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Sample Study Materials

Social Science

SURA PUBLICATIONS.Chennai

X - Standard

Salient Features :

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Updated as per the latest Samacheer Textbook Edition for 2018-19.

Exhaustive Additional Questions in all Sections.

Answers for Dept. Model Question Paper, PTA Model Question Papers 1 to 4 and Govt. Exam. Question Papers of April 2012 to September 2017 and Half Yearly Exam 2016, Quarterly Exam 2016 & 2017 are incorporated.

Detailed Analysis of 2, 4 and 5 marks Questions of 19 Question Papers. [Dept. Model and April 2012 to September 2017]

Exam Refresher (Key Book).

Sura’s Model Question Papers I, II, III and IV with Answers.

Free Practice Map workbook (96 Pages) which includes Solved Map based questions from Dept. Model, PTA Model 1 to 4 and Govt. Exam Question Papers from April 2016 to September 2017.

Quarterly Exam 2017 Question Paper with Answer is given at the end of this Guide.

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2018 - 19 Edition© Reserved with Publishers

ISBN : 978-81-8449-512-6Code No : SG 47

Author :

Smt. Bala Thiyagarajan, M.A., (Hist.) M.Ed.,

Head of the Department (Social Studies) (Ret.),

St. Michael’s Academy, Chennai.

Reviewers:

Mrs. Rathna Beaulah, M.A., (His.) M.Phil.,

Sarah Tucker Hr. Sec. School, Palayamkottai, Tirunelveli Dist.

Mrs. Hepzibah, M.A., (Geo.) M.Phil.,

Sarah Tucker Hr. Sec. School, Palayamkottai, Tirunelveli Dist.

Head Office:

1620, ‘J’ Block, 16th Main Road, Anna Nagar, Chennai - 600 040. Phones: 044-26162173, 26161099. Fax : (91) 44-26162173

e-mail : [email protected] website : www.surabooks.com

RuhÉ‹ jÄœ ciuüš

Sura’s English Guide Sura’s Will to Win English Guide Sura’s Will to Win English Workbook Sura’s Mathematics Guide (EM & TM) Sura’s Science Guide (EM & TM) Sura’s Social Science Guide (TM) Sura’s PTA Solution Book & Exam Refresher (EM / TM) Sura’s 5-in-1 Question Bank (EM & TM) Sura’s Sigaram Thoduvom 5-in-1 One Mark (EM / TM) Sura’s Sigaram Thoduvom (EM/TM) for all subjects Sura’s Will to Win - 1 mark Q & A - English Paper I & II Sura’s Map Work Book (EM & TM) RuhÉ‹ brªjÄœ gÆ‰á ò¤jf« (jÄœ)

Also available for Std. - XGuides

and Question Banks

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It gives me great pride and pleasure in bringing to you Sura’s Social Science Guide for X Standard (Based on New Uniform Syllabus System of Education). A deep understanding of the text and exercises is rudimentary to have an insight into History and Geography section. The students and teachers have to carefully understand the topics, chronological events and exercises.

Sura’s Social Science X Standard Guide encompasses all the requirements of the students to comprehend the text and the evaluation of the textbook.

It will be a teaching companion to teachers and a learning companion to students.

As the guide has been framed based on the ‘Blue Print’ and ‘Question Paper Pattern’, it provides a precise and clear understanding of text and exercises from the examination perspective.

Exhaustive additional questions in each part, i.e. Choose the correct answer, Match the following, Distinguish between, Fill ups and Time line have been given to help students practise and learn effectively all the sections of the textbook.

In order to learn effectively, I advise students to learn the subject sectionwise and practise the exercises given. In addition, to facilitate the students, Tamil words are provided for difficult words and terminologies.

Detailed Analysis of 2,4 & 5 marks questions, based on Departmental Model Question Paper and Govt. Examination Question Papers from April 2012 to September 2017 is given.

Exam Refresher (Key book), containing important one mark multiple choice questions, two marks & five marks questions with answers, is also included.

A 96 pages free map workbook with this guide will help the students sharpen their map skills and practise efficiently.

Though these salient features are available in our Sura’s Social Science Guide for X-Standard, I cannot negate the indispensable role of the teachers in assisting the students to understand the topics.

I sincerely believe this guide satisfies the needs of the students and bolsters the teaching methodologies of the teachers.

- Publisher

All the Best

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Detailed Analysis of 2, 4 and 5 Marks Questions viii - xviii

HISTORYUnits S.No. Lessons Page No.

I. 1. IMPERIALISM - Imperialism in India and China 1

II. 2. First World War (A.D.1914 - A.D.1918) - League of Nations 26

III. 3. World Between the Two World Wars - (A.D.1919 - A.D.1939)

- Economic Depression 49

4. Fascism in Italy (A.D.1922 - A.D.1945) 56

5. Nazism in Germany (A.D.1933 - A.D.1945) 65

IV. 6. Second World War (A.D.1939 - A.D.1945) 79

7. The United Nations Organisation 97

8. European Union 109

V. 9. The Great Revolt of 1857 120

VI. 10. Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century 140

VII. 11. Freedom Movement in India - Phase - I 164

Pre-Gandhian Era (A.D.1885 - A.D.1919)

12. Freedom Movement in India - Phase - II 186

Gandhian Era (A.D.1920 - A.D.1947)

13. Role of Tamil Nadu in the Freedom Movement 212

VIII. 14. Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu 225

GEOGRAPHYI. 1. India - Location and Physiography 237

2. India - Climate 259

II. 3. India - Natural Resources 274

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III. 4. India - Agriculture 284

5. India - Industries 301

6. Environmental Issues 322

IV. 7. India - Trade, Transport and Communication 335

V. 8. Remote Sensing 361

VI 9. Disaster Risk Reduction 370

CIVICSUnits S.No. Lessons Page No.

I. 1. India and World Peace 376

II. 2. Democracy 384

3. Unity in Diversity 397

III. 4. Consumer Rights 403

ECONOMICS

Units S.No. Lessons Page No.

I. 1. National Income 410

II. 2. Indian Economy after Independence 418

Years and Events (Table) 431

Time Line Chart - Revision 439

Important Points for Geography Maps 443

Exam Refresher (Key Book) 449

Model Question Papers - I, II, III & IV with Answers 493

Quarterly Exam Question Paper 2017 with Answers 543

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DETAILED ANALYSIS(For 2 marks , 4 marks and 5 marks questions)

It covers 19 sets of Question Papers. i.e. Dept. Model and April 2012 to Sep. 2017.

Units QuestionsAnswers in

Page No.

Examination Month & Year

1

2 Marks : Very Short Ans. Ques. (History)Define Imperialism.

9

Dept. Paper; June 12 & 13; April & June 14; July & Oct. 16;

Mar., June & Sep. 17

What is Colonialism? 9 April & Oct. 12; Sep. 14; June 15; April 16

Write about Military Imperialism. 9 April 13Write a note on Taiping Rebellion 10 June 13; Oct. 15

2 Why did Germany need Colonies? 33 June 14

What was the immediate cause of the First World War? 34 Dept. Paper; April 12 & 14; June 13 & 17

Why did America enter into first world war? 34 Sep. 14; June 15; Oct. 16

Mention any two terms of the Treaty of Versailles. 34 July 16

What are the organs of the League of Nations? 34 June & Oct. 12; April & June 13;April 15; Mar. & Sep. 17

List out any two causes for the failure of the League of Nations. 35 Sep. 13

3 What were the causes for the Great Economic Depression? 51 June 12; Sep. 13; April 14 & 16

Write a note on National Industrial Recovery Act. 51 April 13 & 15

4 What does the term ‘Fascism’ mean? 59April 12 & 15;

Sep. 13 & 14; Oct. 15; Mar., June & Sep. 17

What were the four pillars of fascism? 59 Oct. 12; April 13 & 16; June 14; July 2016

Trace the reasons for the rise of Fascism 59 Dept. Paper

5 What did Hitler declare? 70 June 15

6 How did Japan sow the seeds for Second World War? 85 Oct. 15

Write a note on the Scorched Earth Policy. 85 April, June & Sep. 14; Mar. & June 17

Why did America declare war on Japan? 85 April 12 & 16 Oct. 12

7 What are the main objectives of the UNO? 101 Dept. Paper; June 12 & 15; Sep. 13; Oct. 16

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7 Mention any two major achievements of the UNO 101 Sep. 17Mention some of the specialized agencies of the UNO. 101 April 15 & 16

8 Mention the initial member countries of the EU. 112 Oct. 15; July 16What are the principal objectives of the EU? 112 June 13

9 Name of the Important leaders and centres of the mutiny. 125Oct. 12; June 13; April & June 14; July & Oct. 16;


Mention the importance of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation. 125 Dept. Paper; June 12 & 15

What was the immediate cause for the revolt of 1857? 126 April 13 & 16; Sep. 14Why was the revolt not widespread? 126 April 12; Oct. 15

10 What are the services rendered by Arya Samaj? 146 April & Oct. 12; Sep. 13 & 17; April 14

Mention the main principles of the Theosophical Society. 147 Dept. Paper; July 16

What are the teachings of Vallalar? 147 June 12 & 17; April 13 & 15; Sep. 14; Mar. 17

Point out the impacts of social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th century. 147 June 14; Oct. 16

11 What were the aims of the Indian National Congress? 169 Sep. 13; Oct. 15

Name some of the important moderate leaders. 169 April 13; June 14

Mention the importance of Lucknow session of the Indian National Congress in 1916. 170 April 2012; June 12 & 17;

July 16

Write a note about Jallian Wala Bagh tragedy. 173 April 16

12 What are the changes introduced by the Government of India Act of 1935? 191 Sep. 17

What was the resolution passed in the Lahore session of the Congress in 1929? 191 April 15

Write a short note on the ‘Cabinet Mission’ 191 Oct. 15Write a short note on Swarajya Party. 196 Oct. 16What was Mountbatten Plan? 197 June 15

13 Write a brief note on Vellore Mutiny. 215 Oct. 12; Sep. 13What do you know about Thiruppur Kumaran? 216 Oct. 15Write a note about Subramaniya Siva 216 June 15Mention some of the poems of Subramaniya Bharathiar. 216 April 15; Mar. 17

Write a note on the welfare measures taken by Kamaraj. 216 Dept. Paper; June 13; April 14; Oct. 16

Why was Kamaraj called as ‘King Maker’? 216 Sep. 13 & 14

14 What are the aims of Self-Respect Movement? 228 June 12 & 15; April 13 & 15; Sep. 17

Why do we call Periyar as ‘Vaikam Hero’? 229Dept. Paper; June 13;

April & Sep. 14; April & Oct. 16; Mar. 17

Sura’s X Std. Social Science v Detailed Analysis

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14 Narrate Dr. Muthu Lakshmi’s role in the agitation against Devadasi system. 229 April & Oct. 12; June 17

What did Dr. S. Dharmambal do to the Tamil Teachers? 229 June 14

Write about Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy. 231 July 16

1

4 Marks : Caption Ques. (History) Causes for the rise of Imperialism 13 April 12; Sep. 14; Oct. 15

Battle of Plassey and Buxar 13 April & June 14; Mar. & Sep. 17

Boxer Rebellion 14 June 152 Ambition of Germany 38 April 13; April & July 16

Balkan problem 38 Oct. 12; Sep. 13;June 15 & 17

Course of the First world war 38 April 15

League of Nations 39 Dept. Paper; June 12 & 13;Oct. 16

3 Franklin D. Roosevelt 52 Dept. Paper; April 12 & 13;April & July 16

4 Fascist Party 61 April & Sep. 14; Oct. 16

5 Adolf Hitler 73 Oct. 12; Sep. 13;April 15; Mar., June & Sep. 17

6 Causes of the Second World War 88 June 147 Major achievements of the UNO 104 June 12 & 159 Political causes of the Revolt of 1857. 129 July 16

Revolt at Kanpur 129 Oct. 12; June 14

Revolt of Central India 129 April 12; June 13; Oct. 15 & 16; Sep. 17

10 Brahmo Samaj 152 Dept. Paper; June 13; Oct. 15

Arya Samaj 152 April 13 & 16; Sep. 14; June 15

The Theosophical Society 152 June 12Ramakrishna Mission 153 Sep. 13; April 14; Mar. 17Dr. B.R. Ambedhkar 153 April 15; June 17

11 The Indian National Congress. 174 Sep. 17

Jallian Wala Bagh Tragedy 175Dept. Paper; April &

Oct. 12; June 13; April & Oct. 15; Mar. 17

12 Simon Commission 197 April 14

The Mountbatten plan 197 June 14, 15 & 17; Oct. 16

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13 C. Rajagopalachariyar. 219 July 16K. Kamaraj 219 April 13 & 16

14 Self-respect Movement 232 June 12; Sep. 13 & 14

15 Marks : Paragraph Ques. (History)

What were the causes for imperialsim? 18 Oct. 12; June 13; April 16

What were the effects of imperialism? 20 April 14; Oct. 16; June 17

Describe the First and Second Opium Wars. 20 June 12; Oct. 15

2 What were the achievements of League of Nations? 45April 13;

June & Sep. 14; July 16

What were the causes for the First World War? 46 Sep. 13

3 Write a paragraph about Relief, Recovery and Reforms introduced by Franklin D. Roosevelt. 54 April 12 & 15;

June 15; Mar. & Sep. 174 What were the achievements of Facism under Mussolini? 63 Dept. Paper; Sep. 13

6 Write any five causes for the outbreak of Second World War. 93 April 14

What were the results of the Second World War? 94 Sep. 13; June 15; July 16

7 What are the major achievements of the UNO. 107 April 12 & 16Oct. 12 & 16

9 What were the administrative and military causes of the Great Revolt of 1857? 134 April 13; Mar. & June 17

Enumerate the causes for the failure of the Great Revolt of 1857. 135 June 12, 13 & 14;

April 15; Sep. 17Mention the results of the Great Revolt of 1857. 135 Sep. 14

10 Explain the activities of the Ramakrishna Mission. 158 Dept. Paper

11 Write any five factors that promoted the rise of nationalist movement. 180 Dept. Paper; June 14

Write a note on the Indian National Congress. 181 Oct. 15

12 Explain the stages of Non-co-operation Movement of 1920-22 and why was it suspended? 205 April 12;

April & Sep. 14; July 16

Write a short note on Salt Sathyagraha. 205 Oct. 12, 15 & 16; Sep. 17What is the importance of the three Round Table Conferences? 206 June 15

Write a paragraph on Quit India Movement. 206 April 15

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13 Bharathiar is a freedom fighter - Justify. 222 June 12; Sep. 13April 16

14 Write a paragraph on the formation and achievements of the Justice party. 234 April & June 13; Mar. 17

Dr. Muthulakshmi’s contribution to Tamil Society is beyond description-Prove the statement. 235 June 17

Moovalur Ramamirdham is a freedom fighter and a social reformer – Justify the statement. 235 Oct. 15

1

2 Marks : Very Short Ans. Ques. (Geography)

What are the main physical divisions of India? 247

Dept. Paper; April & Oct. 12;

June 13; April 14 & 16; Oct. 16

Write any two points on the importance of the Himalayas. 247 Sep. 13; April, June 15; June 17

Name a few well-known holy places in the Northern Mountains of India. 247 Sep. 13; Oct. 15; Mar. 17

Name the islands belonging to India. 247June 12 & 14; April 13;

June & Sep. 14; July 16; Sep. 17

2 Name the factors determining the climate of India. 265

Dept. Paper; April, June & Oct. 12;

Sep. 13;April 14; Oct. 16; Mar. & June 17

What do you mean by monsoon? 266 April 13; June 14; Sep. 17

What are the main features of tropical monsoon type of climate ? 266 Oct. 15

Name the regions of heavy rainfall in India. 266 June 13; April 15

What do you mean by the ‘Burst of Monsoon’? 266 Sep. 14

What is meant by Rain Water Harvesting? 267 July 16

What are the different types of Monsoon? 268 April 16

3 What do you understand by the term ‘natural resource’? 280 April 12; April & Sep. 14; July 16; Mar. 17

What are the properties of fertile soil? 280 June 13 & 17; Oct. 15Name any four main characteristics of the tropical evergreen forest. 280 June 12 & 14;

Oct. 16; Sep. 17Give the meaning of shrub and thorn forest. 281 June 15

Name the Mica producing areas of India. 281 Dept. Paper; Oct. 12; April 13, 15 & 16; Sep. 14

4 What are the major determinant factors of agriculture? 289 April 15

What are the types of agriculture? 289June 12, 13 & 14;

Oct. 12 & 16; April 14; July 16; Sep. 17

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4 Name the agricultural seasons in India. 289 Dept. Paper; April 13

Name the cotton growing areas of India. 289 Sep. 13; Oct. 15; April 16

What are plantation crops? 289 April 12; Sep. 14; June 15; Mar. & June 17

5 Define ‘Manufacturing’ 306 Oct. 15

Name the factors that determine location of an industry. 306June & Oct. 12;

June 13; April 14 & 16

What are the agro based industries? Give examples. 307 April 12 & 15; Sep. 13 & 17; June & Sep. 14

Name any five software centres. 307 June 14 & 15; Oct. 16

What are the by-products of Jute industry? or What are the Jute products? 307

Dept. Paper; April & Oct. 12; April 13; June 15 & 16;

Mar. & June 17

6 What is water pollution? 326 Oct. 12; June 13; April 15

List out the major air pollutants. 326 April 13 & 16

What is meant by “Noise pollution”? 326 Sep. 13; June 15What are the major causes of Water Pollution? 326 July 16

What is bio-diversity? 326 Oct. 15

What is meant by pollution due to e-waste? 326Dept. Paper;

June 12; April 14 Mar., June & Sep. 17

7 What is trade? What are the types of trade? 342April, June 12,

Sep. 13; April 14; April & July 16

What is the significance of border roads? 342 June 13; Oct. 15 & 16

State the merits of pipeline transport. (or) Mention the importance of pipeline networks in the country. 343

Oct. 12; April 13 & 15;

June 15; Sep. 14 Mar., June & Sep. 17

What are the advantages of communication network? 343 Dept. Paper; June 14 & 17Name any four Mass Communications used by the People. 350 Oct. 16

8 What is meant by remote sensing? 363 Dept. Paper; April 13 & 15; June 14 & 17; Mar. 17

What are the disadvantages of Ground Survey? 363 July 16Mention the basic components of remote sensing. 363 April & Sep. 14; Sep. 17

Define GIS. 363 April & Oct. 12; Sep. 13; June 15; April 16

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8 Mention any two applications of GIS. 363 Oct. 15

What are the uses of GPS? (or) Write any two applications of GPS 364 June 12 & 13; Oct. 15

9 What are the important aspects of Disaster Risk Reduction? 370 Oct. 16

1

2 Marks : Distinguish Ques. (Geography) GMT and IST. 243 Dept. Paper; April 13 & 15;


Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats. 244

Dept. Paper; April, June & Oct. 12;

June 13 & 15; April 14 & 16; July 16

West Coastal Plains - East Coastal Plains 244 Sep. 13; June & Sep. 14; Oct. 15

Himalayan Rivers and Peninsular Rivers. 245 Oct. 16; Sep. 17

2 Windward side - Leeward side of the mountains 262 April 14; Oct. 15

South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon. 262 April 12; Sep. 13;June 15; Oct. 16

Weather and Climate. 263June & Oct. 12;

April 13 & 15; June 14; June & Sep. 17

Loo - Norwesters 263 June 13; April & Sep. 14; Oct. 15; Mar. 17

High Rainfall region and Low Rainfall region. 265 April 16Summer rainfall and Winter rainfall. 265 July 16

3 Tropical Evergreen Forest - Tropical Monsoon Forest 278 June 13 & 14

Renewable resource and Non-renewable resource. 278

Dept. Paper; April, June & Oct. 12 & 15;

April 13; Sep. 14; Mar. & Sep. 17

Wind energy and Thermal energy. 278

Dept. Paper; April & Oct. 12; April & June 13;

June & Sep. 14 & 16; June 15

Black soil and Alluvial soil 279 Sep. 13Metallic Minerals and Non-metallic Minerals. 280 April 16

4 Subsistence Agriculture - Commercial Agriculture. 287Oct. 12;

April 13 & 15; July 16; Mar. & June 17

Kharif crops and Rabi crops. 287Dept. Paper; June 12;

Sep. 13; April & Sep. 14; Oct. 16; Sep. 17

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4 Unicrop (Monocrop) Cultivation - Dual Crop Cultivation 287June 13 & 15;April 14 & 16;

Oct. 15; July 16

5 Agro based and Mineral based industries. 305

April, June & Oct. 12; April & Sep. 13; June & Sep. 14; June & Oct. 15;

April, July & Oct. 16

Iron and Steel Industry - Software Industry 305 June 13 & 17; April 15; Mar. 17

6 Water Pollution and Land Pollution 324April 12 & 16; Sep. 13;

April & June 14; July & Oct. 16

Air Pollution and Noise Pollution 325 Dept. Paper; April 15; Mar., June & Sep. 17

7 National Highways and State Highways. 339 April & Oct. 12; June 13 & 16; April 14;

Exports and Imports. 339April 12, 13 & 16; June & Sep.

