1 Regarding puncture wounds; which is False? C;

Radiological examination is essential

Treatment is wound irrigation, antibiotic treatment & tetanus pro­phylaxis

Small foreign bodies should be dissected & removed

Abscess formation may take place in deeper tissues

2 All of the following are associated with stretched scars, EXCEPT: B;

Decreased tension across the wound gives narrower scars

Scars on the face often stretch

Prolonged wound support decreases stretch in scars

Buried non-absorbable or long-term absorbable sutures can minimize scar

stretching

3 Healing by secondary intention does not lead to: D;

Granulation tissue formation

Surface epithelialisation to close the wound

Possibility of contracture

Thick layer of epithelium on scar tissue that is long lasting

4 All of the following statements regarding hypertrophic scars are FALSE,

EXCEPT:

C;

They may be familial

There is an extreme overgrowth of scar tissue beyond the limits of the

original wound

They are more cellular & more vascular than mature scars

More common in females in 10.30 year age group

5 In the pseudo tumor approach for wound excision, which of the following

is not carried out?

C;

Devitalised fat is pink & it is excised

Dark coloured muscle is excised

No local anaesthetic with adrenaline or pneumatic tourniquet used

Bone fragments with no soft tissue attachments are excised

6 Pressure sores are not seen when: B;

In paraplegias lacking usual sensory input that warns them of tissue

ischaemia

Capillary perfusion pressure ex-ceeds external pressure where there is

unrelieved pressure in soft tissues overlying bone

Patients with hypotension & peri-pheral vascular disease

Unconscious patients

7 Degloving injuries have limited potential for primary healing when: D;

It is open & circumferential

Closed & localised

Present in just the subcutaneous plane

Found between muscles & fascia & between muscles & bone

8 No man’s land in palm corresponds to: B;

Zone I

Zone II

Zone III

Zone IV

9 Preop shaving is ideally done at : C;

Evening before Sx (Surgery)

On the operation table

Just before operation

Morning of the operation day

10 Best treatment for keloids is: D;

Intralesional injection of steroids

Radiotherapy

Wide excision

Multimodalityapproach

11 Which of the following surgical procedures is considered to have a clean

contaminated wound?

A;

Elective open cholecystectomy

Hernioplasty

Appendectomy with walled of abscess

Lumpectomy with axillary node dissection

12 Suture removal in lower trunk region is done in: D;

2-3 days

5 days

7 days

10-14 days

13 The cheatle's split is applicable in : B;

Anastomosis of vessels

Anastomosis of bowel

Anastomosis of skin

Anastomosis or approximation of rectus sheath

14 The free ends of knots should be atleast long: A;

1 - 2 mm

3 - 4 mm

5 - 6 mm

10 mm

15 PDS, the commonly used suture material is a: A;

Monofilament polyester polymer

Monofilament copolymer of glycolide and caprolactone

Multifloment copolymer of lactide and glycolide

Monofilament polyamide polymer

16 Most frequent cause of Sodium depletion seen in Surgical practice is: C;

High intestinal external fistulae

Duodenal fistulae

Obstruction of small intestine

Ulcerative colitis

17 In metabolic alkalosis which of the following does not take place? A;

Excretion of carbon dioxide by lungs

Excretion of bicarbonate base by the kidneys

Cheyne – Stokes respiration

Latent tetany

18 A normal anion gap is not seen in : D;

Renal tubular acidosis

Diarrhoea

Intestinal (small) fistulas

Renal failure

19 After fasting for 15 days, 20 m ill workers were hospitalized. Their blood &

urine reports revealed presence of ketone bodies, acidic urine &

bicarbonate value of 20 mmol/L : The underlying abnormality is :

B;

Metabolic alkalosis

Metabolic acidosis

Respiratory acidosis

Respiratory alkalosis

20 PAIR is used for treatment of: B;

Amoebic liver abscess

Hepatic Hydatid cyst

Schistosomasis

Cysticercosis

21 Treatment of choice for fasciola hepatica is: B;

Albendazole

Triclabendazole

Bithionol

Mebendazole

22 Indications for emergency surgery in case of amoebic bowel disease are all,

EXCEPT:

