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The PIB, The Hindu & Yojna Based Current Affairs Prelims '2020 Test Series
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.” Bhagwat Gita
Detailed Test Wise Schedule
Test No. Test Date PIB The Hindu Yojana
1 16th June, 2019 Sep-18 Sep-18 Sep-18
2 30th June Oct-18 Oct-18 Oct-18
3 14-Jul Nov-18 Nov-18 Nov-18
4 28-Jul Dec-18 Dec-18 Dec-18
5 11-Aug Jan-19 Jan-19 Jan-19
6 25-Aug Feb-19 Feb-19 Feb-19
7 8 SPETEMBER Mar-19 Mar-19 Mar-19
8 22-Sep Apr-19 Apr-19 Apr-19
9 6-Oct May-19 May-19 May-19
10 20-Oct S&T and Env. (International Organization
Website and The Hindu, PIB)
11 3-Nov IYB & International Organizations ,Govt. Schemes and
Reports
12 17-Nov Comprehensive 2018-19
13 1-Dec Comprehensive 2018-19
14 15-Dec Jun-19 Jun-19 Jun-19
15 29-Dec-19 Jul-19 Jul-19 Jul-19
16 12-Jan-20 Aug-19 Aug-19 Aug-19
17 26-Jan Sep-19 Sep-19 Sep-19
18 9-Feb Oct-19 Oct-19 Oct-19
19 23-Feb Nov-19 Nov-19 Nov-19
20 8-Mar Dec-19 Dec-19 Dec-19
21 22-Mar Jan-20 Jan-20 Jan-20
22 5-Apr Feb-20 Feb-20 Feb-20
23 19-Apr Mar-20 Mar-20 Mar-20
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.” Bhagwat Gita
24 3-May Apr-20 Apr-20 Apr-20
25 17-May May-20 May-20 May-20
26 24-May IYB & International Organizations ,Govt. Schemes and
Reports, S&T
27 27-May Comprehensive 1
28 31-May-20 Comprehensive2
Important Features of this Test Series
1) No of Questions (Total 2000 questions)
Each Test will be conducted on Bi-Weekly basis and will have 100 questions each.
2) Sources
• Science reporter PIB
• Yojana
• The Hindu
• Budget 2020
• India Year Book
• Environment Org Website
3) Coverage SEPTEMBER 2018 till May 2020
4) Complementary : Tit Bits Pictorial Magazine by DEFOCUS Sir for last minute Quick
Revision.
Important Features of our Online Test Platform
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• Download questions and answers in PDF format after taking the test • Detailed explanation for each question, time taken, comparison etc will be available
along with Graphical Analytics on test platform
• There is no fixed time to take the test. It’s flexible.
• The validity of the tests is from the date of your joining till 5th June 2020
“Some Interesting Facts”
- 70% UPSC Questions during last 5 years are from current
- S&T, Economy and Environment have 90% questions from
current
- PIB, Yojana and India Year book are most reliable but most
ignored sources during our preparation
“We will give you web links of original source to
establish the credibility of our questions”
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COMPUTER BASED MCQ TEST
Explanation for each question
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TESTS PORTAL
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Detailed Test Analysis Screen
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QUESTION SELCTED FROM OUR CURRENT TEST SERIES’19 IN PRELIMS 2019 GS PAPER
S.No. UPSC-GS-2019 (PRE) WriteToBeIAS.com’ Current Test Series
1 Attal innovation mission is
set up under the
1. (a) Department
of science of
technology
2. (b) Ministry of
labour and
employment
3. (c) NITI Ayog
4. (d) Ministry of
skill development
and entrepreneurship
TEST-16-49) ‘Atal Innovation Mission’ is flagship
scheme of –
(a)NITI Aayog
(b)PMO
(c) Department of Science and Technology
(d)None of the above
Ans: a
Exp: Atal Innovation Mission’ is flagship scheme of
NITI Aayog
Atal Innovation Mission
Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is NITI Aayog’s
flagship initiative to promote a culture of innovation
and entrepreneurship in India. The Atal Innovation
Mission has thus two core functions:
Innovation promotion: to provide a platform where
innovative ideas are generated.
Entrepreneurship promotion: Wherein innovators
would be supported and mentored to become
successful entrepreneurs at Incubation Centres.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=1367
54
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TEST-17-50) The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a
flagship initiative set up by which of the following?
