shaheen junior college hyderabad branch

Jr. MPC JEE MAIN QUESTION PAPER (08-08-2021)

SHAHEEN JUNIOR COLLEGE Hyderabad Branch

Class: I Year MPC (WEM-2) Time: 3 HOURS Marks: 300 Date: 08–08–2021 Student Name: _____________________________________________________ Adm. No. ____________________

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

PHYSICS

Section Question type +Ve Marks

+Ve Marks

No. of. Qs

Total marks

Sec – I (Q. No: 1- 20) Questions with Single Answer Type 4 -1 20 80

Sec – II(Q.N : 21 – 25) Questions with Numerical Answer Type (+/ - Decimal Numbers) 4 0 5 20

25 100

CHEMISTRY


+Ve Marks

No. of. Qs

Total marks

Sec – I(Q.N : 26 – 45) Questions with Single Answer Type 4 -1 20 80


25 100

MATHEMATICS


+Ve Marks

No. of. Qs

Total marks

Sec – I(Q.N : 51 – 70) Questions with Single Answer Type 4 -1 20 80


25 100

SHAHEEN MAKES PRESE NCE IN FOLLOWING CITIES Bidar (Head Office) Hyderabad (T.S) Lucknow (U.P) Bhopal (M.P) Delhi Pune (M.H) Aurangabad (M.H) Hubli (K.S) Nanded (M.H) Raichur (K.S) Tumkura (K.S) Bijapur (K.S) Hassan (K.S) Kolar (K.S) Shimoga (K.S) Bharuch (Gujarat) Kosamba (Gujarat) Gulbarga (K.S) Himmatnagar (Gujarat) Udgir (M.H) Tezpur (Assam) Nagaon (Assam) Malegon (M.H) Guwahati (Assam) Kadpa (A.P) Belgavi (K.S) Chitradurga (K.S) Amravati Aurad Basavakalyan Chitguppa Humnabad (K.S)

SYLLABUS

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHS MOTION A LONG STRAIGHT LINE

ATOMIC STRUCTURE UPTO LINE SPECTRUM

SETS & RELATIONS , FUNCTIONS, LOCUS, CHANGE OF AXES


Physics Max. Marks: 100

SECTION-I (1 TO 20) (Single Answer Type)

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct. Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases. 01. A particle starts moving from rest with uniform acceleration. It travels a distance

x in the first 2 sec and a distance y in the next 2 sec. Then 1) y = x 2) y = 2x 3) y = 3x 4) y =4x 02. The reaction time for an automobile driver is 0.7 sec. If the automobile can be

decelerated at 5 m/s2 calculate the total distance travelled in coming to stop from an initial velocity of 8.33 m/s after a signal is observed

1) 12.77 m 2) 14.82 m 3) 16.83 m 4) 19.65 m 03. The displacement-time graph of a moving object is shown in figure. Which of the

velocity-time graphs shown in figure could represent the motion of the same body?

1) 2)

3) 4) 5) 04. A boy throws n balls per second at regular time intervals. When the first ball

reaches the maximum height he throws the second one vertically up. The maximum height reached by each ball is

1) 22 1

gn

2) 22gn

3) 2

gn

4)gn

05. A body is projected vertically up with u. Its velocity at half its maximum height is

1)2u

2) 2

2u 3) 2u 4)

2u


06. A body is projected up with velocity u. It reaches a point in its path at times t1 andt2seconds from the time of projection. Then (t1 + t2) is

1) 2ug

2) ug

3) 2ug

4) ug

07. A stone projected vertically up with velocity u from the top of a tower reaches the ground with velocity 3u. The height of the tower is

1)2

2u

g 2)

24ug

3)23u

g 4)

2ug

08. A body released from the top of a tower of height h takes T seconds to reach the ground. The position of the body at T/4 seconds is

