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2020

(SHINE) || Ensure your Elevation ||

State Bank Institute of Learning & Development Nungambakkam, Chennai 600 006

email:[email protected]

SBILD Nungambakkam 1

FOREWORD

Dear Colleagues,

Greetings to you !

State Bank Institute of Learning & Development, Nungambakkam, headed by

Shri. P. Arivalagan, AGM & Director, with the dedicated efforts of TEAM SBILD has

bought out the updated must-read promotion booklet MILIR 2020 (Shine). The revised

booklet will prove handy and useful to all talented prospects. This book will groom your

prospect for career advancement and be the perfect choice for your progress.

MILIR will provide an enlightening window to help promotion aspirants in their career

success. This new edition covers all important topics like General Banking, Systems &

Procedures, Digital Products, Liability & Asset Products of Retail, Agricultural and SME

Segments. It also covers gist of RFIA, FI and CRM. It gives a complete and detailed

understanding through MCQs, Rationales, For and Against, Situation Analysis etc., I am

sure all role holders will feel Milir compatible and comfortable.

I congratulate TEAM SBILD Nungambakkam for their painstaking efforts to collate and

compile MILIR 2020, replete with important topics in relevance to our current exam

pattern.

Best wishes to all the readers !

P V RAMAPRASAD DEPUTY GENERAL MANAGER & CIRCLE DEVELOPMENT OFFICER LOCAL HEAD OFFICE CHENNAI 11th December 2019


PREFACE

MILIR 2020 (SHINE) is an endeavor of Team SBILD Nungambakkam, a comprehensive

compilation for the promotional aspirants with sensitive insights on all arenas of Banking.

This book incorporates various Banking concepts in tandem with exam pattern. Milir helps

you gain more confidence and the promotion you deserve.

I place on record the efforts taken by TEAM SBILD to make the contents relevant,

authentic and up to date after rigorous analysis. I am thankful for their unstinted co-

operation in bringing out this updated version of MILIR 2020, on time.

Any constructive comments and concrete suggestions may be e-mailed to

[email protected]

Wishing the aspirants all the very best for their upcoming examinations!!

P ARIVALAGAN DIRECTOR 11th December 2019

mailto:[email protected]


INDEX EXAM PATTERN ....................................................................................................... 6

CLERICAL TO JMGS I .......................................................................................... 6

PROMOTION FROM JMGs I TO MMGS II ............................................................ 8

PROMOTION FROM MMGS II to MMGS III .......................................................... 9

STATE BANK OF INDIA ORGANISATIONAL SETUP ........................................... 10

FINANCIAL PERFORMANCE OF STATE BANK OF INDIA .................................. 12

GENERAL BANKING .............................................................................................. 13

KNOW YOUR CUSTOMER ..................................................................................... 19

LEGAL ISSUES ....................................................................................................... 23

SYSTEMS & PROCEDURES .................................................................................. 25

HANDLING OF CUSTOMER GRIEVANCES .......................................................... 29

PREVENTIVE VIGILANCE ...................................................................................... 32

FINANCIAL INCLUSION ......................................................................................... 35

RATIONALES ...................................................................................................... 38

FOR and AGAINST .............................................................................................. 40

PER SEGMENT - ASSET PRODUCTS ................................................................... 43

PERSONAL BANKING – 2 .................................................................................. 63

PERSONAL BANKING – 3 .................................................................................. 68

AGRICULTURAL BANKING ................................................................................... 74

AGRICULTURAL BANKING – 1.......................................................................... 74



AGRI RATIONALES ............................................................................................ 90

SME ASSET PRODUCTS ...................................................................................... 93

MSMED ACT ........................................................................................................ 93

SME DOCUMENTATION .................................................................................... 94

ARTISAN CREDIT CARD .................................................................................... 95

SME CREDIT CARD ............................................................................................ 95

SME SMART SCORE .......................................................................................... 97

SME CREDIT PLUS ............................................................................................. 99

SME COLLATERAL FREE LOAN ..................................................................... 101

OPEN TERM LOAN ........................................................................................... 102

CONSTRUCTION EQUIPMENT LOAN ............................................................. 103

FLEET FINANCE SCHEME ............................................................................... 105


SBI ASSET BACKED LOAN (ABL) ................................................................... 106

SBI ASSET BACKED LOAN FOR RESIDENTIAL HOUSING ( ABL- RH) ....... 107

SBI ASSET BACKED LOAN FOR (Commercial real estate) Commercial

projects ( ABL- CRECP) .................................................................................. 108

CGTMSE ............................................................................................................ 109

WEAVER’S CREDIT CARD SCHEME .............................................................. 110

CAR LOAN TO SME UNITS ............................................................................. 111

BANK GUARANTEE & LETTERS OF CREDIT................................................ 113

ELECTRONIC VENDOR FINANCING SCHEME (EVFS) ................................ 113

CORPORATE LOAN .......................................................................................... 114

DOCTOR PLUS SCHEME ................................................................................. 115

SIMPLIFIED SMALL BUSINESS LOANS (SSBL) ............................................. 116

“MUDRA e-SMART SCORE ( Financing for e- tailers) ................................... 117

MUDRA LOAN ................................................................................................... 117

STANDUP INDIA ................................................................................................ 118

E- SME SMART LOAN ..................................................................................... 119

SME ASSIST ...................................................................................................... 120

ARTHIAS PLUS ................................................................................................. 120

SME LIABILITY PRODUCTS ................................................................................ 121

CURRENT ACCOUNT ....................................................................................... 121

POWER JYOTHI & POWER JYOTHI (PLUS) ................................................... 121

ARTHIA (Commission Agent) Current Account: ............................................ 122

RATIONALES .................................................................................................... 123

FOR AND AGAINST QUESTIONS .................................................................... 126

SME ASSET PRODUCTS .................................................................................. 128

LOAN POLICY GUIDELINES 2019-20 .................................................................. 133

PREAMBLE ....................................................................................................... 133

ORGANISATION OF BUSINESS ....................................................................... 133

GOVERNMENT BUSINESS .................................................................................. 143

TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS ................................................................................. 148

ATM, CDM, ADWM, GCC, GRC ........................................................................ 148

RETAIL INTERNET BANKING .......................................................................... 154

CORPORATE INTERNET BANKING ................................................................ 157

DIGITAL BANKING ............................................................................................ 160

YOU ONLY NEED ONE (YONO) ....................................................................... 164


CKYCR, CRM, CEEP ......................................................................................... 168

RATIONALE ....................................................................................................... 172

FOREIGN EXCHANGE .......................................................................................... 177

CUSTOMER VALUE ENHANCEMENT ................................................................. 188

RISK FOCUSSED INTERNAL AUDIT (RFIA) ....................................................... 191

ANSWERS ......................................................................................................... 196

IT PRODUCTS AND RELATED ASPECTS .......................................................... 197

ENGLISH LANGUAGE .......................................................................................... 202

BUSINESS CORRESSPONENCE ..................................................................... 202

LETTER WRITING MODEL FORMAT ................................................................... 202

COMPREHENSION ............................................................................................ 210

GENERAL AWARENESS ..................................................................................... 226

GENERAL AWARENESS 1 ............................................................................... 226

GENERAL AWARENESS II ........................................................................... 24242

GENERAL AWARENESS III .............................................................................. 258

GENERAL AWARENESS IV ............................................................................. 273

GENERAL AWARENESS V .............................................................................. 289


EXAM PATTERN

The online examination consists of both objective type and descriptive type (select

exams). No negative marks are awarded for wrong answers

CLERICAL TO JMGS I

ALLOCATION OF MARKS Trainee

Officer

Merit Normal cum

Seniority

Written test 60 60 55

Performance Appraisal 10 10 10

Additional qualification: courses and institutes recognized by AICTE/UGC viz. MBA, Diploma in Banking, Finance, HR, Business Management, Marketing, Treasury, Intermediate CA/ICWA. (JAIIB/CAIIB in case of other than Trainee Officer Channel)

5 10 --

Personal Interview 20 20 20

E lessons 5

Service Seniority -- -- 15

TOTAL 100 100 100

A) MERIT AND NORMAL CUM SENIORITY CHANNEL

SL

No Particulars

No of

questions Marks

1 General Banking, KYC, Legal issues, System and

Procedures in our Bank 50 25

2 CBS & Computer Awareness, Computer Security

related questions 20 15

3

Products and services of the Bank, Associates and

Subsidiaries, other banks, alternate channel and IT

products, Financial Inclusion

30 15

4

Latest Financial results, Performance indicators of the

Bank and Productivity & profitability related concerns

of the Bank

10 5

5 Objective type questions on practical problems in

General Banking 10 20

6 General Awareness 10 10

7 Organisational Structure & Policy guidelines of the

Bank 10 10

TOTAL (Duration of 150 minutes)

140 100


B) TRAINEE OFFICER CHANNEL

SL

No Particulars

No of

questions Marks

Section I (Qualifying marks 65% for General and 60 % for SC and ST)

Duration of 120 minutes

1 General Awareness about banking environment

KYC, Legal issues 20 10

2

General Banking, Handling of customer grievances

and Preventive Vigilance (The test will contain

passages relating to practical day-to-day situations

in branches/offices about 10-15 lines with 5

objective questions on each passage to identify the

best option.)

20 20

3

Knowledge about products and services of our

Bank including retail finance, our associates and

subsidiaries and of other Banks (focus on our USP

of our products and services) and Financial

Inclusion.

20 20

4 Knowledge of CBS and other IT products in use in

the Bank and IT related security Concerns 20 15

5 Alternate channel Products 20 10

6

Latest financial results, performance indicators of

the Bank and Productivity and profitability related

concerns of the Bank, Organisational Structure and

History

20 5

Section I – TOTAL 120 80

Section II (Qualifying marks 50% for general and 45% for SC/ST) Duration 30

minutes

7

Writing essay on banking related topics (250 words)

(For evaluating comprehension skill and

communication skill)

1 out of 3 20

TOTAL (Duration 150 minutes)

Overall qualifying marks 65% for General & 60%

for SC/STs

121 100


PROMOTION FROM JMGs I TO MMGS II Sl

No

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS NUMBER OF

QUESTIONS

MAXIMUM

MARKS

a1

a2

Product features – Deposit/Liability

Product Features - Advance /Assets 20

20

10

10

b IT Channels, Payment solutions, Transaction

products etc., and questions on other new

initiatives

10 5

c Systems and procedure in branches and CPCs

(both system and manual) Organisational

Structure and questions related to HR area

20 10

d Forex/Treasury/IB 5 2.5

e Government Business Cross Selling Products

and Financial Inclusion 15 7.5

f Laws relevant to Banks 15 7.5

g Macro – economic environment/General

Awareness 10 5

h Pre- Sanction, Post Sanction process & NPA

Management in loans and advances 15 7.5

i English Language comprehension 20 10

TOTAL (Duration of 120 minutes) 150 75

All questions carry 0.5 marks. No negative marks for wrong answers


PROMOTION FROM MMGS II to MMGS III Sl

No

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS NUMBER OF

QUESTIONS

MAXIMUM

MARKS

SECTION I (Duration of 100 minutes)

a1

a2

Product features – Deposit/Liability

Product Features - Advance /Assets 15

15

7.5

7.5

b IT Channels, Payment solutions,

Transaction products etc and questions on

other new initiatives

10 5

c Systems and procedure in branches and

CPCs (both system and manual)

Organisational Structure and questions

related to HR area

20 10

d Forex/Treasury/IB 5 2.5

e Government Business Cross Selling

Products and Financial Inclusion 15 7.5

f Laws relevant to Banks 15 7.5

g Macro – economic environment/General

Awareness 10 5

h Pre- Sanction, Post Sanction process &

NPA Management in loans and advances 15 7.5

i Supervisory Role and Responsibilities 10 5

j Data Interpretation 10 5

SUBTOTAL (Marks of 0.5 per question) 140 70

SECTION II- (Duration of 60 minutes)

DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

1 Rationale (2 marks each question) 4 (Out of 6) 8

2 For and Against (2 marks each question) 4 (Out of 6) 8

3 Situational Analysis (3 marks each question) 2 (Out of 3) 6

4 Comprehension (1 mark each question) 1 (4 Questions) 4

5 Business Correspondence 1 (Out of 2) 4

SUB TOTAL 12 30

GRAND TOTAL 152 100


STATE BANK OF INDIA ORGANISATIONAL SETUP

1.The present chaiman of State Bank of India ?

a.Shri. Dinesh Khara b. Sri. Rajinish Kumar

c. Sri. Parveen kumar d. Sri. Prasanth kumar

2.The registered office of SBI is located at ?

a. Chennai b. Mumbai c. Kolkotta d. Hyderabad

3.SBI has .......... number of circles at present ?

a. 14 b. 15 c.16 d.17

4.The Acronym of SBI’s Values in VMV statement ?

a. STEPS b. PETS c. HIPS d. SEEP

5.The approved number of MD’s of our Bank is ?

a. 2 b. 3 c.4 d.5

6.which one of the following is not a business vertical of SBI ?

a.R & DB b. CCG c. CAR d. SARG

7.R&DB branches will handle individual loan proposal upto a maximum of Rs........?

a. Rs. 25 crs b. Rs.50 crs c. Rs. 75 crs d. Rs. 100 crs

8.Under the new credit delivery model all corporate centre proposals have to be

vetted by ?