(a) Ministry of Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Health and family Welfare
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) ISRO
Ans: c
Exp: The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship
initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote
innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and
breadth of the country, based on a detailed study and
deliberations on innovation and entrepreneurial needs
of India in the years ahead.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=15527
00
2 Which one of the following
are Agasthyamala biosphere
reserve?
1. (a) Neyyar ,
peppara and
shendurney wildlife
sanctuaries and
kalakad
mundanthurai tiger
TEST-16-8) Consider following -
1. Great Nicobar
2. Agasthyamala
3. Khangchendzonga
Which of the above given above is/are m), has been
included in the UNESCO’s World Network of
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Bhagwat Gita
reserve
2. (b) Mudumalai
sathayamangalam
and Wayanad
wildlife sanctuaries
and silent valley
national park
3. (c) Kaundinya
gundla
bhrameshwaram and
papikonda wildlife
sanctuaries and
mukurthi national
park
(d) Kawal and Shree
Venkateshwara wildlife
sanctuaries; and
nagarjunasagar-srisailam
tiger reserve
Biosphere Reserve (WHBR)?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d)All of the above
Ans: d
Exp: Great Nicobar-2013; Agasthyamala-2016;
Khangchendzonga-2018
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-
environment/khangchendzonga-biosphere-reserve-
enters-unesco-list/article24659847.ece
3 Consider the following
statements:
1. Under Ramsar
convention, it is mandatory
on the part of the
Government on India in
protect and conserve all the
wetlands in the territory of
India
2. The Wetlands (
Conservation and
Management) Rules, 2010
were framed by the
Government of India based
on the recommendations of
TEST-6-44) One of the largest and longest running
monitoring programmes in the world, the International
Waterbird Census (IWC) is conducted by-
(a)Wetland International
(b)IUCN
(c)UNESCO
(d)Ramsar Convention
Ans: a
Exp: Wetland International coordinates one of the
largest and longest running monitoring programmes in
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Bhagwat Gita
Ramsar convention.
3. The Wetlands (
Conservation and
Management) Rules, 2010
also encompass the drainage
area or catchment regions of
the wetlands as determined
by the authority
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
the world, the International Waterbird Census (IWC).
4 Consider the following
statements:
1. Agricultural soils release
nitrogen oxides into
environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia
into environment.
3. Poultry industry release
reactive nitrogen compounds
into environment.
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 2 only
TEST-21-69) Nitrogen pollution is caused by
emissions from:-
1. Chemical fertilizers
2. Livestock manure
3. Burning fossil fuels
Which of the options given above is/are correct.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
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4. (d) 1,2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Ans: c
Exp: All are correct.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-
environment/18-indian-institutions-to-study-nitrogen-
pollution/article26082806.ece
TEST-23 & 26-39) Which of the following
contributes maximum for nitrogen pollution?
(a)Agriculture activities
(b) Cattle emissions
(c) Fuel Combustion
(d) Residential activities
Ans: a
Exp: Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of
N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste
water (12%) and residential and commercial activities
(6%). Since 2002, N2O has replaced methane as the
second largest Greenhouse Gas (GHG) from Indian
agriculture.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-
environment/un-meet-dilutes-indian-plan-to-phase-
out-single-use-plastic/article26556292.ece
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TEST-21-68) Consider the following statements:
1. In impact on global warming, Nitrous oxide (N2O)
is 300 times more potent than carbon dioxide.
2. Ammonia (NH3) and Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) do
not contribute to poor air quality.
Which statement/statements given above is/are
correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Ans: a
Exp: Gases such as ammonia (NH3) and nitrogen
dioxide (NO2) contribute to poor air quality and can
aggravate respiratory and heart conditions, leading to
millions of premature deaths across the world.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-
environment/18-indian-institutions-to-study-nitrogen-
pollution/article26082806.ece
5 Consider the following
statements about particularly
Vulnerable Tribal Groups
(PVTGs) in India:
TEST-17-77) Consider the following statements:
1. A pre-agricultural system of existence.
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1. PVTGs reside in 18 states
and one union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining
population is one of the
criteria for determining
PVTG status.
3. There are 92 PVTGs
officially notified in the
country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi
tribes are included in the list
of PVTGs.
Which of the statements
given above are correct?