D;

Toxic megacolon

Segmental gangrene of colon

Substantial haemorrhage from large bowel

None of the above

23 Risk factor for wound infection is/are: D;

Radiotherapy

Shock

Haematoma

Any of above

24 According to CDC classification of HIV disease, persistent generalized

lymphadenopathy is classified as:

C;

Group I

Group II

Group III

Group IV

25 Common anal neoplasms seen in HIV positive individuals are all, EXCEPT: D;

Squamous cell carcinoma

Kaposi's sarcoma

Perianal Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

Malignant melanoma

26 In the latent period of HI\; infection, patient develops: D;

Flu-like symptoms & lymphadenopathy

Progressive increase in HIV-1 viral titres

Progressive fall in CD4 counts

Systemic immune deficiency

27 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding occupationally

acquired HIV infection in health care workers?

A;

Risk is greatest during the earliest and latest stages of the disease

Principal route is by skin perforation with a solid needle containing HIV

infected blood

Post exposure HIV-prophylaxis should be started after confirming HIV status

of the source

Post-exposure HIV-prophylaxis is with' zidovudine (250 mg bd) for 3 month

28 What is of utmost importance in treatment of wound abscesses? B;

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

Adequate surgical decompression and curettage of abscess

Primary closure of wound

Use of absorbable suture

29 A 38 year old obese lady develops pain & swelling in her right leg along

with fever & chills. On examination, there is calor, rubor, dolor over a

poorly localized area over her calf with no pus pointing. WBC count is

18000/cumm. Blood culture is negative. Diagnose her condition:

C;

Calf abscess

Lymphangitis

Cellulitis

SSSI

30 All of the following are characteristics of a MAJOR wound infection,

EXCEPT:

A;

Discharge of infected serous fluid

Secondary drainage procedure may be required

May be associated with SIRS

Planned discharge to home may be delayed

31 A 40 year old man is operated for an abdominal surgery via a midline

abdominal incision. When is he most likely to develop a wound abscess

post-operatively?

B;

2-3 ddays

7-9 days

10-14 days

14-21 days

32 Use of all of the following significantly decreases airborne infection in

operation theatre, EXCEPT:

C;

Laminar air flow

Minimizing the no. of individuals in the OT

Air conditioning

High-efficiency particulate filters

33 Which of the following antiseptic is inappro-priate for skin preparation of

the operative site?

C;

Chlorhexidine

Povidone – Iodine

Cetrimide

Hexachlorophane

34 Definition of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) includes all,

EXCEPT:

B;

Hyperthermia (> 38°C)

Bradycardia (60/min)

Tachypnoea (> 20/min)

WBC count < 4000/min

35 Following regarding Tropical chronic pancreatitis is false: B;

Affects alcoholic elderly from lower socioeconomic region esp. South India

Associated with ingestion of cassava

Imaging studies reveal nodular fibrotic pancreas with dilated ducts filled with

stones

Surgery reserved for intractable pain

36 Regarding typhoid all are true, EXCEPT: C;

Caused by gram Negative bacillus

Diagnosis is by leucopenia, stool and blood cultures and positive Widal test

Perforation of ulcer in 1st week carries poor prognosis than 2nd week

Surgical intervention done in case of complications

37 For in order of minimize surgical site in the operation theatre all are true,

EXCEPT:

A;

First scrubs should be for 3 mins.

Bacterial count to be kept below 10 CFU/cmm

Temp should below 19-22°C and humidity between 45-55%

Good prepping and maintaining distance of unscrubbed staff of atleast 50

cms from sterile field

38 Thymus gland abscess is congenital syphilis are called: C;

Politizer's abscess

Fouchier's abscess

Duboi's abscess

Mycotic abscess

39 Malignant pustule occurs in: B;

Melanoma

Anthrax

Carbuncle

Actinomycosis

40 Following are true of eryiseplas, EXCEPT: D;

Streptococcal infection

Margins are raised

Commonly seen in temperate region

None of the above

41 Commonest cause of acute LN-adenitis in India is: B;

TB

Lymphoma

Staphylococcal skin infection

Bare foot walking

42 Tetanus is caused by: A;

CI. Tetani

CI. Welchi

CI. Edematiens

CI. Septicum

43 65 Kg male with 60% burns in catabolism is admitted. An individual of this

state requires 40 Kcal/kg/day and 2 gm of protein/day/kg. This young man

is given solutions having 20% glucose and 25% protein. If 3000 ml/day is

given, then:

