set-2014-po-016_q
TRANSCRIPT
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2 PO-016
iz'ukoyh IrdZ'kfDr
funsZ'k (iz- 1-5): fuEufyf[kr lwpuk dk lkoèkkuhiwoZd vè;;u djsa ,oa uhps fn, iz'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A
cksMZ dh ,d cSBd esa lkr lnL; ,d vk;rkdkj est ds pkjksa vksj cSBs gSaA mu 7 lnL;ksa ds uke jtuh] jkts'k] jkfxuh] js'ko] #fprk]
jkgqy vkSj jkt gSaA est ds izR;sd NksVs Hkkx esa ,d O;fDr cSBrk gS vkSj 3 O;fDr est ds ,d cM+s Hkkx esa cSBrs gSa vkSj 2 O;fDr blds nwljscM+s Hkkx esa cSBrs gSaA jkfxuh] jkgqy ds ck,a ls rhljs LFkku ij cSBh gS tks fd ,d cM+s Hkkx esa cSBk gS ftlesa nks O;fDr cSBs gSaA js'ko ,dNksVs Hkkx esa gS vkSj jkt] js'ko ds nkfgus ls rhljk gSA jtuh] js'ko ds rqjar nk,a gSA #fprk] jkt ds fudV ugha gSA
1. jkt vkSj jtuh ds chp dkSu cSBk gS\
1) jkts'k ;k #fprk 2) jkgqy ;k #fprk 3) jkfxuh ;k jkts'k 4) jkfxuh ;k jkgqy 5) Kkr ugha dj ldrs
2. fuEufyf[kr esa ls jkfxuh ds ck,a rhljs LFkku ij dkSu cSBk gS\
1) jkgqy 2) jkts'k 3) jkt 4) jkt ;k jkgqy 5) Kkr ugha dj ldrs
3. jkgqy vkSj js'ko ds chp dkSu gS\
1) jkt ;k jtuh 2) #fprk ;k jkt 3) jtuh 4) #fprk ;k jtuh 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
4. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk tksM+k ml cM+s Hkkx esa cSBk gS ftlesa nks yksx cSBs gSa\
1) jkgqy vkSj jkts'k 2) #fprk vkSj jtuh 3) jkgqy vkSj #fprk 4) jtuh vkSj jkgqy 5) ;k rks 3) ;k 4)
5. #fprk ds rqjar fudV dkSu cSBk gks ldrk gS\
1) jkfxuh vkSj jkt 2) jkgqy vkSj jkfxuh 3) js'ko vkSj jkt 4) jkts'k vkSj jkfxuh 5) jtuh ,oa js'ko
funsZ'k (iz- 6-10): bu iz'uksa esa] dFkuksa esa fofHkUu rRoksa ds chp lacaèk fn[kk;k x;k gSA dFkuksa ds ckn rhu fu"d"kZ fn, x, gSaAfn, x, dFkuksa dks lR; ekurs gq, Kkr dhft, fd dkSu&lk@ls fu"d"kZ fuf'pr :i ls lR; gS@gSaA
6. dFku % P < R, R > L S, L > M
fu"d"kZ % I. M S II. R > M III. PS
1) dksbZ lR; ugha gS 2) dsoy I lR; gS 3) dsoy II lR; gS
4) dsoy III lR; gS 5) dsoy I vkSj III nksuksa lR; gSa
7. dFku% A C F, Z X, F < Xfu"d"kZ % I. F > A II. F A III. Z > F1) dsoy I vkSj II lR; gSa 2) dsoy ;k rks I ;k II vkSj III lR; gSa 3) lHkh lR; gSa
4) dsoy III lR; gS 5) dksbZ lR; ugha gS
8. dFku: X Y T, F C, T < F
fu"d"kZ % I. T < X II. C > T III. Y < F
1) dsoy I lR; gS 2) dsoy II lR; gS 3) dsoy III lR; gS
4) dsoy I vkSj II lR; gSa 5) dksbZ lR; ugha gS
9. dFku: H T, T M, X < M, Z X
fu"d"kZ % I. X H II. X > T III. Z > T
1) dsoy I lR; gS 2) dsoy II lR; gS 3) dsoy II vkSj III lR; gSa4) dsoy I vkSj II lR; gSa 5) dksbZ lR; ugha gS
10. dFku: A C, P C, D < P, P > Xfu"d"kZ % I. A > D II. A > X III. D X1) dsoy I lR; gS 2) dsoy II lR; gS 3) dsoy I vkSj II lR; gSa
4) lHkh lR; gSa 5) dksbZ lR; ugha gS
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Test I
Reasoning
Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
In a board meeting seven board members are sitting around a rectangular table. The names of these seven members are
Rajni, Rajesh, Ragini, Reshav, Ruchita, Rahul and Raj. One person sits on each smaller side and three persons are sitting on
longer side and two persons are sitting on another longer side. Ragini is sitting to the third left of Rahul, who is sitting on the
longer side where two persons are sitting. Reshav is on one smaller side and Raj is to the third right of Reshav. Rajni is to the
immediate right of Reshav. Ruchita is not near to Raj.
1. Who is sitting between Raj and Rajni?
1) Rajesh or Ruchita 2) Rahul or Ruchita 3) Ragini or Rajesh 4) Ragini or Rahul 5) Can't be determined
2. Who among of the following sits on the third left of Ragini?
1) Rahul 2) Rajesh 3) Raj 4) Raj or Rahul 5) Can't be determined
3. Who is between Rahul and Reshav?
1) Raj or Rajni 2) Ruchita or Raj 3) Rajni 4) Ruchita or Rajni 5) None of these
4. Which of the following pairs is sitting on that longer side where two persons are sitting?1) Rahul and Rajesh 2) Ruchita and Rajni 3) Rahul and Ruchita 4) Rajni and Rahul 5) Either 3) or 4)
5. Who may be sitting immediate near to Ruchita?
1) Ragini and Raj 2) Rahul and Ragini 3) Reshav and Raj 4) Rajesh and Ragini 5) Rajni and Reshav
Directions (Q. 6-10): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These
statements are followed by three conclusions. Assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions is/are
definitely true.
6. Statements: P < R, R > L S, L > M
Conclusions: I. MS II. R > M III. PS
1) None is true 2) Only I is true 3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true 5) Only I and III are true
7. Statements: AC F, Z X, F < X
Conclusions: I. F > A II. F A III. Z > F
1) Only I and II are true 2) Only either I or II and III are true 3) All are true
4) Only III is true 5) None is true
8. Statements: X Y T, F C, T < F
Conclusions: I. T < X II. C > T III. Y < F
1) Only I is true 2) Only II is true 3) Only III is true
4) Only I and II are true 5) None is true
9. Statements: H T, T M, X < M, Z X
Conclusions: I. X H II. X > T III. Z > T1) Only I is true 2) Only II is true 3) Only II and III are true
4) Only I and II are true 5) None is true
10. Statements: A C, P C, D < P, P > X
Conclusions: I. A > D II. A > X III. D X
1) Only I is true 2) Only II is true 3) Only I and II are true
4) All are true 5) None is true
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funsZ'k (iz- 11-15)% uhps fn, x, izR;sd iz'u esa dqN dFku vkSj muds ckn nks fu"d"kZ I vkSj II fn, x, gSaA vkidks fn, x, nksuksa dFkuksa dks lR; le>uk gS Hkys gh os loZKkr rF;ksa ls esy u [kkrs gksa vkSj fQj ;g r; djuk gS fd fn, x, fu"d"kks± esa ls dkSu&lkfu"d"kZ dFkuksa dk rdZlaxr :i ls vuqlj.k djrk gS] Hkys gh loZKkr rF; dqN Hkh gksaA mÙkj nhft, &
1) ;fn dsoy fu"d"kZ I vuqlj.k djrk gSA2) ;fn dsoy fu"d"kZ II vuqlj.k djrk gSA
3) ;fn ;k rks fu"d"kZ I ;k II vuqlj.k djrk gSA4) ;fn u rks fu"d"kZ I u gh II vuqlj.k djrk gSA5) ;fn fu"d"kZ I vkSj II nksuksa vuqlj.k djrs gSaA
11. dFku % dqN fookfgr f'kf{kr gSaAdqN f'kf{kr vkneh gSaAlHkh vkneh ;ksX; gSaA
fu"d"kZ % I. dqN f'kf{kr ;fn os vkneh gSa] ;ksX; gSaAII. dqN f'kf{kr ;fn os ;ksX; gSa] vkneh gSaA
12. dFku % lHkh 'ks;j fMosapj gSaAdksbZ fMosapj bfDofV ugha gSAcgqr&lh bfDofV eSP;qfjfV gSaA
fu"d"kZ % I. dksbZ Hkh fMosapj eSP;qfjfV ugha gks ldrk gSAII. lHkh fMosapj tks 'ks;j gSa] bfDofV gks ldrs gSaA
13. dFku % dqN MkWDVj /kuh gSaAlHkh /kuh tks MkWDVj gSa] bZekunkj gSaA
fu"d"kZ % I. cgqr ls MkWDVj bZekunkj gSaAII. dqN bZekunkj] laHkor% /kuh gSaA
14. dFku % dksbZ NYyk ia[k ugha gSAdqN ia[k jktk gSaAlHkh jktk cgknqj gSaA
fu"d"kZ % I. dqN cgknqj NYys gks ldrs gSaAII. jktk tks ia[k ugha gSa] NYys gSaA
15. dFku % lHkh jkfu;ka [kwclwjr gSaAdqN jktdqekfj;ka jkfu;ka gSaAdksbZ Hkh [kwclwjr dqyhu ugha gSA
fu"d"kZ % I. lHkh [kwclwjr tks jktdqekfj;ka gSa] vko';d :i ls jkfu;ka gksaxhAII. lHkh jkfu;ka dqyhu gaSA
16. ,d fuf'pr dqV Hkk"kk esa] BROUGHT dks PSCTVJI ds :i esa fy[kk tkrk gSA bl Hkk"kk esa HEARING dks dSls fy[kk tk,xk\1) BFIQHOJ 2 ) IFBQIPK 3) BFIQIPK 4) BFIQHPI 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
17. vaxzsth o.kZekyk Ük a[kyk ds vk/kkj ,d fuf'pr rjhds ls ikap esa ls pkj ,d leku gSa vkSj ,d lewg cukrs gSaA fuEu esa ls dkSu&lkml lewg ls lacaf/kr ugha gS\1) GI 2 ) OQ 3) MO 4) AD 5) UW
18. jfo] jktw dk firk gS] lq/kk] jktw dh xzkaMenj gSA jk/kk] lq/kk dh cgu gSA jkuh] jfo dh iRuh gSA jk/kk ls jfo dk D;k laca/k gS\
1) cgu 2 ) ful 3) flLVj&bu&ykW 4) ekek 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
19. fdlh dw V Hkk"kk es a ‘li ko jee’dk vFkZ ‘paper is tough’ gS( ‘si pee jee’ dk vFkZ ‘competition is high’ gS( ‘da li’ dk vFkZ ‘good paper’vkSj ‘pa si’ dk vFkZ ‘no competition’ gSA ‘no is good’ ds fy, D;k vkuk pkfg,\1) pa jee da 2) si ko da 3) da jee pee 4) pa li jee 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
20. fodkl nf{k.k dh vksj 20 ehVj pyk vkSj nk;ha vksj eqM+dj 5 ehVj vkxs x;kA og iqu% nk;ha vksj eqM+k vkSj :dus ls igys 20 ehVjpykA :dus ds i'pkr fodkl fdl fn'kk dh vksj eqag fd;s [kM+k gS\1) if'pe 2) mÙkj 3) nf{k.k 4) iwoZ 5) fu/kkZfjr ugha dj ldrs
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Directions (Q. 11-15): In each of the given questions, some statements are followed by two conclusions I and II. You have
to assume everything in the statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either I or II follows.4) if neither I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
11. Statements: Some married are educated.
Some educated are men.
All men are qualified.
Conclusions: I. Some educated if they are men are qualified.
II. Some educated if they are qualified are men.
12. Statements: All shares are debentures.
No debenture is an equity.
Many equities are maturities.
Conclusions: I. No debenture can be a maturity.II. All debentures that are shares may be equities.
13. Statements: Some doctors are rich.
All rich who are doctors are honest.
Conclusions: I. Many doctors are honest.
II. Some honest are possibly rich.
14. Statements: No ring is a wing.
Some wings are kings.
All kings are brave.
Conclusions: I. Some brave may be ring.
II. Kings which are not wings are rings.
15. Statements: All queens are beautiful.Some princesses are queens.
No beautiful is royal.
Conclusions: I. All beautifuls which are princesses will necessarily be queens.
II. All queens are royal.
16. In a certain code language, BROUGHT is written as PSCTVJI. How is HEARING written in that code?
1) BFIQHOJ 2 ) IFBQIPK 3) BFIQIPK 4) BFIQHPI 5) None of these
17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on English alphabetical series and so form a group. Which of
the following does not belong to that group?
1) GI 2 ) OQ 3) MO 4) AD 5) UW
18. Ravi is Raju’s father, Sudha is Raju’s grandmother, Radha is Sudha’s sister, Rani is Ravi’s wife. How is Ravi related to
Radha?
1) Sister 2 ) Niece 3) Sister-in-law 4) Maternal uncle 5) None of these
19. In a certain code ‘li ko jee’ means ‘paper is tough’; ‘si pee jee’ means ‘competition is high’; ‘da li’ means ‘good paper’ and
‘pa si’ means ‘no competition’. What should stand for ‘no is good’ ?
1) pa jee da 2) si ko da 3) da jee pee 4) pa li jee 5) None of these
20. Vikas walked 20 metres towards south, took a right turn and walked 5 metres. He took a right turn again and walked 20
metres before stopping. Which direction does Vikas face after stopping?
1) West 2) North 3) South 4) East 5) Can’t be determined
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funsZ'k (iz- 21-25): fuEufyf[kr O;oLFkk dk lkoèkkuhiwoZd vè;;u djsa ,oa uhps fn, x, iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
N% f[kykM+h A, B, C, D, E vkSj F pkj [ksyksa & Vsful] jsflax] fu'kkusckth ,oa jkbfMax esa ls ,d [ksy [ksyrs gSa vkSj pkj jaxksa dhdehtksa & yky] gjh] dkyh vkSj ukjaxh esa ls ,d deht igurs gSaA C ;k rks yky ;k gjh deht igurk gSA og O;fDr tks jkbfMax djrkgS] yky deht ugha igurk gS( A jkbfMax ugha djrk gSA jsflax ds nksuksa f[kykM+h vyx &vyx jaxksa dh dehtsa igurs gSa ysfdu ukjaxh dehtugha igurs gSaA F Vsful [ksyrk gS vkSj Vsful dk f[kykM+h yky deht ugha igurk gSA nks f[kykM+h dkyh vkSj ,d f[kykM+h ukjaxh deht
igurk gSA ,d f[kykM+h fu'kkusckth esa gS vkSj gjh deht igurk gSA D yky deht igurk gS vkSj Vsful f[kykM+h dkyh deht ugha igurkgSA E jkbfMax esa gS vkSj dkyh deht igurk gS tcfd A ukjaxh deht igurk gSA nks ls vf/kd f[kykM+h ,d gh [ksy esa ugh gSa vkSj ,dtSlh dehtsa ugha igurs gSaA
21. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh dehtsa nks f[kykfM+;ksa }kjk iguh tkrh gaS\1) dkyh vkSj ukjaxh 2) yky vkSj gjh 3) dkyh vkSj yky 4) gjh vkSj dkyh 5) yky vkSj ukjaxh
22. jkbfMax djus okys f[kykM+h }kjk dkSu&ls jax dh deht iguh tkrh gS\1) yky 2) gjh 3) dkyh 4) ukja xh 5) Kkr ugha dj ldrs
23. B ds }kjk dkSu &lk [ksy [ksyk tkrk gS vkSj fdl jax dh deht iguh tkrh gS\1) jkbfMax vkSj dkyh 2) fu'kkusckth vkSj gjh 3) jsflax vkSj dkyh 4) Vsful vkSj yky 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
24. fn, x, MkVk ds vuqlkj fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk la;kstu lgh gS\
1) Eµ dkyhµ jsflax 2) Fµ ykyµ Vsful 3) Dµ gjhµ jsflax 4) Aµ ukjaxhµ Vs ful 5) Cµ gjhµ jkbfMax25. jsflax ds vykok dkSu&lk [ksy nks f[kykfM+;ksa }kjk [ksyk tkrk gS\
1) Vs ful 2) fu'kkusckth 3) jkbfMax 4) Vsful ;k jkbfMax 5) jkbfMax ;k fu'kkusckth
funsZ'k (iz. 26-30): uhps fn, x, izR;sd iz'u esa ,d iz'u vkSj mlds uhps nks dFku I vkSj II fn, x, gSa] vkidks ;g r; djukgS fd dFkuksa esa fn;k x;k MkVk iz'u dk mÙkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr gS ;k ugha] nksuksa dFkuksa dks if
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Directions (Q. 21-25): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six players A, B, C, D, E and F play one game out of four viz Tennis, Racing, Shooting, Riding and wear one shirt out of
four colour shirts – red, green, black and orange. C wears either red or green shirt. The person who plays Riding does not wear
red shirt; A does not play Riding. Both the racing players wear different colour shirts but do not wear orange shirt. F plays
Tennis and Tennis player does not wear red shirt. Two players wear black shirts and one wears orange. One player is in
Shooting and wears green shirt. D wears red shirt and tennis player does not wear black shirt. E is in Riding and wears black shirt while A wears orange shirt. Not more than two players are in the same game and wear same shirt.
21. Which of the following shirts is worn by two players?
1) Black and Orange 2) Red and Green 3) Black and Red 4) Green and Black 5) Red and Orange
22. Which colour shirt is worn by the player who plays Riding?
1) Red 2) Green 3) Black 4) Orange 5) Can’t be determined
23. Which of the games is played and is which shirt worn by B?
1) Riding and Black 2) Shooting and Green 3) Racing and Black 4) Tennis and Red 5) None of these
24. Which of the following is the correct combination according to the given data?
1) E- Black- Racing 2) F-Red-Tennis 3) D- Green-Racing 4) A-Orange-Tennis 5) C-Green-Riding
25. Which of the games is played by two players other than Racing?
1) Tennis 2) Shooting 3) Riding 4) Tennis or Riding 5) Riding or Shooting
Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered
I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient.
2) if the data in II alone is sufficient, while the data in I alone is not sufficient.
3) if the data either in I alone or II alone is sufficient.
4) if the data in both I and II together is not sufficient.
5) if the data in both I and II together is necessary to answer the question.
26. What is the code for ‘too’ in a certain code language?
I. ‘ re li pa’ means ‘weather is hot’.
II. ‘lee ke fi’ means ‘too hot summer’.
27. Who among Ravi, Arun, Rishi, Akash, Nishi and Tinku is the lightest?
I. Nishi is lighter than Arun but not the lightest.
II. Rishi is heavier than Akash, Ravi and Tinku but not the heaviest.
28. What is Kishan’s rank from the top in a class of 35 students?
I. Vinay is 12th from the bottom and three ranks below kishan.
II. Sagar is two ranks above Kishan and 4th from the top.
29. How is Manav related to Yash?I. Sudha is mother of Manav’s sister.
II. Yash’s brother is husband of Sudha.
30. Five students A, B, C, D and E sit in a row facing the north. Who sits in the middle?
I. E sits on the right of C.
II. B and D are at two extreme ends of the row.
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funsZ'k (iz- 31-35): fn, x, iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, fuEu lwpuk dk vè;;u djsaA
fdlh 'kCn rFkk la[;kvksa dh buiqV iafDr nsus ij ,d O;oLFkk e'khu izR;sd pj.k gsrq fo'ks"k fu;ekuqlkj mls iquO;ZofLFkr djrhgSA buiqV ,oa iquO;ZoLFkk ds pj.kksa dk izn'kZu fuEufyf[kr gS %
buiqV : 95 roof dry 76 81 song 56 king 37pj.k I : 37 95 roof dry 76 81 song 56 king
pj.k II : 37 dry roof 95 76 81 song 56 kingpj.k III : 37 dry 56 roof 95 76 81 song kingpj.k IV : 37 dry 56 king 95 76 81 song roof pj.k V : 37 dry 56 king 76 95 81 song roof pj.k VI : 37 dry 56 king 76 roof 81 song 95pj.k VI e'khu dk vafre vkmViqV gSAÅij ikyu fd, x, fu;eksa ds vuqlkj fuEu iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
31. buiqV “47 68 run gun 72 sun 39 fun 54” ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls pj.k V dkSu &lk gksxk\1) 39 fun 47 gun 54 72 68 run sun 2) 39 fun 47 gun 54 68 run 72 sun3) 39 fun 47 gun 54 run 68 72 sun 4) 39 fun 47 gun 54 run 72 68 sun5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
32. ;fn buiqV “62 pop 54 top hop 76 88 sop 45” gS] rks vafre vkmViqV izkIr djus ds fy, fdrus pj.kksa dh vko';drk gS\1) pkj 2) N% 3) lkr 4) ikap 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
33. ;fn ,d e'khu dk rhljk pj.k “29 opts 43 pots 63 top 54 76 spot” gS] rks fdrus pj.kksa ds ckn vafre vkmViqV izkIr djldrs gSa\1) ikap 2) N% 3) pkj 4) rhu 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
34. ;fn “42 for 59 go 67 of 93 82 to” pj.k VI gS] rks e'khu dk pj.k III izkIr djsaA1) 42 for 59 of 82 67 93 go to 2) 42 for 59 go 93 to 67 82 of 3) 42 for 59 go 67 93 of 82 to4) Kkr ugha dj ldrs 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
35. buiqV “62 pop 54 top hop 76 88 sop 45” ds fy, pj.k III fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk gksxk\1) 45 hop 54 pop top 62 76 88 sop 2) 45 hop pop 54 top 62 76 88 sop 3) 45 hop 54 pop 62 top 76 88 sop
4) 45 hop 54 pop top 76 62 88 sop 5) buesa ls dksbZ ughafunsZ'k (iz- 36-38): fuEufyf[kr ifjPNsn dks ia>kokrksa ls nwj ys tku s esa leFkZ cukrk gSA(E) LVSaMMZ ,.M iqvlZ }kjk vesfjdh vFkZO;oLFkk dks de djds vkadus esa vesfjdh _.k cktkj dh rjyrk dks 'kkfey ugha fd;k x;k gSA
36. mi;qZDr (A), (B), (C), (D) vkSj (E) esa ls dkSu &lk mi;qZDr ifjPNsn dk ,d vuqeku gS\1) A 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) C
37. mi;qZDr (A), (B), (C), (D) vkSj (E) esa ls dkSu &lh mi;qZDr ifjPNsn dh ,d iwoZ/kkj.kk gS\1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
38. mi;qZDr (A), (B), (C), (D) vkSj (E) esa ls mi;qZDr ifjPNsn dk ,d fu"d"kZ dkSu &lk gS\1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
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Directions (Q. 31-35): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
A number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numerals, rearranges them following a particular rule in each
step. The following is an illustration of the input and the steps of the rearrangement.
Input : 95 roof dry 76 81 song 56 king 37
Step I : 37 95 roof dry 76 81 song 56 king
Step II : 37 dry roof 95 76 81 song 56 king
Step III : 37 dry 56 roof 95 76 81 song king
Step IV : 37 dry 56 king 95 76 81 song roof
Step V : 37 dry 56 king 76 95 81 song roof
Step VI : 37 dry 56 king 76 roof 81 song 95
Step VI is the final output.
In accordance with the rules followed above, answer the following questions.
31. Which among the following will be Step V for the input “47 68 run gun 72 sun 39 fun 54”?
1) 39 fun 47 gun 54 72 68 run sun 2) 39 fun 47 gun 54 68 run 72 sun
3) 39 fun 47 gun 54 run 68 72 sun 4) 39 fun 47 gun 54 run 72 68 sun
5) None of these
32. How many steps are required to get the final output if input is “62 pop 54 top hop 76 88 sop 45”?
1) four 2) six 3) seven
4) five 5) None of these
33. If step III of the machine is “29 opts 43 pots 63 top 54 76 spot”, then after how many steps final output can be drawn?
1) five 2) six 3) four
4) three 5) None of these
34. If “42 for 59 go 67 of 93 82 to” is Step VI, then find out Step III of this machine?
1) 42 for 59 of 82 67 93 go to 2) 42 for 59 go 93 to 67 82 of 3) 42 for 59 go 67 93 of 82 to
4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these
35. Which among the following will be Step III for the input “62 pop 54 top hop 76 88 sop 45”?
1) 45 hop 54 pop top 62 76 88 sop 2) 45 hop pop 54 top 62 76 88 sop 3) 45 hop 54 pop 62 top 76 88 sop
4) 45 hop 54 pop top 76 62 88 sop 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 36-38): Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Despite debt crisis in US and downgrade of its economy by Standard and Poor's, US government debt still remains the
most sought after asset; partly because of want of alternatives, partly because there is no other asset market that is so liquid
and partly because the dollar, for all its weakness, remains the international reserve currency. The net result is that while
interest rates are likely to rise in the US and growth will be impacted adversely as a result, it isn't a Doomsday scenario.
(A) Government debt bonds are most sought after capital instrument throughout the world.
(B) There have been speculations that the debt crisis may upstage the US as the world's number one economy.
(C) Interest rates hike is a natural corollary to all financial crises.
(D) US dollar as an international reserve currency enables the US economy to wither away all storms.
(E) Standard & Poor's downgrading of the US economy doesn't take into account the liquidity of the US debt market.
36. Which ̀ of the above (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) is an inference of the above passage?
1) A 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) C
37. Which of the above (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) is an assumption of the above passage?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
38. Which of the above (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) is a conclusion of the above passage?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
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39. fuEufyf[kr ifjPNsn dks i
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39. Read the following passage and answer the question given below.
Back in the good old days, there was a section officer in Madras. She was scrupulously honest and was posted in key
departments whenever the state was brought under President's Rule. The moment an elected government was voted in,
she would be transferred to a section where she would not get in the way of the money that could be made.
Which of the following is an inference of the above passage?
1) Elected governments do not tolerate insubordination of its officials.2) During President's Rule, strict tab is maintained on corrupt officials.
3) Lady officers are more strict during President's rule in a state.
4) Honesty is an anathema for elected governments.
5) None of these
40. Read the following passage and answer the question given below.
China's relative immunity to terror is due to the fact that it is a 'hard' state. When terrorists attack hard states as happened
when Chechen extremists held a schoolful of children hostage in Beslan in 2004, the response of the state out-terrorises
the terrorists. The final death toll included some 200 children.
Which of the following is the consequence/repercussion of the above passage?
1) Hard states like China and Russia are largely immune from scourge of terrorism.
2) Human rights and democracy are a luxury in the countries where terrorism is dealt with brutal methods.
3) Iron hand against terrorism in countries like Russia and Israel has made these countries breeding grounds of terrorism.
4) Human aspects of terrorism need to be addressed.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 41-43): Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which
of the arguments is a “strong” argument and which is a “weak” argument.
41. Statement: Should India engage in joint military exercises with other countries and provide weapons to them?
Arguments: I. Yes: This will increase India's trust bond with other countries and enhance co-operation with other
countries.
II. No: Other countries will come to know the weak points of India and can attack.
III. No: Such exercises may anger the big powers of the world.1) Only I and II 2) Only II and III 3) Only I and III 4) Only I 5) None of these
42. Statement: Should India keep acquiring deadly weapons from its friendly countries and increase financial allocations
for weapons?
Arguments: I. Yes: All the neighbouring countries are trying to acquire more and more deadly weapons. They are
upgrading their weaponry.
II. No: Weapons do not keep much importance for developing countries. After all, India is not going to
fight with any country.
III. No: India is a poor country and it can't afford to invest heavily on acquiring weapons.
1) Only I 2) Only I and III 3) Only III 4) Only II and III 5) None of these
43. Statement: Should India loosen its visa rules for neighbouring countries so that the number of tourists increases in the
near future and the economy is boosted up?Arguments: I. Yes: This will demonstrate that India is cooperative with other countries.
II. No: There may be chances of increased terror activities in India.
III. No: India's economy is already booming and there is no need for such liberal measures to boost the
economy.
1) Only III 2) Only II 3) Only I and III 4) All of the above 5) None of the above
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funsZ'k (iz- 44-45): uhps izR;sd iz'u esa ,d dFku vkSj mlds ckn dk;Zokgh ds rhu mik; I, II vkSj III fn, x, gSaA dk;Zokghls rkRi;Z ml mik; vFkok iz'kkldh; fu.kZ; ls gS tks leL;k] uhfr vkfn ds lanHkZ esa lqèkkj] vuqoÙkZu ;k vkxs dh tkus okyh dk;Zokgh
ls lacafèkr gSA dFku esa nh xbZ tkudkjh ds vkèkkj ij vkidks dFku esa nh xbZ izR;sd ckr dks lgh ekuuk gS vkSj mlds ckn r; djukgS fd fn, x, lq>koksa esa dkSu&lh dk;Zokgh dk;kZUo;u ds fy, rdZlaxr :i ls vuqlj.k djrh gSA
44. dFku % mPp 'kqYd
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Directions (Q. 44-45): In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and
III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard
to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the
statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
44. Statement: Getting admission in higher institutions has become very difficult for children because of the high fee
structure.Courses of action: I. Government should fix some criteria which should be followed by all the institutions, so that
even poor students get a chance to prove themselves.
II. Government can't give any instruction to private institutions. Government should open its own
institutions which can provide better education to the poor.
III. Those who do not get admission should wait for the next academic session
1) Only II 2) Only III 3) Only I 4) Only I and III 5) None of the above
45. Statement: Government has banned the use of polyethylene bags, but its manufacturing is still rampant.
Courses of action: I. There should be strict punishment for those who violate the stipulated norms.
II. The Government should address the people to spread the message that polyethylene is harmful
for health and it spoils our environment.
III. The manufacturer should be allowed to divert their goods to other states.
1) Only I and II 2) Only III 3) Only II and III 4) Only I 5) All the above
Directions (Q. 46-49): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven persons who travel to office everyday by a particular train which stops at five stations
I, II, III, IV and V respectively after it leaves base station.
(1) Three among them get in the train at the base station.
(2) D gets down at the next station at which F gets down.
(3) B does not get down either with A or E.
(4) G alone gets in at station III and gets down with C after having passed one station.
(5) A travels between only two stations and gets down at station V.
(6) None of them gets in at station II.
(7) C gets in with F but does not get in with either B or D.
(8) E gets in with two others and gets down alone after D.
(9) B and D work in the same office and they get down together at station III.(10) None of them gets down at station I.
46. At which station does E get down?
1) #II 2) #III 3) #IV 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
47. At which station do C and F get in?
1) #I 2) #II 3) #III 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
48. At which of the following stations do B and D get in?
1) #I 2) Base station 3) #III 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
49. After how many stations does E get down?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
50. Mohan and Suresh study in the same class. Mohan has secured more marks than Suresh in the terminal examination.
Suresh’s rank is seventh from top among all the students in the class. Which of the following is definitely true?
1) Mohan stood first in the terminal examination.
2) There is at least one student between Mohan and Suresh in the rank list.
3) There are at the most five students between Mohan and Suresh in the rank list.
4) Suresh is five ranks lower than Mohan in the rank list.
5) None of these
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Test II
English Language
Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are
given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
In the din and cackle of the communal eruptions in Gujarat, neither the media nor the intellectuals have heard the cry of
protest and anger from the Army on being called in todouse communal fires. This, especially at a time when it was deployed in
Operation Parakram, the country’s biggest mobilisation of the armed forces since 1971 to teach Pakistan a lesson if it did not
stop cross-border terrorism. But war and communalism do not mix in India.
Many lessons have emerged from Godhra to Gujarat carnage. The one that will easily be forgotten is the abysmal failure
of the police and central paramilitary forces to control internal conflict, namely communal violence, and the alacrity with which
the Army is requisitioned. The Army has two tasks: to defend the country against external aggression is its primary mission.
There is a secondary task: assist state and Central governments in maintaining internal security as well as providing relief
during natural calamities.
The secondary role is fast becoming the primary one as the line between external and internal security has got blurred.
The intention of any democratic republic must be the prevention of the use of its fighting forces against its own people. The
Army is a weapon of last resort.
The debate on the employment of the Army in internal security duties, especially communally charged situations, was
joined in 1984 after Operation Blue Star which led to the first organised mutiny in the armed forces in independent India. It was
felt that the armed forces, especially the Army, being the true model in the country of nationalism and secularism, be insulated
against tasks of internal security to avoid its politicisation and communalisation.
The second debate on the internal security role of the Army — whether it or some other force should fight insurgency
and terrorism — surfaced after the renewal of the proxy war in J&K in 1990. Thirty-six battalions of the Rashtriya Rifles (RR)
were raised under Army control to reduce the Army’s involvement in its secondary tasks. Thir ty additional battalions of RR are
under raising which will help the Army fight externally-supported internal conflict—but not free it altogether. The human
tragedy in Gujarat timed with Operation Parakram is a good time to draw red lines for the Army’s spiralling induction into
situations of internal security. And keeping the Army out of communal incidents must become a rule rather than the exception.
The Lakshman rekha was drawn with the blood of its soldiers in the Golden Temple and must be inviolate.
It will be useful to recall that during the Babri Masjid standoff between 1990 and 1992, the Army, though located at Ayodhya, behaved to a pattern. On October 30, 1990, it refused requisitioning by the Commissioner of Faizabad even after police firing,
hundreds dead and communal rioting. On December 6, 1992, the same brigade at Ayodhya, this time not requisitioned, refused to
budge to save the Babri Masjid even when it had prior information that demolition would take place. Rightly or wrongly, the Army
did not act on both occasions as it had taken a policy decision after Blue Star not to communalise its rank and file.
51. Which of the following is not among the tasks of our Army?
1) To protect the sovereignty of the nation 2) To help maintain law and order in the nation when needed
3) To attack our enemy nations and seize their terr itories 4) To indulge in rescue and relief works during natural disasters
5) None of these
52. What does the author mean by saying “The Army is a weapon of last resort.”?
1) The Army is helpless at certain times. 2) The Army is the only effective institution.
3) The Army should never be used in internal matters. 4) The Army is a force to reckon with.
5) None of these
53. Why is the secondary role of the Army becoming its primary role?
1) Because the line of demarcation between external and internal security has become vague
2) Because the line of demarcation between external and internal security has vanished
3) Because the line between external and internal security has overlapped
4) Because the line between external and internal security has diminished
5) None of these
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54. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
1) Central paramilitary forces were able to control communal violence during Gujarat carnage.
2) Babri Masjid was demolished even though the Army tried its best to save it.
3) It has been proved that the Army is a communal force.
4) The Army is seen as a true model in secular India.
5) None of these
55. What message does the first organised mutiny in the armed forces give?
1) The armed forces should not be used against their will.
2) The armed forces are not effective at all times.
3) The armed forces should not be used to tackle communal strife.
4) The armed forces may turn hostile at times.
5) None of these
56. Why did the Army, despite being stationed at Ayodhya, refuse to save the Babri Masjid?
1) Because it was not in its jurisdiction
2) Because it was a matter of law and order
3) Because it was not prepared to tackle the gravity of the matter
4) Because it wanted to keep away from communally sensitive situation
5) None of these
57. Which of the following is false in the context of the passage?
1) When the Babri Masjid was being demolished the Army was not in the scene.
2) The Army can deal with communal issues with ease and without any repercussion.
3) To avoid its politicisation, the Army should be prevented from being used in matters of internal security.
4) The Army should be called for only when all the other options fail.
5) None of these
58. What do you mean by the phrase “to draw red lines”, as used in the passage?
1) to challenge 2) to argue 3) to stop 4) to reverse 5) None of these
59. What does the author want to convey through this passage?
1) The Army should tackle all the odds surrounding our country.
2) The Army should be used to deal mainly with external security.3) Communal violence needs to be tackled through effective policing.
4) Failure in internal security has nothing to do with the Army.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 60-62): Choose the word which is same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.
60. AGGRESSION
1) strife 2) disturbance 3) threat 4) peril 5) attacking
61. RESORT
1) option 2) action 3) solution 4) strike 5) experiment
62. MUTINY
1) indiscipline 2) war 3) quarrel 4) rebellion 5) infighting
Directions (Q. 63-65): Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.63. DOUSE
1) fume 2) heat 3) ignite 4) engulf 5) rage
64. ALACRITY
1) promptness 2) tardiness 3) idleness 4) bewilderness 5) sadness
65. BLURRED
1) confused 2) stronger 3) emphatic 4) popular 5) distinct
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Directions (Q. 66-70): Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below them.
A. The north is bordered by mountain ranges while the remaining sides of Greece are enclosed by the Mediterranean sea.
B. The people there were called the Greeks.
C. Greeks, therefore, became good navigators.
D. The typical character of Greek civilisation is due to the geographic conditions prevailing there.
E. The name Greece comes from one of the islands to the south-east of Europe known as Graecia.
66. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence?
1) C 2) D 3) A 4) B 5) E
67. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence?
1) B 2) E 3) A 4) D 5) C
68. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence?
1) A 2) E 3) D 4) C 5) B
69. Which of the following will be the LAST sentence?
1) C 2) D 3) B 4) E 5) A
70. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence?
1) B 2) C 3) A 4) E 5) D
Directions (Q. 71-75): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in onepart of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any.)
71. 1) A majority of jurists are /2) with the view that /3) disciplining of judges /4) should be left to the judiciary alone. /5) No error
72. 1) The world must /2) pool in their /3) resources to uproot /4) this evil once for all. /5) No error
73. 1) Politics of accommodation /2) can only work /3) when there is /4) transparent sincerity. /5) No error
74. 1) Almost the all /2) northeastern states with the /3) possible exception of Mizoram /4) are suffering from insurgency. /5)
No error
75. 1) The phenomenon called /2) global terrorism has been /3) growing steady after /4) the end of the cold war era. /5) No
error
Directions (Q. 76-80): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase
printed in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (5), i.e. “No correctionrequired”, as your answer.
76. It may be risky to change the chief minister just in months before from an election.
1) just in months of 2) in just months before from 3) in months from
4) just months before 5) No correction required
77. It is too clear all that the party leadership is not going to spare anyone who take their position for granted.
1) all too clear that 2) too much clear that 3) all in clear language
4) too clear that all 5) No correction required
78. It is in wide belief that most patient cannot afford to enter these hospitals.
1) widely in belief 2) widely believed 3) widely in believing
4) wide in believe 5) No correction required
79. It has already infused Rs 1000 crore in this flagship scheme.
1) already has infused 2) infused already 3) already has been infusing
4) already infused 5) No correction required
80. There is a good fortune for the members of our community providedwe would have consider ourselves Indians first and
anything else later.
1) we would have to be considered ourselves 2) we ought consider ourselves
3) we consider ourselves 4) we have considered ourselves
5) No correction required
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iz'ukoyh IIIla[;kRed vfHk;ksX;rk
funsZ'k (iz- 91-95): fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa esa iz'ufpºu ¼\½ ds LFkku ij D;k vkuk pkfg,\
91. 32313131 ??6412527 1) 169 2) 144 3) 60 4) 134 5) 12
92. {2.002 + 7.9 (2.8 – 1.4)} = ?1) 11.312 2) 12.204 3) 13.062 4) 14.442 5) 11.006
93. (32 × 25 × 62) + (82 × 32 × 83) = ?1) 306170 2) 305080 3) 305280 4) 316210 5) 244912
94.
2
29
2
3
2
5
4
3 = 2 –2 × ?
1) 63 2) 71 3) 77 4) 79 5) 83
95. (25)2 + (?)2 + (6)2 = 8051) 10 2) 11 3) 12 4) 9 5) 14
funsZ'k (iz- 96-100): fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa esa iz'ufpºu ¼\½ ds LFkku ij yxHkx D;k eku vkuk pkfg,\
96. {(4444 + 333 + 22 + 1) – (2 × 3 × 4 × 5)} × 2.532 = ?1) 11850 2) 11950 3) 11749 4) 11860 5) 11532
97. 1023.134.2
)34.2()23.1( 22
= ?
1) 61 2) 63 3) 65 4) 67 5) 69
98. 760 dk 17% + 78.99 dk 57% + 77.77 = ?1) 238 2) 242 3) 248 4) 252 5) 256
99. (?)998.10
68?0032.32?99.35
1) 81 2) 72 3) 169 4) 121 5) 144
100. (3.2)2 + (9.8)2 + (8.13)2 + (4.24)2 = ?1) 190 2) 194 3) 188 4) 198 5) 170
funsZ'k (iz- 101-105): fuEufyf[kr la[;k Ük a[kyk esa iz'ufpºu ¼\½ ds LFkku ij D;k vkuk pkfg,\
101. 18 99 682 5443 ?1) 48972 2) 48963 3) 48957 4) 48948 5) 48682
102. 1324 1721 2190 2737 3368 ?
1) 3986 2) 4089 3) 4136 4) 4290 5) 40681013. 363 234 141 78 39 18 ?
1) 12 2) 11 3) 10 4) 9 5) 8
104. 665 463 307 191 109 ?1) 79 2) 69 3) 55 4) 51 5) 47
105. 210 336 504 720 990 1320 ?1) 1651 2) 1688 3) 1716 4) 1794 5) 1720
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Test III
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. 91-95): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
91. 32
31
31
31 ??6412527
1) 169 2) 144 3) 60 4) 134 5) 12
92. {2.002 + 7.9 (2.8 – 1.4)} = ?
1) 11.312 2) 12.204 3) 13.062 4) 14.442 5) 11.006
93. (32 × 25 × 62) + (82 × 32 × 83) = ?
1) 306170 2) 305080 3) 305280 4) 316210 5) 244912
94.
2
29
2
3
2
5
4
3 = 2 –2 × ?
1) 63 2) 71 3) 77 4) 79 5) 83
95. (25)2 + (?)2 + (6)2 = 8051) 10 2) 11 3) 12 4) 9 5) 14
Directions (Q. 96-100): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
96. {(4444 + 333 + 22 + 1) – (2 × 3 × 4 × 5)} × 2.532 = ?
1) 11850 2) 11950 3) 11749 4) 11860 5) 11532
97. 1023.134.2
)34.2()23.1( 22
= ?
1) 61 2) 63 3) 65 4) 67 5) 69
98. 17% of 760 + 57% of 78.99 + 77.77 = ?
1) 238 2) 242 3) 248 4) 252 5) 256
99. (?)998.10
68?0032.32?99.35
1) 81 2) 72 3) 169 4) 121 5) 144
100. (3.2)2 + (9.8)2 + (8.13)2 + (4.24)2 = ?
1) 190 2) 194 3) 188 4) 198 5) 170
Directions (Q. 101-105): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
101. 18 99 682 5443 ?
1) 48972 2) 48963 3) 48957 4) 48948 5) 48682
102. 1324 1721 2190 2737 3368 ?
1) 3986 2) 4089 3) 4136 4) 4290 5) 4068
103. 363 234 141 78 39 18 ?
1) 12 2) 11 3) 10 4) 9 5) 8
104. 665 463 307 191 109 ?
1) 79 2) 69 3) 55 4) 51 5) 47
105. 210 336 504 720 990 1320 ?
1) 1651 2) 1688 3) 1716 4) 1794 5) 1720
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106. ,d O;fDr ds osru esa igys 25% dh c
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106. A person was given a salary increment of 25%, then again after one month he was given another increment of 25%. Now
what percent extra salary does he get compared to his initial salary?
1) 50% 2) 55.5% 3) 56.25% 4) 64% 5) None of these
107. What is the sum of 43 + 53 + 63 + 73 + ... + 153?
1) 14400 2) 14364 3) 14386 4) 14372 5) None of these
108. What is the least number which when divided by 15, 18, 24 and 30 leaves the same remainder 13?
1) 973 2) 193 3) 1093 4) 373 5) None of these
109. A sum of money is divided between two persons in the ratio of 17 : 15. If the share of one person is Rs 80 less than that
of the other, what is the sum?
1) Rs 540 2) Rs 320 3) Rs 960 4) Rs 1280 5) None of these
110. If the annual decrease in the population of a city is 8% and the present population are 80 lakhs, what will be the
population after 3 years?
1) 7294200 2) 6965310 3) 6229504 4) 6023905 5) None of these
111. In a class there are 5 girls and 7 boys. In how many ways can 5 students be chosen such that every time there is exactly
one girl?
1) 175 2) 224 3) 256 4) 63 5) None of these
112. A bag contains 7 white, 6 red and 8 green balls. 2 balls are drawn from the box at random. What is the probability that both
balls are of the same colour?
1)66
192)
105
323)
411
414)
126
55) None of these
113. A person lent a certain sum of money at 5% simple interest and in 10 years the interest amounted to Rs 450 less than the
sum lent. What is the sum?
1) Rs 1200 2) Rs 1080 3) Rs 900 4) Rs 1640 5) None of these
114. If the difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 10% per
annum is Rs 155, what is the sum?1) Rs 5000 2) Rs 5400 3) Rs 5300 4) Rs 5100 5) None of these
115. What is the number which when multiplied by 7 is increased by 2490?
1) 75 2) 255 3) 305 4) 415 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 116-120): Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You are to determine whether the
data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics
to choose between the possible answers.
Give answer
1) if Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.
2) if Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.3) if data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if both the Statements I and II given together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
116. What is the two-digit number?
I. Sum of two digits of number is 12 and ratio between them is 2 : 1.
II. Product of two digits of number is 32 and quotient of the two digits is 2.
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117. nks vadksa dh la[;k dkSu&lh gS\
I. la[;k ds nksuksa vadksa dk ;ksx muds chp ds varj ds cjkcj gSA
II. nksuksa vadksa ds chp dk varj 4 gSA
118. ikap o"kZ iwoZ B vkSj C dh vk;q ds chp dk vuqikr D;k Fkk\
I. A vkSj B dh orZeku vk;q dk vuqikr 3 : 2 gSAII. A vkSj C dh orZeku vk;q dk vuqikr 4 : 3 gSA
119. B dk osru A ds osru dk fdruk izfr'kr gS\
I. A dk osru C ds osru dk 50% gSA
II. B dk osru C ds osru dk 40% gSA
120. ,d cSx esa dkyh xsanksa dh la[;k vkSj lQsn xsanksa dh la[;k ds chp dk vuqikr D;k gS\
I. dkyh xsanksa dh la[;k lQsn xsanksa dh la[;k ls 5 T;knk gSA
II. lQsn xsanksa dh la[;k dkyh xsanksa dh la[;k dk 80% gSA
funsZ'k (iz- 121-125): fn, x, js[kkfp=k esa 2005-2010 dh vof/k ds nkSjku nks daifu;ksa A vkSj B ds izfr'kr ykHk dks n'kkZ;k
x;k gSA
50
60
2532
40
36
25
40
50
3024
20
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
i z f r ' k r y k H k
Company A Company B
121. dkSu&ls o"kZ esa daiuh A dk dqy ykHk daiuh B ds dqy ykHk dk 1.15 xq.kk gS\
1) 2005 2) 2006 3) 2007 4) 2009 5) Kkr ugha dj ldrs
122. dkSu&ls o"kZ esa daiuh B ds O;; vkSj vk; ds chp dk vuqikr lokZfèkd gS\
1) 2005 2) 2006 3) 2009 4) 2010 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
123. ;fn o"kZ 2007 esa daiuh A dh vk; 56 yk[k #- gS] rks blh o"kZ bldk O;; fdruk gS\
1) 36 yk[k #- 2) 40 yk[k #- 3) 42 yk[k #- 4) 45 yk[k #- 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
124. ;fn o"kZ 2009 esa daiuh A vkSj daiuh B dk O;; ,d leku 20 yk[k #- ds cjkcj gS] rks ml o"kZ muds ykHk dk vuqikr fdruk
gS\1) 4 : 5 2) 3 : 5 3) 5 : 7 4) 5 : 8 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
125. ;fn o"kZ 2010 esa daiuh A vkSj daiuh B ds dqy O;; dk vuqikr 3 : 2 gS] rks ml o"kZ daiuh B }kjk mikftZr ykHk daiuh A }kjkmikftZr ykHk dk fdruk izfr'kr gS\
1) 64% 2) 70% 3) 72% 4) 80% 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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117. What is the two-digit number?
I. Sum of digits is equal to the difference between the digits.
II. Difference between them is 4.
118. What was the ratio of ages of B to C 5 years ago?
I. Ratio of present ages of A to B is 3 : 2.
II. Ratio of present ages of A to C is 4 : 3.
119. What percentage of A’s salary is B’s salary?
I. A’s salary is 50% of C’s salary.
II. B’s salary is 40% of C’s salary.
120. What is the ratio of the number of black and white balls in a bag?
I. Number of black balls is 5 more than the number of white balls.
II. Number of white balls is 80% of the number of black balls.
Directions (Q. 121-125): The following line graph shows the percentage profit of two companies A and B during the
period 2005-2010.
50
60
2532
40
36
25
40
50
3024
20
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
% p
r o f i t
Company A Company B
121. In which year the total profit of Company A is 1.15 times the total profit of Company B?
1) 2005 2) 2006 3) 2007 4) 2009 5) Can't be determined
122. In which year the ratio of expenditure to income is the highest for Company B?
1) 2005 2) 2006 3) 2009 4) 2010 5) None of these
123. If income of Company A is Rs 56 lakhs in year 2007, then what is its expenditure in the same year?
1) Rs 36 lakhs 2) Rs 40 lakhs 3) Rs 42 lakhs 4) Rs 45 lakhs 5) None of these
124. If the expenditure of Company A and Company B is equal to Rs 20 lakhs in year 2009, then what is the ratio of their
profits?
1) 4 : 5 2) 3 : 5 3) 5 : 7 4) 5 : 8 5) None of these
125. If in the year 2010, the ratio of expenditure of Company A to Company B is 3 : 2, then profit earned by Company B is what
percent of profit earned by Company A?
1) 64% 2) 70% 3) 72% 4) 80% 5) None of these
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funsZ'k (iz- 126-130): fn, x, n.Mkjs[k esa ,d vfHk;a=k.k izos'k ijh{kk esa 'kkfey Nk=kksa dh la[;k ¼gtkj esa½ vkSj muesa l s lQygksus okys Nk=kksa dh la[;k dks fn[kk;k x;k gSA
60
45
80
90
7570
45
60
50
40
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
80
90100
2008 2009 2010 2011 2012
'kkfey Nk=kks a dh la [;k lQy Nk=kks a dk iz fr'kr
126. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&ls o"kZ esa lQy Nk=kksa dh la[;k lokZfèkd gS\
1) 2008 2) 2009 3) 2010
4) 2011 5) 2012
127. o"kZ 2011 esa lQy gq, Nk=kksa dh la[;k o"kZ 2009 esa lQy gq, Nk=kksa dh la[;k dh fdruh izfr'kr gS\
1) 120% 2) 125% 3) 140%
4) 150% 5) 160%
128. o"kZ 2012 esa lQy gq, Nk=kksa dh la[;k o"kZ 2010 esa lQy gq, Nk=kksa dh la[;k ls fdruh izfr'kr T;knk gS\
1) 12% 2) 20% 3) 24%
4) 25% 5) 27.5%
129. o"kZ 2011 esa vlQy Nk=kksa dh la[;k vkSj o"kZ 2008 esa lQy Nk=kksa dh la[;k ds chp dk vuqikr D;k gS\
1) 3 : 2 2) 4 : 3 3) 5 : 4
4) 7 : 5 5) 8 : 7
130. lHkh ikap o"kksZa esa vlQy Nk=kksa dh vkSlr la[;k vkSj lQy Nk=kksa dh vkSlr la[;k ds chp dk vUrj fdruk gS\1) 2100 2) 2400 3) 2700
4) 2900 5) 3100
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Directions (Q. 126-130): Following bar graph shows number of students appeared (in thousand) in an engineering
entrance examination and the percentage of students selected in this exam.
60
45
80
90
7570
45
60
50
40
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
80
90100
2008 2009 2010 2011 2012
Number of students appeared % students selected
126. In which of the following years the number of students selected is maximum?
1) 2008 2) 2009 3) 2010
4) 2011 5) 2012
127. The number of students selected in the year 2011 is what per cent of the number of students selected in the year 2009?
1) 120% 2) 125% 3) 140%
4) 150% 5) 160%
128. The number of students selected in the 2012 is how much percentage more than that of the number of students selectedin the year 2010?
1) 12% 2) 20% 3) 24%
4) 25% 5) 27.5%
129. What is the ratio of the number of students who are not selected in the year 2011 to the number of students selected in
the year 2008?
1) 3 : 2 2) 4 : 3 3) 5 : 4
4) 7 : 5 5) 8 : 7
130. What is the difference between the average number of students not selected and the average number of students
selected in all five years?
1) 2100 2) 2400 3) 27004) 2900 5) 3100
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funsZ'k (iz- 131-135): fuEufyf[kr o Ùkkjs[k N% jkT;ksa ds vfHk;kaf=kdh esa v/;;u dj jgs Nk=kksa dh dqy la[;k ds forj.k dks n'kkZ;kx;k gS vkSj fuEufyf[kr rkfydk Nk=kksa vkSj Nk=kkvksa ds vuqikr rFkk B.Tech vkSj M.Tech ds vuqikr dks n'kkZrh gSA
dqy Nk=k = 4 yk[k
fcgkj12%
dsjy7%
mÙkj izns'k16%
rfeyukMq
20%
egkjk"Vª21%
dukZVd24%
jkT; Nk=k % Nk=kk,a ch-Vsd % ,e- Vsd
dukZVd 7 : 5 3 : 1 egkjk"Vª 3 : 1 4 : 1 rfeyukMq 3 : 2 5 : 3 mÙkj izns 'k 5 : 3 13 : 3 fcgkj 9 : 7 2 : 1 ds jy 4 : 3 5 : 2
131. fcgkj esa B.Tech ds fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k vkSj dukZVd esa B.Tech ds fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k ds chp dk varj D;k gS\1) 20000 2) 25000 3) 30000 4) 40000 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
132. rfeyukMq vkSj mÙkj izns'k dh Nk=kkvksa dh la[;k ds chp dk vuqikr D;k gS\1) 3 : 2 2) 4 : 3 3) 5 : 4 4) 3 : 5 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
133. fcgkj dh B.Tech esa v/;;u dj jgh Nk=kkvksa dh la[;k fdruh gS\1) 18000 2) 21000 3) 24000 4) 25000 5) Kkr ugha dj ldrs
134. dukZVd ds M.Tech fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k dsjy ds B.Tech ds fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k ls fdruh izfr'kr T;knk gS\1) 8% 2) 12% 3) 15% 4) 20% 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
135. egkjk"Vª dh Nk=kkvksa dh la[;k fcgkj ds Nk=kksa dh la[;k dh fdruh izfr'kr gS\
1) %2
172 2) %
9
777 3) %
9
483 4) %
4
387 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
funsZ'k (iz- 136-140): fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh dk è;kuiwoZd vè;;u dhft, vkSj fn, x, iz'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A
,d ikVhZ esa 150 O;fDr 'kkfey gSaA muesa ls 32 yksxksa dks dsoy pk; ilan gS] 26 yksxksa dks dsoy dkWQh ilan gS vkSj dqy 'kkfeyyksxksa dh la[;k ds nlosa fgLls dks dsoy dksYM fMªad ilan gSA dqy 'kkfey yksxksa esa ls 8% dks pk; vkSj dkQh ilan gS ijUrq dksYM fMªadughaA dqy 'kkfey yksxksa ds ikaposa fgLls dks fdlh izdkj dk is; ilan ugha gSA 13 yksxksa dks pk; vkSj dksYM fMªad ilan gS ij dkWQh ilanugha gSA mu yksxksa dh la[;k ftUgsa rhuksa gh fMªad ilan gSa] mu yksxksa dh la[;k dk ,d &pkSFkkbZ fgLlk gS ftUgsa dsoy pk; ilan gSA
136. ,sls fdrus yksx gSa ftUgsa ,d vkSj dsoy ,d rjg dh fMªad ilan gS\1) 73 2) 120 3) 112 4) 111 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
137. ,sls fdrus yksx gSa ftUgsa nks vkSj dsoy nks rjg dh fMªad ilan gSa\1) 47 2) 39 3) 56 4) 73 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
138. ,sls fdrus yksx gSa ftUgsa dksYM fMªad vkSj dkQh ilan gS ijarq pk; ilan ugha gS\1) 11 2) 12 3) 13 4) 14 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
139. ,sls fdrus yksx gSa ftUgsa de &ls&de nks rjg dh fMªad ilan gSa\1) 47 2) 39 3) 56 4) 73 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
140. ,sls fdrus yksx gSa ftUgsa vfèkd&ls&vfèkd ,d rjg dh fMªad ilan gS\1) 101 2) 102 3) 103 4) 104 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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Directions (Q. 131-135): The following pie chart shows the distribution of the total number of students studying in
Engineering colleges of 6 states and the following table shows the ratio of male to female students and ratio of B.Tech to
M.Tech students.
Total students = 4 lakhs
Bihar
12%
Kerala
7%
U.P.
16%
Tamil-
nadu
20%
Maha-
rashtra
21%
Karna-
taka
24%
States M : F B.Tech : M.Tech
Karnataka 7 : 5 3 : 1
Maharashtra 3 : 1 4 : 1
Tamilnadu 3 : 2 5 : 3
U.P. 5 : 3 13 : 3
Bihar 9 : 7 2 : 1
Kerala 4 : 3 5 : 2
131. What is the difference between the number of B.Tech students of Karnataka and Bihar?
1) 20000 2) 25000 3) 30000 4) 40000 5) None of these132. What is the ratio of the female students of Tamil Nadu to those of UP?
1) 3 : 2 2) 4 : 3 3) 5 : 4 4) 3 : 5 5) None of these
133. What is the number of female students of Bihar, who are studying in B.Tech?
1) 18000 2) 21000 3) 24000 4) 25000 5) Can't be determined
134. The number of M.Tech students of Karnataka is how much percentage more than the number of B.Tech students of
Kerala?
1) 8% 2) 12% 3) 15% 4) 20% 5) None of these
135. The number of female students of Maharashtra is what percentage of the number of male students of Bihar?
1) %2
172 2) %
9
777 3) %
9
483 4) %
4
387 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
In a party 150 people are there. Out of that 32 people like only tea, 26 like only coffee and one-tenth of the total number
of people like only cold drink. 8% of the total people like tea and coffee but not the cold drink. One-fifth of the total people don’t
like any type of drink. 13 people like tea and cold drink but not like coffee. The number of people who like all three types of
drinks is one-fourth of the number of people who like only tea.
136. How many people are there who like exactly one type of drink?
1) 73 2) 120 3) 112 4) 111 5) None of these
137. How many people are there who like exactly two types of drinks?
1) 47 2) 39 3) 56 4) 73 5) None of these
138. How many people are there who like cold drink and coffee but not tea?
1) 11 2) 12 3) 13 4) 14 5) None of these
139. How many people are there who like at least two drinks?
1) 47 2) 39 3) 56 4) 73 5) None of these
140. How many people are there who like at most one type of drink?
1) 101 2) 102 3) 103 4) 104 5) None of these
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iz'ukoyh IVlkekU; lpsrrk
141. fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft, %A. jsiks nj B. fjolZ jsiks nj
C. cSad nj D. csl njHkkjrh; fjtoZ cSad }kjk iz;ksx fd, tkus okys ßC;kt nj dkWfjMksjÞ ds ?kVd mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu gSa\1) dsoy A vkSj B 2) dsoy A 3) dsoy A, B vkSj C 4) dsoy B vkSj C 5) mi;qZDr lHkh
142. vHkh gky ds fnuksa esa eqnzkLQhfr Hkkjr esa ,d eq[; eqík cu xbZ gS bls fu;af=kr djus ds fy, ljdkj vkSj Hkkjrh; fjtoZ cSad dkSu&lsdne mBkrh gS \A. ftalksa ds vf/kdre ewY; dk fu/kkZj.k B. nksgjs ewY;ksa dh iz.kkyhC. [kk|kUuksa dh vkiwfrZ esa o f) D. cktkj esa ØsfMV vkSj rjyrk ij fu;a=k.k
1) dsoy A 2) dsoy B 3) dsoy C 4) dsoy B, C vkSj D 5) lHkh A, B, C vkSj D
143. Hkkjrh; fjtoZ cSad }kjk fufnZ"V orZeku cSad nj D;k gS\1) 7 çfr'kr 2) 8 çfr'kr 3) 9 çfr'kr 4) 9.5 çfr'kr 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
144. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk in cSafdax ;k foÙk ls lacaf/kr ugha gS\1) fMosapj 2) bfDoVh 3) thjks dwiu 4) ikj ewY; 5) xhxk ckbV
145. lgòkfCn fodkl y{; dh lwph esa dkSu 'kkfey ugha gS\1) vR;f/kd xjhch vkSj Hkw[k dks nwj djuk 2) lkoZHkkSfed izkFkfed f'k{kk gkfly djuk 3) ySafxd lekurk dks c
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Test IV
General Awareness
141. Consider the following:
A. Repo Rate B. Reverse Repo Rate
C. Bank Rate D. Base Rate
Which among the above are the constituents of the “interest rate corridor” used by the Reserve Bank of India?
1) Only A and B 2) Only A 3) Only A, B and C 4) Only B and C 5) All of the above
142. Inflation has become a major area of concern in India these days. What measures do the Govt. of India/RBI normally take
to control the same?
A. Fixation of maximum price of the commidites B. System of dual prices
C. Increase in supply of foodgrains D. Control on credit and liquidity in the market.
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Only B, C and D 5) All A, B, C and D
143. Currently, what is the Bank Rate as specified by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
1) 7 per cent 2) 8 per cent 3) 9 per cent 4) 9.5 per cent 5) None of these
144. Which of the following terms is not related to banking or finance?
1) Debenture 2) Equity 3) Zero coupon 4) Par value 5) Giga byte145. Which is not included in the list of Millennium Development Goals?
1) Eradication of extreme poverty and hunger 2) Achieving universal primary education
3) Promoting gender equality 4) Improving maternal health
5) All are included
146. Who among the following has written the book ‘ Half Girlfriend ’?
1) Amish Tripathi 2) Chetan Bhagat 3) Ravinder Singh 4) Durjoy Datta 5) None of these
147. Which among the folowing generally does not come under Corporate Banking?
1) Structured Finance 2) Government Banking 3) Capital Markets & Custodial Services
4) Debit Cards 5) None of them
148. Which among the following does not come under the organisational objectives of the banks in India?
1) To earn profit 2) To play a developmental role in rural India
3) To provide employment to maximum people 4) To improve customer relationships
5) All the above
149. Without which of the following a bank can not survive?
1) Cash 2) Computers 3) Customers 4) Credit 5) Competitors
150. Which of the following banks of India is known to be the first Indian Bank to adopt the concept of Market Segmentation?
1) Punjab National Bank 2) State Bank of India 3) ICICI Bank
4) Bank of Baroda 5) Canara Bank
151. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of security Interest Act relates to
1) sanction of loans 2) enhancement of loan limits 3) recovery of loans
4) All the above 5) None of the above
152. MSMED Act is applicable to1) Small enterprises only 2) Medium enterprises only 3) Micro enterprises only
4) Micro, small and medium enterprises 5) All enterprises irrespective of their size engaged in manufacturing activity
153. Money Laundering refers to
1) Conversion of assets into cash 2) Conversion of money which is illegally obtained
3) Conversion of cash into gold 4) Conversion of gold into cash
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154. fgjksf'kek fnol fuEu esa ls fdl fnu euk;k tkrk gS\ 1945 esa bl fnu f}rh; fo'o ;q) ds vafre v/;k; ds :i esa vesfjdk }kjk fgjksf'kek ij ,d
ijek.kq ce fxjk;k x;k FkkA
1) 6 vxLr 2) 7 vxLr 3) 9 vxLr 4) 10 vxLr 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
155. ekbØks vkSj NksVs miØeksa ds fy, cSadksa dh izfrc)rk ds fu;e fdlds }kjk rS;kj fd, tkrs gSa\
1) Hkkjrh; fjtoZ cSad 2) lsch 3) FEDAI4) BCSBI 5) NksVs vkSj e>kSys m|ksx ea=kky;
156. vkjchvkbZ us gky gh esa viuh }Sekfld uhfr leh{kk dh ?kks"k.kk dhA bl uhfr leh{kk ds vkyksd esa fuEu esa ls dkSu lgh gS\
1) jsiks nj – 7 çfr'kr 2) udn vkjf{kr vuqikr – 4 çfr'kr
3) lkafof/kd rjyrk vuqikr – 22 çfr'kr 4) lhekar LFkk;h lqfo/kk – 9 çfr'kr
5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
157. ASBA dk foLrkfjr :i D;k gS\1) Allotment Supported by Blocked Amount 2) Application Supported by Blocked Amount
3) Application Supported by Bank Amount 4) Allotment Supported by Bank Account
5) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
158. çk.k dqekj 'kekZ ,d çfrf"Br ------------ ----------- -------- Fks ftudk gky gh esa fu/ku gks x;kA1) miU;kldkj 2) fxVkjoknd 3) dkVwZfuLV 4) bfrgkldkj 5) buesa ls dks bZ ughaS
159. fo'o vkWfVTe tkx#drk fnol fuEu esa ls fdl rkjh[k dks euk;k tkrk gS\
1) 1 vçSy 2) 2 vçSy 3) 4 vçSy 4) 7 vçSy 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
160. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ,d ljdkj }kjk izk;ksftr laxBu ugha gS\1) Hkkjrh; y?kq m|ksx fodkl cSad (SIDBI) 2) ukckMZ 3) jk"Vªh; vkokl cSad4) vkbZlhvkbZlhvkbZ cSad 5) lHkh ljdkj }kjk izk;ksftr gSa
161. fueZyk lhrkje.k ds ikl jkT;ea=kh ¼Lora=k çHkkj½ ds :i esa fQygky fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dsanzh; ea=kky; gS\
1) okf.kT; ,oa m|ksx ea=kky; 2) dkS'ky fodkl] mn~;ferk] ;qok ekeys ,oa [ksy ea=kky;
3) ;kstuk] lkaf[;dh vkSj dk;ZØe dk;kZUo;u ea=kky; 4) iwoksZÙkj {ks=k fodkl ea=kky; 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha162. Hkkjr us dfFkr gsyhdkWIVj ?kk sVkys ds ekeys esa fQuesDdkfuDdk daiuh vkSj mldh lg;ksxh daifu;ksa ls dh tkus okyh lHkh j{kk [kjhn ij jksd yxk
nh gSA ;g daiuh fdl ns'k esa vk/kkfjr gS\
1)Ýkal 2) bVyh 3) btjk;y 4) LohMu 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
163. gky gh esa çdkf'kr iqLrd ‘ Assasination of Rajiv Gandhi: An Inside Job?’ dks fuEu esa ls fdlds }kjk fy[kk x;k gS\1) fouksn esgrk 2) Qjkt vgen 3) ds,u xksfoankpk;Z 4) neu flag 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
164. ç/kkuea=kh ujsan z eksnh us ns'kHkj esa lHkh fdlkuksa dh flapkbZ t:jrksa dks iwjk djus ds fy, ,d ubZ flapkbZ ;kstuk ‘ç/kkuea=kh d f"k flapkbZ;kstuk’ dh ?kks"k.kk dhA foÙko"kZ 2015 ds dsanzh; ctV esa bl ;kstuk ds fy, fdruh jkf'k fu/kkZfjr dh xbZ gS\1) 1,000#- 2) 1,500#- 3) 2,000 #- 4) 5,000#- 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
165. fuEu esa ls fdl jkT; us gky gh esa ,d n'kd esa jkT; dks 'kjkc eqDr cukus ds fy, ,d ubZ 'kjkc uhfr dh ?kks"k.kk dh gS\1) egkjk"Vª 2) rfeyukMq 3) dsjy 4) e/; çns'k 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
166. jxkyk osadsV jkgqy us gky gh esa phu ds ukuftax esa nwljs ;qok vksyafid [ksyksa esa Hkkjr ds fy, igyk ind thrkA og ,d -------------------- gSA1) HkkjksRrksyd 2) eqDdsckt 3) ykax tEij 4) fVªiy tEij 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
167. vkWLdj fotsrk funsZ'kd fjpMZ ,Vucjks dk gky gh esa 90 o"kZ dh vk;q esa fu/ku gks x;kA mUgsa mudh fQYe -------------------- ds fy, tkuktkrk gSA1) VkbVsfud 2) xka /kh 3) tqjkfld ikdZ 4) VfeZusVj 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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5) None of the above
154. The Hiroshima day was observed recently on which of the following dates? On this day in 1945, an atom bomb was
dropped by the US on Hiroshima in one of the final chapters of World War II.
1) Aug 6 2) Aug 7 3) Aug 9 4) Aug 10 5) None of these
155. Code of banks commitment to Micro and Small enterprises is prepared by
1) RBI 2) SEBI 3) FEDAI4) BCSBI 5) Ministry of Small and Medium Enterprises
156. The RBI announced its bimonthly policy review recently. Which of the following is NOT correct in the light of the policy
review?
1) Repo rate – 7 per cent
2) Cash Reserve Ratio – 4 per cent
3) Statutory Liquidity Ratio – 22 per cent
4) Marginal Standing Facility – 9 per cent
5) None of these
157. What is the full form of ASBA?
1) Allotment Supported by Blocked Amount 2) Application Supported by Blocked Amount
3) Application Supported by Bank Amount 4) Allotment Supported by Bank Account
5) None of the above
158. Pran Kumar Sharma, who died, recently, was an eminent
1) novelist 2) guitarist 3) cartoonist 4) historian 5) None of these
159. The World Autism Awareness Day is observed on which of the following dates?
1) April 1 2) April 2 3) April 4 4) April 7 5) None of these
160. Which of the following is NOT a government-sponsored organisation?
1) Small Industries Development Bank of India 2) NABARD 3) National Housing Bank
4) ICICI Bank 5) All are government sponsored
161. Nirmala Sitharaman is holding which of the following Union Ministries as of now? Minister of State (Independent
Charge) for
1) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
2) Ministry of Skill Development, Entrepreneurship, Youth Affairs and Sports3) Ministry of Planning, Statistics and Programme Implementation
4) Ministry for Development of North Eastern Region
5) None of these
162. India has put on hold all defence procurements from the Finmeccannica company and its affiliate firms in the wake of an
alleged chopper scam. This company is based in
1) France 2) Italy 3) Israel 4) Sweden 5) None of these
163. The recently released book ‘ Assasination of Rajiv Gandhi: An Inside Job?’ has been written by who among the
following?
1) Vinod Mehta 2) Faraz Ahmad 3) KN Govindacharya 4) Daman Singh 5) None of these
164. Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced a new irrigation scheme ‘Pradhan Mantri Krishi Seenchayi Yojana’ to meet the
irrigation needs of all farmers across the country. What amount has been set aside for the scheme in the Union Budget
for FY15?1) Rs 1,000 2) Rs 1,500 3) Rs 2,000 4) Rs 5,000 5) None of these
165. Which of the following states has announced a liquor policy to make state liquor free in a decade recently?
1) Maharashtra 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Kerala 4) Madhya Pradesh 5) None of these
166. Ragala Venkat Rahul bagged India’s first medal of the second Youth Olympic Games in Nanjing, China recently. He is a
1) weightlifter 2) pugilist 3) long jumper 4) triple jumper 5) None of these
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168. çks- ftrsanz ukjk;.k nkl dks bl o"kZ ds çfrf"Br dsanzh; lkfgR; vdkneh ds cky iqjLdkj ds fy, pquk x;k gSA og ,d çfrf"Br--------------------------- gSaA1) caxkyh ys[kd 2) vaxzsth ys[kd 3) fganh ys[kd 4) mfM+;k ys[kd 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
169. fofHkUu jkT;ksa ds ihus ds ikuh o LoPNrk ds çHkkjh eaf=k;ksa us ç/kkuea=kh ujsanz eksnh ds ‘LoPN Hkkjr’ fe'ku ds 'kh?kz fØ;kUo;u dsfy, ,d j.kuhfr fodflr djus gsrq ubZ fnYyh esa eqykdkr dhA bl fe'ku dks ------------------------ rd iwjk fd;k tkuk gSA
1) 2015 2) 2017 3) 2019 4) 2021 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
170. in ^xksYMu gSaM'ksd* fuEu esa ls fdlls lacaf/kr gS\1) foy; ,oa vf/kxzg.k 2) eqDr O;kikj le>kSrk 3) LoSfPNd lsokfuo fÙk ykHk4) 'ks;j cktkj 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
171. lh,lhih çeq[k d f"k mRiknksa ds fy, ewY; fu/kkZj.k uhfr ij ljdkj dks lykg nsus okyk ,d lkafof/kd fudk; gS ftlus l=k2015-16 ds fy, ------------------------------------- dh nj ls xUus ds mfpr o ykHkdkjh ewY; (FRP) dh flQkkfj'k dh gSA1) 210 #- çfr fDoaVy 2) 230 #- çfr fDoaVy 3) 250 #- çfr fDoaVy 4) 280 #- çfr fDoaVy 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
172. KkuihB iqjLdkj ls lEekfur ;wvkj vuarewfrZ dk gky gh esa fu/ku gks x;kA og ------------------------------ lkfgR; ds fo[;kr ys[kd FksvkSj muds lkfgR;d dk;ksZa esa çfl) d fr “laLdkj” ¼vuq"Bku½ Hkh 'kkfey gSA1) dUuM+ 2) rfey 3) rsyqxw 4) ey;kye 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
173. ns'k dk loksZPp [ksy iqjLdkj jktho xka/kh [ksy jRu vokMZ 2014 fdls fn;k x;k gS\1) fodkl xkSM+k 2) ferkyh jkt 3) i#iYyh d';i 4) nhfidk dqekjh 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
174. ljdkj us 2017 esa fuEu e sa ls fdl QqVckWy VwukZesaV ds vk;kstu dh cksyh ds fy, vkWy bafM;k QqVckWy QsMjs'ku (AIFF) dks viukleFkZu fn;k\1) QhQk oYMZ di 2) ,f'k;u us'kUl di 3) vaMj – 17 oYMZ di 4) vaMj – 20 oYMZ di 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
175. Hkkjrh; fjtoZ cSad us Hkkjr fcy Hkqxrku ç.kkyh ¼chihih,l½ ds fØ;kUo;u ds fy, fn'kkfunsZ'kksa ds elkSns dks tkjh fd;kA chihih,l----------------------------------- dh v/;{krk esa xfBr thvkbZvkjvks ¼ljdkjh vkarfjd jktLo vkns'k½ lykgdkj lewg }kjk lkSaih xbZ fjiksVZij vk/kkfjr gSA1) mes'k csYywj 2) 'kf'kdkar 'kekZ 3) lhch Hkkos 4) ;wds flUgk 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
176. fuEu esa ls dkSu vkbZMhchvkbZ cSad dk ps;jeSu o çca/k funs'kd (CMD) gS\1) og vkj v;~;j 2) ,e,l jk?kou 3) Vh,e Hklhu 4) tsih nqvk 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
177. foÙkh; ladV esa f?kjh fdaxfQ'kj ,;jykbal dks _.k nsus okys cSadksa ds ,d lewg us bl ,;jykbu dks foyQqy fMQkWYVj ?kksf "kr fd;kgSA ns'k dh bl 'kh"kZ _.k fMQkWYVj daiuh dh cSadksa dks ----------------------------------- dh nsunkjh gSA1) 0 2) 6,000 djksM+ #- 3) 7,000 djksM+ #- 4) 9,000 djksM+ #- 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
178. bjMk ds v/;{k Vh,l fot;u us dkWeu lfoZl lsaVj (CSC) ds ek/;e ls chek fcØh vkSj lsokvksa dks 'kq: fd;kA lh,llh dks --------------------------------------------- ;kstuk ds rgr LFkkfir fd;k x;k FkkA1) eujsxk 2) fMftVy bafM;k 3) us'kuy bZ&xousZUl4) Hkkjr fuekZ.k 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
179. 'kCn ^jsVh vksifuax* fuEu esa ls fdl [ksy ls lacaf/kr gS\1) fØdsV 2) 'krjat 3) xksYQ 4) cslckWy 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
180. fo'o jDrnkrk fnol fuEu esa ls fdl rkjh[k dks euk;k tkrk gS\
1) 11 tw u 2) 14 tw u 3) 17 tw u 4) 21 tw u 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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167. Oscar-winning Director Richard Attenborough died at 90 recently. He is known for his film
1) Titanic 2) Gandhi 3) Jurassic Park 4) Terminator 5) None of these
168. Prof Jitendra Narayan Dash has been selected for the prestigious Central Sahitya Akademi’s Bal Puraskar for this year.
He is a noted
1) Bengali writer 2) English writer 3) Hindi writer 4) Odia writer 5) None of these
169. The State ministers in-charge of drinking water and sanitation met in New Delhi to evolve a strategy for the speedyimplementation of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s mission of ‘Swachh Bharat’. The mission is to be completed by
1) 2015 2) 2017 3) 2019 4) 2021 5) None of these
170. The term ‘golden handshake’ is associated with which of the following?
1) Merger and acquisition 2) Free trade agreement 3) Voluntary retirement benefits
4) Share market 5) None of these
171. The CACP, a statutory body that advises the govt on the pricing policy for major farm produce, has recommended the
fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane for the 2015-16 season at
1) Rs 210 per quintal 2) Rs 230 per quintal 3) Rs 250 per quintal 4) Rs 280 per quintal 5) None of these
172. Jnanpith award winner UR Ananthamurthy died recently. He was a noted writer of ________ literature and his famous
literary works include “Samskara” (ritual).
1) Kannada 2) Tamil 3) Telugu 4) Malayalam 5) None of these
173. Who among the following has been given the highest sports award in the country, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, for 2014?
1) Vikas Gowda 2) Mithali Raj 3) Parupalli Kashyap 4) Deepika Kumari 5) None of these
174. The govt extended its support to All India Football Federation (AIFF) to bid for hosting which of the following football
tournaments in 2017?
1) FIFA World Cup 2) Asian Nations Cup 3) Under – 17 World Cup
4) Under – 20 World Cup 5) None of these
175. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued draft guidelines for the implementation of Bharat Bill Payment System (BPPS).
The BPPS system is based on a report submitted by the GIRO (Govt Internal Revenue Order) Advisory Group set up
under the chairmanship of
1) Umesh Bellur 2) Shashi Kant Sharma 3) CB Bhave 4) UK Sinha 5) None of these
176. Who among the following is the chairman and managing director (CMD) of IDBI bank?
1) VR Iyer 2) MS Raghavan 3) TM Bhasin 4) JP Dua 5) None of these
177. A consortium of banks which has lent money to the beleaguered Kingfisher Airlines, has declared the airline a wilful
defaulter. The country’s top loan defaulter owes a staggering ________ to banks.
1) Rs 5,000 cr 2) Rs 6,000 cr 3) Rs 7,000 cr 4) Rs 9,000 cr 5) None of these
178. Insurance sale and services through a common service centre (CSC) was launched by TS Vijayan, chairman of IRDA
recently. The CSCs were set-up under ________ scheme.
1) MGNREGA 2) Digital India 3) National e-Governance
4) Bharat Nirman 5) None of these
179. The term ‘reti opening’ is associated with which of the following games?
1) Cricket 2) Chess 3) Golf 4) Baseball 5) None of these
180. The World Blood Donor Day is celebrated on which of the following dates?
1) Jun 11 2) Jun 14 3) Jun 17 4) Jun 21 5) None of these
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iz'ukoyh VdaI;wVj Kku
181- O;fDr] oLrq] ?kVuk ds fjdkWMZ dks fof'k"V :i ls igpku djus okys QhYM dks ________ dgrs gSaA1) Qkby 2) MkVk 3) QhYM 4) dh 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
182. ,d uu dkihjkbVsM ;k ifCyd Mksesu xzkfQdy best dk lewg dgykrk gSa\1) fDyicksMZ 2) dSisVsfcfyVh 3) fDyi vkVZ 4) dSldsM 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
183. bFkjusV flLVe }kjk fuEu esa ls fdl Vksiksyksth dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gS\1) cl VksiksykWth 2) esl VksiksykWth 3) Vªh VksiksykWth 4) fjax VksiksykWth 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
184. vkUrfjd :i ls fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ,d uEcj flLVe ds mi;ksx ls vkèkqfud daI;wVj dSjsDVjksa vkSj uEcjksa dk fu:i.k djrs gSa%1) isUVk 2) vkWDVy 3) gsDlk 4) lsIVk 5) ckbujh
185. Mksvks,l esa foaM+ks dh rjg gekjs ikl funsZf'kdk gksrh gSa\
1) QksYMj 2) dekaM 3) Qkby 4) fDyd 5) MªkbZo
186. osc ist esa ml 'kCn dks D;k dgrs gSa] ftls fDyd djus ij nwljk MkD;wesaV [kqy tkrk gS\
1) ,adj 2) URL 3) gkbij fyad 4) jsQjsal 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
187. ________ eSuqvy ls irk pyrk gS fd lkW¶Vos;j izksxzke dk iz;ksx dSls fd;k tk,A1) MkD;qesaVs'ku 2) izks xzkfeax 3) VsDuhdy 4) ;wtj 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
188- ________ lkW¶Vos;j ds nks izeq[k oxZ gSaA1) vkWijsfVax flLVe vkSj ;wfVfyVh 2) ilZuy izksMfDVfoVh vkSj flLVe 3) flLVe vkSj ,fIyds'ku4) flLVe vkSj ;wfVfyVh 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
189. ________ daI;wVj dks crkrk¼rh½ gS fd blds dEiksusaVksa dks dSls iz;ksx djuk pkfg,A1) ;wfVfyVh 2) usVodZ 3) vkWijsfVax flLVe 4) ,fIyds'ku izksxzke 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
190. ________ esa cVu vkSj ehuw gksrs gSa tks dkWeu :i ls iz;qDr dekaM~l ls 'kh?kz ,Dlsl gks tkrk gSA
1) ehuw ckj 2) Vwyckj 3) foaMks 4) ,D'ku ckj 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha191- fuEu esa ls fdlesa ,fDVo lsy dk daVsaV fMLIys gksrk gSA
1) Vwyckj 2) ehuwckj 3) use ckWDl 4) QkWewZyk ckj 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugah
192- .bas, .doc, vkSj .htm fdlds mnkgj.k gSa\1) MkVkcsl 2) ,DlVsU'ku 3) Mksesu 4) izksVksdkWy 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
193- lsfoax fuEufyf[kr dh izfØ;k gS&1) esejh ls LVksjst ehfM;e esa MkWD;wesaV dks dkWih djus dh2) fdlh MkWD;wesaV ds daVsaV esa ifjorZu djus dh3) fdlh MkWD;wesaV dk fMLIys ;k lexz :i esa ifjorZu djus dh4) dh&cksMZ ds iz;ksx ls VsDLV ,UVj dj MkWD;wesaV Msoyi djus dh
5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha194. baQkWeZsZ'ku ds LVksjst vkSj fjVªhoy dks vkWxsZukbt djus okyk lkW¶Vos;j ,d ________ gSA
1) vkWijsfVax flLVe 2) MkVkcsl 3) MkVkcsl izksxzke 4) MkVk os;jgkml 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
195- ________ uked eqfær buQkWesZ'ku okLrfod :i esa fo|eku gksrk gS vkSj fMLIys fMokbl ij izLrqr vkmViqV ls vfèkd ijekusUV:i dk vkmViqV gksrk gSA1) lkW¶V dkWih 2) dkcZu dkWih 3) gkMZ dkWih 4) MsLd dkWih 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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Test V
Computer Knowledge
181. A field that uniquely identifies which person, thing, or event the record describes is a
1) file 2) data 3) field 4) key 5) None of these
182. A set of non-copy righted or public domain graphical images are called____.
1) Clip board 2) Compatibility 3) Clip art 4) Cascade 5) None of these
183. Which of the following topologies do Ethernet systerms use?
1) Bus topology 2) Mesh topology 3) Tree topology 4) Ring topology 5) None of these
184. Modern computers represent characters and numbers internally using which of the following number systems?
1) Penta 2) Octal 3) Hexa 4) Septa 5) Binary
185. In DOS we have directory in the same way Window has ___.
1) folder 2) command 3) file 4) click 5) drive
186. A word in a web page that, when clicked, opens another document is
1) anchor 2) URL 3) hyperlink 4) reference 5) None of these
187. The ________ manual tells you how to use a software program.
1) documentation 2) programming 3) technical 4) user 5) None of these
188. The two major categories of software include
1) operating system and utility
2) personal productivity and system
3) system and application
4) system and utility
5) None of these
189. The ________ tells the computer how to use its components.
1) utility 2) network 3) operating system 4) application program 5) None of these
190. A ________ contains buttons and menus that provide quick access to commonly used commands.1) menu bar 2) toolbar 3) window 4) action bar 5) None of these
191. Which of the following displays the contents of active cell?
1) Toolbar 2) Menubar 3) Namebox 4) Formula bar 5) None of these
192. .bas, .doc. and . htm are examples of
1) Database 2) Extension 3) Domain 4) Protocol 5) None of these
193. Saving is the process
1) to copy document from memory to storage medium
2) to change the content of any document
3) to change the display or entire document
4) to develop document by entering text using keyboard
5) None of these
194. Software for organising storage and retrieval of information is a(n)
1) operating system 2) database 3) database program 4) data warehouse 5) None of these
195. ________ a printed information, exists in real sense and is more permanent form of output than the output existing on
display device.
1) Soft copy 2) Carbon copy 3) Hard copy 4) Desk copy 5) None of these
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196- ________ ,d fof'k"V uke gS tks vki buQkesZ'ku okyh fdlh Qkby dks nsrs gSaA1) QksYMj 2) Qkbyuse 3) Qkbyuse ,DlVsa'ku 4) fMokbl ysVj 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
197. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lR; gSa\
1) ,e,l ,Dlsy esa fyad bulVZ djus ds fy, ctrl + K dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gSa
2) dksbZ ,Dlsy esa F2 nckdj p;fur lsy dks bfMV fd;k tk ldrk gSa
3) ,Dlsy esa laiw.kZ iafDr dk p;u djus ds fy, f k¶V + Lis’k’ dk’ mi;ksx’fd;k’ tkrk’gSaA4) ,Dlsy esa laiw.kZ LraHk dk p;u djus ds fy, Ctrl + space dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gSaA
5) 1, 2, 3 rFkk 4lHkh lR; gSa
198. yEch nwjh rd okbjl MkVk rFkk fofM;ks lfgr lapj.k ds fy, ____ ,d rduhd gSaA
1) eYVhIysDlj 2) fczt 3) czkMcSaM usVodZ 4) chVk lk¶Vos;j 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
199- fdl izdkj ds gkMZos;j esa ,sls fMokbl gksrs gSa tks MkVk dks ,sls :i esa VªkalysV dj ldrs gSa ftls daI;wVj izkslsl dj ldrk gS\1) ,fIyds'ku 2) buiqV 3) flLVe 4) ;s lHkh 5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
200- fdlh fo'ks"k VkLd dks djus ds fy, ,d vU; ^dh* ds