1. (a) 1,2 and 3
2. (b) 2,3 and 4
3. (c) 1,2 and 4
4. (d) 1,3 and 4
2. Zero or negative population growth.
3. Extremely low level of literacy.
Which of the above is/are criteria to get the status of
“Particularly vulnerable tribal group” in India?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: d
Exp: Groups that satisfied any one of the criterion
were considered as PTG- A pre-agricultural system of
existence; Zero or negative population growth;
Extremely low level of literacy.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=15541
40
6
statements:
1. As per recent amendment
to the india Forest Act, 1927,
forest dwellers have the right
to fell the bamboos grown
on the forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled
Tribes and Other Traditional
Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest
Rights) Act, 2006,bamboo is
TEST-22-57) Consider following statements:
1. Chhattisgarh has the distinction of having largest
number of PTGs among all the States and Union
Territories of India.
2. Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
recognizes the rights to hold and live in the forest land
under the individual or common occupation for
habitation or for self-cultivation for livelihood.
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a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and
other Traditional Forest
Dwellers ( Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act , 2006
allows ownership of minor
forest produce to forest
dwellers.
Which of the following
statements given above
is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: Orissa has the distinction of having largest
number of PTGs among all the States and Union
Territories of India. Scheduled Tribes and other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest
Rights) Act, 2006 recognizes the rights to hold and
live in the forest land under the individual or common
occupation for habitation or for self-cultivation for
livelihood.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-
states/expedite-implementation-of-forest-rights-
act/article26232103.ece
TEST-23-1) Consider following statements:
1. The process of verification of the claims of forest-
dwelling Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
Forest Dwellers (OTFD) is initiated by District
Magistrate.
2. An appeal would lie with the sub-divisional level
committee against the Gram Sabha’s decision on
claims.
3. This committee is formed by the State government.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: c
Exp: The process of verification of the claims of
forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and Other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFD) is initiated by
none other than the local Gram Sabha. The Scheduled
Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Rules of 2007
mandates that the gram Sabha Coram should have
adequate representation from Scheduled Tribes,
primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural
communities.
An appeal would lie with the sub-divisional level
committee against the gram sabha’s decision on
claims. This committee is formed by the State
government. A second appeal can be filed with the
district level committee, whose decision over the
claims of forest rights would be final and binding.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-
court-order-on-eviction-consistent-with-its-stand-on-
forest-rights/article26358075.ece
7 Consider the following
statements :
TEST-24-80) Consider the following statements with
respect to Biodiversity Management Committees
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The Environment Protection
Act, 1986 empowers the
Government of India to
1. State the requirement of
public participation in the
process of environmental
protection, and the procedure
and manner in which it is
sought
2. Lay down the standards
for emission or discharge of
environmental pollutants
from various sources.
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor
2
(BMC)
1. Environment Protection Act (EPA) 1986
mandates all local bodies to setup BMC.
2. The BMC consists of a Chairperson, and six
persons nominated by local bodies, including
1/3rd women and 18% SC/ST.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp:
As per the National Biological Diversity Act
2002, the local bodies constitute the
Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC).
The BMC consists of a Chairperson, and six
persons nominated by local bodies, including
1/3rd women and 18% SC/ST.
Kerala is the first state in India to have
completed the formation of Biodiversity
Management Committees (BMC) in all local
self-government institutions.
National Green Tribunal (NGT) has recently
directed the Ministry of Environment and
Forests (MoEF) to submit a report on
constitution of Biodiversity Management
Committees (BMC) at the local level in every
state within three months.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/a-register-
by-the-people/article23495949.ece
8 As per the solid waste
management Rules, 2016 in
TEST-17-13) Consider the following Statements:
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India , which one of the
following statements is
correct?
1. (a) Waste
generator has to
segregate waste into
5 categories.
2. (b) The Rules are
applicable to notified
urban local bodies,
notified towns and all
industrial township
only.
3. (c) The Rules
provide for exact and
elaborate criteria for
the identification of
sites for landfills and
waste processing
facilities.
4. (d) It is
mandatory on the
part of waste
generator that the
waste generated in
one district cannot be
moved to another
district.
1. Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has
notified the new Solid Waste Management Rules
(SWM), 2016.