14; June 12 & 15;Oct. 15 & 16; Sep. 17

Internal trade and International trade . 340

Dept. Paper; June 12; Sep. 13 & 14;

April & Oct. 15 Mar., June & Sep. 17

Roadways and Railways. 340 Dept. Paper; April & Sep. 13; April 15; Mar. & June 17

Airways and waterways 340 June 13, 14 & 15; April 14 & 16

Bilateral Trade and Multilateral Trade. 341 Oct. 16; Sep. 17

1

5 Marks : Paragraph Ques. (Geography)‘India is a sub-continent’ – Justify 249 Sep. 13; July 16

‘Unity in Diversity’ – Explain 249 June 13; Oct. 15; Sep. 17

Explain the origin of the Himalayas. 250 Dept. Paper; June 12; April 15; Mar. 17

Mention the importance of Himalayas. 250 April 13; Sep. 14

2 Analyse any two factors, determining the climate of India. 268 Sep. 13

Describe any one of the branch of Southwest Monsoon 269 June 13

Describe rain water harvesting. 269 Oct. 12 & 16

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3 Write the importance of forest. 282 April 12, 14 & 16; June 13

Describe the need for conservation of natural resources. 282 June 14, 15 & 17 ; Oct. 15

4 What are the benefits of adopting bio-technology in agriculture? 292 July 16

Discuss current challenges in Indian agriculture. 292 Dept. Paper; April & June 12; April 15

5Describe the factors encouraging cotton textile industry in Mumbai. (or) Describe the factors, why Mumbai is called the ‘Manchester of India

312 Oct. 12; April 14 & 16

Write a note on Sugar Industries of India. 312 June 17Write an account of automobile industry. 313 April 13; Sep. 17

Write an account of software industry. 313 June 14

6 What are the effects of the acid rain? 331 Sep. 14; Oct. 16; Mar. 17

What is smog? What are the effects of smog? 332 June 15

7 Explain India’s trade with reference to her major exports and imports. 350 Oct. 12

8 Write about Remote Sensing Technology. 366 April 12, 13 & 16; June & Sep. 14; June 15

Explain the various components of remote sensing. 366 Dept. Paper; Sep. 13;April 14; July 16; June 17

Explain the process involves in the Remote Sensing Technology. 367 June 12; Oct. 15

What are the advantages of remote sensing? 368 April 15; Sep. 17

9 Write the importance of Early Warning System Disaster Risk Reduction. 371 Oct. 16

What do you understand from the term Recovery stage of Disaster Risk reduction? 371 Mar. 17

12 Marks : Very Short Ans. Ques. (Civics)

Mention the important aspects of India’s Policy for promoting World peace.

379 Dept. Paper; Oct. 12; Sep. 14; June 15 & 17

Why is world peace an essential one? 379 Sep. 13; April 15; Mar. & Sep. 17

What are the five principles of the Pancha Sheel? 379 June 12 & 13

Write a note on the policy of Apartheid. 379 April 12, 13 & 16; Oct. 15; July 16

Name the areas identified by the SAARC countries for mutual co-operation. 379 June 14

India has rendered whole hearted support to the UNO - Justify? 379 April 14; Oct. 16

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2 Give Abraham Lincoln’s definition of Democracy. 388 June 12, 13 & 14; April 14; April, July & Oct. 16

What are the National parties? 388 April 12; Sep. 13; Oct. 15; June 17

Give a brief note on the functions of the Election Commission. 388 Oct. 12; June 15

3 Name some of the religions of India. 398 April 13 & 15; Sep. 14; Mar. & Sep. 17

How do our customs, habits and heritage help to maintain unity? 399 Dept. Paper

15 Marks : Paragraph Ques. (Civics)

Write a paragraph on Pancha sheel and the policy of Non-Alignment.

381

Dept. Paper; Oct. 12;

April 13 & 15; Sep. 14 Mar., June & Sep. 17

Write a short notes about “SAARC”. 382April & June 12, 14 & 16;

June & Sep. 13; June & Oct. 2015; Oct. 2016

2 Explain the types and importance of democracy. 392 June 14 & 17

Mention the types of election and explain them. 392April 12; June 13 & 15;

Oct. 15 & 16; July 16; Mar. 17

Explain the role of opposition party in a democracy. 393 Sep. 13 & 14; April 14 & 16; Sep. 14

3 Explain how do language and literature help to maintain unity in diversity. 400 Dept. Paper; April 15

Write a paragraph on National Integration. 400 June & Oct. 12; April & June 13; Sep. 17

4 Write a paragraph on the Rights of Consumers. 409April 12 & 16; Sep. 13; April, June & Sep. 14;

July & Oct. 16

What are the measures taken by the Government of Tamil Nadu to protect the consumers? 409

Dept. Paper, June, & Oct. 12; April 13 & 15; June & Oct. 15


1

2 Marks : Very Short Ans. Ques. (Economics)Define National Income. 412 June 13 & 14; Oct. 16

What is per capita income? 413Dept. Paper; April, June & Oct. 12; April & Sep. 14;

April & July 16

Write any two needs for the study of National Income. 413 June 17

What is tertiary sector? 413 Oct. 15

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1 What is Laissez-faire? 413 April 13 & 15; Mar. 17What is net domestic product? 413 Sep. 13 & 17

2 Write any two objectives of Eleventh Five Year plan. 423 July 16Write a note on Green Revolution. 423 June 13 & 17; April 14; Oct. 16

What is mixed economy? 423 April 13 & 15; Sep. 14; Mar. & Sep. 17

Write a note on cottage industries. 424 June 15; Oct. 15; April 16

What is Privatisation? 424 April 12

What do you mean by “Globalization”? 424 June & Oct. 12; Sep. 13; June 14

Write a note on transport system in Tamil Nadu. 424 Dept. Paper

1

5 Marks : Paragraph Ques. (Economics)

Explain the two basic concepts of National income.414 Sep. 13; April 14 & 16;

July & Oct. 16

Explain the need for the study of National Income. 415Dept. Paper;

April, June & Oct. 12; April & June & Oct. 15

Explain the methods of calculating National income. 416 April & June 13; April 15; Mar. & Sep. 17

Write about the functions of modern welfare state. 416 June & Sep. 14; June 17

2 Write down the objectives of Eleventh Five-Year Plan. 426April & Oct. 12; April 13 & 15; Sep. 13 & 14; June & Oct. 15


Explain Green Revolution. 426April 12 & 16;

April & Sep. 13; June & Sep. 14; Oct. 15; July & Oct. 16

Explain Economic Reforms of 1991. 427 Dept. Paper; June 12 & 13; April 14;April & July 16

Explain the various power programs in Tamil Nadu. 427

Dept. Paper; Oct. 12 & 16; June 13 & 15;

April & June 14; Mar., June & Sep. 17

What are the steps taken to improve the Indian Economy after independence? 429 June 12

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Sample Study MaterialsExercise

I. Choose the correct answer : (Textbook Pg. No. 7 - 8)

1. Germany and Italy became unified countries in [June 2013]

a) 1870 b) 1872 c) 1780 d) 1782 (Ans - a)2. A great demand for the raw materials was created by

[April & June 2012; Sep. 2014; June 2015; April & July 2016] a) Industrial Revolution b) IT Revolution c) French Revolution d) Agrarian Revolution (Ans - a)3. The policy of Imperialism followed by the European countries from 1870 - 1945 was known as a) Neo - Imperialism b) Political Imperialism c) New Imperialism d) Military Imperialism (Ans - c)4. China was politically independent under the [PTA-1] a) Chin rule b) Shang rule c) Chou rule d) Manchu rule (Ans - d)5. The movement of goods was speeded up by the development of [April 2013; June 2014]

a) Railways b) Roadways c) Airways d) Waterways (Ans - a)6. The ‘Sphere of Influence’ was adopted by the European countries in a) Japan b) China c) India d) Burma (Ans - b)7. The English East India company was formed in [QY. 2016; Sep. 2017]

a) 1600 b) 1664 c) 1644 d) 1700 (Ans - a)8. The French East India company was established by [Dept. Paper; HY. 2016; PTA-4;

April 2014; Mar. & QY. 2017]

a) Louis XIV b) Colbert c) Louis XVI d) De Brazza (Ans - b)9. The Second Opium War came to an end by the Treaty of a) Peking b) Nanking c) Canton d) Shantung (Ans - a)10. The policy formulated by England and USA for China. [Oct. 2016]

a) Open Door Policy b) Doctrine of Lapse c) Protective Trade Policy d) Scorched Earth Policy (Ans - a)

1IMPERIALISM

(Vfhâg¤âa«)

Imperialism in India and China

History

1

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2 Sura’s X Std. Social Science v History Chapter 1

11. The Mughal emperor who gave permission to English East India Company to set up trading post at Surat

a) Shahjahan b) Jahangir c) Aurangazeb d) Humayun (Ans - b)12. The Republic of China was established under [Oct. 2015]

a) Dr. Sun Yat Sen b) Chou - En - Lai c) Mao Tse Tung d) Chiang Kai Sheik (Ans - a)

Additional Questions :

13. In the late 19th century and early 20th century there was a great upheaval in _______ . a) America b) Asia c) Europe d) Africa (Ans - c)14. The word ‘Imperialism’ means _______ . a) protest b) power c) control d) policy (Ans - b)15. The term Imperialism refers to the policy of extending a country’s _______ over the other. a) boundary b) rule c) ideas d) influence (Ans - b)16. The term Imperialism refers to the _______ behaviour of one state against another. a) aggressive b) friendly c) helpful d) co-operative (Ans - a)17. The term Imperialism means a country’s dominance over another nation to exploit

its _______ a) money b) people c) natural resources d) land (Ans - c)18. The policy adopted by the European countries from 1492 – 1763 is known as _______ . a) Capitalism b) Communism c) Colonialism d) Marxism (Ans - c)19. The European countries adopted Colonialism from _______ . a) 1490–1760 b) 1492–1763 c) 1493-1762 d) 1489-1765 (Ans - b) 20. England, Spain, France and Portugal established their colonies in _______ continents a) Asia and Africa b) Asia and America c) Europe and Asia d) Africa and America (Ans - b)21. Colonialism refers to the policy of annexing colonies especially for _______ . a) entertainment b) ownership c) exploitation d) destruction (Ans - c)22. Colonialism was a relationship between an indigenous majority and a minority

foreign _______ . a) friends b) officials c) invaders d) people (Ans - c)23. Imperialism was developed for ideological as well as _______ reasons. a) political b) natural c) financial d) humanitarian (Ans - c)24. Imperialism is the concept whereas Colonialism is the _______ . a) purpose b) policy c) practice d) power (Ans - c)

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Sura’s X Std. Social Science v History Chapter 1 3

25. Between 1763 and 1870 the European Countries were involved in a number of wars and _______ Movements.

a) Labour b) Social c) Unification d) Religious (Ans - c)26. After Unification _______ began to establish their political and economic powers in Africa

and Asia. a) USA and England b) Russia and France c) India and China d) Italy and Germany (Ans - d) 27. New Imperialism was the policy followed by the European countries from _______ a) 1850 to 1940 b) 1870 to 1945 c) 1860 to 1945 d) 1870 to 1935 (Ans - b)28. Imperialism took _______ major forms in the 19th century a) two b) three c) four d) ten (Ans - b)29. The USA’s invasion against Iraq is called _______ Imperialism. a) economic b) military c) political d) new (Ans - b)30. The British followed _______ Imperialism in India. a) political b) economic c) military d) exploiting (Ans - a)31. European and American countries economically controlled _______ . a) Japan b) China c) Burma d) Korea (Ans - b)32. Industrial Revolution in _______ countries resulted in a great increase in production. a) European b) African c) Asian d) American (Ans - a)33. Industrial Revolution created a great _______ for raw materials and new markets. a) loss b) surplus c) demand d) interest (Ans - c)34. Europe followed _______ trade policy. a) open b) selective c) protective d) external (Ans - c)35. The purchasing power of the people was less due to _______ . a) Capitalism b) Communism c) Socialism d) Individualism (Ans - a)36. The telegraph system linked the whole world and reduced great _______. a) burden b) distances c) tariff d) difficulties (Ans - b)37. The sense of _______ and self-sufficiency among the European political groups instigated

Colonial Imperialism. a) national security b) responsibility c) pride d) political stability (Ans - a)38. The later part of the nineteenth century saw extreme nationalistic ideas in _______. a) Asia b) Africa c) America d) Europe (Ans - d)39. Many nations felt that acquisition of colonies would _______ the prestige of their nations. a) affect b) bring down c) empower d) enhance (Ans - d)

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VI. Activity (Textbook Pg. No. 9)

Mark the following on the outline map of Asia. Peking (Beijing) [PTA-1 & 4; Apr. 13 & 15; June 15; Mar. & QY. 17]

Canton [PTA-1 & 2; HY. 16; Apr. 14 & 16; July & Oct. 16]

Hong Kong [PTA-2 & 3; QY. 16; April 12, 13 & 15; Sep. 12 & 14; June 14 & 15; Oct. 15; Mar., June, Sep. & QY. 17]

Formosa [PTA-2 & 3; QY. & HY. 16; QY. 17; Sep. 12 & 14; Apr. & June 14; Oct. 15; Apr. & Oct. 16] Korea [PTA-3 & 4; HY. 16; Sep. 12 & 14; Apr. 13; June 14 & 16; Oct. 15; Mar., June & Sep. 17] Nanking [PTA-1, 3 & 4; HY. 16; Apr. 14]

Manchuria [PTA-1 & 2; Apr. & June 14; July & Oct. 16]

Shakalin Islands [PTA-1 & 4; Apr. 14 & 16; July & Oct. 16]

Japan [PTA-3 & 4; QY. 16; Apr. 12, 13 & 15; Sep. 12 & 14; June 14 & 15; Oct. 15; Mar., June & QY. 17]

Pacific Ocean [HY. 16; Apr. & Sep. 12; April 13 & 16; July & Oct. 16; Sep. 17]

Formosa (Taiwan)

Í�Î

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11. German battle cruiser was destroyed in the battle of a) Jutland b) Dogger bank c) North sea d) Baltic sea (Ans - b)12. Germany sued for peace on a) Nov.11, 1918 b) Nov. 21, 1918 c) Nov. 12, 1918 d) Nov. 22, 1918 (Ans - a)13. The First World War came to an end by the [Sep. 2017]

a) London Peace Conference b) Rome Peace Conference c) Berlin Peace Conference d) Paris Peace Conference (Ans - d)14. The League of Nations was officially founded in a) March 7, 1930 b) March 2nd, 1928 c) Jan 20, 1920 d) Jan 20, 1924 (Ans - c)


15. The _______ engulfed all the countries of the world directly or indirectly. a) Sino Japanese war b) First World War

c) Opium war d) Korean war (Ans - b)16. Germany was unified in _______. a) 1890 b) 1870 c) 1880 d) 1800 (Ans - b)17. After unification, Germany developed in the field of_______ a) Industries b) Agriculture c) Textiles d) Food products (Ans - a)18. The colonies of _______ in America were not potentially rich. a) England b) France c) America d) Africa (Ans - d)19. Kaiser William II was the ruler of _______ a) Germany b) Turkey c) France d) Italy (Ans - a)20. There was a popular saying that ‘the sun never sets in the _______ empire’. a) French b) Roman c) British d) German (Ans - c)21. Germany needed more colonies for her growing _______ a) industries b) farm lands c) population d) trade (Ans - c)22. Heligoland is located in _______ a) South China Sea b) Caspian Sea c) North Sea d) Aral Sea (Ans - c) 23. The German ruler adopted a very _______ policy leading to the First World War. a) friendly b) aggressive c) diplomatic d) loyal (Ans - b)24. The European powers signed several secret _______ alliances. a) business b) cultural c) military d) religions (Ans - c)25. Triple Alliance was formed in _______ a) 1881 b) 1882 c) 1883 d) 1884 (Ans - b)

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26. Triple Alliance was formed by _______ a) Italy, Germany, Austria - Hungary b) Italy, Turkey, Austria

c) Rome, Berlin, Tokyo d) London, Paris, Moscow (Ans - a)27. Triple Entente was formed in _______ a) 1907 b) 1908 c) 1909 d) 1906 (Ans - a)28. Triple Entente was formed by _______ a) France, Britain, America b) France, Britain, Russia c) Russia, Germany, Italy d) Italy, Germany, Japan (Ans - b)29. Lack of an international organization led to _______ a) Anarchy b) Monarchy d) Oligarchy d) Hierarchy (Ans - a)30. The strong factor for war is _______ a) economy b) education c) culture d) militarism (Ans - d)31. “If you wish for peace prepare for war”, often said by _______ a) Americans b) Indians c) Europeans d) Politicians (Ans - c)32. Germany, France and Russia adopted a new programme of _______ a) Political expansion b) Territorial expansion c) Arms expansion d) Cultural expansion (Ans - c)33. Great Britain increased its _______ expenditure. a) naval b) transport c) textile d) machinery (Ans - a)34. Germany was in the fear of an anticipated attack from _______ a) Italy b) France c) Belgium d) Switzerland (Ans - b)35. Africa and Asia were mostly colonized by the _______ a) Americans b) Europeans c) Russians d) Japanese (Ans - b)36. Germany’s growth in the international markets made _______ angry. a) Italy b) India c) America d) Britain (Ans - d)37. Berlin and Panther were two _______ warships. a) German b) French c) British d) American (Ans - a)38. Berlin and Panther were sent to _______ by Germany. a) Morocco b) Heligoland c) Turkey d) Serbia (Ans - a)39. French occupation of Morocco was opposed by _______ a) Churchill b) Kaiser William II

c) Woodrow Wilson d) Clemenceau (Ans - b)40. Germany wanted to declare _______ an international colony. a) Bulgaria b) Rumania c) Morocco d) Austria (Ans - c)41. Germany withdrew the two warships Berlin and Panther due to the intervention of _______. a) Russia b) Spain c) Turkey d) Britain (Ans - d)

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59. An ultimatum was sent by _______ to Serbia. a) England b) Austria c) Germany d) France (Ans - b)60. Russia supported the cause of _______ a) Serbia b) Austria c) Hungary d) Bulgaria (Ans - a)61. The countries which were on the side of _______ were called the Central Powers. a) Germany b) Britain c) America d) Russia (Ans - a)62. The countries which were on the side of _______ were called the Allies. a) Britain b) Germany c) Austria d) Italy (Ans - a)63. Artillery, Tanks and Submarines were used in the _______ a) First World War b) Creamean War

c) Franco Prussian war d) Sino-Japanese war (Ans - a)64. The Battle of Marne was in favour of the _______ a) Allies b) Central Powers c) Europeans d) Americans (Ans - a)65. Trenches were dug in the battle of _______ a) Doggerbank b) Marne c) Dardanelles d) Heligoland (Ans - b)66. Russia suffered a defeat in the battle of _______ a) Tannenberg b) Doggerbank c) Marne d) Dardanelles (Ans - a)67. The Russian army was forced to withdraw from Austria by the _______ army. a) Austrian b) Serbian c) German d) Italian (Ans - c)68. Turkey entered the First World War in _______ . a) September 1915 b) October 1914 c) June 1916 d) July 1917 (Ans - b)69. The communication between Russia and the Allies were cut off due to _______ support to

Central Powers. a) Britain’s b) Turkey’s c) French’s d) Austria’s (Ans - b)70. The _______ made an attempt to capture Gallipoli peninsula. a) Greeks b) French c) British d) Germans (Ans - c)71. Dardanelles expedition was a failure to the _______ a) Germans b) Italians c) French d) British (Ans - d)72. The failure of the British in the Dardanelles expedition emboldened the _______ a) Serbians b) Rumanians c) Bulgarians d) Greeks (Ans - c)73. Bulgaria joined the Central Powers in _______ a) 1915 b) 1916 c) 1914 d) 1917 (Ans - a)74. In 1916 _______ joined the Allies. a) Bulgaria b) Rumania c) Serbia d) Yugoslavia (Ans - b)75. The North Sea was commanded by the _______ a) British b) Germans c) French d) Belgians (Ans - a)

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2. Write a note on Moroccan problem. [PTA-4; QY. 2016]

(i) When France occupied Morocco it was recognized by Britain, but it was opposed by Kaiser William II of Germany. (ii) To declare Morocco as an international colony, he sent two warships Berlin and Panther to Morocco. (iii) When Britain intervened (jiyÆLjš), Germany withdrew the ships. (iv) But it wanted to take revenge on Britain.