a. CPPD b. CRMD c. CRD d. RCCC

9. RCC & ZCC have been withdrawan and at circle level the committee have been

formed namely ?

a. CCLC b. CLCC c. CACC d. CRCC

10.The new name for ZIO ?

a. Central inspection office b. Circle audit office

c. corporate inspection office d. I& MA

11. The new name of cross selling department ?

a. Customer relationship department b. Customer value enhancement BU

c. Customer service department d. customer relations department

12.Branches of SBI are categorized into ......... & ......... based on their location?

a. Metro & Rural b. BPR & Non BPR


c. Profit & non profit d. Stable & unstable

13.Which of the following is not a BPR outfit?

a. RASMEC b. RACPC c. SME centre d. LPC

14.At BPR centres SME loan of the range > Rs.0.50 crs to Rs. 50 crs are handled

by?

a. RMSE b. AMT c. RMME d. RMSME

15. At SME centre the government sponsored schemes are handled by ?

a. GSSAMT b. AMT c. RMSE d. RMME

Key – Organizational set up

1 B 2 C 3 D 4 A 5 C

6 C 7 B 8 C 9 B 10 B

11 B 12 b 13 D 14 D 15 A


FINANCIAL PERFORMANCE OF STATE BANK OF INDIA

PARAMETER Q2 FY2019-20 Q1 FY2019-20 As on

31.03.2019

Deposits (lac crs) 30.33 29.48 29.11

Advances ( lac crs) 22.48 22.38 22.93

Net profit ( Rs. In crs) 3012.00 2312.00 862.00

Gross NPA % 7.19 7.53 7.53

Net NPA % 2.79 3.07 3.01

NIM % 3.22 3.01 2.95

PCR % (Exc. AUCA) 62.92 61.05 61.86

CASA ratio % 45.13 45.10 45.74

CAR % 13.59 12.89 12.72

ROA 0.33 0.25 0.02

ROE 5.18 5.96 0.48

PROFITABILITY ( Rs. In crores)

PARAMETER AS ON 31.03.2019 AS ON 30.09.2019

Interest Income 2.42 lac crore 64312.00

Cross Selling income 1927.00 491.00

Government Business 3974.00 893.00

Exchange 6513.00 1470.00

Operating Profits 55436.00 18199.00

Net Profits 862.00 3012.00


GENERAL BANKING

1. MICR code consists of

a. 9 digits b.10 digits c. 11 digits d. 12 digits

2. The first 3 digits in MICR code refers to

a. Bank code b. Branch code c. City Code d. Area code

3. The middle 3 digits in MICR code refers to

a. Bank code b. Branch code c. City Code d. Area code

4. The last 3 digits in MICR code refers to

Bank code b. Branch code c. City Code d. Area code

5. All cheques above ________ be subjected to fugitive ink / water droplet test to

ascertain the genuineness of the instrument.

a. Rs.25000/- b. Rs.50,000/- c. Rs.1 lakh d. Rs.2 lakhs

6. All cheques above ______ be subjected to ultra violet lamp test to ascertain the

genuineness of the instrument.


7. Customer is to be called before making payment of cheque for amount of

Rs._____ lakh and above, so as to ensure that the cheque presented has not been

stolen.


8. For payment of Multi City Cheques at the Non-Home Branches the maximum cap

is ________ for Saving Bank account of HNI/NRI.

a. 10 lakhs b. 20 lakhs c. 50 lakhs d. no cap

9. For payment of Multi City Cheques at the Non-Home Branches the maximum cap

is ______ for Saving Bank account of other than HNI/NRI.


10. For payment of Multi City Cheques at the Non-Home Branches the maximum

cap is _______ for Current Account and CC account.


11. For payment of Multi City Cheques at the Non-Home Branches the maximum

cap is ______ for Current Account CCPAP cheques.

a. 10 lakhs b. 20 lakhs c. 50 lakhs d. no cap fixed

12. SMS alerts to the drawer of the Cheque for amount of _________ received in

CTS clearing, is sent with a request to the customer to confirm before 12.30 p.m.


a. Rs.15000 & above b. Rs.20000 & above

c. Rs.25000 & above d.Rs.50000 & above

13. CCPAP refers to

a. Corporate Cheque Payable at Par b. Credit Cheque payable at par

c. Credit Cheque paid at par d. Corporate Cheque paid at par

14. Service Charges on EPS-1995 Pensioners are to be recovered by the branches

at ___ for recurring payment

a. 0.25% b. 0.50% c. 1.00% d. 1.25%

15. Service Charges on EPS-1995 Pensioners are to be recovered by the branches

at ___ for non-recurring payment

a. 0.25% b. 0.50% c.1.00% d. 1.25%

16. With respect to Recovery of Service Charges from EPFO, Collection charges on

challans are to be recovered by _________.

a. Bhikaji Cama Place Branch b. Madame Cama Branch

c. Mumbai Main Branch d. New Delhi Main Branch

17.An Inoperative Account becomes Active/ Operative only when a debit transaction

induced by the customer or by a third party is done manually in CBS through referral/

second level of authorisation (i.e. through maker and checker in CBS).

a. True b. False

18. A KYC Non- Compliant Inoperative Account should be activated only after

obtaining fresh KYC documents and updating it in CBS. Branches to ensure that

periodic KYC updation of CIF as per the risk profile of the customer has been carried

out.

a. True b. False

19. For depositing cheques drawn on local Bank branches which are to be presented

in Local Clearing, __________ section of the Drop box is used.

a. Red b. Yellow c. Blue d. Green

20. For depositing cheques drawn on Drop Box Hosting Branch, _________section

of the Drop box is used.


21. For depositing all outstation cheques required to be sent for collection,

_________section of the Drop box is used.



22. The duplicate set of Drop Box keys may be kept with the Manager of Division/

Manager (Branch Operations) or the Branch Manager as the case may be.

a. True b. False

23. Banking facilities which can be provided to Visually Challenged customers are

a. Deposit Accounts b. ATM Cards c. Internet Banking d. All the above

24. Cheque Book Facility can be provided to Visually Challenged customers.

a. Yes b. No.

25. ASBA refers to

a. Application Supported by Blocked Amount

b. Application Support by Block Account

c. Application Supported by Block Account

d. Application Secured by Blocked Amount

26. The product with reference to ASBA is a. e-Equity b. e-Shield c. e-Invest d. e-Fund

27. SEBI has authorized the Bank to work as SCSB and has made it obligatory to

provide the ASBA facility through Designated Branches. SCSB stands for

a. Self Certified Syndicate Bankers b. System Certified Syndicate Bankers

c. Self Controlled Syndicate Bankers d. System Controlled Syndicate Bankers

28. Maximum ______ ASBA applications can be made from a single account in

different names, per issue.

a. 3 b. 5 c.10 d. 50

29. The electronic records relating to ASBA facility will be maintained for a minimum

period of ____ years.

a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

30.The Standardised Process Management Framework document shall be reviewed

every three years by

a. OP & SP Dept. b. S & P Dept. c. BOD Dept. d. Risk Dept.

31. In case of wrong account number of RTGS/NEFT beneficiary is mentioned by

customer, ______ Branch of customer will initiate follow up processes with other

Bank(s) without any pecuniary liabilities.

a. Initiating b. Home c. Responding d. Corporate centre


32. In case of Locker Arrears, Notice to be sent ______ the due date regarding

payment of Locker rent

a. on or before b. after c. before d. on

33. In case of Lockers, Final Notice on COS 406 is issued _____ months after due

date giving one-month time to pay.

a. 6 b.3 c.9 d.12

34. Balances lying in Current Account of a deceased Individual depositor or Sole

Proprietorship concern shall attract interest from the date of death of the deposit or

till the date of repayment to the claimant (s) at

a. SB Rate as on date of payment b. TDR Rate for 1 year

c. SB Rate as on date of death d. No interest to be paid

35. With reference to Bankers’ Indemnity Policy claims for losses up to _______

need not be filed.

a. Rs.10,000/- b. 50,000/- c. Rs.1,00,000/- d. 5,00,000/-

36. The product and campaign brochures will be designed by the BUs and different

departments of Corporate Centre in consultation with

a. Marketing & Communication Department (M&C Dept.).

b. BOD Department c. S&P Department d. ORM Department

37. Compilation of E-waste data & Updation of E-waste portal is to be done on

_________ basis.

a. weekly b. monthly c. quarterly d. yearly

38. Filing of Annual returns for a financial year to the concerned State Pollution

Control Boards E-waste data to be done by _________ every year.

a.31st March b.30th June c. 30th Sep d. 31st December

39. The confirmation mail of having submitted the annual return regarding e-waste to

State Pollution Control Boards has to be sent to [email protected] by _______

every year.

a. 7th April b. 10th April c. 7th July d. 10th July

40. Passing for payment of high value cheques of Rs._____ Lakhs and above will be

physically authorised by two officials.

a. 5 b. 10 c.15 d.50

41. If Cheque Book is not delivered to customer within _______, the Branch will

arrange to destroy the undelivered Cheque Book in the presence of Joint Custodians

duly recorded in the Register maintained for the purpose and also marking in CBS

against stopped cheques.



a.15 days b. 30 days c. 2 months d. 6 months

42. Banker’s Cheque shall be valid for ___ from the date of issue.

a. 1 month b. 3 months c. 6 months d. 12 months

43. BIAK refer to

a. Built In Authentication Key b. Built in Authorisation Key

c. Build in Authentication Key d. Build in Authorisation Key

44. All Banker’s Cheques beyond ____ shall be signed by two supervising officials.

a. Rs.50000/- b. Rs.100000/- c. Rs.150000/- d. Rs.200000/-

45. If the value of Banker’s Cheque exceeds Rs._______, the receipt shall be

obtained on revenue stamp of appropriate amount.

a. Rs.10000 b. 20000 c.5000 d.2000

46. During the day the undelivered Bankers’ Cheques shall be in the custody of the -

a. SWO b. Officer in Charge

c. Joint Custodians d. None of the above

47. The undelivered instruments will be verified with the entries in the register by any

other officer to be authorised in this regard by the Branch Manager or by the

Manager (Branch Operations), once a _____.

a. week b. month c. quarter d. year

48. Once in a year as part of annual closing exercise, Banker’s Cheques outstanding

for more than 3 years from the date of issue which have originally been issued in

favour of vendors by debit to Bank’s Charges Account shall be transferred to

Charges Account.

a. True b. False

49. In case of email instructions received from NRI Customers, ____ third-party

transfer or transfer to customers’ own account with any other Office / Branch / Bank

within India or overseas can be allowed.

a. No b.one c. two d. five

50. Tele-calling and getting confirmation from the drawer for suspicious cheques and

all non-home cheques of Rs.2.00 lacs above.

a. True b. False


Key – General Banking

1 a 2 c 3 a 4 b 5 a

6 b 7 d 8 c 9 a 10 c

11 d 12 d 13 a 14 d 15 a

16 a 17 a 18 a 19 c 20 a

21 b 22 a 23 d 24 a 25 a

26 c 27 a 28 b 29 a 30 a

31 b 32 a 33 b 34 a 35 c

36 a 37 c 38 b 39 c 40 D

41 c 42 b 43 a 44 c 45 C

46 a 47 b 48 a 49 a 50 a


KNOW YOUR CUSTOMER

1. Under Customer Identification Procedure (CIP) Introduction is ________ for

opening of Savings Bank Accounts.

a. required b. not required

c. mandatory d. may be required

2. Maximum Deposits that can be accepted in the SB accounts of minors in

single name is

a. Rs.1,00,000/- b. Rs.2,00,000/- c. Rs.10,00,000/- d. Rs.20,00,000/-

3. Maximum Deposits that can be accepted in the SB accounts of minors maintained

along with guardian is

a. Rs.1,00,000/- b. Rs.2,00,000/- c. Rs.10,00,000/- d. Rs.20,00,000/-

4. AML-CFT day is observed every year in the Bank on

a.1st August b. 31st October c.2nd November d. 30th November

5. A ‘Small Account' means a savings account in which

a. the aggregate of all credits in a financial year does not exceed rupees one lakh;

b. the aggregate of all withdrawals and transfers in a month does not exceed rupees

ten thousand;

c. the balance at any point of time does not exceed rupees fifty thousand

d. All the above

6. URL for reporting Online Reporting of instances of detection of counterfeit

currency notes by designed officials

a. https://ccr.sbi.co.in b. https://ccr.statebanktimes.in

c. https:// counterfeit.co.in d. https:// currency.sbi.in

7. KYC compliance and fraud prevention day observes on ______

a. 1st Aug b. 1st Oct c. 1st Dec d. 1ST Sept

8. The decision to open an account for a Politically Exposed Person (PEP. is taken

by an official not below the grade of _________________.

a. JMGS b. MMGS c. Senior Management Grade (SMG)

d. All of the above

9. Risk categorization of Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan a/cs are

a. Low b. Medium c. High d. None of the above


10. The Periodicity of KYC updation for high risk customers is _____ years

a. 2 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10

11. AML-CFT cell is in _____

a. GITC b. Mumbai c. Jaipur d. Kanpur

12. Which one of the following is not a stage in Money Laundering?

a. Layering b. Structuring c. Integration d. Placement

13. In case of a company, beneficial ownership means holding ___% of share

capital/profit from the company

a.10 b.15 c.20 d.25

14. In case of other than a company, beneficial ownership means holding ___% of

share capital/profit from the entity.