2. The generator will have to pay “User Fee” to the
waste collector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1and 2
(d) Neither 1nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and
Climate Change (MoEF&CC) has notified the new
Solid Waste Management Rules (SWM), 2016.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/no-
construction-sans-solid-waste-
policy/article24856872.ece
9 With reference to the
management of minor
minerals in India, consider
the following statements :
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’
according to the prevailing
TEST-12-45) The Government enacted the Panchayat
Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996.
Which one of the following is not identified as its
objective?
(a) To provide self-governance
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Bhagwat Gita
law in the country.
2. State Governments have
the power to grant mining
leases of minor minerals, but
the powers regarding the
formation of rules related to
the grant of minor minerals
lie with the Centre
Government.
3. State Governments have
the power to frame rules to
prevent illegal mining of
minor minerals.
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
only
(b) To recognize traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
(d) To free tribal people from exploitation
Ans: c
Exp: The Gram Sabha will maintain a Gram Sabha
Kosh whichwill consist of the contribution received in
any form including voluntary contributions of cash
and goods and the labour of villagers; amount
received through the government from minor forest
produce, minor minerals etc; and surcharges imposed
on the consumption of the resources or fines levied by
the Gram Sabha. The Gram Sabha will have the
complete right of its usage as per its own decisions.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-
states/the-pathalgadi-rebellion/article23530998.ece
10 Consider the following
statements :
1. Most of India’s external
debt is owed by government
entities.
2. All of India’s external
debt is denominated in US
dollars.
Which of the statements
TEST-21-57) Which of the following is/are included
in Public Debt of India:-
1. Small savings
2. Provident funds
3. External debt
4. Treasury bills
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Bhagwat Gita
given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor
2
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: c
Exp: In India, public debt refers to a part of the total
borrowings by the Union Government which includes
such items as market loans, special bearer bonds,
treasury bills and special loans and securities issued
by the Reserve Bank. It also includes the outstanding
external debt.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-
business/centres-debt-to-gdp-falls-states-
rises/article26065459.ece
11 In the context of India,
which of the following
factors is/are
contributor/contributors to
reducing the risk of a
currency crisis?
1. The foreign currency
earnings of India’s IT sector.
2. Increasing the government
expenditure.
3. Remittances from Indians
abroad.
Select the correct answer
TEST-13-40) Consider the following-
1. The rise in crude oil prices.
2. The rise in India’s forex reserves.
3. The rise in imports.
4. The rise in Exports.
Which of the above is/are causes for Rupee
depreciation?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Bhagwat Gita
using the code given below.
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. (c) 2 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: a
Exp: 2 and 4 does not cause currency depreciation.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-
opinion/rupee-rout/article23907514.ece
12 Consider the following
statements :
1. As per law, the
Compensatory Afforestation
Fund Management and
Planning Authority exists at
both National and State
levels.
2. People’s participation is
mandatory in the
compensatory afforestation
programmes carried out
under the Compensatory
Afforestation Fund Act,
2016.
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
TEST-12-2) Consider the following statements about
‘CAMPA’–
1. It is meant to promote afforestation and
regeneration activities as a way of compensating for
forest land diverted to other forest uses.
2. State CAMPA would provide an integrated
framework for utilizing multiple sources of funding
and activities relating to protection and management
of forests and wildlife.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
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3. (c) Bth 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor
2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management
and Planning Authority (CAMPA) are meant to
promote afforestation and regeneration activities as a
way of compensating for forest land diverted to non-
forest uses.
State CAMPA would provide an integrated framework
for utilizing multiple sources of funding and activities
relating to protection and management of forests and
wildlife. Its prime task would be regenerating natural
forests and building up the institution engaged in this
work in the State Forest Department including training
of the forest officials of various levels with an
emphasis on training of the staff at cutting edge level
(forest range level). In short, the department would be
modernized to protect and regenerate the forests and
wildlife habitat.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/anti-forest-
anti-forest-dweller/article23437396.ece
TEST-9-19) Consider following statements-
1.Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and
Planning Authority (CAMPA) was envisaged as an
independent body that would manage a corpus —
collected from industries that have used forest land for
projects.
2. The funds collected under CAMPA directly go into
the Public Account and from there on to the states.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management
and Planning Authority (CAMPA) was envisaged as
an independent body that would manage a corpus —
collected from industries that have used forest land for
projects.
The funds collected under CAMPA directly go into
the Public Account and from there on to the states.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/key-
ministries-disagree-over-campa-
fund/article22360616.ece
13 With reference to Asian
Infrastructure Investment
Bank (AIIB), consider the
following statements :
1. AIIB has more than 80
member nations.
