SINGLE CHOISE

The study of drugs and their effects is called:a) physiologyb) anatomyc) medicinologyd) pharmacologye) pharmacy

Solid form of a drug is: a) solutionb) ointmentc) suspensiond) tablete) ampoules

Whitch of the following is not a liquid form?a) tintureb) suspensionc) solution d) powdere) syrup

An example of a semisolid form would be:a) tablet b) capsulesc) suspension d) powdere) cream

Liquid form of a drug in which a partile of a drug are not completely dissolved: a) suspensionb) ointmentc) capsuled) tablete) gel

What is considered the brand name? a) paracetamolb) acamolc) non opioid analgesicd) "off label" usee) inhibit cyclooxygenase

Xenobiotics are considered:a) Endogenous b) Exogenous c) Inorganic poisons d) Toxinse) Ligands

Pharmacokinetics is:1

a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugsb) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugsc) The study of mechanisms of drug actiond) The study of methods of new drug developmente) The study of pharmacological effects of drugs

What does "pharmacokinetics" include?a) Localization of drug actionb) Mechanisms of drug actionc) Biotransformatin of drugs d) Interaction of substancese) Side effects of drugs

Pharmacokinetics is the effect of the ____ and pharmacodynamics is the effect of the_______:a) Drug on the body; Body on the drugb) Drug on a drug; Drug on a drugc) Body on the drug; Drug on a drugd) Body on the drug; Drug on the body e) Drug on a drug; Body on the drug

How is called the pharmacokinetic index, that shows the fraction of an administered dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation? a) Bioavailability b) Dosagec) Bioinequivalence d) Drug absorptione) Bioequivalence

Which of the following statement is correct for bioavailability?a) The ratio of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation and make an effect. b) The time it takes for the amount or concentration of a drug to fall to 50 % c) The ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its concentration in plasma.d) The fraction of the administrated dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation.e) the ability of the administered drug metabolites to cause undesirable physiological effects.

For intravenous (IV) dosages, what is the bioavailability assumed to be? a) 0% b) 25% c) 50% d) 75% e) 100%

Weak acids are excreted faster in _____urine and weak bases are excreted faster in _____urine: a) Acidic; Alkaline b) Alkaline; Acidicc) Acidic; Neutrald) Neutral; Alkaline e) Alkaline; Neutral

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The principle of drug manipulation for excretion of a drug out of the renal tubule can be accomplished by: a) Acidifying the urinary pHb) Adjusting the urinary pH to protonate weakly acidic drugs c) Adjusting the urinary pH to unprotonate weakly basic drugs d) Adjusting the urinary pH to ionize the drug e) By neutralizing the urinary pH

What organ is responsible for metabolism in the "first pass effect"? a) Brain b) Heartc) Kidney d) Livere) Spleen

What type of drug would be needed to enter the brain and CNS? a) Hydrophilic b) Hydrophobicc) Lipophilic d) Lipophobic e) Large molecular weight

Which of the enteral administration routes has the largest first-pass effect? a) SL (sublingual) b) Buccal c) Rectal d) Oral e) IV (intravenous)

All administration ways listed below are parenteral but one:a) Intravenous b) Subcutaneousc) Peroral d) intramusculare) subarachnoidal

More slowly effect appears after:a) intravenous administrationb) per oral administrationc) subcutaneous administrationd) intramuscularly administratione) inhaled administration

More rapid effect appears after:a) subcutaneous administrationb) intramuscularly administrationc) intravenous administrationd) per oral administratione) intrarectal administration

Which of the administration routes is not often used, is painful, and has a risk of infection and adhesion?

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a) EPI (epidural)b) IA (intraarterial)c) IP (intraperitoneal)d) IV (intravenous) e) SL (sublingual)

Which organ or tissue would receive drug slowly? a) Liverb) Brain c) Fat d) Muscle e) Kidney

What type of drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB)? a) Large and lipid-solubleb) Large and lipid-insoluble c) Small and lipid-soluble d) Small and lipid-insoluble e) Small and ionized

Name the simplest way of drugs penetration through membrane?a) Filtrationb) Pinocytosisc) Active transportd) Facilitated-difuzione) Co-transport

Name the way of the penetration through the membrane that needs energy:a) filtrationb) active transportc) facilitated diffusiond) simple diffusione) filtration& simple diffusion

Which location can accumulate lipid-soluble drugs, has little or no receptors, and can hold distributed drugs like barbiturates? a) Liver b) Kidney c) Brain d) Fate) Fetus

Which location has high blood flow and is a site of excretion? a) Liverb) Kidney c) Brain d) Fat e) Fetus

Elderly patients often have ____ muscle mass and thus a(n) ____ Vd (volume of distribution): a) More; Increased

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b) More; Decreased c) Less; Increasedd) Less; Decreased e) Less, Unchanged

Most drugs are active in their ____ form and inactive in their ____ form: a) Non-polar; Polarb) Polar; Non-polarc) Water-soluble; Lipid-soluble d) Lipid-insoluble; Water-insoluble e) Neutral; Neutral

Which of the metabolically active tissues is the principle organ for drug metabolism? a) Skin b) Kidneys c) Lungsd) Liver e) GI Tract

What is the goal of the P450 system (microsomes pinched off from endoplasmic reticulum)? a) Only metabolism of substances b) Only detoxification of substancesc) Metabolism of substances & Detoxification of substances d) Decreasing pH of compartments containing substancese) Increasing pH of compartments containing substances

Intrinsic activity is a drug's ability to elicit: a) Strong receptor binding b) Weak receptor binding c) Response d) Excretion e) Distribution

What is the object of pharmacovigilance?a) Evaluation of pharmacokinetic parameters for new drugs.b) Determining the therapeutic indexc) Monitoring of drugs introduced into therapeutic, especially side effects.d) Intensive therapeutic studies of the 3rd stage on clinical evaluation.e) Drugs interactions.

The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion)c) Endocytosis d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)e) Exocytosis

What determines the degree of movement of a drug between body compartments? a) Partition constant b) Degree of ionizationc) pH

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d) Sizee) All of the above

Which of these physical chemical properties from medicaments are essential for filtration (crossing of channel membranes) as a means of crossing through cellular membranes?a) Lipid solubilityb) Water solubilityc) Coefficienct of lipid/big water partitiond) small pKae) Affinity for a transportable system

Name the way of the penetration through the membrane that needs the energy:a) Filtrationb) Pinocytosis c) Facilitated difuziond) Simple diffusione) Facilitated difuzion& Simple difuzion

What is a pharmacodynamic process? a) The drug is readily deposited in fat tissueb) Movement of drug from the gut into general circulationc) Drug metabolites are removed in the urined) The drug causes dilation of coronary vesselse) Alteration of the drug by liver enzymes

If a medication is intended to be administered per os, how is it typically administered?a) Oralyb) Inhaledc) Rectallyd) Injectede) Vaginaly

What is characteristic of the oral route?a) Fast onset of effectb) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor functionc) A drug reaches the blood passing the liverd) The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatorye) Bypassing the hepatic barrier in the first - pass

What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration?a) Only water solutions can be injectedb) Oily solutions can be injectedc) No need in sterillity d) The action develops slower, than at oral administratione) Oily solutions can't be injected

Tick the feature of the sublingual route:a) Pretty fast absorptionb) A drug is exposed to gastric secretionc) A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolismd) A drug can be administrated in a variety of dosese) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion

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Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent administration:a) Rectalb) Oralc) Sublinguald) Inhalatione) Through gastric tube

Pick out the enteral route of medicinal agent administration:a) rectalb) intravenousc) subcutanousd) inhalatione) transdermal

The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:a) Single to a daily dose of an administrated drugb) An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulationc) An administrated dose to a body weightd) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasmae) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body

The term "biotransformation" includes the following:a) Accumulation of substances in a fat tissueb) Binding of substances with plasma proteinsc) Accumulation of substances in a tissued) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the bodye) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma

If a drug is 80% bound to blood elements or plasma proteins, what part is considered the free form? a) 20%b) 40% c) 50%d) 80% e) 100%

Specify the aim of microsomal oxidation:a) Microsomal oxidation always results in inactivation of a compoundb) Microsomal oxidation results in a decrease of compound toxicityc) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of ionization and water solubility of a drugd) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of lipid solubility of a drug e) Microsomal oxidation takes pleace just in the kidney

Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is:a) Acetylation and methylation of substancesb) Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction or hydrolysisc) Glucuronide formationd) Binding to plasma proteine) Elimination through kidney

Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of biotransformation?7

a) Acetylation b) Oxidation, c) Reduction d) Hydrolysis e) Elimination through kidney

Conjugation is:a) Process of drug reduction by special enzymesb) Process of drug oxidation by special oxidasesc) Coupling of a drug with an endogenous substrated) Solubilization in lipidse) Reduction and oxidation by special enzymes

Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term "receptor":a) Free molecules that caries the drug to the CNSb) Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions activated by a drugc) Active macromolecular components of a cell or an organism which a drug molecule has to combine with in order to elicit its specific effectd) All types of ion channels modulated by a druge) Second mesangers that participate in genes trasncription

What does "affinity" mean?a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteinsb) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptorc) A measure of inhibiting potency of a drugd) A measure of bioavailability of a druge) A measure of plasmatic concentraton of a drug

Which of the drug permeation mechanisms uses the HendersonHasselbalch equation for the ratio of solubility for the weak acid or weak base? a) Pinocytosisb) Lipid diffusion c) Endocytosis and exocytosisd) Aqueous diffusioтe) Carrier molecules

What is implied by «active transport»?a) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusionb) Transport without energy consumptionc) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formationd) Transport against gradient of concentratione) Filtration through the membrane pores

If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it's called:a) Partial agonistb) Antagonistc) Agonist-antagonistd) Full agoniste) Full antagonist

Which of the ion is increased in intracellular concentration due to second messengers such as IP3?

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a) K+ b) Ca++ c) Cl- d) Na+e) Mg++

Which of the following affirmations define an agonist action?a) metabolic phenomena are being triggered by activating specific and on calcium- calmodulin or calcium-phopholipid dependent phosphates.b) a chemical that binds to a receptor and activates the receptor to produce a biological responsec) interaction between the drug and body molecules.d) interaction between a drug and plasmatic proteins.e) intensity of an effect, expressed through a maximal effect.

Describe definition of an agonist? a) A drug directed at parasites infecting the patient b) A drug that binds to a receptor and inhibits or opposes cellular activityc) A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activityd) A specific regulatory molecule in the biologic system where a drug interactse) Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function through its chemical action

The substance binding to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist is called:a) Competitive antagonistb) Irreversible antagonistc) Agonist-antagonistd) Partial agoniste) Chemical agonist

The situation when failure to continue administering the drug results in serious psychological and somatic disturbances is called?a) Tachyphylaxisb) Sensibilizationc) Abstinence syndromed) Idiosyncrasye) Tolerance

Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is:a) A type of hypersensitivity reactionb) A type of drug antagonismc) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a drugd) Quantitatively exaggerated responsee) Toxic reaction after drug administration

Tachyphylaxis refers to definition? a) Responsiveness increased rapidly after administration of a drug b) Responsiveness decreased rapidly after administration of a drug (rapid tolerance)c) Responsiveness increased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (hypersensitiv)d) Responsiveness decreased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (desensitize)e) Responsiveness decreased slowly after administration of a drug

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Which of effect refers to an increased intensity of response to a drug? a) Idiosyncratic b) Hyporeactivec) Hyperreactive d) Allergye) Tolerance

In case of liver disorders accompanied by a decline in microsomal enzyme activity the duration of action of some drugs is:a) Decreasedb) Enlargedc) Remained unchangedd) Changed insignificantlye) Decreased insignificantly

Which drugs inhibit hepatic enzymes?a) nicotineb) prednisonec) erythromycind) penicilline) fenobarbital

Which is an example of a drug acting directly through receptors? a) Mannitol for subarachnoid hemmorhage b) Cancer chemotherapeutic agentsc) Epinephrine for increasing heart rate and blood pressured) Rezerpine to decreases high pressure e) Protamine soulphate binds stoichiometrically to heparin anticoagulants

Half life (t½ ) is the time required to:a) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during eliminationb) Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolitec) Absorbed a half of an introduced drugd) Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteinse) Total duration of treatment

Which is the median effective dose, or the dose at which 50% of the individuals exhibit the specified quantal response? a) LD50 b) ED50 c) EC50 d) TD50 e) T.I.

What is considered the therapeutic index in animal studies? a) T.I. = TD50 / ED50 b) T.I. = LD50 / ED50 c) T.I. = ED50 / TD50 d) T.I. = ED50 / LD50 e) T.I. = TD50 / ED50 & T.I. = LD50 / ED50

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The therapeutic index for humans is:a) the ratio of therapeutically doses to the minimum toxic doses. b) dose which produce the therapeutically effectc) is the ratio of the TD50 to the ED 50d) the doses which makes more favorable effectse) the most quantity of the drug that produces maximum effect without side effects.

What is the most relevant use of therapeutic index? a) Guide for toxicity in therapeutic the settingb) Multiple measures of effectiveness are possible c) Measure of impunity with which an overdose may be tolerated d) Toxicities may be idiosyncratic (e.g. propranolol in asthmatics)e) Used just in bioequivalence study

Describes minimal effective concentration (MEC)? a) The minimal drug plasma concentration to reach therapeutic levels b) The minimal drug plasma concentration to interact with receptorsc) The minimal drug plasma concentration to enter tissuesd) The minimal drug plasma concentration to produce effecte) The minimal drug plasma concentration that can be detected

If a patient misses three doses of their daily drug, which is the best solution? a) Prescribe a higher dosage pill so missed doses will have less effect b) Setup an appointment to have the patient evaluatedc) Do nothing and continue normal regimend) Wait 3 more days (week total) then return to normal regimen e) Take a 4x dose at the next dose time

What type of study for an Investigational New Drug involves neither the investigators or subjects knowing if the drug or placebo is being given? a) Single-blind study b) Double-blind study c) Placebo d) Positive-controle) Crossover study

What clinical trial phase is conducted with several hundred to thousands of volunteer patients suffering from the condition the investigational drug treats? a) Phase 1 b) Phase 2 c) Phase 3 d) Phase 4 e) bioequivalence study

What clinical trial phase is conducted with up to several hundred patients suffering from the condition the investigational drug is designed to treat? a) Phase 1 b) Phase 2 c) Phase 3d) Phase 4 e) bioequivalence study

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What clinical trial phase involves submitting a New Drug Application, monitoring, and reporting by clinicians using the drug? a) Phase 1 b) Phase 2 c) Phase 3d) Phase 4 e) bioequivalence study

What clinical trial phase is “first-in-man studies”, conducted in a small group of healthy volunteer? a) Phase 1b) Phase 2 c) Phase 3d) Phase 4 e) bioequivalence study

Name clinical study used to assess the expected in vivo biological equivalence of two proprietary preparations of a drug:a) Phase 1 clinical studyb) Phase 2 clinical studyc) Phase 3 clinical studyd) Phase 4 clinical studye) bioequivalence study

Name liquid volatile anesthetics:a) Propanididb) Nitrous oxidec) Thiopentald) Ketaminee) Halothane

How to prevent reflex bradycardia during anesthesia?a) By atropine injectionb) By diazepam injectionc) By halothane injectiond) By decreasing dose of the anesthetic agente) By epinephine injection Which is characteristic for surgical stage with diethyl ether anesthesia?a) analgesiab) combative behavior c) medullary paralysis d) eyes initially rolling, then becoming fixede) excitement

Which anesthetic cause "dissociative anesthesia":a) Diethyl etherb) Halothanec) Ketamined) Sodium hydroxybutyratee) Nitrous oxide

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Which drug can be used for controlled hypotension during anesthesia:a) Trimethafan b) Diazepamc) Atropined) Flumazenile) Sodium hydroxybutyrate

Name drug used for all type of local anesthesia:a) Cocaineb) Tetracainec) Procained) Lidocainee) Bumecaine

Which local anesthetic has ability to constrict vessels?a) Cocaineb) Tetracainec) Procained) Lidocaine e) Bumecaine

Which local anesthetic can be used for ventricular arrythmias?a) Cocaineb) Tetracainec) Procained) Lidocaine e) Bumecaine

Name organic astringent:a) Zinc oxideb) Silver nitratec) Lead acetated) Tannin e) Cooper sulphate

Choose astringent drug:a) mentholb) tanninumc) carbosemd) mucilago amylie) medicas E

All the preparations listed below are sedatives but one:a) natrium bromide b) preparations made of valerian c) amphetamined) diphenhydraminee) barbital

Name indication of disulfiram:a) Alcoholic comab) Acute alcohol poisoning

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c) Withdrawal syndromed) Delirium tremense) Used to support the treatment of chronic alcoholism

Name flumazenil mechanism of action:a) Blocks competitivly benzodiazepins receptorsb) Blocks GABAB receptorsc) Increases benzodiazepins metabolismd) Decreases benzodiazepins metabolisme) Has GABA-mimetic action Name diazepam mechanism of action:a) Blocks benzodiazepins receptorsb) Blocks GABAB receptorsc) Blocks GABAA receptorsd) GABAA receptors activation and hyperpolarizatione) GABAA receptors activation and depolarization

What drug does manifest the minimal action on the rapid faze of sleeping:a) phenobarbitalb) pentobarbitalc) nitrazepamd) barbital e) cyclobarbita Hypnotic drugs are used to treat:a) psychosesb) sleep disodersc) narcolepsyd) Parkinsonian disorderse) acute mania

What explains the anxiolytic action caused by diazepam?a) interaction with adrenoreceptorsb) interaction with cholinoreceptorsc) interaction with benzodiazepinic receptorsd) interaction with opioid receptorse) interaction with serotonine receptors

Mechanism of barbiturates tolerance:a) Induction of microsomal enzymesb) Inhibition of microsomal enzymesc) Decreased absorption in GI tractd) Increased elimination through kidneye) Receptors desensitization

The mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is:a) Activation of GABA receptorsb) Antagonism of glycine receptors in the spinal cordc) Blockade of the action of glutamic acidd) Inhibition of GABA aminotransferasee) Activation of M cholynoreceptors

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GABA A receptors (ligand-gate ) involve the movement of what ion across the membrane? a) K+ b) Ca++ c) Cl- d) Na+ e) Mg++

Name antagonist of benzodiazepines:a) unitiolb) naloxonec) tramadold) protamine sulphatee) flumazenil

Which of the below listed drugs manifest a minimum action upon fast sleep phase?a) fenobarbital b) pentobarbitalc) chloral hydrated) barbitale) oxazepam

Choose opioid receptor antagonist:a) Morphineb) Codeinec) Omnopond) Naltrexonee) Talamonal

Morphine has each the effects listed EXCEPT:a) myosisb) constipationc) bradycardiad) hypothermiae) hyperthermia

Name agonist-antagonist of opiod receptors:a) Metamisolb) Naltrexonec) Tramadold) Pentazocinee) Omnopon

Signs of opioid poisoning are, EXCEPT:a) Miosisb) Falling in body temperaturec) Increased body temperatured) Respiratory depression e) Hypotension

Name antagonist of opiod analgesics:15

a) Metamisolb) Naloxonec) Tramadold) Pentazocinee) Omnopon

Choose GABA-receptor agonist with analgesic properties:a) Diphenhydramineb) Carbamazepinec) Ketamined) Baclofene) Paracetamol

Choose α2-agonist with analgesic properties:a) Diphenhydramineb) Carbamazepinec) Ketamined) Clonidine e) Paracetamol

Choose drug with analgesic properties administered by inhalation:a) Nitrous oxideb) Diphenhydraminec) Carbamazepined) Ketaminee) Halothane

The main effects of non-opioid analgesics are, EXCEPT:a) anti-inflammatoryb) antiagregantc) antipyreticd) somnolencee) analgesic

Morphine causes following effects, EXCEPT: a) Analgesicb) Euphoriac) Stimulation of the vagal centerd) Stimulation of the cough centere) Segmentation of the intestine

The diagnostic triad of opioid overdosage is:a) Mydriasis, coma and hyperventilationb) Coma, depressed respiration and miosisc) Miosis, tremor and hypertermiad) Mydriasis, chills and abdominal crampse) Mydriasis, tremor and vomiting Which of the following agents is used in the treatment of acute opioid overdose? a) Pentazocineb) Methadonec) Naloxone

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d) Remifentanyle) Buprenorphine

All of the following are opium derivatives EXCEPT:a) codeineb) thebainec) morphined) paracetamole) papaverine

Each of the findings listed is characteristic of opioid poisoning EXCEPT:a) Comab) Miosis of the pupilsc) Bradycardiad) Low body temperaturee) Mydriasis

Each of the findings listed is characteristic of opioid poisoning EXCEPT:a) Comab) Myosisc) Depressed respirationd) Flaccidity of skeletal musclese) Elevated body temperature

Indicate the pure opioid antagonist:a) Morphineb) Naltrexonec) Tramadold) Pentazocinee) Tramadol

Which of the following drugs has weak µ agonist effects and inhibitory action on norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake in the CNS?a) Loperamideb) Tramadolc) Fluoxetined) Butorphanole) Nalbuphine

What is the difference of trimeperidine from morphine?a) Analgesic activity is inferior by up to 2-4 timesb) Causes nausea more frequent than morphinec) Inhibits respiratory center to higher degreed) Duration of analgesic effect is longere) Is administered in lower dose

Alkaloid from Papaver somniferum is:a) nalbuphineb) thalamonalc) pentazocined) morphinee) sufentanyl

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Which antiepileptic drug causes hyperplastic gingivitis? a) Phenobarbitalb) Phenytoinc) Carbamazepined) Ethosuximidee) Sodium valproate

Which one of the following drugs exerts its anticonvulsant effects by blocking sodium chanels in neuronal membranes?a) Phenobarbital b) Valproic acidc) Diazepamd) Chlorpromazinee) Magnesium sulphate

Which one of the following drugs exerts its anticonvulsant effects by blocking sodium chanels in neuronal membranes?a) Acetazolamideb) Carbamazepinec) Diazepamd) Gabapentine) Vigabatrin

Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of Parkinson′s disease? a) Pilocarpineb) Trihexyphenidylc) Edrophonium d) Succinylcholinee) Hexamethonium

Antiparkinsonic drugs are: a) Primidone + Phenytoin + Ethsuximideb) Phenibut + Baclofen + Mefedolc) Lorazepam + Flurazepam + Zopiclond) Madopar + Selegeline + Trihexyphenidyle) Diazepam + Lamotridgine + Valproic acid

Effective in treating of extrapyramidal disorders caused by antipsychotic drugs:a) carbidopab) trihexyphenidyl c) haloperidold) amantidine e) levodopa

Name catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitor:a) Carbidopab) Benserazidec) Sinemetd) Entacaponee) Selegiline

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Choose antagonist of glutamate NMDA-receptors:a) Carbidopab) Benserazidec) Sinemetd) Amantadinee) Selegeline

Name trihexyphenidyl side effects:a) Intestinal spasmb) Bradycardiac) Tachycardiad) Miosise) Hypersalivation

Select antipsychotic drugs:a) Diazepam, Ethosuximide, Carbamasepineb) Phenobarbital, Barbital, Chloralhidratec) Levodopa, Trihexyphenidyl, Amantadine d) Levomepromazine, Chlorpromasine, Droperidole) Omnopon, Morphine, Fentanyl

The phenothiazines have a variety of actions at different receptors types. However, they do NOT appear to interact with receptors:a) Dopamineb) Histaminec) Nicotined) Adrenoreceptorse) Muscarine

A 50-yer-old patient has periodically a period of depression follow by psychosis. Choose the drug to prevent this disorder:a) Amitriptylineb) Lithium carbonatec) Levomepromasined) Nootropile) Vallerian

Effective in treating acute dystonia caused by antipsychotic drugs:a) carbidopab) trihexyphenidyl c) haloperidold) madopar e) levodopa

Chlorpromazine would not be appropriate drug management of:a) Acute maniab) The amenorrhea-galactorrhea syndromec) CNS stimulants intoxicationd) Schizoaffective disorderse) Bipolar disorders

If one patient is taking amitriptyline and another patient is taking chlorpromazine, they 19

are both likely to experience:a) Excessive salivationb) Extrapyramidal dysfunctionc) Gynecomastiad) Increased gastrointestinal motilitye) Postural hypotension

The following neuroleptic drug has sympatholytic activity:a) Reserpineb) Sulpiridec) Risperidone d) Chlorprothixenee) Haloperidol

The main effect of neuroleptics is:a) antiagregantb) antidopaminicc) cholinomimeticd) adrenomimetice) GABA-ergic.

The following neuroleptic drug blocks both D2 and 5-HT2A receptors:a) Risperidone b) Sulpiridec) Droperidold) Chlorprothixenee) Haloperidol

Name atypical antipsychotic drug: a) Droperidolb) Pimozidc) Clozapined) Chlorprothixenee) Haloperidol

Parkinsonian symptoms and tarditive dyskinesia are caused by blockade dopamine in:a) The nigrostriatal systemb) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systemsc) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medullad) The tubero-infundibular systeme) The scheletal muscle

Select antiparkinsonic drugs:a) Diazepam, Ethosuximide, Carbamasepineb) Phenobarbital, Barbital, Chloralhidratec) Levodopa, Trihexyphenidyl, Amantadined) Levomepromazine, Chlorpromasine, Droperidole) Phenobarbital, Diazepam, Nitrazepam

Many therapeutically useful drugs act via brain dopaminergic systems. Which one of the following mechanism exacerbates Parkinson's disease? a) Inhibition of dopamine reuptake

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b) Increase in dopamine synthesisc) Activation of dopamine receptorsd) Inhibition of dopamine metabolisme) Blockade of dopamine receptors

The drug that increase amount of dopamine in Parkinson's disease:a) bromocriptineb) levodopac) selegelined) amantadinee) trihexyphenidyl

Select peripheral DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor:a) Amantadine.b) Trihexyphenidylc) Carbidopa.d) Selegiline.e) Bromocriptine.

Select nootropics (smart drugs) from the combinations:a) Carbamazepine + Chlorpromazine +Haloperidolb) Pyracetam + Meclofenoxat + Picamilonec) Caffeine + Mesocarb + Methamphetamined) Nialamide + Maprotiline + Amitriptylinee) Amphetamine + Sibutramine + Mezocarb

Which of the following can cause ""serotonin syndrome":a) Fluoxetineb) Amitriptylinec) Pipofezind) Imipraminee) Maprotiline

Mechanism of action of tricycle antidepressants::a) Stimulation of GABA system b) Increasing of beta adrenoreceptors activityc) M-cholinoreceptors blockd) Inhibition of mediators reuptake on the presynaptic membrane levele) MAO inhibition

The following drug blocks selectively neuronal uptake of norepinephrine:a) Fluoxetine b) Amitriptylinec) Pipofezind) Imipraminee) Maprotiline

The following drug blocks selectively MAO-A:a) Fluoxetine b) Amitriptylinec) Moclobemided) Imipramine

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e) Maprotiline

What is the principal mechanism of action of Tricyclic antidepressants?a) exit receptorsb) diminishes monoaminoxidase activationc) inhibits neuronal reuptake of monoaminesd) activates monoaminoxidasee) stimulates neuronal reuptake of monoamines

Which kind of substance is psychostimulants?a) piracetamb) baclofenc) amphetamined) valproaic acide) prometazine

Following groups are psychoanaleptics:a) neuroleptics, sedatives, tranquilisatorsb) adaptogenes, neuroleptics, nootropesc) psychostimulants, antidepressants, adaptogenesd) psychosomimetics, antidepressantse) analgesic, neuroleptics, sedatives

Name the nootropic agent: a) Caffeineb) Fluoxetine c) Eleuterococci extract d) Piracetame) Sydnocarb

What amino acids is converted into catecholamines (NE, Epi, Dopamine)? a) Valine b) Lysinec) Proline d) Tyrosine e) Alanine

Which location contains choline from phosphatidylcholine? a) Milk b) Liver c) Eggsd) Peanutse) Blood plasma

Which of the mediator is broken down by MAO-B (monoamine oxidasmore than the others? a) Serotoninb) Norepinepherine c) Dopamine d) Histaminee) Achetylcholine

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Which of the adrenergic receptor subtypes relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis? a) α1 (Gq/Gi/Go) b) α2 (Gi/Go)c) β1 (Gs)d) β2 (Gs) e) β3 (Gs)

Which of the adrenergic receptor subtypes causes vascular smooth muscle contraction and genitourinary smooth muscle contraction? a) α1 (Gq/Gi/Go) b) α2 (Gi/Go)c) β1 (Gs)d) β2 (Gs) e) β3 (Gs)

Which of the adrenergic receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy (ratand inotropy (contractility), increases AV-node conduction velocity, and increases rennin secretion in renal juxtaglomerular cells? a) α1 (Gq/Gi/Go) b) α2 (Gi/Go) c) β1 (Gs) d) β2 (Gs) e) β3 (Gs)

Which of the adrenergic receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from pancreatic β-cells, decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release, and contracts vascular smooth muscle? a) α1 (Gq/Gi/Go) b) α2 (Gi/Go)c) β1 (Gs) d) β2 (Gs) e) β3 (Gs)

Which of the adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with ephedrine, amphetamine, and tyramine? a) Direct binding to the receptor b) Promoting release of norepinephrine c) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrined) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrinee) Stimulation of monoaminoxydase

Which of the adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with MAO inhibitors? a) Direct binding to the receptor b) Promoting release of norepinephrine c) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine d) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine e) Activation of COMT

Which of the adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with tricyclic antidepressants? a) Direct binding to the receptor

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b) Promoting release of norepinephrine c) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine d) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine e) Activation of COMT

At the adrenergic presynapse, what does α2 do? a) Stimulates NE release b) Inhibits NE release c) Stimulates ACh release d) Vasoconstrcitione) No effect

β2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus a decrease in plasma concentration of that ion? a) K+ b) Ca++ c) Cl- d) Na+ e) Mg++

Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dilates renal blood vessels at low dose. At higher doses (treatment for shock), which of the adrenergic receptors is activated? a) α1 b) α2 c) β1d) β2 e) β3

Supraselective beta1 adrenergic receptor antagonist:a) esmololb) metoprololc) nebivolold) propranolole) timolol

Primary therapeutic use for central alpha2 selective adrenergic agonists:a) management of arrhythmiasb) management of renal insufficiencyc) management of intraoperative hypotensive statesd) management of hypertensione) management of Raynaud's phenomenon

Receptors that mediate most of epinephrine's cardiac effects:a) beta1 adrenergicb) beta2 adrenergicc) dopaminergicd) alpha1-adrenergice) alpha2-adrenergic

Concerning low-dose dopamine: interaction with this receptor causes renal, mesenteric, and coronary vasodilation:a) beta1 adrenergic receptors

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b) beta2 adrenergic receptorsc) dopamine D1 receptorsd) alpha-adrenergice) prostaglandin receptors

Beta adrenergic receptor blockers:effects on the heart:a) increase heart rateb) increase contractility c) reduce contractilityd) increase automatisme) no change

Primary mechanism by which norepinephrine acutely increases BP:a) increases intravascular volumeb) increases heart ratec) vasoconstriction at precapillary resistance muscles and veinsd) increases angiotensin II plasma levelse) increases renine levels

Muscarinic ACh receptors and adrenergic receptors are associated with which of the receptors? a) Intracellular receptors for lipid soluble ligands b) Transmembrane receptors with enzymatic cytosolic domainsc) G-protein coupled receptors d) Ligand-gated ion channelse) Non of the above

Nicotinic N2 receptors are the ____ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the ____ subtype: a) Neuronal; Muscular b) Muscular; Neuronal c) Nodal; Neuronal d) Neuronal; Nodal e) Sympathetic; Parasympathetic

Name beta 2 adrebomimetic drug:a) Phenylephrineb) Epinepherinec) Oxymetazolined) Isoprenalinee) xSalbutamol

Name the α1 drug of choice for retinal exams and surgery, giving mydiasis (dilation of iris)? a) Ephedrine b) Epinepherine c) Oymetazoline d) Isoproterenole) Phenylephrine

Name drug used in hypotension: a) Clonidine

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b) Methyldopac) Guanabenz d) Guanfacine e) Epinephrine

Name group of drugs that is used for asthma patients or to delay premature labor? a) α2-agonist b) α1-agonist c) β3-agonist d) β2-agonist e) β1-agonist

Which of the agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac arrest, heart block, or heart failure? a) α1-agonist b) α2-agonist c) β1-agonist d) β2-agoniste) β3-agonist

Name β-antagonist? a) Terbutaline b) Ritodrine c) Salmeterol d) Metoprolol e) Phenylepherine

Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the group should be given to the patient? a) α-agonist b) α-blocker c) β-agonist d) β-blockere) α, β -agonist

Name contraindication for β-blocker therapy? a) Hypotension b) Angina pectoris c) Arrhythmias d) Myocardial infarction e) Glaucoma

Which of the β-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor secretions from the ciliary body? a) Propranolol b) Nadolol c) Carvedilol d) Timolol e) Metoprolol

Blocking α2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the changing in the mediator release? a) Stimulate NE release

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b) Inhibit NE releasec) Stimulate DA released) Inhibit DA release e) No effect

Which of the effect is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of a α1-agonist drug? a) Hypotension b) Hypertension c) Tissue necrosis d) Vasodilation e) Lipolysis

Which of the adrenergic agonist can have dose-related withdrawal syndrome if the drug is withdrawn to quickly, leading to rebound hypertension? a) α1-agonist b) α2-agonist c) β1-agonistd) β2-agoniste) β3-agonist

Which of the adrenergic agonists can have sedation and xerostomia (dry mouth) in 50% of patients starting therapy, sexual dysfunction in males, nauseas, dizziness, and sleep disturbances? a) α1-agonist b) α2-agonist c) β1-agonist d) β2-agonist e) β3-agonist

Which of the adrenergic agonists can cause hyperglycemia in diabetics? a) α2-agonist b) α1-agonist c) β3-agonist d) β2-agonist e) β1-agonist

Angina pectoris, tachycardia, and arrhythmias are possible adverse effects of which of the adrenergic agonists? a) α2-agonist b) α1-agonist c) β3-agonist d) β2-agonist e) β1-agonist

If a patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine, aged cheese), which of the acute responses is most likely? a) Stimulation of NE release b) Inhibition of NE release c) Stimulation of ACh release d) Inhibition of ACh release e) No response due to MAO inhibitor

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Major adverse affects of the α1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of the other? a) Orthostatic tachycardia b) Orthostatic bradycardiac) Orthostatic hypertension d) Orthostatic hypotension e) Increased cardiac output

Which of the effect would be intensified with the α2 blockade? a) Reflex tachycardia b) Reflex bradycardia c) Orthostatic hypertension d) No effecte) Platelet clotting

Name the most severe adverse effect that has been associated with β1-blockers: a) Atrial fibrillation b) Reflex tachycardia c) Hypertention d) Angina pectorye) AV block

Which of the groups of patients is most at risk for adverse effect seen in β2-blockers? a) Asthmatics b) Congestive heart failure patientsc) Trauma patients d) Myocardial infarctione) Patients with deep vein thromboses (DVTs)

Administration of which drug can be detrimental in diabetics and also can lead to masking of tachycardia, which is indicative of hypoglycemia? a) α1-blocker b) α2-blocker c) β1-blocker d) β2-blockere) β3-blocker

Influx of what ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being terminated by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)? a) K+ b) Ca++ c) Cl- d) Na+ e) H+

Best description of the drug nicotine is: a) Muscular subtype nicotinic agonist b) Muscular subtype nicotinic antagonist c) Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist d) Neuronal subtype nicotinic antagonist e) Non of above

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With receptors are acting by Pilocarpine?a) α1 adrenoreceptrsb) α2 adrenoreceptrsc) N Cholynoreceptors d) β2 adrenoreceptrse) M cholynoreceptors

What is pilocarpine most commonly used for? a) For decreasing heart rateb) To decrease blood pressure (vasodilation)c) For urinary retention d) Decreasing intraocular pressure e) For erectile dysfunction

What type of drugs are atropine, scopolamine, and pirenzepine? a) Acetylcholine agonists b) Acetylcholine antagonists c) Muscarinic agonistsd) Muscarinic antagonists e) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

What drug is a natural alkaloid found in Atropa belladonna (deadly nightshade)? a) Bethanechol b) Pilocarpine c) Pirenzepined) Scopolamine e) Atropine

What two clinical results of atropine facilitate opthalmoscopic examination? a) Mydriasis (iris dilation) and increased lacrimation b) Cycloplegia (ciliary paralysis) and miosis (iris constriction)c) Miosis and increased lacrimationd) Mydriasis and cycloplegia e) Xerophthalmia (dry eyes) and miosis

Name an adverse affect of atropine? a) Increased salivationb) Blurred visionc) Bradycardia d) Diaphoresis (sweating)e) Decreased intraocular pressure

Which drug is used for motion sickness? (injection, oral, or transdermal patch):a) Atropine b) Scopolamine c) Homatropine d) Tropicamidee) Pirenzepine

Name correct drugs: mydriatics/cycloplegics, ____ last 7-10 days (longest) and ____ last 6 hours (shor):

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a) Atropine; Scopolamine b) Scopolamine; Homatropine c) Homatropine; Tropicamide d) Tropicamide; Atropinee) Atropine; Tropicamide

Which from reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is mostly used for atropine intoxication? a) Neostigmine b) Physostigminec) Endrophoniumd) Donepezil e) Pyridostigmine

Which from reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anesthesia? a) Neostigmine b) Physostigmine c) Endrophonium d) Donepezil e) Pyridostigmine

Which from reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer disease? a) Neostigmine b) Physostigmine c) Endrophonium d) Donepezil e) Pyridostigmine

Which drug is used for dyagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis (MG)? a) Atropine b) Endrophoniumc) Homatropine d) Tropicamidee) Physostigmine

In smooth muscle and glandular tissue, ACh binds to what muscarinic receptor, leading to the DAG cascade? a) M1b) M2c) M3d) M4 e) M5

In the heart and inines, what muscarinic receptor inhibits adenylyl cyclase activity? a) M1 b) M2c) M3d) M4e) M5

Which of the following is a common effect of muscarinic stimulant drugs?a) Decreased peristalsisb) Decreased secretion by salivary glands

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c) Hypertensiond) Relaxation of ciliary musclee) Bradycardia

Name drug which causes hypersecretion of exocrine drugs:a) Atropineb) Scopolaminec) Pilocarpined) Ephedrinee) Tropicamide

Name drug used in intoxication with Sorin:a) Pilocarpineb) Neostigminec) Atropined) Aceclidinee) Galantamine

The main symptoms in intoxication with Amanita Palidum and organophosphates are:a) bronchospasm + bradycardia + miosis b) myasthenia + olyguria + hyposalivationc) sphincters constriction + bronchodilationd) hypomotility + tachycardia + cycloplegia e) mydriasis + olyguria + hyposalivation

Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics has the shortest duration of action? a) Acetylcholineb) Methacholine c) Carbachol d) Bethanechole) Atropine

Name the M-cholinimimetic agent: a) Carbachol b) Pilocarpinec) Acetylcholine d) Bethanechol e) Atropine

Neostigmine acts through blocking:a) cholinetransferaseb) acetyl-CoA c) adenylatecyclased) acetylcholinesterasee) phosphodiesterase

Which of the following cholinomimetics is a plant derivative with lower potency than nicotine but with a similar spectrum of action?a) Lobeline b) Pilocarpinec) Carbachold) Acetylcholine

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e) Atropine

Which one of the following drugs has been used in ophthalmology, but causes intaoculary hypotension:a) Atropineb) Echothiophatec) Pilocarpined) Ephedrinee) Tropicamide

The mechanism of action of indirect-acting cholinomimetic agents is:a) Binding to and activation of muscarinic or nicotinic receptors b) Inhibition of the hydrolysis of endogenous acetylcholinec) Stimulation of the action of acetylcholinesterased) Releasing acetylcholine from storage sitese) Decrease releasing of acetylcholine from storage sites

Indicate a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor: a) Dipiroximeb) Carbacholc) Galantamined) Pilocarpine e) Aceclidine

Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is irreversible?a) Physostigmine b) Galantaminec) Neostigmined) Arminee) Pilocarpine

By using cholinomimetics following effects might be established:a) rise of cardiac contraction frequency b) vasoconstriction c) bronchospasm d) decrease of renal secretione) relaxation of smooth muscle in gastrointestinal tract

Which of the following is a common effect of cholinomimetic drugs?a) Decreased peristalsisb) Decreased secretion by salivary glandsc) Hypertentiond) Inhibitoon of sweat glands e) Spasm of accommodation

Indications of cholinomimetics include following states EXCEPT:a) intoxication with Atropineb) glaucomac) myastheniad) stimulation of the respiratione) bronchial asthma

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Cholinomimetics have follow effects EXCEPT:a) bradyckardiab) bronchospasmc) xerosthomiad) lacrimatione) miosis

Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type:a) Heart b) Glandsc) Smooth muscled) Endothelium e) Eye smooth muscle

The symptoms of mushroom poisoning include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Salivation, lacrimation, nausea, vomitingb) Dryness of mouth, hyperpyrexia, hallucination c) Headache, abdominal colicd) Bradycardia, hypotension and shocke) Nausea, vomiting, bradycardia

Select the drug that you will administrate in intoxication with mushrooms and organophosphates:a) Pilocarpineb) Neostigminec) Atropined) Cizapride) Tubocurarine

Which of the following cholinomimetic activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors? a) Lobelineb) Pilocarpine c) Nicotine d) Acetylcholinee) Aceclidine

Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is related to direct-acting drugs: a) Edrophonium b) Physostigmine c) Carbachol d) Dipiroximee) Atropine

Which of the following is a common effect of muscarinic stimulant drugs?a) Decreased peristalsisb) Decreased secretion by salivary glands c) Hypertentiond) Inhibitoon of sweat glands e) Miosis

Choose the broncholitic mechanism of atropine:a) Excitement of M-cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi

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b) β2 adrenoreceptors stimulation in the smooth muscle of bronchic) Stimulation of N-cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchid) Inhibition of adenosine-receptors e) Blocking of M-cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi

Patients complain of dry or "sandy" eyes when receiving large doses of:a) Atropineb) Hexamethonium c) Pilocarpined) Carbachol e) Lobeline

Choose drug used in motion sickness:a) Tropicamideb) Ipratropium c) Scopolamined) Homatropinee) Oxitropium

The pharmacologic actions of scopolamine most closely resemble those of: a) Hexamethoniumb) Atropinec) Succinylcholine d) Pilocarpine e) Aceclidine

Compared with atropine, scopolamine has all of the following properties EXCEPT: a) More marked central effect b) Less potent in decreasing bronchial, salivary and sweat gland secretion c) More potent in producing mydriasis and cycloplegia d) Lower effects on the hearte) Lower effect on the bronchial muscle and intestines

Indicate the drug, which is rapidly distributed into CNS and has a greater effect than most other antimuscarinic agents? a) Pilocarpineb) Scopolamine c) Homatropined) Ipratropiume) Oxitropium The mechanism of atropine action is: a) Competitive ganglion blockade b) Competitive muscarinic blockadec) Competitive neuromuscular blockaded) Noncompetitive neuromuscular blockadee) Inhibition of cholinesterase Indicate following preparation, which provokes the longest term effect of mydriasis:a) Scopolamine b) Ephedrine c) Platyphylline

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d) Epinephrinee) Atropine

Which of the following drugs is used for acute toxic effects of mushrooms poisoning? a) Atropine b) Pilocarpinec) Pralidoximed) Aceclidinee) Edrophonium

The main symptoms in intoxication with mushrooms and organophosphates are:a) sphincters constriction + mydriasis + bronchodilationb) myasthenia + olyguria + hyposalivationc) bradycardia + bronchospasm + miosisd) hypomotility + tachycardia + cycloplegiae) olyguria + cycloplegia+ tachycardia

M3 receptor subtype is located: a) In the myocardiumb) In sympathetic postganglionic neuronsc) On effector cell membranes of glandular and smooth muscle cells d) On the motor end plates e) In parasympathetic ganglia

The treatment of the antimuscarinic effects can be carried out with: a) Neostigmine b) Hexametonium c) Homatropined) Scopolaminee) Acetylcholine

What phenomena of atropine is being used to establish a diagnose in ophthalmology?a) miosisb) mydriasis c) spasm of acommodationd) circular iris muscle contractione) intraocular pressure growth

The remedy used in intoxication with organophosphates:a) cizapridb) arminec) phenytoin d) pylocarpinee) atropine

Which of the following drugs has been used in ophthalmology, but causes mydriasis and cycloplegia lasting more than 24 hours?a) Atropineb) Echothiophatec) Edrophoniumd) Ephedrinee) Tropicamide

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Which one of the following drugs has been used in ophthalmology, but causes mydriasis and cycloplegia lasting more than 24 hourrs?a) Plathyphyllineb) Atropinec) Scopolamined) Izoprenalinee) Echothiophate

Atropine has the effects EXCEPT:a) dry moth b) mydriasisc) hypersalivationd) tachycardiae) atony of smooth muscle

Choose the broncholitic mechanism of atropine::a) Blockage of M- cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchib) Excitement of beta2 adrenoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchic) Stimulation of adenilatcyclased) Direct action on the smooth muscle of bronchie) Excitement of M cholinoreceptors of the smooth muscle of bronchi

Which one of the following statements about scopolamine is false?a) It has depressant actions on CNSb) It may cause hallucinationsc) It is poorly distributed across the placenta to the fetus and across blood-brain barrierd) It may prevent motion sickness and vertigo when applied as a patch to the skine) It is from the same group with atropine.