a.10 b.15 c.20 d.25

15. PMLA and the Rules notified there under came into force with effect from _____

a. July 1, 2002 b. July 1, 2005 c. July 1,2012 d. July 1,1999

16. In no case, the Principal Officer shall be nominated as the 'Designated Director

a. True b. False

17. The Principal Officer is an officer designated by a Reporting Entity for the

purpose of _________of PMLA, 2002

a. Sec 3 b. Sec 10 c. Sec 12 d. Sec 15

18. The MD (R, IT & S) has been appointed by the Board as the Designated Director

of the bank to ensure overall compliance with the obligations imposed under Chapter

IV of the PMLA and to keep the Board informed of the AML/CFT issues

a. True b. False

19. The General Manager (AML/CFT) is the Principal Officer of the bank for

AML/CFT matters for the purpose of Section 12 of PMLA, 2002.

a. True b. False

20. With respect to AML/CFT, the third line of defence is handled by

a. AML/CFT Department b. Internal Auditors

c. Operational Managers d. None of the above

21. The Risk-Based Approach to Combating Money Laundering and Terrorist

Financing was adopted as per the guidance of

a. RBI b. IBA c. FATF d. FIU India


22. Which country has been removed from the strategic risk by FATF?

a. Pakistan b. Afghanistan c. SriLanka d. Myanmar

23. All accounts under this parameter where STRs have been filed with FIU-INDIA

are to be assigned High Risk

a. True b. False

24. As per provisions of PML Act, any deficiency in filing the mandatory reports by

reporting entities will attract minimum penalty of Rs. 10,000/- which may go to

_______ per instance per day.

a. Rs.25000/- b. Rs.50000/- c.Rs.100000/- d.Rs.200000/-

25. Remittances through Exchange Houses for financing of trade transactions are

permitted up to _________ per transaction

a.Rs.250000/- b. Rs.500000/- c.Rs.1500000/- d. Rs.2000000/-

26. Rule 3 of the Prevention of Money-laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules,

2005 lays down following obligations for

a. Maintenance of records b. Customer Acceptance

c. Customer Identification d. Monitoring of transactions

27. As per RBI Directions, Banks have to maintain all necessary records of

transactions for at least _______years from the date of transaction or after the

business relationship is ended.

a. Eight b. 10 c. 5 d.15

28. As per AML/CFT Guidelines, indicative alert CV3.1 refers to

a. Address found to be non-existent b. Difficult to identify beneficial owner

c. Customer left without opening account d. Address found to be wrong

29. In case of suspicion about Shell Companies, the same shall be reported to

a. [email protected] b. [email protected]

c. [email protected] d. [email protected]

30. CDD refers to

a. Customer Data Diligence b. Customer Due Diligence

c. Continuous Due Diligence d. Continuous Data Diligence





Key – KYC

1 b 2 c 3 d 4 c 5 d

6 b 7 a 8 c 9 a 10 a

11 c 12 b 13 d 14 b 15 B

16 a 17 c 18 a 19 a 20 B

21 c 22 d 23 a 24 c 25 C

26 a 27 c 28 a 29 a 30 b


LEGAL ISSUES

1. Nomination facility is available on all deposit accounts opened by the

__________ in their individual capacity.

a. Individuals b. Sole Proprietor c. Both d. None of the above

2. In case of depositors putting his/her thumb impression on the prescribed

Forms for making nomination, cancellation or change thereof, the form is

required to be attested by ____ witnesses.

a. One b. Two c. Three d. No Witness required

3. Printing of Nominee name in the Passbook/Term Deposit advices/statement of

accounts, is __________.

a. Compulsory b. Mandatory c. Optional d. Not Applicable

4. After the accounts are transferred, the account holder has to provide local address

proof or submit a declaration to provide the new address proof within six months at

the transferee branch, if the transfer is at a different centre.

a. One month b. Two months c. Three months d. Six months

5. Under normal circumstances, Bank will not close depositors account without giving at least ____ days’ notice indicating the reasons for such closure.

a. 7 days b. 15 days c. 30 days d. 60 days

6. Within how many days the CPIO has to provide information under RTI Act ?


7. To which of the following Consumer Protection Act is not applicable?

a. Sanction of loans b. failure to issue a draft

c. failure to open a deposit a/c d. ill-treats the customer

8. Issue of probate of a will is governed by which Act?

a. Indian contract Act 1872 b. Indian Succession Act

c. NI Act 1881 d. None of these

9. Inchoate instrument means-------------------

a. Out dated instrument b. Post-dated instrument

c. Incomplete instrument d. Altered instrument


10. Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument as per N.I.Act ?

a. Promissory Note b. Draft c. TDR d. Cheque

11. Under Sec __ of NI Act 1881, a minor can draw, endorse and accept a N.I.

a. 24 b.26 c.42 d.46

12. Sec ____ of NI Act 1881 deals with Protection to Paying Banker.

a. 24 b.36 c.85 d. 131

13. Sec ____ of NI Act 1881 refers to Protection to Collecting Banker.

a. 24 b.36 c.85 d 131

14. As per Sec 125 of Companies Act 1956 Charges to be filed with ROC within ___

days from the date of creation.

a.7 b. 15 c.30 d. 45

15.As per Sec ___ of Indian Contract Act 1872, a minor cannot enter into a contract.

a.10 b.11 c. 12 d.15

16. Mortgage is defined in

a. Indian Contract Act b. Transfer of Property Act

c. BR Act d. RBI Act

17. The District forum under COPRA 1986, handles claims upto Rs.____ lakhs

a.10 b.20 c.50 d.100

18. The State Commission under COPRA 1986, handles claims upto Rs.____ lakhs

a.10 b.20 c.50 d.100

19. The National Commission under COPRA 1986, handles claims above Rs.____

lakhs

a.10 b.20 c.50 d.100

20. Appeal under COPRA 1986 can be made within ___ days.

a.15 b.30 c.45 d.60

Key – Legal Issues

1 c 2 b 3 c 4 d 5 c

6 c 7 a 8 b 9 c 10 c

11 b 12 c 13 d 14 c 15 b

16 b 17 b 18 D 19 d 20 b


SYSTEMS & PROCEDURES

1.GST Registered Customers are also known as _____

a. G2B Customers b. B2B Customers c. B2C Customers d. C2C Customers

2. GST Un-Registered Customers are also known as _____

a. G2B Customers b. B2B Customers c. B2C Customers d. C2C Customers

3. For GST unregistered customers (known as B2C customers), invoice is generated

only if commission and exchange amount received exceeds ____ per day per

customer.

a. Rs.100 b. Rs.200 c. Rs.500 d. Rs.1000

4. In case of NRI Customers, third party transfer or a transfer to own account at any

other office/branch/bank (outward remittance) from SB/CA/TDR/STDR/RD _______

based on email instructions.

a. Can be done b. should not be done

5. Can Lockers be allotted to Visually Challenged Customers?

a. Yes b. No.

6. Wherever thumb or toe impression of the sick/old/incapacitated account holder is

obtained, it should be identified by __________.

a. two independent witnesses known to the bank, one of whom should be a

responsible bank official.

b. two independent witnesses known to the bank

c. one of whom should be a responsible bank official

d. two bank officials

7. In Savings Bank, interest is payable at calendar ______ intervals.

a. monthly b. quarterly c. half-yearly d. yearly

8. If a Term Deposit is maturing for payment on a non-business working day, interest

shall be paid at the originally contracted rate on the original principal deposit amount

for the non-business working day, intervening between the date of the maturity and

the date of payment on the _______________.

a. previous working day b. succeeding working day

9. The DICGC insures all deposits such as savings, fixed, current, recurring, etc.

Each depositor in a bank is insured up to a maximum of

a. Rs.10,000/- b. Rs.25000/- c. Rs.50,000/- d. Rs.1,00,000/-


10. At present Savings Bank and Current accounts are treated as ‘inoperative’ if

there are no debit as well as credit transactions induced at the instance of customers

in the account for a period of over two years.

a. 6 months b. one year c. two years d. five years

11. The list of unclaimed accounts where there is no transaction for more than 10

years is displayed on Bank’s website.

a. 2 years b. 5 years c. 10 years d. 15 years

12. Expand DEAF

a. Depositors Education and Awareness Fund

b. Depositors Educational Awareness Fund

c. Depositors and Educational Awareness Fund

d. Depositors Evaluation and Awareness Fund

13. DEAF has been set up under ___

a. Sec 26 of BR Act 1949 b. Sec 24 of BR Act 1949

c. Sec 42 of BR Act 1949. D. Sec 24 of RBI Act 1934

14. The department which owns the “Policy on Depositors right” is

a. LIMA Dept., PBBU, CC, Mumbai b. BOD Dept., CC, Mumbai

c. S&P Dept., CC, Mumbai d. CPPD Dept., CC, Mumbai

15. DEAF related functions are handled by

a. CAO Kolkata b. Mumbai Main Branch

c. Corporate Centre d. Respective LHOs

16. The Authority Structure for Period Angle Clearance in SARG for BGs with validity

periods beyond 18 months and up-to 60 months is

a. DGM (Branch Head) b. GM (Sector) c. CGM d. AGM

17. As per RBI Notification, the banks may not offer facility of electronic transactions,

other than _________, to customers who do not provide mobile number to the bank.

a. INB b. YONO c. ATM d. MBS

18. Registration on CERSAI portal is to be undertaken by Secured Creditors SC

(Banks, other financial entities etc.) within ___ days of creation of Security

Interest(SI).

a. 7 b. 15 c. 30 d. 60

19. Branch Documents Register consists of -------------sections

a) 7 b) 6 c) 9 d) 8


20. The safe custody receipt of duplicate keys of the branch is held -------

a) By the accountant b) By the cashier

c) By the Branch Manager outside the strong room d) By any one of above

21. Ceiling for payment of small bills from Petty Cash is

a.Rs.50/- b. Rs.100/- c. Rs.200/-. d. Rs.500/-

22. All bills in respect of expenses incurred by the branches on account of remittance

of treasure (except freight and police escort charges) will be paid by debit to Charges

Account under appropriate BGL A/c of the Charges Account sub head.

a. True b. False

23. Branches shall submit the certificate on the Monthly Abstract of Charges

Account by ____ of every month.

a. 5th b.10th c.15th d.20th

24. The Counterfeit Notes can be impounded by

a. All Banks b. All Treasuries and Sub-Treasuries.

c. Issue Offices of Reserve Bank of India d. All the above

25. For cases of detection of Counterfeit Notes of 5 or more pieces, in a single

transaction, the Counterfeit Notes should be forwarded immediately by the Nodal

Bank Officer to the local police authorities or the Nodal Police Station for

investigation by filing FIR.

a.3 b.4 c.5 d. 7

26. All cash receipts in the denominations of Rs._____ and above are not put into

recirculation without the notes being processed through Note Sorting Machine.

a. 50 b. 100 c. 500 d.2000

27. When Counterfeit Notes are detected in the soiled note remittance of the bank,

Penalty at ___ of the notional value of Counterfeit Notes, in addition to the recovery

of loss to the extent of the notional value of such notes, will be imposed.

a.25% b.50% c. 75% d.100%

28. Counterfeit Notes, which are the subject matter of litigation in the court of law

should be preserved with the branch concerned for three years after conclusion of

the court case.

a. True b. False

29. Penal interest shall be levied at the rate of ____ over the prevailing Bank Rate

for the period of delayed reporting/wrong reporting/non-reporting /inclusion of

ineligible amounts in chest balances.

a. 1% b. 2% c. 3% d. 5%


30. Non-functioning of CCTV in a Currency Chest may attract a penalty of ___.

a. Rs.5000/- for each irregularity

b. Rs.10,000/- for each irregularity

c. Rs.5000/- for each irregularity and will be enhanced to Rs.10,000/- in case of

repetition

d. Rs.10000/- for each irregularity and will be enhanced to Rs.50,000/- in case of

repetition

31. Extremely brittle, burnt, charred, stuck up Notes _____ exchanged at branches.

a. Can be b. cannot be

32. In case of Non-BPR Branches, the total time norms for submission of RFIA

compliance remarks is

a. 4 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 16 weeks d.20 weeks

33. “Test SMS” on customer’s Mobile Number can be sent through

a. CBS b. CMS Portal c. Cannot be sent

34. NPS is regulated by

a. RBI b. CERSAI c. SEBI d. PFRDA

35. In case of NRI Customers, all individual covers received at PO Box will be

delivered to GNC, Ernakulum within _______ of PO Box clearance

a. 3-5 days b. 7-10 days c. 6-12 days d.10-15 days

Key – Systems & Procedures

1 b 2 c 3 b 4 b 5 a

6 a 7 b 8 b 9 d 10 c

11 c 12 a 13 a 14 a 15 b

16 a 17 c 18 c 19 a 20 c

21 c 22 a 23 b 24 d 25 C

26 b 27 d 28 a 29 b 30 C

31 b 32 c 33 b 34 d 35 c


HANDLING OF CUSTOMER GRIEVANCES

1. The various channels through which a customer can lodge his grievance are

a. in person b. by telephone c. by email/internet d. All the above

2. RBI’s instructions/guidelines stipulate that the time limit for resolution of

customer’s ATM complaints by the issuing banks is __ working days from the date of

receipt of customer complaint.

a. 2 b. 5 c. 7 d.10

3.Failure to re-credit the customer’s account within 7 working days of receipt of the

complaint shall entail payment of compensation to the customer @ ______ per day

by the issuing bank.

a. Rs.1000/- b. Rs.5000/- c. Rs.100/- d. Rs.50/-

4. The compensation for delay in re-credit to customer’s account will be made

provided the claim is lodged with the issuing bank within ______of the date of

transactions and branch has failed to establish the proof of payment/disbursement

by ATM.


