:

849. For disease of what organs is characteristic radiation of pain back into sacral area?

850. Radiation of pain to the top of the shoulder on the side of lesion occurs in: 851. “Like a belt” radiation of abdominal pain is characteristic of: 852. In which pathology pain intensity is so high that the patient does not find a place

(restlessness)? 853. In which diseases abdominal pain will be increased on deep inspiration? 854. In patients with “acute abdomen” vomiting is caused by: 855. What is the character of vomiting in acute appendicitis? 856. In which acute abdominal surgical diseases vomiting is not characteristic? 857. Which acute abdominal surgical diseases are accompanied by repeated

vomiting? 858. Frequent and bilious vomiting is typical for: 859. In what illness does “feculent” vomit occur? 860. The absence of passage of stool and gas is an early symptom of: 861. In patients with “acute abdomen” thirst is a sign of: 862. In what acute surgical diseases of the abdominal organs are especially

characteristic thirst and xerostomia? 863. “Hippocratic face” in a patient with advanced peritonitis is characterized by a

combination of the following symptoms: 864. Which of the following combinations of symptoms characterizes the “Hippocratic

face” in a patient with advanced peritonitis? 865. Which of the given diseases is characterized by “tilting doll” symptom? 866. When is the "tilting doll" symptom positive? 867. In what acute abdominal diseases in patients is often seen jaundice? 868. Symmetric distension of the abdomen usually occurs in: 869. Asymmetric distension of the abdomen usually occurs in: 870. In patients with tumors of the pancreatic head can be detected Courvoisier sign,

which represents:

871. Specify the correct position of patient during abdominal palpation.

872. On abdominal palpation the patient's position should be: 873. What is the purposes of superficial palpation of the abdomen? 874. What can be revealed during superficial palpation of the abdomen? 875. Palpation of the abdomen begins with: 876. Superficial palpation of the abdomen should begin: 877. In patients with “acute abdomen” muscular resistance develops due to: 878. Muscular resistance of the anterior abdominal wall is not characteristic in patients

with: 879. In which pathology muscular tenderness of the anterior abdominal wall is so firm,

continuous and extended, that it is defined as "board-like" abdomen? 880. What extraabdominal diseases may be accompanied by muscular resistance of

the abdominal wall? 881. In which clinical situations muscular resistance may be very slight even in the

presence of serious peritonitis? 882. Positive Blumberg’s symptom in case of peritonitis is determined by: 883. Choose two correct versions of the determination of psoas-symptom, which is

revealed in retroperitoneal inflammation? 884. In which of the following diseases of the abdominal cavity can be detected diffuse

dullness on abdominal percussion?

885. In which acute surgical diseases of abdominal organs disappearance of liver dullness can be detected?

886. The presence of free fluid in the abdominal cavity is determined clinically by: 887. “Plash sound” appears on auscultation and percussion of the abdomen as a

result of: 888. Peristalsis of the intestine should be heard: 889. Aortic bruits in abdominal aortic aneurysm should be heard in: 890. In which of the following conditions may loud borborygmi (peristalsis) be

determined by auscultation? 891. In which of the following diseases the intestinal peristalsis on auscultation is

absent? 892. What are the most likely causes of the disease in patient with the onset of pain in

the abdomen accompanied by temperature of 40-41˚C? 893. On admission the temperature of patients with acute appendicitis is usually: 894. In which of the following acute abdominal diseases body temperature of patient

may be subnormal (to 35-36˚С)? 895. Specify the correct statements, relating to traumatic injuries. 896. About half of all deaths occur within seconds or minutes of injury and are related

to: 897. In patients with severe trauma the “golden hour” is called: 898. During the second mortality peak (first hours after injury) the percentage of death,

caused by trauma, is: 899. During the first “golden hour” after severe injury by early treatment can be

prevented many of deaths, related to: 900. Which of the following factors are of main importance in biomechanics of blunt

trauma? 901. The term “katatrauma” means: 902. The term iatrogenic injury means: 903. In accordance to character of damage agent traumas are divided into: 904. What type of trauma is classified as multiple? 905. What type of trauma is classified as associated (polytrauma)? 906. Which of the following injuries are related to isolated trauma? 907. Which of the given injuries are related to associated trauma (polytrauma)? 908. Which of the following injuries are related to multiple trauma? 909. Which of the following injuries relates to multiple trauma? 910. What periods are distinguished in traumatic disease? 911. Which of the following statements characterizes the period of traumatic shock in

traumatic disease? 912. Which of the following statements characterizes the period of early

manifestations in traumatic disease? 913. In what period of traumatic disease the traumatized patient may develop an

acute toxemia and septicopyemia? 914. Which of the following statements characterizes the period of late disturbances in

traumatic disease? 915. The length of convalescence period in traumatic disease is: 916. Mechanisms of primary brain injury after trauma include: 917. Mechanisms of secondary brain injury after trauma include: 918. What local symptoms may suggest severe head trauma (eg, fractures of the skull

base)?