Choose the drug belonging to selective beta2-adrenomimics: a) x Salbutamol b) Isoprenaline c) Salmeterol d) Terbutaline e) Hexoprenaline

Select the side-effect characteristic for non-selective beta-adrenomimics: a) Depression of the breathing centre b) Tachycardia c) Peripheral vasoconstriction d) Dry mouth e) Miosis

Which of the following M-cholinoblocking agents is used especially as an anti-asthmatic? a) Atropine b) Ipratropium c) Platiphylline d) Metacin e) Pirenzepine

Which of the following M-cholinoblocking agents is used mostly as intestinal 36

spasmolytic? a) Atropine b) Ipratropium c) Platiphylline d) Metacin e) Pirenzepine

The main effects of ganglion-blocking drugs are, EXCEPT:a) vasodilatation and hypotensionb) hyposecretionc) increase of intraoculary pressiond) bronchospasme) relaxation of the smooth muscles and contraction of the sphincters

Tubocurarine blocks the action of acethylcholine and similar agonists at: a) Muscarinic receptor siteb) Neuromuscular junction c) Parasimpathetic ganglia d) Axonal transmission e) Simpathetic ganglia

Which of the following agents is a short-acting ganglion blocker? a) Homatropineb) Trimethaphanec) Hexamethonium d) Pancuroniume) Atropine

Ganglion blocking drugs are used for the following states EXCEPT: a) Hypertensive crisesb) Controlled hypotensionc) Cardiovascular collapse d) Pulmonary edemae) Malignant hypertension

The shortest duration hypotensive activity is characteristic for:a) Reserpineb) Guanethidinec) Treperium iodide d) Tropaphene) Propranolol

Agents that produce neuromuscular blockade act by inhibiting:a) Interaction of acetylcholine with cholinergic receptors b) Release of acetylcholine from prejunctional membranec) Packaging of acetylcholine into synaptic vesicles d) Reuptake of acetylcholine into the nerve ending e) Metabolism of acetylcholine

Which of the following drugs has "double-acetylcholine" structure?a) Tubocurarineb) Carbachol

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c) Atropined) Atracuriume) Suxamethonium Indicate the depolarizing agent:a) Suxamethoniumb) Tubocurarinec) Vecuroniumd) Atracuriume) Pancuronium Neuromuscular blockade by suxamethonium may be prolonged in patients with:a) Renal failureb) An abnormal variant of plasma cholinesterasec) Cardiac failured) Acute hypotensione) Gastric ulcer

Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant? a) Pancuroniumb) Succinylcholine c) Hexamethoniumd) Scopolaminee) Atropine

Which of the following neuromuscular blockers causes transient muscle fasciculations? a) Atracurium b) Pancuroniumc) Suxamethoniumd) Tubocurarinee) Atropine

Depolarizing agents include all of the following properties EXCEPT: a) Interact with nicotinic receptor to compete with acetylcholine without receptor activation b) React with the nicotinic receptor to open the channel and cause depolarisation of the end platec) Cause desensitization, noncompetive block manifested by flaccid paralysisd) Cholinesterase inhibitors do not have the ability to reverse the blockadee) Can caused transient muscle fasciculations Which neuromuscular blocking agent has the potential to cause the greatest release of histamine? a) Suxamethoniumb) Tubocurarinec) Pancuronium d) Vecuroniume) Atracurium Which of the following muscular relaxants causes hypotension and bronchospasm? a) Vecuroniumb) Suxamethoniumc) Tubocurarine

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d) Pancuroniume) Atracurium

Indicate the neuromuscular blocker, which causes tachycardia: a) Tubocurarineb) Atracuriumc) Pancuronium d) Suxamethonium e) Vecuronium

Which neuromuscular blocking agent is contraindicated in patients with glaucoma? a) Tubocurarineb) Suxamethoniumc) Pancuroniumd) Vecuroniume) Atracurium

Indicate the agent, which effectively antagonizes the neuromuscular blockade caused by nondepolarizing drugs: a) Atropineb) Neostigminec) Acetylcholined) Pralidoxime e) Scopolamine

Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents cause cardiac arrhythmias? a) Vecuronium b) Atracuriumc) Tubocurarine d) Pipecuroniume) Suxamethonium

Witch substance can be mostly used in acute rhinitis?a) clonidineb) nafasolinec) salbutamold) izoprenalinee) phenylefrine

Which of the following effects is associated with beta3-receptor stimulation? a) Lipolysisb) Decrease in platelet aggregationc) Bronchodilationd) Tachycardia e) Hyperglicemia Indicate the beta1-selective agonist: a) Isoproterenol b) Dobutaminec) Metoprolol d) Epinephrinee) Ephedrine

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Mechanism of action of Clonidine:a) Inhibition of rennin-angiotensine system b) Activation of β-adrenoreceptors c) Activation of alfa2-presynaptic adrenoreceptorsd) Blockage of alfa2 adrenoreceptorse) Inhibition of cholinergyc system

Select the drug that acts on the bronchi selectively:a) Epinephrineb) Ephedrinec) Norepinephrined) Salbutamole) Izoprenaline Which of the following agents is an alfa1-selective agonist? a) Norepinephrineb) Fenilephrine c) Ritodrined) Ephedrinee) Epinephrine

By what mechanism does clonidine lower blood pressure?a) Decreased heart rate by direct action on S-A nodeb) Direct action on the emetic center causing nausea and vomitingc) Direct action on blood vessels causing vasodilatationd) Stimulation of α2-adrenoreceptors with inhibition of noradrenaline releasee) None of the above

Location of beta 2 adrenoreceptors includes following places EXCEPTS:a) Vesselsb) Presynaptic membranec) Liverd) Bronchie) Juxtaglomerular cells

Sympathetic stimulation is mediated by: a) Release of norepinephrine from nerve terminalsb) Activation of adrenoreceptors on postsynaptic sitesc) Release of epinephrine from the adrenal medullad) N-cholinoreceptors stimulation in sympathetic gangliae) All of the above

Which of the following sympathomimetics acts indirectly? a) Epinephrine b) Norepinephrinec) Ephedrine d) Naphasolinee) Fenilephrine

What is the mechanism of action of ephedrine?a) inhibit eliberation of acetylcholine

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b) stimulate eliberation of acetylcholinec) stimulate eliberation of norepinephrined) inhibit eliberation of norepinephrinee) doesn't have an effect on eliberation of neurotransmitters

Phenylephrine causes:a) Constriction of vessels in the nasal mucosab) Increased gastric secretion and motilityc) Increased skin temperatured) Miosis e) All of the above

Direct effects on the heart are determined largely by: a) Alfa1 receptor b) Alfa 2 receptorc) Beta1 receptord) Beta 2 receptor e) Beta 3 receptor

What kind of drug is contraindicated in the pregnancy because of stimulation of the delivery?a) alcoholb) salbutamolc) indomethacined) furosemidee) ergometrine

In which of the following tissues both alfa and beta adrenergic stimulation produces the same effect? a) Blood vesselsb) Intestine c) Uterusd) Bronchial musclese) Platelets

The effects of sympathomimetics on blood pressure are associated with their effects on: a) The heart b) The peripheral resistancec) The venous return d) Juxtaglomerular apparatuse) All of the above

Beta adrenoreceptor subtypes is contained in all of the following tissues EXCEPT: a) Bronchial muscles b) Heartc) Pupillary dilator muscle d) Fat cellse) Juxtaglomerular apparatus

Which of the following drugs is a nonselective beta-blocker without intrinsic sympathomimetic or local anesthetic activity and used for the treatment of life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias?

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a) Propranolol b) Oxprenololc) Nadolold) Sotalol e) Atenolol

Which of the following drugs is a reversible nonselective alfa, beta antagonist? a) Labetalolb) Phentolamine c) Metoprolold) Propranolole) Prasosine

Select the mechanism of action of propranolol:a) stimulation of beta1-adenoreceptorsb) blockage of beta2 adrenoreceptorsc) blockage of alpha, beta adrenoreceptorsd) blockage of beta1, beta2 adrenoreceptorse) stimulation of M, N cholynoreceptors

Which of the following beta receptor antagonists is preferable in patients with asthma, diabetes or peripheral vascular diseases? a) Propranololb) Metoprolol c) Nadolold) Sotalole) Timolol

Indicate the indirect-acting adrenoreceptor blocking drug: a) Tolazolineb) Reserpinec) Carvedilold) Prazosine) Propranolol

Name property of salbutamol:a) neselective Beta-adrenomimeticb) selective action on Beta2-adrenergic recetorsc) marked cardiac effectsd) positive marked inotropic, batmotropic, chronotropic and dromotropice) rise of bronchial and uteral tonus.

Location of beta2 adrenoreceptors includes following places EXCEPT::a) vesselsb) ciliary muscle c) liverd) bronchie) juxtaglomerular cells

Select the mechanism of action of propranolol:a) stimulation of β1- adrenoreceptorsb) blockage of β 2 adrenoreceptors

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c) stimulation of α1- adrenoreceptorsd) blockage of α,β adrenoreceptorse) blockage of β1, β 2 adrenoreceptors

Select the mechanism of action of metoprolol:a) blockage of β1, β 2 adrenoreceptorsb) blockage of αβ adrenoreceptorsc) blockage of β 1 adrenoreceptorsd) stimulation of β2 adrenoreceptorse) stimulation of β1 adrenoreceptors

Name beta adrenoblocker drug:a) neostigmineb) hydralazinec) propranolold) atropinee) clonidine

What type of drug is propranolol? a) Anticonvulsive b) Antihypertensivec) Antihistamined) Antinauseant e) Antipyretic

What would be contraindicated for propranolol? a) Hypertension b) Essential tremoкc) Anginad) Tachycardiae) Asthma

Select the mechanism of action of metoprolol:a) stimulation of β2 adrenoreceptorsb) blockage of β1 adrenoreceptorsc) blockage of α,β adrenoreceptorsd) blockage of β1, β 2 adrenoreceptorse) stimulation of α1- adrenoreceptors

Indirect action includes all of the following properties EXCEPT: a) Displacement of stored catecholamines from the adrenergic nerve endingb) Inhibition of reuptake of catecholamines already released c) Interaction with adrenoreceptorsd) Inhibition of the release of endogenous catecholamines from peripheral adrenergic neuronse) MAO inhibition

From witch group is phentolamine?a) non-selective α-blockerb) selective α1-blockersc) selective 1-blockersd) selective 2-blockers

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e) Non-selective -blocker

Mechanism of action of prazosin :a) Alpha-1 receptor blockerb) Beta-1 receptor blockerc) Phosphodiesterase inhibitord) Calcium channel blockere) Alpha-2 receptor blocker

Indicate the reversible nonselective alfa-receptor antagonist, which is an ergot derivative: a) Ergotamineb) Prazosin c) Phenoxybenzamine d) Fenilephrinee) Carvedilol Nonselective alfa-receptor antagonists are most useful in the treatment of: a) Asthma b) Cardiac arrhythmiasc) Urinary retentiond) Pheochromocytomae) Chronic hypertension

Indicate the adrenoreceptor antagonist drug, which is a rauwolfia alkaloid: a) Prazosin b) Propranolol c) Sotalold) Reserpinee) Phentolamine Which one of the following statements about sympatholytics is fals?a) Affect noradrenaline synthesis b) Affect noradrenaline releasec) Affect noradrenalne reuptaked) Bind covalently to the alfa- receptor an produce an irreversible effecte) Inhibit influx of Ca 2+ through presynaptic membrane and inhibit in this way mediators release

What is the drug of choice for an anaphylactic reaction? a) Adenosine b) Atropine c) Epinephrined) Dobutaminee) Midazolam

Name the sympatholythic drug: a) Labetalol b) Prazosin c) Guanethidine d) Clonidinee) Propranolol

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With one of the following statements about sympatholytics is fals?:a) block alfa, beta adrenoreceptors b) affect noradrenaline releasec) affect noradrenalne uptake.d) affect noradrenaline synthesise) inhibit the flux of Ca 2+ through presynaptic membrane and inhibit in this way mediators release

Specify the level of action of sympatholitics:a) blockage of alfa adrenoreceptorsb) stimulation of adrenoreceptorsc) act on the presynaptic level.d) adrenaline destruction e) blockage of beta adrenoreceptors

The agent is from sympatholitics group:a) prazosineb) hydralazinec) diazoxided) propranolole) reserpine

Dopamine-mediated renal vasodilation is caused by which receptor(s) system(s):a) Beta2 adrenergic receptorsb) Beta1 adrenergic receptorsc) Dopamine D1 and D2 postsynaptic receptorsd) Muscarinic receptorse) Leukotriene receptors

Drugs prescribed to relax the smooth muscles of the bronchial tubes are called:a) Bronchospasticsb) Bronchodilatorsc) Broncoconstrictorsd) Anticonvulsantse) Muscle relaxants

What is the mechanism of action of trypsin?a) Direct action on the bronchial glands.b) fluidification of sputum, depolymerization of proteins.c) Stimulates bronchial muscles and ciliated epithelium.d) Rising secretion and fluidification of sputum.e) Intensive secretion of reflexive bronchial glands.

What is the indication for chymotrypsin?a) pregnancyb) purulent and necrotic processes c) enterobiosisd) duodenal ulcere) angina pectoris

Indicate the drug belonging to antitussive of narcotic type of action:a) Glaucine hydrochloride

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b) Aethylmorphine hydrochloride c) Noscapine d) Oxeladinee) Pentoxiverine

Which of the following drugs are being used as expectorants?a) potassium chlorideb) magnesium sulfate c) sodium sulfated) potassium iodidee) calcium carbonate

Mechanism of action of bromhexine?a) breaks off S-S groups and bind with them. In this way decrease viscosity of the bronchi mucus.b) irritates gastric mycousa membrane and increase bronchi secretionsc) inhibits cough center in the bulbd) breaks off mucopolysaharide and mucoproteic groups. Also it stimulates secretion of surfactant.e) stimulates CNS in subcortical lever and bulb.

Indicate the expectorant with the reflex mechanism:a) Sodium benzoate b) Derivatives of Ipecacucnha and Thermopsis c) Trypsin d) Ambroxole) Acetylcistein

Which of the following drugs is proteolytic enzyme? a) Potassium iodide b) Desoxiribonuclease c) Carbocysteine d) Acetylcysteine e) Sodium benzoate

Mechanism of broncholytic action of isoprenaline:a) blocking of M-cholinoreceptors from smooth muscles of the bronchib) direct influence on the smooth muscles of the bronchi c) excitment of beta-adrenoreceptors of smooth muscles of the bronchi.d) depression of phosphodiesterase activitye) non f the above

Choose the drug that block leucotriene receptors:a) Budesonide b) Sodium cromoglycate c) Zileuton d) Beclometazone e) Zafirlucast

Drug used in asthma that often cause tachycardia and tremor include:a) beclomethasoneb) cromoglycate sodium

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c) ipratropiumd) isoprenalinee) all of the above

Which of the following drugs is a 5-lipoxygenase (5-LOX) inhibitor? a) Ibuprofen b) Zileuton c) Methamizole d) Diclofenac e) Zafirlukast

Name the drug belonging to membranestabilizing agents: a) Zileutin b) Sodium cromoglycate c) Zafirlucast d) Montelucaste) Aminophylline

Choose pharmacodynamic particularity of aminophylline:a) inhibits respiratory center in bulbb) biliary motility depressionc) bronchial relaxation d) decreasing cardiac activitye) increased mast cell degranulation

Name drug contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma: a) Propranolol b) Clonidine c) Enalapril d) Nifedipinee) Salmeterol

Which drug is a leukotriene receptor antagonist D4 (LTD4)?a) ibuprofenb) zileutonc) zafirleukastd) diclofenace) aspirin

Which drug is an inhibitor of 5-lipoxygenase (5-LOG)?a) zafirlukastb) zileutonc) beclomethasoned) montelukaste) terbutaline

Mechanism of action of aminophylline consists in::a) stimulates phosphodiesterase b) decreasing of intracellular сAMPc) rising of mast cells degranulationd) xblock of adenozinic receptorse) inhibition of hyaluronidase

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Mechanism of action of aminophylline:a) phosphodiesterase stimulationb) phosphodiesterase inhibitionc) increasing of mast. degranulationd) modification of membrane permeability for Ca+e) inhibition of hyaluronidase

Name the main therapeutic effect of methylxanthine drugs such as aminophylline:a) Vasoconstriction in many vesselsb) Decrease in the amount of camp in mast cellsc) Bronchodilationd) Activation of the enzyme phosphodiesterasee) Sedation

A drug useful in the treatment of asthma but lacking bronckodilator effect is:a) Sodium Cromoglycateb) Ephedrinec) Isoprenalined) Metoprolole) Salbutamol

Select the drug that acts selectively on the Beta 2 receptors of the bronchi:a) epinephrineb) ephedrinec) norepinephrined) salbutamole) izoprenaline

What is therapeutic effect of ethanol in pulmonary edema?a) dehydrationb) analgesiac) antispume effectsd) decreasing of the arterial tension in the small circulatione) stimulation of the respiratory center

What kind of action have morphine in pulmonary edema?a) Dehydrationb) Diureticc) Antispumed) Decreasing of the arterial pressure in the small circulatione) Sedative action.

Witch kind of action will be in ganglioblockers administration in pulmonary edema?a) dehydrationb) diuretic actionc) anti-spume actiond) antihypertension actione) sedative action

The main effect of ganglion blocking drugs in pulmonary edema is:a) dehydrationb) hypotensive

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c) bronchodilationd) antiallergice) anti-foaming

With one of the following statements about ethanol is false? a) xdoesn’t cross the biological barrierb) the drug is distributed to most body tissuesc) its volume of distribution is equivalent to that of total body water.d) is rapidly and completely absorbede) causes withdrawn syndrome

What kind of the remedies is used in bronchial asthma?a) Propranololb) Naphasolinec) Dobutamined) Salmeterole) Norepinephrine

Pharmacodynamics of disodium chromoglycate:a) Bronchospasmoliticb) Stabilization of the mast cell membrane.c) Antihistaminicd) Antispastice) Anntiinflamatory

Mechanism of action of sodium cromoglycate:a) produce a lymphopenia, particularly of T lymphocytes by destribution of cell into the lymphoid tissueb) produces mast cell stabilization (depression of release of histamine, neuropeptides, antagonism of tachykinin receptors, inhibition of PAF interaction with platelets and eosinophils)c) blocks H1 histaminoreceptorsd) alteration of lymphocyte function e) stimulate beta2 adrenoreceptors of bronchi

What kind of drug is used in bronchial asthma?a) propranololb) nafasolinec) doputamined) ozagrele) norepinephrine

A drug useful in the treatment of asthma but lacking bronchodilator effect is:a) Salbutamolb) Fenoterol c) Nedocromild) Ephedrinee) Isoprenaline

Drug used in asthma often causing tachycardia and tremor is:a) Beclomethasoneb) Cromolyn sodium

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c) Ipratropiumd) Orciprenalinee) All of the above

What is therapeutic effect of ethanol in pulmonary edema?a) Dehydrationb) Analgesiac) Anti-foaming effectsd) Decreasing of the arterial tension in the small circulatione) Stimulation of the respiratory center

Which of the following anti-asthmatic drugs may worsen gastric ulcer?a) epinephrineb) prednisolonec) salbutamold) isoprenalinee) disodium cromoglycate

This drug acts by inhibiting nucleotide phosphodiesterase type III: a) Amiodarone b) Milrinone c) Propanolol d) Enalapril e) Valsartan

This drug should probably not be administered to a patient with congestive heart failure because the drug may further reduce contractility; the drug should probably also not be prescribed to an asmatic since the drug may increase bronchiolar smooth muscle tone:a) Digoxinb) Terbutaline c) Propranolold) Atropinee) Doxazosine

Initial drug(s) for management of mild to moderate heart failure:a) Parenteral inotropic drugs, e.g. dobutamine b) Hydralazine c) Furosemide d) Captopril e) Torasemide

Which one of the following drugs predictably prolongs the PR interval and increases cardiac contractility?a) Digoxinb) Lidocainec) Propranolold) Quinidinee) Verapamil

A positive cardiac inotropic agent?a) Amrinoneb) Amiodarone

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c) Atenolold) Salbutamole) Mannitol

Longest acting from digitals:a) Digoxinb) Digitoxinc) Bothd) Neither

Name positive inotropic drug of glycoside structure:a) Dopamine b) Digoxin c) Dobutamine d) Adrenaline) Methyldopa

Diuretic most likely to cause hypokalemia:a) Triamterene b) Amiloride c) Spironolactone d) Furosemide e) Acetazolamide

Choose the drug with longest duration of action?a) strophantineb) celanidec) corglicond) digoxinee) digitoxine

An elderly male patient has essential hypertension, congestive heart failure, and type I insulin-dependent diabetes. His congestive failure developed secondary to coronary vascular disease associated with hyperlipidemia. What antihypertensive drug(s) may be most appropriate for this patient?a) Chlorothiazide b) Captopril c) Propranolol d) Metoprolol e) Hexamethonium

A drug devoid of negative inotropic effects and is effective in the treatment of cardiac insufficiency:a) amantadineb) papaverinec) digoxined) clonidinee) metoprolol

The primary cause of digitalis toxicity is:a) Intracellular calcium overloadb) Intracellular potassium overload

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c) Increased parasympathetic activityd) Increased adrenocorticosteroid levelse) All of the above

In the therapy of congestive heart failure, the most important pharmacologic action of digitalis is its ability to:a) produce diuresis in edematous patientsb) reduce venous pressurec) increase myocardial contractile forced) increase heart ratee) decrease pacemaker automaticity in cells of the bundle of His

A positive cardiac inotropic agent:a) Amrinoneb) Furosemidec) Propranolold) Salbutamole) Neostigmine

Glycosides are indicated in:a) Cardiac right blockadeb) Ventricular tachyarrhythmiasc) Atrio-ventricular blocksd) Supraventricular tachyarrhythmiase) W.P.W. syndrome.

Potentiate hypokalemia associated with digoxin therapy:a) insulinb) spironolactonec) furosemided) indomethacinee) imipramine

Antihypertensive: action based on inhibition of norepinephrine release from adrenergic nerve endings:a) Propranolol b) Guanethidinec) Hexamethonium d) Phentolamine e) Prazosine

A severe hypertensive crisis is treated with:a) epinephrineb) salbutamolc) trimetaphand) diazepame) tubocurarine The drug with the most useful effects in the treatment of inoperable metastatic pheochromocytoma secreting mostly norepinephrine is:a) clonidineb) minoxidilc) phentolamine

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d) propranolole) reserpine

Which of these following antihypertensives are an alpha 1- adrenoblocker?a) Hydralazineb) Propranolol c) Hydrochlorothiazided) Nifedipinee) Prazosin

Name the hypotensive remedy from beta- adrenoblokers?:a) Hydrochlorthyazideb) Methyldopac) Clonidined) Hydralazinee) Metoprolol

Vasoconstriction, aldosterone secretion, and renin release suppression occur upon activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. How would captopril affect these responses?a) Blocks all threeb) Blocks only vasoconstrictionc) Blocks all except vasoconstrictiond) Blocks only renin release e) No effect

Side effects of this antihypertensive agent includes tachycardia, angina, reversible lupus-like syndrome:a) Propranolol b) Hexamethonium c) Hydralazine d) Diazoxide e) Metoprolol

Following preparation groups belong to antihypertensive drugs but one exception:a) alpha- adrenoblockers b) alpha- adrenomimeticsc) beta- adrenoblockersd) alpha-2-central adrenomimeticse) sympatholytics

Principal mechanisms by which beta adrenergic receptor blockade decreases BP:a) Vasodilation-- arteriolarb) Vasodilation -- venularc) Reduced heart rate and reduced myocardial contractilityd) Blockade of angiotensin II receptorse) Decreased central sympathetic outflowAntihypertensive drugs belonging to the same class:a) Doxazosin, prazosin, metoprolol b) Nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem c) Clonidine, guanabenz, terazosin d) Lisinopril, fosinopril, guanadrel

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e) Propranolol, labetalol, dinoprostol

Select Ca channel-blocking drugs:a) nifedipine + diltiazem + verapamilb) trinitrolong + nitrong + isosorbide dinitratc) minoxidil + pinacidil + nicorandild) aminophylline + xantinol nicotinates + carbocromen e) dipyridamol + lidoflazine

Name hypotensive remedy, which act on the renin-angiogenesis system:a) propranololb) spironolactone c) bendazoled) captoprile) hydrochlorothiazide

Place of action of clonidine:a) Inhibition of rennin-angiotensine system b) Activation of beta adrenoreceptors c) Activation of alpha2 presynaptic adrenoreceptors d) Blockage of alpha2 adrenoreceptorse) Inhibition of cholinergyc system

By what mechanism does clonidine lower the blood pressure?:a) Decreased heart rate by direct action on S-A nodeb) Direct action on the emetic center causing nausea and vomitingc) Direct action on blood vessels causing vasodilatationd) Stimulation of alfa2 adrenoreceptors with inhibition of noradrenaline realizinge) None of the above

This antihypertensive compound will inhibit both α-and β-receptor functions:a) Atenololb) Labetalolc) Bothd) Neither

Choose the drug which increases cardiac output: a) Norepinephrine b) Methyldopa c) Phenylephrine d) Angiotensinamide e) Diazoxide

Indicate the vasoconstrictor of endogenous origin: a) Ephedrine b) Phenylephrine c) Xylomethazoline d) Angiotensinamide e) Profetur

Choose the synthetic vasoconstrictor having an adrenomimic effect: a) Norepinephrine

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b) Epinephrinec) Phenylephrine d) Angiotensinamide e) Atropine

General unwanted effects of vasoconstrictors are: a) Increase of arterial pressure b) Increase of cardiac output c) Decrease of peripheral blood flow d) Increase of blood volume e) Dispnoe

Which statement describes the pathway of nitric oxide (NO)? a) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasodilationb) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, decreases cGMP concentration, vasodilationc) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasoconstriction d) Inhibits guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasodilation e) Inhibits guanylyl cyclase, decreases cGMP concentration, vasoconstriction

By what mechanism does nitroglycerine lower the blood pressure?a) Direct action on the emetic center causing nausea and vomitingb) Direct action on blood vessels causing vasodilatation c) Decreased heart rate by direct action on S-A noded) Stimulation of α 2 adrenoreceptors with inhibition of noradrenaline realizinge) None of the above

Which type of receptors can be activated by angiotensinamide: a) Adrenergic alpha-1 receptors b) Cholinergic receptors c) Dopaminergic receptors d) Angiotensin's receptors e) Adrenergic beta-1 receptors

For increasing blood pressure in case of low cardiac output the following agents must be used: a) Ganglioblockers b) Vasoconstrictors c) Positive inotropic drugs d) Diuretics e) M-cholinomimetics

Name the unwanted effects of clonidine: a) Parkinson's syndrome b) Sedation, dry mouth, and hypotensionc) Gray baby syndromd) Agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia e) Psychostimulant effectA severe hypertensive crisis is treated with:a) atropineb) levodopac) benzohexoniumd) diazepam

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e) amphetamine

The longest anti-hypotensive action can be observed by administrating of:a) epinephrine b) phenylephrine c) dopamined) norepinephrinee) isoturon

Indicate hypotensive beta-adreno blocker remedy:a) hydrochlorothiazideb) methyldopa c) clonidined) hydralazinee) metoprolol

Antiarrhythmic drug with antimalarial and antipyretic effects:a) Tocainide b) Procainamide c) Metoprolol d) Quinidine gluconate e) Lidocaine

Choose the drugs from Group IB antiarrhythmic drugs:a) quinidine, ajmaline, procainamideb) flecainide, encainide, propafenonec) phenytoine, lidocaine, mexiletined) verapamil, galapamil, diltiazeme) amiodarone, adenosine

Preferred in the treatment of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome:a) Morphineb) Carbamazepinec) Amantadined) Verapamile) Nifedipine

Antiarrhythmic drug: long-term use associated with a lupus-related side effect:a) Quinidine gluconate b) Propranololc) Procainamide d) Verapamil e) Adenosine

Preferred for acute management of angina:a) Nitroprusside sodium b) Hydralazine c) Sublingual nitroglycerind) Propranolol e) Minoxidil

Name antianginous mechanism ov validol:56

a) musculotropic coronarodilatory actionb) reflectory coronarodilatory actionc) inotropic negativ effectd) peripheral vessels dilatione) stimulation of cardiac contractility

Which of the following antianginal agents is a myotropic coronary dilator: a) Dipyridamole b) Validol c) Atenolol d) Alinidine e) Nitroglycerine

Which of the following antianginal agents refers to reflex coronary dilators: a) Dipyridamole b) Validol c) Atenolol d) Alinidine e) Nitroglycerine

Mechanism of action of diltiazem :a) Phosphodiesterase inhibitorb) Blockade of calcium channelsc) Alpha-1 receptor antagonistsd) Beta-1 receptor antagoniste) Beta-2 receptor agonist

Witch antiarrhythmic is for the first choice in ventricular arrhythmias in myocardial infarction?a) Quinudineb) Amiodaronec) Lidocained) Propranolole) Niphedipine

Which of the following is most useful in the treatment of obesity?a) Bromocriptineb) Cimetidinec) Ergotamined) Ondansetrone) Sibutramine

Indicate the serotonin antagonists preventing vomiting?a) scopolamineb) ondansetronc) diphenhydramined) atropinee) droperidol

Which of the following drugs may cause reversible gynecomastia? a) Omeprazole b) Pirenzepine

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c) Cimetidine d) Sucralfate e) Pirenzepine

What vitamine belongs to cytoprotective gastric mucosa?a) Choline b) Orotic acid c) Pangamic acidd) 5- methyl methionine (sulfonium chloride)e) Polyphenol

All of the following agents intensify the secretion of gastric glands except:a) Pepsin b) Gastrinc) Histamine d) Somatostatine) Prostaglandin E

Name the drug that causes metabolic alkalosis: a) Sodium bicarbonate b) Cimetidine c) Pepto-Bismol d) Carbenoxolonee) Famotidine

Which drug is an analog of prostaglandin E1? a) Misoprostoleb) De-nol c) Sucralfate d) Omeprazolee) Lansoprasole

Name antacid that causes constipation: a) Sodium bicarbonate b) Aluminium hydroxide c) Calcium carbonate d) Magnesium oxidee) Almagel

The effect of omeprazole on a parietal cellular level manifests itself through:a) competitive inhibition of gastrinic effectb) competitive inhibition of histamines on a H2-receptor levelc) irreversible inhibition of H+/K+ ATPased) irreversible inhibition of adenylate cyclasee) blocking of prostaglandin receptors

Name the drug forming a physical barrier to HCL and Pepsin: a) Ranitidine b) Sucralfatec) Omeprazole d) Pirenzepinee) Sodium bicarbonate

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Name drug used in gastric ulcer complex treatment:a) chloroquine phosphate b) metronidazolec) chiniophoned) pyrimethaminee) solusurmineAlkaloid of opium with potent smooth muscle relaxant properties:a) phenytoinb) papaverinec) digitalisd) reserpinee) propranolol

Name the drug, which inhibits peristalsis: a) Castor oil b) Bisacodyl c) Loperamide d) Sorbitol e) Metoclopramide

Namer an emetic drug of central action: a) Ipecacuanha derivatives b) Promethazine c) Metoclopramided) Apomorphine hydrochloridee) Zinc sulphate

Name the metoclopramide’s mechanism of antiemetic action: a) H1and H2-receptor blocking effectb) M-cholinoreceptor stimulating effectc) D2 -dopamine and 5-HT3-serotonin receptor blocking effect d) M-cholinoblocking effect e) stimulation of D2 -dopamine and 5-HT3-serotonin receptor

Name the emetic agent having a reflex action: a) Ipecacuanha derivatives b) Apomorphine hydroclorid c) Chlorpromazine d) Metoclopramide e) Cytostatics

Name an antiemetic agent which is related to neuroleptics: a) Apomorphine hydrocloridb) Nabilone c) Domperidoned) Chlorpromazinee) Metoclopramide

Name the laxative drug belonging to osmotic laxatives: a) Docusate sodium b) Bisacodyl

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c) Phenolphthalein d) Sodium phosphate e) Bulk laxatives

Which of the laxative and purgative preparation listed below acts exclusively on the small intestine level?a) purgative antrachinone b) castor oilc) phenolphthaleind) magnesium sulfatee) paraffin oil

Laxatives and purgatives can act through whichever mechanism listed below but one:a) stimulates motility through an irrigative mechanism.b) stimulates direct cholinergic receptorsc) difussion growth plus active water and electrolytes secretiond) water retention in the intestines through hydrophilic and osmotic force.e) direct softening of defecation

The mechanism of stimulant purgatives is: a) Increasing the volume of non-absorbable solid residue b) Increasing motility and secretion c) Altering the consistency of the fecesd) Increasing the water contente) Makes feces softer and more easily passed

Arginine is part of a substance group listed below:a) Cholecystokinetic b) Cholereticc) Astringentd) Hepatoprotectivee) Antiflatulent

Choose hepatoprotective preparations:a) papaverine b) olive oil c) silymarind) calcium salte) apomorphine

Name a hepatoprotector:a) papaverineb) essentialec) apomorphined) lipasee) atropine

Name the drug used in chronic pancreatitis:a) apomorphineb) bisacodylc) pancreatined) cimetidine

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e) All of the above

Select the medication that ameliorate digestion.a) tripsine, chimotripsine, chimopsineb) fibrinolizine, alteplase, streptokinasec) pepsine, digestal, abomined) hialuronidase, ronidase, lecozime) cholinesterase, monoaminoxidase

Phenylbutazone belongs to following derivatives:a) pyrazolone b) salicylatesc) oxicamd) anthranilic acide) indoleacetic acid

Anti-Inflammatory effect of glucocorticoids is caused by:a) inhibition of phospholipase A2 with reduced synthesis of prostaglandins and leukotrieneb) reducing the migration of macrophages in the inflammatory focic) reduce capillary permeabilityd) the influence of macrophages by blocking the formation of free radicalse) all of the listed

Name specific effects for NSAIDs:a) antihistaminic, antipyretic, analgesicb) immunosuppressive, anti-inflammatory, analgesicc) antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatoryd) anti-inflammatory, immunosuppressive, antihistaminice) analgesic, antihistamine, immunosuppressive

Name drug from indole acetic derivatives?a) ibuprofenb) indomethacinc) mefenamic acidd) diclofenace) piroxicamThe selective non steroid anti-inflammatory drug is:a) ibuprofenb) naproxenc) nimesulidd) paracetamole) diclofenac

Name drug from oxicam:a) piroxicamb) indomethacinc) mefenamic acidd) diclofenace) paracetamol

Which NSAIDs is a COX-2 selective NSAIDs?a) piroxicam

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b) indomethacinc) celecoxibd) diclofenace) ibuprofen

Which NSAIDs is a non-selective NSAIDs?a) piroxicamb) rofecoxibc) celecoxibd) meloxicame) parecoxib

What is the contraindication for NSAIDs?a) rheumatism, inclusive and nonarticularyb) the development of gastric ulcerc) deforming osteoarthrosisd) lumbagoe) osteoarthritis

Which of the following NSAIDs is a selective COX-2 inhibitor? a) Piroxicam b) Indomethacin c) Celecoxib d) Diclofenac e) Acetylsalicylic acid

Choose a steroidal anti-inflammatory drug:a) Phenylbutazoneb) Ketoprofen c) Ketorolac d) Triamcinolonee) Hydroxychloroquine

Corticoids are indicated in:a) colagenosesb) viral diseasesc) AIDSd) immunodeficiencye) herpetic diseases

The primary objective for designing drugs that selectively inhibit COX-2 is toa) Decrease the risk of nephrotoxicityb) Improve anti-inlammatory effectivenessc) Lower the risk of gastrointestinal toxicityd) Reduce the cost of treatment of rheumatoid arthritise) Selectively decrease thromboxane A2 without effects on other eicosanoids.

Mechanism of action of non steroid anti-inflammatory preparations:a) Antiemetic effectb) Increasing prostaglandin's synthesisc) Cyclooxigenase inhibitiond) Activation of lysosomic enzymes

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e) Decreasing of neutrophils migration

Antiinflammatory steroids often induce:a) hypoglycemiab) hypotensionc) hyponatriemiad) buffalo humpe) abdominal colics

Name indication for Diclofenac sodium:a) Extraarticular rheumatism b) Gastroduodenal ulcer c) Hemmorrhagic diathesisd) nonspecific ulcerous colitise) Bronchial asthma

Mechanism of action of anti inflammatory steroids consists of:a) Stimulation of Phospholipase A2

b) Inhibition of Phospholipase A2

c) Producing of prostaglandins risesd) Stimulates phosphodiesterasee) blocks beta- adrenergic receptors

Mechanism of action of steroidal anti-inflammatory consists in:a) Inhibition of phosphodiesteraseb) Stimulation of adenylate cyclisec) Inhibition of phospholipase A2, which is necessary for arachidonic acid.d) Rising in mast cells degranulation.e) Depressing heart activity

Inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins:a) Sodium salicylateb) Bromhexinec) Colchicined) Aminophyllinee) Carsil

The analgesic action of salicylates is the result of:a) the irritability of the reticular pathwaysb) hypothalamic effectc) cortical effectd) peripheral effecte) opioid receptors stimulation

The toxicity spectrum of acetylsalicylic acid does not include:a) Respiratory alkalosisb) Metabolic acidosisc) Hyperprothrombinemiad) Increased risk of peptic ulcere) Increased risk of encephalopathy in children with viral infection

Select nonselective non-steroid anti-inflammatory drug:63

a) phenytion b) ascorbic acidc) indomethacind) morphinee) phenobarbital

Oral doses may cause gastric irritation and may even cause gastrointestinal bleeding:a) Levomepromazineb) Ampicillinc) Acetylsalicylic acid d) Diphenhydramined) Loratadine

Which of the following statements concerning the anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs are TRUE? a) Anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs results from inhibition of cyclooxygenase b) Anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs results from inhibition of phospholipase A2 c) Anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs results from induction of cyclooxygenase II d) Anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs results from inhibition of leucotriense) All of the answers Which group of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the alpha-adrenoreceptor-blocking effect? a) Alkylamines b) Ethanolamines c) Ethylenediaminesd) Phenothiazinese) Piperidines

Effects of antihistamines are, EXCEPT:a) Euphoria and /or disphoryab) Anticholinergic peripheral effectc) Low blood pressure d) Antiemetice) Sedation

Name H1 antihistamine from II generation:a) loratadineb) diphenhydraminec) suprastined) promethazinee) chlorpheniramine

Antihistamines H1 aren’t used in:a) the vertigo and Meniere's diseaseb) psychotic disorders c) allergic symptoms (rhinitis, urticaria)d) nausea and vomiting in pregnancye) sleep disorders

These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for the anticholinergic effect, EXCEPT:

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a) Alkylamines (propylamines)b) Piperazinesc) Ethylenediaminesd) Phenothiazinese) Imidasols

These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for sedative effects, EXCEPT: a) Piperidines; i.e. Loratadineb) Ethanolamines (aminoalkyl ethers); i.e. Diphenhydramine c) Ethylenediamines; i.e. Chlorophiramined) Phenothiazines; i.e. Promethazine e) Imidasols: i.e. Antasoline

Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the best antiemetic action? a) Alkylamines b) Ethanolamines c) Piperazines; d) Ethylenediamines; e) Imidasols: i.e.

Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the highest local anesthetic effect? a) Alkylamines (propylamines); i.e. Brompheniramine b) Piperidines; i.e. Loratadine, Fexofenadine c) Ethylenediamines; i.e. Chlorophiramined) Phenothiazines; i.e. Promethazine e) Imidasols: i.e. Antasoline

Side effect of first-generation histamine H1 antagonists is:a) Aplastic anemia b) Vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing c) Sedation d) Gastric ulcers and upper gastrointestinal bleeding e) Ventricular arrhtythmias

Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is recognized for as second-generation antihistamines? a) Alkylamines ; i.e. Chlorphenamine b) Piperidines; i.e. Loratadine, Fexofenadine c) Ethylenediamines; i.e. Chlorophiramine d) Phenothiazines; i.e. Promethazine e) Imidasols: i.e. Antasoline Which of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the serotonin-blocking effect? a) Diphenhydramineb) Cyproheptadine c) Chlorophiramined) Antasolinee) Promethasine

Many antihistamines have additional nonhistamine-related: these are likely to include all of the following EXCEP:

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a) Antimuscarinic reduction in bladder toneb) Local anesthetic effects if the drug is injectedc) Anti-motion sickness effectsd) Increase in total peripheral resistancee) Sedation

Which of the below listed preparation doesn’t inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins?a) Indomethacinb) Diclofenac c) Piroxicam d) Dyphenhydraminee) Ibuprofen

Mechanism of action of diphenhydramin:a) inhibit α- adrenoreceptorsb) inhibit dopaminoreceptorsc) inhibit H1- receptorsd) inhibit Purinergic receptorse) inhibit Serotoninergic receptors.

Which receptors block diphenhydramine chloride to cause anti-allergic action?a) H1-histaminoreceptors b) H2-histaminoreceptorsc) alpha1-adrenoreceptorsd) alpha2-adrenoreceptorse) alpha, beta-adrenoreceptors

Gold-salts drugs are:a) methotrexate, azathioprine, cyclosporineb) auranofin, gold sodium thiomalate, aurothioprolc) hydrocortisone, prednesolone, dexamethasoned) nimesulid, meloxicam, celecoxibe) diclofenac, ibuprofen, naproxen

Class of cyclosporine A is: a) Interferons b) Immunosuppressive agents c) Monoclonal antibodies d) Immunoglobulins e) H1 antihistamines

The most important side effect of interferon gamma is: a) Hypertension b) Pulmonary edema c) Nephrotoxicity d) Fatigue e) Hepatotoixicity

Immunomodulating agent is: a) Sirolimus b) Levamisole c) Tacrolimus

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d) Promethasine e) Cyproheptadine

Indication for interferon alpha administration is: a) Autoimmune diseases b) Rheumatoid arthritisc) Organ transplantation d) Hepatitis C virus infection e) Gastric ulcers and upper gastrointestinal bleeding

Name immunomodulatory preparations from cytokines:recombined interleukins:a) Chipferon, Reaferonb) Amyxin, Arbidolc) Timogen, Imunofand) Pyrogenic, Prodighiozane) Roncoleuchin, Betaleuchin.