5. If there is a third party breach where the deficiency lies neither with the bank nor

with the customer but lies elsewhere in the system, and the customer notifies the

Bank within three working days of receiving the communication from the Bank (by

SMS alert, email or letter) regarding the unauthorised transaction, the liability of the

customer is limited to ________.

a. 20% b.50% c.0% d. 100%

6. On being notified by the customer, the bank will credit (shadow reversal) the

amount involved in the unauthorised electronic transaction to the customer’s account

within ___ working days from the date of such notification by the customer.

a. Immediately b. 3 c. 10 d.15

7. The credit provided as per “Reversal Timeline for Zero Liability/ Limited Liability of

customer” shall be ______ to be as of the date of the unauthorised transaction.

a. value dated b. current dated c. date of claim received d. none

8. The customer can approach the Banking Ombudsman in case his grievance is not

redressed within ____ days of lodging the complaint as per extant guidelines.


9. The Chief Nodal Officer for handling Customer Grievances Redressal at

Corporate Centre is

a. AGM (Customer Service) b. DGM (Customer Service)

c. GM (Customer Service) d. CGM (Customer Service)


10. The RBO, LHO or Corporate Centre as the case may be has to acknowledge

the grievance within ____ working days of receipt.

a. Same day b. 3 c. 5 d. 7

11. The Customer Service Committee of the Board (CSCB) reviews the customer

grievances received at ______ intervals.

a. monthly b. quarterly c. half-yearly d. yearly

12. An Internal Ombudsman (I.O.) shall be appointed by the Bank who will be a

retired official not below the rank of ___________ from some other bank, as per

procedure laid down by the RBI.

a. AGM b. DGM c. GM d. CGM

13. Customers’ Day shall be observed on ______ of every month.

a. 15th b.25th c. both d. none

14. In case of NECS/ECS Credit penal interest at the current RBI Repo Rate plus

______ from the due date of credit till the date of actual credit for any delayed credit

to the beneficiary’s account.

a. 1% b. 2% c. 0.5% d. 1.5%

15. The compensation to the customers is payable in case of delay in clearance of

local cheques beyond the stipulated period in all types of accounts at _____

a. SB Rate b. TDR Rate c. Repo Rate d. No Interest

16. Bank may advise the change in interest rates through

a. Letter b. E-mail c. SMS d. All the above

17. Any change to the terms and conditions done without notice, should be conveyed

to the customer within____ days.

a. 3 b. 5 c.10 d.30

18. Customer should be compensated for lost cheques as per Bank‟s Compensation

policy

a. True b. False

19. Settlement of assets of Deceased Constituents to be made within ___ days.

a. 7 b.15 c.30 d.45

20.BCSBI booklet is provided to customers at a cost of Rs.____

a. 50/- per copy b. Rs.100/- c. Rs.150/-

d. NIL (should be given free)


21. In case of delay in crediting pension, a penalty at the rate of ___% is paid for the

period of delay i.e. if pension is not credited on the last day of succeeding month

after receipt of Govt. order /notification in Bank.

a. 4 b.8 c.10 d.20

22. If cheque has been paid after the stop payment instruction has been

acknowledged, the bank shall reverse the debit with value dated credit within __

working days of customer intimating the transaction to the bank, along with

compensation of Rs. 100/- to the customer.

a. 1 b.2 c.3 d.5

23.The maximum liability in case of BSBD customer in case of Limited Liability is

upto _____

a.Rs.1000/- b.Rs.1500/- c.Rs.2000/- d. Rs.5000/-

24. As per Customer Rights Policy 2018, which one of the following is incorrect?

a. Right to Suitability b. Right to Privacy

c. Right to Fair Treatment d. None of the above

25. In case of delay beyond the date when the Forex amount is due for credit,

compensation is payable for adverse movement of exchange rate.

a. True b. False

Key – Handling of Customer Grievances

1 d 2 c 3 c 4 a 5 c

6 c 7 a 8 b 9 c 10 b

11 b 12 c 13 c 14 b 15 a

16 d 17 d 18 a 19 b 20 d

21 b 22 b 23 d 24 d 25 a


PREVENTIVE VIGILANCE

1. All attempted frauds irrespective of amount are to be reported by the branches to

__________, Corporate Centre through respective LHOs/Business Groups.

a. Fraud Monitoring Department b. AML/CFT Department

c. Both a &b d. None

2. NME refers to ______

a. Near Miss Events b. Next Miss Event

c. Next Main Event d. Near Model Event

3. NMEs are reported to ORMD through the ________

a. Incident Management Module (IMM) b. Letter

c. e-mail d. Controller

4. FMR refers

a. Flash Monitor Return b. Fraud Monitoring Return

c. Final Monitoring Return d. Fraud Monitoring Ratio

5. Fire audit of Currency Chests can also be conducted by

a. officials from the District Fire Department.

b. agencies approved by the respective State/ District Fire Departments.

c. Either a or b

d. Neither a nor b.

6. Fraud angle report should be submitted within ___ days.

a. Immediately b. 3 c. 5 d.7

7. If existence of fraud is pointed out, the Controller would report the case as a

“suspected fraud” to Fraud Monitoring Cell (FMC), LHO within ___ days of receipt of

such report.

a. Immediately b. 3 c.5 d.7

8. The Circles will submit scanned copies of signed FMR in PDF and Word format to

FMD, Corporate Centre within 5 days from the date of meeting of FIC through e-mail

to [email protected] followed by their hard copies.

a. [email protected] [email protected]

c. [email protected] [email protected]

9. FIR in case of fraud involving an amount of Rs. Rs.1.00 lac and above but below

Rs.3.00 crore should be filed with ________ by __________.

a. State CID/Economic Offences Wing of the State concerned by RM

b. State Police c. CBI d. None of the above




10. In cases of frauds exceeding Rs.50 crore, the Chief Vigilance Officer (CVO) of

the Bank shall be the Nodal Officer responsible for vetting the complaint and

ensuring that it is as per the prescribed checklist given by DFS.

a. DGM (Vigilance) b. Chief Vigilance Officer (CVO)

c. CGM d. GM

11. CRILC refers to

a. Central Repository of Information on Large Credits.

b. Centre for Repository Information on Large Credits

c. Central Reporting of Information on Large Credits.

d. Centre for Reporting information on Large Credits.

12. Shoulder Surfing Customer PIN refers to

a. Phishing b. Skimming c. Pharming d. Smishing

13. Appeal against the decision of the Competent Authority may be made by the

Controlling Office of the currency chest/branch to the Regional Director of the

Regional Office concerned, within ____ month from the date of debit, who may

decide whether the same can be accepted/ rejected.

a. one b. two c. three d. six

14. Risk Awareness Day/ JOKHIM JAGRUKTA DIWAS is observed on

a. 1st Aug b.1st Sep c. 1st Oct d. 1st Nov

15. Central Fraud Registry (CFR) is maintained by

a. RBI b. SBI c. IBA d. None of the above

16. Whistle Blower Policy does not cover Decisions taken by the committees

established by the Bank and Policy decisions of the Bank

a. True b. False

17. Identity of the Whistle Blower will not be disclosed to the ________.

a. Controlling Authority b. Investigating Official c. DGM d. CGM

18. The action taken against each disclosure under Whistle Blower Policy will be put

up to the Reviewing Authority within ____ days of receipt of complaint.

a. 3 b.5 c.7 d.10

19. Under Whistle Blower Policy, A time frame of maximum ___ days will be

permitted to complete the investigation / enquiry.

a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60

20. The Whistle Blower Policy shall be reviewed every ____.

a. month b. quarter c. year d. six months


Key – Preventive Vigilance

1 c 2 a 3 a 4 b 5 c

6 d 7 b 8 c 9 a 10 b

11 a 12 b 13 a 14 b 15 a

16 a 17 b 18 c 19 c 20 d


FINANCIAL INCLUSION

1. _____ will arrange to obtain a copy of Police Verification Report (PVR) and will

submit to concerned LHO.

a. BC b. Link Branch c. RBU d. Corporate Centre

2. With regard to completion of additional due diligence MGR (FI) at RBOs, may visit

to link branch / proposed KO location and submit the report within ___ working days

to CM (FI).

a. one week b. 3 c. 5 d.10

3. Upon receipt of the due diligence report from CM (FI), Circle Admin at LHO will arrange for activation of CSP / KO code within ___ working days from the date of receipt at LHO.

a. 7 b. 5 c. 3 d. 2

4. LHO should arrange for a ____ days Orientation training programme for all newly

deployed Kos.

a. 3 b. 2 c. 5 d.10

5. CSP / KO / Sub KO should have passed minimum educational qualification of ___

a. Degree b.10th Std. c.12th Std d. Post Graduate

6. The CSP should not be a Director or officer/employee of the Bank or a relative

having the same meaning under Section 6 of the__________, in the case of

individuals and in the case of entities, be owned or controlled by such person(s).

a. Companies Act 1956 b. BR Act 1949

c. RBI Act 1934 d. NI Act 1881

7. Branch to monitor performance of Kiosk Operators linked with branch on _____

Intervals.

a. Daily b. Weekly c. Monthly d. Yearly

8.In case of BC Channel, the IMPS transfer transaction limit is

a. Rs.5000/- per transaction with monthly ceiling of Rs. 25000/-

b. Rs.1000/- per transaction with monthly ceiling of Rs.2500/-

c. Rs.5000/- per transaction with monthly ceiling of Rs.10,000/-

d. Rs.1000/- per transaction with monthly ceiling of Rs.5000/-

9. BC will submit list of identified CSP / Kiosk Operators within ______ to FIMF

department at respective LHO.


10. DGM (FI) of the Circle to visit at least ___ outlets every month.

a. 3 b. 2 c. 5 d.10


11. Which one of the following is not a Parameter for Assessment of Due Diligence

in case of CSP/KOs

a. The CSP should know the local language / dialect.

b. The proposed KO / CSP should be affiliated to a political party

c. The CSP should have knowledge of the area

d. The CSP operators should have been referred by at least two persons known to

the bank

12. In case of Nominee Option, CSP will get two witnesses for ________ customers.

a. minor b. illiterate c. literate d. Old/Sick

13.Savings bank account holders in the age group of are eligible to apply for

PMJJBY

a.18 to 50 years b.18 to 30 years c.18 to 40 years d. 18 to 60 years

14. KYC verification of all the members of SHG need not be done while opening the

savings bank account of the SHG and KYC verification of all the office bearers would

suffice.

a. True b. False

15. NRLM refers to

a. New Rural Livelihood Mission b. National Rural Livelihoods Mission

c. National Rural Life Mission d. New Rural Life Mission

16. While visiting to CSPs, Bank officials are now required to carry out the following

transactions with respect to the visiting official’s account at the CSP outlet on the

date of visit.

a. Micro ATM Balance Enquiry b. AEPS withdrawal/deposit

c. both d. none of the above

17. Under APY, the minimum age for entry into the scheme is

a. 18 years b. 21 years c. 25 years d. None of the above

18. Under APY, the maximum age for entry into the scheme is

a. 40 years b. 45 years c. 50 years d. None of the above

19. The initial deposit in case of Tiny RD is

a. Rs.10/- b. Rs.20/- c. Rs.50/- d. Rs.100/-

20. The insurance cover available under PMSBY is Rs._______ lakhs.

a. 1 b.2 c.5 d.10


Key – Financial Inclusion

1 a 2 b 3 d 4 b 5 c

6 a 7 c 8 a 9 c 10 a

11 b 12 b 13 a 14 a 15 b

16 c 17 a 18 a 19 a 20 b


RATIONALES

1. A new functionality has been developed now for updating all the details of CSPs including Longitude/Latitude details in the Kiosk itself.

➢ To capture comprehensive details of the CSPs into system. 2. The name of the purchaser shall be incorporated on the face of the demand draft, pay order, bankers’ cheque, etc., by the issuing bank.

➢ As per RBI Directive ➢ To address the concerns arising out of the anonymity provided by payments

through demand drafts and its possible misuse for money laundering 3. In Savings Plus Accounts The reverse sweep is executed on LIFO basis

➢ To avoid interest loss to the customer. 4. In case wrong account number of beneficiary is mentioned by customer, Home Branch of customer will initiate follow up processes with other Bank(s) without any pecuniary liabilities

➢ To ensure speedy resolution through proper co-ordination. ➢ To avoid ambiguity in follow up.

5. At the time of opening Current Account, a declaration from the customer about availing credit facilities from other Banks is obtained.

➢ To scrupulously ensure that they do not open Current Accounts of entities which enjoy credit facilities (fund based or non-fund based) from Other Bank(s) without specifically obtaining No Objection Certificate from the Lending Bank(s)

➢ To comply with RBI instructions and avoid penalty. 6. Mandatory Learning through Certification Course introduced in SBI.

➢ Objective of certification is up skilling the employees and starting a self-learning culture in the organisation.

➢ RBI made it mandatory for employees working in five specialized areas viz. Treasury Operations, Risk Management, Accounting, International Banking & Credit Management.