919. Which of the following signs is related to general neurological symptoms after head trauma?

920. Which of the following signs is related to focal neurological symptoms after head trauma?

921. What is a unilateral hemiparesis in case of traumatic brain injury? 922. What is a unilateral paralysis in case of traumatic brain injury? 923. How is called the pupillary’s diameter difference due to traumatic brain injury? 924. Glasgow scale is used to determine: 925. Which parameters in Glasgow scale are used to determine the level of

consciousness in head trauma? 926. Which of the following head injuries cause only general neurological symptoms? 927. Which of the following head injuries cause both general and focal neurological

symptoms? 928. Specify the mildest form of brain injury. 929. Which type of hematoma does not lead to cerebral compression in head injury? 930. Skull fractures are divided into: 931. Which of the given symptoms does not occur in brain concussion? 932. Which of the following symptoms suggest cerebral compression by posttraumatic

hematoma? 933. What do neurological symptoms determine in intracranial hematomas? 934. What is the main method of treatment for intracerebral hematomas? 935. In case of the chest injury subcutaneous emphysema suggests: 936. What symptoms are always determined in rib fractures? 937. Which of the following signs allows to determine clinically rib fracture? 938. What are the clinical manifestations of floating rib fractures (flail chest)? 939. What characterizes the phenomenon of “paradoxical” breathing in case of flail

chest (type of rib fracture)? 940. What symptoms are characteristic of flail chest? 941. Specify the correct statements, relating to sternal fractures. 942. What does the tympanic sound on percussion of the chest suggest in case of

injury? 943. In case of trauma dullness on percussion of the chest suggests: 944. Specify the symptoms of simple (closed) pneumothorax. 945. What treatment is recommended, if simple pneumothorax is large enough to be

seen on plain chest radiograph? 946. “Valve” pneumothorax is also called: 947. What is characteristic of tension pneumothorax? 948. What symptoms are helpful to differentiate tension (valve) pneumothorax from a

closed (simple) pneumothorax? 949. What emergency curative measure is indicated in tension pneumothorax? 950. Open pneumothorax is characterized by: 951. Open pneumothorax is diagnosed based on the following signs: 952. What clinical symptoms are similar in hemothorax and pneumothorax? 953. Which of the following clinical signs of hemothorax does not occur in

pneumothorax? 954. Possible urgent surgical maneuvers in hemothorax include: 955. Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of injuries of trachea and major

bronchi? 956. Characteristic features of the cardiac tamponade are: 957. The symptoms that constitute the triad of Beck in cardiac tamponade are:

958. Specify the triad of Beck in cardiac tamponade. 959. Which three symptoms are combined into the triad of Beck in traumatic cardiac

tamponade? 960. Symptoms of traumatic aortic rupture include: 961. Unilateral dullness on percussion with appearance of peristaltic sounds over the

affected side of chest is revealed in case of: 962. Which of the following causes of esophageal traumatic injuries are iatrogenic by

origin? 963. Esophageal injuries reveal the following symptoms: 964. When is abdominal wound considered to be penetrating? 965. What is the main purpose of examination of patients with abdominal trauma? 966. Which clinical syndromes are distinguished in abdominal trauma with inner

organs damage? 967. The term “limb ischemia” means: 968. The syndrome of “limb ischemia” is classified in: 969. Choose the possible causes of the development of acute limb ischemia. 970. Peripheral arterial embolism is manifested with syndrome of: 971. Specify the most frequent cause of the development of chronic limb ischemia. 972. The term “arterial aneurysm” means: 973. Arterial aneurysms are divided according to cause of development into: 974. Patient suffered a knife wound at the region of femoral artery. Three months later

the pulsatile mass was determined at the medial part of the thigh. Indicate the correct variants of diagnosis.

975. Specify the typical complications of arterial aneurysms. 976. Choose the diseases that are manifested by the syndrome of chronic venous

insufficiency. 977. Specify pathogenic mechanisms of chronic venous insufficiency of the lower

limbs. 978. Limb lymphedema is classified into: 979. The patient complains of repeated leg pain that develops during walking some

distance. The pain is severe enough to force the patient to stop walking and it disappears after a short rest. What symptom is described?