3. What was the immediate cause of the First World War? [Deptl. Paper; April 2012 & 2014; June 2013 & 2017]

(i) The Congress of Berlin, 1878 gave permission to Austria-Hungary to govern Bosnia and Herzegovina but not to annex (ïiz¤jš) it. (ii) These territories should have gone to Serbia since the inhabitants were Slavs as in Seribia. (iii) In 1908, Austria annexed Bosnia and Herzegovina. (iv) On 28th June 1914 Austrian crown prince Francis Ferdinand and his wife were assassinated by a Serbian lad at Serajevo the capital of Bosnia. (v) Austria sent an ultimatum (ïWâ v¢rÇ¡if) to Serbia but Serbia ignored it. (vi) Austria declared war on 28th July 1914.

4. Explain war in the Eastern Front.(i) The Russian forces attacked both Germany and Austria. (ii) But Russia suffered a defeat

at the battle of Tennenberg. (iii) When Austria was facing crisis, Germany came to its aid. (iv) German forces inflicted heavy losses on the Russian forces. (v) The Russian forces were forced to withdraw from the Austrian territories.5. Write a short note on war on the Sea.

(i) In the battle of Doggerbank a German battle cruiser was destroyed by the British. (ii) The battle of Jutland was fought in 1916. (iii) Both the parties faced heavy losses. (iv) The German fleet retreated to the port. (v) Since it could not break the naval blockade of Britain, it used submarines to sink the ships of the Allies.6. Why did America enter into First World War? [Sep. 2014; June 2015; Oct. 2016; QY. 2017]

(i) In 1917 Germany drowned four merchant ships of America, including Lusitania with her submarines. (ii) More than hundred Americans died in this incident. (iii) The American President Woodrow Wilson became angry. (iv) He declared war on Germany on 6th April 1917. 7. Mention any two terms of the Treaty of Versailles. [HY. & July 2016]

(i) The Covenant of the League of Nations was drawn up. (ii) A huge war indemnity was imposed on Germany. Her army was reduced. (iii) The overseas possessions of Germany were divided among the victorious nations.

8. Write any two fundamental principles of the League of Nations. [PTA-2](i) It aimed to improve the unity among nations and keep peace and security in the world.

(ii) The member nations of the League should respect and safeguard the frontiers of the neighbouring nations without indulging in acts of aggression (gilbaL¥ò).

9. What are the organs of the League of Nations?[PTA-3; June & Oct. 2012; April & June 2013; April 2015; Mar. & Sep. 2017]

i) The General Assembly ii) The Counciliii) The Secretariat iv) An international Court of Justice v) International Labour Organization.

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9. The main cause of the depression was the collapse of American _______ market. a) Share b) Vegetable c) Textile d) Foreign (Ans - a)10. The share market collapse was due to speculation on _______ money. a) savings b) borrowed c) self earned d) bank (Ans - b)11. Herbert Hoover became the President of America in _______ a) 1919 b) 1929 c) 1939 d) 1909 (Ans - b)12. The share market reached its zenith during the time of _______ a) Woodrow Wilson b) Roosevelt c) George Washington d) Herbert Hoover (Ans - d)13. In America, people had a craze for _______ market. a) domestic b) industrial c) share d) textile (Ans - c)14. People in America bought shares for _______ a) dividend b) savings c) investment d) resale value (Ans - d)15. The Americans wanted to become rich quickly by investing in _______ a) banks b) gold c) land d) shares (Ans - d)16. The Great Depression began on_______ in 1929. a) October 24 b) November 24 c) September 24 d) December 24 (Ans - a)17. As a result of Great Depression there was a _______ in the prices of shares. a) rise b) fall c) cut d) change (Ans - b)18. There was a further fall in the prices of shares because people speedily _______ shares. a) deposited b) increased c) bought d) sold (Ans - d)19. People faced the non-availability of credit due to the _______ of banks. a) creator b) success c) failure d) rigidity (Ans - c)20. Many remedial measures were taken by _______ a) Wilson b) Hoover c) Roosevelt d) Kennedy (Ans - b)21. In _______ Hoover took many remedial measures. a) 1930 b) 1940 c) 1945 d) 1932 (Ans - d)22. The President _______ is commonly known as FDR. a) Roosevelt b) Hoover c) Lincoln d) Andrew Jackson (Ans - a)23. New Deal was formulated by the President_______ a) Hoover b) Wilson c) George Washington d) Roosevelt (Ans - d)24. The Security Exchange Act was passed in the year _______ a) 1950 b) 1932 c) 1934 d) 1936 (Ans - c)

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I. Choose the correct answer : (Textbook Pg. No. 26)

1. The founder of the Fascist Party was [QY. 2016; PTA-3; June & QY. 2017]

a) Adolf Hitler b) Benito Mussolini c) Stalin d) Lenin (Ans - b)2. Mussolini organized the National Fascist Party in a) Nov. 1921 b) Dec. 1921 c) Jan. 1921 d) Feb. 1921 (Ans - a)3. Mussolini provided a a) Democratic government b) Communist government c) Stable government d) Republican government (Ans - c)4. The great relief was provided to the workers by a) ILO b) Factory Act c) Charter of Labour d) Trade Unions (Ans - c)5. Mussolini made common cause with a) Churchill b) Hitler c) Stalin d) Lenin (Ans - b)6. Mussolini left the League of Nations in a) 1931 b) 1932 c) 1935 d) 1937 (Ans - d)


7. The term Fascism is derived from the _______ word ‘Fasces’. a) Greek b) Russian c) Latin d) German (Ans - c)8. Fascism was started in _______ a) Germany b) Britain c) France d) Italy (Ans - d)9. Fascism was started by _______ a) Hitler b) Mussolini c) Lenin d) Stalin (Ans - b)10. Italy faced with a great economic crisis due to the huge expenditure incurred in the _____ a) education b) industry c) agriculture d) war (Ans - d)

Fascism in Italy (A.D. 1922 - A.D.1945)

(ï¤jhÈÆš ghár« ».ã.1922-».ã.1945)

4

History

56

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11. After the First World War _______ gathered new strength in Italy. a) Democracy b) Capitalism c) Socialism d) Communism (Ans - c)12. After the First World War, Italy needed a bold _______ a) leader b) advisor c) educationist d) politician (Ans - a)13. Mussolini was born on _______ 1883. a) 29th June b) 29th September c) 29th July d) 29th August (Ans - c)14. Mussolini graduated in _______ a) 1900 b) 1901 c) 1902 d) 1903 (Ans - c)15. Mussolini became _______ of Italian socialist paper in Austria. a) an editor b) the owner c) a writer d) the publisher (Ans - a)16. The socialist paper Avanti was the official voice of _______ socialism. a) German b) Roman c) Italian d) Russian (Ans - c)17. The Fascist party was organised in 1921 by _______ a) Hitler b) Lenin c) Martov d) Mussolini (Ans - d)18. The emperor _______ invited Mussolini to form the government. a) Victor Emanuel II b) Napoleon II c) George II d) Augustine I (Ans - a)19. Mussolini remained in power from _______ a) 1922 to 1940 b) 1920 to 1945 c) 1922 to 1945 d) 1930 to 1945 (Ans - c)20. The followers of Mussolini were called _______ a) White Shirts b) Red Shirts c) Black Shirts d) Brown Shirts (Ans - c)21. The Latern Treaty of 1929 was signed between Mussolini and _______ a) Prime Minister b) President c) Pope d) Army General (Ans - c)22. In 1936, Mussolini annexed _______ a) Bulgaria b) Ethiopia c) Rumania d) Serbia (Ans - b)23. Mussolini left the League of Nations in _______ a) 1930 b) 1935 c) 1939 d) 1937 (Ans - d)24. Mussolini captured _______ in 1939. a) Austria b) Albania c) Bulgaria d) Hungary (Ans - b)25. In 1941, Italy lost its territories in _______ a) Asia b) America c) Europe d) Africa (Ans - d)26. The Allied forces captured Sicily in _______ a) 1940 b) 1941 c) 1943 d) 1945 (Ans - c)27. Mussolini was shot dead by _______ a) the British b) the Russians c) his own countrymen d) the French (Ans - c)28. After Mussolini’s death Italy became a _______ a) monarchy b) democracy c) republic d) sovereign (Ans - c)

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1. A democratic constitution with the federal structure was established by a National Assembly met at

a) Berlin b) Weimar c) Frankfurt d) Finland (Ans-b)2. The Allied armies occupied the resources rich a) Rhineland b) Sudetenland c) Greenland d) Finland (Ans-a)3. Hitler’s anti-Semitism grew to the extent of killing the a) Aryans b) Mongolians c) Jews d) Australians (Ans-c)4. For sometime Hitler was a [Sep. 2014]

a) Painter b) Tailor c) Teacher d) Banker (Ans-a)5. In 1941, Hitler invaded [PTA-1]

a) Russia b) France c) Prussia d) Persia (Ans-a)6. The Allies were strengthened by the entry of a) Austria b) America c) Finland d) Poland (Ans-b)


7. ___________ was a powerful nation in the early years of the 20th century. a) England b) Germany c) France d) Italy (Ans-b)8. The Central Powers were defeated in _________. a) October 1914 b) December 1915 c) November 1918 d) June 1918 (Ans-c)9. Emperor _______ abdicated the throne of Germany. a) William II b) George II c) John II d) Napoleon II (Ans-a)10. At Weimar, a National _______ met and established a democratic constitution. a) Council b) Body c) Assembly d) Government (Ans-c)

Nazism in Germany (A.D. 1933 - A.D. 1945)

(b#®kÅÆš ehár« ».ã.1933-».ã.1945)

5History

65

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11. The Peace Treaty at Versailles was a humiliating one to _______ a) Britain b) Belgium c) France d) Germany (Ans-d)12. Germany lost its _______ colonies after First World War. a) middle east b) far east c) overseas d) African (Ans-c)13. The Allied powers demilitarized Germany to _______ its power. a) strengthen b) weaken c) neutralize d) increase (Ans-b)14. Germany was forced to pay a war compensation amounting to _______ billion. a) £ 6 b) £ 10 c) £ 4 d) £ 8 (Ans-a)15. Adolf Hitler was born in the year _______ a) 1880 b) 1885 c) 1889 d) 1890 (Ans-c)16. Adolf Hitler was born in the year _______ a) Austria b) Albania c) Rumania d) Bulgaria (Ans-a)17. Hitler’s father was a _______ officer. a) Military b) Navy c) Customs d) Administrative (Ans-c)18. During the First World War _______ joined the army. a) Lenin b) Stalin c) Hitler d) Mastov (Ans-c)19. Hitler was awarded the Iron Cross for his _______ a) Speech b) Paintings c) Bravery d) Writing skills (Ans-c)20. After the First World War, Hitler became a _______ a) painter b) writer c) soldier d) politician (Ans-d)21. The Nazi party consisted of national _______ a) democrats b) republicans c) socialists d) communists (Ans-c)22. The Nazi party was organized by _______ a) Lenin b) Mussolini c) Hitler d) Mastov (Ans-c)23. _________ was the party emblem of Nazis. a) Ovra b) Swastika c) Olive leaf d) None of these (Ans-b)24. Brown Shirts were the followers of _______ a) Mussolini b) Hitler c) Stalin d) Lenin (Ans-b)25. The term ‘Fuhrer’ means _______ a) President b) General c) Leader d) Ruler (Ans-c)26. Gestapo was the secret police maintained by _______ a) Hitler b) Mussolini c) Victor Emanuel d) Lenin (Ans-a)27. Hitler began his political career as an _______ a) advisor b) agitator c) officer d) writer (Ans-b)28. ‘Beer Hall Revolution’ means to _______ power. a) decline b) accept c) capture d) transfer (Ans-c)

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29. Beer Hall Revolution was the attempt of capturing power by _______ a) Mussolini b) Hitler c) Napoleon d) Stalin (Ans-b)30. Hitler was imprisoned for _______ years. a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 (Ans-a)31. “Mein Kampf ” means _______ a) My Struggle b) My Achievement c) My Power d) My Rule (Ans-a)32. “Mein Kampf ” was written by _______ a) Hitler b) Mussolini c) Karl Marx d) Stalin (Ans-a)33. The Bible of the Nazis was _______ a) Live or die b) Spirit of laws c) Mein Kampf d) Social contract (Ans-c)34. Hitler wrote the book “Mein Kampf ” when he was _______ a) out of job b) touring c) in prison d) relaxing (Ans-c)35. In the election of 1932, the Nazi party was _______ largest group. a) first b) second c) third d) fourth (Ans-b)36. The Nazis became the largest party in _______ a) 1930 b) 1931 c) 1933 d) 1932 (Ans-c)37. In 1933, Hitler was the _______ of Germany. a) President b) Prime Minister c) Chancellor d) Ruler (Ans-c)38. Hitler became President and Chancellor of Germany in _____ a) 1931 b) 1932 c) 1933 d) 1934 (Ans-d)39. After abolishing the Weimar Republic, Hitler became the _______ of Germany. a) Ruler b) Dictator c) President d) Emperor (Ans-b)40. Reichstag means _______ a) Lower House b) Upper House c) Senate d) House of councils (Ans-a)41. Third Reich means _______ a) State b) Nation c) District d) Empire (Ans-d)42. The Nazis _______ the German state. a) protected b) expended c) left d) glorified (Ans-d)43. Hitler boasted about the _______ of the Nordic race. a) quality b) nature c) superiority d) origin (Ans-c)44. Hitler had _______ for the Semitic Jews. a) affection b) respect c) contempt d) regards (Ans-c)45. Hitler ordered the Jews to be _______ a) entertained b) persecuted c) promoted d) settled (Ans-b)

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46. Hitler believed in _______ a) peace b) non violence c) terrorism d) tolerance (Ans-c)47. There was no scope for public _______ under Hitler. a) speech b) appearance c) liberty d) meeting (Ans-c)48. Hitler _______ the fundamental rights. a) recognized b) denied c) increased d) liked (Ans-b)49. In the _______ field, Hitler’s work was commendable. a) economic b) political c) educational d) cultural (Ans-a)50. Labour Front replaced the _______ a) markets b) trade unions c) co-operative societies d) workers’ forums (Ans-b)51. General welfare of the workers was taken care of by the _______ a) Nazi Party b) Labour Front c) Trade Union d) Welfare schemes (Ans-b)52. Under Hitler _______ were outlawed. a) meetings b) strikes c) workshops d) welfare schemes (Ans-b)53. Rearmament programme of Hitler gave _______ to many people. a) wealth b) health c) land d) employment (Ans-d)54. The children were trained in _______ culture. a) Western b) German c) Nazi d) Nordic (Ans-c)55. Under Nazi rule women occupied a _______ place. a) well recognized b) notable c) degraded d) normal (Ans-c)56. Under Nazi rule all kinds of social organizations were _______ a) formed b) dissolved c) praised d) upgraded (Ans-b)57. Hitler followed a _______ foreign policy. a) tolerable b) friendly c) non interfering d) forward (Ans-d)58. Hitler’s aggressive imperialist policy brought _______ to the country. a) fame b) name c) wealth d) destruction (Ans-d)59. Germany left the League of Nations in _______ a) 1930 b) 1931 c) 1933 d) 1932 (Ans-c)60. In 1936, _______ again reoccupied Rhine Land. a) France b) Britain c) Russia d) Germany (Ans-d)61. In 1937, Hitler joined with Italy and _______ . a) Britain b) France c) Spain d) Japan (Ans-d)62. Hitler annexed Austria in _______ . a) 1935 b) 1938 c) 1928 d) 1940 (Ans-b)

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63. _______________ agreement was signed between Germany and Great Britain in 1938. a) Paris b) Moscow c) Versailles d) Munich (Ans-d)64. In 1939, Hitler violated _______ . a) Treaty of Versailles b) Nazi subs c) Latern Treaty d) Munich Agreement (Ans-d)65. __________ was the Prime Minister of Great Britain. a) Neville Chamberlain b) Ferdinand c) Stalin d) Lenin (Ans-a)66. Hitler demanded the right to construct a military road between East Prussia and Germany

through _______ . a) Yugoslavia b) Poland c) Albania d) Austria (Ans-b)67. Hitler demanded the right to construct a _______ road. a) grand trunk b) broad c) military d) concrete (Ans-c)68. Hitler demanded the right to construct a military road connecting Germany with _______ a) Holland b) Sweden c) East Prussia d) Switzerland (Ans-c)69. Hitler demanded the surrender of _______ . a) Danzig b) Moscow c) Paris d) Oslo (Ans-a)70. Hitler declared war on Poland on _______ September 1939. a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th (Ans-a)71. In 1941, Hitler invaded _______ . a) England b) France c) Russia d) Belgium (Ans-c)72. In 1945, Allied forces entered _______ . a) Moscow b) Danzig c) Paris d) Berlin (Ans-d)73. By invading Russia in 1941, Hitler broke the Non-aggression Pact with _______ . a) Churchill b) Stalin c) Lenin d) Roosevelt (Ans-b)74. The Second World War came to an end after the death of _______ . a) Stalin b) Lenin c) Hitler d) Nicholas II (Ans-c)

II. Match the following : (Text Book Pg. No. 31)

A. 1. Brown shirts a. Nazi Emblem 2. Fuhrer [PTA-4; QY 2017] b. My struggle 3. Swastika [QY. 2016; April 2014; Sep. 2017] c. Leader 4. Gestapo d. Chancellor 5. Mein Kampf [Oct. 2016] e. Followers of Hitler f. Governor g. Hitler’s Secret Police

Answers:(1-e;2-c;3-a;4-g;5-b)

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I. Choose the correct answer : (Textbook Pg. No. 36 & 37)

1. This treaty contained the seeds of the Second World War. [June 2014]

a) Treaty of Versailles b) Treaty of Rome c) Treaty of London d) Treaty of Aix - la - chappale (Ans - a)2. The coal mines given to France were a) Jharia b) Saar c) Bokaro d) Raniganj (Ans - b)3. The country emerged as a World Power after the First World War was [April 2012] a) China b) Japan c) India d) Korea (Ans - b)4. The principles of war and conquests was glorified by a) Moderates b) Extremists c) Dictators d) Revolutioners (Ans - c)5. In September 1938, Hitler threatened a war on a) Yugoslavia b) Poland c) Finland d) Czechoslovakia (Ans - d)6. Hitler demanded the surrender of a) Tannenburg b) Danzig c) Jutland d) Estonia (Ans - b)7. Blitzkrieg means a [QY. 2017; April 2013; July 2016] a) Lightning war b) Trench warfare c) Submarine warfare d) Guerilla warfare (Ans - a)8. The British Prime Minister during the Second World War was [June 2017] a) Sir Winston Churchill b) Clement Atlee c) Margaret Thatcher d) Lloyd George (Ans - a)9. Hitler signed the Non-Aggression Pact with a) Gorbachev b) Boris Yeltsin c) Stalin d) Lenin (Ans - c)

Additional Questions :10. The Second World War took place from 1939 to _______ . a) 1940 b) 1944 c) 1943 d) 1945 (Ans - d)

Second World War (A.D. 1939 – A.D.1945)

(ïu©lhtJ cyf¥ ngh® ».ã.1939-».ã.1945)