D;

Patient gets insufficient protein

Inadequate carbohydrate intake

Both protein and carbohydrate are adequate

Too much protein is infused

44 Metabolic complications during parenteral nutrition include all, EXCEPT: B;

Hyperglycemia

Hypoglycemia

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

Hypokalemia

45 Best method of post operative pain relief is: D;

NSAID suppositories

Intramuscular morphine

Acupuncture

Epidural analgesia

46 Metabolic features of B;

Low plasma insulin levels

Decreased hepatic gluconeogenesis

Increased hepatic glycogenolysis

Increased lipolysis

47 In Evidence Based surgery all are true,' EXCEPT: D;

Aims to provide practice of surgery on a logical and scientific basis

Emphasis on preparing systemic review and keeping them up-to-date them

Includes randomized control trials and studies

Level V evidence or grade of recommendation D is the best evidence

48 For consent to be valid, informed it requires all, EXCEPT: B;

Patient must be competent, not coerced into and well informed of pros and

cons of procedures and other modalities available

Can be taken by junior member of the surgeon’s team

Explained in easy, lucid, language understood by the patient

Incase of children’s/ mentally II patients, parents / guardians are allowed for

consent of procedure

49 In a person who has fasted for 5 days all are seen, EXCEPT: C;

Free fatty acid levels in plasma increased

Immune reactive insulin level deceased

GH levels decreased

Glucose tolerance decreased

50 During nutritional assessment of surgical patients status of muscle protein

is indicated by which one of following parameters:

D;

Serum albumin

Triceps skin fold thickness

Hb level

Mid arm circumference

51 Commonest cancer in burn scar is : A;

Sq. cell Ca

Fibrosarcoma

Adenoa Ca

Adeno-squamous Ca

52 What concentration of carboxy Haemoglobin in blood are chemically

significant?

B;

> 1 %

> 10%

> 30%

> 60%

53 Treatment of a superficial burn involves: C;

Surgical excision of burnt area

Skin grafting

Spontaneous healing in 2 weeks

Porcine skin graft

54 The commonest form of reconstruction used in extensive burn injuries is; B;

Wolfe graft

Thiersch graft

Tissue expenders

Pedicled flaps

55 True regarding inhalation burn injury are all, EXCEPT: D;

Occur in head & face burns

Laryngeal edema may set in 24-48 hours

Occurs in closed space burns

Chemical pneumonitis occurs after 1 week

56 Intravenous fluid resuscitation in a child is required if percentage of TBSA

is:

B;

>30%

> 10%

> 20%

> 50%

57 All are true regarding vacuum assisted wound closure, EXCEPT: C;

Useful for nonhealing bed sores

Reduces bacterial load by negative suction

Increases tissue edema

Increases the local circulation

58 Agent used as a prophylaxis against pseudomonas in burns patients is : B;

Silver sulfadiazine 1 %

Silver nitrate 0.5%

Mafenide 5%

Betadine 5%

59 Head & neck involvement in burns in infant is: B;

9%

18%

27%

32%

60 In 3rd degree burns, all are seen, EXCEPT: B;

Hyperthermia

Painful

Fluid loss by evaporation

Vasodilation

61 The ideal temperature of water to cool the burnt surface is: A:

15°

10°

8°

6°

62 Metabolic derangements in severe Burns are all, EXCEPT: C;

Increased corticosteroid secretion

Hyperglycaemia

Increased secretion of HCI

Neutrophil dysfunction

63 A point on TPN for 20 days presents with weakness, vertigo and

convulsions. Diagnosis is:

A;

Hypo mg +2

Hyper NH3'

Hyper Ca+2

Hyper K+

64 Immuno nutrients are required more in the conditions of stress are all,

EXCEPT:

D;