1) at 16h

from the ground 2) at 4h

from the top of the tower

3) at 1516

h from the ground 4) at

316h

from the top of the tower

09. The ratio of times taken by freely falling body to cover first metre, second metre,…is

1) 1 : 2 : 3 2) 1 : 2 1 : 3 2

3) 2 : 4 : 8 4) 2:3:4 10) A freely falling body travels _____ of total distance in 5th second 1) 8% 2) 12% 3) 25% 4) 36% 11) The displacement time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 300 and 450

with the x-axis. The ratio of the two velocities is

1) 3 :1 2) 1:1 3) 1:2 4)1: 3 12) An object falling through a fluid is observed to have acceleration given bya g bv

where g = gravitational acceleration and b is constant speed is

1)gb

2) bg

3)bg 4) b

13) The position of an object moving along x-axis is given by x = a+bt2 where a = 8.5 m, b= 2.5 ms-2 and t is measured in seconds. Then which of the following is true?

1) Velocity at t = 2 sec is 0 2) average velocity between t=2, t =4 sec is 15 m/s. 3) velocity at t= 4 sec is 10 m/s 4) all the above are true


14) A particle moving with a constant acceleration describes in the last second of its motion 9/ 25th of the whole distance. If it starts from rest, how long is the particle in the motion and through what distance does it move if it describes 6 cm in the first sec.?

1) 5 s; 150 cm 2) 10 s; 150 cm 3) 15 s; 100 cm 4) none 15) A body is projected with a velocity 50m/s.Distance travelled in 6 th second is

(g=10 m/s2) 1) 5m 2) 10m 3)15m 4)20m

16) For a body travelling with uniform acceleration, its final velocity is 180 7v x , where x is the distance travelled by the body. Then the acceleration is

1) -8 m/s2 2) -3.5 m/s2 3) -7 m/s2 4) 180 m/s2 17) A body falls from 80 m. Its time of descent is [ g = 10 ms-2 ] 1) 3 s 2) 4 s 3) 5 s 4) 6 s 18) A splash is heard 3.12s after a stone is dropped into a well 45 m deep. The speed

of sound in air is 1) 330 ms-1 2) 375 ms-1 3) 340 ms-1 4) 346 ms-1

19) Two bodies whose masses are in the ratio 2:1 are dropped simultaneously at two places A and B where the accelerations due to gravity are gA andgBrespectively. If they reach the ground simultaneously, the ratio of the heights from which they are dropped is

1) :A Bg g 2) 2 :A Bg g 3) : 2A Bg g 4) :a bg g

20) What are the speeds of two objects if, when they move uniformly towards each other, they get 4 m closer in each second and when they move uniformly in the same direction with the original speeds, they get4 m closer each 10s?

1) 2.8 m/s and 1.2 m/s 2) 5.2 m/s and 4.6 m/s 3) 3.2 m/s and 2.1 m/s 4) 2.2 m/s and 1.8 m/s

SECTION-II (21 TO 25) (Numerical Value Answer Type)

This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a Numerical values comprising of positive or negative decimal numbers (place value ranging from Thousands Place to Hundredths Place). Eg: 1234.56, 123.45, -123.45, -1234.56, -0.12, 0.12 etc. Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 in all other cases. 21) A car moving with a speed of 50 km/hr can be stopped by brakes after at least

6m. If the same car is moving at a speed of 100 km/hr the minimum stopping distance is _____ m

22) If the particle is moving along a straight line given by the relation x = 2 – 3t + 4t3 where s is in cms., and t in sec. Its average velocity during the third sec is___ cm/s

23) An elevator is going up. The variation in the velocity of the elevator is an given in the graph. What is the height to which the elevator takes the passengers____m


24) A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 30 km h-1 fires a bullet at a thief’s car speeding away in the same direction with a speed of 192 km h-1. If the muzzle speed of the bullet is 150 ms-1, The speed with which the bullet hit the thief’s car is _____ m/s

25) Two trains are each 50 m long moving parallel towards each other at speeds10m/s and 15m/s respectively, at what time will they pass each other____s.