6History

79

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11. Second World War was a _______ military conflict. a) natural b) global c) local d) mutual (Ans - b)12. The great powers of the world split up into _______ opposing military alliances. a) three b) two c) four d) multiple (Ans - b)13. Many countries were _______ with the Treaty of Versailles. a) happy b) contented c) dissatisfied d) ignorant (Ans - c)14. Adverse conditions like repartitions and unemployment led to new _______ ideas

resulting in Second World War. a) traditional b) radical c) scientific d) challenging (Ans - b)15. The Treaty of Versailles was _______ in nature. a) kind b) good c) vindictive d) challenging (Ans - c)16. The Treaty of Versailles stamped _______ as an aggressor. a) France b) Britain c) Germany d) Belgium (Ans - c)17. A huge war indemnity was levied on _______ . a) America b) Austria c) Italy d) Germany (Ans - d)18. Germany gave the Saar coal mines to _______ . a) France b) Belgium c) Britain d) Russia (Ans - a)19. Germany gave __________ to France. a) Saar Coal Mines b) Kimberly Mines c) Gold Mines d) None of these (Ans - a)20. After the First World War, Germany’s army was _______ . a) reduced b) increased c) strengthened d) removed (Ans - a)21. When the feeling of nationalism crosses all its limits it is _______ . a) interesting b) entertaining c) alarming d) appealing (Ans - c)22. League of Nations was formed to _______ war. a) encourage b) create c) prevent d) appreciate (Ans - c)23. League of Nations was formed to maintain _______ peace and security. a) local b) national c) international d) mental (Ans - c)24. The big powers did not _______ the terms and conditions of the League. a) like b) accept c) obey d) contradict (Ans - c)25. The League _______ in its prime duty of preserving peace. a) succeeded b) completed c) failed d) gave up (Ans - c)26. After the First World War _______ followed the policy of imperialism. a) China b) Japan c) Korea d) Mongolia (Ans - b)27. Japan joined with _______ and Germany to form Rome-Berlin-Tokyo Axis. a) Italy b) Spain c) Portugal d) Belgium (Ans - a)28. Rome-Berlin-Tokyo Axis sowed the seeds of the _______ . a) Anglo Japanese war b) Vietnam War c) Burmese War d) Second World War (Ans - d)29. After the First World War, there was the rise of new political _______ . a) policies b) rules c) ideologies d) philosophies (Ans - c)

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30. The _______ glorified the principles of war. a) republicans b) democrats c) socialist d) dictators (Ans - d)31. Poland, Austria and Czechoslovakia were formed by _______ the interests of minority groups. a) accepting b) appreciating c) neglecting d) understanding (Ans - c)32. By the Policy of Appeasement the major world powers _______ their responsibilities. a) understood b) performed c) ignored d) realized (Ans - c)33. A new air force was created by _______ . a) Hitler b) Mussolini c) Churchill d) Roosevelt (Ans - a)34. Conscription was introduced by _______ . a) Mussolini b) Lenin c) Martov d) Hitler (Ans - d)35. Neville Chamberlain was the _______ Prime Minister. a) French b) British c) Indian d) Russian (Ans - b)36. Hitler entered into Munich Agreement with _______. a) Britain b) France c) Italy d) Greece (Ans - a)37. ‘Peace for our Time’ was felt by _______ . a) Churchill b) Neville Chamberlain d) Bismarck e) Lenin (Ans - b) 38. Hitler planned for a military road through _______ Corridor. a) Russian b) French c) Polish d) Britain (Ans - c)39. Hitler planned to connect East Prussia with _______ through Polish Corridor. a) France b) Turkey c) Germany d) Belgium (Ans - c)40. Hitler made a lightning attack on Poland on _______. a) 1st September 1939 b) 3rd September 1939 c) 8th September 1939 d) 5th September 1939 (Ans - a)41. Britain and France declared war on Germany on _______. a) 8th September 1939 b) 5th September 1938

c) 3rd September 1939 d) 4th September 1939 (Ans - c)42. USSR and _______ entered into a Non-Aggression Pact. a) France b) Germany c) Italy d) Britain (Ans - b)43. Hitler sent his Luftwaffe to drop bombs on _______ . a) France b) Italy c) Britain d) America (Ans - c)44. “U” Boats were _______ . a) Tankers b) Submarines c) Trenches d) Lightning War (Ans - b)45. The Battle of Britain was fought in the year _______ . a) 1938 b) 1939 c) 1940 d) 1941 (Ans - c)46. In the Battle of Britain, heavy losses were suffered by _______ . a) Britain b) France c) Italy d) Japan (Ans - a)47. The British Prime Minister _______ turned the air strike against Germany. a) Winston Churchill b) Neville Chamberlain c) Lloyd George d) Bismarck (Ans - a)

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ExerciseI. Choose the correct answer : (Textbook Pg. No. 42)

1. The UNO was established in a) 1955 b) 1945 c) 1965 d) 1975 (Ans - b)2. The UN Charter was signed at a) New York b) Geneva c) San Francisco d) California (Ans - c)3. UNO’s main deliberative body is a) The General Assembly b) The Secretariat c) The Security Council d) The Trusteeship Council (Ans - a)4. The Seat of International Court of Justice is at [PTA-4]

a) The Hague b) Berlin c) Rome d) Tokyo (Ans - a)5. The United Nations celebrated its 50th Anniversary in the year a) 1985 b) 2005 c) 1995 d) 1975 (Ans - c)


6. The United Nations Organisation was _______ organisation. a) local b) national c) trade d) an international (Ans - d)7. The Atlantic Charter was signed by Winston Chruchill and _______ a) F.D. Roosevelt b) Herbert Hoover c) George Washington d) J.F. Kennedy (Ans - a)8. Final decision of forming an international organisation was taken in _______ conference. a) New York b) San Francisco c) Washington d) Philadelphia (Ans - b)9. The San Francisco conference took place in ______ a) 1940 b) 1942 c) 1945 d) 1941 (Ans - c)10. The UN charter was signed on ______ 1945. a) 26th June b) 26th July c) 26th May d) 26th August (Ans - a)11. UNO came into existence on 24th ______ 1945. a) August b) September c) October d) November (Ans - c)

The United Nations Organization

(I¡»a ehLfŸ rig-1945)

97

7

History

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12. At present there are ______ members in the UNO. a) 190 b) 189 c) 194 d) 193 (Ans - d)13. UNO has its headquarters in ______ a) Pennsylvania b) New York c) California d) Georgia (Ans - b)14. The UNO has ______ major organs. a) six b) three c) two d) four (Ans - a)15. Each member country can send ______ members to the General Assembly. a) three b) four c) five d) two (Ans - c)16. Each member can exercise ______ vote in the General Assembly. a) two b) three c) two d) one (Ans - d)17. General Assembly meets once in ______ year. a) a b) two c) three d) four (Ans - a)18. In 1953, the President of the General Assembly was ______ a) Queen Elizabeth b) Mrs. Vijayalakshmi Pandit c) Margaret Thatcher d) Mrs. Indira Gandhi (Ans - b)19. The Security Council has ______ permanent members. a) 3 b) 5 c) 10 d) 9 (Ans - b)20. There are ______ non permanent members in the Security Council. a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20 (Ans - b)21. The non-permanent members in the Security Council are elected by the ______ a) Secretariat b) Trusteeship c) The Economic and Social Council d) The General Assembly (Ans - d)22. The right to veto is enjoyed by the ______ a) permanent members b) non-permanent members c) all nations d) all member countries (Ans - a)23. The non permanent members are elected for a ______ years term. a) two b) four c) five d) eight (Ans - a)24. The Economic and Social council consists of ______ members. a) 62 b) 48 c) 54 d) 18 (Ans - c)25. The members of the Economic and Social Council sit for a term of ______ years. a) 5 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9 (Ans - d)26. In Economic and Social Council ______ of members retire after every three years. a) one third b) two thirds c) half d) one fourth (Ans - a)27. The economic and social work of the United Nations is co-ordinated by the _____ a) Economic and Social Council b) General Assembly c) Trusteeship d) Secretariat (Ans - a)

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28. Every member nation can send ______ representative to the Trusteeship Council. a) one b) two c) three d) four (Ans - a)29. The Principal ______ body of the UNO is the International Court of Justice. a) administrative b) Financial c) Industrial d) Judicial (Ans - d)30. The Hague is in ______ a) Belgium b) Netherlands c) France d) Switzerland (Ans - b)31. The International Court of Justice consists of ______ judges. a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20 (Ans - c)32. The judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by the General Assembly and

the ______ a) Security Council b) Secretariat c) Trusteeship d) Economic and Social Council. (Ans - a)33. The International Court of Justice is the ______ body of the other organs of the UNO. a) advisory b) educative c) administrative d) financial (Ans - a)34. The administrative functions of the UNO are carried on by the ______ a) General Assembly b) Security Council c) Secretariat d) Trusteeship Council (Ans - c)35. The Secretary General is the Chief ______ Officer of the UNO. a) Educative b) Executive c) Administrative d) Health (Ans - c)36. The Secretary General is appointed by ______ on the advice of the Security Council. a) Trusteeship Council b) General Assembly c) Economic and Social Council d) Secretariat (Ans - b)37. The Secretary General is appointed for a term of ______ years. a) 5 b) 4 c) 6 d) 3 (Ans - a)38. The present Secretary General Mr. Antonio Guterres is from ______ a) Portugal b) North Korea c) China d) Vietnam (Ans - a)39. The working languages of the UNO are English and the ______ a) Arabic b) Chinese c) German d) French (Ans - d)40. We see ______ map on the UN Flag. a) river b) sea c) world d) weather (Ans - c)41. UNO gets its financial aid mainly from ______ a) UK b) USA c) Russia d) Japan (Ans - b)42. UNO played a major role in withdrawing the Soviet troops from ______ a) Argentina b) Afghanistan c) Baluchistan d) Bhutan (Ans - b)43. The UN Conference on Environment and Development was held at ______ a) Rio de Janeiro b) Oslo c) Frankfurt d) Paris (Ans - a)44. The UN conference on Environment and Development was held in ______ a) 1990 b) 1991 c) 1992 d) 1993 (Ans - c)

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45. At Rio de Janeiro all countries adopted ______ a) Agenda 15 b) Agenda 21 c) Agenda 12 d) Agenda 20 (Ans - b)46. The UNO played a vital role in the ______ crisis of 1956 a) Suez Canal b) Buckingham Canal c) Panama Canal d) Ganga Canal (Ans - a)47. The Suez Canal crisis took place in ______ a) 1950 b) 1952 c) 1954 d) 1956 (Ans - d)48. In November ______ the UN flag was carried into outer space by the Astronauts. a) 1990 b) 1992 c) 1995 d) 1993 (Ans - c)

II. Match the following : (Textbook Pg. No. 43)

A. 1. New York [Sep. 14; July 16; Mar. 17] a. Negative vote 2. Veto [QY. 16 & 17; PTA-1; April & HY. 16] b. 1963 3. Present Secretary General of UNO [June 12 & 15; Oct. 16] c. 1969 4. NTBT d. Headquarters of the UNO 5. CTBT e. Mr. Kofi Annan f. 1996 g. Mr. Antonio Guterres

Answers : (1 - d; 2 - a; 3 - g; 4 - b; 5 - f)

Additional Match the following : B. 1. UN Charter a. New York 2. UNO b. Permanent member 3. President of the General Assembly c. Germany 4. France d. Netherlands 5. International Court of Justice e. Rome f. San Francisco g. Mrs. Vijayalakshmi Pandit

Answers : (1 - f; 2 - a; 3 - g; 4 - b; 5 - d)C. 1. Agenda 21 a. Egypt 2. INSTRAW b. UN Flag carried into outer space 3. Suez Canal c. Rio de Janeiro 4. Space Shuttle Atlantis d. USA 5. The Secretary General e. Quality of life for women f. Arabic g. Chief Administrative Officer

Answers : (1 - c; 2 - e; 3 - a; 4 - b; 5 - g)

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III. Answer the following in brief : (Textbook Pg. No. 43)

1. What are the main objectives of the UNO ? [Deptl. Paper; June 2012 & 2015; Sep. 2013; Oct. 2016; QY. 2017]i) To maintain international (cyf) peace (mikâ) and security (ghJfh¥ò).

ii) To develop friendly relations among nations.iii) To settle international disputes (r¢ruîfŸ) by peaceful means. iv) To be a centre for helping nations to achieve these goals.

2. Write a brief note on Security Council.(i) The Security Council has five permanent members (Ãuªju cW¥ãd®fŸ). (ii) They are the

USA, UK, France the Russian Federation and China. (iii) There are ten non-permanent members, and they are elected by the General Assembly for two years term. (iv) The permanent members have the right to veto (negative vote). Its main responsibility is to maintain international peace and security.

3. Mention any two major achievements of the UNO. [PTA-2; Sep. 2017](i) UNO has rendered (mË¤JŸsJ) a great service in establishing peace and security by solving

various problems. (ii) Generally the political disputes are solved by Security Council, legal disputes by the International Court of Justice (r®tnjr Úâk‹w«). (iii) The UNO has solved many international disputes and preserved peace through peaceful negotiations (rkur¥ ng¢R th®¤ijfŸ).

4. Describe the 50th Anniversary celebration of the UNO. (i) In 1995 the UNO celebrated its 50th Anniversary and the overall theme of the celebration was

“We the People of the United Nations United for a Better World” (ii) It was endorsed (x¥òjš) by the General Assembly in Oct. 1993. (iii) In Nov. 1995 the UN Flag was carried into the outer space by the space shuttle Atlantis. (iv) It is to salute United Nations work for the world peace.

5. Mention some of the specialized agencies of the UNO. [QY. 2016; April 2015 & 2016]WHO - The World Health OrganisationUNESCO - The United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organization.UNICEF - The United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund (Now, it is shortened

as “The United Nations Children’s Fund”)ILO - The International Labour OrganisationFAO - Food and Agricultural OrganisationIMF - International Monetary FundIBRD - International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

Additional Questions :6. Explain the term Atlantic Charter.

(i) During the Second World war in 1941 the American President F.D. Roosevelt and the British Prime Minister Winston Churchill met on the battleship Augusta and concluded the Atlantic Charter.

(ii) They agreed to fight out the common enemy Germany.

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7. What was UN Charter?(i) Discussions took place in various conferences held after the Second World War. (ii) It was finally

discussed in San Francisco Conference of 1945. (iii) The UN Charter was signed at San Francisco on 26th June 1945.8. When did UNO come into existence?

(i) UNO came into existence on 24th October 1945. (ii) It has its headquarters at New York. (iii) At present there are 193 member countries in the UNO.9. Name the Six organs of the UNO.

(i) The General Assembly (ii) The Security Council. (iii) The Economic and Social Council (iv) The Trusteeship Council. (v) The International Court of Justice. (vi) The Secretariat.

10. Why is the General Assembly considered as UNO’s main organ?General Assembly is the deliberative body of the UNO because it has the right to discuss and

make recommendations on all matters within the scope of UN charters.11. What was the role played by India in 1953 in the UNO?

Mrs. Vijayalakshmi Pandit was elected as the President of the General Assembly in 1953.12. Write about the Economic and Social Council of the UNO.

(i) The Economic and Social Council consists of 54 members for a period of 9 years. (ii) One third of its members retire after every three years. (iii) It co-ordinates (ïiz¤J brašgLjš) the economic and social work of the UNO and the specialized agencies.13. Who are the permanent members of the UNO?

The USA, the UK, France, The Russian Federation and China are the permanent members.14. What is meant by the right to veto?

The permanent members have the right to Veto (jilbrŒí« mâfhu«) (negative vote) for any decision of the council.15. Write about the Trusteeship Council.

(i) The Trusteeship Council looked after certain territories placed under the trusteeship of the UNO. (ii) Most of these territories were taken from nations defeated at the end of the World War II. (iii) The Trusteeship Council suspended its operations on 1st Nov, 1994 as all these trust territories have attained independence or self government.16. What is the role played by the International Court of Justice?

(i) The International Court of Justice is the principal judicial (Úâk‹w«) body. (ii) It is the advisory body to the other organs of the UNO and there are 15 judges elected by the General Assembly and the Security Council. (iii) It is situated at the Hague in Netherlands. (iv) It tries the cases of the member countries which are brought before the Court.17. What is the main function of the Secretariat ?

(i) The administrative functions of the UNO are performed by the Secretariat. (ii) The UN Secretariat carries out the day-to-day works of the organization and implements the programmes and policies laid down by the organs of the UNO.

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1. European Union traces its origin from the a) ECSC b) EEC c) EURATOM d) ETC (Ans - a)2. EURATOM was established by the a) Treaty of Nanking b) Treaty of London c) Treaty of Rome d) Treaty of Versailles (Ans - c)3. The Council of the European Union is sometimes referred to as the a) Council of traders b) Council of farmers c) Council of consumers d) Council of Ministers (Ans - d)4. The first permanent President of the European Council is a) Ramsay Mac Donald b) Herman Van Rampay c) Mrs. Vijayalakshmi Pandit d) Bismark (Ans - b)5. Euro zone’s monetary policy is governed by a) European Central Bank b) Reserve Bank c) State Bank d) Swiz Bank (Ans - a)6. The name of the single European currency [QY. 2016; April 2015]

a) Dollar b) Yen c) Euro d) Pounds (Ans - c)7. The EU has established a strong relationship with the a) USA b) USSR c) UNO d) UAE (Ans - c)

Additional Questions :8. At the end of the Second World War European _______ and political unity became an important

element. a) Cultural b) Religion c) Economic d) Moral (Ans - c)9. Jean Monnet was a _______ politician. a) French b) British c) Japanese d) Russian (Ans - a)

European Union(Inuh¥ãa x‹¿a«) 8

History

109

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10. Belgium, Netherlands and Luxemburg the three _______ states joined the negotiations in Europe.

a) Bathe b) Benelux c) Balkan d) West Indies (Ans - b)11. ECSC was formed among _______ European countries. a) 5 b) 4 c) 6 d) 7 (Ans - c)12. ECSC was formed in _______ a) 1960 b) 1951 c) 1962 d) 1959 (Ans - b)13. Robert Schuman was the French _______ a) Education minister b) Agricultural Minister c) Foreign Minister d) Home Minister (Ans - c)14. The formation of ECSC was proposed by _______ a) Jean Monnet b) Robert Schuman c) Herman Van d) Stalin (Ans - b)15. The French foreign minister proposed to form ECSC on _______ 1950 a) June 9th b) April 9th c) May 9th d) July 9th (Ans - c)16. EEC and EURATOM were formed by the _______ a) Treaty of London b) Treaty of Purandhar c) Treaty of Rome d) Treaty of Paris (Ans - c)17. The European Union (EU) was formed by the Merger Treaty in _______ a) 1960 b) 1967 c) 1965 d) 1963 (Ans - b)18. There are _______ European Institutions. a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 (Ans - c)19. The members of the European Parliament are elected directly by the _______ of the member

countries. a) citizens b) people c) dignitaries d) ministers (Ans - a)20. The first election to the European Parliament was held in _______ a) 1970 b) 1979 c) 1972 d) 1978 (Ans - b)21. The European Parliament meets at _______ in France. a) Paris b) Versailles c) Strasbourg d) Warrence (Ans - c)22. Currently there are _______ members in the European Parliament. a) 1000 b) 750 c) 736 d) 840 (Ans - c)23. The members of the European Parliament are elected for a term of _______ years. a) five b) six c) three d) four (Ans - a)24. The European Parliament forms _______ of the EU’s legislature. a) one third b) one half c) one fourth d) three fourths (Ans - b)25. The Council of Ministers forms the other half of EU’s _______ a) Legislature b) Court of Auditors c) Central Bank d) Commission (Ans - a)26. The Council of European Union comprises _______ representative per member state. a) five b) three c) one d) four (Ans - c)

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1. The British historians call the revolt of 1857 as [June 2013]

a) Military revolt b) The great revolt c) War of Independence d) Freedom struggle (Ans - a)2. Indian historians describe the Revolt of 1857 as [HY. 2016; PTA-1; April 2014; July 2016]

a) Sepoy Mutiny b) The great revolt c) First war of Indian independence d) Military revolt (Ans - c)3. During the Great Revolt of 1857, the Governor General of India was [June 2012 & 2014]

a) Lord Lytton b) Lord Ripon c) Lord Canning d) Lord Wellesley (Ans - c)4. The peasants had to pay heavy a) land taxes b) tariffs c) revenue taxes d) service taxes (Ans - a)5. Resumption of rent free system was introduced by a) Lord Linlithgow b) Lord Dalhousie c) Lord Bentinck d) Lord Mount Batten. (Ans - c)6. General Services Enlistment Act was passed in [Dept. Paper; PTA-2; Sep. 2014; Mar. 2017]

a) 1856 b) 1865 c) 1586 d) 1685 (Ans - a)7. The first sign of unrest appeared at [April 2012; June 2015]

a) Meerut b) Barailley c) Barrackpore d) Lucknow (Ans - c)8. The Sepoys broke out into open revolt at a) Meerut b) Barrackpore c) Barailley d) Kanpur (Ans - a)9. The wife of Nawab of Oudh was a) Mumtaj Mahal b) Fathima Begum c) Begum Hazarat Mahal d) Sultana Razia (Ans - c)10. After 1857 revolt the Governor General of India was designated as a) Viceroy of India b) Ruler of India c) Governor of India d) Minister of India. (Ans - a)