Arginine

Glutamine

Fatty acids

Magnesium

65 A 50 year old man has a non healing ulcer over the shin with undermined

edges with apple jelly appearance on the floor. Your diagnosis:

C;

Rodents ulcer

Syphilis

Tuberculosis

Squamous cell carcinoma

66 All are true regqrding epidermoid cyst" EXCEPT: C;

Also called steatoma

It is a type of retention cyst

Transillumination is positive

Treatment if it gets infected is incision & drainage with cyst wall avulsion

67 A 60 year old diabetic male comes with a foot ulcer with black necrotic

eschar and purulent discharge. Your immediate treat-ment of choice:

C;

Intravenous antibiotics will be sufficient

Daily dressing

Surgical debridement

Hydrocolloid dressing

68 All the following are congential cysts, EXCEPT: C;

Urachal cyst

Polycystic kidney

Mucous cyst of mouth

Dermoid cyst

69 Cock's peculiar tumour is : A;

An infected sebaceous cyst

Calcifying epithelima

Self healing nodular lesion with central ulceration.

An indicator of underlying osteo-myelitis

70 Bedsore is an example of: B;

Tropical ulcer

Trophic ulcer

Venous ulcer

Post thrombotic ulcer

71 Cause of persistence of a sinus or fistulae includes: D;

Foreign body

Non dependent drainage

Unrelived obstructon

All of the above

72 All the following lipomas have a potential for malignant change, EXCEPT: D;

Retroperitoneal

Inter muscular in the thigh

Shoulder

Scalp

73 Which condition is associated with the fifth cranial nerve? C;

Von Recklinghausen's disease

Molluscum fibrosum

Plexiform neurofibromatosis

Le Fraumeni syndrome

74 Desmoid tumor is associated with which syndrome? B:

Le Fraumeni syndrome

Gardner's syndrome

Lynch syndrome

Aperts syndrome

75 All the following are examples of tubulo dermoid, EXCEPT: D;

Thyroglossal cyst

Pilonidal sinus

Ependymal cyst

Urachal cyst

76 The type of naevus which is most likely to undergo malignant change: D;

Intradermal naevus

Compound naevus

Blue naevus

Junctional naevus

77 Regarding Neurofibromatosis, false is: D;

Un encapsulated tumors of schwann cells

Resected along with nerve fibres

Association with axillary freckling and Lisch noduls

Always benign tumor

78 Spontaneous regression of malignant tumors is seen with: D;

Neuroblastoma

Retinoblastoma

Malignant melanoma

All of the above D;

79 About cong torticollis all of the true, EXCEPT:

Associated with Breech deliveries

Untreated cases may lead to plagiocephaly

Associated pterigium coli/Klieppel feil syndrome

Always required surgical correction

80 Ephilis is: A;

Type of freckle

Dental Anomaly

Infection caused by T.palidum

Pregnancy tumor

81 In malignant melanoma, the margin of excision for tumor size 2cms is : C;

1 cms

0.5 cms

2 cms

5 cms

82 Where are you most likely to use a full thicknes graft? D;

Scrotum

Back

Scalp

Face

83 The best reconstruction after a segmental mandibulectomy in a patient of

lower alveolus malignancy:

D;

Skin grafting

Pectorals major myocutaneous flap

Delto pectoral flap

Free fibula flap

84 A deltopectoral flap is a type of : C;

Free flap

Myocutaneous flap

Fasciocutaneous flap

Fasciomyocutaneous flap

85 The blood supply for a transverse Rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap

comes from:

C;

Internal mammary artery

Superficial epigastric artery

Deep inferior epigastric artery

Superficial external pudendal artery

86 Ideal graft for leg injury with 10 x 10 cm. exposed bone : B;

Amniotic memb graft

Pedicle graft

Full thickness graft

Split thickness skin graft

87 Following are true of cultured bilayer skin equivalent, EXCEPT: D;

More closely mimics normal anatomy

easily handled, can be sutured or meshed

Does not need secondary procedure

Long shelf life

88 Regarding Hemangiomas following are true: D;

Salman patch disappears after age one

Portwinestain present through life

Salman patch seen on forehead or over occiput

All are correct

89 Criteria for Brainstem death include the following, EXCEPT: D;

Absence of corneal reflexes

Absence of motor response

Absence of spontaneous respiration after preventilation with 100% O2 for

atieast 5 minutes, pt is connected from ventilator for 10minutes with PO2 >

60 mm of Hg

Tests performed by two clinicians on two separate occasions with atleast

one of them a consultant from the transplant team.