Chemistry Max. Marks: 100


This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct. Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases. 26. Magnitude of deflection of cathode rays in discharge tube is more when

1) Magnitude of charge of the particle is more

2) Greater interaction with the electric or magnetic field.

3) Less mass of the particle

4) All the above

27. The em

value of proton is

1) Less than em

value of electron 2) Equal to em

value of electron

3) Greater than em

value of electron 4) All the above.

28. Rutherford’s alpha-rays scattering experiments showed for the first time that the atom has

1) Nucleus 2) Proton 3) Electron 4) Neutron

29. When alpha particles are sent through a thin metal foil, most of them go straight through the foil because

1) Alpha particles are much heavier than electron

2) Alpha particle are positively charged

3) Alpha particles move with high velocity

4) Most part of the atom is empty

30. Isotopes exhibits similar

1) Physical properties 2) Chemical properties

3) Physical and chemical 4) Neither physical nor chemical properties

31. Among 20 21 22 2210 11 11 12A B C and D the isobar combination is

1) A & B 2) B & C 3) C & D 4) A & D


32. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding electromagnetic spectrum?

1) The velocity of X – rays is more than that of microwaves 2) Infra-red radiations have larger wavelength than cosmic rays 3) The frequency of microwaves is less than that of ultra –violet rays 4) X – rays have larger wave number than micro waves 33. In photoelectric effect the number of photo-electrons emitted is proportional to 1) Intensity of incident beam 2) Frequency of incident beam 3) Wavelength of incident beam 4) All 34. The hydrogen line spectrum provides evidence for the 1) Heisenberg uncertainty principle 2) Wave – like properties of light 3) Diatomic nature of H2 4) Quantized nature of atomic energy states. 35. If RH is the Rydberg constant, then the energy of an electron in the ground state

of Hydrogen atom is

1) /HR C 2) h/HR C 3) H

hcR

4) HR hc

36. The radius of an orbit in hydrogen atom is equal to 1) 2 2 2 2/4n h mZe 2) 22 /Ze nh 3) 2 2 4 2 22 /mZ e n h 4) 2 2 4 2 22 /mZ e n h 37. Charge of the species with 17 protons, 18 neutrons and 18 electrons is 1) +1 2) -1 3) -2 4) None 38. An isotone of 76

32Ge is:

a) 7732Ge b) 77

33 As c) 7734Se d) 78

34Se

1) Only a and b 2) Only b and d 3) Only b and c 4) b, c and d 39. Identify the incorrectly matched set from the following

List – I List – II 1) Wavelength Nanometers

2) Frequency Hertz

3) Wavenumber m-1 4) Velocity ergs

40. If 1 and 2 are the wavelength of characteristic X-rays and gamma rays respectively, then the relation between them is

1) 12

1

2) 1 2 3) 1 2 4) 1 2

41. The characteristic not associated with Planck’s theory is : 1) Radiations are associated with energy 2) The magnitude of energy associated with a quantum is proportional to

frequency 3) Radiation energy is neither emitted nor absorbed continuously. 4) Radiation energy is neither emitted nor absorbed discontinuously.


42. Visible light photons do not show Compton effect because they 1) Move very slowly 2) Have no momentum 3) Have very less mass 4) Have larger wavelength 43. Among the first lines of Lyman, Balmer, Paschen and Brackett series in hydrogen

atomic spectra which has higher energy? 1) Lyman 2) Balmer 3) Paschen 4) Bracket

44. The wave number of the aH line in Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum is

1) 5R/36 2) 3R/16 3) 21R/100 4) 3R/4 45. with increasing atomic number of a single electron species, the energy difference

between two orbits 1) Increases 2) Decrease 3) Remains constant 4) First increases followed by a decrease


This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a Numerical values comprising of positive or negative decimal numbers (place value ranging from Thousands Place to Hundredths Place). Eg: 1234.56, 123.45, -123.45, -1234.56, -0.12, 0.12 etc. Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 in all other cases.