The Great Revolt of 1857(1857-M« M©o‹ khbgU« »s®¢á mšyJ

Kjš ïªâa Rjªâu¥ ngh®)

9History

120

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11. The great revolt shook the very foundation of the _______ rule in India. a) Mughal b) Hindu c) Company’s d) Foreign (Ans - c)12. The British rule caused _______ to people. a) Welfare Schemes b) Sufferings c) Satisfaction d) Peace (Ans - b)13. The _______ policy of British was one of the major causes for the revolt a) educational b) trade c) annexation d) relief (Ans - c)14. The Subsidiary Alliance was introduced by _______ a) Wellesley b) Canny c) Clive d) Cornwallis (Ans - a)15. Lord Dalhousie’s _______ created fear and uneasiness in India. a) Doctrine of Lapse b) Dual system c) Permanent revenue system d) Mansabdari System (Ans - a)16. Satara, Nagpur and Jhansi were the _______ states. a) Hindu b) Muslim c) Sikh d) Christian (Ans - a)17. The ruler of Oudh was an _______ of the British. a) enemy b) escort c) ally d) envoy (Ans - c)18. The Mughal Emperor was _______ during the great revolt. a) Akbar II b) Shah Alam II c) Bahadur Shah II d) Aurangzeb II (Ans - c)19. Nana Saheb was the adopted son of _______ a) Baji Rao II b) Baja Rao I c) Madhav Rao d) Balaji Vishwanath (Ans - a)20. Muslims felt that they _______ their political power due to the British. a) gained b) increased c) lost d) stabilized (Ans - c)21. The Persian language was replaced by _______ language in the courts. a) Tamil b) French c) English d) Vernacular (Ans - c)22. The most affected part of the British administration was the _______ system. a) military b) public service c) revenue d) educational (Ans - c)23. Under the British ________ Indians got disappointed. a) North b) South c) iliterate d) educated (Ans - d)24. Disappearance of the native industries dislocated the _______ life of the Indians a) moral b) political c) cultural d) economic (Ans - d)25. British attitude affected the _______ industry in India. a) iron b) agricultural c) cotton Textile d) sugar (Ans - c)26. The largest and the most beneficial industry in India was ________ a) manufacturing industries b) agricultural industries c) cotton textile industries d) small scale industries (Ans - c)27. The spread of western culture alarmed the _______ section of Indian population. a) educated b) uneducated c) conservative d) unemployed (Ans - c)

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28. The proportion of the Indian troops to the British troops was _______ a) low b) high c) very high d) very low (Ans - c)29. Delhi and Allahabad were of _______ important places. a) educational b) cultural c) strategic d) economic (Ans - c)30. The _______ became the immediate cause of the mutiny. a) revenue system b) resumption of rent free land c) greased cartridges d) spread of western culture (Ans - c)31. Mangal Pandey was from _______ regiment. a) Bengal b) Meerut b) Delhi d) Bombay (Ans - a)32. Mangal Pandey refused to use the greased cartridges on _______ 1857. a) 28th March b) 29th March c) 27th March d) 26th March (Ans - b)33. Mangal Pandey was _______ by the British. a) pardoned b) executed c)transferred d) sent out (Ans - b)34. The Barrackpore Infantry was transferred to _______ a) Delhi b) Bombay c) Madras d) Meerut (Ans - d)35. The sepoys at Meerut broke into open revolt in _______ 1857. a) March b) April c) May d) June (Ans - c)36. Tantia Tope was the able _______ of Nana Sahib a) Leader b) Friend c) Commander d) Ruler (Ans - c)37. Nana Sahib was defeated by _______ a) Sir Colin Campbell b) John Lawrence

c) Nicholson d) Col. Neil (Ans - a)38. Nana sahib fled to _______ a) Bhutan b) Burma c) Nepal d) China (Ans - c)39. Kanpur was brought under the control of the British in _______ 1857 a) September b) October c) November d) December (Ans -c)40. Bahadur Shah II was exiled to _______ a) Andaman b) Lakshdweep c) Rangoon d) Malaya (Ans - c)41. Bahadur shah II died at the age of _______ a) 87 b) 80 c) 85 d) 89 (Ans - a)42. Lucknow was recaptured by _______ in March 1858 a) Sir Colin Campbell b) Sir Lawrence c) Col. Neil d) Nicholson (Ans - a)43. In Lucknow ________ joined the rebels. a) Lakshmi Bai b) Begum Harzarat Mahal c) Tantia Tope d) Bahadur Shah II (Ans - b)44. Rani Lakshmi Bai led the revolt in _______ a) Central India b) Bihar c) Lucknow d) Kanpur (Ans - a)

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VI. Activity (Textbook Pg. No. 57)

Mark the following in the given outline map of India.

Delhi [PTA-3; HY. 16; Apr. 13 & 16; June & Sep. 14; Oct. 15; Sep. 17]

Jhansi [HY. 16; Apr. 12, 13 & 16; June 13; Sep. 14; Oct. 15]

Barailley [PTA-3; Apr. 14 & 16] Gwalior [HY. 16; Sep. 13 & 17; Apr. 14 & 16]Meerut [PTA-3; Apr. & June 12, 13 & 15; Mar. & June 17]

Barrackpore [PTA-3; Apr. 12, 13 & 15; June 12, 14 & 15; Sep. 14; Oct. 15; Mar. 17]

Lucknow [PTA-3 & 4; HY. 16; April & June 13; Sep. 14; June 15; Mar. & June 17]

Allahabad [Sep. 13, Apr. 14 & 16]

Kanpur [Apr. 12, 14 & 15; Sep. 13; Mar. & June 17] Arrah

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1. The pioneer of the reform movements was [Oct. 2012 & 2015; April 2013; June 17]

a) Raja Rammohan Roy b) Swami Dayanandha Saraswathi c) Keshab Chandra Sen d) Devendranath Tagore (Ans - a)2. Lord William Bentinck passed an Act in 1829 to abolish Sati due to the efforts of. a) Mrs. Annie Besant b) Swami Vivekananda c) Raja Rammohan Roy d) Lala Hansraj (Ans - c)3. Swami Dayanandha Saraswathi started the a) Brahma Samaj b) Arya Samaj c) Prarthana Samaj d) Aligarh movement (Ans - b)4. The headquarters of the Ramakrishna Mission is at [April 2015]

a) Kanchipuram b) Belur c) Melur d) Hampi (Ans - b)5. Vallalar’s devotional songs are compiled in a volume called [April 2016]

a) Devaram b) Thiruvasagam c) Ettuthogai d) Thiru Arutpa (Ans - d)6. Sir Syed Ahamed Khan started the a) Aligarh movement b) Theosophical Society

c) Samarasa Suddha Sanmarga Sangam d) Muslim League (Ans - a)7. Sir Syed Ahamed Khan started a school at a) Alipore b) Allepey c) Ghazipur d) Kanpur (Ans - c)8. A great socialist reformer from Kerala is a) Sree Narayana Guru b) Guru Prasad

c) Guru Nanak d) Guru Sai (Ans - a)

Additional Questions :9. The socio-religious reform movements were called the Indian _______ movement. a) cultural b) economic c) political d) renaissance (Ans - d)

10Social and Religious

Reform Movements in the 19th Century(19-M« ü‰wh©oš r_f k‰W« rka Ó®âU¤j ïa¡f§fŸ)

Exercise

History

140

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10. Raja Rammohan Roy was born in _______ a) Kerala b) Odisha c) Bihar d) Bengal (Ans - d)11. “Precepts of Jesus Christ” was written by_______ a) Dayananda Saraswathi b) Virjanand c) Raja Rammohan Roy d) Swami Vivekananda (Ans - c)12. “The Guide to Peace and Happiness” was written by _______ a) Mahadeva Govinda Ranade b) Balagangadhar Tilak

c) Raja Rammohan Ray d) Dr. Ambedkar (Ans - c)13. Raja Rammohan Roy joined the East India Company in _______ a) 1800 b) 1802 c) 1805 d) 1810 (Ans - c)14. Raja Rammohan Roy served the East India Company till _______ a) 1812 b) 1815 c) 1810 d) 1814 (Ans - d)15. Raja Rammohan Roy went to England to the cause of the Mughal Emperor _______ a) Shah Alam II b) Bahadur Shah II c) Akbar II d) Aurangzeb II (Ans - c)16. Raja Rammohan Roy died in _______ at Bristol. a) 1835 b) 1834 c) 1833 d) 1836 (Ans - c)17. Raja Rammohan Roy died in 1833 at _______ a) London b) Lexington c) Bristol d) Manchester (Ans - c)18. Raja Rammohan Roy was given the title Raja by _______ a) East India Company b) British Government

c) Mughal Emperor d) The British Crown (Ans - c)19. Raja Rammohan Roy formed Atmiya Sabha in _______ a) 1812 b) 1813 c) 1815 d) 1816 (Ans - c)20. Brahmo Samaj believed in a _______ religion. a) Muslim b) Hindu c) Christian d) Universal (Ans - d)21. The Sati Prohibition Act was passed in the year _______ a) 1825 b) 1826 c) 1829 d) 1828 (Ans - c)22. Because of Raja Rammohan Roy’s hard work ______ passed Sati Prohibition Act (1829). a) Lord Dalhousie b) Lord Canning c) Lord William Bentinck d) Lord Wellesley (Ans - c)23. Raja Rammohan Roy encouraged the study of _______ Language. a) English b) Vernacular c) Tamil d) Sanskrit (Ans - a)24. By the Act of _______ Keshab Chandra Sen abolished polygamy and child marriage. a) 1870 b) 1872 c) 1782 d) 1890 (Ans - b)25. Prarthana Samaj was formed in _______ in 1867. a) Madras b) Calcutta c) Bombay d) Bengal (Ans - c)

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Time Line Chart

1860

1870

1880

1872 Polygamy and Child Marriage Abolished, Sathya Gnana Sabai Established

1867 Prarthana Samaj Established

1873 Satya Shodhak Samaj Established

1890

1900

1875 Arya Samaj Established, The Theosophical Society Established

1886 Ramakrishna Paramahamsa died

1893 World Religious Conference at Chicago

1897 Ramakrishna Mission Established

Scale :(1 unit = 10 years)

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164


1 . The Unification of the country was brought by the British [PTA-3]

a) Imperialism b) Politics c) Conquests d) Negotiations (Ans - a)2. The language of the educated Indians was

a) French b) English c) Hindi d) Bengali (Ans - b)3. The religious and social reformers prepared the ground for the rise of [PTA-4]

a) Nationalism b) Revolution c) Mutiny d) Rebellion (Ans - a)4. The policies of the moderates were described by the Extremists as

a) Political mendicancy b) Subsidiaries c) Mandatories d) Open door policy (Ans - a)

5. Open split in the Congress occurred in the sessions held at a) Surat b) Lahore c) Tripura d) Madras (Ans - a)

6. The Minto-Morley Reforms Act introduced separate electorate for the [PTA-2]

a) Hindus b) Muslims c) Sikhs d) Christians (Ans - b)7. Home Rule League in Bombay was formed by [June 2012;June 2013]

a) Nehru b) Mrs.Annie Besant c) Tilak d) Bharathiar (Ans - c)

Additional Questions :8. Before the advent of the British there was no _______ among the Indians.

a) understanding b) scope c) unity d) disunity (Ans - c)9. The British Imperialism made the people of the whole of India think as _______

a) superior nation b) supreme nation c) spiritual nation d) one nation (Ans - d)

Freedom Movement in India – Phase - I Pre-Gandhian Era (A.D.1885 – A.D.1919)(ïªâa ÉLjiy ïa¡f« - Kjš Ãiy fhªâ¡F Kªija rfh¥j«

».ã.1885-».ã.1919)

Exercise

11History

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10. Under British supremacy, India came into close contact with _______ a) Middle East countries b) Far East countries c) European countries d) African countries (Ans - c)

11. English language made the Indians come into contact with _______ countries. a) Western b) Eastern c) Northern d) Southern (Ans - a)

12. The frequent _______ of the leaders became possible due to the development of Transport. a) attacks b) meeting c) discussion d) trips (Ans - b)

13. The ideas of self-respect and self-confidence were imbibed among the Indians by the _______ a) artists b) economist c) great leaders d) dignataries (Ans - c)

14. Newspapers developed a national outlook among the _______ a) women b) man c) industrialist d) masses (Ans - d)

15. The Vernacular Press Act was passed in the year _______ a) 1870 b) 1872 c) 1878 d) 1875 (Ans - c)

16. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 curbed the freedom of _______ a) press b) culture c) job d) education (Ans - a)

17. The Indians were considered as_______ by the British. a) uneducable b) illiterates c) uncivilized d) ignorant (Ans - c)

18. The passing of the _______ made the Indians understand that they could not expect justice from the British.

a) Finance Bill b) Water Bill c) Ilbert Bill d) Treasury Bill (Ans - c)19. The Arms Act was passed in the year _______

a) 1870 b) 1878 c) 1875 d) 1872 (Ans - b)20. The Indian National Congress was formed in the year _______

a) 1880 b) 1882 c) 1885 d) 1884 (Ans - c)21. The Indian National Congress was formed on the advise of _______

a) Irwin b) Allan Octavian Hume c) Dufferin d) Curzon (Ans - b)

22. The first session of the Congress was held at _______ a) Bombay b) Madras c) Calcutta d) Delhi (Ans - a)

23. The first session of the Congress was chaired by _______ a) Dadabai Naoroji b) W.C. Bannerji c) Gandhiji d) Gopala Krishna Gokhale (Ans - b)

24. The first session of the Congress was attended by _______ delegates. a) 72 b) 70 c) 75 d) 73 (Ans - a)

25. One of the aims of the Congress was the abolition of Indian council at _______ (a) Paris b) Manchester c) Liverpool d) London (Ans - d)

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Sura’s X Std. Social Science v Geography Chapter 4 285

12. Crops grown in areas of low rainfall are called _______ a) cash crops b) dry crops c) wet crops d) hill crops (Ans - b)13. _______ agriculture is practiced in the forest areas where rainfall is heavy. a) Primitive b) Plantation c) Subsistence d) Commercial (Ans - a)14. Subsistence agriculture is also known as _______ agriculture. a) plantation b) primitive c) commercial d) intensive (Ans - d)15. Which one of this is a plantation crop? a) Rice b) Tea c) Pulses d) Cotton (Ans - b)16. _______ is a hybrid variety of rice. a) Sugandh 5 b) Samba c) Ponni d) Kuruvai (Ans - a)17. The rice bowl of Tamil Nadu is _______ district. [June 2012] a) Thanjavur b) Madurai c) Karur d) Erode (Ans - a)18. _______ crop is grown both in winter and spring. a) Rice b) Wheat c) Cotton d) Pulses (Ans - b)19. The revolution in the production of horticultural products is _______ Revolution. a) White b) Blue c) Golden d) Green (Ans - c)20. _______ are cereal crops which include jowar, bajra and ragi. a) Millets b) Pulses c) Plantation crops d) Dry crops (Ans - a)21. _______ are crops which are leguminous and rich in proteins. a) Millets b) Pulses c) Rice d) Wheat (Ans - b)22. Crops which help in earning foreign exchange are called _______ a) dry crops b) plantation crop c) cash crop d) food crop (Ans - c)23. India stands _______ in the production of paddy. a) first b) second c) third d) fourth (Ans - b)24. Cotton is a major _______ crop of India. a) food crop b) fibre c) dry d) plantation (Ans - b)25. _______ is grown in the Ganga – Brahmaputra delta of West Bengal. a) Jute b) Wheat c) Cotton d) Tea (Ans - a)26. India is the _______ largest producer of tobacco. a) first b) second c) third d) fourth (Ans - c)27. Tea, coffee and rubber are called as _______ crops. a) cash b) food c) dry d) plantation (Ans - d)28. 95% of rubber cultivation is confined to the Western Ghats in _______ state a) Tamil Nadu b) Kerala c) Karnataka d) Andhra Pradesh (Ans - b)29. _______ is mostly produced in Himachal Pradesh, Kashmir and Uttranchal, a) Apple b) Orange c) Manges d) Cashew. (Ans - a)30. The National Research Centre on plant _______ was established in 1985. a) Bio technology b) Nano technology c) Smart technology d) Nuclear technology (Ans - a)

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286 Sura’s X Std. Social Science v Geography Chapter 4

II. Match the following : (Textbook Pg. No. 171)

A. 1. Wheat [PTA-3; Apr. 14 & 16] a. West Bengal 2. Sugarcane b. Kerala 3. Apple [June 14; HY. 16] c. Uttar Pradesh 4. Rubber [PTA-1; QY. 16 & 17; Mar. 17] d. Punjab 5. Jute e. Himachal Pradesh f. Tamil Nadu g. Karnataka

Answer: (1 - d; 2 - c; 3 - e; 4 - b; 5 - a)

Additional Match the Following : B. 1. Alluvial Soil a. Odisha 2. Low Rainfall b. Forest Areas 3. Primitive Agriculture c. Assam 4. Jhum d. Dry Crops 5. Podu e. Plains of Ganga f. Masham g. Ponam

Answer: (1 - e; 2 - d; 3 - b; 4 - c; 5 - a)C. 1. Subsistence Agriculture a. Cardamom Hills 2. Commercial Agriculture b. Paddy 3. Plantation Agriculture c. Intensive Agriculture 4. Kharif Season d. Wheat 5. Rabi Season e. Dual Cropping f. Uni Cropping g. Extensive Agriculture

Answer: (1 - c; 2 - g; 3 - a; 4 - b; 5 - d)D. 1. Paddy a. Long term crop 2. Thanjavur b. Staple Food of North India 3. Samba c. Marine products 4. Wheat d. Jowar, Bajra 5. Millets e. Sugandh 5 f. Oil Seeds g. Rice Bowl of Tamilnadu

Answer: (1 - e; 2 - g; 3 - a; 4 - b; 5 - d)E. 1. Pulses a. Hot humid climate 2. Cash Crop b. Beverage crop 3. Sugar Cane c. Mild cool weather 4. Cotton d. Agricultural crop 5. Tea e. Horticulture f. Jute g. Fibre Crop/ Maharashtra [Oct. 2015]

Answer: (1 - c; 2 - f; 3 - a; 4 - g; 5 - b)

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50. How can be land pollution prevented?(i) Things used for domestic purpose can be reused and recycled. (ii) Organic waste matter

should be disposed off far away from the residential places. (iii) Inorganic wastes can be separated, reclaimed and recycled.51. How does noise pollution affect the human beings?

(i) The unwanted sound can damage physiological and psychological health. (ii) Noise pollution can cause hypertension, high stress levels, hearing loss, sleep disturbances and other harmful effects.52. What are the measures to be taken to control noise pollution?

Development of green belt vegetation, along highways and in places of public gatherings and development of plantations are some of the measures that could be taken to control noise pollution.53. How is mining a source of pollution?

(i) The mines of the Mahanadi coal fields and NTPC draws about 250 million litres of water per day from river Brahmani. (ii) In return, they release thousands of gallons of waste water. (iii) It contains harmful substances like ash, oil, heavy metals, grease, fluorides, phosphorous, ammonia, urea and sulphuric acid into the river Nadir.54. How does mining affect the Aravalli range?

(i) There is a large scale mining in the Aravalli hills in Rajasthan and Haryana. (ii) The forest cover has been depleted by 90 per cent and drying up wells and affecting agriculture.

IV. Answer the following in a paragraph : (Textbook Pg. No. 189)

1. What are the effects of acid rain? [Sep. 2014; Oct. 2016; Mar. 2017]The acid rain affects the ecosystems by the following ways. i) The most basic microscopic organism such as plankton may not be able to survive. So the

sea animals depending on planktons will die. ii) The food chain will be affected. iii) If ocean temperature increases, growth of coral reefs will be affected. iv) The corals control the proportion of carbon-di-oxide. v) It turns the carbon dioxide in the water into lime shell. vi) Coral reefs grow in temperature just above 10º Celsius. vii) Other ecosystems such as forest and desert also will be harmed. viii) Loss of biodiversity and extinction of rare species will occur. ix) They also change the acidity level of the soil. x) It leaches crucial nutrients. xi) Thus its affects the forest vegetation also.

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2. What is smog? What are the effects of smog? [June 2015]

Smog : i) The word smog is a combination of the words smoke and fog. ii) Major producers of smog are automobiles, fire, waste treatment, oil production, industrial

solutions, paints and coatings. iii) The articulates present in smog include carbon monoxide, dirt, dust and ozone.