Which one of the following compounds enhances immune function in vitro and in clinical trials decreases the symptoms of the common cold?a) Echinaceab) Feverfewc) Garlicd) Milk Thistle e) Melatonin

Name the main indication for administration of interferon alpha:a) autoimmune diseasesb) rheumatoid arthritisc) organ transplantationd) hepatitis Ce) atopic asthma

Name minor immunosuppressive preparations:a) cyclophosphamide, chlorambucilb) chloroquine, hydroxychloroquinec) mercaptopurine, azathioprined) cyclosporine, tacrolimuse) tacrolimus, actinomycin

Glycosidic anthracyclene antibiotoc effective in treatment of acute leukemias, malignant lymphomas, and a number of solid tumors:a) Doxorubicinb) Vinblastinec) Penicillind) Emetinee) Vincristine

Choose a slow-acting anti-inflammatory drug:a) Phenylbutazoneb) Ketoprofen c) Ketorolac d) Triamcinolone

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e) Hydroxychloroquine

Which one of the following drugs reduces the activity of phospholipase A2:a) Aspirinb) Ibuprofenc) Misoprostold) Prednisolonee) Zafirlukast

Choose a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug from pyrazolone derivatives:a) Phenylbutazoneb) Ketoprofen c) Ketorolac d) Triamcinolonee) Hydroxychloroquine

Name an endocrine drug, which is an amino acid derivative: a) Insulin b) Hydrocortisone c) Calcitonin d) Thyroxine) Prednesolone

Name an endocrine drug, which is a peptide derivative: a) Insulin b) Prednisolone c) Nandrolone d) Progesteronee) Thyroxin

Which one of the following compounds is not a hormone?a) Thyroxineb) Somatotropinc) Vasopressind) Bromocriptine e) Oxytocin

Indicate the use of parathyroid hormone:a) spasmophiliab) pregnancyc) acute renal insufficiencyd) hyperglycemiae) Addison disease

Indications of vasopressin is following: a) Diabetes mellitus b) Hypertension c) Pituitary diabetes insipidus d) Incompleted abortione) Acromegaly

Which of the following organs is a target for prolactin? 68

a) Liver b) Adrenal cortex c) Thyroid d) Mammary glande) Pancreas

What kind of drug is contraindicated in pregnancy because of high uterine stimulation?a) oxytocinb) salbutamolc) fenoterold) drotaverinee) acetylsalicylic acid

Which of the following hormones is produced by the thyroid gland? a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone b) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone c) Triiodothyronine d) Adrenalinee) Parathormone

Corticosteroids are contraindicated in:a) crisis of bronchial asthma b) status asthmaticusc) allergic rhinitisd) colagenosise) hypertention

Which of the following compounds is not a hormone?a) Tamoxifen b) Somatomedinc) Somatotropind) Thyroxinee) Vasopressin

Name the estrogen inhibitor: a) Leuprolide b) Tamoxifen c) Flutamide d) Anastrozole e) Testosterone

Name the antiandrogen drug: a) Flutamide b) Aminoglutethimide c) Tamoxifen d) Testosteronee) Carbapenem

Toxic effects of the corticosteroids do not include:a) Growth inhibitionb) Hypertentionc) Hypoglicemia

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d) Psychosise) Salt retention.

Potentiates the hypokalemia associated with cortisol therapy:a) Glucagonb) Calciumc) Furosemided) Pyridoxinee) Imipramine

Name an antiestrogen drug:a) Aldosteroneb) Bromocriptinec) Carbimazoled) Tamoxifene) Hydrocortisone

Triphasic contraceptive is:a) nonoxynolb) tricvilarc) regulond) divinae) marvelone

Which of the following is most useful in the treatment of hyperprolactemia?a) Bromocriptineb) Cimetidinec) Ergotamined) Ondansetrone) Sumatriptan

A hormone that acts to stimulate absorption of calcium and phosphate from the intestine:a) Calciumb) Calcitoninc) Sodium etidronated) Vitamin De) Fluoride

Name the drug that has the strongest action in water retention in the body:a) aldosteronb) progesteronec) estradyold) cortocosterone) testosteron

Glucocorticoids are contraindicated in:a) Bronchial asthmab) Status astmaticusc) Allergic rhinitisd) Collagenosese) Diabetus mellitus

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Prednisone is contraindicated in:a) crisis of the bronchial asthmab) status asthmaticusc) allergic rhinitisd) collagenosise) duodenal ulcer

Name the indication for estrogens in oncological practice:a) Leukemiab) Cancer of prostatec) Endometrial cancerd) Brain tumorse) Cancer of thyroid gland

Hormone androgen preparations have following indications but one:a) Insufficient renal anemia treatmentb) inoperable breast cancer in woman during postmenopause c) hypogonadismd) lactic suppressione) breast cancer in men

The rate of secretion of thyrotropin is controlled by: a) The amount of iodine in the thyroid gland b) The amount of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland c) The concentration of thyroid hormones in blood d) The concentration of catecholamines in bloode) The concentration of cortisol in blood

Which of the following drugs may be used in diabetes insipidus?a) Ergometrine b) Oxytocin c) Vasopressind) Methylergometrinee) Quinine

What drug might be useful for triggering and obtaining labor term?a) Ergometrineb) Oxytocine c) Dinoprostd) Methylergometrinee) QuinineIndicate the mechanism of contraception being based on preparations, which contains estrogen and gestagen:a) Spermatocidal actionb) Annihilation of spermatozoic activities.c) Development inhibition of the follicle and implantation disturbances of the fertilized ovary.d) Cervical liquefactione) Contribution to the proliferation of uterine mucosa

Hormones are: a) Products of endocrine gland secretion b) Mediators of inflammatory process

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c) By-products of tissue metabolism d) Products of exocrine gland secretione) Products of arachydonic acid cascade

Give the definition of hormone analogues: a) Naturally occurring substances but slightly different from hormonesb) Naturally occurring substances but less efficacious than hormones c) Naturally occurring substances having the same structure but different pharmacological properties than hormones d) Synthetic compounds, which resemble the naturally occurring hormones e) Naturally occurring substances

Name hormones produced by the hypothalamic gland:a) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) b) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) c) Aldosterone d) Estradiol e) Prednesolone

Name the hormonal preparation of hypothalamus:a) Thyreotoxinb) Somatostatinec) Hydrocortisoned) Glucagone) Insulin

Which of the following hormone is not synthesized in the hypothalamus?a) Vasopressinb) Thyrotropin-realizing hormonec) Oxytocind) Luteinizing hormonee) Corticotropin- releasing hormone

Name hormones produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland:a) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)b) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)c) Growth hormone (somatotropin, GH) d) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) e) Aldosterone

How does oxytocin change the sensitivity of the myometrium during the period of pregnancy?a) decreasingb) nonessential decreasingc) no changesd) nonessential increasinge) increasing

Choose the indication for anabolic steroids:a) Obesity b) Formation of bony callus c) Myxedema

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d) Arterial hypertensione) Hyperglycemia

Vasopressin possesses the following: a) Antidiuretic property b) Vasodilatation propertyc) Release of a thyroid hormone into the plasma d) Diuretic property e) Release of a adrenal hormone into the plasma

Which of the following drugs may be used in diabetes insipidus?a) Ergometrineb) Oxytocin c) Vasopressind) Methylergometrinee) quinine

Excessive doses of thyroid hormone may cause each of the following EXCEPT:a) angina pectorisb) cardiac decompensationc) adrenal insufficiencyd) psychotic behaviore) constipation

Concerning testosterone, all of the following are true EXCEPT:a) it is a major male hormoneb) it is highly effective by the oral routec) it is reduced to dihydrotestosterone in the bodyd) it is produced by the testes, ovaries, and adrenal corticese) about 99% of testosterone in plasma is bound to protein

Thyrotropin stimulates the following processes: a) Concentration of iodine by thyroid follicles b) Iodination of thyroglobulin c) Release of thyroxine and triidothyronine d) De-iodination of thyroid hormonese) Release of calcitonine

Thyroid hormones produce various pharmacological effects. Indicate the wrong statement:a) Decrease of the basal metabolic rate in the body b) Increase in the rate and force of contraction of the heart c) Increase in the blood level of cholestrol d) Increase in the heat productione) Decrease body mass

Insulin is a polypeptide hence: a) It is resistant to destruction by gastric juice b) It is destroyed by gastric juicec) It is not a polypeptided) It is metabolized immediately by cellular enzymes e) It is used in diabetes mellitus

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Witch drug is indicated in diabetes insipitus?a) oxytocinb) vasopresinc) angiotensind) ephedrinee) prazosin

Which drug is preferentially indicated in diabetes mellitus, type II?a) tolbutamineb) vasopresinc) glucagond) insuline) gonadotropine

Which of the following is true for glucagon? a) Stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver b) Stimulates the secretion of insulin by beta cells c) Inhibits glucose utilization by skeletal muscle d) Inhibits uptake of aminoacids by cellse) Stimulates the secretion of calcitonine by beta cells

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors act by: a) Diminishing insulin resistance by increasing glucose uptake and metabolism in muscle and adipose tissues b) Competitive inhibiting of intestinal alpha-glucosidases and modulating the postprandial digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides c) Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut d) Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insuline) Replacement therapy

Insulin cannot be administered by: a) Oral route b) Intravenous route c) Subcutaneous route d) Intramuscular routee) Artificially pancreas

Choose the pair of hormones that have agonistic effects on blood sugar levels:a) Calcitonin and PTHb) Adrenalin and Glucagonc) Glucagon and Glucosed) ADH and Aldosteronee) Insulin and Glucagon

Glucocorticosteroids are contraindicated in which of the below listed diseases?a) herpetic keratitis b) status asthmaticus c) lymphoma malignad) rheumatoid arthritise) chronic hepatitis

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Effects of the glucocorticoids do not include:a) Reduction in circulating lymphocytesb) Inhibition of leukotriene synthesisc) Increased skin protein synthesisd) Increased blood glucosee) Altered fat deposition

Choose following indications for antithyroid preparations:a) cretinism b) diabetes mellitusc) impotence d) thyrotoxicosise) myxedema

Mineralocorticoid drug cause:a) Increased catabolismb) Increased Na+ retension and К+ excretionc) Increased gluconeogenesisd) Deposition of fat on shoulders, face and abdomene) Increased К+retension and Na+ excretion

Prednisone can determine every side effect listed below but one:a) Arterial Hypertension b) Gastroduodenal ulcer c) Retention of sodium and waterd) Hyperpotassemiae) Central nervous excitation

Immunosupressive effect of glucocorticoids is caused by: a) Reducing concentration of lymphocytes (T and B cells) b) Suppression of cyclooxygenase II expression c) Activation of phospholipase A2 d) Activation of cyclooxygenase II expression e) All of the answers

Which of the following glucocorticoids is a long-acting drug? a) Prednisolon b) Dexamethasonec) Triamcinolone d) Cortisonee) All of the answers Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following, EXCEPT: a) Acute peptic ulcers b) Iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome (rounding, puffiness, fat deposition, moon faces) c) Salicylism (vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing, and vertigo) d) Hypomania or acute psychosise) High arterial pressure

Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following:a) Adrenal suppression b) Insomnia, behavioral changes (primarily hypomania) c) Rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the appearance of the face - moon

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faces d) Diabetus mellitus type IIe) All of the answers

Indicate the mechanism of contraception based on preparations, which contains estrogen and gestagen:a) Spermicide actionb) Annihilation of spermatozoic activitiesc) Development inhibition of the follicle and implantation disturbances of the fertilized ovary.d) Cervical liquefactione) Contribution to the proliferation of uterine mucosa

Glucocorticosteroids are contraindicated in which of the below listed diseases?a) Rheumatoid arthritisb) Status asthmaticus c) Lymphoma malignad) Herpetic keratits e) Chronic hepatits

Glucocorticoids are hormonal steroids: a) Having an important effect on intermediary metabolism, cardiovascular function, growth, and immunity b) Having principally salt-retaining activityc) Having androgenic or estrogenic activity d) Having thyroid stimulating activitye) All of the answers

Which of the following glucocorticoids is an intermediate-acting drug?a) Cortisoneb) Triamcinolone c) Betamethasone d) Dexamethasonee) All of the answers

Which of the following glucocorticoids is a short- to medium-acting drug? a) Prednisolon b) Dexamethasonec) Hydrocortisoned) Cortisone e) All of the answers Which of the following substances has the most intense salt and water retention?a) estradiolb) progesteronec) aldosterone d) corticosteronee) testosterone

Note the mechanism of antiplatelet action of acetylsalicylic acid:a) inhibs irreversibly platelet cyclooxygenase b) stimulates platelet biosynthesis of TxA2

c) inhibits prostacycline PgI2 biosynthesisd) inhibits PgI1 biosynthesis

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e) inhibits PgE2 biosynthesis

Indicate the effect of protamine sulphate:a) antifybrinolyticb) antidot of heparinec) thrombolyticd) local hemostatice) nonspecific hemostatic

Note the mechanism of action of cumarins:a) are active in vivo and in vitrob) blocks synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, X by inhibition of epoxi-reductasec) are vitamine C antimetabolitsd) often cause thrombosese) administered only intramusculary

Which stage of arterial thrombosis is inhibited by acetylsalicylic acid:a) adderation of platelets to colagenb) arahydonic acid release c) formation of thromboxan A2

d) activation of thromboxan A2 receptorse) inhibition of adenilatcyclase-AMPc system

Indicate the antithrombotic drug with fibrinolytic action:a) alteplazeb) sulphinpirazonc) warfarind) heparine) dypiridamole

Which antitrombotic drug activates AT III:a) streptokinazeb) sulphinpirazonec) warfarind) heparine) acetylsalicylic acid

Indicate the antidote of oral anticoagulants:a) etamsilatb) carbazocromec) aprotinined) vitamine K iv and blood transfuzione) fibrinogen

Name the reason of acetylsalicylic acid long duration:a) high half-life b) concentration in thombocytesc) inactivates ireversibilly platelet cyclooxigenased) lysis of fibrine) slow absorption

Which drug is better for long-term prophylaxis of venous thrombosis?77

a) acenocumarolb) heparin intravenuoslyc) streptokinased) acetylsalycilic acide) dypiridamole

Which drug is from Coumarin derivates?a) sulphinpirazoneb) acenocumarolc) acetylsalycilic acid in low dosed) carbazocrome) dypiridamole

Name the drug which can't be used as local hemostatic:a) epinephrineb) tromboplastinc) trombind) fibrine) fitomenadione

Indicate heparine antagonist:a) trombinb) acenocumarolc) menadiond) protamine sulphatee) fibrinogen

All preparations listed below might be used for local homeostasis but one exception:a) fibrin b) phytomenadion c) thrombind) epinephrinee) thromboplastin

Indicate the mechanism of action of indirect anticoagulants:a) inhibits thromboplastine activityb) fixes calcium ions in blood c) inhibts gama-carboxilation of protrombin and proconvertin in liverd) activates antithrombin IIIe) activates factors IX,X,XI,XII and calicrein

What is specific for iron drugs, prescribed intravenously:a) can increase sideremia les then oral drugsb) iron from this drugs is fixt initially by reticulo-endotelial systemc) restore landfills weaker than oral preparationsd) they require an acid mediume) side effects more rare and less pronounced then oral drugs

Indicate the topical drug used to stop hemorrhage from little vessels:a) fitomenadionb) calcium chloridec) acetylsalycilic acid

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d) trombine) fibrinogen

Indicate the pharmacologic feature of iron drugs:a) it is absorbed mostly in the stomachb) daily recquest in healthy - 1 mg and 1,4 mg in womenc) food and stomach antacids increase bioavailability for absorptiond) absorption is not higher in patients with iron deficiency anemia than in healthy people, because it's transported stably by specific proteinse) after iron absorption is carried by the plasma erythrocytes

Indicate the antagonist of indirect anticoagulants:a) fitomenadionb) calcium chloridec) protamine sulphated) aprotinine) epinephrine

Tick the mechanism of action of sodium citrate:a) fixes calcium ionsb) inhibits trombin activationc) decreases tromboplastine synthesisd) inhibs protrombine and proconvertin synthesis in livere) increases platelet aggregation

Aminocapronic acid is a drug of choice for treatment of:a) Acute myocardial infarction b) Bleeding after fibrinolytic therapy c) Heart failure d) Multiple pulmonary emboli e) Myocardial infarction

Indicate the pharmacologic feature of heparin:a) heparin is obtained from human tissueb) heparin is badlly absorbed from digestive tubc) speed of elimination of heparin is not dose-dependentd) effect of heparin can be antagonized by nadroparine) heparin does not pass into the breast milk

Indicate heparin antagonist:a) naloxoneb) naltrexonc) flumazenil d) protamine sulphatee) disulfiram

Choose the mechanism of action of heparin:a) activates prothrombin and other factors of coagulation.b) binds to and activates endogenous antithrombin III. (ATIII).c) activates physiologic fibrinolytic system,that degradate fibrin into fragmentsd) inhibits COX and decreases synthesis of tromboxan, that has aggregant effect.e) interferes with the normal posttranslational modification of clotting factors in the liver, a

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process that depends on vitamin K.

Which of the following antiaggregans inhibits prostaglandin synthesis?a) dextran 40b) dypiridamolec) prostacyclind) acetylsalycilic acide) ticlopidin

Indicate low-molecular-weight heparin:a) acenocumarolb) heparinc) sodium citrated) nadroparinee) warfarin

Indicate the drug that stop bleeding by vassoconstrictive action:a) epinephrineb) menadionc) menadiold) fibrinogene) fitomenadion

Note the mechanism of antiplatelet action of acetylsalicylic acid:a) inhibits the activity of tromboplastine and impairs the passage of prothrombin in thrombin b) fixes calcium ions in bloodc) inhibits thromboxan synthesisd) activates antithrombin IIIe) activates factors IX, X, XI, XII and calicrein

A 26-year-old woman comes to the outpatient clinic with a complain of rapid heart rate and easy fatigability. Laboratory work up reveals low hemoglobin and microcytic red cell size. The most suitable therapy will be:a) ferrous sulfateb) folic acidc) iron d) pyridoxinee) cyanocobalamin

What is the onset of furosemide at intravenous administration:a) after 25 minutes and lasts for 4 oreb) after 3-4 minutes and lasts for 1-2 orec) after 10 minutes and lasts for 6 ored) after 60 minutes and lasts for 24 oree) after 25 minutes and lasts for 4-8 ore

Which kind of action will be in furosemide administration in pulmonary edema?a) dehydrationb) antidiuretic actionc) anti-foam actiond) antihypertensive actione) sedative action

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Name diuretic drug with antiepileptic properties:a) Furosemideb) Acetazolamidec) Etacrinic acidd) Spironolactonee) Triamterene

The drug inhibits the carbonic anhydrase enzyme:a) Acetazolamideb) Furosemide c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Spironolactone e) Amiloride

Which one of the following statements about spironolactone is TRUE?a) Spironolactone reverses many of the manifestations of aldosteronismb) Spironolactone is also an androgen antagonist and as such is used in the treatment of hirsutism in womenc) Spironolactone is useful as a diureticd) All the answerse) No one answer

All of the following statements regarding diuretics are true, EXCEPT:a) Carbonic anhydrase inhibition leads to increased reabsorption of NaHCO3b) Loop diuretics decrease Na+ reabsorption at the loop of Henle by competing for the Cl- site on the Na+/K+/2Clcotransporterc) In general, the potency of a diuretic is determined by where it acts in the renal tubuled) Hydrochlorothiazide decreases urinary calcium excretione) Diuretics decrease edema in the body The drug acts by competitively blocking NaCl cotransporters in the distal tubule:a) Acetazolamide b) Furosemide c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Spironolactone e) Triamteren

The drug acts by competing with aldosterone for its cytosolic receptors:a) Acetazolamide b) Furosemide c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Spironolactone e) Ethacrinic acid

The drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks Na+ channels in the collecting tubules:a) Acetazolamide b) Amiloride c) Furosemide d) Hydrochlorothiazide e) Indapamid

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The drug inhibits the enzyme carbonic anhydrase:a) Sulthiameb) Furosemide c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Spironolactone e) Triamteren

Name carboanhydrase inhibitor diuretics:a) hydrochlorothiazideb) spironolactonec) furosemided) triamterenee) acetazolamine

Which kind of diuretic is more active in treatment of glaucoma?a) acetazolamideb) hydrochlorthiazidec) ethacrinic acidd) furosemidee) triamteren

Sustained use of this drug results in increased plasma urate concentrations:a) Furosemide b) Acetazolamide c) Both of the aboved) Neither of the abovee) Their associated administration Chronic use of this drug can lead to metabolic acidosis:a) Acetazolamide b) Amiloridec) Furosemide d) Hydrochlorothiazide e) Triamteren

The drug acts at the proximal tubule:a) Acetazolamide b) Furosemide c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Spironolactonee) Triamteren The drug can be used to treat glaucoma:a) Furosemide b) Acetazolamide c) Both of the aboved) Neither of the abovee) Their association

The drug has a steroid-like structure which is responsible for its anti-androgenic effect:a) Amiloride

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b) Furosemide c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Spironolactone e) Indapamid

The drug decreases calcium excretion in urine:a) Hydrochlorothiazideb) Amiloride c) Furosemide d) Acetazolamide e) Manitol

The drug can cause ototoxicity:a) Furosemideb) Acetazolamide c) Both of the aboved) Neither of the abovee) just their associated administration

Which of the following diuretics may cause deafness (ototoxicity) in case of an overdose?a) hydrochlorothiazideb) furosemidec) acetazolamided) spironolactonee) triamterene

Diuretics with action in thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle (TAL):a) chlortalidon + clopamideb) mannitol, ureac) spironolactone + amiloride + triamterened) furosemide + ethacrine acid + bumetamidee) cyclopentazide + polythiazide

The drug is sometimes part of fixed-dose combinations used to treat essential hypertension:a) Hydrochlorothiazide b) Amiloride c) Both of the aboved) Neither of the abovee) Their associated administration

Choose short-acting drug:a) Furosemide b) Acetazolamide c) Spironolactoned) Acetazolamidee) Polythiaside

The drug needs aldosterone present in order to be effective:a) Hydrochlorothiazide b) Amiloride c) Both of the above

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d) Neither of the abovee) Their associated administration

The drug acts only in loop Henle, ascending part:a) Furosemide b) Acetazolamide c) Both of the aboved) Neither of the abovee) Their associated administration Which of the following diuretic groups act above the collecting tube?a) thiazidesb) loop diureticsc) carbonic anhydrase inhibitord) antialdosteronicse) osmotic diuretics

The drug can be used to treat nephrogenic diabetes insipidus:a) Hydrochlorothiazide b) Acetazolamidec) Spironolactoned) Mannitole) Amilorid

The drug should never be administered to patients taking potassium supplements:a) Hydrochlorothiazide b) Amiloridc) Furosemide (Lasix)d) Neither of the abovee) Their associated administration

The drug acts by competitively blocking the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter:a) Loop diureticsb) Thiazide diureticsc) Potassium-sparing diureticsd) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorse) Osmotic diuretics

The drug acts at the proximal tubule:a) Loop diureticsb) Thiazide diureticsc) Potassium-sparing diureticsd) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorse) Osmotic diuretics

The drug acts in the distal convoluted tubule:a) Loop diureticsb) Thiazide diureticsc) Potassium-sparing diureticsd) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorse) Osmotic diuretics

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The drug is the most potent diuretic:a) Loop diureticsb) Thiazide diureticsc) Potassium-sparing diureticsd) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorse) Cardiac glycosides Which kind of diuretic is more active in acute renal failure ?a) triamterenb) furosemidec) indapamide d) hydrochlorthiazidee) acetazolamide

Name agent - aldosterone antagonist: a) Furosemide b) Spironolactone c) Dichlothiazide d) Captoprile) Bumetamide

The drug acts by competitively blocking the NaCl cotransporter:a) Loop diureticsb) Thiazide diureticsc) Potassium-sparing diureticsd) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorse) Osmotic diuretics

The drug is one of the most potent diuretics:a) Acetazolamide b) Furosemide c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Amiloridee) Indapamid

The drug inhibits sodium and chloride transport in the early distal tubule:a) Acetazolamide b) Furosemidec) Hydrochlorothiazided) Amiloridee) Manitol

The drug acts in the collecting tubules:a) Loop diureticsb) Thiazide diureticsc) Potassium-sparing diureticsd) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorse) Osmotic diuretics

The drug blocks the sodium/potassium/chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending loop of Henle:

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a) Acetazolamide b) Furosemide c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Amiloride e) Manitol

Choose antagonist of aldosterone:a) aminoglutethimideb) mitotanc) spironolactoned) ketoconazolee) miphepristone

The drug can cause ototoxicity:a) Acetazolamideb) Furosemidec) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Amiloride e) Manitol

Drug used in night enuresis:a) Osmotic diureticsb) Loop diureticsc) Thiazide diureticsd) Potassium-sparing diureticse) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

These agents must be given parenterally because they are not absorbed when given orally:a) Osmotic diureticsb) Loop diureticsc) Thiazide diureticsd) Potassium-sparing diureticse) Thiazide like diuretics

Amiloride acts at this nephron site:a) Proximal convoluted tubuleb) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henlec) Distal convoluted tubuled) Collecting ducte) All nephron

These drug may be used in the treatment of recurrent calcium nephrolithiasis:a) Mannitolb) Ethacrinic acidc) Hydrochlorthiazided) Spironolactonee) Acetazolamide Furosemide acts at this nephron site:a) Proximal convoluted tubule

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b) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henlec) Distal convoluted tubuled) Collecting ducte) Glomerules

The drug is the least (less) potent diuretic:a) Mannitolb) Furosemidec) Indapamidd) Spironolactonee) Hydrochorthiazide

Acetazolamide acts at this nephron site:a) Proximal convoluted tubuleb) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henlec) Distal convoluted tubuled) Collecting ducte) All nephron

Amiloride acts at this nephron site:a) Proximal convoluted tubuleb) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henlec) Distal convoluted tubuled) Collecting ducte) All nephron

The drug inhibiting the cotransport of sodium, potassium, and chloride in Loop Henle:a) Torasemid b) Acetazolamide c) Triamterene d) Manitol e) Indapamid

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is: a) Furosemideb) Acetazolamide c) Triamterene d) Manitol e) Indapamid

Mechanism of action of osmotic diuretics includes:a) They inhibit sodium chloride transport in the early segment of the distal convoluted tubuleb) This drugs inhibit the cotransport of sodium, potassium, and chloridec) They increase osmotic pressure of plasma, increase minute-volume of blood and increase also the renal circulation and filtrationd) Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase in the brush border and intracellular carbonic anhydrase in the PCT celle) They are antagonist (competitive or noncompetitive) of aldosterone in the collecting tubules

The drug acts by competitively blocking NaCl cotransporters in the distal tubule:a) Ethacrinic acid

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b) Furosemide c) Polythiazide d) Spironolactone e) Triamterene

The drug acts by competing with aldosterone for its cytosolic receptors:a) Acetazolamide b) Furosemide c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Spironolactone e) Triamterene

Choose non-competitive antagonist of spironolactone:a) Acetazolamide b) Amiloridec) Furosemide d) Hydrochlorothiazide e) Spironolactone

The drug that inhibit carbonic anhydrase:a) Acetazolamide b) Furosemide c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Spironolactonee) Mannitol

The drug has a steroid-like structure which is responsible for its anti-androgenic effect:a) Amiloride b) Furosemide c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Spironolactone e) Triamterene

The drug decreases calcium excretion in urine:a) Hydrochlorothiazideb) Amiloride c) Furosemide d) Acetazolamide e) Spironolactone

The drug can promote sodium loss in patients with low (e.g., 40 ml/min) glomerular filtration rates:a) Furosemide b) Acetazolamidec) Hydrochlorothiazided) Spironolactone e) Amiloride

The drug needs aldosterone present in order to be effective:a) Furosemide b) Acetazolamide c) Hydrochlorothiazide

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d) Spironolactone e) Amiloride

The drug can be used to treat nephrogenic diabetes insipidus:a) Hydrochlorothiazide b) Amiloride c) Acetazolamide d) Hydrochlorothiazide e) Spironolactone

The drug is the most potent diuretic:a) Loop diureticsb) Thiazide diureticsc) Potassium-sparing diureticsd) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorse) Aldosteron's antagonists

The drug acts by competitively blocking the NaCl cotransporter:a) Loop diureticsb) Thiazide diureticsc) Potassium-sparing diureticsd) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorse) Aldosteron's antagonists

The drug is one of the most potent diuretics:a) Acetazolamide b) Ethacrinic acid c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Amiloridee) Spironolactone

The drug inhibits sodium and chloride transport in the early distal tubule:a) Acetazolamide b) Furosemide c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Amiloridee) Spironolactone

The drug acts in the collecting tubules:a) Loop diureticsb) Thiazide diureticsc) Potassium-sparing diureticsd) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorse) Osmotic diuretics

The drug blocks the sodium/potassium/chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending loop of Henle:a) Acetazolamide b) Furosemide c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Amiloride e) Spironolactone

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The drug is usually given in combination with a thiazide diuretic:a) Acetazolamide b) Furosemide c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Amiloride e) Bumetanide

What diuretic is contraindicated in cardiac insufficiency?a) furosemideb) hydroclorothiazidec) acetazolamide d) spironolactonee) mannitol

Diuretic that acts in loop Henle is:a) Indapamideb) Furosemidec) Mannitold) Spironolactonee) Acetazolamide

An important therapeutic effect of loop diuretics is:a) Decreased blood volumeb) Decreased heart ratec) Increased serum sodiumd) Increased total body potassiume) Metabolic acidosis

Spironolactone acts at this nephron site:a) Proximal convoluted tubuleb) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henlec) Distal convoluted tubuled) Collecting ducte) Glomerulus

These drugs may be used in the treatment of recurrent calcium nephrolithiasis:a) Osmotic diureticsb) Loop diureticsc) Thiazide diureticsd) Potassium-sparing diureticse) Furosemide

Furosemide acts at this nephron site:a) Proximal convoluted tubuleb) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henlec) Distal convoluted tubuled) Collecting ducte) Glomerulus The drug is the least potent diuretic:a) Osmotic diuretics

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b) Loop diureticsc) Thiazide diureticsd) Potassium-sparing diureticse) Thiazide-like diuretics Acetazolamide acts at this nephron site:a) Collecting ductb) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henlec) Distal convoluted tubuled) Proximal convoluted tubule e) Glomerulus Amiloride acts at this nephron site:a) Proximal convoluted tubuleb) Ascending thick limb of the loop of Henlec) Distal convoluted tubuled) Collecting ducte) Glomerulus

The drug competitively blocks chloride channels and prevents movement of sodium, potassium, and chloride into the renal tubular cells:a) Furosemide b) Acetazolamide c) Triamterene d) Mannitol e) Spironolactone

Choose anti gout drug:a) salbutamolb) propranololc) allopurinold) carvedilole) atenolol

Has been used in the treatment of gout:a) Loperamideb) Probenecidc) Bothd) Neither

Effective in the treatment of gout by inhibition of the movement of leukocytes into the inflamed joint:a) Sodium salicylateb) Acetylcysteinec) Colchicined) Acetaminophene) Sulfinpyrazone

Electrolytes are responsible for:a) Acid-base balance b) Blood sugar levels c) Hemoglobin levels

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d) Hormone levels e) Enzymes level

What vitamin is inactivated by pyrazinamide?a) Vitamin B6b) Vitamin B1c) Vitamin Ad) Vitamin Ce) Vitaimin K

List typical characteristics of acid folic:a) Inhibits central nervous systemb) acts on coagulation of blood.c) occurs as a formation of purine and pyrimidine nucleotides.d) Stimulates central nervous system.e) act directly on plasminogen.

Which vitaminic preparation is being used in scurvy?a) thiamineb) cyanocobalaminc) pyridoxined) ascorbic acide) biotin

Name the indications for Vitamin K preparations: a) Keratits b) Rheumatoid arthritisc) Angina Pectoris d) Parenchymal hemorrhagee) Muscle pain

Vitamins are: a) Inorganic nutrients needed in small quantities in the body b) Organic substances needed in very large quantities in the body c) An organic compound and a vital nutrient that an organism requires in limited amounts.d) Products of endocrine gland secretion e) Any of numerous proteins or conjugated proteins produced by living organisms and functioning as specialized

Antienzymes are: a) a substance that inhibits or counteracts the action of an enzymeb) substances that prevent vitamins from exerting their typical metabolic effects c) any of numerous proteins or conjugated proteins produced by living organisms and functioning as specialized atalysts for biochemical reactions d) nonprotein organic substances that usually contain a vitamin or mineral e) products of endocrine gland secretion

Select the fat-soluble vitamin: a) Ascorbic acid b) Tocopherol c) Thiamine

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d) Riboflavine) Piridoxin

Beri-beri is caused by the deficiency of: a) Riboflavin b) Ascorbic acid c) Nicotinic acid d) Thiamine e) Riboflavin

Select a water-soluble vitamin: a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin E c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin B1 e) Vitamin K

Which of the following vitamins is responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of calcium,:a) Vitamin К b) Vitamin A c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin E e) Vitamin B1

Which of the following vitamins can be also synthesized from a dietary precursor? a) Vitamin С b) Vitamin A c) Vitamin B1 d) Vitamin B6 e) Vitamin P

Vitamin C is required for the production and maintenance of:a) Collagen b) Hormone c) Ascorbic Acid d) Red Blood Cells e) Vitamin P

Vitamin C deficiency is called:a) Ricketsb) Scurvyc) Cancerd) Cold e) Beri-beri

Which of the following statements concerning pyridoxine (vitamin B6) functions is true: a) Active functional form is pyridoxal phosphate, which is an essential coenzyme for transamination and decarboxylation of amino acids b) Active group of the coenzymes nicotinamide-adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and nicotinamide-adenine phosphate (NADP) c) Essential constituent of flavoproteins, flavin mononucleotide (FMN) and flavin adenine

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dinucleotide (FAD) d) An extremely important antioxidant, which protects cell membrane lipids from peroxidation by breaking the chain reaction of free radical formation to which polyunsaturated fatty acids are particularly vulnerable e) Active functional form is dihydroergocalciferol Name the main function of Vitamin A in the body:a) Immune defenses, maintenance of body linings and skin b) Vision, c) Normal cell development and reproductiond) Bone and body growth e) All of the above

Vitamin B12 deficiency caused by lack of intrinsic factor is called:a) Ricketsb) Pernicious anemia c) Scurvyd) Poor circulation of the red blood cells e) Beri-beri

The vitamin Folate works together with ______________to produce new red blood cellsa) Vitamin D b) Vitamin B12 c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B6 e) None of the above

Which of the following vitamins is also known as an antisterility factor? a) Vitamin Eb) Vitamin B6 c) Vitamin B1d) Vitamin Ce) Vitamin D

Characterictic of Vitamin B12:a) Is present in large amounts in green, leafy vegetables b) Prevents goiter c) Prevents scurvy d) Requires intrinsic factor secreted in the stomach to aid its absorption e) Prevents Beri-beri disease.Whch of the following is a function of Vitamin B12a) Red blood cell formation b) Normal cell development and reproductionc) Immune defenses, maintenance of body linings and skin d) Just anti-oxidant actione) Vision, bone and body growth

Indicate the influence of ergocalciferol upon metabolic processes:a) stimulates nucleic acid synthesisb) depresses nucleic acid synthesisc) increases the permeability of the intestinal epithelium for calcium and phosphor.d) stimulates alpha-keto acid decarboxylation

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e) inhibits alpha-keto acid decarboxylation

Which of the following vitamins is also known as an anti-sterility factor? a) tocopherol b) piridoxine c) thiamined) fitomenadione e) ascorbic acid

Which of the following vitamins is also known as a haemostatic agents? a) tocopherol b) piridoxine c) thiamined) fitomenadione e) ascorbic acid

Dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia are characteristics of: a) Dry beri-beri b) Pyridoxine deficiency c) Scurvy d) Pellagra e) Cholesterol deficiency

Scurvy is: a) A disease caused by deficiency of vitamin C and characterized by spongy bleeding gums, bleeding under the skin, and weakness b) Extreme dryness of the conjunctiva resulting from a disease localized in the eye or from systemic deficiency of vitamin A c) A disease caused by deficiency of niacin in the diet d) All of the answerse) A disease caused by deficiency of vitamin K

Pellagra is: a) A disease caused by a deficiency of niacin (vit. PP) in the diet and characterized by skin eruptions, digestive and nervous system disturbances, and eventual mental deterioration b) Inflammation of several nerves at one time caused by a deficiency of thiamin, marked by paralysis, pain, and muscle wasting. c) A severe form of anemia most often affecting elderly adults caused by a failure of the stomach to absorb vitamin B12 d) All of the answerse) A severe form of anemia most often affecting children

Characterize vitamins: a) are all synthesized in the body b) provide energyc) are necessary for proper growth and development d) all are hormonse) needed in large amounts

Which of the following vitamins is given along with isoniazide in treatment of tuberculosis?

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a) Nicotinic acid b) Riboflavin c) Pyridoxine d) Ascorbic acid e) Vitamin A

Which of the following vitamins is used in megaloblast anemia? a) Vitamin B12 b) Vitamin BC c) Vitamin PP d) Vitamin D e) Vitamin A

Which of the following enzymes is used in cancer therapy? a) Pepsin b) Urokinase c) L-asparaginase d) Lydaze e) Aprotinine

Loosening of teeth, gingivitis and hemorrhage occur in the deficiency of: a) Vitamin К b) Vitamin В1 c) Vitamin B6 d) Vitamin Ce) Vitamin A

A 30-year-old woman who was suffering from untreatable gastric carcinoma underwent a gastrectomy. A deficiency of which one of the following vitamins will develop as a result of this procedure and must be treated with?a) Vitamin B6

b) Vitamin B12

c) Vitamin Cd) Vitamin De) Vitamin E

Name vitamin obtained from sunlight:a) Vitamin Ab) Vitamin Dc) Vitamin Kd) Vitamin Ee) Vitamin C

Name vitamin synthesized from bacteria in the intestines:a) Vitamin Ab) Vitamin Dc) Vitamin Kd) Vitamin Ee) Vitamin C

Name easily destroyed vitamin:a) Vitamin A

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b) Vitamin Dc) Vitamin Kd) Vitamin Ee) Vitamin C

Clinical uses of vitamin D do not include:a) Osteoporosisb) Nutritional ricketsc) Intestinal osteodystrophyd) Hyperparathyroidisme) Chronic renal failure

Vitamin A deficiency causes:a) Beri-berib) Night blindnessc) Scurvyd) Megaloblastic anemiae) Pellagra

Name ion that helps muscles to contract and relax, thereby helping to regulate heartbeat:a) Ironb) Calciumc) Cobaltd) Iodidee) Sulfur Along with potassium, plays a role in fluid balance:a) Ironb) Sodiumc) Cobaltd) Iodidee) Sulfur

Charactericitc of fat-soluble vitamins: a) Are more stable than water-soluble vitamins b) Are found in all foods c) Must be supplied daily d)Cannot be stored in the body e) Non of the above

If a person has vitamin K deficiency, which of the following is likely to occur?a) Acne b) Formation of blood clots A c) Excessive bleeding d) Acidosis e) Non of the above

Which of the following antienzymes is a trypsin inhibitor? a) Aprotinineb) Sulbactam c) Aminocaproic acid d) Disulfiram

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e) Cylastatine

Which of the following antienzymes is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor: a) Physostigmine b) Selegiline c) Aminocaproic acid d) Acetazolamide e) Disulfiram

Which of the following antienzymes is a fibrinolysis inhibitor? a) Clavulanic acid b) Sulbactam c) Aminocaproic acid d) Disulfiram e) Selegiline

Which of the following antienzymes is a cholinesterase inhibitor? a) Physostigmine b) Selegiline c) Aminocaproic acid d) Disulfiram e) Sulbactam

Which of the following enzymes improves GIT functions (replacement therapy): a) Pepsin b) Urokinase c) L-asparaginase d) Lydaze e) 5-LOX

Which of the following antienzymes is a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor: a) Physostigmine b) Selegiline c) Acetazolamide d) Disulfiram e) Sulbactam

Which of the following antienzymes is an aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor? a) Tazobactam b) Sulbactam c) Aminocaproic acid d) Disulfiram e) Physostigmine

Which of the following antienzymes is a xantine oxidase inhibitor? a) Physostigmine b) Allopurinol c) Aminocaproic acid d) Acetazolamide e) Disulfiram

Which of the following enzymes has fibrinolytic activity? 98

a) Pepsin b) Urokinase c) L-asparaginase d) Lydaze e) COX-1

Which of the following antienzymes is an aromatase inhibitor used in cancer therapy? a) Physostigmine b) Allopurinol c) Aminocaproic acid d) Aminoglutethimidee) Acetazolamide

Name enzymes with antimicrobial properties:a) hyaluronidaseb) asparaginasec) bactisubtild) panzynorme) urokinase

What's the definition of "antibiotics"?a) non-organic or synthetic substances that selectively inhibit growth of other microorganismsb) substance produced by some microorganisms or their synthetic analogs that selectively kills or inhibits the growth of other microorganismsc) substances produced by certain microorganisms or their synthetic analogs inhibit the growth of body cellsd) synthetic analogues of natural substances that kill protozoa and helminthese) non of the above

What is the minimum duration of antibacterial treatment?:a) not less than one dayb) not less than 5 daysc) not less than 10-14 daysd) not less than three weekse) not less than 1 month

The mechanism of bacterial resistance to penicilins can be described as: a) Inactivation of drug by beta-lactamases b) Overproduction of PBPs c) Overproduction of peptidoglycans d) Breakdown of penicillins by the immune system e) Rapid biotransformation

Antibiotics are chemicals produced by? a) Cancer cells b) Viruses c) Bacteria d) Protozoa e) Microorganisms

What antibiotic should be used for the treatment of fever with unknown origin? a) Antibiotics should not be used

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b) Cephalosporins c) Macrolides d) Aminoglycosides e) Penicillins

Bactericidal effect is: a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division b) Inhibition of young bacterial cell growthc) Destroying of bacterial cells d) Formation of bacterial L-form e) Stimulation of bacterial cell division

Bacteristatic effect is: a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division b) Bacteria killingc) Destroying of bacterial cells d) Formation of bacterial L-form e) Stimulation of bacterial cell division

Name bactericidal drug? a) Cephalosporins b) Trimethoprim c) Macrolides d) Lincosamides e) Choramphenicol

A(n) ____ drug will halt bacterial growth but not deplete it, while a(n) ____ drug will kill bacteria: a) Bactericidal; Antibiotic b) Antibiotic; Bacteriostaticc) Bactericidal; Bacteriostaticd) Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal e) Antibiotic; Bactericidal

When treating meningitis, one of the steps to achieve the MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration) is by injecting antibiotic where? a) Epidural space b) Subdural space c) Subarachnoid space d) Subpial spacee) Corneal space

Penicillin is a ____ drug and tetracycline is a ____ drug: a) Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic b) Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal c) Bactericidal; Bactericidal d) Bacteriostatic; Bacteriostatice) Fungicidal; Bactericidal

Penicillin was first discovered when colonies of staphylococci lysed when contaminated with what? a) Penicillium bacteria

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b) Penicillium virus c) Penicillium fungi d) Penicillium parasite e) Penicillium protozoa

Penicillin G is ____ to penicillinase and methicillin is ____ to penicillinase. Both are considered ____ spectrum antibiotics: a) Resistant; Sensitive; Narrow b) Resistant; Sensitive; Broad c) Sensitive; Resistant; Narrowd) Sensitive; Resistant; Broad e) Resistant; Resistant; Broad

What enzyme is the main target for penicillin? a) Transglucosylases b) Transpeptidases c) D-alanine carboxykinases d) Glucoronuyltransferasee) Dihidropteroat synthetase

Which antibiotic is considered extended-spectrum as it can fight pseudomonal aeroginosa, enterobacter species, proteus, bacteroids fragilis, and many klebsiella? a) Oxacillin b) Ampicillin c) Amoxicillind) Penicillin Ge) Carbencillin

Which next antibiotic would be used to treat Neisseria gonorrhoeae if the patient was allergic to penicillins? a) Ticarcillin b) Carbencillin c) Ceftriaxone d) Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)e) Penicillin V

Clavulanate is added to amoxicillin (Augmentin) to protect the drug molecule. This results in a ____ bioavailability and a change from dosage three times a day to ____ times a day. However, this produces a high incidence of diarrhea: a) Increase; Four b) Increase; Two c) Decrease; Four d) Decrease; Two

Clavulanic acid and sulbactam ____ antibiotics, and are added to give better ____ properties and effects: a) Are; Antibacterial b) Are; Pharmacokinetic c) Are not; Antibacteriald) Are not; Pharmacokinetic

Name antibiotic considered the least toxic? 101

a) Ticarcillin b) Oxacillin c) Ampicillin d) Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)e) Chloramphenicol

Imipenem/Cilastatin is an example of a: a) Antibiotic + inhibitor of penicillinaseb) Combination from 2 antibiotics to increase spectrum of actionc) Antibiotic + inhibitor of renal enzyme dehydropeptidased) Antibiotic + inhibitor of beta lactamasee) 2 antibiotics to decrease side effects