7. Work from home policy introduced.

➢ To promote greater flexibility in employment arrangements ➢ Will better balance the demands of the workplace with personal

circumstances.


8. Bank has introduced STANDARD CUSTOMER REQUEST FORM (CRF) for Non-Financial Requests

➢ To Standardise the request form and speed up the process ➢ For Better Customer Service

9. While opening of Current Account, Common Seal is not insisted upon.

➢ Where a company opts not to have a common seal, Companies Act provides for authentication of certain documents either by two directors or by a director and the Company Secretary, wherever the company has appointed a Company Secretary

➢ Taking cognizance of amendment to Companies Act and clarifications on use of Common Seal/ Rubber Stamp.

10. A well-designed KYC Policy compliments the AML/CFT systems

➢ It prevents on-boarding of persons who carry a dubious background and who may be a potential threat to the institution from the perspective of money laundering and financing of terrorism.

➢ It helps in better understanding of customers and analyzing the risk that they pose to the firm and society at large

➢ It provides the AML/CFT cell with an accurate profile of the customers enabling a meaningful monitoring of transaction patterns and better decision making regarding reporting of a suspicious transaction.

11. Branches to ensure that the proceeds of inbound remittances must be credited to KYC compliant accounts only.

➢ As per AML Guidelines ➢ To comply with Regulatory Issues.

12. Banker’s Cheque of ₹20000/- and above are to be issued invariably with account payee crossing.

➢ As per Income Tax Guidelines ➢ Exceptions are, when the payment is made to RBI or any other Banking

Company as defined under Banking Regulation Act or Life Insurance Corporation of India etc.

13. Loan sourcing branches have to send NACH mandate to identified

➢ Branches/RACPCs without waiting for migration of documents to CPCs. ➢ To ensure that accounts are not delinquent because NACH registration.

14. Soiled note remittances to RBI / diversion to other currency chest/s should not be shown as withdrawal by chest/s / link offices

➢ It will be treated as wrong reporting. ➢ A penalty of Rs. 50,000/- will be levied irrespective of the value of remittance.


15. Photography/ videography in the premises is strictly prohibited

➢ With the advent of smart phones/ mobile camera, photography and videography inside the Bank premises has become a new menace

➢ It is a serious security threat to the Branches /Offices of the Bank 16. Risk Awareness Day/ JOKHIM JAGRUKTA DIWAS is observed on 1st September every year.

➢ To create awareness about importance of Risk Management in the Bank. 17. Time norms for submission of compliance remarks have been reviewed.

➢ To improve the quality of compliance remarks and to avoid delays in closure of audit reports.

18. No Advance to be sanctioned by a Bank against its owns shares

➢ As per Sec 20 of Banking Regulation Act 1949. ➢ Prohibited under Sec 34 (1) (B) of SBI Act 1955.

19. Demand draft payable to bearer cannot be issued.

➢ Prohibited under Sec 31 of RBI Act 1934 ➢ Will amount to issue of currency

20. Why are the duplicate keys of the branch deposited with another branch?

➢ To ensure separate custody of the two sets of keys (so that the duplicate keys can be used easily in the event of loss of originals.

➢ The relative Safe Custody Receipt is held by the Branch Head in his safe, outside the strong room.

FOR and AGAINST 1. KYC norms is to be further streamlined FOR : KYC norms are to be streamlined keeping in view the unbanked population of this nation. A central KYC registry need to be set up to obviate the problem of multiple KYC processes at different financial service providers. AGAINST : KYC need to be stringent as more and more cases of Money Laundering and Financing of terrorism are being reported. A relaxed norm would facilitate unwanted activities in the economy. 2. TDS against payment of interest at Banks should be abolished.


FOR: With the investment avenues in the country getting diversified, Banks have become depositors of retail customers only. The TDS provision has been a bane on this class of customers owing to the paper work and intricacies involved. AGAINST :To bring more and more people under the tax net and to have check on tax evasion TDS in necessary. 3. CSP (Customer Service Points) are to be promoted in a big way for financial inclusion. FOR : To de-congest branches and to provide banking facilities at the un-banked places where a brick and mortar bank is not profitable, CSPs are to be promoted. It is a cost effective, accessible and user friendly solution for the Financial Inclusion objective. AGAINST : CSPs may pose reputational risk for the Bank if they are not being monitored and controlled properly. 4. Compulsory leave system should be strictly implemented in the Bank. FOR : This is method of preventive vigilance and is being advocated by the regulators. This would improve the work life balance of the staff. Encashment of leave salary would be saved by the bank. AGAINST : This may result in more stress to the already overstretched staff position of branches. Customer service and continuity of services may take a hit. Staff would loose the benefit of leave accrual to some extent. 5. Career Development System has been launched: FOR: It is a tool to evaluate staff scientifically. It is a process of motivating the performers. It improves productivity with objectivity. It eliminates human emotions in evaluation of performance. AGAINST: It creates lot of ambiguity in performance appraisal. It is not practical according to the organizational culture. Grading of employees promotes division. Compulsory retirement of officers on the pretext of performance evaluation is inhuman. 6. Loss making branches should be closed. FOR: Such branches are a drain on the Bank‘s resources. Their continuance will further affect the profitability of Banks. Optimum utilization of man power can be achieved by shifting them to profit-making branches. AGAINST: This will affect the morale of the depositors. New strategies should be evolved to make these branches productive and profit-making. 7. Number of transactions in SB accounts being done through branches should be restricted.


FOR: It diverts the customers towards alternate channels so that, transaction cost will be reduced and thereby, profits will be increased. It enables the branch staff to concentrate on other activities viz. marketing, recovery of NPAs, housekeeping etc. AGAINST: Illiterate customers, customers who are not comfortable with alternate delivery channels will have to pay the cost for approaching branches. Customers will stop coming to branches and therefore, staff will not know the customers’ needs and accordingly, business will not grow. 8. Mergers and acquisitions should be encouraged. FOR: Small Banks will find it difficult to manage the risks. It will be easier for regulators to control the Banks. It is international practice. AGAINST.: Only merger will not solve critical problems like NPAs, unproductive branches etc. Moreover, it is difficult to deal with HR issues. 9.Payment banks are to be promoted in big way. FOR : To provide availability of banking to the un-banked areas, being operated largely on mobile platform providing easy connectivity and to provide a channel for surplus funds. Cost effective, accessible and user friendly solution for the Financial Inclusion objective. AGAINST : Restricted offerings of these banks, challenge of diversity and chance of monopoly of large corporates are threats to this initiative. 10.Govt stake in the PSBs should be brought down. FOR : Banks have suffered due to several externally imposed constraints like dual regulation by the RBI and Finance Min and external vigilance agencies like CVC and CAG. Banks have also been a victim of directed lending policy of the Government AGAINST : In a developing economy like India we still have a big role for the PSBs as far as Priority sector lending and Socio-economic funding is concerned. Diluting the Government’s stake in PSBs could have negative impact on these motives.


PER SEGMENT - ASSET PRODUCTS

1. Home Loan (other than CRE & businessmen Home Loan) must be repaid in

maximum ………………………… subject to liquidation of the Home Loan before the

borrower reaches the age of 70 years

a.20Yrs b.30yrs c.15 yrs d.10 yrs

2. For Home Loan Borrowers falling under Commercial Real Estate (CRE) maximum

loan tenor will be ………………….

a.10yrs b.15 yrs c.20yrs d.25 Years

3. For furnishings / consumer durable in a house, maximum Home Loan that can be

given is 15% of the project cost or ……………………. whichever is less

a. 50 lacs b.20lacs c.10 lacs d.25 lacs

4. The maximum Home Loan amount for repairs / renovations should not normally

exceed …………………..

a. 5lacs b.7.5 lacs c. 8 lacs d. 10 Lacs

5. Home loan may be sanctioned for reimbursement of investment made by the

borrower in house from own resources during the preceding ………………months

with minimum margin of 25 percent

a.6 b.12 c. 18 d.24

6. Applicants having net annual income of less than …………..will not be eligible for

loan under SBI Topup Loan

a. Rs. 2 Lacs b.Rs.3 lacs c.Rs.5 lacs d.Rs.10 lacs

7. Minimum and maximum loan amount under SBI Topup Loan are

……………..respectively

a.Rs.50,000 and Rs.2 Crs b.Rs.2lacs & Rs.5crs

c.Rs.75000 & Rs.2 crs d.Rs.2 lacs & no limit

8. The sanction of a home loan is valid for ......................months from the date of

sanction after that the applicant will be required to seek fresh approval if loan

remains undisbursed.

a. 6 b.3 c.12 d. 24

9. Under the SBI Flexipay Home Loan scheme, 20% higher home loan amount than

the eligibility calculated through EMI/NMI method has been permitted to young

salaried customers having age bucket of more than or equal to_______ and less

than or equal to______.

a.18 & 40 yrs b.21&45 years c.18 & 40yrs d.21 & 40 yrs


10. Minimum loan amount under SBI Home Loan PAL (Pre-Approved Limit) facility

is……………..and it is valid for a period of ……………………….

a. Rs. 10 Lacs& 3 Months b.Rs.5 lacs& 2mths c.Rs.10 lacs& 2 mths

d.Rs.5 lacs& 4 mths

11. Moratorium period in Home Loan for construction of a building of upto 7 floors

is…………. Months or till 2 months after completion of construction whichever is

earlier

a. 18 b.12 c.6 d.4

12. Under “SBI Reverse Mortgage Loan” the age of the first borrower should

be………………………

a.60yrs b. Above 60 yrs c. Less than 60 yrs d. Less than 58 yrs

13. Under “SBI Reverse Mortgage Loan” borrowers have right of rescission up to

………………………….to cancel the transaction.

a.7 Days b.5 days c.3 days d.10 days

14. EMI should not exceed by ____ of pension in case of Pension Loan to Family

pensioners.

a.33% b.30% c.35% d.40%

15. For NPA Home Loan Accounts, inspection should be carried out

at…………….intervals

a. Half-Yearly b. Quarterly c. Monthly d. Weekly

16. Minimum loan amount that can be sanctioned under “NRI HOME LOANS”

is……………………..

a. Rs. 1 lac b.Rs.2 lacs c. Rs. 3 Lacs d.Rs.4 lacs

17. Maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned under “SBI Realty” purchase of

plot of land for house construction is……………………

a. Rs. 15 Crores b.Rs.5 crs c.Rs.3 crs d.No limit

18. Loan sanctioned under “SBI Realty” is repayable in a maximum of

........................ commencing from the month following the month of disbursement of

the loan.

a.60mths b.180 mths c.120 Months d.240 mths

19. Under “SBI Reverse Mortgage Loan” minimum and maximum loan that may be

sanctioned are………..and……………respectively

a. Rs. 3Lacs & Rs.1 Crore b.Rs.5 lacs& Rs.50 lacs

c.Rs.3 lacs& Rs.1.50 cr d.Rs.5 lacs& Rs.1 cr

20. Minimum Home Loan amount that may be sanctioned under ‘SBI-Maxgain’

is................................


a. Rs.2lacs b.Rs.5lacs c.Rs. 10Lacs d.Rs.20 lacs

21. Maximum Home Loan amount that may be sanctioned under ‘SBI-Maxgain’

is................................

a. Rs.3 crs b.Rs.10 crs c.Rs.5 crs d. No limit

22. Maximum Home Loan to people residing in Hilly /Tribal areas under “SBI-Tribal

Plus” is................................

a. Rs.5lacs b.Rs. 10 Lacs c.Rs.15 lacs d.Rs.20 lacs

23. Home Loan sanctioned under “SBI-Tribal Plus” is repayable in a maximum

of..............................

a.15Yrs b.20 yrs c.5yrs d.10yrs

24. In Home Loan Scheme, maximum permissible EMI/NMI Ratio for individual

having Net Annual Income >Rs. 10 Lacs is…………………

a.70 % b. 60% c.50% d.40%

25. Minimum age requirement for sanctioning Housing Loan is

a.18 Years b.19 yrs c.20 yrs d.21yrs

26. In Housing Loans, number of co-borrowers is limited to

a.1 b.2 c.3 d.4

27. Home loan should be repaid before the borrower attains the age of

a.70 Years b.65 yrs c.62 yrs d.60yrs

28. Maximum repayment period permissible for a pensioner aged 71 years, while

sanctioning a Pension Loan to him

a.60 mths b.48 mths c.36 mths d.24 mths

29. ___% of Face value and accrued interest can be sanctioned to staff members

while sanctioning loan against NSCs.

a.85% b.80% c.75% d.70%

30. What is the maximum cost of car accessories which can be financed?

a. Lower of 5% of cost of vehicle or Rs. 100000

b. Lower of 10% of cost of vehicle or Rs.100000

c. Lower of 5% of cost of vehicle or Rs.50000

d.Lowerof10% of cost of vehicle or Rs.50000

31. What is the age group for availing a car loan?

a. 21-67 yrs b.18-60 yrs c.21-60 yrs d.21-65 yrs

32. What is the maximum loan amount for Used Car Loans?

a. Rs.10 lacs b.Rs.15 lacs c.Rs.20 lacs d.no limit


33. What is the minimum gross annual income for self-employed professionals to

apply for a Car Loan?

a.Rs.2 lacs b.Rs.3 lacs c. Rs. 4 Lacs d.Rs.5 lacs

34. Purchase of House/Flats which are more than ___ years old, Administrative

Clearance should be obtained from the next higher authority.