Effects of smog :

i) Smog causes a smoky dark atmosphere especially over cities. ii) It decreases visibility, and creates gaze throughout the area. iii) Smog is not only a city problem wind carries smog away from urban areas and harm other

areas too. iv) Agriculture is also affected by smog.

3. Write a brief note on Air Pollution. i) Air pollution is a contamination of air by the discharge of harmful substances. ii) Air pollution can have serious effect on the health of the human beings. iii) An average person breathes about 2,200 times a day inhaling around 16 kg of air. iv) Every time when we breathe in we inhale dangerous substances. v) These dangerous substances or pollutants can be either in the form of gases or particles. vi) The source of pollutants is both natural and man-made. vii) Volcanic eruptions, wind erosion, pollen disposal, evaporation of organic compounds

and natural radio activity are the natural causes of air pollution. viii) The man-made reasons are vehicular emission, thermal power plants, industries and

refineries. ix) Most sulphur-di-oxide comes from power plants that use coal as fuel. x) Automobiles produce about half of the nitrogen oxide. xi) The major air pollutants are suphur dioxide, nitrogen oxide, carbondioxide and organic

compounds that can evaporate and enter the atmosphere. xii) It directly affects inhalation. xiii) It indirectly affects through water, food, skin infections. xiv) It affects the cardio vascular system of the human beings. xv) Diseases like asthma, bronchitis, allergies, lung and heart diseases are caused due to air

pollution. xvi) It results in Ozone depletion, global warming or green house effect and Acid rain.

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Additional Questions :4. Give a brief note on Acid rain (mÄy kiH).

i) Acid rain was first discovered in 1852. ii) This is one of the most important environmental problems. iii) It is caused by indivisible gases given out by automobiles or coal burning by power plants. iv) Sulphur-di-oxide and Nitrogen oxides cause Acid rain. v) Fire and bacterial decomposition are the natural causes which increase the nitrogen oxide

in the air. vi) These pollutants combine with water vapour in the presence of sunlight and oxygen to

form dilute sulphuric and nitric acids. vii) When this mixture precipitates from the atmosphere, it is called Acid rain. viii) Acid rain falls down to the earth in all forms of precipitation. ix) Acidity in the rain can harm and even destroy both natural ecosystems and man-made

products. x) Acid rains, when falling on oceans, reach the coral reefs. xi) This has killed more than 70% of corals in Lakshadweep and Andaman islands. xii) The acid rain affects the ecosystem.

5. How can we reduce Air pollution? Air pollution can be reduced by the following methods:

i) Use neighbourhood market. ii) Try to make maximum use of bicycles. iii) Make use of public forms of transport. iv) Encourage your family to form a carpool to office and back. v) Reduce the use of aerosols in the household. vi) Maintain trees in the neighbourhood. vii) Do not waste Electricity. viii) Share your room with others, when the air conditioner, cooler or fan is on. ix) Put the dry leaves in a compost pit. x) Make periodical pollution check for your car. xi) Use the cars fitted with catalytic converters. xii) Use only unleaded petrol.

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6. How is water pollution caused? i) Water pollution is any chemical, physical or biological change in the quality of water. ii) This water has harmful effect on any living thing that drinks or uses or lives in it. iii) The first pollutants is disease carry agents are bacteria, viruses, protozoa and parasitic

worms that enter sewage systems and untreated waste iv) The second pollutant is oxygen demanding bacteria. i.e., Wastes that can be decomposed

by oxygen requiring bacteria. v) Large proportion of such bacteria in water can deplete oxygen levels in it. vi) This causes other organisms in water such as fish to die. vii) The third class of water pollutants is water soluble in organic pollutants such as acids, salt

and toxic metals. viii) Water can also be polluted by a number of organic compounds such as oil, plastics and

pesticides in the water which are harmful to humans and animals. ix) It transports pollution from one location of the another easily. x) Water pollution mainly affects the water based eco systems. xi) It also disrupts the natural food chain. xii) People can get diseases such as Hepatitis by eating sea foods. xiii) Toxic substances entering into lakes, streams, oceans, dissolve in water and get deposited

on the bed. xiv) This affects the aquatic ecosystems. xv) They can also seep down and affect the ground water. These are the causes for water pollution.

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I. Choose the correct word : (Textbook Pg. No. 203)

1. Trade carried on within the domestic territory of a country is known as _____ trade. [PTA-4] a) External b) Foreign c) Internal d) International (Ans - c)2. Trade blocs are created to make the _______ trade easier. a) Multilateral b) Bilateral c) Unilateral d) Local (Ans - a)3. Cost efficient and most popular mode of transport in our country is _______[PTA-2; April &

Oct. 2016] a) Airways b) Roadways c) Waterways d) Railways (Ans - b)4. The headquarters of Indian Railways is in _______ [PTA-1 & 3; April 2013 & 2015;

Sep. 2014 & 2017; July 2016] a) Mumbai b) New Delhi c) Nagpur d) Chennai (Ans - b)5. The costliest and most modern means of transport is _______

[Oct. 2012; April 2014; HY. 2016; Mar. 2017] a) Air Transport b) Road Transport c) Water Transport d) Rail Transport (Ans - a)

Additional Questions :6. Growth of _______ leads to economic prosperity of a nation. a) population b) education c) trade d) knowledge (Ans - c)7. A country’s _______ growth depends on the overall development in all fields. a) cultural b) political c) economic d) population (Ans - c)8. In the local trade _______ transport plays a major role. a) land b) railways c) water ways d) airways (Ans - a)9. In international trade _______ transport plays a major role in movement of goods. a) Road ways b) Railways c) Airways d) Ocean routes (Ans - d)10. In bilateral trade the country sells _______ goods to a needy country. a) old b) new c) surplus d) unwanted (Ans - c)11. The value of _______ of a country depends upon the balance of trade of that country. a) people b) government c) economy d) currency (Ans - d)

India – Trade, Transport and Communication

(ïªâah - tÂf«, ngh¡Ftu¤J k‰W« jftš bjhl®ò)

Exercise

7Geography

335

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12. India’s trade procedure is simplified and transaction cost is _______ a) increased b) reduced c) removed d) adjusted (Ans - b)13. The development of a country depends on an efficient system of _______ a) schools b) colleges c) firms d) transport (Ans - d)14. Road net work in India is the _______ longest in the world. a) first b) second c) third d) fourth (Ans - b)15. Village roads link different villages with _______ a) cities b) country c) capitals d) towns (Ans - d)16. District Roads are maintained by the _______ and Municipalities. a) Panchayat unions b) Corporations

c) Cantonment Boards d) State Governments (Ans - b)17. The State Public Works Department (SPWD) constructs the _______ a) State Highways b) National Highways

c) Village Roads d) District Roads (Ans - a)18. The primary road system of our country is _______ a) State Highways b) National Highways

c) Border Roads d) District Roads (Ans - b)19. NH47 connects Tamil Nadu and _______ a) Bengaluru b) Hyderabad c) Madurai d) Kerala (Ans - d)20. The shortest National Highway is _______ a) NH47A b) NH47 c) NH7 d) NH4 (Ans - a)21. The longest National Highway NH7 runs from Varanasi to _______ a) Trivandrum b) Kanyakumari c) Nagapattinam d) Ramanathapuram (Ans - b)22. NH47A the shortest National Highway runs for a distance of _______ a) 6.9km b) 5.9km c) 7.9km d) 8.9km (Ans - b)23. The longest National Highway NH7 runs for a distance of _______ km. a) 2369 b) 2639 c) 2963 d) 2939 (Ans - a)24. Golden Quadrilateral Super Highway Project runs for a distance of _______ km. a) 14,846 b) 14,648 c) 14,864 d) 15,000 (Ans - a)25. Expressways are _______ roads. a) Six lane b) Four lane c) Eight lane d) Five lane (Ans - a)26. Border Roads Organization was established in _______ a) 1950 b) 1960 c) 1970 d) 1980 (Ans - b)27. The Border Road Organization has constructed the World’s _______ road connecting Manali

(HP) and Leh (Kashmir). a) highest b) longest c) largest d) costliest (Ans - a)28. The world’s highest road is constructed at an altitude of _______ mts a) 4270 b) 4720 c) 4027 d) 4000 (Ans - a)29. The principal mode of transport in India is _______ a) Railways b) Border Roads c) Waterways d) Airways (Ans - a)

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30. The first railway line from Bombay to Thane covered a distance of _______ kms. a) 50 b) 46 c) 38 d) 34 (Ans - d)31. Bhopal Shatabdi, the fastest train runs at a speed of _______ a) 150km/hr b) 100km/hr c) 200km/hr d) 1175km/hr (Ans - a)32. Indian Railways is the second largest network in _______ a) the World b) South East Asia c) Asia d) Eurasia (Ans - c)33. Indian Railways is the fifth largest network in _______ a) the World b) South East Asia c) Asia d) Eurasia (Ans - a)34. Southern Railway has its headquarters in _______ a) Bengaluru b) Trivandrum c) Kanyakumari d) Chennai (Ans - d)35. The MRTS is operated by the _______ Railway. a) Southern b) Eastern c) Northern d) Western (Ans - a)36. In National integration _______ play a major role. a) Railways b) Roadways c) Waterways d) Pipelines (Ans - a)37. Pipeline operation involves _______ consumption of energy. a) Low b) High c) Medium d) No (Ans - a)38. The cheapest means of transport is _______ a) Airways b) Roadways c) Railways d) Waterways (Ans - d)39. India is the _______ largest ship owning country in Asia. a) second b) first c) third d) fourth (Ans - a)40. India ranks _______ among ship owning countries in the world. a) sixteenth b) fifth c) tenth d) twentieth (Ans - a)41. The Air transport in India made it beginning in _______ a) 1909 b) 1910 c) 1911 d) 1912 (Ans - c)42. Airport Authority of India was constituted in _______ a) 1990 b) 1992 c) 1995 d) 1993 (Ans - c)43. Communication System helps in promoting _______ unity. a) political b) cultural c) religious d) linguistic (Ans - b)44. The largest postal network in the world is in _______ a) America b) Britain c) India d) Germany (Ans - c)45. In today’s world _______ are very popular. a) Telegrams b) Telephones c) Mobile Phones d) Money Orders (Ans - c)46. Mass Communication _______ awareness among the people. a) avoids b) creates c) omits d) decreases (Ans - b)47. In India Doordarshan is the name given to _______ a) Telephone b) Computer c) Mobile Phone d) Television (Ans - d)48. Internet is a vast network of _______ a) Computers b) Televisions c) Radios d) Post Offices (Ans - a)49. Edusat programmes are promoted by _______network. a) Transport b) Trade c) Communication d) Economy (Ans - c)

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II. Match the following : (Textbook Pg. No. 203)A. 1. Village Roads [Dept. Paper; PTA-1; June & Sep. 2014; April & Oct. 2015; June 2017] a. New Delhi 2. District Roads [PTA - 4; Sep. 2017] b. Mumbai 3. Central Railways [Dept. Paper; June 2014; HY. 2016] c. Chennai 4. Southern Railways [PTA-2; June 2012, 2015 & 2017; April & Sep. 2014; Oct. 2016; Mar. 2017] d. Village Panchayat 5. Northern Railways [PTA-3; June 2012; April 2015; July 2016] e. Municipalities and Corporations f. Hyderabad

Answers : (1 - d; 2 - e; 3 - b; 4 - c; 5 - a)Additional Questions : B. 1. Internal Trade a. Foreign Trade 2. International Trade b. Economic Prosperity 3. Bilateral Trade c. Indian Trade 4. Multilateral Trade d. Exports 5. Growth of Trade e. Domestic Trade f. Two Countries g. Many Countries

Answers : (1 - e; 2 - a; 3 - f; 4 - g; 5 - b)C. 1. Road network in India a. Ernakulam to Kochi Port 2. NH47A b. Second largest in the world 3. NH7 c. Major Road Development Project 4. Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways d. Village Roads 5. Six Lane Super Highways e. District Roads f. Connecting four metropolitan cities g. The longest National Highway

Answers : (1 - b; 2 - a; 3 - g; 4 - c; 5 - f)D. 1. BRO a. Headquarters 2. Bhopal Shatabdi b. Bhubaneswar 3. Indian Railways c. Mumbai 4. New Delhi d. Manali to Leh 5. East Coast Railway e. Largest in Asia f. Chennai g. Fastest Train

Answers: (1 - d; 2 - g; 3 - e; 4 - a; 5 - b)E. 1. Himalayan Region a. Chennai 2. MRTS b. Low consumption of energy 3. Pipeline Operation c. Rugged terrain 4. Salaya d. Railways 5. The cheapest means of transport e. Airways f. Waterways g. Gujarat

Answers: (1 - c; 2 - a; 3 - b; 4 - g; 5 - f)

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F. 1. Inland waterways a. West Coast 2. Ocean Routes b. Air India 3. Kandla c. Indian Airlines 4. Thoothukudi d. Canals and backwaters 5. Tata Airline e. Jet Airways f. East Coast g. Port Trust

Answers: (1 - d; 2 - g; 3 - a; 4 - f; 5 - b)G. 1. Communication System a. Multimedia based system 2. Personal Communication b. Private Operator 3. Mass Communication c. Largest Postal Network in the World 4. India d. Waterways Authority 5. Internet e. e - Television f. Telephones g. Cultural Unity

Answers: (1 - g; 2 - f; 3 - e; 4 - c; 5 - a)

III. Distinguish between the following: (Textbook Pg. No. 203 & 204)

[PTA-2; April & Oct. 2012; June 2013 & 2016; April 2014; HY. 2016]

1. National Highways State Highways1) National Highways link the state

capitals with national capital.1) State Highways link the state capitals

with the different district headquarters.2) They are maintained by the Central

Public Works Department (CPWD)2) They are maintained by the State Public

Works Department (SPWD).3) It runs to a length of 92,851 kms. 3) It runs to a length 1,31,899 kms.

4) Eg. Chennai to Delhi. 4) Eg. Cuddalore to Chittor Road.

[PTA-1 & 4; April 2012, 2013 & 2016; June & Sep. 2014; June 2012 & 2015; Oct. 2015 & 2016; HY. 2016; Sep. 2017]

2. Exports Imports1) Export means goods and services sold

for foreign currency.1) Import refers to goods and services

bought from overseas producers.

2) India exports nearly 7,500 goods to nearly 190 countries of the world.

2) India imports nearly 6000 goods from 140 countries.

3) India exports Cereals, Pulses, Leather goods, Textiles & Handicrafts, Tea, Spices, Iron Ore.

3) India imports Electrical machineries, Wheat, Petroleum, Fertilizers, transport equipments, newsprint.

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3. [PTA-2 & 3; Deptl. Paper; June 2012; Sep. 2013 & 2014; April & Oct. 2015; Mar., June & Sep. 2017]

Internal Trade International Trade1) Internal trade is also known as local

trade.1) International trade is also known as

external trade.2) It is carried on within the domestic

territory of a country.2) It is a trade carried on between two or

more countries.3) Land transport plays a major role in the

movement of goods.3) Ocean transport plays a major role in the

movement of goods.4) This trade is mostly based on the

nation’s currency.4) The trade is carried on foreign currency.

5) It helps to promote a balanced regional growth in the country.

5) It leads to rapid economic progress of a country.

[PTA-3 & 4; Deptl. Paper; April & Sep. 2013; April 2015; Mar. & June 2017]

4. Roadways Railways1) The Indian roads are cost efficient and

the most popular dominant mode of transport.

1) Railways in India provide the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers.

2) They link different parts of our country. 2) It brings people from the farthest corner of our country.

3) It is used by all sections of people in the society.

3) It promotes trade, tourism, education and national integration.

4) The roads are classified into Village Roads, District Roads, State Highways, National Highways, Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways, Expressways, Border Roads and International Highways.

4) Indian Railway Network runs on the multigauge operation. They are 1. Broad Gauge 2. Meter Gauge 3. Narrow Gauge.

5) Road network in India is the second longest in the world accounting for 3.314 million km.

5) Indian Railways is the 5th largest in the world and 2nd largest in Asia. It traverses across the length and breadth for 63,273 km connecting 7,025 stations.

[PTA-1 & 2; June 2013, 2014 & 2015; April 2014 & 2016]5. Airways Waterways

1) Airways is the quickest, costliest, most modern and comfortable means of transport.

1) Waterways are the cheapest means of transport.

2) They carry passengers, freight and mail. 2) They are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods at low cost.

3) They link local, regional, national and international cities.

3) Waterways are in the form of rivers, canals, backwaters, seas and oceans.

4) Airways are classified into Domestic Airways & International Airways.

4) Waterways are classified into inland waterways and ocean routes.

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6. Village Roads District Roads1) Village Roads link different villages

with towns.1) District Roads link the towns with the

district headquarters.

2) These roads are constructed and maintained by village panchayats.

2) These roads are constructed and maintained by the Corporations and Municipalities.

3) In India, village roads run to a length of 26, 50,000 kms.

3) District roads run to a total length of 4, 67,763 kms.

7. [Oct. 2016; Sep. 2017]

Bilateral Trade Multilateral trade1) Bilateral trade is a trade carried out

between two countries based on the agreement deal of not using currency for payment

1) Multilateral trade is carried out between many countries.

2) In this trade a country sells its surplus goods to a needy country.

2) In this trade a country sells its surplus goods to the needy country by getting revenue and buys the required goods from another country by using the same revenue.

3) In return buys an equally required goods from the other country.

3) This trade is very complicate to negotiate. But stands very powerful when all the countries sign the agreement.

8. Print Media Electronic media1) Printing is a process of production of

Books, Newspapers and Magazines.1) Electronic media utilizes electronic or

electro-mechanical energy for the end user to access the content.

2) They educate people in the method of performing their civic duty. They play a positive role in strengthening the bonds of communal harmony.

2) Electronic media encourages the spirit of globalization in all walks of life.

3) Eg. Books, Journals, Magazines, Newspapers etc.

3) Eg. Radio, Television,MobilePhone, Internet, e-mail, Fax etc.

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9. Personal Communication Mass communication1) Personal communication refers to

exchanging of information between two persons.

1) Mass communication network plays a vital role in creating awareness about national policies and programmes by providing information and education.

2) It includes postal service, telegram, telephones, Mobile Phones, fax etc.

2) It includes Radio, Television, Newspaper, Internet.

IV. Short Answers : (Textbook Pg. No. 204)

1. What is trade? What are the types of trade?[June 2012, Sep. 2013; April 2012, 2014 & 2016; July & HY. 2016]

i) Trade is an act or process of buying, selling or exchanging goods and services.

ii) Trade in general is of two types.

iii) They are internal trade and international trade.

2. State the highlights of India’s foreign trade policy (mašeh£L tÂf¡ bfhŸif) since 2004.Highlights of India’s foreign trade policy are :

i) Merchandise trade has been doubled.

ii) Thrust is given for employment generation, especially in semi-urban and rural areas.

iii) Trade procedure is simplified and transaction cost is reduced.

iv) Special focus is given to make India a global hub.

v) Vishesh Krishi Upaj Yojna has been introduced to boost exports of fruits, vegetables, flowers and minor forest products.

3. Trade, Transport and Communication stand complementary to each other. How?(i) Growth of trade leads to economic prosperity of a nation. (ii) But trade growth depends on

well developed market, advanced transport and communication system. (iii) Thus trade, transport and communication stand complementary to each other.

4. What is the significance of border roads? [June 2013; Oct. 2015 & 2016]

(i) Border roads are the roads constructed along the Northern and North Eastern borders of India. (ii) These roads are constructed and maintained by Border Roads Organization (BRO). (iii) It was set up in 1960 by the government of India. (iv) Border Road Organization has constructed the world’s highest road connecting Manali (H.P) to Leh (Kashmir) at an altitude of 4270 meters.

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5. Brief how physiography (Ãy ïa‰ifÆaš) play a role in the distribution of Railway networks in India.(i) The Himalayan region has rugged terrain and so it is difficult to lay railway tracks along the

steep slopes. (ii) The condition in West Rajasthan, frequent flood in Brahmaputra valley, thick forest and rough terrain in Northeast India has led to a few railway lines in these region. (iii) The northern plains of India is a flat land and it has a dense network of railways. (iv) Peninsular India is a plateau with an undulated terrain, hence it has a moderate railway network.6. Write a note on suburban railway. [PTA-3 & 4]

(i) Cities in India such as Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata and Delhi have separate tracks for the suburban network. (ii) The suburban network connects the commuters of suburban areas to the urban centres. (iii) They are mostly Electric Multiple Units (EMU). (iv) These trains usually have nine coaches but to avoid overcrowd during peak hours they attach extra coaches.