Several families of drugs such as penicillins and cephalosporins act to ____ the bacterial ____ and thereby promoting lysis. The mechanism is through prevention of murein (peptidoglycan) synthesis: a) Weaken; Cell membrane b) Weaken; Cell wall c) Strengthen; Cell membraned) Strengthen; Cell wall a) Inhibit protein synthesis

What is the most frequent side effect, which occurs after administrating of benzyl penicillin?a) Agranulocytosis b) Anemia c) Renal insufficiency d) Allergye) Dysbacteriosis

Severe allergic reactions are more common with what family of drugs? a) Tetracyclines b) Macrolides c) Cephalosporins d) Penicillins e) Sulfonamides

Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-monobactams: a) Ampicillin b) Bicillin-5 c) Aztreonam d) Imipinem e) Tienam

Antibiotic inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis is: a) Erythromycin b) Rifampicine c) Chloramphenicol d) Imipinem e) Cycloserine

Which antimicrobial remedy is excreted in bile in active concentrations?:102

a) ampicillinb) kanamycinc) griseofulvind) sulfizoxazolule) nalidixic acid

Mechanism of penicillins' antibacterial effect is: a) Inhibition of transpeptidation in the bacterial cell wall b) Inhibition of beta-lactamase in the bacterial cell c) Activation of endogenous proteases, that destroy bacterial cell wall d) Activation of endogenous phospholipases, which leads to alteration of cell membrane permeability e) Activation of beta-lactamase in the bacterial cell

Name the main indication for benzylpenicillin:a) salmonelosisb) typhoid feverc) subacute endocarditisd) syphilise) tuberculosis

Which from penicillins is an aminopenicillin? a) Methicillin b) Ampicillin c) Penicillin G d) Penicillin V e) Carbencillin

Which of the penicillins produces a higher incidence of diarrhea? a) Cloxacillin b) Ampicillin c) Amoxicillin d) Augmentin e) Penicilin GIV rd Generation Cephalosporins have a ____ spectrum of antimicrobial activity and are considered ____: a) Broad; Bactericidal b) Broad; Bacteristaticc) Narrow; Bactericidal d) Narrow; Bacteristatice) Narrow; Fungistatic

Cephalosporin from I-st generation for parenteral administration is:a) cefazolinb) cefamandolec) cephachlord) cefipimee) cefadroxil

Which of the bacteria would not be affected by a second-generation cephalosporin, but would be affected by ceftazidime? a) Staphylococcus

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b) Streptococcus c) Listeriad) Enterococcuse) Pseudomonas

Which of cephalosporin generation should be given for gram-negative bacterial meningitis? a) First-generation cephalosporinb) Second-generation cephalosporin c) Third-generation cephalosporin d) First-generation cephalosporin, just parenteral druge) Cephalosporin should not be given

Describes ceftazidime and cefepime:a) First-generation cephalosporinsb) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity d) Third-generation cephalosporinse) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity

Describes cefazolin and cephalexin:a) First-generation cephalosporins b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity d) Third-generation cephalosporinse) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity

Describes cefmetazole, cefotetan, and cefoxitin:a) First-generation cephalosporinsb) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity d) Third-generation cephalosporins e) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity Describes cefaclor and cefuroxime:a) First-generation cephalosporins b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity d) Third-generation cephalosporins e) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity

Describes cefoperazone and ceftriaxon:a) First-generation cephalosporins b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activityc) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity d) Third-generation cephalosporinse) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity

Which of the microorganisms would be treated with a first-generation cephalosporin? a) E. Coli b) Klebsiella c) Proteusd) Staphylococcus

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e) Enterobacter

A 2-mo-old male neonate presents with a thick eye discharge. The mother admits to having sexual partners and complains of a vaginal discharge. Exams of both eyes of infant reveals a thick purulent discharge and conjunctival congestion and edema. Corneal ulcerations was also noted. Conjunctival swabs on gram staining revealed presence of gram-negative diplococci and many polymorphonuclear cells. What organism, which can be treated with penicillin G or a third-generation cephalosporin, is the most likely cause? a) C. trachomatis b) T. pallidumc) N. gonorrhea d) H. ducreyi e) H. influenza

Macrolids are ____ ribosomal subunit inhibitors that are ____ at low concentrations and ____ at high concentrations: a) 30s; Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic b) 30s; Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal c) 50s; Bactericidal; Bacteriostaticd) 50s; Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal

Although erythromycin is not normally effective with gram-negative bacteria, cell wall deficient forms of E. coli and Proteus mirabilis (L-forms) are exceptions. These are seen in recurrent: a) Pneumonia b) Upper respiratory tract infections c) Urinary tract infectionsd) Gastroenteritis e) Endocarditis

Name bactericidal antibiotic - the drug of choice for pneumonia caused by H. influenzae? a) Erythromycinb) Clarithromycin c) Azithromycin d) Dirithromycin e) Telithromycin

A patient presents with mild symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and coughing. However, they show little sign of bacterial infection. Lab blood results show infection is present and the physician chooses to use a macrolide antibiotic. What agent was most likely the cause of the patient's symptoms? a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Streptococcus agalactiae c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae d) Listeria monocytogenes e) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Which of the organs is the main organ for biotransformation of macrolides such as erythromycin (90%) and clarithromycin? a) Spleen b) Kidneys

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c) Brain d) GI tracte) Liver

An 8-yr-old child presents with pharyngitis and fever of 3 days duration. Microbiology lab confirms translucent beta-hemolytic colonies. Past history includes a severe allergic reaction to amoxicillin when used for ear infection. Which one of the аntimicrobial agents as an oral drug is most likely appropriate in terms of both effectiveness and safety? a) Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)b) Cefaclor c) Doxycycline d) Vancomycin e) Azithromycin

Aminoglycosides are effective only against which of the microbs and are a good choice for septicemia (a serious toxicity)? a) Gram-positive aerobic bacteria b) Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria c) Gram-negative aerobic bacteria d) Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria e) Just Streptococcus pneumoniae

Aminoglycosides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis through binding to ____ bacterial ribosome subunits. They cause leakage of intracellular contents and thus are ____: a) 30s; Bactericidal b) 30s; Bacteriostatic c) 50s; Bactericidal d) 50s; Bacteriostatic

Describes the mechanism of aminoglycosides at low dosages: a) Partial inhibition of protein causing ribosome to translate incorrectly b) Amino acid deletions during protein synthesis leading to nonfunctional proteins c) Misreading of mRNA during elongation leading to synthesis of proteins containing incorrect amino acids.d) Nonsense insertion in mRNA during elongation leading to a stop codone) No effect on protein synthesis

Describes the mechanism of aminoglycosides at high dosages:a) Misreading of mRNA during elongation leading to synthesis of proteins containing incorrect amino acids. b) Nonsense insertion in mRNA during elongation leading to a stop codon c) Complete inhibition of protein causing ribosomes to become trapped at the AUG strand condons of mRNA d) Partial inhibition of protein causing ribosome to translate incorrectly e) Amino acid deletions during protein synthesis leading to nonfunctional proteins

Following administration of aminoglycosides, where would concentrations be the lowest? a) Prostate b) Brain c) Vitreous fluidd) CSF e) Intracellular

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Accumulation of aminoglycosides is most common in what location? a) Liver capsuleb) Renal medulla c) Nephrons d) Renal cortex e) Spleen

Which of the following drugs can be mixed with aminoglycosides, such as for use against Staphylococcus aureus? a) Diuretics b) NSAIDs c) Cisplatind) Amphotericin Be) Penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)

Which of the antimicrobial drugs is combined with isoniazid to treat tuberculosis? a) Neomycin b) Streptomycin c) Amikacin d) Kanamycine) Gentamicin

AE is a 75-yr-old man with sepsis resulting from a urinary tract infection. He has allergies to beta-lactam antibiotics and erythromycim. The result of blood cultures are positive for P. aeroginosa; the urine culture is positive for P. aeroginosa and E. coli. From aminoglycoside class, which one would you choose? a) Neomycin b) Streptomycin c) Netilmicin d) Kanamycin e) Gentamicin

The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is: a) Kanamycin b) Tobramycinc) Streptomycind) Amikacine) Neomycin

Cephalosporines are drugs of choice for treatment of: a) Gram-negative microorganism infections b) Gram-positive microorganism infections c) Gram-negative and gram-positive microorganism infections, if penicillins have no effect d) Only bacteroide infections e) Gram-negative and gram-positive microorganism infections, if vancomicin have no effect Carbapenems are effective against: a) Only Gram-positive microorganisms b) Only Gram-negative microorganismsc) Only bacteroide infections d) Broad-spectum

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e) Very Narrow spectrum

Benzylpenicillin acts on the level of:a) cytoplasmatic membraneb) Bacterial wallc) Cytoplasm of a bacterial celld) Proteine synthesise) Ribosome of a bacterial cel

Which of the antimicrobial drugs would be used to treat methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)? a) Nafcillinb) Vancomycin c) Gentamycin d) Erythromycine) Clindamycin

Penicillin is used in combination with what drug to enhance antibacterial action in the treatment of enterococcal endocarditis? a) Sulfonamides b) Cephalosporins c) Macrolides d) Aminoglycosides e) Fluoroquinolones

Prophylactic penicillin is indicated in patients with rheumatic carditis. If the patient is allergic to penicillin, which drug should be used? a) Sulfonamides b) Cephalosporins c) Macrolides d) Aminoglycosides e) Fluoroquinolones

At what level penicillin work?a) cytoplasmic membraneb) cellular wallc) cell bacterial ribosomed) bacterial cell nucleuse) bacterial cell cytoplasm

Specify the antibacterial mechanism of action of benzyl penicillin:a) disturbance of synthesis of the components of microbial wallsb) change of the permeability of cytoplasmatic membranes of microorganismsc) Competitive antagonism with folic acid in bacterial celld) inhibits coenzyme A activitye) membrane permeability distarbances

Specify the action spectrum for biosynthetic penicillins:a) Gram-positive and Gram-negative cocci, Corynebacterium diphtheria, spirokets, Clostridiumb) Corynebacterium diphtheria, mycobacteriac) Gram positive cocci, viruses

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d) gram-negative cocci, Rickettsia, fungale) mycobacteria, viruses, Corynebacterium diphtheria

Antibacterial mechanism of penicillin is:a) inhibiting the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls.b) inhibition of bacterial beta-lactamasesc) activation of endogenous protease that destroys the cell walld) phospholypase endogenous activation, with subsequent alteration of membrane permeabilitye) inhibition of nucleic acids

Cephalosporins are the first choice in treatment:a) Gram-positiveb) Gram-negativec) Gram-negative and gram-positive, if penicillins are not effectived) only infections with bacteroidese) only for infections caused by protozoa

Classified generally as a ˝third generation˝ cephalosporin:a) Cefazolinb) Cefachlorc) Cephalexind) Cefotaxime sodiume) Cefamandol

Available as tables for oral administration:a) thienamb) cephalexinc) benzatin-benzylpenicillind) procaine benzyl penicilline) cefazolin

Action spectrum for carbapenems is:a) just gram-positiveb) just gram-negativec) only infections with bacteroidesd) broad-spectrume) only for infections caused by mycobacteria.

Name aminoglycoside antibiotic:a) erythromycinb) gentamicinc) vancomycind) polymyxine) lincomycin

Drug from imipenems:a) methicillinb) isoniazidc) tazocined) atropinee) tienam

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Name side effect characteristic for aminoglycosides:a) hepatotoxicityb) SNC toxicityc) ototoxicityd) cardiotoxicitye) mielotoxicity

The main side efects of aminoglycosides are EXCEPT:a) Ototoxicityb) Nephrotoxicityc) Extrapyramidal disordersd) Neuromuscular blockadee) Nause and vomiting

Aminoglycosides have the following spectrum of action:a) gram positive microorganisms, anaerobic, spirocheteb) The broad spectrum, exception - Pseudomonas aeruginosa c) gram-negative microorganisms, anaerobicd) The broad spectrum, exception - anaerobes and viruses e) gram-negative cocci, Rickettsia, fungal

Which one of the following drugs is most likely to cause loss of equilibrium and ototoxicity?a) Canamycinb) Ethambutolc) Isoniazidd) Para-aminosalicylic acide) Rifabutin

Has the capacity to cause ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and neuromuscular blockade:a) vancomycineb) augmenthinec) cefachlor d) erythromycine) gentamicin

Named one of the major indications of aminoglycosides:a) typhusb) streptococcal anginac) meningitisd) typhoide) coli bacillary pyelonephritis

Name the adverse effects of aminoglycosides:a) pancytopeniab) hepatotoxicityc) ototoxicity, nephrotoxicityd) mucosal gastroinitestinale irritatione) agranulocytosis

Macrolides include of from the following drugs EXCEPT:a) clarithromycinb) olethetrin

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c) kanamycind) roxythromycine) oleandomycin

What are the characteristics for lincosamides?a) broad-spectrum; bactericidal effect.b) influence predominantly anaerobes, gram negative cocci.c) broad-spectru; bacteriostatic effectd) influence predominantly anaerobes, gram positive coccie) gram-negative cocci, gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli.

What is the adverse reaction for lincosamides?a) nephrotoxicityb) carcinogenic effectc) pseudomembranous colitisd) respiratory irritatione) ototoxicity and neurotoxicitae.

Chloramphenicol mechanism of action is: a) Changes the shape of 30 rRNA to cause mRNA to be read incorrectly b) Binds to 50s rRNA and inhibits formation of peptide bond c) Binds to 50s rRNA and prevents movement along mRNA d) Interferes with the tRNA anticodon reading of mRNA codone) Inhibits folic acid metabolism

Which antibiotic most easily penetrate into the CNS:a) benzylpenicillinb) streptomycinc) chloramphenicold) tetracyclinee) erythromycin

A bacteremic patient is being treated with an antibiotic. Following one week of therapy, this patients develops severe bone marrow depression resulting in pancytopenia. Which antibiotic is the most likely cause of this patient's toxic reaction? a) Doxycycline b) Chloramphenicol c) Azithromycin d) Gentamycin e) Ciprofloxacin

A one-yr-old baby who has been diagnosed with brain abscess is undergoing an antibiotic treatment. The baby develops abdominal distention, emesis, and irregular respiration. Name antibiotic that is the most likely cause of this baby's toxic reaction? a) Oxytetracycline b) Amikacin c) Clarithromycin d) Sparfloxacin e) Chloramphenicol

Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, are effective against rare infections. Which of the epidemic infections that can be treated with doxycycline is associated with voluminous

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rice-water diarrhea and may be seen as an epidemic in third world countries? a) Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi) b) Rabid fever (Francisella tularensis) c) Black plague (Yersinia pestis)d) Brucellosis (Brucella species) e) Cholera (Vibrio choler)

Among the side effects of tetracycline that may be seen in children taking the drug for long or short periods is:a) depression of bone growthb) ototoxicity c) nefrotoxicity d) gastrointestinal irritatione) allergy

Which drug from tetracyclines should be used for spirochetes Borellia burgdorferi.? a) Demeclocycline b) Doxycyclinec) Tetracycline d) Oxytetracycline e) Minocycline

What kind of side effect is more frequent in tetracycline administration?a) Agranulocytosesb) Anemiac) Renal disturbancesd) Allergic reactione) Bones destruction and teeth coloration

Which of the types of drugs binds to teeth and can cause discoloration? a) Tetracyclines b) Macrolidesc) Cephalosporins d) Penicillins e) Sulfonamides

What is the most common adverse reaction for tetracyclines? a) Prolonged bleeding b) Aplastic anemiac) Bloody diarrhea d) Seizures e) Tooth enamel dysplasia

Patients on tetracycline should due which of the following to prevent toxicity? a) Brush their teeth b) Exercise regularly c) Limit exposure to sunlightd) Rest at least six hours each night e) Eat a complete diet including meat and dairy

A patient presents with pain in their right side. After physical exam and testing, a fatty liver is found. History is negative for excessive alcohol use. Name classe of antibiotics that

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could have caused this:a) Tetracyclines b) Aminoglycosidesc) Cephalosporins d) Fluoroquinolonese) Sulfonamides

Name drug associated with gray baby syndrome? a) Demeclocycline b) Doxycycline c) Tetracyclined) Oxytetracycline e) Chloramphenicol

Which drug would be given to a patient with rickettsia who is allergic to doxycycline? a) Demeclocyclineb) Tetracycline c) Chloramphenicol d) Minocycline e) Oxytetracycline

What antibiotic has strong bactericidal effect?a) tetracyclineb) macrolidec) penicillinsd) chloramphenicole) aminoglycoside

What remedy is from macrolides group?a) neomycinb) doxycyclinec) erythromycind) cefotaximee) imipenem

What kind of side effect is more frequent in penicillin's administration?a) agranulocytosesb) anemiac) renal disturbancesd) allergic reactione) disbacteriosis

Erythromycin works by which of the mechanisms? a) Disruption of protein synthesis via ribosomes b) Inhibition of DNA gyrase c) Inhibition of reverse transcriptase d) Inhibition of fungal membrane e) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

What are the specific adverse effects of erythromycin:a) agranulocytosisb) acoustic-vestibular disorders

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c) nausea , vomiting and gastrointestinal irritation d) apnea with neuromusculare) polyneuritis

What remedy is from carbapenem group?a) aztreonamb) amoxicillinc) imipinemd) clarithromycine) doxycycline

What remedy-is from tetracycline group?a) doxycyclineb) streptomycinc) clarithromycind) amoxicilline) penicillin

Name antibiotic from lincosamides:a) gentamicinb) streptomycinc) clindamycind) neomycine) kanamycin

Name antibiotic that inhibits RNA synthesis: a) erythromycinb) rifampicinc) chloramphenicold) imipineme) azithromycin

Aminoglycosides are effective against: a) Gram positive microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms, spirochetes b) Broad-spectum, except Pseudomonas aeruginosa c) Gram negative microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms d) Broad-spectum, except anaerobic microorganisms and viruses e) Only anaerobic microorganisms Which of the antimicrobial drug would affect gram-negative aerobes (versus gram-positive cocci/bacilli)? a) Nafcillin b) Vancomycin c) Gentamycind) Erythromycin e) Clindamycin

Choose the characteristics of chloramphenicol: a) Broad-spectum. not active against chlamydia. b) Influences only the Gram-positive microorganisms. c) Influences only the Gram-negative microorganisms. d) Broad-spectum. Active also against chlamydia.

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e) Narrow-spectrum. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect. May be fatal to neonates owing to an inability to conjugate the drug with glucuronic acid:a) Chloramphenicolb) Polymyxin Bc) Erythromycind) Kanamycine) Neomycin

Which of the following antibiotics penetrate the easiest in cephalorachidian liquid?a) benzathine benzyl penicillinb) streptomycin c) chloramphenicold) tetracyclinee) erythromycin

The drug chloramphenicol is risky for which categories of patients? a) Neonatesb) Congestive heart failure patientsc) Obese patientsd) Adult males e) Geriatric patients

Name drug that can cause irreversible bone marrow depression, leading to aplastic anemia:a) Oxytetracyclinуb) Minocyclinec) Chloramphenicold) Tetracyclinee) Demeclocycline

Chloramphenicol has the following unwanted effects: a) Nephrotoxicity b) Pancytopenia c) Hepatotoxicity d) Ototoxicity e) Hypertension

Erythromycin may produce following side effects:a) Agranulocytosis b) Vestibular disordersc) Hepatoxic effectsd) Apnea caused by neuromuscular blockere) Polineuritis

Name following antibiotic, which is used for abdominal typhus treatment:a) benzathine benzylpenicillinb) benzylpenicillin potassiumc) tetracyclined) cloramphenicole) kanamycin

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Pick out substance that inhibits the human enzyme dehydropeptidase: a) Cilastatin b) Sulbactam c) Sultiamd) Aztreoname) Tazobactam

Cilastatin can therefore be combined intravenously with ______________ in order to protect it from renal dehydropeptidase:a) imipenem b) meropenem c) carbepenemd) aztreoname) Tazobactam

Choose the characteristics of lincozamides: a) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect. b) Influence mainly the anaerobic organisms, Gram negative cocci.c) Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bacteristatic effect.d) Influence mainly the anaerobic organisms, Gram positive coccie) Influence mainly the aerobic organisms, Gram positive cocci

What kind of remedy will color tears in red-orange color?a) cloramphenicolb) rifampicinec) metronidazold) carbenicillinee) neomycine

Lincozamides have the following unwanted effect:a) Nephrotoxicity b) Cancerogenity c) Pseudomembranous collitis d) Irritation of respiratory organs e) Nonspecific ulcerative colitis

Which of the following drugs is used for systemic and deep mycotic infections treatment: a) Co-trimoxazol b) Griseofulvin c) Amphotericin B d) Nitrofungin e) Vancomicin

Mechanism of Amphotericin B action is: a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis b) Inhibition of fungal protein synthesisc) Inhibition of DNA synthesis d) Alteration of cell membrane permeability e) Inhibition of RNA synthesis

Witch drug is from quinolones?a) nitroxoline

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b) nalidixic acidc) furazolidond) co-trimoxazolee) furasolidone

Mechanism of sulfonamides' antibacterial effect is: a) Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase b) Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthasec) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase d) Activation of DNA gyrase e) Inhibition of dihydropteroate oxydase

Mechanism of action of sulphonamides is:a) To inhibit alaninaminotransferase.b) To inhibit dihydropteroatsynthetasec) To inhibit H K ATPased) To inhibit the enzyme transpeptidasee) To inhibit monoaminoxidase

Name sulfonamides, which act only in the intestinal area:a) Sulfocarbamides b) Ftalilsulfatiazol c) Sulfacetamided) Sulfa Ethiodole) Sulfadimidine

Sulphonamides with gastrointestinal action:a) streptocide, sulphacarbamide, sulphadimidineb) lidaprim, sulphaton, co-trimoxazolec) sulphacethamide, sulphadiazined) sulphaguanide, sulphasalazine, salazodine.

What kind of side effects may Sulfonamides produce?a) Colestasis b) Chrystalluria c) Pseudomembranous Colitis d) Neuromuscular Block e) Balance Disturbances

Sulfonamides and nalidixic acid can cause hemolysis in patients that are deficient in what enzyme? a) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase b) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase c) Glucose 6-phosphate d) Glucokinase e) Fructokinase

The enzyme that sulfonamides inhibit (para-aminobenzoic acid, PABis needed for bacterial production of which of the substrat which is required for synthesis of DNA, RNA, and protein? a) Murein b) Niacin

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c) Folic acid d) Arachidonic acide) Phosphodiesterase

Bactrim is an effective and cheap medication containing a sulphonamide and trimethoprim. Which enzyme is targeted by trimethoprim? a) Monohydropteroate synthase b) Monohydrofolate reductase c) Dihydropteroate synthase d) Dihydrofolate reductasee) Phosphodiesterase

Combination of sulfonamides with trimethoprim: a) Decreases the unwanted effects of sulfonamides b) Increases the antimicrobial activity c) Decreases the antimicrobial activity d) Increases the elimination ofsulfonamides e) Decreases the elimination ofsulfonamides

Name sulphonamide drug:a) streptomycinb) penicillinc) co-trimoxazoled) chloramphenicole) clarithromycineMechanism of action of sulfonamides? a) Changes the shape of 30 rRNA to cause mRNA to be read incorrectly b) Binds to 50s rRNA and inhibits formation of peptide bond c) Binds to 50s rRNA and prevents movement along mRNAd) Interferes with the tRNA anticodon reading of mRNA codon e) Inhibits folic acid metabolism

Show mechanism of action of sulphonamides:a) Inhibition of RNA-polymeraseb) Have the competitive antagonism with paraaminobenzoic acidc) Inhibition of acetylcholinesterased) Activation of dihydropholatreductasee) Inhibition of cell wall

Sulfonamides have been considered the agents of choice in the treatment of :a) pneumoniab) allergyc) cellulitesd) inflammatione) acute pain

Which enzyme is targeted by sulfonamide? a) Monohydropteroate synthase b) Monohydrofolate reductasec) Dihydropteroate synthased) Dihydrofolate reductase

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e) Tetrahydrofolate reductase

Name sulfonamide would be used to treat ulcerative colitis? a) Sulfacetamideb) Trimethoprimc) Co-trimazole d) Sulfamethoxazole e) Sulfasalazine

Co-trimazole is used in patient who develop P. carinii pneumonia. This type of pneumonia is seen in what type of patient? a) Neonatesb) Elderly c) Immune compromised d) Patients taking warfarine) Patients with glucose-6-phosphate deficiency

Name sulfonamide used topically for ocular infections? a) Sulfacetamide b) Trimethoprim c) Co-trimazole d) Sulfamethoxazole e) Sulfasalazine

Which drug is used in bacterial infections of the eyes?a) sulphaguanideb) sulphadimethoxinec) sulfacetamided) sulphadiazinee) sulphaton

Mechanism of Trimethoprim' action is: a) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase b) Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase c) Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase d) Inhibition of DNA gyrase e) Inhibition of aldoreductase

Which of the effetcs was accomplished with second-generation fluoroquinolones? a) Decreased potency (toxicity) b) Increased potency (effectiveness) c) Decreased protein binding (less drug-drug interaction) d) Added activity against anaerobese) Improved gram-positive antibiotic activity

Fluoroquinolones inhibit which topoisomerase in gram-positive bacteria? a) I b) IIc) III d) IV e) non of the above

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Which group of drugs can cause CNS symptoms and have a tendancy to damage cartiledge, thus should never be given to children under the age of 18? a) Penicillins b) Cephalosporins c) Macrolides d) Aminoglycosidese) Fluoroquinolones

Name the antibacterial drug - a nitrofurane derivative: a) Nitrofurantoinb) Trimethoprim c) Ciprofloxacin d) Nystatin e) Metronidazole

Name the antibacterial drug - a nitroimidazole derivative: a) Clavulanic acid b) Metronidazole c) Nitrofurantoin d) Doxycycline e) Nystatin

Witch drug is from 8-oxyquinolinics?a) nitroxolineb) nalidixic acidc) furazolidond) co-trimoxazolee) tetracycline

Name the antibacterial drug - a quinolone derivative: a) Nitrofurantoin b) Nalidixic acid c) Streptomycin d) Metronidazolee) Nystatin

Name the antibacterial drug - a fluoroquinolone derivative: a) Chloramphenicolb) Nitrofurantoinc) Nalidixic acid d) Ciprofloxacin e) Metronidazole

Name the main indications for nitrofuranes: a) Infections of respiratory tract b) Infections of urinary and gastro-intestinal tractsc) Syphilis d) Tuberculosis e) As a disinfectant

Name the indications for metronidazole: a) Intra-abdominal infections, vaginitis, enterocolitis

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b) Pneumonia c) As a disinfectant d) Influenzae) Tuberculosis

Mechanism of action of metronidazol:a) Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking ribosomal movement along messenger RNAb) The drug undergoes a reductive bioactivation of its nitro group by ferredoxin (prezent in anacrobie parasites) to form reactive cytotoxic productsc) The drug blocks glucose uptakc, which leads to decreased formation of ATPd) It may act by uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation or by activating ATP-asese) Inhibits synthesis of cell wall of microbes

The mechanism of fluoroquinolones' action is: a) Inhibition of phospholipase C b) Inhibition of DNA gyrasec) Inhibition of bacterial cell synthesisd) Alteration of cell membrane permeability e) Inhibition of pyridoxalphosphate synthesis

Fluoroquinolones are active against: a) Gram negative microorganisms only b) Mycoplasmas and Chlamidiae only c) Gram positive microorganisms only d) Variety of Gram-negative and positive microorganisms, including Mycoplasma and Chlamidiaee) Only protozoa and anaerobes

Fluoroquinolones works by which mechanisms? a) Disruption of protein synthesis via ribosomes b) Inhibition of DNA gyrasec) Inhibition of reverse transcriptase d) Inhibition of fungal membranee) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

The drug of choice for syphilis treatment is: a) Gentamycin b) Penicillinc) Chloramphenicol d) Doxycyclinee) Tetracycline

The main drugs used in lues?a) tetracyclineb) benzylpenicillinsc) erythromycind) co-trimoxazolee) Chloramphenicol

Mechanism of Cycloserine's action is: a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis b) Inhibition of RNA synthesis

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c) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis d) Inhibition of pyridoxalphosphate synthesis e) Inhibition of DNA synthesis

Mechanism of Streptomycin action is: a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesisb) Inhibition of protein synthesis c) Inhibition of DNA synthesisd) Inhibition of cell membranes permeability e) Inhibition of RNA synthesis

Which chemotherapies may produce reactions from the disulfiram type?a) cloramfenicolb) gentamicinc) metronidazold) clotrimazole) ofloxacin

Antifungal polyene macrolide that preferentially binds to fungal ergosterol which alters cellular permeability:a) ketoconazole b) amphotericin B c) flucytosine d) grisefulvin e) clotrimazole

Amphotericin and nystatin are what type of antifungal drugs? a) Polyenes b) Azoles c) Pyrimidines d) Imidasole’se) Bis- quaternary ammoniac salts

An azole most commonly used for topical treatment of candidiasis:a) amphotericin B b) clotrimazolec) griseofulvin d) flucytosine e) none of the answers

Antifungal agent useful in treatment of candidiasis:a) Amphotericin Bb) Nystatinc) Bothd) Neither

Polyene used topically; active against most Candida species--most commonly used for suppression of local candidal infection:a) miconazole b) terbinafine c) nystatin

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d) fluconazole e) flucytosine

Inhibition of fungal squalene epoxidase is this antifungal drug's mechanism of action:a) ketoconazole b) fluconazole c) terbinafine d) nystatin e) flucytosine

Given by i.v. administration, the drug of choice for nearly all life-threatening mycotic infections--usually used as the initial induction regiment:a) ketoconazole b) itraconazole c) flucytosine d) amphotericin B e) nystatin First available reverse transcriptase drug for treatment of HIV-1; a deoxythymidine analogue:a) foscarnet b) zidovudine c) amantidine d) indinavir e) remantadineSaquinavir and ritonavir are what type of drugs? a) Fusion inhibitors b) Ion channel blockers c) Polymerase inhibitors d) Protease inhibitorse) Neuraminidase inhibitors

Amantadine and rimantadine are what type of drugs? a) Fusion inhibitors b) Ion channel blockers c) Polymerase inhibitors d) Protease inhibitors e) Neuraminidase inhibitors

Zanamivir and oseltamivir are what type of drugs? a) Fusion inhibitors b) Ion channel blockers c) Polymerase inhibitors d) Protease inhibitors e) Neuraminidase inhibitors

HIV protease inhibitor:a) rimantadine b) ribavirinc) saquinavir d) stavudine e) remantadine

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These drug is prophylactic against influenza A virus infection with 80% efficacy:a) zidovudineb) saquinavirc) ribavarined) acyclovire) amantadine

Effective antiviral agent, which is also approved for use in the treatment of Parkinson disease:a) Idoxuridineb) Amantadinec) Vidarabined) Cytarabinee) Trifluridine

Name standard therapy for CMV infections? a) Idoxuridine b) Cytarabine c) Ganciclovir d) Vidarabinee) Zidovudine

Therapy for viral infections is aimed at which of the following? a) Enhancing CD4 counts b) Enveloping viral infected cells c) Lysing viral infected cellsd) Destroying viruses directly e) Preventing or delaying viral replication

Protease inhibitors (PIs) block which of the following steps in the viral life cycle? a) Binding b) Reverse transcription c) Integration d) Transcription e) Assembly

AZT (Retrovir), also called zidovudine, is used in the treatment of HIV by inhibiting which step in the viral life cycle? a) Binding b) Reverse transcriptionc) Integrationd) Transcription e) Translation

Acyclovir is phosphorylated by viral kinsases at which step? a) First (mono-phosphate)b) Second (di-phosphate)c) Third (tri-phosphate) d) Transcription e) Translation

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AZT (Zidovudinhas) what mechanism of action? a) Blocks viral absorption b) Blocks uncoating stage c) Blocks early protein synthesisd) Blocks reverse transcriptasee) Blocks packaging and assembly

Mechanism of action of zidovudine:a) It induce the formation of enzymes, that phosphorylates a factor witch blocks peptide chain initiation, a phosphodiesterase that degrades terminal nucleotides of t RNA and enzymes that activate kinaseb) They inhibit the first steps in replication of the influenza A and rubella virusesc) inhibits reverse transcriptase of HIV-1 and HIV-2 and causes chain termination in viral DNAd) it is active against herpes simplex virus and varicella- zoster virus, by inhibition of DNA- polymerase e) inhibit protein formation in viruses

Name the drug used for HIV infection treatment, a derivative of nucleosides:a) Acyclovirb) Zidovudinec) Gancyclovird) Trifluridinee) Amantadine

Name the drug from antivirale group with wide spectrum of action:a) Saquinavirb) Interferon alfac) Didanozined) Acyclovire) 3 Zidovudine

Most likely to cause additive myelosuppresion in an HIV patient also receiving ganciclovir for CMV retinitis:a) didanosine b) zidovudine c) zalcitabine d) saquinavir e) amantadine

Used to treat HSV (herpes):a) zidovudine b) acyclovir c) interferon d) ribavirin e) amantadine

Monophosphorylation of this antiviral drug is catalyzed by virus-specified protein kinase phosphotransferase in CMV-infected cells and by viral thymidine kinase in HSV-infected (herpes) cells:

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a) ganciclovir b) foscarnet c) cidofovir d) valacyclovir e) amantadine

Mechanism of paraaminosalicylic acid action is: a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis b) Inhibition of folate synthesis c) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase d) Inhibition of DNA gyrase e) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis Indication for isoniazid:a) Meningococcal meningitis b) Typhoid feverc) Subacute endocarditisd) Luese) Tuberculosis

Which of the following pairs of substances is matched?a) Ceruloplasmin - copperb) Deferoxamine - ironc) Isoniazid - pyridoxined) Vitamin B12 - zinc.

The most important drug for treatment of all types of tuberculosis is:a) Augmentineb) Isoniazidc) Aminosalicylic acidd) Ampicylline e) Clarithromycin

Which one of the following side effects is more characteristic for ethambutol:a) proteinuriab) decreased visual acuityc) nongouty polyarthralgiad) hemolysise) methemoglobinemia

The important drugs for treatment of tuberculosis are:a) penicillin, cloramphenicol, gentamicinb) isoniazid, riphampicin, ethambutolc) aminosalicylic acid, nitroxoline, furazidined) norepinephrine, ephedrine, epineprinee) atropine, neostigmine, aceclidine

The most common reaction to isoniazid therapy, if pyridoxine is not given concurrently, is:a) peripheral neuritisb) hypersensitivity

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c) optic neuritisd) dryness of mouthe) convulsions

Name drug used specifically only in M. leprae:a) Dapsone b) Isoniazid c) Rifampin d) Pyrazinamide e) Streptomycin

Name drug that can cause reversible optic neuritis:a) Ethambutol b) Isoniazidc) Rifampind) Pyrazinamidee) Streptomycin

A 34-year-old man under treatment for pulmonary TB has acute-onset right big toe pains, swelling, and low-grade fever. His physical exam is consistent with gouty arthritis, and he is found to have high serum uric acid levels. Name anti-TB drug that is the most likely cause of this patient's UA levels? a) Isoniazid b) Pyrazinamidec) Cycloserined) Rifampin e) Ethionamide

Isoniazid inhibits mycolid acid synthesis, disrupting bacterial walls and is associated with hepatotoxicity, peripheral and central neuropathy, and optic neuritis. What vitamin should be given as a supplement with isoniazid to help prevents these effects? a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin B6 d) Vitamin B12 e) Vitamin E

Name aminoglycoside only used for tuberculosis:a) Ethambutol b) Isoniazid c) Rifampind) Pyrazinamidee) Streptomycin

A patient returns complaining of a reddish-orange color in their urine, saliva, sweat, and tears. Which drug from anti TBC drugs was the patient likely taking? a) Dapsone b) Isoniazid c) Rifampicind) Pyrazinamide e) Streptomycin

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Name a pro-drug that is activated by tuberculosis and can cause hyperuricemia? a) Ethambutolb) Isoniazid c) Rifampin d) Pyrazinamide e) Streptomycin

Which of the following is considered a second-line antitubercular agent? a) Para-aminosalicyclic acid b) Isoniazidc) Rifampin d) Pyrazinamide e) Streptomycin

Name the antimycobacterial drug belonging to first-line (I group) agents: a) para-aminosalicylic acidb) Isoniazid c) Kanamycin d) Pyrazinamidee) Prothyonamide

Name the antimycobacterial drug, belonging to antibiotics: a) Isoniazid b) PAS c) Ethambutol d) Rifampin e) Pyrazinamide

Mechanism of Izoniazid action is: a) Inhibition of protein synthesis b) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis c) Inhibition of RNA synthesis d) Inhibition of ADP synthesis e) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Mechanism of Rifampin action is: a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis b) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerasec) Inhibition of topoisomerase II d) Inhibition of cAMP synthesis e) Inhibition of protein synthesis

Mechanism of Streptomycin action is: a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis b) Inhibition of protein synthesisc) Inhibition of RNA and DNA synthesis d) Inhibition of cell membranes permeability e) Inhibition of pyridoxalphosphate synthesis

Name unwanted effect of ethambutol: a) Cardiotoxicity b) Immunotoxicity

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c) Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness d) Hepatotoxicitye) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity

Name unwanted effect of streptomycin: a) Cardiotoxicity b) Hepatotoxicity c) Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness d) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, neuromuscular blockagee) Immunotoxicity

Name the antimalarial drug having a gametocidal effect:a) Mefloquineb) Primaquinec) Doxycyclined) Sulfonamidese) Quinidine

Name the drug used for malaria chemoprophylaxis and treatment:a) Chloroquineb) Quinidinec) Quinined) Sulfonamidese) Metronidazole

Name the group of antibiotics having an antimalarial effect:a) Aminoglycosidesb) Tetracyclinsc) Sulfonamidesd) Penicillinse) Carbapenems

What antimalarial preparation has an anti inflammmatory action?a) Chloroquine b) Quinine c) Primetamind) Primaquinee) Emetine

Name the drug used for trichomoniasis treatment:a) Metronidazoleb) Suraminc) Pyrimethamined) Tetracyclinee) Quinidine

Name the drug used for balantidiasis treatment:a) Azitromycinb) Tetracyclinec) Quinined) Trimethoprime) Quinidine

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Name the drug, blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction of helminthes:a) Levamisoleb) Mebendazolec) Piperazined) Niclosamidee) Suramin

Describe niclosamide mechanism of action:a) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, and death of helminthesb) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthesc) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptaked) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthese) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes

Describe praziquantel mechanism of action:a) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthesb) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptakec) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthesd) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthese) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium

Describe piperazine mechanism of action:a) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptakeb) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthesc) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthesd) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthese) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes

Describe mebendazole mechanism of action:a) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthesb) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthesc) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptaked) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthese) Increasing cell membrane permeability for sodium

Name the drug, inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes:a) Niclosamideb) Piperazinec) Praziquanteld) Metronidazolee) Mebendazole

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Name the drug for nematodosis (roundworm invasion) treatment:a) Niclosamideb) Praziquantelc) Pyranteld) Metronidazolee) Bithionol

Name the drug for cestodosis (tapeworm invasion) treatment:a) Piperazineb) Praziquantelc) Pyranteld) Ivermectine) Metronidazole

Name the drug for echinococcosis treatment:a) Suraminb) Mebendazole or Albendazolec) Piperazined) Iodoquinole) Metronidazole

Adverse drug interactions may occur due to alteration of:a) pharmacodynamicsb) distributionc) excretiond) absorptione) all of them

Universal antagonist is:a) unitiolb) protamine sulfatec) naloxoned) atropinee) flumazenil

Antagonist of heparin:a) unitiolb) protamine sulfatec) naloxoned) atropinee) flumazenil

Antagonis of pilocarpine:a) unitiolb) protamine sulfatec) naloxoned) atropinee) flumazenil

Antagonis of diazepam:a) unitiolb) protamine sulfate

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c) naloxoned) atropinee) flumazenil

Antagonis of opioids:a) unitiolb) protamine sulfatec) naloxoned) atropinee) flumazenil

MUTLIPLE CHOICE Specify the areas of study of pharmacokinetics?a) absorption of medicinal substancesb) types of action of drugsc) distribution of drug substances in the bodyd) drug biotransformatione) pharmacological effects of drug substances

What is an action of the body on a drug? a) Absorption b) Distribution c) Mechanism of action d) Excretion e) Side effects

Specify the correct statements about the definition of pharmacology:a) studying methods of preparing, standardization and quality assessment of medicinesb) studying methods of storage and distribution of drugs in the pharmaceutical marketc) study drug substances interaction with cells of living organismsd) study the effectiveness and safety aspects of drug substancese) studying methods of medical treatment of pathologies of living organisms

Specify the correct statements about the definition of the drugs:a) any substance or mixture of substances used for prophylaxisb) any substance or mixture of substances intended for diagnosisc) any substance or mixture of substances used with curative purpose d) any substance or mixture of substances intended for deratizatione) any substance or mixture of substances intended for use as an insecticide

Describe etymology of the word pharmacology? a) tissueb) drug c) herb d) poison e) science

List solid drugs pharmaceutical formulation:a) dragéesb) pomadec) plasterd) species

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e) film

List semisolid (soft) pharmaceutical formulation:a) suppositoriesb) pomadec) plasterd) speciese) film

List the liquid pharmaceutical formulation:a) decoctionb) pomadec) balsamd) speciese) emulsionWhat kinds of reactions occurring in stage II of drugs biotransformation:a) hydrolysisb) sulfo conjugationc) oxidationd) glucuroconjugatione) acetylation

What kinds of reactions occurring in stage I of drugs biotransformation:a) oxidationb) glucuroconjugationc) reductiond) hydrolysise) sulfation

Name parts of a phase II substrate? a) Glucuronic acid b) Sulfuric acid c) Acetic acid d) Amino acids e) Cytochrome P450

Name parts of a phase I: a) Oxidations b) Reductions c) Conjugations d) Excretione) Hydrolyses

Drug biotransformation:a) biotransformation products can be toxicb) takes place just for orally administered drugsc) mainly, but not exclusively in the liverd) biotransformation is not influenced by the drugs e) biotransformation products are never toxic

Major receptor role(s):a) mediates agonist effects of drugs

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b) mediates antagonist effects of drugsc) mediates volume of distributiond) mediates clearancee) important for drug action selectivity

List properties that can favor absorption by passive diffusion:a) the macromolecular structureb) high proportion of unionized form in case of electrolytes c) peptidic structure in oral administrationd) high lipophilicitye) low lipophilicityWhich statements are correct for the filtration as one of the ways of penetration of membranes?a) occurs only for small water-soluble moleculesb) energy needsc) requires the presence of specialized carrier systemd) occurs only for electrolytese) involves a flow of water

Passive diffusion is dependent on:a) small degree of ionizationb) pKa of the substancec) pH of the mediumd) the presence of a specialized carrier systeme) the use of energy

Specialized transport systems: a) passive diffusionb) filtrationc) pinocytosisd) active transport e) facilitated diffusion

Choose right statements for active transport as one of the ways of penetration of membranes:a) energy needsb) is done against the concentration gradient c) requires a specialized carrier systemd) occurs only for small molecules and water solublee) occurs only soluble molecules

List routes of administration avoiding the liver:a) peroralb) duodenalc) sublinguald) rectale) by intragastric sonde

Concerning oral administration -- disadvantages:a) least economicalb) drug taken orally may cause emesisc) drug taken orally may be destroyed by gastric acidity

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d) drug taken orally may be metabolized by gastrointestinal florae) drug taken orally may be in consistently absorbed due to the presence of food

What drugs can cause rebound phenomenon at the suddenly stopping of a long treatment?a) clonidineb) captoprilc) furosemided) prazosine) xpropranolol

Characteristic of Cytochrome P450:a) is found in the endoplasmic reticulum of hepatocytesb) is involved in phase II metabolism c) is induced by phenytoin d) is inhibited by cimetidinee) induction of P450 reduces the effect of warfarin

Name parameters of pharmacokinetics:a) bioavailabilityb) half lifec) volume of distributiond) the therapeutic windowe) clearance

Concerning oral administration advantages:a) convenient - portable, no pain, easy to take.b) drug taken orally may cause emesisc) drug taken orally may be destroyed by gastric acidityd) no need to sterilize druge) drug taken orally may be inconsistently absorbed due to the presence of food

Roots of administration that avoid "first-pass" hepatic effects: a) sublingualb) oralc) transdermald) lower rectal suppositoriese) inhalation