2. India is the largest
shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any
members from outside Asia.
TEST-1-2) Consider following statements regarding
‘AIIB’-
1. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is
a multilateral development bank with a mission to
improve social and economic outcomes in Asia.
2. It invests in sustainable infrastructure and other
productive sectors in Asia and beyond
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Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
only
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
(AIIB) is a multilateral development bank with a
mission to improve social and economic outcomes in
Asia. Headquartered in Beijing, we began operations
in January 2016 and have now grown to 93 approved
members worldwide. By investing in sustainable
infrastructure and other productive sectors in Asia and
beyond, we will better connect people, services and
markets that over time will impact the lives of billions
and build a better future.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=15350
69
TEST-5-48) Consider the following statements:
1. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank with a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia.
2. The headquarters of New Development Bank is in Beijing.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank with a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia. Headquartered in Beijing, we began operations in January 2016 and have now grown to 93 approved members worldwide.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1533053
14 Which of the following
statements is/are correct
regarding the Maternity
Benefit (Amendment) Act,
2017?
1. Pregnant women are
entitled for three months pre-
delivery and three months
post-delivery paid leave
Test-18-8) Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 has :
1. Increased the paid maternity leave to women employees from 12 weeks to 24 weeks.
2. Introduced paternity leaves for father of 6 weeks.
Which of the following codes given below are correct
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2. Enterprises with creches
must allow the mother
minimum six creche visits
daily
3. Women with two children
get reduced entitlements
Select the correct answer
using the code given below
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
(a) 1, only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) None
Ans: d
Exp: Purpose of this Act:
To regulate the employment of women in certain establishments for certain period before and after child birth
To provide maternity benefit and certain other benefits
Act amended through the: Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 which, inter alia, has increased the paid maternity leave to women employees from 12 weeks to 26 weeks.
The Ministry of Labour & Employment is working on an incentive scheme wherein 7 weeks’ wages would be reimbursed to employers who employ women workers with wage ceiling upto Rs. 15000/- and provide the maternity benefit of 26 weeks paid leave, subject to certain conditions.
It is estimated that approximately an amount of Rs. 400 crores would be the financial implication for Government of India, Ministry of Labour & Employment for implementing the proposed incentive scheme.
Major Impact: The proposed Scheme, if approved and implemented, shall ensure the women in this country an equal access to employment and other approved benefits along with adequate safety and secure environment. Also, the women shall continue to bear the major share of household work as well as child care. The work places will be more and more responsive to the family needs of the
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working women.
pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=184805
test-18-36) Regarding Maternity incentive scheme, which of the following statements are true?
1. Maternity Benefit Act was amended in 2017 to
increase paid maternity leave from 12 to 26
weeks for all women employees in
establishments employing 10 or more people.
2. It only covers public sector and not private
sector or contractual jobs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both (d) None
Ans: a
Exp: The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 applies to establishments employing 10 or more than 10 persons in Factories, Mines, Plantation, Shops & Establishments and other entities. The main purpose of this Act is to regulate the employment of women in certain establishments for certain period before and after child birth and to provide maternity benefit and certain other benefits. The Act was amended through the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 which, inter alia, has increased the paid maternity leave to women employees from 12 weeks to 26 weeks.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=184805
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15 Which one of the following
is not a sub-index of the
World Bank ‘s ‘Ease of
Doing Business Index?
1. (a) Maintenance
of law and order
2. (b) Paying taxes
3. (c) Registering
property
4. (d) Dealing with
construction permits
TEST-14-18) With reference to Public Credit Registry (PCR) consider the following statements -
1. A public credit registry is an information repository that collates all loan information of individuals and corporate borrowers.
2. A PCR may also help raise India’s rank in the global ease of doing business index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: A public credit registry is an information repository that collates all loan information of individuals and corporate borrowers. A credit repository helps banks distinguish between a bad and a good borrower and accordingly offer attractive interest rates to good borrowers and higher interest rates to bad borrowers. A PCR may also help raise India’s rank in the global ease of doing business index.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/why-is-a-
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public-credit-registry-important/article24849543.ece
16 The economic cost of food
grains to the Food
Corporation Of India is
Minimum Support Price and
bonus (if any) paid to the
farmers plus
1. (a)
Transportation cost
only
2. (b) Interest cost
only
3. (c) Procurement
incidentals and
distribution costs
4. (d) Procurement
incidentals and
charges for godowns
TEST-19-77) Consider the following statements –
1. Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) is given for 22 mandated agricultural crops.