46. An oil drop has 6.39 10-19 C charge. What will be number of electrons in this drop______

47. The radius of the Bohr orbit for the electron orbiting the hydrogen nucleus that of the electron orbiting the deuterium nucleus is approximately_____

48. The energy of the second Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is -3.41 eV. The energy of the second orbit of He+ would be_____eV

49. The number of fundamental particles in He4 is X and the number of fundamental particles in C14 is Y. Yhevalu of Y-X……….

50. The e/m ratio of cathode rays is x unit, when hydrogen is filled in the discharge tube. What will be its value when deuterium is filled in it _____ x unit.

Mathematics Max. Marks: 100


This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct. Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.

51. The relation R in the set Z of integers given by , : 2R a b divides a b is

1) Reflexive only 2) Antisymmetric only 3) Transitive 4) Symmetric only 52. Let R be the relation in the set of natural number N given by

, : 2, 6R a b a b b , then

1) 2,4 R 2) 3,8 R 3) 6,8 R 4) 8,7 R


53. When (0,0) shifted to (2, -2) then the transformed equation of 2 22 2 9x y is

1) 2 2 9X Y 2) 2 23 9X Y

3) 2 2 2 6 0X Y X Y 4) 2 24 9 36X Y 54. A relation on a non-empty set is said to be partial order if and only if it is 1) Reflexive, symmetric and transitive 2) Reflexive, antisymmetric and symmetric 3) Reflexive, antisymmetric and transitive 4) None of these 55. Let R be a reflexive relation on a set A and I be the identity relation on set A. Then

which one of the following is true? 1) R I 2) I R 3) R I 4) All of these

56. N is the set of natural numbers. The relation R is defined on NNas , ,a b R c d a d b c . Then R is

1) Reflexive only 2) Symmetric only 3) Transitive only 4) An equivalence relation. 57. Let A be the set of the children in a family and let R be the relation on A such that

x is brother of y. Then the relation R on A is 1) Reflexive 2) symmetric 3) Transitive 4) Anti symmetric 58. Locus of a point P the square of whose distance from origin is 4 times its y coordinate is

1) 2 2 4 0x y y 2) 2 2 4 0x y x

3) 2 2 4 0x y x 4) 2 2 4 0x y y

59. Vertices of a variable triangle are (3, 4);(5cos , 5sin )θ θ and (5sin , 5cos )θ θ where θ is a parameter then the locus of its ortho centre is

1)