Concerning renal drug excretion: a) almost all drugs are filtered by the glomerulusb) a lipid-soluble, filtered drug will likely be reabsorbed by passive diffusionc) water soluble drugs are less excreted than lipid soluble drugs d) weak acids are excreted faster in alkaline urinary pHe) weak acids are excreted slowly in alkaline urinary pH

What is required for drug bioequivalence? a) Same active ingredients b) Same strength or concentration c) Same dosage form

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d) Same route of administration e) Same side effects

Which is an advantage of prolonged release medications? a) Less frequent administration b) Therapeutic effect overnight c) Sustained blood levelsd) Patient compliance e) More fluctuation in plasma concentration

Concerning influence of age on drug responses: variation in response usually due to: a) reduced cardiac outputb) reduced hepatic perfusionc) decreased body fatd) increased protein bindinge) decreased renal function

These agents must be given parenterally because they are not absorbed when given orally:a) Osmotic diureticsb) Loop diureticsc) Penicillinsd) Macrolidese) Aminoglycosydes antibiotics

Name contraindications to morphine:a) bronchial asthmab) acute abdomenc) intense postoperative pain d) respiratory depressione) children under 2 years

Specify the adverse effects of metamizol:a) leukopenia and agranulocytosisb) gastric cancerc) allergic reactionsd) methemoglobinemiae) cardiotoxicity

Indicate how morphine affects the CNS:a) inhibits the cough centerb) excites the vagus nerve centerc) stimulating the respiratory centerd) stimulates the thermoregulatory centere) causes light sleep

What is the mechanism of constipation caused by morphine?a) excitation of opioid receptors in the gutb) direct excitation of neurons from vomiting centerc) chemoreceptors excitement of the "trigger zone" of vomiting centerd) increase sphincter tonee) increasing the secretion

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What is the mechanism of action of morphine:a) opioid receptor blockadeb) inhibits nociceptorsc) stimulate opioid receptorsd) stimulates the release of mediatorse) blocking the release of mediators

Effects of morphine on the digestive system:a) increasing of the bile eliminationb) diarrhea c) intestine segmentation d) relaxation of the sphincterse) contraction of the sphincters

The blood brain barrier is highly permeable to:a) diclofenacb) paracetamolc) indometacined) morphine e) acetylsalicylic acid

List CNS centers that are stimulated by morphine:a) coughb) respiratoryc) vagus nerved) thermoregulatione) optic nerve

Choose neuroendocrine effects of morphine:a) increase in cortisol levelsb) decrease in cortisol levelsc) decrease in gonadotropin-releasing factord) decrease in corticotropin releasing factore) increase in gonadotropin-releasing factor

Name characteristics of the opioid analgesics:a) depression of the respiratory centerb) adequate absorption when given orallyc) miosisd) depression of the cough centere) bronchospasm

Choose physiological effects of morphine:a) constipationb) miosisc) respiratory depressiond) mydriasise) chronic diahrrea

Choose physiological effect typically associated with opioids: 137

a) mydriasisb) miosisc) bradycardia d) tachycardia e) constipation

Name mechanism of action of opioid analgesics: a) Bind to opioid receptors on inhibitory fibers, stimulating themb) Inhibit neurotransmitter release c) Inhibit opioid receptorsd) Prevent pain impulse transmission to the braine) Do not work centrally

Contraindications/caution for opioid use are:a) patients with lungs oedemab) patients with bones fracturesc) patients with cerebral edema d) abdominally unclear paine) children under 3 years

Name effects of morphine:a) myosisb) constipationc) bradycardiad) hypothermiae) hyperthermia

Name antagonist of opioids?a) naltrexoneb) naloxonec) flumazenil d) pentazocinee) tramadol

Name mechanism concerning the nausea resulting from morphine administration:a) results from stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone for emesisb) results from stimulation of H1 histaminoreceptors from vestibular apparatusc) is overcome by morphine antagonistd) is due because of tachycardia and hypertentione) results from stimulation of cough center

Name characteristic of opioid poisoning:a) Comab) Myosisc) Depressed respirationd) Mydriasese) Elevated body temperature

Name the main effects of non-opioid analgesics:a) antimicrobialb) antiagregantc) antipyretic

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d) somnolencee) analgesic

Choose the effects of paracetamol:a) Anti-diureticb) Analgesic c) Antipyreticd) Antiaggregant e) Anticoagulant

With regard to salicylate:a) it is rapidly exreted by the kidney if the urine is rendered acidic b) the same group as aspirinc) it causes hypeglycemia d) it potentiates the activity of warfarin e) it has powerful antipyretic properties

Choose correct affirmations concerning antiaggregant effect of acetylsalicylic acid:a) Low doses (81-325 mg/day) are sufficient for antiagregant effectb) Acetylsalicylic acid inhibits platelet cyclooxygenasec) Acetylsalicylic acid inhibits Phospholipase A2d) Acetylsalicylic acid has also analgesic, and anti-inflammatory effectse) Acetylsalicylic acid stimulates lipocortin 1

Specify the correct pharmacological characteristics on phenobarbital:a) cause somnolence upon awakening and marked residual sedationb) cause seizures at higher dosesc) does not generate interactions with other drugsd) is indicated in epilepsye) powerful enzyme inducer

Anticonvulsant drugs are:a) selegilineb) pimozidec) carbamazepined) valproic acide) phenytoin

What drugs are anticholinergic antiparkinsonian drugs:a) trihexyphenidylb) amantadinec) levodopad) selegilinee) benactyzine

Benzodiazepines indications:a) epilepsyb) parkinsonismc) neurosisd) depressione) seizure by unknown genesis

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What is characteristic of zolpidem?a) It is a benzodiazepine derivative.b) Stimulates benzodiazepine receptors.c) Enhances GABAergic processes in the CNS.d) Less influence on sleep structure compared to barbiturates.e) Much less addictive than benzodiazepines and barbiturates

Choose drugs with anxiolytic effects:a) flumazenilb) propranolol c) amphepramon d) alprazolam e) diazepam

Choose zolpidem characteristics:a) short duration of actionb) long duration of actionc) from barbiturates group d) used for the treatment of obesity e) used for the treatment of insomnia

Side effects of benzodiazepines are:a) reducing symptoms of anxietyb) psychologic dependenciesc) insomnia d) Rebound effect e) decrease mental concentration

What substances belonging to the group of benzodiazepines?a) nitrazepamb) barbitalc) diazepamd) chlorpromazinee) meprobamate

Name sedative preparations:a) natrium bromide b) valerian drugsc) amphetamined) caffeinee) barbital

What effects are caused by phenytoin?a) antianginalb) antihypertensivec) antiarrhythmicd) antiepileptice) antipsychotic

Which drugs can be used as antiepileptic?a) paracetamol

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b) chlorpromazinec) morphined) carbamazepinee) phenytoin

Name the possible side effects in therapy with tranquilizers:a) increased skeletal muscle toneb) disturbance of coordination of movementsc) somnolenced) drug addictione) extrapyramidal disorders

Tranquilizers indications:a) psychotic disorders accompanied by hallucinationsb) neurotic statesc) psychotic disorders accompanied by deliriumd) insomniae) depression, somnolence

Mention effects characteristic for benzodiazepines tranquilizers group:a) anxiolyticb) hypnoticc) anticonvulsantd) antipsychotice) antagonizes the action of anesthetics, hypnotics and narcotic analgesics

Name benzodiazepines:a) fenazepamb) haloperidolc) diazepamd) chlorpromazinee) droperidol

Name drugs without major influence on paradoxical sleep:a) Zolpidemb) Pentobarbitalc) Barbitald) Pentobarbital e) Zopiclon

Name the pharmacological properties of nitrazepam?a) Inhibits GABA ergic processes in the CNSb) Enhances GABA ergic processes in the CNS.c) It possesses anxiolytic properties.d) Causes sedative effect.e) Enhances the central effects of alcohol.

Mechanism of action for benzodiazepines:a) benzodiazepines interact with benzodiazepinic receptors on the GABA receptorb) block sodium channels in neuronal membranesc) the frequency of chloride ion channel opening is increasedd) inhibits Ca 2+ currents, especially in thalamic neurons

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e) enhancing K+ channel permeability

Choose correct statement about buspirone:a) causes sedative effectb) causes strong excitement effectc) causes muscle-relaxing actiond) causes muscle contracted action e) has a low tendency to induce drug dependence

Anxiolytics are mainly used in the treatment of:a) Neurosesb) Psychosisc) Insomniad) Status epilepticuse) Acute hypotension

Bromism is manifested by:a) Apathyb) Memory disorderc) Acne bromicad) Rhinitise) Extrapyramidal disorders

What are the advantages of benzodiazepine hypnotics compared with barbiturates?a) Possesse greater therapeutic range.b) Don’t cause tolerance and Rebound c) Less influence on sleep structure.d) Don’t have essential influence on hepatic microsomal enzymese) Don’’t potentiate other substances influencing the CNS.

Flumazenil is used as an antidote in:a) Zopiclone overdoseb) Zolpidem overdosec) Pentobarbital overdosed) Chloral hydrate overdosee) Nitrazepam overdose

Name the pharmacological properties of flumazenil:a) Benzodiazepine receptor agonist.b) Benzodiazepine receptor antagonist.c) Used as an antagonist of benzodiazepine receptor stimulated by hypnotics.d) Opioid receptor agonist.e) Antagonist of the opioid receptor.

List symptoms of barbiturates poisoning:a) Inhibition of the CNSb) Inhibition of reflex activityc) Hypertensive crisis d) Tahypnoee) Extreme sleepiness or even coma

Determine the main signs of acute intoxication with barbiturates:142

a) excitation.b) comatose state.c) inhibition of respiration.d) decrease of reflex excitability.e) decrease in blood pressure.

Name the phenomena that may occur in prolonged use of barbiturates:a) Toleranceb) Dependence c) Extrapyramidal disordersd) The induction of liver enzymese) Inhibition of hepatic enzymes

The main task of the treatment of acute barbiturate poisoning:a) To establish adequate breathingb) Analeptics in mild forms of poisoningc) Benzodiazepins as antagonistd) Flumazenil injectione) Hemodialysis in renal failure

Name psychostimulants:a) Phenylethylamine b) Paraaminophenol's derivatesc) Piperidinesd) Sydnoniminese) Methylxanthines

Neuroleptics indications:a) psychosisb) parkinsonismc) neuroleptanalgesiad) central origin vomitinge) epilepsy

Name characteristic effects of antipsychotics:a) antipsychoticb) xanti-vomitingc) sedatived) motor hyperactivitye) antagonizes the action of anesthetics, hypnotics and narcotic analgesics

Indicate the adverse effects of neuroleptics:a) extrapyramidal disorderb) euphoriac) potentiating the action of alcoholic drinksd) sexual disorderse) dependence

Name neuroleptic preparations:a) chlorpromazineb) phenelzinec) haloperidol

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d) trifluoperazinee) imipramine

Choose phenothiazine derivatives:a) Chlorprothixeneb) Chlorpromazine c) Haloperidold) Trifluoperazinee) Sulpiride

Choose "atypical" antipsychotic drugs:a) Sulpirideb) Clozapinec) Chlorprothixened) Chlorpromazinee) Haloperidol

List side effects of chlorpromazine:a) Extrapiramidal disorders b) Decreased blood pressure with dizziness c) The patient salivates excessivelyd) May deposit in ocular tissues with visual disturbancese) Hypertension

How to manage extrapyramidal toxicity of neuroleptics?a) By decreasing the doseb) By increasing the dosec) By concomitant use of cholinoblockersd) By concomitant use of cholinomimeticse) By concomitant use of adrenomimetics

List adverse neurologic effects of lithium:a) Tremorb) Sedationc) Weight gaind) Excitabilitye) Psychosis

Choose antimanic drugs:a) Lithium carbonateb) Carbamazepinec) Sodium valproated) Phenazepame) Diazepam

Which one of the following statements concerning the treatment of bipolar affective disorders is accurate?a) Excessive intake of sodium chloride enhances the toxicity of lithiumb) Lithium does not cross the placental barrier c) Lithium will alleviate the manic symptoms within 24 hoursd) Above 1,5 mmol/l lithium produces a variety of toxic effects

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e) Drug therapy with neuroleptics may be required at the initiation of lithium therapy

Sedation is more likely with:a) Sulpirideb) Risperidone c) Chlorprothixened) Chlorpromazinee) Clozapine

Choose advantages of clozapine compared with haloperidol:a) It causes less extrapyramidal disorders b) It does not affect prolactin productionc) It affects prolactin productiond) It does not cause agranulocytosise) It does not cause seizures List indication of phenothiazine derivatives:a) Schizoaffective disorderb) Vomitingc) Psychosisd) Extrapyramidal disorderse) The amenorrhea-galactorrhea syndrome

Haloperidol is used in:a) Schizoaffective disorderb) Vomitingc) Psychosisd) Extrapyramidal disorderse) The amenorrhea-galactorrhea syndrome

Indicate the adverse effects of chlorpromazine:a) sexual disordersb) hyperthermiac) extrapyramidal disorderd) hypotensione) psychostimulant

Site(s) of chlorpromazine receptor blockade:a) serotonin - 5-HT2 receptorb) beta adrenergic receptorc) H1 histaminic receptord) muscarinic cholinergic receptore) alpha adrenergic receptor

Antipsychotic endocrine effect(s) are:a) amenorrhea-galactorrheab) decreased libido in menc) hypoprolactinemiad) increased testosterone) hyperprolactinemia

Indicate pharmacodynamic effects of tranquilizing drugs:145

a) anxiolyticb) myorelaxantc) anticonvulsantd) psychostimulantse) antipsychotic

Name benzodiazepines indications:a) neurotic syndromeb) psychotic episodec) striated muscle contracture statesd) status epilepticuse) induction of general anesthesia

Name levomepromazine indications:a) acute psychosis with psychomotor agitationb) schizophreniac) manic phases of bipolar disorderd) acute depression e) hypotension

Name cortical psychostimulant drugs :a) caffeineb) amphetaminec) amfepramoned) trifluoperazinee) lobeline

Name the bulb stimulants:a) camphorb) bemegridc) niketamided) droperidole) mezocarb

Named antidepressants:a) imipramineb) amitriptylinec) phenelzined) haloperidole) chlorprothixene

Choose antidepresants -nerve terminal reuptake inhibitor:a) fluoxetineb) desipraminec) timolol d) reserpinee) methoxamine

How to start antidepressants?a) Start with low dosesb) Start with the big doses to achieve the best effectc) Increase dosage rapidly as tolerated

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d) Maintain typical dose for at least 7 monthse) Maintain typical dose for at least 4 to 8 weeks

Choose antidepressant with psychostimulant effect:a) Amitriptylineb) Pipofezinec) Nialamided) Fluoxetine e) Moclobemide Choose correct statement about imipramine:a) The therapeutic effect sets in after 2-3 weeksb) The therapeutic effect sets in after 2-3 yearsc) Is contraindicated in glaucoma d) It is not indicated to be combined with non-selective MAO inhibitorse) is used in the treatment of Schizoaffective disorder

Choose correct statement about fluoxetine:a) is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class b) blocks intensively M-cholinoreceptorsc) is frequently used to treat major depressive disorderd) is a phenothiazine with actions similar to chlorpromazinee) The therapeutic antidepressant effect develops rapidly in 2-3 days

Indicate the pharmacological effects of nootropics:a) antipsychotic b) antidepressantc) enhance metabolic processesd) acts on the specific receptorse) improves associative CNS functions

The following are true about the drugs used in general anaesthetic:a) ether is a volatile liquidb) ciclopropan is a gasc) ketamine is used intravenously d) propofol is from opioid derivatives e) enflurane is used intravenously

Name intravenous anesthetics:a) Propanididb) Nitrous oxidec) Thiopentald) Ketaminee) Halothane List requirements for general anesthetics:a) Must start quicklyb) Must be without excitatory stagec) To have good control over the depth of anesthesiad) Recovery should be longe) Must start slowly

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What is characteristic for neuroleptanalgezia?a) development of a general analgesic effectb) combination of fentanyl and droperidol as talamonal c) psychic indifference d) loss of consciousness in therapeutic dosee) without total loss of consciousness.

What is Neuroleptanalgesia?a) It is characterized by general quiescence, psychic indifference and intense analgesia without total loss of consciousnessb) a state of unconsciousness, analgesia and amnesia, with skeletal muscle relaxation and loss of reflexesc) Combination of Fentanyl and Droperidol as Talamonal d) Is the condition that results when sensory transmission from local area of the body to the CNS is blockede) Used for endoscopies, angiography and minor operations

For neuroleptanalgesia are used:a) fentanylb) morphinec) ketamined) droperidole) propofol

Choose rationale for adding epinephrine to local anesthetic solutions:a) cardiovascular stimulation b) increased systemic absorptionc) higher anesthetic concentration near nerve fibersd) prolongation of conduction blockadee) reduced systemic absorption

Ethanol properties:a) causes protein coagulation in high concentrationb) of 70% concentration can be used as an antisepticc) can be used to disinfect the skin before injections are given,d) used as anti-foaming in pulmonary edemae) used to treat gastrointestinal erosions

Name disulfiram mechanism of action:a) Inhibits ethyl alcohol absorption in stomachb) Inhibits ethyl alcohol absorption in small intestinec) Inhibits ethyl alcohol elimination through kidneyd) Delay alcohol oxidatione) Leads to acetaldehyde accumulation

Describe characteristics of ethanol:a) after ingestion, ethanol is rapidly and completely absorbed b) it is distributed to the most body tissuesc) it is not distributed into the bodyd) mechanism of action: is not fully understoode) bind with ethanol receptors

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Name drugs used in treatment for alchololism:a) disulfiramb) protamine sulphatec) naltrexoned) fluoxetine e) flumazenil

Which drugs are used to build up negative reaction to ethyl alcohol:a) Disulfiramb) Apomorphinec) Morphined) Diazepame) Clonidine

Antiepileptic drugs decrease pathologically enhanced excitability of brain neurons by:a) Inhibition of GABAergic processesb) Intensifying GABAergic processes.c) Inhibition of neuronal sodium channels.d) Inhibition of neuronal calcium channels.e) The antagonism with M cholinoreceptors effects .

What is characteristic of sodium valproate?a) Inhibits the GABA-ergic processes in the brainb) Enhances GABA-ergic processes in the brain.c) It is used to prevent various manifestations of epilepsy (grand mal, petit mal, focal epilepsy (partial seizures)).d) It is used only to prevent petit mal.e) It is used only to prevent grand mal.

What is characteristic of carbamazepine:a) Inhibits membrane sodium channels in neurons.b) It is effective only for petit mal prevention.c) It is effective in all types of epilepsy.d) It inhibits the GABA-ergic processes in the brain.e) Enhances GABA-ergic processes in the brain.

What is characteristics of phenobarbital?a) Inhibits the GABA-ergic processes in the brain.b) Enhances GABA-ergic processes in the brainc) Sedative effect.d) It is used to prevent grand mal.e) It is used to prevent petit mal. What is characteristic of diazepam?a) Is a benzodiazepine derivative.b) Is a benzodiazepine receptor agonist.c) EnhanceGABAergic processes in the CNS.d) It inhibits the GABA-ergic processes in the brain.e) In the status epilepticus is administered intravenously.

Name the remedies used to prevent major crises:149

a) Phenytoin.b) Ethosuximide.c) Carbamazepined) Phenobarbital.e) Sodium valproate. Name the remedies used for minor crisis prevention:a) Phenytoin.b) Ethosuximide.c) Carbamazepine.d) Phenobarbital.e) Sodium valproate. Name the remedies used to prevent partial seizures:a) Ethosuximide.b) Carbamazepine.c) Lamotrigine.d) Phenytoin.e) Sodium valproate.

Name the remedies used to prevent myoclonic seizures:a) Phenytoin.b) Ethosuximide.c) Phenobarbital.d) Sodium valproate.e) Clonazepam. Name the remedies used for status epilepticus:a) Ethosuximide.b) Carbamazepine.c) Diazepam.d) Thiopental Sodiu.e) Nitrous Oxide.

As antiparkinson remedies are used:a) The dopamine receptor blockersb) Dopaminomimeticsc) Non-selective MAO inhibitors.d) MAO-B inhibitors.e) Cholinoblockers

Name the adverse effects of levodopa:a) Nausea.b) Vomiting.c) Excitation.d) Drowsiness.e) Hallucinations.

Name the adverse effects of levodopa:a) Arrhythmias.b) Orthostatic hypotension.c) Dyskinesia.

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d) Dependence.e) Skeletal muscles hypertonus

Name the measures that can be used to decrease cardiovascular and digestive side effects of levodopa:a) The inhibition of acetylcholinesteraseb) Inhibition of peripheral dopa-decarboxylase.c) DOPA decarboxylase inhibition in the CNS.d) To block peripheral dopamine receptors.e) The administration of haloperidol.

Name the preparations that stimulate dopamine receptors in the CNS:a) Selegiline.b) Amantadine.c) Trihexyphenidyl.d) Bromocriptine.e) Apomorphine.

What is characteristic of selegiline?a) Inhibits MAO-A and MAO-B.b) It selectively inhibits MAO-B.c) More effective than levodopa.d) It is used usually in combination with levodopa.e) Typically administered in monotherapy. What adverse effects of trihexyphenidyl are determined by the influence of peripheral cholinoreceptors?a) Dry mouth.b) Increased intraocular pressure.c) Tachycardia.d) Motor excitation e) Bradycardia.

Choose correct statement about trihexyphenidyl:a) Should be administered with caution in glaucomab) Most effectively decreases tremorc) Most effectively decreases rigidityd) Most effectively decreases hypokinesiae) Causes bradycardia

Indicate the pharmacological effects of M-cholinomimetics:a) NO-mediated vasodilatationb) constipationc) increased intraocular pressured) spasm of accommodation e) tachycardia

Indicate the pharmacological effects of M-cholinomimetics:a) urinary retentionb) lowering intraocular pressurec) miosisd) increasing myocardial oxygen consumption

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e) increase in blood pressure

Indicate the pharmacological effects of M-cholinomimetics:a) diarrheab) hypersalivationc) mydriasisd) diaphoresise) bradycardia

The effects of direct-acting cholinergic agonists include:a) mydriasisb) myosis c) spasm of accomodationd) decrease intraoculary pressuree) increased lacrimation

Name indications of M-cholinomimetics:a) glaucomab) bronchial asthmac) atony of the urinary bladderd) cardiac arreste) intestinal atony

Name indications of M-cholinomimetics:a) xerostomiab) bronchoobstructive syndromec) intestinal colicsd) gastric ulcere) atony of the urinary bladder

Name M-cholinomimetics:a) aceclidineb) galanthaminec) pilocarpined) atropine e) suxamethonium

Name anticholinesterases remedies:a) carbacholineb) neostigminec) pilocarpined) physostigminee) acetylcholine

The following are true about physostigmine:a) it is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitorb) it is a nonreversible cholinesterase inhibitorc) it acts only on the muscarinic receptorsd) it acts only on the nicotinic receptors e) it causes miosis Pharmacologic characteristic of physostigmine:

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a) causes accommodative spasmb) causes conjunctival vasoconstrictionc) increases the intraocular pressured) causes smooth muscle contractione) can be used in hypotonia of gastrointestinal system Describe effects of pilocarpine:a) is an alkaloid derived from plant b) is a direct acting muscarinic agonist c) causes contraction of the longitudinal muscles of the ciliary bodyd) causes myriasise) causes miosis Mydriasis occurs with:a) atropineb) scopolaminec) carbachol d) neostigminee) acetylcholine

Muscarinic agonists are:a) pilocarpine b) atropinec) aceclidined) scopolaminee) platyphylline

The effects of muscarinic agonists include:a) reduced intraocular pressureb) increased intraocular pressurec) spasm of accomodation d) increased lacrimatione) contraction of the pupillary sphincter muscle

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors include:a) physostigmineb) atropinec) edrophonium d) pyridostigminee) scopolamine

The systemic side effects of pilocarpine include:a) constipationb) excessive sweatingc) spasm of accommodation d) bronchial spasme) dry mouth

The side effects of pilocarpine include:a) dry eyeb) increased sweatingc) bronchiolar spasm

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d) increased salivation e) constipation

The following are true about pilocarpine:a) used in bronchal asthma b) used for glaucoma c) causes mydriasisd) causes miosis e) stimulates the secretion of large amounts of saliva and sweat

Choose anticolynestarase drugs:a) Clonidineb) Guanethidine c) Neostigmined) Atropinee) Physostigmine

The following are cholinomimetics with irreversible action:a) Pilocarpine b) Tabexc) Armined) Somane) Pirophos

Choose drugs that can produce miosis:a) ipratropium bromide b) tropicamidec) armined) atropinee) pilocarpine

What are the pharmacological characteristics related to neostigmine?a) is an anticholinesterase drugb) works by directly stimulating the cholinergic receptorsc) is indicated in postoperative hypotonia or atony of gastrointestinal and bladderd) is contraindicated in bronchial asthma, Parkinson's disease, heart failuree) has a good bioavailability after oral administration

Indicate anticholinesterases properties:a) stimulates the synthesis of acetylcholineb) directly stimulates cholinergic receptorsc) increases the tone of smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tractd) inhibits the hydrolysis of acetylcholinee) inhibits the synthesis of acetylcholine

Name effects of anti-cholinesterase preparations:a) miosis and lowering intraocular pressureb) increased smooth muscle tone of internal organsc) intensified secretion of bronchial and digestive glands d) tachycardia, and increased blood pressuree) mydriasis

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Characteristics of neostigmine:a) inhibits the action of cholinesterase b) inhibits M cholinoreceptors c) causes miosis d) is used in the X-ray diagnosis of intestine diseasee) causes bradycardia

Cholinomimetics used in glaucoma:a) pilocarpineb) atropinec) scopolamined) aceclidinee) scopolamine

The following eye drops causes cycloplegia:a) tropicamideb) phenylephrine c) atropined) pilocarpine e) aceclidine

Side effects of depolarizing muscle relaxants:a) muscle pain b) miosisc) potassium released) diarrheae) muscle fasciculations

Indicate muscle relaxantsa) suxamethoniumb) isoprenalinec) ephedrined) norepinephrinee) tubocurarine

What are the effects M cholinoblockers on the digestive tract?a) smooth muscle relaxationb) smooth muscle spasmc) the relaxation of the sphincterd) sphincter spasme) gland hypersecretion

Named drugs used in organophosphate derivatives poisoning:a) neostigmineb) atropinec) physostigmined) obidoxime) pilocarpine

Treatment of intoxication with organophosphates:a) II phase 2-4ml Atropine i/m, or i/v after 1-2 ml every 10 min.b) I phase -attack doze 1-2 ml Atropine s/c or i/m after, 0,5 ml s/c or i/m every 30 min.

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c) II phase 4-8 ml Atropine i/v or i/m after 2-3ml every 3-8 min.d) I phase 2-4ml Atropine i/m, or i/v after 1-2 ml every 10 min.e) III phase 4-8 ml Atropine i/v or i/m after 2-3ml every 3-8 min.

In organophosphate poisoning, this agent(s) may be capable of re-activating inhibited acetylcholinesterase:a) isonitrosyneb) mecamylamine c) pilocarpined) trimedoxime) atropine

Name M cholinoblockers indications:a) bronchial asthmab) gastrointestinal spasms and colics c) tachycardiad) hypertention e) sinus bradycardia

Name M cholinoblockers effects in the eye:a) mydriasisb) increase intraocular pressurec) cycloplegiad) miosise) decrease intraocular pressure

Indicate adverse effects of atropine:a) dry mouth and dysphagiab) bronchospasm with dyspneac) atonic constipationd) urinary retentione) miosis

The pairing of the following drugs and their side-effects are correct:a) atropine - dry mouth b) scopolamine - pernicious anaemiac) neostygmine - bone marrow suppression d) cititon -hepatic fibrosise) aceclidine – miosis

Characteristis of atropine:a) inhibits the sweat glandsb) mydriasisc) causes hyperpyrexia in overdosed) bronchospasm e) is more sedative than scopolamine

Characteristic of atropine:a) blocks nicotinic acethylcholine receptorsb) dries bronchial and salivary secretion c) diminishes the risk of vagal cardiac arrestd) is used to avoid unwanted side effects of neostigmine

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e) causes loss of accommodation

With regard to the effect of atropine:a) mydriasis is the result of paralysis of the constrictor muscle of the pupil b) causes cycloplegia c) miosis d) bronchospasm e) diarrhea

Indicate adverse effects of M cholinomimetics:a) dyspnoea and bronchial asthma attacks in asthmaticsb) constipationc) urinary retentiond) bradycardiae) colics

Name effects of cholinomimetics:a) bradycardiab) bronchospasmc) xerosthomiad) lacrimatione) miosis

The effects of muscarinic agonists include:a) spasm of accommodation b) bradycardia c) mydriasisd) tachycardia e) miosis

Name primary effects of stimulating muscarinic M receptors? a) Release of nitric oxide (vasodilation) b) Iris contraction (miosis) c) Ciliary muscle contraction and accommodation of the lens (near vision) d) Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchiole secretions e) Hyposalivation

Name effects of stimulating muscarinic M receptors? a) Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity b) Increased GI tract tone and secretions c) Vasoconstrcition d) Penile erection e) Contraction of urinary detrusor muscle and relaxation of urinary sphincter

Indicate anticholinesterases:a) neostigmineb) edrophoniumc) physostigmined) pilocarpinee) carbachol

Indicate the pharmacological effects of atropine in the digestive system:157

a) increase tone and peristalsisb) salivary hyposecretionc) antispasmodic effectd) reduction of gastric secretione) diarrhea

Note nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs:a) tubocurarineb) atropinec) pilocarpined) pancuroniume) suxamethonium

Name drugs that cause non-depolarising blockade of the neuromuscular junction during anaesthesia:a) scopolamineb) physostigminec) pancuroniumd) tubocurarinee) suxamethonium

Cholinomimetics have following effects:a) bronchospasmb) tachycardiac) bradycardiad) midriasise) bronchodilation Characteristics of pilocarpine are: a) It is a tertiary amine alkaloid b) It causes miosisc) Causes a decrease in secretory and motor activity of gut d) It is useful in the treatment of glaucomae) Causes increased intraocular pressure

Which of the following cholinomimetics are indirect-acting? a) Lobeline b) Neostigmine c) Pilocarpine d) Galantamine e) Atropine

Indicate the location of N-cholinoreceptors: a) Parasimpathetic autonomic ganglia b) Simpathetic autonomic gangliac) Skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions d) Autonomic effector cells e) Sensory carotid sinus baroreceptor zone Indicate the location of M3 cholinoreceptor type:a) Heart b) Glands

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c) Smooth muscle d) Skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions e) Eye smooth muscle Cholinoblocking drugs cause: a) Bronchodilation b) Mydriasis c) Bradycardia d) Tachycardia e) Xerostomia The following are true about physostigmine: a) it is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitorb) it causes bronchodilationc) it causes intestinal spasm d) it exites N cholinoreceeptorse) it causes miosis Characteristics of physostigmine: a) causes accommodative spasm b) causes conjunctival vasoconstriction c) increases the intraocular pressure d) causes smooth muscle contraction e) can be used in hypotonia of gastrointestinal system

Characteristics of pilocarpine: a) is an alkaloid derived from plantb) is a direct acting muscarinic agonist c) causes contraction of the cilliary muscles d) causes mydriasise) has a greater effect on patients with blue iris than brown iris.

Name the results of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as would be seen with a nerve agent or organophosphate poisoning: a) Diarrhea b) Miosis c) Mydriasis d) Bronchodilation e) Hypersalivation

The effects of direct-acting cholinergic agonists include:a) mydriasis b) miosis c) spasm of accomodation d) decrease intraocular pressuree) xerostomia

Contraindications to the use of muscarinic agonists:a) diarrheab) bronchial asthmac) treatment of diminished salvation, secondary to radiationd) peptic ulcer

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e) myasthenia gravis Cardiovascular effects of cholinomimetics: a) negative chronotropicb) vasoconstrictionc) decreased AV nodal conduction velocityd) negative inotropisme) positive inotropism

Anticholinesterases used moslty to treat myasthenia gravis: a) neostigmine b) pyridostigmine c) acetylcholine d) pylocarinee) armine

The effects of muscarinic agonists include: a) reduced intraocular pressureb) reduced aqueous production c) accommodative myopia d) increased lacrimation e) contraction of the pupillary sphincter muscle

Associated with parasympathetic activation (direct effects):a) increased GI motilityb) urinary retentionc) decrease cardiac contractilityd) decreased GI motilitye) increase heart rate

Localization of muscarinic cholinergic receptors:a) sweating glandsb) heartc) postsynaptic membrane of the vegetative gangliad) neuro-musular junctione) eyes

Indirect-acting cholinomimetic:a) neostigmineb) acetylcholinec) carbachold) edrophonium e) atropine

Mechanism(s) of vasodilation mediated by the cholinergic system:a) acetylcholine stimulates M3 cholinoreceptors on endothelial cellsb) acetylcholine stimulates beta-2-adrenoreceptorsc) acetylcholine inhibits alpha-1-adrenoreceptorsd) acetylcholine inhibit alpha-2- adrenoreceptorse) cholinergic activation promotes nitric oxide release from endothelial cells

Associated with excessive vagal tone:160

a) total heart blockb) mydriasisc) bradyarrhythmiasd) tachyarrhythmiase) smouth muscle contraction

Effect(s) of muscarinic agonists on the gastrointestinal and urinary tracts:a) increased glands secretionb) decrease ureteral peristalsisc) increased contraction amplituded) relax sphincters e) decreased intestinal peristalsis

Clinical uses of neostigmine:a) treatment of reduced salivation secondary to radiation therapyb) stimulation of postoperative urinary bladder c) in people with myasthenia gravis d) treatment of gastric ulcere) intoxication with atropine Opthalmological uses of cholinomimetics:a) for the visualization of the retinab) treatment of glaucomac) used along with mydriatic agent in breaking iris-lens adhesionsd) acetylcholine may be used as a miotice) acetylcholine may be used as a midriatic

Choose major contraindications for muscarinic agonists:a) atony af the intestine b) peptic ulcerc) intestinal spasm d) glaucoma e) bronchial asthma Anticholinesterases: used in treating glaucoma:a) tropicamidb) phyzostigminec) aceclidined) atropinee) armine General clinical uses of anticholinesterases:a) treatment of paralytic ileus and urinary bladder atonyb) glaucoma treatmentc) myasthenia gravis managementd) antagonist-assisted reversal of neuromuscular blockade produced by depolarizing neuromuscular-blocking drugse) antagonist-assisted reversal of neuromuscular blockade produced by nondepolarizing neuromuscular-blocking drugs

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors include: a) physostigmine

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b) atropine c) edrophonium d) pyridostigmine e) scopolamine

Cholinomimetics used in glaucoma: a) pilocarpine b) atropinec) scopolamine d) aceclidinee) tropicamide

The following muscarinic agonists work directly on both M, and N cholinoreceptors : a) pilocarpine b) carbachol c) acetylcholined) atropine e) aceclidine The side effects of pilocarpine include: a) dry eye b) increased sweating c) bronchospasm d) increased salivation e) constipation The following are true about pilocarpine: a) it increases the concentration of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft b) it decreases intraocular presure c) it causes diarrhea d) it increases intraocular presure e) it causes constipation Atropine causes: a) Miosis, a reduction in intraocular pressure and cyclospasm b) Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular pressure and cycloplegia c) Miosis, a rise in intraocular pressure and cycloplegia d) Xerostomia, constipatione) Tachycardia Contraindications to the use of antimuscarinic drugs are all of the following: a) Glaucoma b) Gastric ulcerc) Bronchial asthma d) Paralytic ileus e) Atony of the urinary bladder

Antimuscarinics are used in the treatment of: a) Motion sickness b) Glaucoma c) Urinary retention d) Bronchial asthma

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e) Gastric hypersecretion

The atropine poisoning includes all of the following symptoms: a) Mydriasis, cycloplegia b) Hyperthermia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin c) Agitation and delirium d) Bradicardia, orthostatic hypotension e) Miosis

Choose the antimuscarinic drug, which is used as a mydriatic: a) Pilocarpine b) Neostigminec) Homatropine d) Ipratropium e) Tropicamide Which of the following agents is used by inhalation in asthma? a) Atropineb) Ipratropium c) Lobeline d) Homatropine e) Oxitropium

Choose a M-cholinoreceptor-blocking drugs: a) Scopolamineb) Pipecuronium c) Trimethaphan d) Pilocarpinee) Atropine

Mydriasis occurs with: a) atropineb) tropicamide c) carbachold) neostigmine e) pilocarpine

Characteristic of atropine:a) blocks nicotinic acethylcholine receptors b) inhibits bronchial and salivary secretion c) causes bronchospasm d) is used to avoid unwanted side effects of neostigmine e) causes loss of accommodation With regard to the effects of atropine: a) mydriasis is the result of paralysis of the constrictor muscle of the pupil b) miosis is the result of constriction of the constrictor muscle of the pupil c) increases lacrimation d) it causes cycloplegiae) it causes spasm of accommodation

Name adverse effects (side-effects) commonly seen with cholinergic antagonists? 163

a) Blurred vision b) Confusion c) Miosis d) Diarrhea e) Urinary retention

The following eye drops causes cycloplegia:a) tropicamide b) atropine c) epinephrined) pilocarpine e) aceclidine

Atropine causes: a) Bradycardia, hypotension and bronchoconstriction b) Tachycardia, no effect on blood pressure and bronchodilation c) Decrease in contractile strength, conduction velocity through the AV node d) Tachycardia, hypertensive crisis and bronchodilation e) Tachycardia and increasing of conduction velocity through the AV node

Atropine effects:a) dry mouthb) pupillary dilationc) miosisd) increased heart ratee) decresed heart rate

Atropine block: a) M1 receptor subtype b) M2 receptor subtype c) M3 receptor subtype d) N receptor subtypee) All of the above

Atropine is used for premedication to reduce or prevent: a) Bradycardia b) Hypersecretions c) AV blockd) Hiposecretione) Tachycardia

Which of the following antimuscarinic drugs is a selective M1 blocker? a) Atropine b) Scopolamine c) Pirenzepine d) Homatropine e) Telenzepine

Atropine causes: a) Spasmolitic activity b) Intestinal hypermotility c) Stimulation of contraction in the gut

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d) Stimulation of secretory activity e) Tachycardia Name effects of atropine:a) dry moth b) mydriasisc) hypersalivationd) tachycardiae) bradycardia

Name characteristics about scopolamine?a) It causes psychostimulant effect b) The same group as atropine isc) Doesn’t across blood-brain barrierd) It may prevent motion sickness and vertigo e) Used in brochal asthma by inhalation

Which of the following agents is a ganglion-blocking drug? a) Suxamethonium b) Hexamethoniumc) Pancuronium d) Trepirium iodidee) Azamethonium

Which of the following agents is a neuro-muscular blocking drug? a) Suxamethonium b) Hexamethoniumc) Pancuronium d) Trepirium iodidee) Azamethonium

Adverse effect(s) associated with autonomic ganglionic blockade:a) Bladder dysfunctionb) Xerostromiac) Blurred visiond) Paralytic ileuse) Diarrhea

Name the main effects of ganglion-blocking drugs:a) vasodilatation and hypotensionb) hyposecretionc) increase of intraoculary pressiond) bronchospasme) bradycardia

Name effects of autonomic ganglion blocking:a) Anhidrosis and xerostomia b) Mydriasis c) Tachycardia d) Hypertension e) Cycloplegia

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Name the nicotinic receptor-blockers: a) Azamethoniumb) Atropine c) Tubocurarined) Neostigminee) Scopolamine

Ganglion-blocking drug is used for:a) Pulmonary edemab) Hypertensive crisisc) Controlled hypotension during surgeryd) Acute hypotensione) Xerostomia

Choose ganglionic blockers:a) trimetaphanb) nicardipinec) azamethoniumd) hydralazinee) prazosin

Adverse effect(s) associated with autonomic ganglionic blockade:a) paralytic ileusb) blurred visionc) xerostomiad) bradycardiae) bladder dysfunction

Ganglionic blockers:a) Prazosin b) Hydralazine c) Hexamethonium d) Nicardipine e) Azamethonium

List therapeutic use of cytisine:a) To stimulate respirationb) To decrease blood pressurec) To aid „quitting" smokingd) In pulmonary edemae) For xerostomia

The following cause non-depolarising blockade of the neuromuscular junction during anaesthesia: a) succinylcholine b) physostigmine c) pancuronium d) tubocurarine e) atropine

Side effects of depolarizing muscle relaxants: a) miosis

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b) potassium release c) muscle paind) muscle fibrilation e) diarrhea

The systemic effects of hexamethonium include all of the following: a) Reduction of both peripheral vascular resistance and venous return b) Partial mydriasis and loss of accommodation c) Constipation d) Stimulation of sweating e) urinary retention

Skeletal muscle relaxation and paralysis can occur from interruption of functions at several sites, including all of the following: a) Nicotinic receptors b) Muscarinic receptors c) The motor end plate d) Nicotinic receptors in autonomic gangliae) Muscarinic receptors in smooth muscle

Indicate the long-acting neuromuscular blocking agent: a) Pipecuroniumb) Atracurium c) Tubocurarine d) Pancuroniume) Suxamethonium

Which of the following neuromuscular blocking drugs is an intermediate-duration muscle relaxant? a) Vecuronium b) Tubocurarine c) Pancuronium d) Suxamethonium e) Atracurium

Effects seen only with depolarizing blockade include all of the following:a) Hyperpotassemia b) Decrease in intraocular pressurec) Bronchospasmd) Muscle pain e) Cardiac arithmias

Describe endogenous adrenoreceptor agonists:a) are catecholamines and are rapidly metabolized by COMT and MAO.b) are ofen used enteralc) are inactive when given by the oral routed) work ultra long into the bodye) have a short duration of action Which of the adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic? a) α1 b) α2

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c) β1 d) β2 e) β3

Location for beta1-postsynaptic receptors:a) Heartb) Juxtaglomerular apparatusc) Pancreasd) CNSe) Vessels

Name location of beta2 adrenoreceptors:a) vesselsb) ciliary muscle c) liverd) bronchie) juxtaglomerular cells

Location for beta3 receptors:a) adipose tissue b) CNSc) vessels d) skeletal musclee) salivary glands

Clinical use(s) of alpha-1-receptor agonists:a) nasal decongestantb) management hypotensive statesc) hypertensive statesd) angina pectorise) bronchial asthma

Activates alpha receptors:a) metharaminolb) terbutaline c) phenylephrined) propranolol e) isoproterenol

Phenylephrine causes:a) Constriction of vessels in the nasal mucosab) Increased gastric secretion and motilityc) Increased skin temperature d) Mydriasis e) Increased blood pressure

Which substance can be used in acute rhinitis?a) clonidineb) naphasolinec) salbutamold) izoprenalinee) xylometazoline

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Catecholamine includes following: a) Ephedrineb) xEpinephrine c) Norepinephrine d) Dopaminee) Fenilephrine

Epinephrine increases level of:a) blood lactic acidb) blood insulinc) skeletal muscle glycogend) blood glucosee) blood free fatty acids Direct cardiac responses to epinephrine:a) increase contractilityb) increased rate of isometric muscle tension developmentc) increased heart rate d) decreased automaticity e) decreased heart rate

Epinephrine: therapeutic uses:a) rapid relief of respiratory distress due to bronchospasmb) topical hemostasisc) supraventricular tachycardia d) reversal of hypersensitivity reactionse) to decrease blod pressure

Principal receptors activated by norepinephrine:a) alpha-adrenergicb) beta1 adrenergicc) beta2 adrenergicd) H1 histamine reseptorse) M cholynoreceptors

Distribution of alfa adrenoreceptor subtypes is associated with all of the following tissues: a) Mast cell b) Blood vessels c) Prostate d) Pupillary dilator muscle e) Juxtaglomerular apparatus

Epinephrine characteristics: a) stimulates both α and β receptors b) causes miosis c) used in anaphylactic shock d) can be used to prolong the action of local anaesthetic e) used in hypertension

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A nonselective beta receptor agonist causes all of the following effects: a) Increase cardiac output b) uterus contractionc) uterus relaxation d) Causes bronchoconstrictione) Causes bronchodilation

Name indirect mechanism of action of adrenomimetics:a) these drugs inhibit reuptake of catecholamines by nerve terminals b) directly activate their adrenoreceptorsc) blockade of metabolism (block of catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO) and increase the quantity of catecholaminesd) activate the effects of endogenous catecholaminese) activate directly the main centers from CNS

Definition for indirect sympathomimetics:a) are agents that elevate the concentration of NE at neuroeffector junctions,b) they either inhibit re-uptake, facilitate release, or slow breakdown by MAO,c) side chain "-hydroxyl group confers affinity for α - and β -receptorsd) the ability of a substance to release norepinephrine from its neuronal stores without exerting an agonist action at the adrenoceptore) can penetrate the blood-brain barrier and evoke such CNS effects as a feeling of well-being, enhanced physical activity and mood (euphoria), and decreased sense of hunger or fatigue.