90 Optimal storage time in hrs for liver is : B;

< 24 hrs

< 12 hrs

< 10 hrs

< 3hrs

91 In creation of peritoneum, gas used in Laparoscopy is: D;

Coz

N20

Helium gas

All of the above

92 The intra abdominal pressure during laparoscopy should be set between: B;

5-8 mm Hg

10 – 25 mm Hg

20 – 25 mm Hg

30 – 35 Hg

93 Principal cause of death in renal transplant patients is: D;

Uraemia

Rejection

Malignancy

Infection

94 Hyperacute graft rejection is caused by : C;

B – lymphocytes

Macrophages

Preformed Antibodies

T-Iymphocytes

95 MOA of Sirolimus is : B;

Blocks-IL-2 gene transcription

Blocks IL-2 receptor signal transduction

Depletion and Blockade of T-cells

Prevents Iymphocyte proliferation

96 In renal transplantation in a living donor kidney, Renal artery is C;

anastomosed to :

Ext. Iliac Artery

Renal artery

Int. Iliac artery

Aorta

97 NOTES is : C;

Non obliterative trans esophageal surgery

Natural orfice trans esophageal surgery

Natural orfice trans luminal endoscopic surgery

Neo occlusive trans arterial Endo surgery

98 Triangle of doom has following Boundaries, EXCEPT: C;

Vas deferens

Testicular vessels

Iliac vessels

Reflected peritoneal fold

99 Length of the laparoscopic Hand instruments used/regularly in adult

surgeries is:

D;

18cms

28 cms

25 cms

36 cms

100 Graft-versus-host disease has occurred with the transplantation of which

of the following?

D;

Kidney

Lung

Heart

Bone marrow

101 Which of the following is the safest and most efficient tool in diagnosis of

lower limb arterial disease?

C;

Arteriography

Hand-held Doppler probe

Duplex imaging

Treadmill

102 Which of the following drugs is effective as a non surgical measure for

arterial stenosis?

B;

β-blockers

Anti-platelet agents

Naftidrofuryl oxalate

Oxpentifylline

103 Which is the standard thrombolytic agent used today? C;

Urokinase

Streptokinase

Tissue plasminogen activator

None of the above

104 Which of the following not true regarding Raynaud syndrome? C;

It is the same as Raynaud disease

Common in users of pneumatic road drills

Sympathectomy yields poor results

Steroids are helpful

105 All of the following are the clinical feature of thromboangiitis obliterans,

EXCEPT:

C;

Raynaud's phenomenon

Claudication of extremities

Absence of popliteal pulse

Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis

106 Two days after admission to the hospital for a myocardial infarction, a 65

year old man complains of severe, unremitting midabdominal pain. His

cardiac index is 1.6. Physical examination is remarkable for an absence of

peritoneal irritation or distention despite the patient's persistent

complaint of severe pain. Serum lactate is 9 (Normal<3). In managing this

problem you should:

B;

Perform MRI

Perform mesenteric angiography

Perform OGDscopy

Perform sigmoidoscopy

107 Which among the following is not a feature of peripheral arterial

occlusion?

A;

Shock

Pallor

Pain

Pulselessness

108 What will be diagnosis of Ramu, who is 45 year old male with history of

chronic smoking and pain in lower limb due to blockage of femoral artery:

B;

Thromboangitis obiterarns

Atherosclerosis

Embolism

Arteritis

109 Which one is Not true regarding Buerger’s disease? D;

Mean are usually involved

Occurs below 50 years of age

Smoking is predisoposing factor

Veins and nerves are never involved

110 Rare complication after elective abdominal aortic aneurysm repair consists

of:

B;