a.15 yrs b.20 yrs c.25 yrs d.30 yrs

35. Maximum repayment period of Used Car Loan is _____ from date of original sale

a. 3 yrs b.5 yrs c.8 yrs d. 7 yrs

36. Maximum repayment period available in “P Segment Gold Loan” is

a. 36 Months b.24mths c.12mths d.6mths

37. Norms regarding obtention of certified copies of Title Deeds directly from the

office of the Sub-registrar by the empanelled advocate is waived for Home Loans

below …..........................

a. Rs.20 lakhs b. Rs. 50 Lacs c.Rs.75 lacs d.Rs.1 cr

38. For NRI Home loans, the individual should have a steady source of income and

been employed for at least ….. and presently holding a valid job contract/work permit

a.1yr b.2 Yrs c.3yrs d.5yrs

39. For sanctioning SBI Max Gain Home Loan, the customer should have SB/CA

with minimum balance of

a.Rs.1000 b. Rs. 5000 c.Rs.10000 d.Rs.20000

40. SBI Tribal Plus Home Loan can be considered with an age group of

a.18-60 yrs b.21-60 yrs c.18-62 yrs d.21-62 yrs

41.“CRE Home Loan”, is one of the Home Loans sanctioned to a person who owns

___ or houses in his name

a.nil b. One c. Two d. Three

42. For sanction of Home loan under SBI Home Loan PAL (Pre-Approved Limit)

scheme, the minimum loan amount should be

a. Rs. 10 lacs b.Rs.5 lacs c.Rs.2 lacs d.Rs.1 lacs

43. Home loans sanctioned under PAL (Pre-Approved Limit) scheme are valid for

a.1 mth b.2 mths c.3 mths d.4 mths

44. Normal EMI Repayment under SBI Flexipay Home Loan will start from

a. 37th mth b.36thmth c.35thmth d.30thmth

45. The maximum amount that can be sanctioned to Home Loan borrower under SBI

TopUp Loan under category I


a. Rs.1 cr b.Rs.50 lacs c.Rs.5 crs d. Rs. No limit

46. Under the Reverse Mortgage loan, the residual life of property should be at least

_____ years or more

a. 25 yrs b. 30 yrs c.35 yrs d.15 yrs

47. Under Student Loan Scheme, Cost of a two-wheeler upto ________can be

included in the expenses considered eligible for finance where the loan amount is

secured by a suitable third party guarantee and/or tangible collateral security

a.Rs.15000 b.Rs.25000 c.Rs.50000 d.Rs.75000

48. Under Student Loan Scheme, the maximum limit that can be sanctioned for

Abroad studies

a. Rs. 30 Lacs b.Rs.25 lacs c.Rs.20 lacs d.Rs.15 lacs

49. Under Finance Ministry guidelines, Education Loan applications have to be

disposed of within a period of

a.1mth b.10 days c.15 days d. 7 days

50. Interest subsidy scheme on education loan for economically weaker section

proposed by ministry of HRD, govt. of India education loans for eligible students for

studies in India upto a maximum limit of ______ would be eligible for interest subsidy

a. Rs. 10 lacs b.Rs.5 lacs c.Rs.2 lacs d. No limit

51. Under SBI Student Loan scheme, up to Rs._____ for studies in India and

Rs.____ for studies in abroad are reckoned under Priority Sector advances

a.Rs.5lacs/Rs.10lacs b.Rs.10Lacs/ Rs.20Lacs

c.Rs.Rs.5lacs/Rs.20lacs d.Rs.10lacs/Rs.30lacs

52. The maximum amount that can be sanctioned under SBI Scholar loan for List A

institutions with collateral security

a. Rs. 30 lacs b.Rs.25 lacs c.Rs.20 lacs d.Rs.15 lacs

53. The maximum amount that can be sanctioned under SBI Scholar loan for List A

institutions without collateral security

a. No limit b.Rs.50 lacs c. Rs. 20 lacs d.Rs.25 lacs

54. The maximum amount that can be sanctioned under SBI Scholar loan for List B

institutions without collateral security

a.Rs.20lacs b.Rs.10 lacs c.Rs.4.50lacs d.Rs.4 lacs

55. Under Xpress credit, the minimum net monthly income requirement is

a. Rs. 15000 b.Rs.10000 c.Rs.5000 d.Rs.7000

56. The maximum amount that can be sanctioned under Xpress credit scheme is


a. Rs. 20 lacs b.Rs.10lacs c.Rs.7.5lacs d.Rs.15lacs

57. How many times of Net monthly income is considered for calculation of loan limit

in case of Xpress credit

a.6NMI b.12NMI c.24 NMI d.36NMI

58. The maximum repayment period allowed under Xpress Credit scheme is

a. 72 Months b.48mths c.60mths d.12mths

59. Pension loan is considered up to the age of

a.76 yrs b.72yrs c.62yrs d.58yrs

60. How many times of Net monthly pension is considered for calculation of loan limit

in case of pensioner

a.48times b.36times c.24times d.18 Times

61. Pension loan for family pensioner can be sanctioned up to the age of

a.76yrs b.62yrs c.60yrs d.58yrs


in case of family pensioner

a.12times b.10times c.18Times d.6times

63. The maximum amount that can be sanctioned for family Pensioner aged 72 yrs

is

a. Rs. 5 lacs b.Rs.3lacs c.Rs.2lacs d.Rs.1lac

64. The maximum repayment period allowable in pension loans for pensioner up to

the age of 72 years

a.84mths b.72mths c.60 Mths d.48mths

65. The maximum repayment period allowable in pension loans for pensioner at the

age between 72 years and 74 years

a.48 Months b.36mths c.24mths d.12mths


in case of Jai Jawan Pension loan scheme upto 56 years

a.36 Times b.60times c.36times d.24times

67. Maximum loan amount that is allowed under Insta Top up Loan scheme is

2 lacs b) 5% of Loan Limit Maximum Rs 5 lacs

c) 1 lac d) 20 lacs

68. Nature of facility under Insta Top Up loan

a) Term Loan b) Overdraft c) Cash Credit d) Demand Loan


69. What is the minimum loan amount under Maxgain scheme

20 lacs b) 30 lacs c) 50 lacs d) 10 lacs

70. Maximum Loan under Loan Against Property in Non BPR Centre

Rs 2 cr b) Rs 1 Cr c) Rs 5 cr d) Rs 7.50 cr

71. What is the maximum loan amount under Maxgain scheme

3 cr b ) 5 cr c) 1 cr d) 10 cr

72. Hamara Ghar -- Maximum Loan Amount

Rs 20 lacs b) Rs 30 lacs c) Rs 10 lacs d) Rs 50 lacs

73. Interest rate is Fixed under Hamara Ghar for a period of

2 years b) 3 years c) 5 years d) 1 year

74. SBI Bridge Home Loan Maximum Loan Amount

Rs 1 cr b) Rs 2 Cr c) Rs 3 cr d) Rs 5 cr

75. Loan Tenor for SBI Bridge Home Loan is

2 years b) 5 years c) 3 years d) 10 years

76. For Bridge loan the condition relating to NMI is that Minimum NMI should be

a) Rs 50000/ b) Rs 100000/ c) EMI/NMI=50% d) None

77. SBI Privilege Home Loan is available for

a) Govt, public sector employees with pensionable service

b) Defence personnel c) All salaried employees d) None

78. SBI Shauriya Home Loan scheme is applicable for

a) Govt, public sector employees with pensionable service

b) Defence personnel c) All salaried employees d) None

79. Stamp charges and Regn charges can be added to the project cost for the

purpose of calculating LTV ratio, if the cost of the project does not exceed Rs._____

a) 5 lacs b) 20 lacs c) 25 lacs d) 10 lacs

80. Repayment period for SBI Student Loan scheme

a) 10 years b) 12 years c) 15 years d) 7 years

81. Margin for SBI Student Loan above Rs 4 lacs

a) 5% for studies in India and 15 % for studies in abroad.

b) 5% for all studies c) Nil Margin d) None.

82. Maximum Loan under Global Ed-vantage Education Loan scheme


a) Rs 20 lacs b) Rs 30 lacs c) Rs 1 cr d) Rs 1.5 Cr

83. Security for Ed Vantage Educational Loan Scheme is

a) 110% of the loan plus 5 years simple interest

b) 100 % of liquid collateral c) a or b d) None.

84. Minimum Net Annual Income required for Salaried Person to apply for Car Loan

a) Rs 3.00 lacs b) Rs 2.50 lacs c) Rs 4.00 lacs d) Rs 2.00 lacs

85. Maximum Loan available under LAP in Metros like Chennai, Bangalore,

Ahmedabad etc

a) Rs 2 cr b) Rs 7.5 cr c) Rs 5 cr d) None

86. In SBI Flexipay Home Loan the borrower is eligible for additional -----.loan

a) 20% extra b) 10% extra c) 25% extra d) None

87. For availing SBI Flexipay Home Loan the borrower should be

a) Salaried with 2 years service b) Salaried with 1 year service

c) Salaried or Business people d) Any type of borrower

88. Minimum and Maximum Repayment period under SBI Flexipay Home loan

a) 25 years and 30 years b) 5 years and 25 years

c) 10 years and 30 years d) 5 years and 20 years

89. Minimum loan amount under SBI Flexi pay Home loan


90. Maximum loan for Two Wheeler purchase is

a) Rs 1 lac b) Rs 2 lacs c) Rs 3 lacs d) Rs 5 lacs

91. Minimum NMI for availing Two wheeler loan is

a) Rs 12500/ b) Rs 25000/ c) Rs 10000/ d) Rs 15000/

92. Under IInd category of Top Up Loan the Minimum Home loan Limit availed

should be

a) More than Rs 30 lacs b) More than Rs 20 lacs

c) More than Rs 10 lacs d) None

93. Mortgage need not be extended for Top up loan if the top up loan is

a) upto Rs 5 lacs b) upto Rs 10 lacs

c) upto Rs 20 lacs d) None

94.Bridge loan is given for the following purpose

a) To meet the shortfall in buying a New Home/Flat in addition to the Home Loan

b) To buy a New House without availing Home Loan and by mortgaging the existing

property


c) a & b d) None.

95. Under Home Loan scheme for Non salaried class extra 5 % EMI /NMI ratio is

allowed if liquid collateral is brought by the borrower to the extent of

a) 5 % of loan b) 7.5 % of loan c) 10% of loan d) None.

96.Xpress Credit loan to Teachers of Govt Aided Schools may be given up to

a) 12 times of Gross salary b) 24 times of Gross salary

c) 12 times of NMI d) 24 times of NMI

97. Minimum Loan that can be given by way of OVERDRAFT under Xpress credit

scheme

a) Rs 10 lacs b) Rs 5 lacs c) Rs 25000/ d) None

98. Normally, the maximum number of co-borrowers in Home Loan can be up to

a) No limit b) 5 c) 4 d) 3

99. Maximum repayment period available under SBI Privilege & SBI Shauriya Home

Loans.

a) 30 years or 75 years of age b) 25 years or 70 years of age

c) 30 years or 70 years of age d) None

100. Maximum loan available under SBI Privilege and SBI Shauriya Home Loan

schemes

a) Rs 10 cr b) Rs 15 cr c) Rs 25 cr d) Rs 50 cr

101. Loan against NSC may be given to the extent of

a) 65% of Face value b) 65 % of Face value and Accrued Int

c) 60% of face value & Accrued int d) None

102. Against LIC Policy maximum loan may be given up to

a) 85% of surrender value b) 95 % of Surrender value

c) 90% of surrender value d) None

103. Maximum loan that can be given for pre owned certified cars

a) Rs 10 lacs b) Rs 15 lacs c) Rs 5 lacs d) None

104. The age of the Car should not be more than --- years for pre owned Car loan


105. What is the margin for pre owned certified cars

a) 15% b) 20% c) 25 % d) 30%

106. EMI/NMI ratio for Car Loan for borrowers having NAI of more than Rs 10 lacs

a) 50% b) 60% c) 65% d) 70%


107. Minimum NMI required for NRI car loan

a) USD 1000 b) USD 10000 c) USD 2500 d) None

108.In SBI Scholar Loan the Margin for Loans between 4 lacs to 7.5 lacs

a) 5% b) 15% c) 10% d) None

109. The Nodal Bank for Educational Loan Interest Subsidy

a) Canara Bank b) Indian Bank c) SBI d) RBI

110. Moratorium period for SBI Student Loan

a) Course period + 6 months b) Course period + 12 months

c) Course period+ 2 years d) None

111. Maximum repayment period allowed for loan under Jai Jawan Pension Loan?

a) 60mths b) 84 mths c) 96 mths d)120mths

112.The maximum loan that can be sanctioned under SBI Tribal Plus Home Loan is

a) Rs. 10 Lacs b) Rs.5 lacs c) Rs.20 lacs d) Rs.15 lacs

113. Under SBI Realty, the condition is that the construction should be completed

within

a) 2 Years b) 3 Years c) 5 Years d) 7 Years

114. Under SBI Realty, if the construction is not completed within the specified years

the rate of interest charged will be for loan upto Rs.30 lakhs for salaried class

a) 2.60% above 1 yr MCLR b) 3.25 % above 1 yr MCLR

c) 3.85 % above 1 yr MCLR d) 3.95% above 1yr MCLR

115. LTV Ratio for the Home Loan up to Rs. 30 lakhs

a) 100% b) 90% c) 80% d) 75%

116. . LTV Ratio for the Home Loan above Rs.30 lakhs and up to Rs.75 lakhs

a) 80% b) 90% c) 75% d) 85%

117. No collateral is required up to Rs ---------in SBI Student Loan Scheme.

a) Rs 4 lacs b) Rs 7.5 lacs c) Rs 10 lacs d) None

118. Girl Student is eligible for ------interest concession in Student Loan Scheme

a) 0.25% b) 0.5% c) 1% d) 2%

119. In Hamara Ghar Scheme, what is the penalty if the loan is pre closed or

prepayment in lump sum within 2 years.

a) No penalty b) 2% of the pre payment amount c) 1% of the prepayment amount

d) None


120. In Jai Jawan Pension Loan Scheme the maximum Loan amount allowed is

a) 18 times of pension Max Rs 14 lacs

b) 24 times of pension Max Rs 14 lacs

c) 36 times of Pension Max Rs 14 lacs d) None

121. What is the maximum loan amount under SBI Car loan Lite

a) Rs 2 lacs b) Rs 5 lacs c) Rs 4 lacs d) Rs 2.5 lacs

122. Minimum margin under SBI Car loan Lite

a) 15% b) 25 % c) 20% d) 10%

123. Whom we can give SBI car loan Lite

a) Business man b) professional and self employed

c) Agriculturists ‘under Tatkal Tractor Scheme’ d) All the above.