Adverse effects associated with guanethidine:a) Hypotension (symptomatic)b) Male sexual dysfunctionc) Diarrhead) Constipationse) Hypertension

The effects of clonidine include: a) sedationb) bradycardia c) dry mouth d) tachycardiae) hypotention

Which of the following effects is related to direct beta1-adrenoreceptor stimulation? a) Bronchodilation b) Vasodilatation c) Tachycardia d) Renine releasee) Bradycardia

Beta2 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects: a) Stimulation of renin secretion b) Hyperglicemiac) Relaxation of bladder, uterusd) Tachycardia e) Bronchodilation

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Beta-2 selective agonist:a) fenoterolb) epinephrinec) salbutamol d) phenylephrine e) labetalol

Hyperglycemia induced by epinephrine is due to: a) Gluconeogenesis b) Inhibition of insulin secretion (alfa) c) Stimulation of glycogenolysis (beta2) d) Inhibition of insulin synthesise) Increasing in glucose absorbtion from the gut Action of drugs acting adrenergic system on the eyes: a) Αlfa agonists cause miosis b) Αlfa agonists cause mydriasis c) Beta antagonists decrease the production of aqueous humor d) Αlfa agonists increase the outflow of aqueous humor from the eyee) Αlfa agonists increase intraocular pressure in narrow-angle glaucoma

Αlfa-receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects: a) Relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth muscle b) Contraction of gastrointestinal smooth muscle c) Stimulation of insulin secretion d) Vasodilatione) Stimulation of platelet aggregation

Choose cardiovascular effects of dobutamine:a) decreases peripheral resistanceb) negative inotropismc) positive inotropismd) negative dromotropism e) positive dromotropism

Toxicities/adverse reactions associated with sympathomimetics:a) anxiety reactionsb) cardiac tachyarrhythmiasc) hypertension; cerebral hemorrhaged) syncopee) angina pectori

Adverse effects associated with dopamine administration:a) bradycardiab) arrhythmiasc) hypertensiond) tachycardiae) palpitations

Epinephrine effects on the heart:a) reduces oxygen consumptionb) reduces conduction

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c) increased contraction d) decreased contractilitye) increased rate

Cardiac effects associated with epinephrine:a) increased oxygen consumptionb) increased cardiac outputc) positive inotropic effectd) decreased cardiac outpute) positive chronotropic effect

Ventricular effects associated with epinephrine administration:a) decreased contractility b) increased contractilityc) decreased conductiond) increased conductione) decreased automaticity

Alpha agonist: vasoconstriction and elevated blood pressure:a) ethylephrineb) clonidinec) terbutalined) methoxaminee) prazosine

Alpha adrenergic receptor blockers are:a) atenolol b) terazosinec) terbutaline d) phenoxybenzamine e) phentolamine

Alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker(s) - blockade of alpha1 adrenergic receptors:a) proroxanb) doxazosinc) phentolamined) terazosine) prazosin

Adverse effects associated with prazosin:a) tachycardiab) hypertensionc) dizzinessd) bradycardia e) initial-dose marked orthostatic hypotension

Characteristic of labetalol: a) is a mixed alpha/beta adrenergic antagonist b) xused in hypertension managementc) is selective alpha adrenergic antagonist d) is selective beta adrenergic antagonist e) can causes orthostatic hypotension

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Blocks both alpha and beta receptors:a) carvedilolb) diazoxidec) propranolold) labetalole) timolol

Block both alpha and beta receptors: a) Atenolol b) Labetalol c) Metoprolold) Salbutamole) Carvedilol

Name contraindication for Beta-non selective adrenoblockers:a) Bronchial asthma b) Atrial- ventricular blockc) Tachyarrhythmias d) Angina Pectorise) Raynoud disease

Beta- receptor activation is produced by:a) pentetrasolb) terphenadinec) isoprenalined) phenoterenol e) terbutaline

Which drugs are beta-agonists: a) Digoxin b) Dobutamine c) Amrinoned) Salbutamole) Isoprenaline

Adverse effects associated with beta adrenergic receptor agonists:a) over usage of these drugs may predisposed to mortality in asthmaticsb) skeletal muscle tremorc) excessive cardiovascular stimulationd) bronchospasme) anxiety

Name adverse affect of the β1 blockade:a) Bradycardia b) Decreased cardiac output c) Tachycardia d) Hypertention e) Low contractility

Clinical uses of for propranolol:a) treatment of essential hypertension

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b) management of anginac) management of certain arrhythmiasd) prophylactic against asthma attackse) AV block

Alpha2 selective adrenergic agonists:a) phentolamineb) clonidinec) epinephrined) phenoxybenzaminee) methyldopa

Beta1 selective adrenergic receptor antagonist:a) propranololb) timololc) nadolold) metoprolole) atenolol

Selective beta1 blockers:a) Atenolol b) Propranolol c) Acebutolol d) Labetolole) Timolol

Beta1 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects: a) Increase in heart contractility b) Bronchodilation c) Miometrium relaxationd) Tachycardia e) Increase in conduction velocity in the atrioventricular node

Bronchodilation is caused by:a) atenololb) fenoterolc) salbutamold) timolol e) metoprolol

List beta blockers:a) atenololb) fenoterolc) salbutamold) timolol e) metoprolol

Which of the following drugs causes bronchodilation without significant cardiac stimulation? a) Isoprenaline b) Fenoterolc) Xylometazoline

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d) Methoxamine e) Salbutamol

Propanolol causes:a) can cause bronchospasm b) can cause bronchodilationc) increases blodd pressure d) decreases blodd pressuree) can mask hypoglycaemia induced by insulin

The main adverse effects of phentolamine include all of the following: a) Hypertenssion b) Bradycardiac) Tachycardiad) Colapse) Hypotention

Characteristics of phentolamine include all of the following: a) Reduction in peripheral resistance b) Bradicardia c) Tachycardia d) Stimulation of muscarinic and histamine receptors e) Block alfa-adrenoreceptors

Beta-blocking drugs-induced hypotension may be associated with their effects on: a) The heart b) The blood vessels c) The renin-angiotensin system d) Inhibition of norepinephrine releasee) Inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake

Clinical applications of beta-adrenergic antagonists:a) treatment of hypertensionb) treatment of arrhythmiasc) Raynaud diseased) bronchial asthmae) management of angina pectori

Non-selective beta-adrenergic receptor blocker(s):a) nadololb) esmolol c) timolol d) atenolole) metoprolol

Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers: effects on the heart:a) increased automatism b) decreased contractilityc) increased contractilityd) decrease automatism e) increase heart rate

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Most likely to cause dangerous bronchiolar constriction in asthmatic patients:a) timololb) atenololc) nebivolol d) propranolole) metoprolol

Characteristics of beta-blocking agents include all of the following: a) They occupy beta receptors and competitively reduce receptor occupancy by catecholamines or other beta agonists b) They causes hypotention c) They induce hypertention d) They cause tachycardiae) They can cause blockade in the atrioventricular node

Principal mechanisms by which beta adrenergic receptor blockade decreases blood pressure:a) blockade of angiotensin II receptorsb) reduced myocardial contractilityc) reduced heart rated) renin release suppressione) they induce hypertention

Adverse effect(s) associated with beta-adrenergic blockers:a) bradycardiab) bronchospasmc) tachycardiad) impotencee) hypertention

Beta-blocker with some intrinsic sympathomimetic properties:a) practololb) sotalolc) pindolold) metoprolol e) propranolol

Selective beta1 blocker(s):a) alprenololb) propranololc) acebutolol d) pindolole) atenolol

Beta-receptor antagonists have all of the following cardiovascular effects: a) The negative inotropic and chronotropic effects b) Acute hypertention c) Vasoconstrictiond) Vasodilation e) Reduction of the release of renin Compared with phentolamine, prazosine has all of the following features:

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a) Irreversible blockade of alfa 2 receptors b) More often causes bradicardiac) Highly selective for alfa1 receptors d) Highly selective for alfa2 receptors e) Persistent block of alfa1 receptors

Characteristics of alfa-receptor antagonists include all of the following: a) They cause a fall in peripheral resistance and blood pressure b) They cause epinephrine reversal (convert a pressor response to a depressor response) c) Bronchospasm d) Hypertension e) They may cause postural hypotension and reflex tachycardia

Which of the following drugs is a competitive antagonist at both alfa1 and alfa2 receptors? a) Prazosin b) Doxazosin c) Labetalol d) Phenoxybenzamine e) Phentolamine

List sympatholytic drugs:a) clonidineb) methyldopac) diazoxided) propranolole) reserpine

Characteristics of reserpine include all of the following: a) It inhibits the uptake of norepinephrine into vesiclesb) It decreases cardiac output, peripheral resistance and inhibits pressor reflexesc) It may cause a transient sympathomimetic effect d) Can be used as neuroleptice) It depletes stores of catecholamines in the brain

Determine Beta1-adrenoceptor location:a) myocardiumb) bronchi c) juxtaglomerular apparatus d) the syno-carotid zonee) CNS

Determine the preponderant location of the beta2-adrenoceptors:a) bronchial musclesb) skeletal musclec) uterusd) myocardiume) juxtaglomerular apparatus

Indicate the effects caused by the excitation of postsynaptic alpha 1-adrenergic receptor:a) mydriasisb) miosis

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c) contraction of the spleen capsuled) vassoconstriction e) bronchodilation

Specify the effects caused by the excitation of beta1-adrenergic receptors:a) intensification of contractility and cardiac automaticityb) negative inotropic actionc) negative chronotropic actiond) miosise) to increase renin secretion

Specify the effects caused by the excitation of beta2-adrenoceptors:a) relaxation of the myometriumb) bronchodilationc) bronchoconstrictiond) vasoconstriction e) contraction of the spleen capsule

Specify peripheral alpha2-adrenomimetics:a) methyldopab) clonidinec) xylometazolined) naphazolinee) orciprenaline

Specify central alpha2-adrenomimetics:a) xmethyldopab) clonidinec) xylometazolined) naphasoline e) orciprenaline

Indicate nonselective Beta1,2-adrenomimetics:a) isoprenalineb) salbutamolc) fenoterold) orciprenalinee) epinephrine

Characteristic of epinephrine:a) stimulates α and β receptorsb) block α β receptorsc) used in anaphylactic shockd) can be used to prolong the action of local anaesthetice) used in hyperglycemia

Indicate selective Beta2-adrenomimetics:a) terfenadineb) salbutamolc) isoprenalined) hexoprenalinee) terbutaline

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Indicate adrenergic drugs with bronchodilator effect:a) salmeterolb) dopaminec) norepinephrined) epinephrinee) isoprenaline

Name indications of epinephrine:a) anaphylactic shockb) cardiogenic shockc) hypoglycemic comad) hyperosmolar diabetic comae) conjunctivitis

Indicate drugs used to treat anaphylactic shock:a) epinephrineb) diphenhydraminec) propranolold) salbutamole) phentolamine

Indicate drugs used to treat hypoglycemic coma:a) epinephrineb) norepinephrinec) glucagond) glucosee) insulin

Indicate the adverse effects of epinephrine:a) bradycardiab) tachycardiac) hypoxia and tissue necrosisd) anxiety, tremore) bronchospasm

Name the beta-2-adrenomimetics indications:a) imminence of spontaneous abortionb) paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardiac) ventricular extrasystoled) pectoral anginae) bronchial asthma

Name the effects of beta1- adrenomimetics:a) intensification of heart contractionsb) tachycardiac) increased heart automaticityd) bronchial muscle relaxatione) bronchial spasm

Name Beta2 adrenomimetics:a) salbutamol

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b) epinephrinec) ephedrined) isoprenalinee) fenoterol

Indicate pharmacological characteristic of clonidine:a) stimulates beta2-adrenergic receptorsb) stimulates alpha2 receptorsc) causes bradycardiad) can cause sedation and somnolencee) causes tachycardia

The effects of clonidine include:a) sedationb) bradicardia c) dry mouth d) tachycardiae) hypotention

Indicate the specific pharmacological effects of drugs that stimulate alfa1-adrenergic receptors: a) vasoconstrictionb) improvement of microcirculationc) vasodilatationd) decrease in microcirculatione) decrease of blood pressure

Indicate the effects of beta-blockers:a) antihypertensiveb) antiarrhythmicc) antianginad) antipsychotice) anxiolytic

The following side-effects are seen in beta-antagonists:a) bradycardia b) hypotention c) hypertention d) impotencee) tachycardia

Name beta-adrenoblockers:a) Propranolol b) Validol c) Metoprolold) Alopurinole) Oxprenolol

The following are selective beta blockers:a) pindolol b) propanolol c) nadolol

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d) atenolole) acebutol

The following are non-selective beta-blocker:a) metoprololb) propranololc) oxprenolold) nadolole) sotalol

Characteristic of propanolol:a) block alfa adrenoreceptorsb) block beta adrenoreceptors c) decreases cardiac contractility d) block alfa beta adrenoreceptorse) can mask hypoglycaemia induced by insulin

Indicate beta-blocker drugs indications:a) angina pectorisb) acute heart failurec) schizophreniad) tachyarrhythmiae) sinus bradycardia

Name indications of beta-blockers:a) bronchial asthmab) myocardial infarctionc) migrained) atrioventricular blocke) hypertension

List the adverse effects of selective beta-blockers:a) atrioventricular blockb) worsening angina pectorisc) worsening of heart failured) exacerbation of bronchial asthmae) spasm of peripheral vessels

Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for alpha-blockers?a) produce vasodilatationb) bradycardiac) reduce microcirculationd) tachycardiae) improves microcirculation

Name contraindications of propranolol:a) supraventricular tachycardiab) atrioventricular blockc) bronchial asthmad) angina pectorese) Raynaud's disease

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Simpatholitics are used in:a) treatment of the hypertensionb) myocardial infarctionc) severe forms oh hypertensiond) Raynaud diseasee) ventricular arrhythmias

Witch statements about sympatholytics is adequate?a) affect noradrenaline synthesis b) affect noradrenaline release c) affect noradrenalne uptaked) bind covalently to the alpha receptor an produce an irreversible effecte) inhibit the flux of Ca 2+ through presynaptic membrane and inhibit in this way mediators release

Name adverse effects of reserpine:a) tachycardiab) bradycardiac) the excitation of the CNSd) depressione) the decrease intestinal motility

Name alpha-adrenoblockers indications:a) pheochromocytomab) hypertensionc) hypotensiond) ventricular arrhythmiase) Raynoud disease

Name beta-blockers indications:a) hypertension b) angina pectorisc) migrained) bradyarrythmie e) imminence of premature birth

Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for propranolol:a) is indicated to treat hypertensionb) is indicated in the treatment of migrainec) possessing psycho-sedative actiond) possessing psychostimulant action e) is administered to treat angina pectores

Indicate the adverse effects of beta-adrenoblockers:a) Rebound phenomenab) increased intraocular pressurec) anxietyd) atherogenic actione) increase the need in oxygen of myocardium

Name astringent indications:a) Poisoning with heavy metals salts

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b) Inflammatory processes of the digestive tractc) Inflammation of the skin d) To antagonize with morphine e) For local anesthesia Choose coating drugs:a) Zinc oxideb) Silver nitratec) Starch mucilaged) Mucilage from flax seedse) Activated charcoal Choose adsorbants indications:a) Meteorismb) Diarrheac) To decrease chloralhydrate irritant propertiesd) Inflammatory processes of the urinary tracte) Acute poisoning

Choose irritants:a) Zinc oxideb) Silver nitrate c) Menthold) Ammonia solutione) Starch mucilage

Are effective antitussives:a) ambroxolb) dimemorfanc) acetylcysteined) ethylmorphinee) codeine

Name drugs used in bronchial asthma treatment:a) salbutamolb) propranololc) fenoterold) sotalol e) pindolol

Name drugs avoided in bronchial asthma:a) salbutamolb) propranololc) fenoterold) sotalol e) pindolol

Name respiratory analeptics:a) aminophillineb) bemegridc) nikethamide. d) camphor

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e) prenoxdiazine

Name the reasons of morphine used for pulmonary edema:a) cause bronchodilationb) relief of anxietyc) diuretic effect d) - increases peripheral vasodilatation e) causes vasoconstriction

Name antitussive drugs:a) aminophillineb) glaucinec) xcodeine d) mucaltin e) bromhexine

Name expectorant drugs:a) ambroxolb) glaucinec) codeine d) mucaltin e) bromhexine

Name opioids antitussives:a) codeine phosphateb) glaucinac) prenoxdiazine d) pronilide) ethylmorphine

Indicate drugs used to treat bronchial asthma:a) isoprenalineb) orciprenalinec) pentoxiverined) pronilide) prenoxdiazine

Name side effects of aminophylline:a) Arrythmia b) Sudden death c) Depression d) Insomniae) Gastric irritation

Indicate antiallergic drugs used to treat asthma:a) terfenadineb) loratadinec) astemizoled) platifilinăe) fenoterol

Indicate effective drugs in bronchial asthma:184

a) ipratropiumb) aminophyllinec) salbutamold) propranolole) strophantin

Following drugs directly activate the respiratory center: a) Bemegride b) Caffeine c) Aethymizole d) Cytitone) Salbutamol

Which of these groups of drugs is used for asthma treatment? a) Methylxanthines b) M-cholinoblocking agents c) Beta2 -stimulants d) Alfa1-stimulantse) M-cholinomimetic agents

Choose anti-asthma agents that act in part by activating pulmonary beta-receptors thus increasing cAMP:a) salbutamolb) methoxaminec) cromolynd) terbutalinee) ipratropium

Choose methylxantines used in bronchial asthma therapy:a) theophyllineb) cyclosporinec) metaproterenold) aminophyllinee) ipratropium bromide

Pick out the bronchodilator drug related to xanthine: a) Atropineb) Orciprenaline c) Adrenaline d) Theophyllinee) Aminophylline

Name drugs that decrease the release of mediators ( histamine, other ABS) from mast cell. (Stabilization of mast cells):a) glucocorticoidsb) salbutamolc) sodium cromoglicated) epinephrinee) cyclosporine

The mechanisms of methylxanthines action are: a) Inhibition of the enzyme phosphodiesterase (high doses)

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b) Beta2 -adrenoreceptor stimulationc) Inhibition of the production of inflammatory cytokines d) Inhibition of M-cholinoreceptorse) Inhibition of adenosine receptors

All of the following drugs are inhaled glucocorticoids: a) Triamcinolone b) Beclometazone c) Sodium cromoglycate d) Budesonidee) Ketotifen Choose the drug belonging to membranestabilizing agents: a) Zileuton b) Sodium cromoglycatec) Zafirlucast d) Montelucaste) Ketotifen

Indicate the drug which is a leucotriene receptor antagonist: a) Sodium cromoglycate b) Zafirlucast c) Zileuton d) Triamcinolonee) Montelucast

Which of the following drugs are inhibitors of leukotrienes' receptors? a) Montelukast b) Zileuton c) Ibuprofend) Diclofenac e) Zafirlukast

Indicate pharmacological characteristic for isoprenaline:a) stimulates beta1 and beta2 adrenergic receptorsb) stimulates just beta1 adrenoreceptorsc) produces tachycardia, palpitations, and tremord) is contraindicated in bronchial asthmae) can be used in aerosols in bronchial asthma crisis

Indicate pharmacological characteristic for theophylline:a) is from methylxanthines b) is an ergot alkaloid derivativec) has bronchodilator action, stimulates the heart and CNSd) is contraindicated in bronchial asthmae) is a synthetic catecholamine stimulates beta1 and beta2 adrenergic receptors

Explain the pharmacological effects of glucocorticoids used in bronchial asthma treatment:a) have marked anti-inflammatory effectb) decrease bronchi edema and bronchial secretion

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c) inhibits the respiratory systemd) promotes the synthesis of lipocortine) increase bronchial edema and bronchial secretion

Indicate pharmacological peculiarities for codeine:a) is an opiate drug b) inhibits the cough center of the bulbc) inhibit the vagus nerve centerd) possesses analgesic effect e) possesses antipyretic action

Indication for antitussive drugs: a) cough in rib fracturesb) bronchitis with wet coughc) cough in open pneumothoraxd) cough in pulmonary tumore) pneumonia with wet cough

What drugs excites sino carotid reflexogenic zone?a) caffeineb) niketamidăc) cititond) lobelinee) bemegride

Indicate expectorant drugs:a) mucaltinb) sodium hydrocarbonatec) potassium iodided) codeinee) morphine

Indicate pharmacological characteristics for prenoxidiazine:a) inhibits the cough centerb) depresses the reflex of cough by acting peripherallyc) antitussive effect is equivalent to codeine’sd) antitussive effect is less than codeine’se) causes tolerance and drug addiction

Name preparations effective in status asthmaticus:a) disodium cromoglycateb) aminophyllinec) diazepam d) dexamethasonum e) ketotifenum

Which of the following drugs are not 5-lipoxygenase (5-LOG) inhibitors? a) Diclofenacb) Metamizolec) Zileutond) Ibuprofene) Zafirlukast

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Which of the following drugs are leucotreine D4 receptor (LTD) blockers? a) Diclofenacb) Zafirleukastc) Zileutond) Ibuprofene) Montelukast

Which of these groups of drugs are used for asthma treatment? a) Methylxanthines b) M-cholinoblocking agents c) Beta2 -stimulants d) Beta blockerse) M cholinomimetics

Which of the following drugs are used in treatment of bronchial asthma?a) Zafirlukastb) Diclofenacc) Zileuton d) Salbutamole) Propranolol

Indicate disodium chromoglycate pharmacodynamic properties:a) inhibits mast cell degranulationb) blocks M- cholinoreceptorsc) inhibits the influx of calcium into the celld) decreases release histamine and other mediators of allergic reactionse) stimulates beta-2-adrenoceptors

Choose indications for disodium chromoglycatea) prevention of acute bronchospasm b) status astmaticusc) prevention and relief of nasal allergiesd) hyperaldosteronism type 1e) to prevent the acute transplant rejection 

What are the mechanisms of bronchodilator action of aminophylline?a) the stimulation of beta-2-adrenergic receptorsb) blocking adenosine receptorsc) antagonizing the factor of platelet aggregationd) toxic doses inhibit phosphodiesterase e) stimulation adenilaciclazei

What is the mechanism of action of disodium cromoglycate to treat asthma?a) prevents calcium influx into cellsb) causes adrenergic stimulation c) is a musculotropic bronchodilator d) antagonizes the action of histamine on bronchie) prevent mast cell degranulation

What preparations are preferred for mild bronchial asthma accesses?188

a) disodium cromoglycateb) indomethacinec) ketotifend) salbutamole) terbutaline

Indicate the pharmacological effects of aminophylline:a) antiarrhythmicb) cardiostimulatorc) hypertensived) diuretice) bronchodilator

Name inhaled glucocorticoids:a) Triamcinolone b) Beclometazonec) Sodium cromoglycated) Budesonidee) Prednesolone

Inhibitors of cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterases (enzymes that degrade cyclic AMP):a) theophyllineb) caffeinec) carbachold) aspartatee) aminophylline

Name mecanisms of antihypertenisve effects:a) Sympatic vegetative ganglia paralises b) beta 1 adrenoblocking actionc) alfa 1 adrenostimulating actiond) beta 2 adrenoblocking actione) alfa adrenoblocking action In hypertensive emergencies are used:a) Diltiazem b) Prazozine c) Reserpined) Phenylephrine e) Captopril

Total peripheral resistance (TPR) is a determining factor for mean arterial pressure. What are correct relationships between norepinephrine, minoxidil, and lisinopril and TPR?a) Minoxidil : TPR increasesb) Fosinopril : TPR increasesc) Norepinephrine : TPR increasesd) Phenoxybenzamine : TPR increasese) Minoxidil : TPR decreases

Name antihypertensive mechanisms:a) paralyzation of the vegetative sympathetic ganglions

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b) elective stimulation of alpha 1-adrenergic receptorsc) paralyzation of the sympathetic-peripheric terminalsd) elective blocking of alpha-adrenergic receptorse) blocking of beta-adrenergic receptors

Name antihypertensive drugs:a) alpha- adrenoblockers b) alpha- adrenomimeticsc) beta- adrenoblockersd) alpha-2-central adrenomimeticse) sympathomimetics

Name sympapholitics:a) rezerpine b) caproprilc) phentolamined) guanethidine e) prazosine

Name Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors:a) lisionoprilb) caproprilc) phentolamined) enalapril e) enalkiren

Concerning the use of ACE (angiotensin-converting-enzyme ) inhibitors in heart disease:a) reduces efficacy of diuretic treatment requiring higher diuretic dosagesb) contraindicated in hypertensive patients with hypertrophic left ventricles c) reduces aldosteron leveld) contraindicated in diabetic patients e) benefits due to reduction in circulating angiotensin II levels

Name rennin inhibitors:a) lisionoprilb) remikirenc) phentolamined) enalapril e) enalkiren

Name angiotensin II receptor blockers:a) losartanb) remikirenc) phentolamined) valsartane) enalkiren

Angiotensin II receptor antagonist:a) saralasyneb) phenoxybenzaminec) methyldopa d) losartan

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e) captopril

Orthostatic (postural) hypotension is produced by:a) ganglionic blockerb) dopamine receptor activationc) alpha receptor blockerd) alpha receptor activatione) beta receptor activation

Most likely to increase blood pressure:a) norepinephrineb) timololc) phenylephrined) propranolol e) captopril

Decreases blood pressurea) prazosineb) phentolaminec) phenylephrined) trimetaphane) propranolol

Calcium channel blockers with predominantly vascular effects:a) diltiazemb) nicardipine c) verapamild) nifedipine e) amlodipine

Centrally-acting antihypertensive drug:a) moxonidineb) captopril c) methoxamine d) clonidinee) sodium nitroprusside

Name izothyoureic derivates:a) izoturonb) dopaminec) izoprenalined) profeture) difetur

Name vasoconstrictors with central action:a) niketamideb) camphorc) sulfocamphocained) epinephrinee) izoturon

Name alkaloids from Ergot:191

a) ergotalb) angiotensinamidec) ergotamine tartrated) epinephrinee) dihydroergotamine

Name effects of clonidine: a) antihypertentionb) antihypotentionc) analgesic d) psychostimulant e)  sedation

Antihypertensive: action based on inhibition of norepinephrine release from adrenergic nerve endings:a) brethiliumb) phentolaminec) hexamethoniumd) reserpinee) propranolol

Choose antihypertensive agents:a) methyldopab) guanethidinec) carbidopad) epinephrinee) reserpine

Usual adverse effects of vasodilating, antihypertensive drugs:a) headacheb) bradycardiac) angina pectori d) reflex tachycardiae) syncope

Adverse effects associated with ACE (angiotensin-converting-enzyme) inhibitor use:a) hypokaliemiab) dry coughc) angioedemad) proteinuriae) hyperkalaemia

Indications for Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors:a) treatment of hypertentionb) treatment of hypotentionc) treatment of bronchial asthma d) treatment of familiar hyperkalemiae) treatment of cardiac failure

ACE (angiotensin-converting-enzyme) inhibitors:a) trandolapril

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b) methyldopac) timolol d) captoprile) nifedipine

Vasoconstriction, aldosterone secretion, and renin release suppression occur upon activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. How would captopril affect these responses?a) block ACE (angiotensin-converting-enzyme)b) blocks all except vasoconstrictionc) blocks only vasoconstrictiond) decrease angiotensine II synthesis e) blocks only aldosterone secretion

Calcium channel blocker: vasodilation, less likely to have direct cardiac effects:a) nimodipineb) amlodipinec) verapamild) diltiazeme) nifedipine Choose antihypertensive drugs belonging to the same class:a) lisinoprilb) clonidinec) verapamil d) nifedipinee) doxazosin

Name advers effects of nifedipine:a) hypertentionb) reflex tachycardiac) hypotensiond) bradycardia e) constipation

Name adverse effects of verapamil:a) AV-blockb) reflex tachycardiac) low blood pressured) bradycardia e) dry cough

Why should be avoided association between beta-blockers and verapamil?a) promote bronchoconstrictionb) both acting negative inotropically c) produce angina pectoris d) depress A-V node conductivity e) promote peripheral vascular spasms

Name drugs causing bradycardia having both antianginal and antiarrhythmic effects:a) propranololb) isosorbide dinitrate

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c) nitroglycerined) nifedipinee) verapamil

Indicate antiarrhythmics acting on the innervation of the heart:a) procainamideb) propranololc) quinidined) phenytoine) atenolol

Name class I A antiarrhythmic drugs:a) verapamilb) procainamide c) lidocaine d) metoprolole) quinidine

Name class I B antiarrhythmic drugs:a) verapamilb) procainamide c) lidocaine d) metoprolole) phenytoine

Name groups af drugs with antiarrhythmic propierties:a) alpha-blockersb) beta-blockersc) potassium channel blockersd) calcium channel blockerse) sodium channel blockers Antiarrhythmic drugs classified as sodium channel blockers:a) amiodaroneb) verapamilc) lidocaine d) procainamide e) quinidine gluconate Quinidine: mechanism(s)/properties of antiarrhythmic activity:a) slow rate of rise of phase 0b) prolong repolarization c) activates beta-receptorsd) activates K channelse) block sodium channel Prominent quinidine-mediated actions at receptors:a) nicotinic agonistb) H1 antagonistc) alpha adrenergic antagonistd) muscarinic, cholinergic antagonist

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e) beta adrenergic agonist

Correct match(es) between antiarrhythmic drugs and side effects:a) verapamil: tachycardiab) propranolol: bronchospasmc) lidocaine: CNS-related side effects including paresthesiasd) quinidine: diarrhea, cinchonisme) metoprolol: tachycardia

Agent(s) may be effective in terminating paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)?a) propranololb) dobutaminec) verapamild) atropinee) epinephrine

Useful in treating third-degree (complete) heart block:a) digoxineb) isoprenalinec) lidocained) edrophoniume) atropine

Common drugs that induce AV block include:a) digoxinb) beta-blockersc) atropined) isoprenalinee) calcium channel blockers (verapamil)

Procainamide side effects:a) tachycardiab) hypertensionc) drug-induced lupusd) hypotensione) bradycardia

Choose class I antiarrhythmic drugs:a) Quinidine gluconate b) Lidocainec) Flecainide d) Verapamil e) Adenosine Procainamide side effects:a) Nauseab) Hypotensionc) Drug-induced lupusd) Tachycardiae) Hypertension

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Antiarrhythmic drugs classified as sodium channel blockers:a) Quinidine gluconate b) Procainamide c) Phenytoin d) Verapamil e) Adenosine

Quinidine gluconate : mechanism(s)/properties of antiarrhythmic activity:a) Inhibition of sodium channelb) Depression of conduction velocityc) Reduced excitabilityd) Activation of sodium channel e) Activated calcim channel blockade

Quinidine gluconate : major clinical use:a) Atrial fibrillationb) Atrial flutterc) Ventricular tachycardiad) AV blocke) Cardiac arrest

Name arrhythmics:a) verapamilb) enalaprilc) metoprolold) mexiletinee) amiodarone

Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for lidocaine:a) has tropism to certain tissuesb) calcium channel blockerc) sodium channel blockerd) can cause neuropsychiatric adverse reactions (in high doses)e) peros bioavailability is reduced, and as a result is administered parenteraly

The following are true with regard to lidocaine:a) is local anestheticb) x is antiarrhythmic drug c) is diuretic drugd) it slows the heart by producing beta-adrenoceptor blockadee) it is effective in the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias

The following are true about lidocaine: a) it has a local anaesthetic action lasting for about 2 daysb) is more active if injected into an inflameted areac) inhibits the rapid influx of sodium ions into excitable cellsd) its action is prolonged by the concurrent use of epinephrine e) has antiarhythmic effetc

Characteristics of lidocaine:a) used to treat ventricular arythmia b) is opiod analgesic

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c) common side effects include sleepiness, muscle twitching, confusiond) is an antiarrhythmic medication e) used in infectous diseases

Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for lidocaine:a) is the choice in ventricular arrhythmiasb) sodium channel blockerc) potassium chanel blocker d) calcium channel blocker e) shorten the repolarization

Indicate pharmacological characteristics for verapamil:a) is calcium channel blocker b) has a depressing action on the myocardiumc) increased therapeutic efficacy in heart failured) works by blocking the potassium channelse) causes bradycardia

The action of calcium blockers (verapamil) on the heart:a) bradycardia;b) automatism diminishingc) contractility diminishing;d) contractility increasing;e) automatism increasing;

Calcium channel blocker(s) most likely to affect myocardial contractility and AV conduction:a) nimodipineb) nicardipine c) verapamild) nifedipinee) diltiazem

Agents which decreased ventricular performance:a) theophyllineb) metoprolol c) cardiac glycosidesd) caffeinee) diltiazem

Indicate pharmacological characteristics of amiodarone:a) block membrane sodium channels b) membrane potassium channel blockerc) antiarrhythmic and antianginal effects d) disrupts thyroid functione) is commonly associated with beta-blockers and verapamil

Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for phenytoin:a) Class 1 antiarrhythmicb) is used in digitalis overdose-induced arrhythmiasc) is useful in the combination with acetylsalicylic acidd) is used in the treatment of epilepsy

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e) is calcium channel blocker

Name reserpine indications:a) mild to moderate hypertensionb) depressionc) peptic ulcerd) diarrheic syndromee) alcoholic psychosis

Indicate pharmacological characteristic for raviten:a) is an isothiourea derivativeb) hypertensive effect through direct action on the vascular wallc) decreases and body temperature, and oxygen consumption by the organismd) excites alpha1-adrenoceptorse) non-peptide selective inhibitor interacting with the active center of the rennin

Name centrally acting antihypertensive drugs:a) clonidineb) sodium nitroprussidec) capropril d) prazosine e) methyldopa

Common adverse effects of clonidine are:a) Orthostatic hypotensionb) Somnolencec) Diarrhea d) Reflex tachycardia e) Xerostomia

Adverse effects associated with clonidine:a) euphoriab) tachycardia c) sedationd) dry mouthe) anxiety

Clonidine mechanism of action:a) stimulating presynaptic α2 receptors in the brainb) inhibiting presynaptic α2 receptors in the brainc) inhibiting the release of norepinephrine (NE)d) stimulating the release of norepinephrine (NE)e) inhibiting presynaptic beta 2 receptors

Name systemic vasoconstrictor drugs groups:a) alpha-adrenomimeticsb) beta-adrenomimeticsc) alpha, beta-adrenoblockersd) isothiourea derivativese) alpha, beta-adrenomimetics

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Name antihypertensive preparations which acts presynaptically:a) clonidineb) reserpinec) propranolold) guanethidinee) hydralazine

Indicate pharmacological characteristic for captopril:a) increases blood pressureb) acting on the angiotensin receptorsc) lower blood pressured) decreases the angiotensin II level e) inhibit converting enzyme

Indicate hypotensives from alpha1-adrenoblockers:a) clonidineb) terazosinc) prazosind) propranolole) hydralazine

Name drugs with nitrovasodilatator mechanism:a) nitroglycerineb) molsidominec) sodium nitroprussided) nitrazepame) nitrofurantoin

Name antianginal drugs which may cause tachycardia:a) propranololb) nifedipinec) isosorbide dinitrated) nitroglycerinee) verapamil

Indicate the mechanisms of action of antianginal drugs:a) reducing the work of the heartb) reduction of cardiac pre and afterload c) decrease in cytoplasmic calciumd) increased sympathetic tonee) coronary dilatation

Name mechanisms of action of antianginal drugs:a) coronary dilatationb) decrease sympathetic tonec) reducing the work of the heartd) increased cardiac afterload and preload e) increase in cytoplasmic calcium

Drugs clinically used for management of angina:a) metoprolol

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b) nadolol c) glycerold) propranolol e) salbutamol

Drug effects that may prevent/terminate angina: a) negative chronotropic drugsb) peripheral vasodilatorsc) negative inotropic drugsd) positive chronotropic drugse) coronary vasodilators

Toxicities associated with nitrates:a) hypotensive reactionsb) drug rashc) dizzinessd) hypertensione) headaches caused by meningeal vascular dilatation

Antianginal action of calcium channel blockers:a) decreased myocardial wall tensionb) coronary artery dilatationc) reduced afterloadd) increased preloade) negative inotropism Mechanism basis/bases for antianginal effects of beta-blockers:a) increased preloadb) decreased contractilityc) increased automatism d) increased blood pressure e) decreased heart rate Calcium channel blocker(s) that cause tachycardia and are most likely to worsen myocardial ischemia:a) nimodipine b) diltiazem c) nicardipine d) verapamile) amlodipine

Main clinical uses of calcium channel blockers are:a) Angina pectoris b) Hypertension c) Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias d) A-V blocke) Hypotension

Ca channels blocker are:a) Diltiazem b) Verapamil

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c) Propranolol d) Ivabradinee) Labetolol

Characteristis of nitric oxide:a) increases cardiac contractility b) decreases blood pressure c) causes coronarodilationd) causes pulmonary vasoconstrictione) is also known as endothelium relaxing factor

Symptoms associated with nitrates:a) hypertensionb) tachycardiac) headached) hypotension e) bradycardia

Indicate the mechanisms of antianginal action of organic nitrites and nitrates:a) arterioconstriction and venous constrictionb) decrease heart preload and afterload c) decrease in cardiac oxygen consumption d) coronary dilatatione) increase the supply of oxygenated blood

Side effects associated with nitrates:a) Bradycardiab) Hypotensionc) Headached) Hypertensione) Diarrhea

Pharmacologic features of nitroprusside sodium:a) lead to vasoconstrictionb) nitric oxide activates guanylyl cyclasec) forms nitric oxided) forms methemoglobine) lead to vasodilation

Cardiovascular effects of nitroglycerin:a) increased systemic vascular resistanceb) reduced systemic vascular resistancec) ameliorates circulation in the ischemic areasd) negative inotropic and chronotropic effectse) significant reflex tachycardia

Indicate side effects of organic nitrites:a) hypertension b) headache c) hypotensiond) reflex tachycardiae) tolerance

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Indicate pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for nitroglycerin:a) is an organic nitrateb) is a volatile explosive liquid c) used in angina pectoris accesses d) is used just sublinguallye) to avoid the sublingual use

Indicate the effects of organic nitrates:a) coronary dilatationb) arterio dilation c) afterload reductiond) venous constrictione) preload reduction

Name antianginal molecular mechanisms of action of nitrites and nitrates:a) stimulates guanylate cyclaseb) reduce the level of cGMPc) increase the concentration of cGMPd) blocks the receptors for nitrous oxidee) inhibit adenosine deaminase

Name antianginal preparations which may cause tachycardia:a) propranololb) nifedipinec) isosorbide dinitrated) nitroglycerinee) verapamil

Drugs clinically used for management of angina:a) Atenolol b) Propranolol c) Salbutalol d) Metoprolol e) Cholecalcipherol All these drug groups useful in angina both decrease myocardial oxygen requirement and increase myocardial oxygen delivery: a) Nitroglycerinb) Isosorbide dinitratec) Atenolold) Metoprolole) Alinidine

Which of the following statements concerning nitrate mechanism of action is true? a) Therapeutically active agents in this group are capable of releasing nitric oxide (NO) in to vascular smooth muscle target tissues b) Nitric oxide (NO) is an effective activator of soluble guanylyl cyclase and probably acts mainly through this mechanism c) Nitrates useful in angina decrease myocardial oxygen requirementand increase myocardial oxygen deliveryd) Nitrates useful in angina only decrease myocardial oxygen requirement

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e) Nitrates useful in angina only increase myocardial oxygen delivery The following statements concerning mechanism of nitrate beneficial clinical effect are true: a) Decreased myocardial oxygen requirement b) Relief of coronary artery spasm c) Improved perfusion to ischemic myocardium d) Increased myocardial oxygen consumption e) Decreased myocardial oxygen delivery

Side effect of nitrates and nitrite drugs are: a) Orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia b) Bradycardia c) Throbbing headache d) Tolerancee) Orthostatic hypertension

The following statements concerning antianginal mechanism of calcium channel blockers' action are true: a) are capable of releasing nitric oxide (NO) in vascular smooth muscle target tissues b) bind to L-type calcium channel sites c) decrease myocardial oxygen requirement and increase myocardial oxygen deliveryd) decrease transmembrane calcium current associated in smooth muscle with long-lasting relaxation and in a cardiac muscle with a reduction in contractility e) bind to T-type calcium channel sites

Which of the following antianginal agents are calcium channel blockers? a) Nitroglycerin b) Dipyridamolec) Minoxidil d) Amlodipine e) Verapamil

Which of the following antianginal agents is a beta-adrenoreceptor-blocking drug: a) Dipyridamole b) Validol c) Atenolol d) Alinidine e) Propranolol

The following agents are cardioselective beta1-adrenoreceptor-blocking drugs labeled for use in angina: a) Metoprolol b) Talinolol c) Atenolol d) Propranolole) Nadolol

Which of the following antianginal agents is the specific bradycardic drug: a) Dipyridamole b) Validol c) Pentoxiphylline

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d) Alinidine e) Falipamil

Name organic nitrates: a) nifedipineb) nitroglycerin c) sustac mite d) trinitrolonge) minoxidil

Name classes of drugs used to treat angina pectoris:a) alfa-adrenomimeticsb) beta-adrenomimeticsc) beta adrenoblockersd) organic nitratese) Ca channel blocking drugs

Effects of Ca channel-blocking drugs (nifedipine):a) decrease calcium influx into smooth muscleb) increase calcium influx into smooth musclec) cause vascular relaxationd) cause vascular contraction e) cause reflex tachycardia

What are the adverse effects of nitrates?a) flushing (do to vasodilation)b) tachycardiac) hypotentiond) hypertentione) headache

What are the adverse effects of nitrates?a) met-hemoglobinaemiab) tolerance c) reflex tachycardiad) bradycardia e) hypertention

What are the therapeutic uses for beta blockers?a) angina pectorisb) hypertensionc) tachyarrhythmiasd) bradyarrhythmiae) atrioventricular block

What type of cardiovascular side effects do beta blockers have?a) hypotensionb) hypertensionc) tachycardia d) bradycardia e) atrioventricular block

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List drugs that are beta blockers:a) metoprololb) validolc) propranolold) trinitrolonge) salbutamol

List contraindication for beta blockers:a) angina pectorib) hypertensionc) tachyarrhythmiasd) atrioventricular blocke) decompensated cardiac failure

List effects of nitrates:a) increase heart rateb) increase the supply off blood flowc) decrease preload and afterloadd) increase blood pressuree) decrease heart rate

List effects of beta blockers:a) increase heart rateb) increase diastole duration c) decrease cardiac contractility d) increase blood pressuree) decrease heart rate

List Beta blockers contraindications:a) hypertentionb) systolic heart failurec) peripheral vascular diseased) angina pectorise) diabetes mellitus

Name chemical classes of calcium channel blockers:a) benzodiazepinesb) phenylalkylaminesc) benzothiazepinesd) dihydropyridinese) methylxanthines

List adverse effects of calcium channel blockers:a) hypertentionb) peripheral edemac) hypotensiond) tachycardia or bradycardiae) bronchospasm

Drugs used to treat migraine: a) nitrates b) triptans

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c) ergot alkaloidsd) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugse) beta blockers

Name cerebral vasodilators:a) nicergolineb) nitroglycerinec) cinnarizined) vinpocetinee) niketamide

Indicate the group of drugs from cerebral vasodilators:a) Ca-channel blockers b) Antispastic drugsc) Loop diureticsd) Organic nitrates e) Derivatives of Vinca minor plant

The following Ergot derivative is used for treatment of acute migraine attack: a) Paracetamolb) Sumatriptan c) Ergotamine d) Metoclopramide e) Methylergometrine

The following indol derivatives are used for treatment of acute migraine attack: a) Paracetamolb) Sumatriptan c) Ergotamine d) Metoclopramidee) Zolmitriptan