7. State the merits of pipeline transport. (or) [PTA-1 & 2; Oct. 2012; April 2013 & 2015; June 2015; Mar. & Sep. 2017]

Mention the importance of Pipeline networks in the country. [Sep. 2014]

i) Pipe line can be laid though difficult terrain as well as under water. ii) Initial cost of laying pipeline is high, but subsequent cost for maintenance and operation

is low. iii) It ensures steady supply and minimizes transshipment losses and delays. iv) Pipeline operation involves very low consumption of energy.

8. Mention the important pipeline networks in our country. i) From oil fields in upper Assam to Kanpur in Uttar Pradesh via Guwahati, Barauni and

Allahabad. ii) From Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar in Punjab Via. Viramgam, Mathura, Delhi and

Sonipat. iii) Gas pipeline from Hazira in Gujarat connects Jagdishpur in Uttarpradesh Via. Vijaipur

in Madhya Pradesh. iv) Apart from the above, pipelines are also laid connecting, Mumbai high and Mumbai,

Mumbai and Pune.

9. What are the advantages of communication network? [Deptl. Paper; June 2014 & 2017](i) It enables quick exchange of information with people anywhere in the world. (ii) It leads

to enormous growth of trade. (iii) It helps the government to tackle various socio–economic problems in the society. (iv) It improves the quality of human life. (v) It opens the door to the information age. (vi) It promotes Edusat programs.


10. What is Internal Trade?(i) Internal trade also known as local trade is carried within the domestic territory of a country.

(ii) Land transport plays a major role in the movement of goods. (iii) This trade is mostly based on the nation’s currency. (iv) It helps to promote a balanced regional growth in the country.

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11. What is International Trade?International trade is also known as external trade.(i) It is carried on between two or more countries. (ii) Ocean transport plays a major role in

the movement of goods. (iii) The trade is carried on with foreign currency. (iv) It leads to rapid economic progress of a country, Eg. India supplies Iron ore to Japan.

12. Mention an example of Internal Trade.Tea from Assam, Coffee from Karnataka, Spices from Kerala, Minerals from Jharkhand, West

Bengal, Orissa belt are being supplied to different parts of our country.

13. What is Bilateral Trade?(i) Bilateral trade is a trade carried out between two countries based on the agreement deal

of not using currency for payment. (ii) In this trade a country sells its surplus goods to a needy country. (iii) In return buys an equally required goods from the other country.14. What is Multilateral trade?

(i) Multilateral trade is carried out between many countries. (ii) In this trade a country sells its surplus goods to the needy country by getting revenue and buys the required goods from another country by using the same revenue. (iii) This trade is very complicate to negotiate. (iv) But stands very powerful when all the countries sign the agreement.

15. What are Trade Blocs?The trade Blocs like APEC (Asian Pacific Economic Community), ASEAN (Association of

South East Asian Nations) and SAPTA (South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement) are created to make the trade easier.

16. What are Exports and Imports?(i) Export and Import are the two components of trade. (ii) Export means goods and services

sold for foreign currency. India exports nearly 7500 goods to nearly 190 countries of the world. (iii) Import refers to goods and services bought from overseas producers. (iv) India imports nearly 6000 goods from 140 countries.

17. What is balance of trade?The difference between the values of Export and Import is called balance of trade.

18. What is favourable balance of trade?(i) If the value of export in a country is higher than the value of import, then the trade in that

country will be called favourable balance of trade. (ii) For example, Japan has favourable balance of trade.

19. What is unfavourable balance of trade?(i) If the value of import in a country is higher than the value of export then the trade in

that country will be called unfavourable balance of trade. (ii) For example, in India we have unfavourable balance of trade.

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20. Write about the transport system of India.i) Development of a country not only depends upon the production of goods and services

but also on an efficient means of transports. ii) It helps to move the materials to the point of production and goods to the point of

consumption.

21. Why is an efficient network of transport required?(i) A dense and efficient network of transport is essential to promote social cohesion and to

accelerate economic prosperity. (ii) It also ensures security and territorial integrity.

22. Mention the classification of roads in India.The roads are classified into Village roads, District roads, State Highways, National Highways,

Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways, Expressways, Border Roads and International Highways.

23. What are Village roads?(i) Village roads link different villages with towns. (ii) They are maintained by village

panchayats. In India, village roads run to a length of 26,50,000 kms.

24. What are District roads?(i) District roads link towns with the district headquarters. (ii) They are maintained by the

corporations and municipalities. (iii) In India they run to a total length of 4,67,763 kms.25. What are State Highways (beLŠrhiy)?

(i) National Highways link the state capitals with the different district headquarters. (ii) The roads are constructed and maintained by the State Public Works Department (SPWD). (iii) Cuddalore - Chittor Road is an example for State Highways.26. What is NH47?

(i) NH47 is a National Highway which connects Tamil Nadu and Kerala. (ii) The total length of the road is 650 km out of which 224 km runs in state of Tamil Nadu.27. What is NH47A?

(i) The shortest National Highway is NH 47A. (ii) It runs from Ernakulum to Kochi port covering a distance of 5.9 km.28. What is NH7?

(i) The longest National Highway NH 7 runs from Varanasi in Uttarpradesh to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu covering the distance of 2369 km. (ii) It passes through some of the important metros like Jabalpur, Nagpur, Hyderabad and Bengaluru.

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29. What is Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways?(i) Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways Project is a major road development project

launched by the Government of India. (ii) It runs to a length of 14,846 km connecting the major cities of India.30. Explain the Six lanes Super Highways.

(i) Six lanes super Highways run to a length of 5846 km. (ii) They connect the four metropolitan cities Chennai, Mumbai, Delhi, and Kolkata.31. Explain the North South corridor and East West corridor.

(i) The North South corridor links Srinagar and Kanyakumari. (ii) East West corridor connects, Silchar and Porbandhar (iii) They run to a total length of 7300 kms.32. What is the main objective of the Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways Project?

(i) The main objective of the Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways is providing connectivity, speed and safety. (ii) They are meant to reduce the travel time and link the metropolitans closer. (iii) These projects are implemented by the NHAI (National Highway Authority of India)33. Explain the term BOT. (i) BOT means Build, Operate and Transfer. (ii) As the Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways Project involves huge investment, the

Government has entrusted private sector companies to invest, develop and maintain these highways.

(iii) The agreement for the construction of roads is based on the concept of BOT.34. What are Expressways?

(i) Express ways are the technologically improved high class roads in the Indian Road Network. (ii) They are six lanes roads. (iii) They run to a length of more than 200 kms. (iv) New Mumbai – Pune Road is an example for Expressway.

35. What are International Highways? (i) International Highways are the roads that link India with neighbouring countries. (ii) They promote harmonious relationship with them.

36. What is the role of railways with mode of transport in India?(i) The Railways in India provide the principal mode of transportation for freight and

passengers. (ii) It brings people together from the farthest corner of the country. (iii) It promotes trade, tourism, education and National integration.

37. When was the Indian National Railways formed?(i) Railways made a modest beginning in India in 1853. (ii) By 1947, they had grown to 42

rail systems managed by 37 companies. (iii) In 1951 the systems were nationalized as one unit, “The Indian Railways”.

38. Mention about the Multigauge operation.

Multigauge operation means Broad gauge, Meter gauge and Narrow gauge.

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39. What is MRTS?(i) The Mass Rapid Transit System (MRTS) is an elevated line of the suburban railway in Chennai.

(ii) This railway line currently runs from Chennai beach to Velachery. (iii) It covers 17 stations for a distance of 25 km. (iv) The MRTS is operated by the state owned Southern Railway.40. What is the role of railways in Indian economy?

(i) Railways help in bulk movement of goods, commercialization of agriculture, unified national market, control of famines. (ii) Above all they play a greater role in administration.

41. What are Pipe Lines?(i) Pipe lines were used to transport water to cities in earlier days. (ii) But now they are also

used for transporting crude oil and natural gas. (iii) It is transported from oil and natural gas fields to oil refineries, fertilizer factories and big thermal power plants.

42. What are Waterways?(i) Waterways are the cheapest means of transport. (ii) They are most suitable for carrying

heavy and bulky goods at low cost. (iii) It is fuel efficient and environment friendly mode of transport. (iv) Waterways are classified into Inland waterways and Ocean routes.

43. What are Inland Waterways?(i) India has an extensive network of inland waterways in the form of rivers, canals and

backwaters. (ii) The total navigable length is 14,500 km. (iii) Out of which 5,685 km of rivers and 400 km of canals are used by mechanized crafts. (iv) The “Waterways Authority of India” has identified five national waterways.

44. What are Ocean Routes?(i) India has a long coast line of 7516 km with 13 major and 187 medium and minor

ports located along the coast. (ii) These ports handle 95 percent of the country’s foreign trade. (iii) The major ports are managed and controlled by ‘Port Trust’ under the Government of India.45. Name the ports situated on the west and east coast of India.

(i) The major ports along the west coast are Kandla, Mumbai, Jawaharlal Nehru, Marmagao, New Mangalore and Cochin. (ii) The major ports along the east coast are Tuticorin, Chennai, Ennore, Vishakapatnam, Paradip, Haldia and Kolkata.

46. Name the four major ship-building yards of India.India is the second largest ship owning country in Asia and ranks 16th in the world. India has

four major ship-building yards i) Hindustan Shipyard at Vishakapatnam ii) Garden Reach Workshop at Kolkata iii) Mazagaon Dock at Mumbai iv) Kochi Shipyard at Kochi

47. Name the Acts which allowed private investment in ports.(i) Government of India has used guide lines for private investment in the port sectors.

(ii) Indians Ports Act of 1908 and Major Port Trust Act of 1963 have allowed the private investments in ports.

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48. What are Airways?(i) Airways are the quickest, costliest most modern and comfortable means of transport.

(ii) They carry passengers freight and mail. (iii) They link local, regional, national and international cities. (iv) Air transport had made accessibility easier by connecting difficult terrains like high mountains and sandy deserts.49. Describe the development of Air transport in India.

(i) The Air transport in India made its beginning in 1911, but the real initiation was made in 1932 by JRD Tata when he started the Tata Airline. (ii) In 1946 it was renamed as Air India and in 1953, Air transport was nationalized. (iii) Indian Airlines was set up to cater the needs of domestic market while Air India was set up to take care of the international sectors.50. What was the development in 2007 in the Airways of India?

(i) In 2007, the Government of India merged the Air India and Indian Airlines under National Aviation Corporation of India Limited (NACIL). (ii) NACIL (A) provides international services. (iii) NACIL (I) provides domestic services and services to neighbouring countries in South East Asia and Middle East.51. What is NACIL?

(i) NACIL operates 159 Airbuses and Boeing aircrafts. (ii) It plays a major role in connecting Indian cities with the major cities of the world. (iii) Apart from NACIL there are private operators namely, Jet Airways, Kingfisher Airlines, Spice Jet, Inter Globe Aviation (INDIGO) to provide domestic services.52. Write about the Airport Authority of India (AAI).

(i) Airport Authority of India (AAI) was constituted in 1995. (ii) It has instituted international standards of safety to Indian Airports. (iii) At present, AAI maintains and operates 129 airports out of which 17 are International Airports.53. Write about the Pawan – Hans Helicopter Ltd, a public sector company.

(i) Pawan – Hans Helicopter Ltd., is a public sector company. (ii) It is engaged in providing helicopter services to ONGC for its offshore operations. (iii) It also provides services to various State Governments, especially in the North East to link the inaccessible areas.54. Explain the term Communication (jftš bjhiy¤ bjhl®ò) system.

(i) Communication system contributes to the development of economy and social relationships. (ii) It helps in promoting cultural unity. (iii) Communication is a process that involves exchange of information thoughts and ideas.55. What is meant by Means of Communication?

There are various ways of sharing information with each other and it is termed as the ‘Means of Communication’.56. What is Personal communication?

(i) Personal communication refers to exchanging of information between two persons. (ii) Postal Service, Telegram, Telephone, Mobile Phones and Fax are come under personal communication.57. What is First Class Mail?

(i) First Class Mail includes post cards, inland letters and envelopes. (ii) They are air lifted without any surcharge between stations.

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522 Sura’s X Std. Social Science v Model Question Paper

31. The word environment is most commonly used to describe natural environment which means the whole of all living and non living things that surround us.

32. (i) Cities in India such as Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata and Delhi have separate tracks for the suburban network. (ii) The suburban network connects the commuters of suburban areas to the urban centres. (iii) They are mostly Electric Multiple Units (EMU). (iv) These trains usually have nine coaches but to avoid over crowd during peak hours they attach extra coaches.

33. (i) Remote sensing can be defined as the collection of data about an object from a distance. (ii) Remote means far away and sensing means getting information. (iii) Geographers use this as a tool to monitor or measure phenomena on the Earth’s lithosphere, hydrosphere, atmosphere and biosphere.

PART - IV34. a) To measure the size of the economy and level

of country’s economic development. b) To help government to formulate development plans and policies to increase economic growth.

35. i) Liberalization means movement towards a free market system.

ii) It is otherwise known as withdrawal of regulation and restrictions for private sectors.

iii) Private sectors are encouraged to enter into core industries which are reserved for public sector.

Eg : Entry of private sector in the field of production of electricity.

Section - III

36.

1) Himadri is the Northern range of the Himalayas.

2) It extends from the Indus Valley in the west to Brahmaputra in the east.

3) Himadri is covered with snow.

4) Mt. Everest, Kanchenjunga Peaks are here.

5) Himadri is the abode of snow. So many perennial rivers originate here.

1) Himachal is the middle range of the Himalayas.

2) �ey extend from Kashmir Valley to Arunachal Pradesh.

3) Himachal contains mountains and thick forest such as “Pirpanjal”, and Dhauladar range.

4) Here we �nd more valleys like Kulu Valley, Kashmir valley etc.

5) Many hill stations like Shimla and Gulmarg are located here.

Himadri Himachal

37. Weather Climate

1. Weather is a day to day conditions of atmosphere at any place.

1. Climate is the average state of weather for a longer period of time at any place.

2. It deals with temperature, pressure wind, humidity, and rainfall.

2. It is determined by latitude, altitude distance from the sea, wind and position of mountains.

3. Weather conditions help in forecasting day to day weather of a place.

3. Weather records of a minimum period of 35 years are found necessary to obtain reliable average.

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Sura’s X Std. Social Science v Model Question Paper 523

38.

1) �ese forests are found in regions where the annual rainfall is more than 200 cms.

2) �ey do not shed their leaves and are evergreen and dense throughout the year.

3) Ebony, Rosewood, Mahogany, Cinchona etc., Eg.

1) �ese forests are found in regions having annual rainfall between 70 cm and 200 cms.

2) �ese forests shed their leaves due to dryness for about 6 to 8 weeks. Hence called deciduous forest.

3) Teak, Sal, Sisam, Sandalwood etc., Eg.

Tropical Evergreen Forest Tropical Monsoon Forest

39. Wet Farming Dry Farming

1) Wet farming is an agriculture method in which crops are cultivated in the regions that receive sufficient rainfall

1) Dry farming is a method of agriculture in which crops are cultivated on a dry land.

2) Wet farming highly depends upon monsoon winds.

2) Dry farming greatly depends on irrigation for necessary water supply.

3) Eg. Rice 3) Eg. Millets

40.

Cotton Industry Small Scale Industry1) Cotton industries are household industries

depending on local market.1) They are more or less mini factories.

2) Production is of primitive method. 2) They depend on large scale industries.

3) Eg. Handlooms, Coir industries 3) Eg. Industrial units in and around BHEL of Trichy & Ranipet

41.

Internal Trade International Trade

1) Internal trade is also known as local trade. 1) International trade is also known as external trade.

2) It is carried on within the domestic territory of a country.

2) It is a trade carried on between two or more countries.

3) This trade is mostly based on the nation’s currency.

3) It leads to rapid economic growth of a country and is based on international.

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42.

Village Roads District Roads

1) Village Roads connect villages to villages and link villages to towns.

1) District Roads connect towns to towns and link towns to district headquarters.

2) These roads are constructed and maintained by village panchayats.

2) These roads are constructed and maintained by Municipalities.

3) In India village roads run to a length of 26, 50,000 kms.

3) District roads run to a total length of 4, 67,763 kms.

43.

Delta Estuary

1) Delta is a triangular shaped alluvial deposits formed at the mouth of a river.

1) Estuary is the mouth of a river where tidal effects are felt and salt and fresh water get mixed.

2) They are fertile and useful for agriculture. 2) They are useful for fishing.

3) Eg. Sunderbans and Cauvery Delta. 3) Eg. Estuary of Narmada and Tapti.

Section - IV44. Battle of Buxar a) The Battle of Buxar took place in 1764. b) Shah Alam II. c) The Company acquired the civil rights of

administration in Bengal. d) It marked the beginning of Company’s formal

rule in India.45. Results of the First War a) It was on the fourteen points put forward by the

President Woodrow Wilson the terms of the treaties were formed.

b) Germany surrendered Alsace and Lorraine to France. She also gave up the Saar valley to France for a period of 15 years.

c) Monarchy was abolished in Germany, Russia, Austria and Turkey.

d) New Republics of Czechoslovakia and Poland were born.

46. The Secretariat a) The administrative functions of the UNO are

carried out by the Secretariat. b) It carries out the day to day works of the

organization. c) It implements the programmes and policies laid

down by the organs of the UNO.

d) Mr. Antonio Guterres from Portugal.

47. Ramakrishna Mission a) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa was a priest in the

Dakshineswar Kali Temple. b) Swami Vivekananda, the chief disciple of

Ramakrishna Paramahamsa. c) In 1893 at Chicago in USA. d) Swami Vivekananda.

Section - V48. a) Industrial Revolution : a) Industrial Revolution in European countries

resulted in a great increase in production. b) It created a great demand for raw materials and

new markets in Asian and African continents. c) They could not find market in Europe as they

followed ‘Protective Trade Policy’. d) It also introduced a great progress in the

means of transport and communication. National security :

The sense of national security and self-sufficiency among the European political groups instigated colonical imperialism.

Nationalism : a) Many nations developed pride over their race,

culture and language and started feeling superior to other countries.

b) They felt that acquisition of colonies would enhance the prestige of their nations.

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c) Imperialism became the fashion of the age. d) The Europeans felt that it was ‘White Man’s

burden’ to civilize the backward and uncivilized native people of Africa and Asia. This was another cause for imperialism.

Balance of power :European Nations were forced to acquire new colonies to achieve a balance with their neighbours and competitors.

Discovery of New routes : a) The discovery of new routes to African and Asian

continents promoted the spirit of imperialism. b) The discovery of sea routes paved the way for

the traders and soldiers to exploit the abundant wealth of the countries.

Growth of Population :The populat ion grow th and i ts impact-unemployment, forced the Europeans to emigrate in search of new lands and careers abroad.

State of Anarchy : a) There was no international organization to enact

and enforce laws for nations to maintain peace and security among countries before the First World War.

b) This state of anarchy supported the colonial race.48. b) i) Mussolini followed an aggressive Forward

Foreign Policy. ii) He was determined to raise the prestige of

Italy in the eyes of the world. iii) Mussolini’s slogan before the nation was,

“Italy must Expand or Perish”. iv) In 1936, he annexed Ethiopia. v) In 1937, he left the League of Nations. vi) In 1939, he captured Albania. vii) He made a common cause with another war

monger Hitler. viii) He joined the Rome - Berlin - Tokyo axis.48. c) Role of Subash Chandra Bose : i) Subash Chandra Bose was popularly called

Netaji. ii) He inspired the youth to join the National

Movement. iii) He became the President of the Congress

in 1938. iv) He started the Forward Bloc Party in 1939. v) When he went to Burma in 1942, Burma

was captured by Japan.

vi) There many Indian prisoners were released and Subash Chandra Bose entered intocollaboration with the Japanese government.

Indian National Army : i) With these 20,000 soldiers he formed the

Indian National Army of Indians. ii) Subash Chandra Bose became the Supreme

commander of the INA or Azad Hind Fauj iii) Netaji’s famous slogans were ‘Jai Hind’ and

‘Delhi Chalo’. iv) A women’s regiment named after the Rani

of Jhansi under Lakshmi from Tamil Nadu was formed.

PART - II49. a) India and Pakistan :

i) In spite of past conflicts, India and Pakistan are trying to come closer.

ii) The Delhi-Lahore bus service was launched on March 16th 1999.

iii) This was launched mainly to bring the people of the two countries closer.

iv) Negotiations are taking place setting up for Iran-Pakistan-India gas pipe line.