980. The typical position of the patient with critical lower limb ischemia is: 981. Choose the characteristics of rest pain caused by chronic lower limb ischemia: 982. Sensorial disorders (paresthesia, hypo- or anesthesia) and motor deficit (paresis,

paralysis) are characteristic of: 983. The symptom of “heavy legs” which develops at the end of working day and

disappears after night rest is characteristic of: 984. What data from patient’s history of life are important for the diagnosis of limb

ischemia? 985. What comorbidities (concomitant diseases) are typical for patients with acute limb

ischemia caused by arterial embolism? 986. What events from the history of patient’s life are important for diagnosis of

secondary lymphedema of extremities? 987. On examination of lower limb varicose veins the correct position of the patient is: 988. What is characteristic of edema caused by acute limb ischemia? 989. What is characteristic of edema caused by proximal (iliofemoral) deep vein

thrombosis of lower limb? 990. What is characteristic of edema caused by chronic venous insufficiency of lower

limb?

991. Büerger-Ratschow symptom in case of chronic ischemia consists in: 992. “Phlegmasia cerulea dolens” is: 993. Specify clinical signs, which are characteristic of the final stage of acute limb

ischemia: 994. The following clinical signs are characteristic of damp gangrene of extremity: 995. Thrombosis of superficial varicose veins of lower limbs (varicothrombophlebitis)

is characterized by: 996. Syndrome of chronic venous insufficiency of lower limbs is characterized by: 997. What symptoms are not characteristic of the syndrome of chronic venous

insufficiency of lower limb? 998. Palpation of pulse on the brachial artery may be performed in the: 999. Palpation of pulse on the femoral artery is performed in the: 1000. Palpation of pulse on the popliteal artery is performed: 1001. In approximately 10% of healthy persons the pulse cannot be palpated upon: 1002. In arteriovenous fistula the following symptoms can be determined by palpation: 1003. The Branham symptom is considered positive if: 1004. The group of symptoms known as “6Р” is characteristic of: 1005. Choose the typical symptoms of acute ischemia of lower limb. 1006. Choose the signs that do not refer to the “6Р” group of symptoms. 1007. The main danger related to thrombosis of the great saphenous vein is: 1008. Specify the symptoms characteristic of deep vein thrombosis of lower limbs. 1009. In vascular semiology acute pain in the calf muscles during passive dorsal flexion

of the foot is considered as a positive: 1010. What tests are used for clinical demonstration of venous reflux in the great

saphenous vein in patients with varicose veins disease? 1011. What clinical test can be used for assessment of permeability of the deep veins

of lower limb before varicose veins surgery? 1012. Systolic bruit above big arteries suggests: 1013. Systolic-diastolic permanent bruit (“engine sound”) over the major artery is

characteristic of: 1014. Systolic bruit in the popliteal fossa should raise the suspicion to: 1015. Auscultation of which of the following arteries is useless in case of chronic

ischemia of lower limbs? 1016. Which of these factors cause directly tissue necrosis? 1017. Which of the following factors causes tissue necrosis indirectly? 1018. What are characteristic features of gangrene? 1019. Which of the following factors does not influence the development of “circulatory”

necrosis? 1020. Specify the components of the Virchow's triad, which represent the pathogenic

mechanism of vascular thrombosis. 1021. Specify the typical localization of trophic ulcers in the syndrome of chronic

ischemia. 1022. Dry gangrene is characterized by the following features: 1023. Moist gangrene is characterized by the following features: 1024. Which of the following is necrosis? 1025. Specify the organs, in which gangrene can develop. 1026. Specify the organs, in which the development of necrosis is called infarction. 1027. Specify the common causes of trophic ulcer development. 1028. Which of these fistulas are congenital? 1029. Which of these fistulas are acquired?

1030. Specify the external fistulas. 1031. The following types of fistulas are distinguished depending on the nature of

tissue lining the fistulous tract: 1032. Surgically created artificial communication between two hollow organs is called: 1033. Artificially created communication between a hollow organ and the external

environment is called: 1034. Pathological communication between two hollow organs is called: 1035. Pathological communication between a hollow organ and the external

environment is called: 1036. Specify the common location of bedsores? 1037. Specify the phase of bedsore development? 1038. Choose the correct statements about diabetes mellitus. 1039. Specify clinical conditions which correspond to diabetic foot syndrome definition

provided by WHO. 1040. Foot ulcer develops in: 1041. Most frequently lower limb amputations are performed in: 1042. Pathogenetic classification of diabetic foot includes the following clinical forms of

disease: 1043. Specify the most frequent form of diabetic foot. 1044. Specify the form of diabetic foot which most frequently results in major