Cardiac infarction

Renal failure

Lower lobe consolidation

Atelectasis

111 A patient presented with local gigantism of the leg and increased

pulsations of the lower limb veins. Most probable diagnosis is:

B;

Tumor

AV fistula

Varicose veins

Incompetence of the sapheno-femoral junction

112 Pseudoarterial aneurysm in drug abuser's seen in: C;

Radial

Branchial

Femoral

Carotid

113 Syndrome of internal iliac artery occlusion manifested by: D;

Pain in calf

Absent pulse at the dorsalis pedis artery

Intermittent claudication

None of the above

114 AV fistula all regarding it is true, EXCEPT: D;

Arterialisations of veins

Causes LV enlargement and LVF

Causes overgrowth of limb and indolent ulcers

Proximal compression causes increased pulse pressure

115 Which is not true of hyperabduction syndrome: C;

Physio therapy and position exercises relives symptoms

Neurological signs and symptoms are common

Most commonly radial nerve involved

Rajnand's phenomenon may be seen

116 Abdo aortic aneurysm is characterized by all, EXCEPT: B;

usually asymptomatic before rupture

For asymptomatic cases, Rx requisite> 5 cms size

In emergency surgery rate of complication usually> 50%

CECT is used for diagnosis

117 40 years old female K/C/O migraine and chronic smoking comes with C/O

headache and pain in upper limbs along with classical triphasic colour

changes in the digits. On examination, all peripheral pulses normal and BP

= 150/90. However there was thickening of the digital subcutaneous

tissues along with loss of Rt little finger. The clinical is diagnosis in this

patient is (Inv:BT = 1 min 40 secs, CT = min, 5 sec = Normal, srcholestrol

>200 mg/dl)

C;

Thromboangitis obliterans

Atherosclerosis

Raynaud's disease

Takayasus disease

118 All of the following are correct about axillary vein thrombosis, EXCEPT: C;

May be caused by a cervical rib

Treated with IV anticoagulant

Embolectomy is done in all cases

May occur following excessive exercise

119 Most serious complication of varicose veins is: D;

Superficial thrornbophlehitis

Venous pigmentation

Lipodermatosclerosis

Venous ulceration

120 Atrophie blanche in venous valvular incompetence refers to: D;

Calf muscle hypertrophy

Ankle edema

Brown pigmentation due to haemo-siderin deposition in the skin

Loss of superficial blood vessels with development of white patches in skin

121 All of the following statements are true regarding injection sclerotherapy

as a modality for treatment of varicose veins, EXCEPT:

B;

It can be used in the absence of junctional incompetence

It is injected into the vein with the leg veins not emptied

Major perforating incompetence is to be ruled out

Sodium tetradecyl is the sclerosant used

122 VNUS closure as a modality of management of various veins does not

include:

B;

Use of ablation catheter

No rise of DVT

Possibility of recurrence

Damage to overlying skin

123 Regarding Klieppel Trenauy syndrome following false: A;

Multiple AV fistulae with ulcerations and venous HTN

Non familial mesodermal abnormality

Increased risk of DVT

Most treated by conservative Rx

124 Regarding pulm. Embolism and DVT, false is: B;

Approximately 30% of spinal cord injured patients develop a clinically

significant DVT

Fatal embolism is noted in 5-10% of all spinal cord injured patients

Highest risk is seen in 1st 3 weeks

Prophylactic intervention is Important in this patients

125 Lymph node metastasis seen in : A;

Histiocytoma

Angiosarcoma

Liposarcoma

Neurofibrosarcoma

126 The following are true of congenital lymphoedema, EXCEPT: B;

Lower limbs are affected more often

Usually unilateral

Onset usually occurs before puberty

Episodes of lymphangitis worsens the edema

127 In the management of leg ulcers, which of the following is not done? C;

Cleaning the ulcer under tap water

Treating the skin of leg with emulsifying ointment

Use of topical antibiotics during dressing

Use of topical steroids to treat allergic response

128 Mr. Menon is due for a 10 hr flight to London. He has undergone knee

replace-ment surgery one month ago. How best can he prevent DVT from

taking place:

D;