124. Minimum CIBIL score for SBI Car Loan Lite

a) Above 750 b) above 700 (rented house)

c) above 650 (own house) d) b & c

125. Minimum Risk Score for SBI Car loan Lite

a) 55 and above b) 60 and above

c) 75 and above d) 50 and above

126. Maximum tenor for SBI Car loan Lite

a) 36 m b) 48 m c) 60m d) 84m

127. Additional 5% in EMI/NMI ratio for Home loan to Non-Salaried customers is

provided

a) When they have business relation with us for more than Rs 1 Crore

b) LTV ratio of 65% or Provides liquid collateral of 25% of the loan amount

c) LTV ratio of 60% or Provides liquid collateral of 10% of the loan amount

d) LTV ratio of 65% or Provides liquid collateral of 7.5% of the loan amount

128. Additional 5-10% in EMI/NMI ratio for Home loan to Non-Salaried customers is

provided

a) When they have business relation with us for more than Rs 5 crore



d) LTV ratio of 60% or Provides liquid collateral of 25% of the loan amount

129. Additional 10-15% in EMI/NMI ratio for Home loan to Non-Salaried customers is

provided

a) When they have business relation with us for more than Rs 5 crore




d) LTV ratio of 50% or Provides liquid collateral of 20% of the loan amount

130. PMAY scheme is coming under the purview of which Dept.

a) Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation

b) Ministry of Urban Development

c) Ministry of Finance

d) Ministry of Rural Development

131. Maximum Household Income allowed for EWS & LIG to apply HTL under

PMAY

a) Rs 6 lacs & Rs 9 lacs b) Rs 3 lacs & Rs 6 lacs

c) 6 lacs & Rs 8 lacs d) None

132. Maximum Carpet Area allowed for MIG I & MIG II under PMAY

a) 30 Sq mts & 60 Sq mts b) 60 Sq mts & 90 Sq mts

c) 160 Sq mts & 200 Sq mts d) None

133. Subsidy percentage for EWS under PMAY

a) 4% b) 3% c) 6.50% d) 7%

134. Maximum Loan Amount eligible for subsidy under EWS, MIG I & MIG II of

PMAY

a) Rs 6 lacs,Rs 9 lacs & Rs 12 lacs b) Rs 6 lacs,Rs 6 lacs & Rs 6 lacs

c) Rs 6 lacs Rs 10 lacs & Rs 12 lacs d) None

135. If the prepayment is made within 3 years from the date of disbursement of car

loan, the prepayment penalty will be @ ______ + GST

a) 4% b) 3% c) 2% d) 1%

136. Maximum Tenor on which subsidy is calculated under PMAY scheme.

a) 15 years b) 20 years c) 25 years d)30 years

137. Maximum subsidy amount payable for EWS, MIG I & MIG II under PMAY

a) Rs 2.68 lacs, Rs 2.35 lacs & Rs 2.30 lacs

b) Rs 2.20 lacs, Rs 2.30 lacs & Rs 2.35 lacs

c) Rs 2.30 lacs, Rs 2.35 lacs & Rs 2.45 lacs

d) None

138. For EWS & LIG category under PMAY scheme, the property should be in the

name of

a) Women must be sole/Co-owner of the property

b) Any adult member may be the owner of the property

c) Women must be sole/co-owner of the property except in case of construction of

house on existing property.


d) None

139. Maximum Carpet Area allowed for EWS & LIG under PMAY

a) 30 Sq mts & 60 Sq mts b) 60 Sq mts & 90 Sq mts

b) 90 Sq mts & 110 Sq mts d) None

140. Maximum Household Income allowed for MIG II to apply HTL under PMAY

scheme.

a) Above Rs 6 lacs & upto 12 lacs b) Above Rs 6 lacs & upto Rs 9 lacs

c) Above Rs 12 lacs & upto Rs 18 lacs d) None

141. Maximum Household Income allowed for MIG I to apply HTL under PMAY

scheme.

a) Above Rs 6 lacs & upto 12 lacs b) Above Rs 6 lacs & upto Rs 9 lacs

c) Above Rs 12 lacs & upto Rs 18 lacs d) None

142. Subsidy under PMAY is to be claimed from

a) RBI b) NHB c) NABARD d) None

143. For MIG I & MIG II category under PMAY scheme, the property should be in the

name of

a) Women must be sole/Co owner of the property

b) Any adult member may be the owner of the property

c) Women must be sole/Co owner of the property except in case of construction of

house on existing property.

d) None

144. If the car loan is closed before the sanctioned term, the penalty will be @

______ + GST on theo balance

a) No charge b) 1% c) 2% d) 3%

145. What is the minimum loan amount under Super Bike Loan scheme

a) 1.00 lakh b) 1.50 lakh c) 2.00 lakh d) 2.50 lakh

146. What is the maximum age limit to avail SBI Realty loan

a) 65 yrs b) 70 yrs c) 75 yrs d) 60 yrs

147. What is the minimum and maximum loan amount under two wheeler scheme

a) 30000 and 3 lakhs b) 50000 and 1 lakh

c) 1 lakh and 3 lakhs d) 50000 and 3 lakhs

148. What is the minimum and maximum loan amount under per seg gold loan

a) 20000 and 20 lakhs b) 20000 and no limit

c) 5000 and 1 lakh d) no min and no max


149. What is the margin for Bullet repayment loan

a) 25 % b) 30% c) 35% d)15%

150. What is the LTV ratio for gold loan

a) 65% b)70% c) 75% d)80%


SOLUTION – PER SEGEMENT ASSET PRODUCTS

Sl. Key Sl. Key Sl. Key Sl. Key Sl. Key Sl. Key

1 b 26 c 51 b 76 c 101 c 126 c

2 d 27 a 52 a 77 a 102 b 127 d

3 a 28 a 53 c 78 b 103 a 128 b

4 d 29 a 54 a 79 d 104 d 129 c

5 b 30 c 55 a 80 c 105 b 130 a

6 b 31 a 56 a 81 a 106 c 131 b

7 d 32 a 57 c 82 d 107 a 132 c

8 b 33 b 58 a 83 c 108 a 133 c

9 b 34 a 59 a 84 a 109 a 134 a

10 a 35 c 60 d 85 b 110 b 135 d

11 a 36 a 61 a 86 a 111 b 136 b

12 b 37 d 62 c 87 a 112 c 137 a

13 a 38 b 63 a 88 a 113 c 138 c

14 a 39 b 64 c 89 a 114 c 139 a

15 a 40 b 65 a 90 c 115 b 140 c

16 c 41 c 66 a 91 a 116 a 141 a

17 a 42 a 67 b 92 a 117 b 142 b

18 c 43 c 68 b 93 a 118 b 143 b

19 c 44 a 69 a 94 c 119 b 144 d

20 d 45 b 70 b 95 b 120 c 145 d

21 a 46 a 71 a 96 d 121 c 146 a

22 d 47 c 72 b 97 b 122 b 147 a

23 a 48 c 73 a 98 d 123 d 148 a

24 a 49 c 74 b 99 a 124 d 149 c

25 a 50 a 75 a 100 d 125 a 150 c


PER SEGMENT - LIABILITY

PERSONAL LIABILITY PRODUCTS - 1

01 Relationship between banker and customer in case of deposit account is

a. Lender-Depositor b. Debtor -Creditor

c. Licensor-Licensee d. Creditor – Debtor

02 A Minor who can adhere to uniform signature can maintain a maximum balance of

Rs ---------------- in his single name.

a. Rs 200000/- b. Rs 500000/- c. Rs1000000/- d. Rs 50000/-

03 A Guardian appointed by court is called -----------

a. Natural Guardian b. Legal Guardian

c. Testamentary Guardian d. None of these

04 Nomination facility introduced in Banks under the recommendations of

a. Damodaran Committee b. Rangarajan Committee

c. Talwar Committee d. None of these

05 For High Risk category accounts KYC is obtained once in


06 A Savings Bank account will be treated as inoperative if there are no transactions

in the account for a period of

a. 12 months no transactions b. 24 months no customer induced

transactions

c. 12 months no debits d. None of these

07 Minimum amount of deposit that can be accepted as TDR/STDR is-------

a. Rs 10000/- b. Rs 1000/- c. Rs 15000/- d. None of these

08 Unclaimed Deposit Account is one where there are no transactions for over a

period of

a. 2 years b. 5 years c. 10 years d. None

09 Under Capital Gains Scheme, the time allowed for Purchase of Readymade

residential property from the proceeds by selling any other capital asset is


a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 1 year d. 5 years

10 What is the minimum amount of deposit under Annuity Deposit scheme

a. Rs 10000/- b. Rs 25000/- c. Rs 15000/- d. Rs 50000/-

11 What is the minimum number of employees stipulated for Corporate Salary

Package accounts.

a. 50 b. 25 c. 30 d. NO MINIMUM

12 What is the salary QUANTUM for Platinum category stipulated under CSP

a. Rs 20000-50000 b. Rs 5000/-20000

c. Rs 50000-100000 d. Above Rs 100000

13 For Gold category of CSP account the gross monthly salary is between Rs --------

to Rs ---------

a. Rs 20000 to Rs 50000 b. Rs 20000 to Rs 30000

c. Rs 20000 to Rs 100000 d. Rs 20000 to Rs 40000

14 Amount in unclaimed deposits account will be transferred to

a. Overdue deposits a/c b. Sundry deposits a/c c. DEAF a/c d. None

15 What is the MAB for SB account in Rural Centre’s?

a. Rs 1000 b. Rs 2000 c. Rs 3000 d. Rs 5000

16 What is the Minimum Sweep Amount in SB Plus

a. Rs 10000/- b. Rs 5000/- c. Rs 1000/- d. Rs 20000/-

17 What is the Period for which TDR/STDR will be invested in SB Plus

a. 1-5 years b. 1-3 years c. 1-2 years d. 1-10 years

18 Option available in SB Plus for Sweep duration

a. Weekly/Monthly b. Daily/Weekly /Fortnightly/Monthly

c. Monthly Only d. Weekly Only

19 Maximum balance allowed in Pehli Udaan Account for mobile banking

a. 2000/- b. Rs 3000/-

c. Rs Rs 4000/- d. None of these

20 What is the MAB for Savings Bank in Metros

a. Rs 1000/- b. Rs 2000/- c. Rs 3000/- d. Rs 5000/

21 What is the age limit for opening Pehla Kadam

a. Minors of 10 years and above b. Minors of any age


c. Minors upto 10 years of age d. None

22 Mode of operation in Pehla Kadam

a. Singly by the minor b. Joint operation

c. Singly by the guardian d. Either (b) or (c)

23 What is the additional interest provided to Senior Citizen deposits

a. 0.25 % above the card rates b. 0.50 % above the card rates

c. 1 % above the card rate d. None of these

24 For Activating Inoperative SB account the charges are

a. Rs 500/- b. Rs. No Charges c. Rs 100/- d. Rs 300/-

25 The card (Variant) applicable for the Rank of Brigadier and above under Defense

Salary Package scheme

a. Silver b. Diamond c. Gold d. International Platinum

26 Minimum deposit amount per year under SBI Flexi Deposit scheme

a. Rs 5000/- b. Rs 10000/- c. Rs 50000/- d. Rs 1000/-

27 A Power of attorney executed abroad must be stamped within ------ months of its

receipt in India.

a. 6 months b. 3 months c. 9 months d. 12 months

28 Nomination in deposit accounts is permissible under ----------

a Sec 45 ZA of Banking Regulations Act 1949

b Sec 45 Z of Banking Regulations Act 1949

c Sec 45 ZC of NI Act 1881

d None of these

29 Pvt and Public Ltd Company need not submit the following document for opening

account.