Indicate groups of drugs classified as influencing the cerebral flow: a) Ca2+-channel blockers b) Derivatives of GABA c) Derivatives of Vinca minor plant d) K+-channel blockerse) Benzidiazepines

Indicate the drugs which are Ca2+-channel blockers influencing the cerebral blood flow: a) Aminalon (Gama aminobutiric acid)b) Nimodipinec) Cinnarizine d) Heparin e) Vinpocetine

Indicate the drugs influencing the blood flow in the brain - derivatives of GABA: a) Aminalon (Gama aminobutiric acid)b) Picamilon c) Nimodipined) Heparine) Vinpocetine

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Indicate the drugs - Vinca minor alcaloids:a) Nicergoline b) Warfarin c) Cinnarizine d) Vinpocetine e) Vincamine

The following indol derivatives are used for treatment of acute migraine attack: a) Paracetamolb) Sumatriptan c) Ergotamine d) Metoclopramide e) Zolmitriptan

What are the therapeutic benefits of tonicardiacs in heart failure?a) reduce tachycardiab) positive inotropic actionc) increase in cardiac outputd) vasoconstrictor action e) batmotropic positive action

Indicate drugs that can be used in heart failure:a) drugs which lower the contractile force of the myocardiumb) vasodilating drugsc) diureticsd) beta-2 adrenomimeticse) converting enzyme inhibitors

Indicate adverse effects characteristic for digitalis:a) bradycardiab) anorexia, nausea, vomitingc) headache, confusiond) mydriasis and hyposalivatione) visual disturbances

ECG finding(s) consistent with digitalis intoxication include:a) PQ decreseb) third degree heart blockc) sinus bradycardiad) ectopic A-V junctional beatse) PQ increase

Symptoms of digitalis toxicity include the following:a) tachycardiab) yellow halos around lights (xanthopsia)c) bradycardiad) no vision affection e) hallucinations

Positive inotropic agent - phosphodiesterase inhibitor:a) milrinone

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b) dopamine c) amrinone d) digoxin e) dobutamine

The non-glycoside positive inotropic drugs are: a) Digoxin b) Strophantin Kc) Dobutamine d) Digitoxin e) Amrinone

Primary chemical components of digoxine:a) fat residuesb) sugar residuesc) steroid nucleusd) lactic acid residuese) lactone ring

Cardiac glycosides: principal mechanism of action:a) increases vagal nerve activityb) inhibits calcium transportc) inhibits Na/K ATPase d) activates myocardial leukotrienese) blocks beta-adrenergic receptors

Which of the following agents belong to cardiac glycosides?a) Digoxin b) Strophantin K c) Amrinone d) Digitoxin e) Adoniside

Choose derivatives of the plant Foxglove (Digitalis): a) Digoxin b) Strophantin K c) Dobutamine d) Amrinone e) Digitoxin

All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycosides are true:a) They inhibit the Na+/K+-ATPase and thereby increase intracellular Ca2+ in myocardial cells b) They inhibit the H+/K+-ATPase from parietal cellc) They inhibit the Na+ K+ Cl- from loop Henled) The most frequent cause of digitalis intoxication in concomitant administration with diuretics that deplete K+

e) They activate the Na+/K+-ATPase All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycosides are true:a) They inhibit the activity of the Na+/K+-ATPase b) They decrease intracellular concentrations of calcium in myocytesc) They increase vagal tone

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d) They have a very low therapeutic indexe) They increase the tone of sympathetic system

All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycosides are true: a) Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside of medium duration of actionb) Digoxin increases vagal tonec) Digoxin has a longer half-life than digitoxin d) Digoxin acts by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase e) Amrinone acts by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase

The manifestations of glycosides intoxication are: a) Visual changes b) AV block c) Gastrointestinal disturbances d) Pseudomembranous colitise) Atrial tachyarrhythmias

For treatment of digitalis-induced arrhythmias are used the following drugs: a) Quinidine b) Phenytoin c) Lidocaine d) Propanolol e) Procainamide

Symptoms of digitalis toxicity: a) disturbed color visionb) nauseac) poliuriad) hypertensione) first-degree A-V block

Useful in managing serious ventricular arrhythmias due to digitalis overdosage: a) metoprololb) phenytoin c) phenylephrined) adenosinee) potassium administration

Indicate effects characteristic for cardiac glycosides:a) negative inotropicb) negative dromotropicc) negative chronotropicd) positive dromotropice) positive inotropic

Indicate effects at the therapeutic doses of digoxin in the heart:a) intensification of the force of contractions of the heartb) bradycardiac) slowing of impulse transmission through the conducting system of the heartd) tachycardiae) decrease heart automaticity

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Specify mechanism of action of the cardotonic glycosides:a) inhibits phosphodiesteraseb) inhibits adenylate cyclasec) inhibits Na + K-ATPased) increases calcium concentration in cellse) decreases calcium concentration in cells

How is modified the concentration of free ions in cardiomyocytes under the influence of cardiac glycosides?a) increases the content of potassium ionsb) is reduced potassium ion contentc) increases the content of magnesium ionsd) increases the content of calcium ionse) is reduced content of calcium ions

Name cardiac glycosides indications:a) acute heart failureb) supraventricular tachyarrhythmiasc) bradycardiad) anginae) chronic heart failure

Name cardiac glycosides indications:a) ventricular tachycardiab) supraventricular tachyarrhythmiasc) acute and chronic heart failured) acute myocarditise) Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome

The remedies used in intoxication with cardiac glycosides:a) potassium chlorideb) unitiolc) phenytoind) digoxinee) strophantine

The symptoms of cardiac glycosides intoxication:a) bradycardiab) tachycardiac) altered color vision (xanthopsia)d) broncospasm e) hyperpotasiemia

Drug classes used in management of heart failure:a) diuretics b) NSAIDsc) glycozidesd) alpha1 adrenergic agonistse) bipyridines

Effect(s) of circulating catecholamines on cardiac function:210

a) negative dromotropismb) reduced contractilityc) negative chronotropismd) increased cardiac output e) positive chronotropism

Example(s) of drugs that improve ventricular performance:a) procainamideb) amrinonec) xmilrinoned) propranolole) levosimendan

Cardiac glycosides are still in use today to treat:a) bronchial asthma b) cardiac failure c) atrial fibrillation or flutterd) angyna pectori e) acute hypertention

Name the modifications on ECG produced by cardiac glycosides in therapeutical doses:a) no essential modifications b) decrease of R-Rc) low amplitude of Rd) high amplitude of Re) increasing of R-R

Name non glycosides cardiotonics:a) amrinoneb) corglycon c) milrinoned) digoxinee) strophantine

Choose the positive inotropic drug of glycoside structure: a) Dopamine b) Digoxin c) Dobutamined) Adrenalin e) Strophantine Choose the positive inotropic drug of non-glycoside structure: a) Digitoxin b) Digoxin c) Dobutamine d) Strophanthin e) Milrinone

Name steroid glycosides:a) amrinoneb) corglycon c) milrinone

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d) digoxinee) strophantine

List nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) dihydroergotamine mesylateb) sumatriptanc) ibuprofen d) diclofenace) caffeine

List triptans mechanism of action:a) 5HT1b/1d agonist in vasculatureb) antagonist of D2 receptorsc) vasoconstriction of intracranial blood vessels. d) vasodilatation of intracranial blood vessels. e) block calcium channels

Name cardiac glycosides indications:a) ventricular tachycardiab) supraventricular tachyarrhythmiasc) acute and chronic heart failured) acute myocarditise) Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome

Name selective inhibitors of myocardial phosphodiesterase III:a) theophyllineb) dobutaminec) aminophyllined) amrinonee) milrinone

Note the mechanisms of action of cardiotonic digitalis:a) the inhibition of Na + / K + ATPaseb) the stimulation of Na + / K + ATPasec) increase in cytoplasmic Ca2 + in cardiac fiberd) inhibiting the release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2 +e) pacemaker stimulation

Name orexygenic drugs: a) Vitamins b) Bitters c) Amfepramone d) Insulin e) Carnitine

Name drugs that stimulate appetite:a) Insulinb) Bitters c) Sibutramined) Vitamins e) Amphetamine

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List remedies with orexigenic effect:а) cyproheptadineб) amphetamineв) phenfluramineг)insulin д) amitryptiline

Indicate pharmacodynamic properties of cyproheptadine:a) possesses anticholinergic actionb) possesses H1-antihistamine action c) possesses antiserotonin actiond) excite the receptors of mouthe) decreases blood glucose

Indicate the mechanisms of action of bitter staff:a) reflex stimulate hunger centerb) increase appetite as a result of direct action on hunger centerc) stimulates the pancreas functiond) decreases the elimination of bilee) affect reflectory the central nervous system, which signals the gut to release digestive hormones that stimulate appetite

Name the preparations that increase the appetite:a) amfepranoneb) insulinc) sibutramine d) bitter stuffse) mazindol

Name cyproheptadine indications:a) gastric ulcerb) allergic rhinitisc) gastritis d) obesitye) anorexia

Name the antacid preparations:a) Magnesium trisilicateb) Atropinec) Magnesium oxided) Sodium bicarbonatee) Sucralfate

What drugs are contraindicated in active peptic ulcer? a) phenylbutazoneb) pentazocinec) omeprazold) diazepame) acetylsalicylic acid

Name drugs that intensify gastrointestinal motility: 213

a) Papaverine b) Metoclopramide c) Domperidone d) Cisapride e) Neostygmine

Name the mechanism of antiemetic action of metoclopramide: a) H1 and H2-receptor blocking effect b) M-cholinoreceptor stimulating effect c) D2-dopamine receptor blocking effectd) 5-HT3-serotonin receptor blocking effect e) M-cholinoblocking effect

Name emetic drugs with reflex action: a) Ipecacuanha derivatives b) Apomorphine hydroclorid c) Chlorpromazine d) Metoclopramide e) Cuprum sulphate

Indicate emetics:a) Copper sulfateb) Chlorpromazinec) Pepsind) Diphenhydraminee) Apomorphine

Name antiemetics: a) Metoclopramideb) Ondansetron c) Chlorpromazined) Apomorphine hydrochloride e) Cuprum sulphate

Name drugs with antiemetic effect:a) Scopolamineb) Diphenhidraminec) Chlorpromazined) Cyproheptadinee) Amphetamine

Choose centrally-acting anti-emetics:a) thiethylperazineb) cholestyraminec) bismuth subsalicylated) chlorpromazinee) lidocaine

Indicate antivomiting preparations:a) apomorphineb) metoclopramide

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c) thiethylperazined) Paraffin oile) diphenhydramine

Name antacids:a) Misoprostol b) Magnesii oxydumc) Famotidined) Almagele) Omeprasole

Antacids are:a) sodium bicarbonateb) omeprazole c) almagel Ad) cimetidine e) atropine

Drug(s) used iin eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection:a) metronidazoleb) clarithromycinc) amoxicillind) remantadinee) tetracycline

Choose antacids that may cause constipation:a) aluminium hydroxidumb) aluminium carbonasc) almagel d) magnesii subcarbonase) magnesii oxydum

Choose antacids that may cause diarrhea :a) aluminium hydroxidumb) aluminium carbonasc) almagel d) magnesii subcarbonase) magnesii oxydum

Side Effects of antiacids are:a) Constipation (for Aluminum compounds)b) Diarrhea (for Magnesium compounds)c) Decreases absorption of other drugsd) Constipation (for Magnesium compounds)e) Diarrhea (for Aluminum compounds)

Indicate gastric preparations with antisecretory effect:a) omeprazoleb) sucralfatec) cimetidined) pirenzepinee) carbenoxolone

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List H2 histaminoblockers:a) famotidineb) omeprazolc) lansoprazol d) ranitidine e) cimetidine

List proton pump inhibitors:a) famotidineb) omeprazolc) lansoprazol d) ranitidine e) cimetidine

Indicate the main effects of atropine in duodenal ulcer:a) stimulates the secretion of gastric glandsb) increases the activity of pepsinc) contracts pyloric sphincter d) relaxeses pyloruse) decreases gastric secretion

Gastric acid secretion is under the control of the following agents:a) Histamine b) Acetylcholine c) Serotonin d) Gastrin e) Somatostatine

Remedies used in hyposecretion of digestive glands are:a) neostigmine b) atropinec) galantamine d) scopolaminee) cimetidine

Indicate the drug belonging to proton pump inhibitors: a) Pirenzepine b) Ranitidine c) Omeprazole d) Trimethaphan e) Pantoprazole

Pharmaological pecularities of omeprazole are:a) is a prodrug that needs a low pH to be activeb) irreversible inhibits proton pump c) is a competitive H2 receptor Antagonist;d) blocks all types of muscarinic receptorse) Chemically neutralizes stomach acid

Which of the following drugs is an agent of substitution (replacement) therapy? a) Gastrin

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b) Diluted hydrochloric acid c) Pepsind) Carbonate mineral waters e) Omeprazole

For substitution of gastric glands secretion are used:a) artificial gastric juiceb) natural gastric juicec) pepsind) omeprazole e) caffeine

Choose the drug which is a H2-receptor antagonist: a) Omeprazoleb) Pirenzepine c) Carbenoxolone d) Ranitidine e) Famotidine

Indicate pharmacodynamic properties of cimetidine:a) block H2 receptorsb) blocks M- receptorsc) increases the secretion of gastric juiced) H1-receptor blockinge) decreases the secretion of pepsin and HC

All of the following drugs are proton pump inhibitors:a) Pantoprozole b) Omeprazole c) Ketoconazoled) Rabeprazole e) Fluconazol

Indicate the drug belonging to M1-cholinoblockers: a) Cimetidineb) Ranitidinec) Pirenzepine d) Omeprazole e) Telenzepine

Selective M1 receptor antagonists are:a) pirenzepine b) atropine c) telenzepine d) scopolaminee) neostigmine

Choose the drug that causes constipation: a) Sodium bicarbonate b) Aluminium hydroxidec) Calcium carbonate d) Magnesium oxide

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e) Atropine

Are H2 receptor antagonist:a) mizoprostolb) nizatidinec) omeprazoled) ranitidinee) famotidine

Indicate adverse effects of cimetidine:a) inhibition of liver enzymesb) hypertentionc) hyperacidityd) tachycardiae) gynecomastia

Choose anti-ulcer agents that block proton generations by parietal cells:a) lansoprazoleb) bismuth compoundsc) ranitidine d) omeprazolee) sucralfate

Acting at prostaglandin EP3 receptors on parietal cells & on epithelial cells prostaglandin agonists inhibits:a) acid secretionb) gastrin releasec) pepsin secretiond) mucus secretione) mucosal blood flow

Acting at prostaglandin EP3 receptors on parietal cells & on epithelial cells prostaglandin agonists stimulates:a) acid secretionb) gastrin releasec) pepsin secretiond) mucus secretione) mucosal blood flow

Mechanism of Action of Proton Pump Inhibitors: a) bloc H2 histaminoreceptors b) Irreversibly bind to proton pump (H+/K+ ATPase enzyme) c) Preventing the movement of hydrogen ions from the parietal cell into the stomachd) bloc M3 cholinoreceptors e) contain alkaline ions that chemically neutralize stomach gastric acid

List indications of Proton Pump Inhibitors:a) aErosive esophagitisb) bZollinger-Ellison syndromec) cTreatment of H. pylori-induced ulcers; given with an antibioticd) dGastric carcinoma

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e) eViral hepatitis

Name the groups of substances that reduce the secretion of gastric juice:a) M-cholinoblockersb) antacid remediesc) antigastrinicesd) H2- histaminoreceptors blockerse) H1- histaminoreceptors blockers

Name gastroprotective drugs:a) famotidineb) omeprazolec) sucralfated) pirenzepinee) bismuth chelate

Name gastroprotectors:a) cimetidineb) bismuth saltsc) atropined) propanthelinee) sucralfate

Indicate pharmacological characteristic of sucralfate:a) weakly interacts with intact mucosab) extensively covers the ulcerc) is not absorbed and does not exert systemic effectsd) inhibits gastric acid secretione) possesses purgative effect

Name mechanism of action and effects of sucralfate a) protects the gastric and duodenal mucosa from acid/pepsin attackb) does not decrease the concentration or total amount of acid in the stomachc) It works by forming a protective layer on the ulcer to serve as a barrier against acidd) is weak base that neutralize HCl in the stomache) is synthetic Analog of Prostaglandin E1

Name gatroprotectors drugs that forms a paste-like membrane on the surface of ulcer:a) carbenoxoloneb) mizoprosolc) omeprazole d) bismuth subcitratee) sucralfate

Severe obesity may be treated by:a) cyproheptadineb) amphetaminec) phenfluramined) insulin e) amitryptiline

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List remedies used in pancreatic hypersecretion:a) x aprotinineb) atropine c) pancreatin d) abominee) festal

Drugs indicated in acute pancreatitis:a) aprotinineb) atropine c) neostigmined) tramadol e) natural gastric juice

List remedies used in inadequate pancreatic secretion:a) aprotinineb) atropine c) pancreatin d) abominee) festal

Name preparations used in pancreas hyposecretion as substitution:a) aprotininb) digestalc) misoprostol d) pancreatine) triferment

What are the mechanisms of action of aprotinin in acute pancreatitis?a) suppress the secretion of pancreatic juiceb) facilitates the excretion of pancreatic juice in the duodenumc) stimulates the activity of proteolytic enzymes in the bloodd) inhibits the proteolytic enzymes in the bloode) inhibits the proteolytic enzymes of pancreas

Name the drugs used in the treatment of chronic pancreatitis:a) panzinormb) trifermentc) bisacodyld) pancreatine) cimetidine

Indicate preparations for replacement therapy in hypoacidity of gastric juice:a) pepsinb) natural gastric juice c) artificial gastric juiced) atropinee) drotaverine

Indicate characteristic of pharmacological effects of magnesium oxide:a) in large doses have purgative action

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b) causes constipationc) works longer then sodium bicarbonate d) neutralizes the gastric juicee) acts momentanly

Are used in treatment of diarrhea:a) apomorphineb) loperamide c) diphenoxylate d) senadexine) bisacodil

Indicate pharmacological characteristic of castor oil:a) irritate the stomachb) irritate the bowelc) act in the small intestined) is activated by intestinal juicee) soften the feces by increasing its volume

Laxatives and purgatives can act through follow mechanisms:a) stimulates motility through an irritative mechanismb) stimulates direct cholinergic receptorsc) difussion growth plus active water and electrolytes secretiond) water retention in the intestines through hydrophilic and osmotic forcee) direct softening of defecation

Name the drugs with antidiarrheal properties:a) lopiramideb) abominec) atropined) morphinee) castor oil

Name 3 types of drugs with antidiarrheal properties:a) adsorbents, mucilaginous, opioidsb) opiates, absorbents, anticholinergics c) osmotic laxative, anticholinergics, stool softnersd) osmotic laxative, stimulants and contact laxatives, stool softnerse) cholinomimetics, stool softners, opiates 

Indicate neurotropic spasmolytics:a) papaverineb) atropinec) butylscopolamined) neostigminee) drotaverine

Indicate the pharmacodynamics of myotropic spasmolitics:a) H2-receptors stimulatesb) inhibits phosphodiesterasec) inhibits H2 receptorsd) increases the concentration of cAMP

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e) stimulates adenylate cyclase

Name hepatoprotective preparations:a) carbenoxoloneb) silymarinc) sucralfated) ademethioninee) liv-52

Name hepatoprotective preparations:a) silymarinb) abominec) LIV-52d) Essentiale) Almagel

Name the preparations from cholelitholytics group:a) cholosasb) ursodeoxycholic acidc) alochold) chenodeoxycholic acide) colenzim

List tensio-active drugs used for fighting flatulence:a) Dimethicone b) Pancreatin c) Almageld) Simethiconee) atropine

Indicate the mechanisms of action of loop diuretics:a) block thiol (SH) groups of the epithelial cells enzymes of ascending part of the loop of Henleb) inhibit energetic processes, diminishing the active absorption of Na, Cl and partially K ions. c) inhibits carbonic anhydrase as a secondary mechanismd) increases osmotic pressure in the blood vessel by attracting fluid bede) inhibit aldosterone receptors and prevent mineralocorticoid effects.

What are the main side effects of furosemide:a) retain uric acid in the bodyb) retain potassium in the bodyc) increases excretion of calcium ionsd) can cause hyperglycemiae) retain magnesium in the body

Indicate adverse effects of furosemide:a) ototoxicityb) hypercalcaemiac) dehydrationd) hipernatriemiee) hypokalaemia

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Adverse effect(s) associated with loop diuretics:a) hyperglycemiab) hyperuricemia c) hypercalcemiad) ototoxicitye) potassium depletion

Adverse effect(s) associated with thiazide diuretic use:a) hypercalcemiab) hyperglycemiac) ototoxicity d) potassium depletione) hyperuricemia

Characteristic of mannitol:a) is antagonist of aldosterone b) is indicated just in patient with cardiac failure c) is used just orallyd) decreases the vitreous volumee) can be given in acute glaucoma

List diuretics used to treat acute intoxication:a) spironolactoneb) mannitolc) triamterened) ureae) amiloride

Which of the following diuretics agents would be the LEAST apt to cause hypokalemic alkalosis?a) Furosemide b) Acetazolamide c) Triamterene d) Manitol e) Spironolactone

Which of the following diuretics agents would be apt to cause hypervolemia and hypertention at the beginning of the treatment?a) Furosemide b) Urea c) Triamterene d) Manitol e) Spironolactone

Indications for thiazides:a) Diabetes mellitusb) Diabetus insipitusc) Hypertensiond) Acute glaucomae) Conn's syndrome

Diuretics used to treat hypopotasemia:223

a) Furosemide b) Acetazolamidec) Triamterene d) Manitol e) Spironolactone

The following are true with regard to acetazolamide:a) is a medication used to treat glaucoma b) is a medication used to treat epilepsy c) is a medication used to treat altitude sicknessd) is a medication used to treat pulmonary edemae) is a medication used to treat acute intoxications

Choose properties of acetazolamide:a) decreases potassium secretionb) increases HCO-

3 eliminationc) may produce metabolic acidosisd) may produce metabolic alkalosise) inhibits carbonic anhydrase

Choose diuretics least likely to produce hypokalemia:a) chlortalidonb) amiloridc) furosemided) triamterenee) ethacrynic acid

Characteristics of mannitol:a) is a loop Henle diuretic b) is poorly absorbed from the gutc) is used in the treatment of cerebral oedemad) is completely filtered at the renal glomeruli and not reabsorbed from the renal tubulee) is carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

Which of the following statements about spironolactone is TRUE?a) Spironolactone reverses many of the manifestations of aldosteronismb) Spironolactone is also an androgen antagonist c) Spironolactone is useful as a diureticd) Spironolactone is useful as an anti diabetic agente) Spironolactone is useful as an anti gout drug Potassium sparing diuretic:a) acetazolamideb) triamterenc) chlorothiazided) bumetanidee) amiloride

All of the following statements regarding diuretics are true:a) Carbonic anhydrase inhibition leads to increased reabsorption of NaHCO3b) Loop diuretics increase Na+ reabsorption at the loop of Henle by competing for the Cl- site

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on the Na+/K+/2Cl- co-transporterc) Loop diuretics decrease Na+ reabsorption at the loop of Henle by competing for the Cl- site on the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporterd) In general, the potency of a diuretic is determined by where it acts in the renal tubulee) Hydrochlorothiazide decreases urinary calcium excretion

These drugs should never be administered to patients taking potassium supplements:a) Hydrochlorothiazide b) Amiloridc) Furosemide (Lasix)d) Spironolactonee) Triamterene The drug acts by competitively blocking the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter:a) Furosemide b) Indapamidc) Spironolactoned) Sulthiame) Torasemide The drug acts in the distal convoluted tubule:a) Loop diureticsb) Thiazide diureticsc) Potassium-sparing diureticsd) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorse) Thiazide like diuretics List Loop diuretics:a) Acetazolamide b) Furosemidec) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Amiloride e) Torasemide

These drugs act by affecting the tubular fluid composition by increasing of osmotic pressure:a) Furosemide b) Acetazolamide c) Triamterene d) Mannitol e) Urea

List drugs used in gout treatment:a) xallopurinolb) furosemidec) sulphinpyrazone d) aspirin e) acetazolamide

List drugs used in gout crises:a) prednisoloneb) aspirin

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c) dexamethasoned) penicilline) acetazolamide

Potassium sparing diuretics:a) Bumetanide b) Chlorothiazide c) Amiloride d) Spironolactonee) Mannitol

The drug inhibits the enzyme carbonic anhydrase: a) Furosemideb) Spironolactonec) Sultiam d) Acetazolamidee) Torasemide The drug acts by competitively blocking NaCl cotransporters in the distal tubule:a) Acetazolamideb) Furosemidec) Hydrochlorothiazided) Spironolactonee) Indapamide The drug acts by competing with aldosterone for its cytosolic receptors, EXCEPT:a) Acetazolamide b) Furosemidec) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Spironolactonee) Triamteren The drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks Na+ channels in the collecting tubules:a) Furosemideb) Amiloridec) Spironolactoned) Triamterene) Hydrochlorothiazide The drug has a steroid-like structure which is responsible for its anti-androgenic effect, EXCEPT:a) Spironolactoneb) Hydrochlorothiazidec) Furosemided) Amiloridee) Triamteren

The drug acts by competitively blocking the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter: a) Ehacrinic acidb) Indapamidc) Spironolactone

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d) Furosemidee) Acetazolamide

Name of heparin therapeutic indications:a) thrombophlebitisb) thromboses and thrombembolismsc) to prevent osteoporosis d) cardiac and vascular surgerye) anemias

Name heparin therapeutic indications:a) Thrombophlebitisb) Deep-vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolismc) Thrombocytopenia d) Brain aneurysme) Myocardial Infarction

Characteristics of warfarin:a) inhibits the vitamin K-dependent synthesis of clotting factorsb) inhibit tromboxane activity c) is indirect anticuagulantd) is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal system e) the common side effect is bleeding.

Characteristic of warfarin:a) has a higher molecular weight than heparinb) is metabolized chiefly by liverc) works directly binding with AT IIId) interferes with the production of factor II, VII, IX and X e) its control is based on the prothrombin time

Characteristic of Heparin:a) is found in the human mast cells b) is not active if given orally c) lowers the plasma triglyceride level d) binds to anti-thrombin III and increases its inactivation of thrombin e) is reversed by administration of vitamin K

Indicate pharmacological characteristics for nadroparin:a) prophylaxis of thromboembolic diseaseb) equal anticoagulant and antifybrinolitic actionsc) low molecular weight heparind) high molecular weight heparine) oral and injectable administration

Indicate pharmacological effects of heparin:227

a) binds to the enzyme antithrombin III b) inactivates thrombin, factor Xa and other proteasesc) has additional anti-inflammatory actiond) favors platelets agglutinatione) atherosclerotic action

Nume indications of heparin:a) thrombophlebitisb) arterial thrombosis and emboliac) myocardial infarctiond) cardiac and vascular surgerye) anemia

Name pharmacodinamic effects of cumarinic anticoagulants:a) decrease hepatic synthesis of factors: II, VII, IX, Xb) antifibrinolytic actionc) are antimetabolites of vitamin Kd) decrease platelet aggregatione) are used parenterally

Note the mechanism of antiplatelet action of dipyridamole:a) inhibits TXA2 synthesis through acetilation of cyclooxygenaseb) blocks uptake and metabolism of adenosine c) serotonin antagonist effectd) inhibits phosphodiesterase and increases the AMPce) inhibits synthesis of TXA2 by blocking thromboxane synthase

All of the following groups of drugs are for thrombosis treatment: a) Anticoagulant drugs b) Antifibrinolitic drugs c) Fibrinolitic drugs d) Antiplatelet drugs e) Coagulant drugs Choose the drug belonging to anticoagulants of direct action:a) Acetylsalicylic acidb) Heparinc) Acenocumarold) Phenandionee) Nandroparin

Choose drugs used as oral anticoagulants:a) Enoxaparinb) Acenocumarolc) Daltreparind) Heparine) Warfarin

Choose antiplatelet agents:a) Dipyridamoleb) Ticlopidine c) Heparin

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d) Dazoxibene) Lamifiban

Which of the following drugs is an inhibitor of platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors?a) Acetylsalicylic acid b) Clopidogrel c) Ticlopidined) Abciximabe) Eptifibatide

Which of the following drugs are fibrinolytics?a) Ticlopidine b) Streptokinase c) Acetylsalicylic acid d) Warfarine) Alteplase Fibrinolytic drugs are used for following: a) Acute myocardial infarction b) Heart failure c) Multiple pulmonary emboli d) Central deep venous thrombosis e) GI bleedings

Indicate the drug belonging to fibrinoliytic inhibitors: a) Aminocapronic acid b) Ticlopidine c) Streptokinased) Vitamin K e) Tranexanic acid

Indicate the drugs used in deep venouse thrombosis:a) phytomenadione b) alteplasec) aminocapronic acidd) heparine) aprotinine

Name phytomenadione contraindications:a) tromboemboliab) thrombophlebitisc) blood hypercoagulability d) overdose of coumarinse) hipovitaminosis K

Pharmacological characteristics of phytomenadione are:a) promotes hepatic synthesis of clotting factorsb) the effect increases in case of liver cells damegec) used to treat haemorrhages related to vitamin K deficiencyd) antidote is protamine sulfatee) binds to the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III (AT)

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Indicate antifibrinolytic drugs:a) carbazocromb) aminocaproic acidc) batroxobind) aprotininee) etamsilat

Pinpoint causes of acetylsalicylic acid should be avoided in patients under treatment with heparin:a) inhibits the synthesis of vitamin Kb) interfers with metabolism of heparinc) is fibrinolyticd) inhibit the aggregation of plateletse) causes hemorrage because of tromboxane inhibition

Indicate pharmacological characteristics of warfarin:a) inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, Xb) is avoided in pregnancy c) used just intravenously d) indicated in the treatment of thrombosise) is oral anticoagulant

Name indications of heparine:a) thrombophlebitisb) arterial thromboses and emboliac) hemophiliad) brain aneurysme) myocardial infarction Indicate the heparin drugs with low molecular weight:a) clopidogrelb) enoxaparinc) dalteprarind) hirudine) nadroparin

Indicate pharmacological characteristics of clopidogrel:a) is drug of heparinb) stimulates antithrombin II, and blocks thrombin and X factorc) selectively and irreversibly inhibits platelets receptors of ADP and decrease aggregation d) used for the prevention of thrombosis e) may cause thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and hemorrhage

Indicate the antiaggregant drugs: a) abciximabb) tirofibadc) heparind) eptifibatidee) acenocumarol

Indicate pharmacological characteristics of streptokinase:230

a) fibrinolytic actionb) is indicated in thrombophlebitisc) antiaggregant effectd) inhibits the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver e) is contraindicated in the postoperative period

What are the differences between heparins with low molecular weight(LMWH) versus standard heparin: a) oral administration for LMWHb) marked inhibition of Factor Xa for LMWHc) marked human thrombin inhibition for LMWHd) x longer duration of action of for LMWHe) for LMWH does not cause osteoporosis

Indicate the pharmacological characteristic for coumarin anticoagulants (oral):a) fast action and short-durationb) inactivates the enzymes and complex factors Xa, IXa, XIIa, XIac) are active both in vitro and in vivod) in case of hemorrhagic accidents specific antidote is phytomenadionee) pass through the placental barrier, and in breast milk

Indicate pharmacological characteristics of streptokinase:a) is extracted from Streptomices venezuelae cultures filtrateb) activates convertion of plasminogen in plasmin (fibrinolyitic enzyme)c) long half-life allows oral administration d) can be useful in acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, deep vein thrombosis, peripheral artery occlusione) has not been described serious adverse reactions

Indicate the pharmacological peculiarities of acetylsalicylic acid as platelet antiaggregatory agent:a) used 1 time per week b) is useful (among other information) in patients with unstable angina, suspects of myocardial infarction c) its given in high doses d) is given by inhibiting cyclooxygenase e) main contraindications are allergy, gastrointestinal bleeding, peptic ulcer

Indicate anti-haemorrhagics with systemic action:a) heparinb) nandroparine c) phytomenadioned) fibrinogene) blood clotting factors

Name preparations used for local hemostasis:a) epinephrine b) thromboplastin c) thrombind) fibrin e) phytomenadion

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Indicate hemostatics with antifibrinolytic mechanism of acting:a) tromboplastinb) aprotininc) aminocaproic acidd) etamsilatee) carbazochrome 

Indicate drugs used in leucopenia:a) heparinb) methyluracilc) cyanocobalamined) pentoxile) phenindione

Indicate the coagulant drugs:a) menadioneb) cyanocobalaminec) thrombind) acenocumarole) heparin

Indicate hemostatics:a) acenocumarolb) aminocaproic acidc) warfarined) fibrinogene) heparin

Indicate hemostatics with topic action:a) heparinb) trombinc) menadiond) human fibrinee) gelatine Indicate direct anticoagulants: a) heparinb) acenocumarolc) fibrinolysind) nadroparine) sodium hydrocytrate

Indicate the indirect anticoagulants:a) acenocumarolb) heparinc) phenindioned) warfarine) sodium cytrate

Name antifibrinolytics indications:a)  hyperfibrinolysis b) thrombophlebitis

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c) acute pancreatitis d) traumatic, hemorrhagic and septic shocke) myocardial infarction

Name fibrinolytics indications:a) pulmonary thrombemboliab) acute myocardic infarctionc) arterial and venoase thrombosisd) thrombocytopeniae) hyperfibrinolysis 

Name indications of indirect coagulants:a) gastric hemorrhageb) thrombophlebitisc) parenchymal and capillary hemorrhagesd) indirect anticoagulants overdosee) arterial and venous thrombosis

Indicate the mechanism of anticoagulant action of heparin:a) activates antihtrombin IIIb) decrease activity of factors IX,X,XI,XII and calicreinc) inhibits tromboplastin activitaty and blocks convertion of protrombin in trombind) inhibits protrombine synthesis in the livere) activates natural fibrinolysis 

Name antiaggregants indications:a) arterial thrombosis prophylaxisb) myocardial infarctionc) ischemic cardiopathyd) cerebral circulatory disorderse) parenchymal and capillary hemorrhage

Name antifibrinolytics indications:a) haemorrhages caused by hyperfibrinolysisb) predisposition to thrombosisc) hepatic cirrhosisd) streptokinase overdosee) arterial thrombosis

Indicate the mechanism of antifibrinolytic effect of aminocapronic acid:a) decrease plasmin activityb) inhibits synthesis of clothing factors c) increase plasmin activityd)  use in the treatment of thrombosis e) use in the treatment of acute bleeding due to elevated fibrinolytic activity Indicate pharmacologic characteristics of indirect anticoagulants:a) absorbed orallyb) inhibit epoxi-reductase that convert vit. K to active form of vit. Kc) they cross the placental barrierd) used in hemorrhagic syndrome e) are safe drugs and can be used in pregnancy

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Name the drugs which stimulates leucopoesis:a) cyanocobalamineb) pentoxilc) iron sulphated) sodium nucleinate) coamide

Name main characteristics of heparin:a) active both in vivo and in vitrob) the effect appears after 18-24 hours and last for some hoursc) activates antithrombin IIId) the effect appears almost immediately, and lasts for 3-6 hourse) inbibits blood clotting only in vitro

Which drugs decrease platelets aggregation?a) dazoxibenb) acetylsalycylic acidc) ridogreld) streptokinasee) heparin

Inhibition of which enzymes are the base of antiaggregants actions:a) monoaminoxidaseb) phosphodiesterasec) lipooxygenased) cholinesterase e) cyclooxygenase

Name direct anticoagulants:a) acenocumarolb) heparinc) sodium cytrated) nadroparinee) streptokinase

With regard to iron drug in the human body:a) it is stored chiefly in the bone marrowb) 70% of iron in the body is found in the haemoglobinc) it is transported in the body as transferrind) it is absorbed mainly in the ferric forme) the liver excretes excess iron

Pernicious anemia is:a) A severe form of anemia most often affecting elderly adults, caused by a failure of the stomach to absorb vitamin B12 b) A form of anemia in which the capacity of the bone marrow to generate red blood cells is defective, caused by a bone marrow disease or exposure to toxic agents, such as radiation, chemicals, or drugsc) Anemia characterized by a decrease in the concentration of corpuscular hemoglobind) Is characterized by abnormally large red blood cells, gastrointestinal disturbances, and

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lesions of the spinal corde) Anemia characterized by an increase in the concentration of corpuscular hemoglobin

The administration of histamine in man can produce:a) bronchodilatationb) increased gastric acid secretion c) vasodilation and edemasd) negative chronotropic actione) reduced secretion of intrinsic factors

Indicate effects characteristic for the NSAIDs remedies:a) xanti-inflammatoryb) antihistaminec) adrenergicd) ganglioblocante) analgesic

Common Uses of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS):a) used to increase intraocular pressureb) used to relieve pain c) used in bronchal asthma d) used to treat arthritis e) used to reduce signs of inflammation

Name correctly the mechanism of action for acetylsalicylic acid:a) inhibits phospholipase A2b) inhibit cyclooxygenasec) decreased prostaglandin productiond) increases thromboxane A2 productione) decreases leukotrienes

Name effects of piroxicam:a) analgesicb) antispasmodicc) anti-inflammatoryd) anxiolitice) anticoagulant

What effects are caused by inhibition of COX synthesis?a) antiplateletb) immunosuppressivec) antiallergicd) antipyretice) analgesic

What are the mechanisms of action of antiplatelet action of acetylsalicylic acid?a) inhibits platelet aggregation by stimulating adenylate cyclaseb) intensifies the synthesis of thromboxane A2c) inhibits the synthesis of thromboxane A2d) irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenasee) inhibits phosphodiesterase

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Name typical effects of steroidal anti-inflammatory remedies:a) xanti-inflammatoryb) immunostimulatoryc) desensitizingd) immunosuppressivee) cholinomimetic

Choose non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Phenylbutazoneb) Ketoprofen c) Ketorolac d) Triamcinolonee) Hydroxychloroquine

Choose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs from propionic (arilpropionic) acid derivatives:a) phenylbutazoneb) ketorolac c) ibuprofend) diclofenace) naproxen

Choose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs from indole derivatives:a) Indomethacin b) Sulindac c) Diclofenacd) Ketoprofen e) Naproxen

Choose non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs from oxicams:a) Indomethacin b) Sulindac c) Piroxicam d) Tenoxicam e) Lornoxicam

Choose non-selective non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Meloxicam b) Celecoxibc) Piroxicam d) Tenoxicam e) Lornoxicam

Choose selective nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Meloxicam b) Celecoxibc) Piroxicam d) Tenoxicam e) Lornoxicam

Choose steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Meloxicam

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b) Celecoxibc) Prednisone d) Prednisolone e) Methylprednisolone

Choose steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs with moderate anti-inflammatory and mineralocorticoid effects:a) Cortisone b) Hydrocortisone c) Prednisone d) Prednisolone e) Methylprednisolone

Choose steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs with marked anti-inflammatory effect and practically free from effects of salt and water retention:a) Cortisone b) Betamethasone c) Dexamethasone d) Prednisolonee) Methylprednisolone

Choose slow-acting anti-inflammatory drugs from gold compounds:a) Sodium aurothiomalate b) Aurothioprol c) Auranofind) Phenylbutazonee) Hydroxychloroquine

Choose slow-acting anti-inflammatory drugs from 4-aminoquinoline derivatives:a) Sodium aurothiomalate b) Aurothioprol c) Chloroquine d) Phenylbutazonee) Hydroxychloroquine

Choose slow-acting anti-inflammatory drugs from cytotoxics:a) Cyclophosphamide b) Azathioprine c) Methotrexate d) Chloroquine e) Hydroxychloroquine Choose characteristics of COX-2:a) It is a constitutive enzyme expressed in most tissuesb) It has a "housekeeping" role in the bodyc) It is induced in inflammatory cells when they are injuredd) It is induced in inflammatory cells when they are activated by the inflammatory cytokine - IL-1e) It is induced in inflammatory cells when they are activated by the inflammatory cytokine - TNF-alpha

Mechanisms of action of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:237

a) Block COXb) Block phospholipase A2c) Block 5 lipooxigenased) block synthesis of leucotriense) Decrease synthesis of prostaglandins

Mechanisms of action of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Block Cholinestarase b) Block phospholipase A2

c) Activate directly COX2

d) Activate 5 lipooxigenasee) Decrease synthesis of prostaglandins

Mechanisms of action of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Decrease expression of COX-2b) Increase synthesis of lipocortinec) Decrease synthesis of lipocortine d) Increase synthesis of prostaglandinse) Decrease synthesis of leukotriens Choose the effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Anti-inflammatory b) Analgesic c) Antipyreticd) Bronchodilatore) Decrease blood pressure

Choose the effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Antiagregant b) Moderate desensitizing c) Tocolyticd) Orexigenice) Anorexigenic

Choose peculiarities of analgesic effect of the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) They are effective against mild or moderate painb) They are effective against pain arising from inflammation c) Their ability to relieve headache may be related to the reduction in vasodilator prostaglandins acting on the cerebral vasculatured) Their analgesic effect develops only when used in combination with opiod analgesicse) Higher analgesic effect than opioids

Choose indications for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Ankylosing spondylitisb) Dysmenorrhoeac) Acute goutd) Arterial hypertensione) Bleedings from varicose veins of the esophagus

Choose indications for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Headache and migraine b) Musculoskeletal injuries and pain

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c) Osteoarthritisd) Gastric ulcere) Duodenal ulcer

Choose indications for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Postoperative pain b) Rheumatoid arthritisc) Secondary prevention of vascular events among patients with a history of vascular events d) Bronchial asthmae) Hemorrhagic cerebro-vascular accidents Choose indications for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Hyperpyrexia (fever)b) Migainec) Osteoarthritis d) Neuroleptic malignant syndromee) Hyperprolactinemia Choose specific side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Hemathopoetic deregulationsb) Gastrointestinal bleedingc) Interstitial nephritisd) Arterial hypotensione) Bradycardia

Choose side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Bronchospasm b) Renal papillary necrosisc) Gastric ulcersd) Bronchodilatione) Osteoporosis

Choose side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Gastrointestinal bleedingsb) Thrombocytopeniac) Aspirin - Reye's syndrome d) Tachycardiae) Hyperglycemia Choose side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Suppression of gastroprotective prostaglandins in the gastric mucosab) Neutropenia c) Abnormal liver function tests and rare liver failured) Moon face e) Buffalo hump Choose side effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: a) Aplastic anemiab) Cutanous rashesc) Reversible renal insufficiencyd) Obesity e) Rebound syndrome

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Which of the following property combinations is peculiar to the majority of NSAIDs?a) Anti-inflammatory, immunodepressive, antihistaminic b) Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory c) Immunodepressive, anti-inflammatory, analgesic d) Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-aggregant effect e) Immunodepressive, anti-inflammatory, antipyretic

Which of the following are NSAIDs? a) Indomethacin b) Clarithromycinc) Metamizoled) Diclofenace) Ketorolac Which of the following NSAIDs are not indol derivatives? a) Diclofenac b) Meclofenamic acid c) Indomethacin d) Ibuprofene) Ketorolac

Which of the following NSAIDs are selective COX-2 inhibitors? a) Diclofenacb) Celecoxib c) Indomethacind) Piroxicame) Nimesulid The following statements concerning acetylsalicylic acid are true: a) Acetylsalicylic acid inhibits tromboxane A2 formation b) Acetylsalicylic acid inhibits phospholipase A2 c) Acetylsalicylic acid causes Reye syndrome d) Acetylsalicylic acid irreversibly inhibits COX e) Acetylsalicylic acid stimulates tromboxane A2 formation

Indication for acetylsalicylic acid administration are the following:a) Reducing elevated body temperature b) Relieving severe visceral pain in acute abdomenum c) Decreasing the incidence of transient ischemic attack d) Treatment of gastric ulcer e) Inflammatory conditions

Anti-inflammatory effect of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs develops due to:a) Decreased recruitment of WBC (White blood cells) and monocyte-macrophage into affected areasb) Decreased elaboration of chemotactic substancesc) Increased lipocortin synthesisd) Decreased lipocortin synthesise) Increased recruitment of WBC and monocyte-macrophage into affected areas