2. Fair & Remunerative Price (FRP) is given only for Sugarcane.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: Government fixes Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) of 22 mandated agricultural crops and Fair & Remunerative Price (FRP) for Sugarcane on the basis of recommendations of Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP), after considering the views of State Governments and Central Ministries/Departments concerned and other relevant factors. In addition, MSP for Toria and De-Husked coconut is also fixed on the basis of MSPs of Rapeseed/Mustard and Copra respectively.
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1555572
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17 Considering the following
statements :
1. Purchasing Power Parity
(PPP) exchange rates are
calculated by the prices of
the same basket of goods
and services in different
countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars,
India is the sixth largest
economy in the world.
Which of the statements
given above is/ are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor
2
TEST-24-85) Consider the following:
1. India’s GDP in nominal terms is higher than its
GDP in purchasing power parity (PPP) terms.
2. The economy of India is a developing mixed
economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Exp: The economy of India is a developing mixed economy. It is the world's seventh-largest economy by nominal GDP and the third-largest by purchasing power parity (PPP). The country ranks 139th in per capita GDP (nominal) with $2,134 and 122nd in per capita GDP (PPP) with $7,783 as of 2018. After the 1991 economic liberalisation, India achieved 6-7% average GDP growth annually. https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/industrial-growth-declines-to-20-month-low-inflation-up/article26826066.ece
18 Which one of the following
is not the most likely
measure the
Government/RBI takes to
40) Consider the following-
1. The rise in crude oil prices.
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stop the slide of Indian
rupee?
1. (a) Curbing imports
of non-essential goods and
promoting exports
2. (b) Encouraging
indian borrowers to issue
rupee denominated Masala
bonds
3. (c) Easing
conditions relating to
external commercial
borrowing
4. (d) Following an
expansionary monetary
policy
2. The rise in India’s forex reserves.
3. The rise in imports.
4. The rise in Exports.
Which of the above is/are causes for Rupee depreciation?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: a
Exp: 2 and 4 does not cause currency depreciation.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/rupee-rout/article23907514.ece
19 With refernce to the recent
developments in science
which one of the following
statements is not correct?
1. (a) Functional
chromosomes can be
created by joining
segments of DNA
taken from cells of
TEST-7-50) Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
1. across different species of plants
2. from animals to plants
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different species.
2. (b) Pieces of
artificial functional
DNA can be created
in laboratories.
3. (c) A piece of
DNA taken out from
an animal cell can be
made to replicate
outside a living cell
in a laboratory.
4. (d) Cells taken
out from plants and
animals can be made
to undergo cell
division in laboratory
petri dishes.
3. from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: d
Exp: Recombinant DNA is the term applied to chimeric DNA molecules that are constructed in vitro, then propagated in a host cell or organism. The basic recombinant DNA consists of a vector and an insert. The vector is a replicon capable of replicating in the cells of choice. It is endowed with a functional replication origin, usually carries a selectable marker, and typically has been engineered to accommodate inserts conveniently. Vectors are based on naturally occurring replicons, such as bacterial plasmids, viruses, or cellular chromosomes. Inserts can be of any sort – long or short segments of DNA, from natural or synthetic sources. The resulting recombinant DNAs are often referred to as clones, which is shorthand for chimeric DNAs that are isolated in cellular or viral clones; and the process of producing these recombinants
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is frequently called DNA cloning or gene cloning.
20 ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’
technology has gained
popularity in the last few
years.why?
1. It is used in developing
gene silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in
developing therapies for the
treatment of cancer.\
3. It can be used to develope
hormone replacement
therapies.
4. It can be used to produce
crop plants that are resistant
to virtual pathogens.
Select the correct answer
using the code given below.
1. (a) 1,2 and 3
2. (b) 2 and 3
3. (c) 1 and 3
4. (d) 1 and 4 only
TEST-8-9) Consider following statements regarding “m-RNA”-
1. It carries specific amino acids to the
ribosome to form the polypeptide chain
2. It could directly treat a disease or could
function as a vaccine
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Exp: Messenger RNA (mRNA) is a large
family of RNA molecules that convey genetic
information from DNA to the ribosome, where
they specify the amino acid sequence of the
protein products of gene expression.