Taking sleeping tablets

Avoid alcohol

Walk in the aisle occasionally

Low-molecular weight heparin administered before the flight

129 The commonest lymphangiographic finding in a patient with lymphoedema

praecox is:

C;

Congenital hyperplasia of lymphatics

Proximal obliteration

Distal obliteration

Dysfunctional lymphatics

130 All of the following statement regarding filariasis are TRUE, EXCEPT: C;

Commonest cause of lymphoedema world-wide

Microfilariae enter the blood at night

Diethylcarbamazine destroys the parasites and reverses the Iymphatic

changes

Wucheria bancrofti is responsible for 90% cases

131 Most accurate diagnostic technique in lymphoedema is: B;

Lymphangiography

Isotope Iymphoscintigraphy

CT scan

MRI

132 Decongestive lymphoedema therapy includes all, EXCEPT: D;

Skin care

Manual lymphatic drainage

Multilayer lymphoedema bandaging

Diuretics

133 Commonest cause of chyluria is : B;

Tuberculosis

Filariasis

Ascariasis

Malignancy

134 Meige's disease is : C;

Congenital lymph oedema

Ovarian tumor with pleural effusion and ascitis

Lymphaedema precox

Lymphagio sarcoma in chronic Iymphoedematous limb.

135 Alemtuzumab is a chemo therapeutic agent with MOA as: B;

Antibody against CD20 Ag

Antibody against CD 52 Ag

Tyrosine kinase receptor inhibitors

Farnesyl transferase inhibitors

136 Severe unilateral lymph edema is: B;

> 20 % excess limb volume

> 40 % excess limb volume

> 30 % excess limb volume

> 50 % excess limb volume

137 All the following are good prognosis features of Hodgkins disease, EXCEPT: B;

Hb>10gm

Abs. lymphocyte count < 600/111

WBC < 15000/ cmm

Age < 45 years

138 Most malignant form of NHL is: D;

Diffuse large cell

Small cell lymphocytic

Follicular lymphoma

Large cell follicular

139 Podoconiosis is : B;

Type of fungal infections of feet

Endemic elephantiasis

Type of occupational chest infections

Malignancy of the nail

140 Odema pitting on pressure and disappearing an bed rest and elevations is: D;

Grade II

Grade III

Latent or subclinical

Grade I

141 A young child was brought by her mother with swelling in the lower

posterior half of neck which became prominent on crying. On examination

the margins more not well defined and fluctuation was positive.

Compressibility was possible diagnosis in this patient is:

A;

Cystic Hygroma

Bronchial cyst

Solitary lymph cyst

Cold abscess

142 Which of the following is not a feature of severe limb ischaemia? A;

Pain in calf on walking

Rest pain

Coldness, numbness and paraes-thesia

Ulceration and gangrene

143 Salim had a cut throat injury following a brawl. He developed air

embolism. Which of the following is incorrect regarding treatment of this

condition?

D;

Placement of patient in Trendelenburg position

Oxygen administration

Left side placement of patient

Aspiration of left ventricle

144 False about fat embolism is: C;

Fat is metabolic in origin

Patient becomes comatose with small pupils

Retinal changes take place late after onset of disease

Petechial hemorrhages often occur

145 In all of the following, sympathectomy is effective, EXCEPT one: A;

Intermittent claudication

Hyperhydrosis

Raynaud's disease

Causalgia

146 An ABI of less than suggests arterial injury even in the presence of palpable

pulses:

D;

0.7

0.5

0.3

0.9

147 Gold standard for diagnosis of aortic rupture is: C;

20 ECHO

X-ray chest PA view

Aor togram

Multi slice CT scan with contrast

148 While doing BK amputation, most important technical consideration is : C;

Stump should be short

Ant flap longer than post flap

Fipula transected above the tibial

Nerves ligated at the level of muscles

149 Regarding Aortic dissection following is false: D;

Presents as tearing intrascapsular pain

Diagnosed by echo or CT/MRI with contrast

Control of BP is must before any further Imaging or intervention

Type A usually are best managed medically

150 Cimino fistula is a fistula created between: A;

Radial A and cephalic vein

Ulnar A and vein

Subclavian A and vein

Long Saphenous vein and femoral artery