Anti-inflammatory effect of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs develops due to:240

a) Decreased synthesis of IL1 by monocyte-macrophage b) Decreased formation of plasminogen activator c) Decreased synthesis of arachidonic acidd) Increased synthesis of IL1 by monocyte-macrophagee) Increased formation of plasminogen activator

Anti-inflammatory effect of steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs develops due to:a) Decreased fibroblastic activityb) Decreased expression of COX-2 c) Increased synthesis of arachidonic acidd) Increased expression of COX-2 e) Decreased expression of lipocortin

Choose contraindications for steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Vaginal yeast infectionsb) Patients who are in high risk for infectionc) Peptic ulcer d) Systemic lupus erythematosus e) Wegener's granulomatosis

Choose contraindications for steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Fungal infectionsb) Diabetes mellitusc) Hypertension d) Rheumatoid arthritise) Psoriatic arthritis

Choose synonyms of slow-acting anti-inflammatory drugs:a) Anti-rheumatoid drugsb) Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs)c) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)d) Steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (SAIDs)e) Selective COX-2 inhibitors

Name slow-acting , anti-inflammatory drugs:a) chloroquineb) prednisonec) diclofenacd) D-penicillaminee) cortisol

What side effects can be caused by glucocorticoids?a) increased blood pressureb) increased intraocular pressurec) central nervous system stimulationd) hyperkalemiae) gynecomastia

Chronic administration of glucocorticoids results in:a) hypertension b) hyperkalaemia c) hypercalcemia

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d) hyperglicemiae) ocular hypertension

Corticosteroid inhibits:a) inflammatory proceses b) allergic reactions c) immunity d) gluconeogenesis e) lipocortin production

The following are true about corticosteroids:a) they are synthesized in the adrenal medulla b) are produced in the adrenal cortexc) chronic use may predispose to cataract and retinopathy.d) they suppress immune reactions e) cause a movement of body fat to the face and torso

Choose pharmacological properties of gold compounds:a) Alter morphology and function of macrophagesb) Are used in early stages of adult and juvenile rheumatoid arthritisc) Side effects are cutaneous reactions such as erythema and exfoliative dermatitisd) Side effects are blood dyscrasias and renal toxicity e) Block COX (cyclooxigenase) and LOX-5 (lipoxygenase -5)

Choose correct affirmations concerning mechanisms of action of 4-aminoquinoline derivatives:a) Suppress T-lymphocyte responses to mitogens b) Decrease leukocyte chemotaxisc) Stabilize lysosomal enzymesd) Block COX-1 (cyclooxigenase 1)e) Block COX-2 (cyclooxigenase 2)

Choose correct affirmations concerning mechanisms of action of 4-aminoquinoline derivatives:a) Inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis b) Trapping of free radicalsc) Block PL-A2 (phospholipase A2)d) Increase expression of lipocortine) Decrease expression of lipocortin

Name anti-inflammatory effects of 4-aminochinolinic derivatives?a) do not change radiological manifestations of the diseaseb) develop slowly, not earlier than 4-8 weeks, up to 6-12 months, with reduction of inflammation, and rheumatoid factor titre c) are associated with the analgesicsd) appear rapidly, and are used in the acute periode) are used to reduce platelet aggregation

Choose pharmacological properties of hydroxychloroquine:a) Is used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritisb) Is used in the treatment of juvenile chronic arthritisc) Can cause retinal degeneration

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d) Block PL-A2 (phospholipase A2)e) Increase expression of lipocortin

Choose pharmacological properties of hydroxychloroquine:a) Is used for short-term treatment of acute malariab) Is used in the treatment of Systemic lupus erythematosus c) Can affect the eyes d) Can cause rheumatoid arthritise) Can cause Systemic lupus erythematosus

Choose pharmacological properties of penicillamine:a) works by binding heavy metals b) should not be used in combination with gold compoundsc) it is used in the treatment of Sclerodermiad) side effect is aplastic anemiae) It is used in the treatment of postoperative pain

Choose pharmacological properties of penicillamine:a) Penicillamine works by binding heavy metalsb) It is used in the treatment of resistant cases of rheumatoid arthritis c) Side effect is membranous glomerulonephritisd) It is used in the treatment of aplastic anemiae) It has antipyretic action Name drugs used in immediate-allergy :a) dexamethasoneb) clemastinec) epinephrine d) metotrexate) chloroquine

Indicate the pharmacological effects of H1-antihistamines:a) antivomiting effectb) hypnotic effectc) antiallergic effectsd) gastric antisecretory effecte) immunostimulatory

Name additional nonhistamine-related effects of antihitamines:a) Antimuscarinic reduction in bladder toneb) Local anesthetic effects if the drug is injectedc) Anti-motion sickness effectsd) Increase in total peripheral resistancee) Sedation

Name effects of antihistamines :a) Euphoria and /or disphoryab) Anticholinergic peripheral effectc) Vomiting d) Antiemetice) Sedation

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Which of the H1 antihistamines are used to prevent vomiting?a) astemisol b) promethazinec) terfenadined) diphenhydraminee) loratadine

These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for sedative effects:a) Phenothiazines; b) Ethylenediamines; c) Ethanolamines d) Piperidines; e) Piperazines

These histamine H1 antagonists are recognized for as second-generation antihistamines:a) Phenothiazines; b) Ethylenediamines; c) Ethanolamines d) Piperidines; e) Piperazines

Indications for administration of 1st generation histamine H1 antagonists are the following: a) Treatment of sleep disorders b) Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy ("morning sickness")c) Management of seizure states d) Alcoholism e) Prevention or treatment of the symptoms of allergic reactions (rhinitis, urticaria)

Side effects of first-generation histamine H1 antagonists are: a) Gastric ulcers and upper gastrointestinal bleeding b) Sedation c) Dry mouthd) Vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing e) Aplastic anemia

The following are true about anti-histamines 1st generation:a) they inhibit the release of histamines from mast cells b) they have anticholinergic effects c) they can be used as anti-emetic agentsd) they increase blood pressuree) they reduce gastric secretion

Name drugs from the I-generation antihistamines:a) - chloropyramineb) - clemastinec) - loratadined) - cetirizinee) - diphenhydramine

Name contraindications for H1 antihistamines:244

a) drivers b) hepatic and renal insufficiencyc) depressive statesd) rhinitise) hight fever

Pharmacodynamic actions of H1 antihistamines, to antagonize the effects of histamine are:a) prevent bronchial spasmb) prevents uterine spasmc) total antagonize the effects of anaphylactic shockd) prevents intestinal spasme) decrease gastric secretion

Ketotifen has the following properties:a) antiserotoninicb) blocks H1 receptorsc) inhibit degranulation of mast celld) anticholinergice) inhibits histamine release

Name antiallergic without sedative effects:a) astemizoleb) diphenhydraminec) loratadined) promethazinee) clemastine

Name effects of H1-antihistamines (I generation) :a) antiallergicb) emeticc) sedatived) hypothermice) orexigen

Contraindications and precautions for H1-antihistamines 1st generation :a) prostate hypertrophyb) Menier diseasec) hypotensiond) liver and kidney diseasee) polynosis

Name mechanism of action of H1 antihistamins:a) contain a groupe ethanolamino as histamine has, works competitivelyb) works by preventing the release of natural chemicals from cells in the body (mast cells) involved in an allergic reactionc) inhibit competitively H1 receptors and the corresponding effects i. e. vasodilation and capillary permeability increased) are envisaged to enhance body's resistance against infectionse) do not inhibit antigen/antibodies reactions, nor histamine release, they inhibit H1 effects

Name I generation antihistamines:245

a) cloropiramineb) clemastinec) loratadined) cetirizinee) x, diphenhydramine

The following are mast cell stabilizers:a) disodium cromoglycateb) loratadinec) ketotifend) clemastinee) nedocromil

The effects of anti-histamines of I generation:a) sedation b) arrhythmogenic effectc) atropine like effectsd) anti-vomiting effect e) local anesthetic effect

Name pharmacological effects of H1-antihistamines (I generation):a) antiallergicb) emeticc) antiparkinsoniand) hypothermice) anorectic

Indication for administration of histamine H1 antagonists is: a) Prevention or treatment of the symptoms of allergic reactions (rhinitis, urticaria) b) Motion sickness and vestibular disturbances c) Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy ("morning sickness") d) Gastric and duodenal ulcere) Acute pancreatitis These histamine H1 antagonists are recognized for as second-generation antihistamines: a) Astemizole b) Loratadine c) Cetirizine d) Clemastine e) Chlorophiramine Indications for administration of histamine H1 antagonists are the following: a) Prevention or treatment of the symptoms of allergic reactions (rhinitis, urticaria) b) Management of seizure states c) Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy ("morning sickness") d) Treatment of sleep disorderse) Acute psychosis

Choose examples of second-generation antihistamine:a) loratadineb) cyproheptadinec) astemizole

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d) diphenhydraminee) cetirizine

Choose antihistaminics most likely to exhibit anticholinergic activity:a) clemastineb) terfenadinec) cetirizined) astemizolee) diphenhydramine

Name therapeutic indications of cyproheptadine:a) vomiting b) allergic rhinitisc) gastric ulcerd) viral hepatitise) anorexia nervosa

Indicate glucocorticoids effects:a) antiallergicb) immunostimulantc) anti-shockd) xanti-inflammatorye) anabolic

What is entomology immunomodulatory preparations?a) extracted from insect tissuesb) alkaloidsc) containing essential and nonessential amino acidsd) preparations of the thymuse) are polypeptides acquired by genetic engineering involving E. coli. What are the indications for immunomodulatory entomological preparations?a) conditions with decreasing resistance bodyb) bronchial asthmac) gastrointestinal bleedingd) infectious and inflammatory diseases with immunodeficiencye) duodenal ulcers

Select an endocrine drug which is an amino acid derivative: a) Insulin b) Hydrocortisonec) Calcitonind) Levothyroxine e) Liothyronine

Select endocrine drugs which are peptide derivativesa) Progesteroneb) Nandrolonec) Prednisoloned) Oxitocine) Calcitonin

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Select endocrine drugs which are steroidal derivatives:a) Gonadorelinb) Insulinc) Levothyroxined) Hydrocortisone e) Levonorgestrel

Which of the following hormones are produced by the hypothalamus?a) Estradiol b) Aldosteronec) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) d) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) e) Somatostatin Which of the following hormones are produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary? a) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) b) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) c) Growth hormone (somatotropin, GH) d) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) e) Follicule-stimulating hormone (FSH)

All of the following statements about growth hormone are true: a) Stimulates growth, cell reproduction, and cell regeneration b) Hypersecretion can result in acromegalyc) Hyposecretion can result in acromegaly d) It is contraindicated in subjects with closed epiphyses e) It is secreted by suprarenal glands

Correct statements about adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) include all of the following: a) The oral route is the preferred rout of administration b) ACTH is most useful clinically as a diagnostic tool in adrenal insufficiency c) ACTH stimulates the synthesis of corticosteroids d) Endogenous ACTH is also called corticotropin e) ACTH inhibits the synthesis of corticosteroids Indications of bromocriptine are following:a) Prolactin deficiency b) Acromegaly caused by hyperprolactinaemiac) Amenorrhea-Galactorrhea d) Prolactin-secreting adenomas e) Parkinson's disease

Indications of oxitocin are following:a) For control of pospartum uterine hemorrhage b) Incompleted abortion c) Labor and augment dysfunctional labor for conditions requiring early vaginal delivery d) Heart failuree) Diabetes insipidus

Indications of vasopressin is following, EXCEPT:a) Incompleted abortion

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b) Pituitary diabetes insipidusc) Hypertensiond) Diabetes mellitus e) Сontrol of postpartum uterine hemorrhage

Vasopressin causes a pressor effect by:a) All of the mechanisms b) A direct action on smooth muscles of the blood vessels c) Releasing and activating renin-angiotensin system d) Releasing noradrenaline from the nerve terminalse) Activating specific receptors on smooth muscles of the blood vessels Which of the following hormones is produced by the thyroid gland?a) Thyroxineb) Thyroid-stimulating hormone c) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone d) Thyroglobuline) Сalcitonine

Thyrotrophin stimulates the following processes:a) De-iodination of thyroid hormonesb) Release of triidothyronine c) Iodination of thyroglobulin d) Concentration of iodine by thyroid follicles e) Release of thyroxine

Indications of thyroid hormones are following:a) For treatment of simple obesity b) Hashimoto's diseasec) Myxedema d) Cretinism e) Basedov-Graves disease

Name hormone drugs:a) Thyroxineb) Somatotropinc) Vasopressind) Bromocriptine e) Oxytocin

The posterior pitutary secrets: a) Vasopressin b) Oxytocin c) Growth hormone d) Methylergometrinee) Insulin

Oxytocin produces the following effects: a) It causes contraction of the uterus b) It assists the progress of spermatozoa into the uterine cavity c) It brings about milk ejection from the lactating mammary gland d) It causes relaxation of the uterus

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e) It has no effect on the milk ejection

The adrenal cortex produces:a) aldosteroneb) angiotensin II c) deoxycorticosteroned) noradrenaline e) adrenaline

Mineralocorticoid effects cause:a) Deposition of fat on shoulders, face and abdomen b) Increased gluconeogenesis c) Increased Na retention d) Increased К excretion e) Increased catabolism The major mineralocorticoids are the following:a) Cortisone b) Budesonidc) Hydrocortisoned) Deoxycorticosteronee) Fludrocortisone

Name naturale corticosteroids:a) betamethasoneb) cortisonec) prednisoloned) triamcinolonee) hydrocortisone

Side effects for prednisone:a) Arterial hypertension b) Gastroduodenal ulcer c) Retention of sodium and waterd) Hyperpotassemiae) Central nervous excitation

Name effects of chronic treatment with big doses of prednisolon:a) decrease of endogenous corticotropin secretionb) rise of susceptibility to infections disordersc) Hypoglycemiad) Hydroelectrolitic disturbancese) Osteoporosis

Glucocorticoid hormones alter bone mineral homeostasis because of :a) are potent osteopenic agentsb) direct inhibition of matrix synthesis by the osteoblastc) directly stimulate the secretion of parathormone d) inhibiting renal calcium excretione) decreasing parathyroid hormone stimulated bone resorption

Name toxic effects of the corticosteroids:250

a) Growth inhibitionb) Hypertentionc) Hypoglicemiad) Psychosise) Salt retention

Indications of glucocorticoids are following: a) Skin diseases (atopic dermatitis, dermatoses, localized neurodermatitis)b) Inflammatory conditions of bones and joints (arthritis, bursitis, tenosynovitis) c) Postmenopausal hormonal therapy d) Gastrointestinal diseases (inflammatory bowel disease) e) Addison disease

Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following:a) Hypomania or acute psychosis b) Salicylism (vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing, and vertigo) c) Iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome (rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the appearance of the face - moon faces) d) Acute peptic ulcers e) Diabetes insipidus

The major mineralocorticoids are the following:a) Aldosteroneb) Deoxycorticosteronec) Fludrocortisoned) Hydrocortisonee) Cortisone

Name side effects caused by steroids:a) high blood pressureb) increased intraocular pressurec) CNS stimulationd) hyperkalaemiae) gynecomastia

With regard to thyroxine:a) synthesized by adrenal cortexb) used in bronchial asthma c) it is important for skeletal growthd) it increases the sensitivity of receptors to catecholaminese) it increases oxygen consumption

Excessive doses of thyroid hormone may cause:a) angina pectorisb) cardiac decompensationc) adrenal insufficiencyd) psychotic behaviore) constipation

Indicate the effects of thyroid hormone drugs:a) increased basal metabolismb) decreased basal metabolism

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c) tachycardiad) bradycardiae) xtremor

Synthesis and release of thyroid hormones are controlled by:a) Anterior pituitary b) Hypothalamus c) Blood levels of thyroid hormones d) Posterior pituitary e) Blood levels of cortisole level

Currently used antithyroid drugs include the following: a) Propylthiouracil b) Iodine in high dosagec) Thiamazole d) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone e) Thyroglobulin

Indications of thyroid hormones are following: a) Cretinism b) Myxoedema c) Hashimoto's disease d) For treatment of simple obesity e) Diabetus insipidus

Characteristics of thiamazole: a) Decreases thyroid hormone synthesis b) Inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 in T3 c) Causes neutropenia d) Should be stopped if causes rashes e) Decreases TSH production

The following statements about the parathyroid hormone are true:a) The parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a hormone secreted by the parathyroid glands b) The parathyroid hormone increases calcium and phosphate absorption in intestine c) The parathyroid hormone increases serum calcium and decreases serum phosphated) The parathyroid hormone increases calcium excretion and decreases phosphate excretion in kidneyse) The parathyroid hormone decreases calcium and phosphate absorption in intestine

Indications for calcitonin administration are the following:a) Hypercalcemiab) Paget's diseasec) Osteoporosis d) Hypophosphatemiae) Wegener's granulomathosis

Which of the following statements about calcitonin is true:a) Calcitonin is secreted by parafollicular cells of the thyroid b) lower blood calcium and phosphate by acting on bones and kidneysc) Calcitonin inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption

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d) Effects of calcitonin are to increase blood calcium and phosphate by acting on bones and kidneyse) Calcitonin stimulates osteoclastic bone resorption

Indicate drugs used to treat diabetes mellitus:a) insulinb) insulin-zinc-protaminec) glibenclamided) vasopressine) adiurecrine

Indicate preparations used in type II diabetes mellitus?a) glibutidb) metforninc) glucagond) prednisolonee) glibenclamide

Insulin causes reduction in blood sugar level by the following mechanisms: a) Increased glucose uptake in the peripheral tissueb) Decreased glucose absorption from the gut c) Diminished gluconeogenesis d) Reduction of breakdown of glycogene) Increased glucose absorption from the gut

Insulin can be administered by:) Intramuscular routeb) Subcutaneous route c) Intravenous route d) Oral routee) Intrarectal route

Antidiabetic sulphonylureas act by: a) Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut b) Increasing the uptake of glucose in peripheral tissuesc) Reducing the hepatic gluconeogenesis d) Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas e) Stimulating production of insulin by the beta islet cells of pancreas

Thiazolidinediones act by: a) Diminishing insulin resistance b) Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut c) Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin d) Increase glucose uptake and its metabolism in muscle and adipose tissues e) All of the answers

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors act by:a) Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin b) Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut c) Competitive inhibiting of intestinal alpha-ghucosidases d) Modulating the postprandial digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides

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e) Diminishing insulin resistance by increasing glucose uptake and metabolism in muscle and adipose tissues

Biguanides are used in the following conditions:a) In case of hyperglycemic shock b) In case of hypoglycemic shockc) To reduce insulin requirements d) In over weight diabetics e) As a supplement to sulphonylurea, where it is insufficient to give good results

Biguanides are used in the following conditions: a) As a supplement to sulphonylurea, where it is insufficient to give good results b) In diabetes mellitus type Ic) To reduce insulin requirements d) In case of hyperglycemic shocke) In over weight diabetics

Metformin characteristics are: a) It's a biguanide drugb) Used in diabetes mellitus type IIc) Causes anorexia and weight loss d) It's a sulphonylurea druge) Used in diabetes mellitus type I

Characteristics of metformin:a) is a biguanideb) used in Diabetus Mellitus type IIc) causes anorexia and weight lossd) causes hyperglycemia e) is contraindicated in Diabetus Mellitus Type I

Characteristics of Thiamazol:a) decreases thyroid hormone synthesis b) inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 c) causes neutropenia d) used in cretinism e) decreases directly TSH production

Name androgens drugs:a) testosteroneb) estradiolc) methyltestosteroned) cortisonee) ethinylestradiol

The major natural estrogens produced by women are following: a) Estriol b) Ethinyl estradiol c) Diethylstilbestrold) Estron e) Estradiol

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The major synthetic estrogens are following: a) Estradiolb) Estronc) Benzestrold) Diethylstilbestrole) Dienestrol

Indications of synthetic estrogens are following:a) For treatment of simple obesity b) Diabetes mellitusc) Hormonal contraception d) Postmenopausal hormonal therapy e) Primary hypogonadism

Tamoxifen is, EXCEPT:a) Androgenb) Antiestrogenc) Antiandrogend) Antiprogestin e) Estrogen

Mifepristone is: a) Androgenb) Antiestrogen c) Antiandrogen d) Antiprogestine) Antiglucocorticoid

Name Testosterone effects:a) growth of genitals in a boyb) muscular developmentc) erythropoietin secretion decreasedd) behavioral changes in mene) growth of facial, pubic & axillary hairs

Name indication for hormone androgen preparations:a) Insufficient renal anemia treatmentb) inoperable breast cancer in woman during postmenopause c) hypogonadismd) amenorheae) breast cancer in men

Name characteristic of testosterone:a) it is a major male hormoneb) it is highly effective by the oral routec) it is reduced to dihydrotestosterone in the bodyd) it is produced by the testes, ovaries, and adrenal corticese) it is a major female hormone

Name Testosterone effects:a) Growth of genitals in men

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b) Muscular developmentc) Decrease of erythropoietin secretion d) Behavioral changes in mene) Growth of facial, pubic & axillary hairs

Mechanism of action of oral contraceptives:a) Inhibition of follicular development & ovulationb) Thicken of cervical mucusc) Inhibition of implantation of blastocyst in endometriumd) Indirect inhibition of spermatogenesis e) Activation of follicular development & ovulation

All of the following statements about oral contraceptives are true:a) The "combination pill" contains both estrogen and progestin b) Ethinyl estradiol and mestranol are commonly used in oral contraceptives c) The "minipill" contains progestin alone d) The "triphasic pill" contains estrogen, progestin, and luteinizing hormine (LH)e) The "triphasic pill" contains progestin, and luteinizing hormine (LH

General principles of anti-infective therapy are:a) Clinical judgment of microbiological factors b) Definitive identification of a bacterial infection and the microorganism's susceptibility c) Optimal route of administration, dose, dosing frequency and duration of treatment d) Identification of a bacterial infection and the microorganism's susceptibility is not importante) Optimal route of administration is always internally

Which of the following antienzymes are beta-lactamase inhibitors? a) Clavulanic acid b) Neostigmine c) Tazobactam d) Aminocaproic acid e) Disulfiram

Name inhibitors of betalactamase?a) clavulanic acidb) tazobactamc) sulbactamd) ticarcilline) piperacillin

Name antibiotics from beta lactamines:a) ampicillinb) rifampicinc) tetracyclined) benzylpenicilline) gentamicin

Describe pharmacokinetic properties of benzylpenicillin?a) resistance on gastric juice actionb) used just orallyc) in case of a healthy meninx weak penetration in cephalo rachidine liquid

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d) most of the dose - predominantly renal eliminatione) sensitivity at beta-lactamase

The following medication can cause ototoxicity:a) cephalexin b) kanamycinc) penicillind) gentamicine) vancomycin

Name characteristics for aminoglycosides:a) are absorbed well after oral administrationb) prevent the synthesis of protein bacteriasc) all generations are used in tuberculosisd) excretes through glomerular filtration without significant tubular resorbtion e) are used in anaerobic infections

Aminoglycosides can be associated (acting synergistically) with antibiotics group:a) tetracyclineb) glycopeptidec) macrolided) beta-lactaminse) polimixines

The following medications can cause neuromuscular block:a) gentamycinb) cefuroximc) streptomycin d) pilocarpine e) kanamycin

With regard to gentamicin:a) it is used just orallyb) it is well absorbed by the small intestine c) it can produce permanent vestibular nerve damage d) it can cause neuromuscular blocke) it can produce nephrotoxicity

The main side efects of aminoglycosides are :a) Ototoxicityb) Nephrotoxicityc) Extrapyramidal disordersd) Neuromuscular blockadee) Hepatotoxicity

Characteristics of cefuroxime:a) inhibits cell wall synthesisb) has cross-sensitivity with penicillinc) is an enteral second-generation cephalosporin antibiotic.d) is a third generation cephalosporin e) is less toxic to the renal function than gentamicin

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Macrolides are naturally resistant to:a) Bacillus fragilisb) Pseudomonasc) Chlamydiad) Acinetobactere) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

The following antibiotics are bacteriostatic:a) penicillinsb) erythromycinc) isoniazidd) chloramphenicole) cephalosporins

The following are true about tetracycline:a) treat Chlamydiab) should be avoided in children c) are used in viral infections d) broad-spectrum antibiotics e) inhibit the cell wall synthesis

Characteristics of gentamycin:a) is poorly soluble in lipid and therefore needs to be given parenterallyb) is excreted exclusively by the kidneysc) inhibits presynaptic acetylcholine release with neuro-muscular block d) causes ototoxicity e) inhibits cell wall synthesis of bacteria

Characteristics of vancomycin:a) inhibits bacteria DNA synthesisb) is effective against Gram negative aerobic organismsc) is well absorbed from the gutd) is a type of glycopeptide antibiotice) stimulates the release of histamine

Drugs that are bacteriostatic include:a) cephalexin b) gentamicin c) chloramphenicold) tetracyclinese) penicillin

Charactristics of aminoglycosides:a) are effective against anaerobic infectionb) cause nephrotoxicity c) Very active against Gr- aerobic bacillusd) are not effectively against systemic infection if given orallye) cause ototoxicity

With regard to vancomycin:a) is a glycopeptide

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b) can cause ototoxicity c) is bacteriostatic in actiond) is bactericidal in action e) causes “Red man” syndrome

Describe vancomycin:a) is an aminoglycoside. b) ototoxicity and nephrotocicity common sides effectsc) targets the RNA of bacteria. d) is used in parenterally way e) is used against Gram positive bacteria.

Describe vancomycin:a) active on gram-positive coccib) is a type of glycopeptide antibioticc) causing ototoxicity and nephrotoxicityd) active on gram-negative florae) bacteriostatic

Name unwanted effects of vancomycin: a) Gray baby syndrom b) Ototoxicity c) "Red neck" syndrome, phlebitisd) Cristaluriae) Pneumonitis

Vancomicin has the following unwanted effects: a) Pseudomembranous colitis b) Hepatotoxicity c) "Red men" syndrome d) All of the above e) Phlebitis

All of the following drugs are antibiotics:a) Streptomycin b) Penicillin c) Co-trimoxazole d) Chloramphenicol e) Ciprofloxacine Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bactericidal effect?a) Tetracyclines b) Macrolides c) Penicillins d) Aminiglycosides e) Cephalosporins

Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bacteristatic effect: a) Carbapenems b) Macrolides c) Aminoglycosides d) Cephalosporins

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e) Tetracyclines Which of the following antibiotics contains a beta-lactam ring in their chemical structure:a) Penicillins b) Cephalosporins c) Carbapenemsd) Monobactams e) Tetracyclines Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-macrolides and azalides: a) Neomycin b) Doxycycline c) Erythromycin d) Cefotaxime e) Azithromycin

Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-carbapenems:a) Aztreonam b) Amoxacillin c) Imipinem d) Clarithromycin e) Meropenem

Tick the drug belongs to antibiotics-cephalosporins:a) Streptomycin b) Cefaclor c) Phenoxymethylpenicillind) Erythromycin e) Cefalexin Tick the drug belonging to lincosamides:a) Erythromycinb) Lincomycin c) Clindamycin d) Azithromycin e) Aztreonam Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-tetracyclines:a) Doxycycline b) Minocycline c) Streptomycin d) Clarithromycin e) Amoxacillin

Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-aminoglycosides:a) Gentamycin b) Streptomycin c) Clindamycin d) Neomycin e) Amoxacillin

Tick the drug belonging to glycopeptides:260

a) Vancomycin b) Lincomycin c) Neomycind) Carbenicillin e) Teicoplanin Antibiotics inhibiting the bacterial cell wall synthesis are:a) Beta-lactam antibiotics b) Tetracyclines c) Aminoglycosides d) Macrolides e) Glycopeptides All of the following antibiotics inhibit the protein synthesis in bacterial cells:a) Macrolides b) Aminoglycosides c) Glycopeptides d) Tetracyclines e) Cycloserine Choose antibiotics from carbapenems:a) Thienamb) Amoxacillin c) Bicillin-5 d) Penicillin e) Imipenem

Pick out the beta-lactamase inhibitor for co-administration with penicillins:a) Cilastatin b) Sulbactam c) Sultiamd) Aztreoname) Tazobactam

All of the following antibiotics are macrolides:a) Erythromycin b) Clarithromycin c) Lincomycin d) Roxythromycin e) Aztreonam

Tetracyclins have following unwanted effects: a) Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa, phototoxicity b) Hepatotoxicity, anti-anabolic effect c) Dental hypoplasia, bone deformities d) Myocardial infarction e) Addison syndrome Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-aminoglycosides:a) Erythromycin b) Gentamycin c) Vancomycin

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d) Polymyxin e) Kanamycin

Aminoglycosides have the following unwanted effectsa) Pancytopenia b) Hepatotoxicity c) Ototoxicityd) Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa e) Nephrotoxicity

Name antibiotics used parenterally:a) streptomycinb) erythromycinc) gentamicind) ampicilline) imipinem

Choose antibiotics most likely to produce increased neuromuscular-blockade in the presence of nondepolarizing blockers:a) vancomycinb) kanamycinc) amikacind) gentamicine) ampicillin

Name characteristic for Aztreonam? a) is a monobactam antibiotic b) is active against gram-negative bacteria c) is active against Pseudomonas aeroginosa d) is active against protozoa e) is active against helmints

With regard to tetracycline:a) directly inhibits DNA synthesis in bacteria b) crosses the placenta and accumulates in foetal skeleton c) side effects include poor tooth developmentd) have a narrow spectrum of antibiotic actione) used just intravenously

Name semisynthetic tetracyclines:a) tetraciclineb) doxycyclinec) metacyclined) demeclocyclinee) minocycline

Name spectrum of action for tetracyclines:a) chlamydiab) mycoplasmac) brucellad) helmints

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e) rickettsiae

What antimicrobial inhibits bacterial protein synthesis following attachment of 30 S subunits of ribosomes?a) clindamycinb) tetracyclinec) chloramphenicold) imipeneme) doxycycline

Charactristics of chloramphenicol:a) inhibits cell wall synthesis b) is active against Haemophilus and Neisseriac) causes ototoxicityd) causes aplastic anaemiae) should not be given to newborns

What remedies inhibit bacterial protein synthesis, following attachment of 50S ribosomes subunits:a) chloramphenicolb) clarithromycinc) clindamycind) tetracyclinee) doxycycline

Name pharmacological properties of chloramphenicol:a) choice for systemic salmonellosisb) not acting in anaerobic infectionsc) induces gray syndromed) induced aplastic anemiae) does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier Name the chloramphenicol causes of gray syndrome in neonates and premature:a) excessive dosesb) baby diseasesc) liver enzyme deficiency of glucuronyltransferased) genetic predispositione) association with penicillins

Concerning sulfonamides: a) act as competitive inhibitors of the enzyme dihydropteroate synthaseb) are big group from antibiotics c) certain sulfonamides are sometimes mixed with the drug trimethoprimd) contraindicated in pregnancy and newborn e) minimal side effects

Charactristics of sulphonamides:a) inhibit the conversion of para-aminobenzoic acid to folateb) are bactericidal c) can be combined with trimethroprim d) are used just intravenously e) are a known cause of Steven-Johnson's syndrome

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Sulfonamides are effective against:a) Bacteria and Chlamidia b) Grame negative aerobesc) Gonococcus d) Echinococcuse) Cytomegalovirus

Sulfonamides have the following unwanted effects: a) tendinitis and tendons rupturesb) crystalluria c) peripheral neuropathyd) neuro-muscular block e) gray baby syndrome

Tick the antibacterial drug - a quinolone derivative:a) Nitrofurantoin b) Nalidixic acid c) Streptomycin d) Pipemidic acis e) Nystatine

The following are true about fluoroquinolone:a) it acts by inhibiting DNA gyraseb) ciprofloxacin is poorly absorbed by the gastrointestinal systemc) corneal deposition is a complication of topical ofloxacin d) it is active against gram negative bacilli e) have been shown to contribute to tendinopathies

Name indications for fluoroquinolones: a) Urinary tract infections b) Gonorrhea c) Urethritis d) Treatment of pneumoniae) Listeriosis

Antimicrobials that inhibit folic acid synthesis include:a) ciprofloxacine b) sulfonamidesc) pyrimethamined) clindamycin e) tetracycline

Mechanisms of bacterial resistance to anti-microbial agents are the following: a) Active transport out of a microorganism b) Enlarged uptake of the drug by a microorganism c) Modification of a drug's target d) Reduced uptake by a microorganism e) Hydrolysis of an agent via enzymes produced by a microorganism

Antimalarial drug classification:a) penicillin

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b) metronidazol c) quinine d) tetracyclines e) chloroquine

Characteristics of quinine:a) is a medication to treat malaria b) highly effective schizonticide against P vivax, P ovale, P falciparum, P. malariae c) is a medication to treat viruses infectiond) is antibiotic used just in anaerobes infections e) is used just intravenously

Name metronidazole indications:a) amebiasisb) malariac) syphilisd) duodenal ulcere) anaerobic infections

True statements about metronidazole include:a) it is bacteristatic b) it inhibits bacterial protein synthesis c) it is most effective against Gram positive bacteriad) it is most effective against Gram negative bacteria e) alcohol should be avoided while taking metronidazole

Name effective preparations in echinococcosis:a) mebendazoleb) albendazolec) piperazined) befeniue) pirviniu

Name metronidazole indications:a) tuberculosisb) lambliozisc) amebiasisd) malariae) trichomoniasis 

Show drugs used to treat giardiasis:a) levamisoleb) metronidazolec) furazolidoned) pyrantele) mebendazole

Specify pharmacological peculiarities typical for interferons:a) antiviralb) immunomodulatoryc) antiproliferatived) induce biochemical changes that create an antiviral state in infected cells

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e) antioxidant

Name antivirals effective against flaviviruses (hepatitis C virus):a) Interferon alfa-2bb) PEG-interferon alpha-2bc) PEG interferon alpha-2ad) foscarnete) Interferon alfa-2a

Ganclovir characteristics:a) is effective against cytomegalovirus infection b) causes bone marrow failurec) is effective against HIV infection d) is effective against influenza e) inhibits DNA polymerase

Drugs effective against cytomegalovirus include:a) acyclovirb) gancyclovirc) foscarnet sodium d) zidovudinee) amantadine

Name drugs that inhibit viral enzymes? a) acyclovir b) zidovudine c) ethambutol d) saquinavir e) indinavir

Group of endogenous proteins that exhibit antiviral activities:a) ribavirin b) interferon betac) ganciclovir d) vidarabine e) interferon alpha

The indication for interferon alpha administration is: a) Hepatitis C virus infection b) Treatment of sleep disordersc) Kaposi's sarcoma d) Can be used to treat multiple sclerosise) All of the answers

Name poliene antibiotics:a) grizeofulvineb) ristomicinec) kanamycind) amphotericin Be) natamycin

Which of the following drugs is used for candidiasis treatment: 266

a) Nystatine b) Ampicillin c) Myconazol d) Streptomycin e) Gentamicin

Name drugs that demonstrate a fungicidal effect:a) Cloramphenicolb) Amfotericin Bc) Ketoconazoled) Myconazolee) Imipinem

Choose antifungal remedies: a) nystatineb) tropicamidec) rifampicind) fluconazolee) cocaine

Name antifungal drugs from imidazole derivatives group:a) econazoleb) flucytosinec) amphotericin Bd) ketoconazolee) miconazole

Specify the first choice drugs in superficial candidiasis:a) clotrimazoleb) flucytosinec) nystatind) amphotericin Be) ketoconazole

Characteristic of fluconazole:a) used systemically b) is an antifungal medication c) is an antibioticd) prevents the conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol from fungal membranee) inhibits cell wall

Name therapeutic indications of miconazole:a) iv infusion in severe fungal infections with coccidioidesb) per os in oral and intestinal candidiasis c) topic in pityriasisd) intravaginal in candidiasis e) per os in trichomoniasis

Specify polyene antifungal antibiotic:a) nystatinb) griseofulvinc) amphotericin B

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d) flucytosinee) capreomycin

Specify anti leprous drugs:a) nalidixic acidb) co-trimoxazolec) solasulfond) dapsonee) nitroxoline

Tick the antibiotics that have antituberculous action:a) Ampicillin b) Penicillinc) Kanamycin d) Gentamicin e) Rifampicine

Mechanism of Izoniazid action is: a) Inhibition of protein synthesis b) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis c) Inhibition of ADP synthesis d) Inhibition of cAMP synthesis e) Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis

Mechanism of Rifampicin's action is:a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis b) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase c) Inhibition of topoisomerase II d) Inhibition of cAMP synthesis e) Inhibition of RNA synthesis

Isoniazid has following unwanted effect:a) Cardiotoxicity b) Hepatotoxicity c) Loss of hair d) Immunotoxicity e) Peripheral neuropathy

Specify pharmacological typical peculiarities of Ethambutol:a) is an antilepros drugb) is an antituberculosis drugc) mechanism of antituberculous action is bacteriostaticd) mechanism of antileprous action is bactericidal e) can cause optic neuritis

Specify pharmacological peculiarities characteristic for the hormonal drugs from antitumor grups: a) estrogen is used in prostate cancerb) androgens are used in breast cancer c) antiandrogens are used in prostate cancer d) antiestrogens are used in breast cancere) aminoglutethimide inhibit aromatase

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Specify group of monoclonal antibodies from antitumor preparations:a) transtuzumabb) rituximabc) bevacizumabd) vincristinee) colchicine

Specify antitumor preparations made by vegetal origin:a) vinblastineb) vincristinec) vinorelbined) bevacizumabe) bruneomicine

Cyclosporin A:a) can only be given orally as it is too toxic to be given intravenously b) it may be given prophylactically to reduce organ rejection before transplantation c) causes little bone marrow suppression d) causes renal impairmente) acts specifially on cytotoxic T lymphocytes

The following cytotoxic drugs are immunosuppressive drugs:a) chlorambucil b) cyclophosphamidec) vinblastine d) mielopid e) timogen Name immunosuppressive drugs:a) imupurine b) thiamazole c) interferon d) cyclophosphamidee) chlorambucil

The Immunosuppressive agents are: a) Corticosteroids b) Imunofanc) Cyclosporine d) Tacrolimus e) Interferon

Cytotoxic agents are the following: a) Azathioprine b) Imupurinc) Ampicillind) Cyclophosphamide e) Clemastine

Name cytostatics:a) azathioprine

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b) diphenhydramine c) cyclosporined) ipratropiume) mercaptopurine

Name the indications for immunosuppressive preparations:a) rheumatoid arthritisb) allergic rhinitisc) lack of glucose-6-fosfatdehidrogenased) organ transplantatione) collagen diseases

Immunosupressive effect of glucocorticoids is caused by:a) Reducing concentration of lymphocytes (T and B cells)b) Inhibiting function of tissue macrophages and other antigen-presenting cells c) Activation of Cyclooxygenase I&II expression that results in reducing amount of an enzyme available to produce prostaglandins d) Activation of phospholipase A2 and reducing prostaglandin and leukotriene synthesis e) Activation of cyclooxygenase II expression that results in reducing amount of an enzyme available to produce prostoglandins

Cyclosporine A is from the group, EXCEPT:a) Immunoglobulinsb) Monoclonal antibodiesc) Immunosuppressive agents d) Interferons e) Immunostimulating agents Indication for interferon alpha administration is, EXCEPT: a) Hepatitis C virus infectionb) Organ transplantationc) Rheumatoid arthritisd) Autoimmune diseasese) Hepatitis A virus infection Indications for interferon alpha administration are: a) Chronic granulomatous diseaseb) Hepatitis C virus infectionc) Kaposi's sarcoma d) Rheumatoid arthritise) Prophylaxis of sensitization by Rh antigen

Optic neuropathy occurs in deficiency of the following vitamins:a) vitamin Ab) phytomenadionec) riboflavined) retinyl acetatee) cyanocobolamine

The following are true about vitamin A:a) it is fat soluble b) it is water soluble

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c) deficiency can lead to scurvy d) deficency causes pellagra.e) deficiency can lead to night blindness 

Fat-Soluble Vitamins are:a) Vitamin Ab) Vitamin Dc) Vitamin Kd) Vitamin Ee) Vitamin C

The following are true about vitamin A deficiency:a) causes night blindness b) causes scurvy c) causes pellagrad) causes Beri-beri. e) the immune system is impaired by vitamin A deficiency

Name clinical uses of vitamin D:a) Osteoporosisb) Nutritional ricketsc) Scurvyd) Pellagrae) Beriberi

Optic neuropathy occurs in deficiency of the following vitamin B: a) Vitamin B1 b) Vitamin B2 c) Vitamin B3 d) Vitamin B6 e) Vitamin B12

Symptom of vitamin A deficiency are:a) Night blindness - lessened ability to see in dim light b) Xerophthalmia and keratomalacia c) Various epithelial tissue defectsd) Osteoporosis e) induced Parkinson disease Choose the correct statements relating to adverse allergic reactions:a) appear due to pharmacokinetic featuresb) does not depend on the dosec) are characteristic of drugs with a high intrinsic toxicity and narrow therapeutic windowd) are crossed for structurally related compoundse) high incidence when drugs are given orally

Choose drug complications caused by the suspension of medication:a) idiosyncrasyb) the liver enzyme inductionc) suppression of hepatic enzymesd) Rebound syndromee) absence syndrome

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Name drug complications caused by the patients hypersensitivity:a) immediate immunoallergic type reactionsb) delayed immunoallergic type reactionsc) tachyphylaxisd) tolerancee) dysbacteriosis

Indicate antidotes definitions:a) drug possessing action to neutralize and / or elimination of toxic substancesb) drug preventing action to develop symptoms of intoxication with a certain toxicc) drug which possess antagonistic action against a specific toxicd) drug possessing agonistic action to a particular toxice) drug potentiating action of a particular toxic

Specify how to divide antidotes according to the mechanism of action:a) Physicalb) Chemicalc) Physiologicald) Inhibitorye) Stimulatory

Name antidotes used in morphine and other opioid analgesics intoxication:a) naloxoneb) nalorphine hydrochloridec) izonitrozind) dipiroxime) aloxim

Name antidotes used in organophosphorus compounds poisoning:a) naloxoneb) nalorphine hydrochloridec) izonitrozind) dipiroxime) aloxim

Indicate groups of drugs causing depression more frequently as adverse effects:a) centrally acting hypotensive drugsb) tranquilizersc) beta-adrenoblockersd) adrenomimeticse) MAO inhibitors

Specify groups or drugs frequently cause side effects such as mixed liver injury:a) NSAIDsb) anti-tuberculous drugs c) contraceptivesd) beta-adrenoblockerse) converting enzyme inhibitors

Specify drugs that cause more frequently as adverse effect bronchospasm:a) acetylsalicylic acid

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b) propranololc) neostigmined) ipratropium bromidee) salbutamol

Specify preparations that cause more frequently as adverse effect orthostatic hypotension and collapse:a) trimetaphanb) nifedipinec) clonidined) izoturone) dopamine

Specify drugs would frequently cause anaphylaxis as a side effect:a) penicillinsb) procainec) famotidined) omeprazolee) diphenhydramine

Specify drugs would cause more frequently as adverse effect duodenal and gastric ulcer:a) prednisoloneb) acetylsalicylic acidc) diclofenacd) sucralfatee) misoprostol

Specify groups of drugs that would cause more frequently as adverse effect dysbacteriosis:a) antibioticsb) nitrofuransc) glucocorticoidsd) NSAIDse) converting enzyme inhibitors

Specify drugs possessing a major potential to develop drug addiction:a) trimeperidineb) diazepam c) amfepramoned) diclofenace) piracetam

Which drugs can cause ototoxicity?a) Furosemideb) Gentamycinec) Kanamycind) Acetazolamide e) Scopolamine

Which drugs can cause neuro-muscular blocking effect?a) Streptomycineb) Gentamycine

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c) Kanamycind) Acetazolamide e) Scopolamine

Which drugs can cause xerosthomia?a) Atropineb) Diphenhydraminec) Scopolamined) Neostigminee) Pilocarpine

Which drugs can cause ventricular arhythmias?a) Loratadineb) Diphenhydraminec) Cetirizined) Clemastinee) Cyproheptadine

Which drugs can cause somnolence?a) Loratadineb) Diphenhydraminec) Cetirizined) Clemastinee) Cyproheptadine

Which drugs can cause constipation?a) Atropineb) Neostigminec) Pilocarpined) Scopolaminee) Platyphylline

Which drugs can cause specific side effect- dry cough?a) Captoprilb) Clonidinec) Salbutamold) Enalaprile) Lisinopril

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