India and China :i) India was the first country to recognize

China as a Republic in 1949.ii) Both the countries have successfully

attempted to restore the economic lines.iii) China has formally declared that she

will support India’s claim to become a permanent member of the Security Council in the U.N.O.

India and Sri Lanka : i) From India, Buddhism spread to Sri

Lanka due to the efforts of Asoka, the Mauryan emperor.

ii) He spread the religion through his son and daughter.

iii) We have good trade relations with Sri Lanka.

iv) India always supports Sri Lanka on just and reasonable (Ãahakhd) grounds.

v) The relationship between India and Sri Lanka is very smooth.

India and Bangladesh :i) The then Prime Minister of India Mrs.

Indira Gandhi supported Bangladesh.

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ii) She took all efforts for the freedom of Bangladesh from Pakistan.

iii) Bangladesh attained freedom in 1971.iv) In 1972, a treaty was signed between

India and Bangladesh.v) It was signed in Dacca to give effect for

a period of 25 years.vi) It was a Treaty of Co-operation,

Friendship and Peace.49. b) Role of Opposition Parties :

i) The Opposition Parties should play a constructive role.

ii) The parties which do not get majority seats are called opposition parties.

iii) The leader of the opposition party enjoys some privileges equivalent to that of a Cabine Minister.

iv) The opposition party also functions in an effective manner.

v) Their work is no less important than that of the ruling parties.

vi) The Opposition parties keep a watch over the ruling party.

vii) This helps them to check the government from becoming authoritarian.

viii) The main duty of the opposition party is to criticize the policies of the government.

ix) Outside the Legislature the opposition parties attract the attention of the press.

x) They report their criticism of the government policy in the newspapers.

xi) The opposition parties have the right to check the expenditure of the government.

49. c) Art and Architecture : i) From ancient days India is famous for its

Architectural unique. ii) Even today they are growing to suit the

modern tasks. iii) The paintings of Ajanta and Ellora are World

famous architectural marvels . iv) The Gandhara art and sculpture speak

India’s greatness in this field. v) Temple architecture is the best among

Indian building architecture. vi) The North Indians go on a pilgrimage to

the South Indian Temples, Churches and Dhargas.

vii) In the same way the South Indians go on pilgrimage to the North Indian places like Kasi, Mathura, Haridwar and Rishikesh.

viii) Thus, the holy centers bring unity among Indians.

Music and Dance : i) The Carnatic style and Hindustani style of

music are originated in India. ii) They are loved and learned by many. iii) Bharathnatya, Kuchipudi, Kathak, Manipuri

and Oddisi are some of the famous dances of India.

iv) There are various other folk dances. v) There are loved and patronized by people. vi) In many respects the rich and varied music

and dance play on important part in fostering unity and integration.

PART - III50. a) Forests provide valuable timber for domestic

and commercial use and raw materials for industries.

i) It provides many products such as Lac, Gum, Resins, Tanning materials, Medicines, Herbs, Honey and Spices.

ii) Forests help to earn foreign exchange through exports of forest products.

iii) It helps in dairy farming and developing tourism.

iv) It controls air pollution, soil erosion, floods and land reclamation.

v) It m o d erates c l i mate, ma i nta i n s underground water table and provides a natural habitat for animals and birds.

vi) Forests meet 40% of energy needs of the country.

50. b) The acid rain affects the ecosystems by the following ways.

i) The most basic microscopic organism such as plankton may not be able to survive. So the sea animals depending on planktons will die.

ii) The food chain will be affected. iii) If ocean temperature increases, growth of

coral reefs will be affected. iv) The corals control the proportion of carbon-

di-oxide. v) It turns the carbon dioxide in the water into

lime shell.

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vi) Coral reefs grow in temperature just above 10º Celsius.

vii) Other ecosystems such as forest and desert also will be harmed.

viii) Loss of biodiversity and extinction of rare species will occur.

ix) They also change the acidity level of the soil. x) It leaches crucial nutrients. xi) Thus its affects the forest vegetation also.

50. c) Processes involved in Remote Sensing Technology:

Energy Source (A)

Energy Recordingby Sensor (D)

TransmissionReception and Processing (E)

Interpretation andAnalysis (F)

Sunrays andAtmosphere (B)

Sunrays and Earth Object (C)

1. Sun is a Energy Source (A) :As the energy travels from its source to the target, it will come into contact with and also interact with the atmosphere it passes through.2. Sun rays and Atmosphere (B) : i) As the energy travels from its source to

the target, it will come into contact with and also interact with the atmosphere it passes through.

ii) This interaction may take place a second time as the energy travels from the target to the sensor.

3. Sun rays and Objection on Earth (C) : i) Once energy makes its way to the target

through atmosphere, it interacts with the target.

ii) This depending on the properties such as tone, texture, size, shape and patterns of both the target and the radiation..

4. Recording of Energy by the Sensor (D) :After energy has been scattered or emitted from the target, the sensor collects and records the electromagnetic radiation, transmission, reception and processing.5. Tra n s m i s s i o n , R e c e p t i o n a n d

Processing (E) : i) The energy recorded by the sensor has

to be transmitted. ii) Here the data are processed into an

image.6. Interpretation and Analysis (F) :The processed image is interpreted visually or digitally or electronically.

7. Application (G) :The final element of the remote sensing process is achieved by applying the extracted information for better understanding.

51. a) The National Income of a country can be calculated by the following three methods:

a) Product Method b) Income Method c) Expenditure Method a) Product Method :

In this method, the total value of all goods and services produced in a country is taken into account

b) Income Method : In this method, the income and payments

received by all the people in the country are calculated.

c) Expenditure Method : In this method we add up the expenditure

of al l people on consumer goods, investment and savings. In India we use Product Method and the Income Method to arrive at National Income.

51. b) a) (i) The economic reforms aimed at rapid industrialisation. (ii) As a result industrial licensing was abolished, foreign investment was encouraged. (iii) Private sector and public sector worked together. (iv) Multinational companies like Nokia, Ford, Hyundai have made investments in India. (v) Small scale and cottage industries were allowed to expand.

b) Economic reforms of 1991 are as follows (i) Liberalisation (ii) Privatisation (iii) Globalisation

i) Liberalisation : Liberalisation means movement towards

free market system. It is otherwise known as withdrawal of regulation and restrictions for private sectors.

ii) Privatisations : Privatisation means transforming all

economic activities from public sector to private sector. It also refers to the setting up of private units in public utility services.

iii) Globalisation : Globalisation refers to a situation where

a country draws raw materials from any source of the world to manufacture goods and services. It is the linkage of nation’s markets with global markets.

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51. c) Tamil Nadu stands third among the Indian states in the achievement of Socio-economic development.

Welfare measures implemented by the state government:

i) All the villages and habitations have been provided with a primary school.

ii) The government provides welfare schemes such as the noon meal and free bus pass.

iii) The state collaborates with centrally sponsored scheme Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) to achieve the objectives of elementary education for all.

iv) The government distributes free cycles to the XI Standard students.

v) Laptop computers were provided to X Std. students who got ranks.

vi) The government is also providing computer education and vocational education to the students for gainful employments.

vii) Education and Training provided to produce efficient teachers and to impart skills in modern teaching techniques.

viii) The government makes higher education more accessible to the economically weaker sections and rural students.

ix) Agricultural production in Tamil Nadu has increased due to land reforms and improved methods of agriculture.

x) The Tamil Nadu government encourages industrial development.

Section - VI52. Time Line Chart

Scale :(1 unit = 10 years)

1885

1890

1900

1910

1920

1885 Formation of Indian National Congress

1905 Partition of Bengal1906 Formation of Muslim League1907 Surat Split

1909 Minto Morley Reforms

1911 Reunion of Bengal

1914 First World War Started

1916 Home Rule Movement, Lucknow Pact1917 August Declaration1918 End of the First World War1919 Montague Chelmsford reforms, Jallian Wala Bagh Tragedy, Rowlatt Act, Khilafat Movement

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53. (a) Mark the following on the outline map of Asia.

(i) Japan (ii) Singapore [Sep. 17] (iii) Formosa (iv) Korea (v) Hongkong

53. (b) Mark the following on the outline map of Asia.

(i) Delhi (ii) Allahabad (iii) Chauri Chaura (iv) Vedaranyam (v) Meerut

Delhi

Vedaranyam

Meerut

Chauri Chaura

Allahabad

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53. (c) Mark the following on the outline map of Asia.

(i) Ganga plain (ii) Mt. Everest (iii) Mountain soil (iv) Jamshedpur (v) Sundarban (vi) Any one International Airport (vii) Neyveli (viii) Rann of Kutch (ix) Gulf of Mannar (x) Andaman and Nicobar islands (xi) South West Monsoon wind (xii) Mumbai to Kolkata Rail transport (xiii) R. Narmada (xiv)Desert Soil (xv) Karakoram Range

Rann of Kutch

Mt. Everest

Karakoram Range

Mountain Soil

Sundarban

Ganga plain

Desert Soil

Calcutta

Chennai (International Airport)

Neyveli

An

dam

an

an

d N

ico

bar

Isla

nd

s

Mumbai

Jalgadn

R. NarmadaNagpur

Sambalpur

Jamshedpur

Rail Route

Bilaspur

South

Wes

t Mon

soon

Win

d

Gulf of Mannar

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Model Question Paper - IV

Based on the Revised Blue Print Pattern for 2015 - 16Time : 2½ hours Maximum Marks : 100

Section - I (Marks : 24)PART - I

Note: (i) Answer all the questions. (ii) Choose the correct answer.

(14 × 1 = 14) 1. In 1941, Hitler invaded

a) Russia b) France c) Prussia d) Persia

2. The first permanent President of the European Council isa) Ramsay Mac Donald b) Herman Van Rampayc) Mrs. Vijayalakshmi Pandit d) Bismark

3. The Head quarters of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee is named as

a) Raj Bhavan b) Rashtrapathi Bhavan

c) Sathyamurthi Bhavan d) Vidhan Sabha 4. Vaikam is a place in

a) Tamil Nadu b) Andhra Pradeshc) Karnataka d) Kerala

5. The eighth member of SAARC was _______ .a) Baluchistan b) Afghanistan c) Pakistan d) Bhutan

6. The RTI Act promotes _______ in the working of every public authority.a) tranquility b) transparency c) transformatory d) territory

7. One of the planning schemes to create awareness among the consumersa) Vana Mahotsava b) Operation 21 c) Trade fair d) Rajarajan 1000

8. The crop that grows in drought is _______a) rice b) wheat c) jute d) millets.

9. The Object under study is known as _______a) target b) source c) sensor d) Image

10. The main cause for the environmental problems in India isa) moderate density of population b) high density of populationc) very high density of population d) low density of population

11. The fertility of the soil increases with the increase of _______ content.a) Mineral b) Organic c) Humus d) Waste

12. National Income is a measure of _______a) Total value of money b) Total value of food grainsc) Total value of Industrial products d) Total value of goods and services

13. Nehru decided that India would be a _______a) Mixed Economy b) Socialist Economyc) Capitalist Economy d) Money Economy

14. The Green Revolution means _______a) Rural development b) Increasing production of food grainsc) Industrial development d) Improving handicraft

PART - IINote: Answer BOTH of the following.

(2 × 5 = 10)II. Match the following : (i) a. Racial Discrimination – i) Vellore Mutiny b. Charter of Labour – ii) Magnacarta c. Newyork – iii) Africa d. Queen Victoria's Proclamation – iv) Kamaraj e. Fateh Hyder – v) Headquarters of the UNO vi) Relief to workers

Model Question Paper - IV

531

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b) Write any five causes for the outbreak of Second World War.

(or) c) Write a short note on Salt Sathyagraha.

Part - II49. a) Write a short note on SAARC.

(or) b) Explain the role of political parties in a democracy

especially in India.(or)

c) Write a paragraph on National Integration.Part - III

50. a) What are the preventive measures for soil erosion?

(or) b) Write a brief note on Air Pollution.

(or) c) What are the advantages of remote sensing?

Part - IV51. a) Explain the need for the study of National

Income.(or)

b) Explain the Various Power Programs in Tamil Nadu.

(or) c) What are the steps taken to improve the Indian

Economy after independence? Section - VI (Marks : 5)Note: Draw a time line on the following. (5)52. Any five important events between the year

1900 -1930.

Section - VII (Marks : 15)Note: Map Questions. (5)53. a) Mark the following places in the given outline

map of Asia. i) Hong Kong iv) Tibet ii) Mongolia v) China

iii) Japan (or)

b) Mark the following places in the given outline map of India.

i) Delhi iv) Lucknow ii) Jansi v) Barrackpore iii) Vellore 54. Mark any TEN places / regions on the given

outline map of India. i) Thar desert ii) River Ganga iii) Western Ghats iv) Gulf of Khambhat v) Sunderbans vi) One wheat growing area vii) Black soil viii) Vishakhapatnam ix) Jamshedpur x) Link Chennai and Delhi by rail route xi) Kolkata xii) Kochi xiii) Mt. K-2 xiv) Siwalik range xv) Coromandal coast

ANSWERS

Section - I PART - I

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (c)

11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b)PART - II

15. (i) a. Racial Discrimination – i) Africa b. Charter of Labour – ii) Relief to workers c. Newyork – iii) Headquarters of

the UNO

]]]]

d. Queen Victoria's Proclamation – iv) Magnacarta e. Fateh Hyder – v) Vellore Mutiny

(ii) a. Desert Soil – i) Sandy b. Automobile Industry – ii) Mumbai c. District Roads – iii) Municipalities and Corporation d. Ground Survey – iv) Many months

e. Mango Showers – v) Kerala

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QUARTERLY EXAM - 2017Question Paper with Answers

SOCIAL SCIENCE [Time Allowed : 2½ Hrs.] [Maximum Marks : 100]

SECTION - I(MARKS : 24)

PART – I

Note: (i) Answer all the questions. (ii) Choose the correct answer

14 × 1 = 141. The French East India Company was

established by : a) Louis XIV b) Colbert c) Louis XVI d) De Brazza2. Germany invaded France by crossing a) Netherland b) Luxemburg c) Rhineland d) Belgium3. The founder of the Fascist Party was a) Hitler b) Mussolini c) Stalin d) Lenin4. Blitzkrieg means a a) Lightning war b) Trench warfare c) Submarine warfare d) Guerilla warfare5. Nuclear Test Ban Treaty was signed in a) 1956 b) 1963 c) 1936 d) 19766. To contest in an election a person should be

above the age of a) 21 b) 18 c) 25 d) 35

7. The election process in the state level is supervised by

a) Chief Election Commissioner

b) Chief Electoral Officer

c) Supreme Court Judge

d) High Court Judge

8. The highest peak in the world is a) Mt. Everest b) Mt. Godwin Austin c) Mt. Kanchen Junga d) Dhaulagiri9. The Coastal areas enjoy _______ climate. a) Continental b) Equable c) Humid d) Hot10. Which one of the following mineral is

contained in the monazite sand a) Oil b) Uranium c) Thorium d) Coal11. The crop that grows in drought is a) Rice b) Wheat c) Jute d) Millets12. National Income is a measure of a) Total value of money b) Total value of food grains c) Total value of Industrial products d) Total value of goods & services

[543]

10th

Std.

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546 Sura’s Social Science – X Std. Quarterly Exam 2017 Q.P. with Answers

SECTION – IPART – I

1. (b) Colbert 2. (d) Belgium 3. (b) Mussolini 4. (a) Lightning war 5. (b) 1963 6. (b) 18

7. (b) Chief Electoral Officer

8. (a) Mt. Everest

9. (b) Equable

(b) Explain the need for the study of National Income.

(OR) (c) Explain the basic concepts of National

Income.

SECTION – VI

(MARKS : 5)

Note: Draw a time line on the following. 5 × 1 = 5

52. Draw a time line between 1900 and 1940 and mark any five historical events.

SECTION – VII(MARKS : 15)

Note: Map Questions. 5 × 1 = 553. (a) Mark the following places in the given

outline map of Asia :

(i) Japan (ii) Peking

(iii) Formosa (iv) Hong Kong

(v) Malaysia

(OR)

(b) Mark the following in the given outline map of Europe :

(i) Jutland (ii) Danzig

(iii) Germany (iv) River Marne

(v) Belgium54. Mark any ten places / regions on the given

outline map of India : 10 × 1 = 10 (i) Mt. Everest (ii) Palk Strait (iii) River Ganga (iv) Karakoram Range (v) Chota Nagpuri plateau (vi) Gulf of khambat (vii) One tea growing region (viii) Direction of South West Monsoon (ix) Chennai (x) Jamshedpur (xi) One wheat growing region (xii) Any one Cotton Textile industry (xiii) Area receiving heavy rainfall (xiv) Any one coal region (xv) Sundarbans

ANSWERS 10. (b) Uranium

11. (d) Millets

12. (d) Total value of goods & services

13. (c) Living standard of people

14. (a) 15.8%

PART – II

(15) Match

(i) a) Duce - Mussolini

b) Fuhrer - Hitler

c) Atlantic Charter - F.D. Roosevelt

d) French politician - Jean Monnet

e) Britain - Lloyd George

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Sura’s Social Science – X Std. Quarterly Exam 2017 Q.P. with Answers 553

iv) But India never joined any of these two blocs.

v) It tried to sort out any difference of opinion between these two blocs.

vi) By doing like this India substantially contributed towards world peace.

(OR)

(b) Types of Elections in India :

People elect their representatives through direct and indirect elections.

a) Direct election b) Indirect Election

b) By - Election d) Mid-term Polls.

Direct election :

i) The citizens themselves elect the representatives through votes.

ii) Members of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies are elected in this manner.

Indirect Election :

i) The citizens do not directly by take part in the election.

ii) The elected representatives are the voters here.

iii) The members of the Rajya Sabha, the President and the Vice-President are elected in this manner.

By-elections :

i) By-elections are held when an elected candidate from a constituency dies or resigns from the parliament or the state legislature.

ii) Under these circumstances elections will be held only in those constituencies.

Mid-term Polls :

i) Some times it happens that the parliament or the state legislatures do not function for the whole period of five years for various reasons.

ii) Then they are dissolved and elections are held.

iii) These elections are called the Mid-term Polls.

(OR)

(c) Role of Opposition Parties :

i) The Opposition Parties should play a constructive role.

ii) The parties which do not get majority seats are called opposition parties.

iii) The leader of the opposition party enjoys some privileges equivalent to that of a Cabinet Minister.

iv) The opposition party also functions in an effective manner.

v) Their work is no less important than that of the ruling parties.

vi) The Opposition parties keep a watch over the ruling party.

vii) This helps them to check the government from becoming authoritarian.

viii) The main duty of the opposition party is to criticize the policies of the government.

ix) Outside the Legislature the opposition parties attract the attention of the press.

x) They report their criticism of the government policy in the newspapers.

xi) The opposition parties have the right to check the expenditure of the government.

xii) During the question hour, the opposition parties criticize the government generally.

xiii) Thus the opposition parties try to restrain the government from abusing its power.

PART – III

50. (a) Origins of the Himalayas :

i) Millions of years ago there was only one large land mass on the surface of the Earth and it was surrounded by oceans on all sides.

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Sura’s Social Science – X Std. Quarterly Exam 2017 Q.P. with Answers 557

SECTION – VII

53. (a) Mark the following places in the given outline map of Asia.

(i) Japan (ii) Peking (iii) Formosa (iv) Hong Kong (v) Malaysia

Formosa (Taiwan)

Malaysia

Hong Kong

JapanPeking

53. (b) Mark the following places in the given outline map of Europe.

(i) Jutland (ii) Danzing (iii) Germany (iv) River Marne (v) Belgium

Germany

BelgiumRiver Marne

Jutland

Danzig

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558 Sura’s Social Science – X Std. Quarterly Exam 2017 Q.P. with Answers

54. Mark any ten of the following places / regions on the given outline map of India.

(i) Mt. Everest (ii) Palk Strait (iii) River Ganga (iv) Karakoram Range (v) Chota Nagpuri plateau (vi) Gulf of khambat (vii) One tea growing region (viii) Direction of South West Monsoon (ix) Chennai (x) Jamshedpur (xi) One wheat growing region (xii) Any one Cotton Textile industry (xiii) Area receiving heavy rainfall (xiv) Any one coal region (xv) Sundarbans

Wheat growing area

Jamshedpur

Wardha Vailey (Coal Region)

Directi

on of

South

West M

onsoo

n

Chennai

Coimbatore

Chota Nagpuri plateau

Palk strait

SundarbansSundarbans

Mt. Everest

Tea growing regionArea receiving heavy rainfall

Gulf ofKhambhat

Karakoram

River Ganga

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