22 43 15 5

yx 2) 2 2( 7) ( 1) 100x y x y

3) 2 2( 3) ( 4) 200x y 4) 2 2( 7) ( 1) 10x y x y

60. The locus of the third vertex of a right angled triangle, the ends of whose hypotenuse are 4, 0 and 0, 4 is

1) 2 2 4 4 0x y x y 2) 2 2 4 4 0x y x y

3) 2 2 4 4 0x y x y 4) 2 2 4 4 0x y x y

61. The locus of the point P such that 2 2 22PA PB c where , 0A a , , 0B a

1) 2 22 2 0x y c a 2) 2 22 2 0x y c a

3) 2 22 2 0x y c a 4) 2 22 2 0x y c a


62. The equation of the locus of a point equidistant from points 1 1,a b and 2 2,a b

is 1 2 1 2 0a a x b b y c , the value of c is

1) 2 2 2 21 1 2 2a a bb 2) 2 2 2 2

2 2 1 112

a a bb

3) 2 2 2 21 2 1 2a b ba 4) 2 2 2 2

2 1 1 212

a b ba

63. By translating the axes the equation 2 3 4 0xy x y has changed to XY=K Then K = _______

1) 4 2) 10 3) -4 4)-10

64. If

2

3 -1 for 1 0

tan for 02

for 62

x xxf x x

x xx

, then 1 10 56 5 23

f f f

1) 0 2) 27 323

3) 27 323

4) 3 1

2

65. The Locus of the point, for which the sum of the squares of distances from the coordinate axes is 25 is _________

1) 2 2 29x y 2) 2 2 5x y 3) 2 2 25x y 4) 2 2 19x y

66. If the points are 0, 4A and 0, 4B then find the locus of ,P x y such that

6AP BP

1) 2 29 7 63 0x y 2) 2 29 7 63 0x y

3) 2 29 7 63 0x y 4) 2 29 7 43 0x y

67. A 2, 3 , B 3, 4 are two points. If a point P moves such that the area of PABis 8.5 square unit, then the locus of P is

1) 2 225 34 170 0x y x y 2) 2 210 25 34 170 0x xy y x y

3) 2 25 34 170 0x y x y 4) 2 210 5 34 170 0x xy y x y

68. The transformed equation of 2 24 9 8 36 4 0x y x y when the axes are

translated to 1, 2 is 2 2ax by c then ascending order of a, b, c is

1) c, b, a 2) c, a, b 3) a, b, c 4) a, c, b 69. 90 students take mathematics, 72 take science in a class of 120 students. If 10

take neither Mathematics nor science then number of students who take both the subjects is

1) 52 2) 110 3) 162 4) 100 70. If 4 3 1:nX n n N and 9 1 :Y n n N then X Y =

1) X 2) Y 3) N 4)



This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a Numerical values comprising of positive or negative decimal numbers (place value ranging from Thousands Place to Hundredths Place). Eg: 1234.56, 123.45, -123.45, -1234.56, -0.12, 0.12 etc. Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 in all other cases.

71. If f x ax b and 1,1 , 2,3 , 3,5 , 4,7f then the value of a b ____

72. In a survey of 400 students in a school, 100 were listed as taking apple juice, 150 as taking orange juice and 75 were listed as taking both apple as well as orange juice then how many students were taking neither apple juice nor orange juice are_____

73. The origin is shifted to (1, 2), the equation y2-8x-4y+12=0 changes to Y2-4aX=0 then a=_____

74. If the number of relations on a finite set A having ‘n’ elements is 216, then ‘n’ equals______

75. Suppose 1 2 30, ,.....,A A A are thirty sets each having 5 elements and 1 2, ,....., ,nB B B are

n sets each with 3 elements, let 30

1 1

n

i ji j

A B S= =

= = and each element of S belongs to

exactly 10 of the 'iA s and exactly 9 of the 'jB s . Then ‘n’ is equal to _____

SHAHEEN JUNIOR COLLEGEHyerderabad

Class : I Year Group: MPC (JEE MAINS) (WEM-2 _KEY) Marks: 300 Date: 08–08–2021

1– 3 2– 1 3– 3 4– 2 5– 4 6– 1 7– 2 8– 3 9– 2 10– 4

11– 4 12– 1 13– 2 14– 1 15– 1 16– 2 17– 1 18– 2 19– 1 20– 4

21–24.00

22–105.00

23–36.00

24–105.00

25–4.00 26– 4 27– 1 28– 1 29– 4 30– 2

31– 3 32– 1 33– 1 34– 4 35– 4 36– 1 37– 2 38– 2 39– 4 40– 3

41– 4 42– 4 43– 1 44– 1 45– 1 46–4.00

47–1.00

48–-13.6

49–14.00

50–1.00

51- 3 52– 3 53– 1 54–3 55– 2 56– 4 57– 3 58– 4 59– 2 60– 2

61– 3 62– 2 63– 2 64– 4 65– 3 66– 1 67– 2 68– 3 69– 1 70– 3

71–1.00

72–225.00

73–2.00

74–4.00

75–45.00

shaheen junior college hyderabad branch

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