amputation. 1045. Somatic diabetic neuropathy is responsible for: 1046. Autonomic diabetic neuropathy is responsible for: 1047. Plantar callus formation results in: 1048. In diabetic foot syndrome critical pressure for ulcer development is equal to: 1049. Screening for diabetic foot syndrome includes the following tests: 1050. Select the right descriptions of Semmes-Weinstein test technique. 1051. Neuropathic form of diabetic foot is characterized by: 1052. Ischemic form of diabetic foot is characterized by: 1053. For confirmation of circulatory disturb in ischemic form of diabetic foot the

following methods are used: 1054. Specify the methods of vascular imaging used in diagnostic work-up of patients

with ischemic form of diabetic foot: 1055. The method of choice for diagnostics of osteomyelitis in diabetic foot syndrome

is: 1056. What effects have the elevated glucose blood level upon immune system of

patient? 1057. What index reflects most exactly the grade of metabolic compensation in type II

diabetes mellitus? 1058. Choose the target level of HbA1C in patients with diabetic foot syndrome. 1059. If a probe reaches the bone during probing of plantar diabetic ulcer this suggests

a high probability of: 1060. Superficial infection of diabetic foot involves: 1061. Deep infection of diabetic foot involves: 1062. Diabetic foot infection associated with SIRS is classified according to the

international classification as: 1063. Specify the clinical symptoms characteristic for grade 4 diabetic foot infection

according to the international classification. 1064. Specify the abnormal changes in the laboratory tests, characteristic for diabetic

foot infection.

1065. Superficial full-thickness diabetic ulcer (not extending through the subcutis) is classified according to Wagner classification as:

1066. Ulcer with exposed tendon or bone without osteomyelitis or abscess is classified according to Wagner classification as:

1067. Deep ulcer with osteomyelitis or abscess formation is classified according to Wagner classification as:

1068. Localized gangrene of toes or the forefoot is classified according to Wagner classification as:

1069. Foot with extensive gangrene is classified according to Wagner classification as: 1070. Grade 0 diabetic foot according to Wagner classification means: 1071. Grade 1 diabetic foot according to Wagner classification means: 1072. Grade 2 diabetic foot according to Wagner classification means: 1073. Grade 3 diabetic foot according to Wagner classification means: 1074. Grade 4 diabetic foot according to Wagner classification means: 1075. Grade 5 diabetic foot according to Wagner classification means: 1076. Choose the classifications of diabetic foot. 1077. Choose the drugs which are used for the treatment and prevention of vascular

complications in patients with diabetic foot syndrome: 1078. The complex treatment of ischemic form of the diabetic foot Wagner grade IV

should include: 1079. The complex treatment of neuropathic form of the diabetic foot Wagner grade III

should include: 1080. The most important factors which influence selection of correct curative strategy

in patients with diabetic foot are: 1081. Specify the methods effective for treatment of ischemia in diabetic foot syndrome. 1082. The duration of antibacterial treatment in case of diabetic foot with osteomyelitis

usually is: 1083. Choose the correct statements regarding VAC-therapy (Vacuum Assisted

Closure) in diabetic foot syndrome. 1084. A successful kidney transplant from a living donor for the first time was performed

by: 1085. What fundamental discoveries formed the basis for the development of

transplantation? 1086. What organs and tissues for transplantation can be extracted from a living donor? 1087. What organs and tissues for transplantation can be extracted only from a dead

donor? 1088. Specify the clinical signs of brainstem death, which are evaluated for possible

organ transplantation. 1089. After extraction of organs for transplantation, the longest time in conditions of

cold ischemia outside the body can be maintained: 1090. The period of warm ischemia in organ transplantation begins: 1091. In what types of transplantation does not develop a reaction of rejection? 1092. Which of these types of transplantation is called orthotopic? 1093. Which of these types of transplantation is called heterotopic? 1094. Which of these options of organ transplantation refers to xenogeneic transplant? 1095. Which of these options of organ transplantation refers to syngeneic transplant? 1096. Which of these options of organ transplantation refers to allogeneic transplant? 1097. The use of non-organic or synthetic materials for replacement of tissues and

organs is named:

1098. Specify the antigens of histocompatibility responsible for rejection of transplanted organs and tissues in humans?

1099. Specify the types of rejection reaction, occurring in transplantation. 1100. Specify the causes of hyperacute transplant rejection. 1101. Specify the cause of acute transplant rejection. 1102. Specify the cause of chronic transplant rejection. 1103. Prevention of transplant rejection in the postoperative period consists in: