science 10 final exam student name teacher namesd67.bc.ca/teachers/barcuri/sc 10/provincial...

Science 10 Final Exam 1 Science Foundation 10

Science 10 Final Exam Student Name _____________________

Teacher Name _____________________

INSTRUCTIONS: For each question, select the best answer.

Life Science Cells and Genetics

1. Cytoplasm converts chemical energy into useable energy in the cell.

A. True

B. False

2. Centrioles are in animal cells.

A. True

B. False

Match each Term on the left with the Descriptor on the right.

Each Descriptor may be used as often as necessary.

Term Descriptor

3. nucleus

4. chloroplast

A. carries out photosynthesis

B. permeable outer layer of a cell

C. controls the functions of a cell

D. site of protein assembly in a cell

E. provides structural support for a cell

5. Which of the following is in a plant cell, but not a skin cell?

A. vacuole

B. nucleus

C. cell wall

D. mitochondria


6. What happens to the surface area-to-volume ratio of a growing cell?

A. It increases.

B. It decreases.

C. It remains the same.

D. It increases and then decreases.

7. An animal cell will expand in size if placed in salt water.

A. True

B. False

8. What is the function of a vacuole in an animal cell?

I provide structure for the cell

II control protein synthesis in the cell

III storage of water and nutrients for the cell

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II only

Use the following diagram to answer question 9.

The diagram below shows a water tank with a permeable membrane between

water containing food colouring particles and fresh water. The diagram shows

how the food colouring particles move to different parts of the tank through the

membrane.


9. What process is shown in the diagram?

A. osmosis

B. diffusion

C. interphase

D. respiration

Use the following pie graph to answer question 10.

Graph Showing the Life Cycle of a Cell

10. Interphase occurs in X.

A. True

B. False

Use the following diagrams of stages in cell reproduction to answer

questions 11 to 13.

I II

Select A if the statement is supported by the diagrams.

Select B if the statement is refuted by the diagrams.

Select C if the statement is neither supported nor refuted by the diagrams.

11. Diagram I shows a cell in anaphase.

A B C

5%

95%


12. The phase shown in diagram II occurs after the phase shown in diagram I.

A B C

13. The diagrams show phases of cell division for an animal cell.

A B C

________________________________________________________________

14. Which of the following types of asexual reproduction require the cell to split into

two equal pieces?

A. budding

B. regeneration

C. binary fission

D. vegetative reproduction

15. Which of the following is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction compared with

sexual reproduction?

A. Only one parent is required for reproduction.

B. Great numbers of offspring can be produced.

C. Only two parents are required to reproduce offspring.

D. All offspring are identical and a single disease could affect entire population.

16. Consider the following diagram.

The diagram illustrates asexual reproduction.

A. True

B. False


17. Which of the following describes a genotype?

I. TT

II. a short-haired cat

III. the kinds of alleles an individual organism has for a particular trait

IV. the physical appearance of an organism with respect to a particular trait

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. II and IV only

18. Which of the following crosses would result in only homozygous offspring?

A. pp x pp

B. Pp x pp

C. Pp x Pp

D. PP x pp

19. How is the sex of a human offspring determined?

A. The egg from the mother contains two Y chromosomes.

B. The sperm from the father contains two Y chromosomes.

C. The egg from the mother contains an X or a Y chromosome.

D. The sperm from the father contains an X or a Y chromosome.

20. Which of the following is found only in males?

A. X chromosome

B. Y chromosome

C. dominant traits

D. recessive alleles

Use the lettered spaces in the following Punnett square to answer questions 21 to 23.

P Q

R S T

U V W


21. What lettered spaces in the Punnett square would show the probable genotypes of

this cross?

A. R, S, V, W

B. P, Q, R, U

C. S, T, V, W

D. P, Q, S, T

22. In which of the lettered spaces of the Punnett square would the gametes of the

parents be shown?

A. P, Q, R, U

B. S, T, V, W

C. P and Q only

D. R and U only

23. In which of the lettered spaces of the Punnett square should there be two letters to

represent the alleles?

A. R, S, U, V

B. P, Q, S, T

C. P, Q, R, U

D. S, T, V, W

________________________________________________________________

24. A white male guinea pig is mated with a black female guinea pig. What would

best describe the genotype of the male parent if all the offspring were white?

A. homozygous recessive

B. heterozygous dominant

C. homozygous dominant

D. heterozygous recessive

25. The trait for purple skin is dominant over the trait for brown skin in a species of

slug. What would the results be for a cross between a homozygous purple slug

and a homozygous brown slug?

A. all brown

B. all purple

C. half purple, half brown

D. 75% purple, 25% brown


26. Which of the following would have the least affect on fetal development?

A. The month the baby was conceived.

B. The mother’s exposure to cigarette smoke.

C. The type of prescription drugs the mother takes.

D. The amount of alcohol consumed by the mother.

27. Scientists have discovered a species of fish that live in caves and outdoor ponds.

The cave fish live with absolutely no light. The genes controlling the

development of the fish’s eyes have been turned off through many generations.

Their sensitivity to smell, however, is much better than the outdoor fish.

This is an example of a neutral mutation.

A. True

B. False

Physical Science Chemicals and Reactions

Refer to the

Data Booklet

For this section of the examination, refer to:

Names, Formulae and Charges of Some Common Ions on

page 1

Alphabetical Listing of the Elements on page 2

The Periodic Table on page 3

28. Ions are neutral.

A. True

B. False

29. The element illustrated below has a mass number of 13.

A. True

B. False


30. Which of the following best describes an electron?

Mass Location

A. large in nucleus

B. large orbiting nucleus

C. very small in nucleus

D. very small orbiting nucleus

31. Which of the follow has a negative charge?

A. proton

B. nucleus

C. neutron

D. electron

32. How many electrons does potassium have in its outermost shell?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

33. Which of the following represents the Bohr model electron arrangement of the

noble gas argon?

A. 2, 16

B. 2, 18

C. 2, 8, 6

D. 2, 8, 8

34. Which of the following is a common characteristic of an alkaline earth metal?

A. 1 electron in the outermost shell

B. 2 electrons in the outermost shell

C. 7 electrons in the outermost shell

D. 8 electrons in the outermost shell


Use the following information to answer question 35.

35. Which of the following is the name and the subatomic particle arrangement for a

neutral atom of the element?

Element Subatomic Particles

A. sulphur 16 protons, 8 neutrons

B. sulphur 8 electrons, 16 neutrons

C. oxygen 8 protons, 8 neutrons

D. oxygen 16 electrons, 8 neutrons

________________________________________________________________

36. Which ion has 25 protons, 30 neutrons, and 23 electrons?

A. zinc

B. gallium

C. vanadium

D. manganese

37. Noble gases easily combine with other elements.

A. True

B. False

38. Which neutral atom has 16 neutrons and 15 electrons?

A. silicon

B. sulphur

C. gallium

D. phosphorus

16

? ? represents the symbol of the element.

8


39. Which of the following statements about Na+1

are true?

I. Sodium has lost an electron.

II. Sodium has gained an electron.

III. It symbolizes a sodium ion.

IV. It symbolizes a sodium atom.

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. II and IV only

Use the following to answer question 40.

40. The combining capacity for Px is +2.

A. True

B. False

__________________________________________________________________

41. CaCl2 is a molecular compound.

A. True

B. False

For the chemical compound ammonium dichromate, match the Element on

the left with the Number of Atoms on the right. The Number of Atoms may

be used as often as necessary.

Element Number of Atoms

42. hydrogen

43. oxygen

A. 4

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

A new element Px has just been discovered. It forms the following compounds:

PxS, PxCrO4, Px(MnO4)2

(NH4)2Cr2O7


44. What is the formula for copper (II) chloride?

A. CuCl

B. Cu2Cl

C. CuCl2

D. Cu2Cl2

45. Which of the following is the correct Bohr model for a magnesium atom?

A. B.

12p 6 6 12p 2 2 8

12n 12n

C. 12p 2 8 2 D. 12p 2 10

12n 12n

46. Which of the following correctly describes ionic bonding?

Charge on Ion Charge on Ion

A. + +

B.

C. +

D. 0

47. Which of the following represents the compound formed by sodium and oxygen?

A. NaO

B. Na2O

C. NaO2

D. Na2O3

48. Covalent bonds result from sharing electrons.

A. True

B. False


49. What is the correct formula for calcium hydroxide?

A. CaOH

B. Ca2OH

C. Ca(OH)2

D. CaOH2

50. Which of the following equations is balanced?

A. KClO3 KCl + O2

B. KClO3 KCl + 3O2

C. 2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2

D. 2KClO3 3KCl + 3O2

51. Which of the following is a single replacement reaction?

A. P4 + 5O2 P4O10

B. Zn + 2HCl ZnCl2 + H2

C. 2Mg + O2 2MgO

D. 2NaClO3 2NaCl + 3O2

52. Which of the following is not a chemical reaction?

A. Liquid water turns to steam.

B. Metal turns brownish-red as it rusts.

C. Light is produced by a burning candle.

D. An apple slowly becomes rotten.


Physical Science Electricity and Magnetism

Refer to the

Data Booklet


Units and Abbreviations on page 4

Formulae on page 4

The Electromagnetic Spectrum on page 4

53. An electroscope measures the quantity of static charge.

A. True

B. False

54. Current electricity requires an energy source; static electricity does not.

A. True

B. False

55. When a rubber balloon is rubbed against a student’s hair, the balloon becomes

negatively charged. Which of the following best describes why this happens?

A. Protons are transferred from the hair to the balloon.

B. Protons are transferred from the balloon to the hair.

C. Electrons are transferred from the hair to the balloon.

D. Electrons are transferred from the balloon to the hair.

56. A long-haired cat walks across a thick wool carpet and its fur stands on end.

Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the reaction of the cat’s

fur?

A. Electrons in the carpet are attracting the cat’s fur.

B. Repulsive forces of excess electrons are in the cat’s fur.

C. Attractive forces of excess electrons are in the cat’s fur.

D. Excess protons in the carpet are repelling the cat’s fur.


Match each Term on the left with the best Descriptor on the right.

Item Description

57. amperes

58. ohms

A. A measure of the power used in a circuit

B. A measure of the energy required in a circuit

C. A measure of the resistance in a circuit

D. A measure of the number of electrons in a circuit

E. A measure of the amount of charge per unit of time

59. Which of the following are examples of static electrical discharge?

A. I, II, and III

B. I, III, and IV

C. I, II, and IV

D. II, III, and IV

60. Several dry cells in a circuit are connected in series, with the positive terminal of

each cell connecting to the negative terminal of the next cell. If another cell is

added to the circuit in the same manner, what will happen?

A. The voltage will increase.

B. The current will decrease.

C. The voltage will remain the same.

D. The current will remain the same.

61. What does an ammeter measure?

A. How fast the electrons are moving

B. How many electrons are in the wire

C. The amount of electric charge moving past a given point in a wire in one second

D. How much energy the electrons have as they move through the wire

I. A lightning bolt

II. The spark from a Bunsen burner lighter flint

III. Clothes sticking together as they are taken from the dryer

IV. Walking across carpet and getting shocked by a metal door knob


Match each Term on the left with the best Descriptor on the right.

Item Description

62. voltage

63. current

A. Changes chemical energy into electrical energy

B. A measure of the amount of electrical energy carried by

a particle

C. Unit of electrical charge

D. The rate of flow of electrons in a wire

E. A pathway through which electricity can flow

64. How is the voltage affected when three dry cells are connected in parallel?

A. The voltage will be the same as that of a single cell.

B. The voltage will be twice that of a single cell.

C. The voltage will be one third the voltage of a single cell.

D. The voltage will be three times the voltage of a single cell.

65. Each cell in the diagram below is 3.0 V. What is the total voltage of the cell

combination?

A. 3.0 V

B. 6.0 V

C. 9.0 V

D. 18.0 V

A. 3.0 V

B. 6.0 V

C. 9.0 V

D. 18.0 V


Use the circuit diagram below to answer question 66.

66. What current would be read in the ammeter for the above circuit?

A. .6 A

B. 1.8 A

C. 6.0 A

D. 1500 A

________________________________________________________________

67. A voltmeter is to voltage, as an ammeter is to ___________________.

A. voltage

B. resistance

C. current

D. insulation

68. A lamp is to light, as a battery is to __________________.

A. voltage

B. resistance

C. current

D. conduction

69. Increasing the current through a solenoid will result in a decrease of the magnetic

field.

A. True

B. False

10 10 10

20 30 V



70. Suppose a compass was placed in the position marked by the circle. How would

the needle of the compass orient itself?

A. B.

C. D.

__________________________________________________________________

71. The diagram below illustrates a magnetic field for a wire with current (electron

flow) coming out of the page.

A. True

B. False

Arrows show

direction of

electron flow


Use the following diagram of a circuit to answer question 72.

72. What is the resistance of this circuit?

A. .07

B. 15

C. 60

D. 600

_________________________________________________________________

73. Ohm’s law states that the amount of current in a circuit depends on the amount of

voltage in the circuit.

A. True

B. False

74. To correctly measure the current passing through a lamp, an ammeter should be

connected in parallel with the lamp.

A. True

B. False

75. How much current does a 600-W heater draw when connected to a 240-V

household circuit?

A. .4 A

B. 2.5 A

C. 600 A

D. 144 000 A

30 V

2.0 A


76. A 240-V hot tub draws 45 A of current. How much electrical energy is consumed

if the hot tub is used for two hours?

A. 10 800 J

B. 21 600 J

C. 1 296 000 J

D. 77 760 000 J

77. Which of the following best describes a step-down transformer?

A. It decreases the resistance in a wire.

B. It changes high current to low current.

C. It changes high voltage to low voltage.

D. It changes low voltage to high voltage.

78. Energuide labels indicate the amount of voltage required to operate an appliance.

A. True

B. False


Physical Science Radioactivity

Refer to the

Data Booklet


The Periodic Table on page 3

The Electromagnetic Spectrum on page 4

Common Isotope Pairs on page 6

79. Half life is the time it takes for radioactive material to decay to half its original

size.

A. True

B. False

80. Which of the following shows the decay curve for a radioactive element?

A. B.

C. D.

81. TV waves are shorter than AM radio waves.

A. True

B. False

82. Microwaves have more energy than ultraviolet light.

A. True

B. False


83. Alpha radiation can pass through your hand.

A. True

B. False

84. In gamma decay ( ), a neutron breaks down into an electron and a proton.

A. True

B. False

85. Which of the following is not part of the electromagnetic spectrum?

A. colour

B. sound

C. radio waves

D. infrared heat

Match the Decay Type on the left with the Equation on the right.

Decay Type Nuclear Equation

86. alpha decay

87. beta decay

A. Th234

90 Pa234

91 + e0

1

B. *Mg24

12 Mg24

12 + 0

0ã

C. Ra226

88 Rn222

86 + He4

2

D. Be7

4 + e

0

1 Li7

3


Use the following graph to answer questions 88 and 89.

Decay Graph of a Radioactive Isotope

0

25

50

75

100

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80

Time (millions of years)

Pe

rce

nt

of

Ori

gin

al

Iso

top

e

88. How many complete half-lives has the sample gone through after 40 million years?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

89. What percentage of the parent material is left after 60 million years?

A. 75%

B. 50%

C. 25%

D. 12.5%

Use the information below to answer question 90.

Application of Radiation

I. X-rays

II. television sets

III. smoke detectors

IV. microwave ovens

90. Which of the following technological applications of radiation is not designed for

use in the home?

A. I

B. II

C. III

D. IV


Earth and Space Science Earth Forces

Refer to the

Data Booklet


Geologic Time Scale on page 5

Tectonic Plate Boundaries Map on page 7

91. Mapping the types of rock on the Earth’s surface is an example of geological field

work.

A. True

B. False

92. The lithosphere allows the plates of the asthenosphere to move around on the

Earth’s surface.

A. True

B. False

93. How did geologists determine where the different layers of the Earth were

located?

A. geological field work

B. observing volcanoes

C. drilling into Earth

D. analyzing earthquake waves


Use the diagram below to answer questions 94 and 95.

Match each Layer on the left with correct Number

from the Diagram on the right.

Layer Number from Diagram

94. mantle

95. outer core

A. W

B. X

C. Y

D. Z

96. A rock contains the three fossils shown below.

In which of the following periods did the rock likely form?

A. Triassic

B. Permian

C. Silurian

D. Ordovician


Match each Event on the left with best Era on the right.

Event Era

97. break up of Pangaea

98. formation of the Grand Canyon

A. Paleozoic

B. Cenozoic

C. Mesozoic

D. Precambrian

99. Which of the following periods was the longest?

A. Cretaceous

B. Jurassic

C. Triassic

D. Permian

100. Composite volcanoes are the result of alternating layers of ash and lava.

A. True

B. False



101. What is the correct order of events from oldest to youngest?

A. H, K, J, L

B. K, L, J, H

C. J, L, H, K

D. L, K, J, H

___________________________________________________________

102. Comparing one layer to the position of another layer is called relative dating.

A. True

B. False

Use the following cross-section to answer question 103 and 104.

103. Which of the following describes when feature Z formed?

A. before B

B. before N

C. after P

D. after N


104. Which principle is used to determine the relative age of Z?

A. the principle of superposition

B. the principle of sedimentation

C. the principle of original horizontality

D. the principle of cross-cutting relationships

Use the following cross-section to answer question 105.

105. What is the sequence of geological features from oldest to youngest?

Oldest Youngest

A. R W V T

B. V R W T

C. V T W R

D. T W V R

Use the following graph to answer question 106.

106. How much of the daughter product is present after 27 million years?

A. 25%

B. 27%

C. 75%

D. 100%


107. If a sample of rock originally contained 120 g of radioactive material, how much

would remain after three half-lives?

A. 3 g

B. 15 g

C. 40 g

D. 360 g

Use the following block diagram to answer questions 108 and 109.

108. Which of the following describes the feature at Z?

A. rift

B. ridge

C. trench

D. fracture

109. This area is a subduction zone.

A. True

B. False


Use the diagram below to answer 110 and 111.

110. What name is given to this tectonic environment?

A. hot spot

B. subduction zone

C. diverging plate boundary

D. transform plate boundary

111. Mount Kilauea on the Big Island of Hawaii has been erupting constantly for over

20 years with no loss of life. What characteristics of the volcano have made that

possible?

A. The volcano only releases ash clouds.

B. The Big Island has very few people on it.

C. The magma is thin and does not erupt violently.

D. The volcano always gives warnings of lava flows.

Magma rises to surface

Source of magma


Use the photograph below of Gleebruk, Indonesia, to answer question 112.

Photo courtesy of NASA http://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/Newsroom/NewImages/images.php3?img_id=16782

112. The photograph shows the damage caused by a tsunami that hit this area on

December 26, 2004. What geologic event causes a tsunami?

A. extremely high tides

B. hurricane-force winds

C. rapid sinking of coastline

D. an underwater earthquake

END OF EXAMINATION

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