Theoretically, the administered mRNA
sequence can cause a cell to make a protein,
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which in turn could directly treat a disease or
could function as a vaccine; more indirectly
the protein could drive an endogenous stem
cell to differentiate in a desired way.
21 Which of the followings are
the reasons for the occurence
of multi-drug resistance in
microbial pathogens in
India?
1. Genetic predisposition of
some people.
2. Taking incorrect doses of
antibiotics to cure diseases.
3. Using antibiotics in
livestock farming.
4. Multiple chronic diseases
in some people.
Select the correct answer
using the code given below.
1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1,3 and 4
4. (d) 2,3 and 4
TEST-4-8) “Bedaquiline” recently seen in news is :
(a) used to treat Cancer
(b) used to treat multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis
(c) HIV vaccine
(d)Swine flu vaccine
Ans:b
Exp: Bedaquiline, sold under the brand name Sirturo, is a medication used to treat active tuberculosis. It is specifically used to treat multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) when other treatment cannot be used. It should be used along with at least three other medications for tuberculosis.
22 What is cas9 protein that is
often mentioned in news ?
1. (a) A molecular
TEST-18-93) ‘CRISPR — Cas9’, recently seen in news in context of
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scissors used in
targeted gene editing.
2. (b) A biosensor
used in the accurate
detection of
pathogens in patients.
3. (c) A gene that
makes plants pest-
resistant
4. (d) A herbicidal
substance syntesized
in generally modified
crops
(a) Artificial Intelligence
(b) Digital/ Crypto currency
(c) Particle Physics
(d)Gene Editing
Ans: d
Exp: Crispr, an acronym for Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindrome Repeats, harnesses the natural defence mechanisms of bacteria to alter an organism’s genetic code.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/editing-our-genes/article25040802.ece
TEST-21-65) CRISPR-Cas9 is a:-
(a) Lunar satellite by Russia
(b) Anti-Virus for Satellites
(c) Spaceship by United States
(d) Genome Editing tool
Ans: d
Exp: CRISPR-Cas9 is a genome editing tool.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/a-
reckless-experiment/article26074729.ece
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QUESTION SELCTED FROM OUR PRELIMS TITBITS IN PRELIMS 2019 GS PAPER
49. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news? (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing (b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients (c) A gene that makes plants pest resistant (d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops TITBITS-
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47. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
(a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
(b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
(c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
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(d) It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.
TITBITS-
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48. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) l and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
TITBITS-
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8. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
TITBITS-
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Q27. Consider the following statements:
The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Tidbits:
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Q9. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
(a) transportation cost only
(b) interest cost only
(c) procurement incidentals distribution cost
(d) procurement incidentals charges for godown
TITBITS-
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Q26. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/ RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
TITBITS-
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.”
Bhagwat Gita
Q41. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements :
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience. Which of the statements given above isiare correct?
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.”
Bhagwat Gita
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.”
Bhagwat Gita
18. Consider the following statements :
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at
both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out
under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a)1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.”
Bhagwat Gita
62. Consider the following statements :
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-homed rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.”
Bhagwat Gita
66. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
(a) Extraction of rare earth elements
(b) Natural gas extraction technologies
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.”
Bhagwat Gita
35. Consider the following statements .
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.”
Bhagwat Gita
96. Consider the following pairs Sea Bordering country
1. Adriatic Sea -Albania 2. Black Sea -Croatia 3. Caspian Sea -Kazakhstan 4. Mediterranean Sea -Morocco 5. Red Sea -Syria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 5 only (d) l, 2, 3, 4 and 5
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.”
Bhagwat Gita
46. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?
1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 only
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.”
Bhagwat Gita
3. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
(a) Banks Board Bureau
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Management of concerned bank
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.”
Bhagwat Gita
70. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into environment?
(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plams in irrigated fields.
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.”
Bhagwat Gita
97. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
(a) China (b) India (c) Myanmar (d) Vietnam
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94. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.”
Bhagwat Gita
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) l and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) l and 3 only (d) l, 2 and 3
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.”
Bhagwat Gita
65. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
(d) Reducing the global warming
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“When meditation is mastered, the mind is unwavering, like the flame of a lamp in a windless place.”
Bhagwat Gita
26. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/ RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
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