a. Certificate of incorporation b. Certificate of commencement of Business

c. Resolution of Board d. None

30 A contract entered with minor is Void ab initio under

a Sec 11 of Indian Contract Act b Sec 10 of NI Act 1881

c Sec 56 of Banking Regulations Act 1949 d None of these

31 Rate of TDS for Interest on NRO Deposits

a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. None

32 Under Corporate Salary Package scheme a person drawing a salary of Rs

45000/ will be given


a. Gold card b. Silver card c. Platinum card d. Diamond card

33 Memorandum of Association relating to a company contains

a. Object or purpose of the company b. Day to day operations of the company

c. Powers and duties of the directors d. None

34 COS 37 stands for

a. HUF Letter b. Partnership letter c. Mandate d. None

35 Basic document to be obtained while opening a trust account

a. Trust letter b. Trust deed c. Copy of resolution d. None

36 A guardian appointed by will is called

a. Legal Guardian b. Natural Guardian

c. Testamentary Guardian d. None

37 Which one of the following deposits is exempt from TDS?

a. NRE b. FCNR c. NRO d. A & B

38 Maximum amount of ATM withdrawal allowed in Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan

Accounts

a. Rs 2500/ per day b. Rs 5000/ per day

c. Rs 10000/ per day d. No Maximum amount

39 Minimum MAB to be maintained in a Current Account

a. Rs 10000/- for all segments b. Rs 20000/ in all the areas

c Rs 2500/- in Rural Areas and Rs 5000/- in other areas

d. None of these

40 Maximum loan that can be granted against NRE and FCNR deposits

a. Rs 1 crore b. Rs 2 crores c. Rs 3 crores d. No maximum

41 Maximum Overdraft that can be given to Platinum category under Salary

Package scheme.

a. Rs 50000/- b. Rs 100000/- c. Rs 150000/- d. Rs 200000/-

42 The minimum amount of initial deposit allowable for Multi Option Deposit Accounts

(MODs) is:

a) Rs. 10,000 b) Rs. 5,000 c) Rs. 1,000 d) Rs. 500

43 Multi Option Deposit Scheme, is the combination of:

a) TDR/STDR & R.D. b) TDR/STDR & C.A. A/c / S.B. A/c

c) S.B. A/c & TDR/STDR d) S.B. A/c & R.D.


44 For partial withdrawal/ break up of MODs the unit amount is:

a) Rs. 10,000 b) Rs. 5,000 c) Rs. 1,000 d) Rs. 500

45 What is the maturity period of Multi Option Deposits?

a) 6 months and above, maximum 3 years.

b) 1 year and above, maximum 3 years.

c) 1 year and above, maximum 5 years

d) 1 year and above, maximum 10 years

46 What is the rate of interest applicable when FCNR deposit is paid before maturity

within one year?

a) If it is paid before maturity within one year no interest is paid

b) 1% less than the contracted interest rate is paid

c) 1% less than the interest applicable for the period for which the deposit is run is

paid

d) Savings Bank interest is paid

47 What is the maximum amount of loan that can be granted against NRE and FCNB

deposits?

a) Rs.1 crore b) No maximum c) Rs.2 crore d) None of these

48 The period of review for KYC in case of Low Risk category of customers is


49 Inoperative accounts are categorized under

a) Low Risk b) Medium Risk c) High Risk d) None

50 Foreign Students coming to India for Studies can open what type of account.

a) NRE account

b) NRO account

c) Ordinary Resident account

d) None

ANSWERS

1-b 2-c 3-b 4-c 5-b

6-b 7-b 8-c 9-a 10-b

11-d 12-d 13-a 14-c 15-a

16-a 17-a 18-b 19-a 20-c

21-b 22-d 23-b 24-b 25-d

26-a 27-b 28-a 29-b 30-a

31-c 32-a 33-a 34-b 35-b

36-c 37-d 38-b 39-a 40-d

41-d 42-a 43-b 44-c 45-c

46-a 47-b 48-b 49-b 50-b


PERSONAL BANKING – 2

1 The total no of withdrawals allowed in Small and Basic Savings account

a. 5 withdrawals per month including ATM transactions

b. 4 withdrawals per month excluding ATM transactions

c. 5 withdrawals per month including ATM transactions

d. 4 withdrawals per month including ATM transactions.

2 Maximum period for which FCNB deposits can be accepted is

a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 10 years

3 FCNB Premium account can be opened for a period of

a. 3 years b. 2 years c. 5 years d. 1 year

4 Maturity proceeds in respect of FCNB Premium account will be paid in

a. USD b. USD OR INDIAN RUPEES

c. INDIAN RUPEES ONLY d. NONE

5 Penalty for premature closure of SCSS 2004 after 2 years of opening is

a. 0.5 % of principal b. 1.00 % of principal

c. 1.50 % of principal d. 2.00 % of principal

6 What is the interest rate offered by SBI to Savings Bank Customers?

a. 3% b. 3.50% c. 4% d. 5%

7 What is the maximum amount that customers can withdraw using a Platinum

ATM card?

a. Rs 10000/- b. Rs 40000/- c. Rs 100000/- d. Rs 50000/-

8 What are the maximum purchases that customers can make at POS using a

Domestic ATM card?

a. Rs 10000/- b. Rs 20000/- c. Rs 40000/- d. Rs 50000/-

9 What is the maximum deposit under Flexi Deposit scheme

a. Rs 10000/- b. Rs 20000/- c. Rs 50000/- d. Rs 100000/-

10 MODS is linked to which account

a. SB a/c b. CA c. Either A OR B d. None

11 What is the default business model followed while breaking TDR/STDRs under

MODS?

a FIFO b LIFO c Either A OR B d None


12 Which of the following is not forming part of the definition of Small account?

a. the aggregate of credits in a financial year does not exceed Rs 1 lac

b. The aggregate of all withdrawals and transfers in a month does not exceed Rs

10000

c. The balance at any point of time does not exceed Rs 50000

d. Introduction is mandatory for a Small account

13 Minimum amount that can be deposited at any point of time in Flexi Deposit is

a Rs 5000/- b Rs 500/- c Rs 1000/- d Rs 2500/-

14 COS 38 Stands for

a Partnership letter b Trust letter c HUF Letter d None

15 Dayabhaga School & Mitakshara School are relating to

a Trust b HUF c Partnership d No

16 Maximum number of partners in a Partnership Firm

a 10 b 20 c 50 d 100

17 A depositor can nominate how many persons for his deposit account

a One b Two c Three d Any Number

18 Interest is payable at ----------rate from the date of death till the payment of

balance to the legal heirs/nominee in respect of current account of a deceased

person

a SB b TDR c BANK RATE d NONE

19 Foreigner working in India. Which a/c to open

a Resident a/c b NRO c NRE d FCNR

20 Which of these is not a Rupee account

a NRO b NRE c FCNR d None

21 Who is the natural guardian of a Hindu Minor Married Girl

a Husband b Father c Mother if father is not alive d None of these

22 Period of deposit in respect of Annuity Deposit

a 12,24,36 & 60 months b. 36.60.84 & 120 Months

c 36,60, & 120 months d 12 & 120 months

23 Flexi Deposit can be opened for a period of

a Minimum 5 years & Maximum 7 years

b Minimum 3 years & Maximum 5 years

c Minimum 2 years & Maximum 5 years

d None of these


24 Maximum Balance that can be allowed in Small Account

a Rs 50000/ b Rs 100000/ c Rs 25000/ d None

25 Current account is not opened in the name of

a Minor b Illiterate c Insolvent d All of these

26 Maximum amount of overdraft that can be permitted in SB a/c is (PMJDY)

a Rs.5000/- b Rs2000/- c Rs1000/- d None

27 Minimum amount of deposit that can be accepted in PPF accounts

a Rs 5000/- b Rs 500/- c Rs 1000/- d Rs 10000/-

28 The PPF accounts after expiry of 15 years can be extended

a. 2 times with a block of 5 years each

b 3 times with a block of 5 years each

c Extended with a block of 5 years without any limit in number of times

d None

29 SCSS 2004 is applicable to

a Persons who have attained the age of 60 years of age

b Persons who have opted VRS and attained the age of 55 years

c Persons retired from Defense without any age limit

d All of the above

30 Maximum Cap allowed in the SCSS Scheme 2004

a Rs 10 lacs b Rs 15 lacs c Rs 5 lacs d Rs 20 lacs

31 The number of nominees that can be nominated by PPF & SCSS depositors

a One b Two c More than one d Three

32 The period of deposit in case of SCSS 2004 Scheme is

a 5 Years b 5 Years with one extension for a period of 3 years

c 15 Years d 10 years

33 Who introduced KYC Norms

a Govt of India b IBA c RBI d None

34 Maximum amount of Deposit acceptable in PPF accounts in a financial year

a Rs 70000/- b Rs 150000/- c Rs 50000/- d None

35 Customer has been defined in

a NI Act b BR Act c COPRA Act d KYC Guidelines

36 Capital Gain account may be opened in the form of


a SB only b SB & tdr ONLY

c SB, TDR & STDR only d. SB, C/A, TDR AND STDR

37 What is the locking period under SBI Tax Savings scheme?

a 1 year b 2 years c 3 years d 5 years

38 A person below the age of 18 years is a minor under ---------------------Act

a Banking Regulations Act b The Majority Act (Sec 3)

c Negotiable Instruments Act d None of these

39 Which of the following accounts cannot be opened under SBI Cap Gains Plus

scheme?

a) Savings Bank Account b) Term Deposit Account

c) Recurring Deposit Account d) Special Term Deposit Account

40 Sale proceeds of sale of residential house to be invested in purchase of another

residential house within …………………period to avoid capital gains tax.


41 What is the minimum amount in respect of SBI Cap Gains Plus scheme?

a) Rs.10000/-

b) Rs.1000/- in case of Cap Gains Term Deposits

c) No minimum is specified

d) None of these

42 Maximum number of nominees under SBI Cap Gains Scheme is ………

a) Only one b) Maximum of three nominees

c) Nomination facility is not available d) None of these

43 SBI Flexi Deposit is a ……….

a) Term Deposit Account

b) Special Term Deposit Account

c) Recurring Deposit (Variable Deposit) Account

d) None of these

44 The purpose of SBI Flexi Deposit is……………

a) To earn flexible rate of interest

b) To deposit flexible amount over a period of time

c) Long term deposit to earn attractive rate of interest with flexibility in choosing

deposit amount

d) None of these

45 How many times the money can be deposited in SBI Flexi Deposit Scheme in a

month?

a) Only once from 1st to 10th of every month


b) Any time during the month and any number of times

c) Amount of monthly deposit can vary, but number of deposits in a month is restricted

to ten

d) None of these

46 Which of the following is correct in respect of SBI Tax Savings Scheme?

a) It enables the depositor to place long term deposits to earn higher rate of interest

b) To avail tax benefits under section 80C of Income Tax Act

c) A depositor who is a resident and/or Karta of HUF can place deposits under this

scheme

d) All the above statements are correct

47 Type of account opened under SBI Tax Savings Scheme is ………

a) Savings Bank Account b) Recurring Deposit Account

c) TD/STD account d) None of these

48 What is the minimum and maximum tenure of SBI Tax Savings Scheme?

a) Minimum 5 years and maximum 10 years

b) Minimum 3 years’ maximum 5 years

c) Minimum 1 year’s maximum 10 years

d) None of these

49 What is the minimum deposit in SBI Tax Savings Scheme?

a) Rs.10000/- b) Rs.1000/- c) Rs.25000/- d) None of these

50 What is the maximum amount that can be deposited in SBI Tax Savings Scheme?

a) Rs.150000/- per year b) Rs.120000/- per year

c) Rs.500000/- per year d) None of these

ANSWERS

1-d 2-c 3-d 4-c 5-b

6-b 7-c 8-d 9-c 10-c

11-b 12-d 13-b 14-c 15-b

16-d 17-a 18-a 19-a 20-c

21-a 22-b 23-a 24-a 25-d

26-a 27-b 28-c 29-d 30-b

31-c 32-b 33-c 34-b 35-d

36-c 37-d 38-b 39-c 40-b

41-b 42-b 43-c 44-c 45-b

46-d 47-c 48-a 49-b 50-a


PERSONAL BANKING – 3

1 Repayment period for Overdraft granted to Salary Package Account Holders

a 12 Months b 6 Months c 24 Months d None

2 NRE TDR/STDR can be opened for a Maximum Period of

a. 5 Years b 10 Years c 7 years d 1 year

3 In the case of Non-Resident External Rupee deposits and NRO deposits the

interest rates are stipulated by

a RBI b By Individual Banks c IBA d None of these

4 Form D in Capital Gain Account refers to

a. Opening Form b Nomination Form c Utilization Certificate d None

5 Overdraft limit for Salary Package Account Holders (Silver Category)

a 2 Months’ Salary Maximum Rs 50000/

b 2 Months’ Salary Maximum Rs 40000/

c 2 Months’ Salary Maximum Rs 100000/

d None

6 Form 15 H is submitted by -------- for claiming Tax exemption

a All depositors b Senior Citizens (above 60 years)

c Other than Senior Citizens d None

7 Maximum balance allowed for a Minor Account if it is operated by the Guardian

a Rs 200000/ b Rs 500000/ c Rs 1000000/ d Rs 2000000/

8 PPF account can be prematurely closed after

a No Premature closure allowed

b After 5 years of opening and only for Educational and Medical purpose.

c After 10 years

d None

9 In terms of RBI Notification “Small Account” means a savings account in banking

company where:

a. The aggregate of all the credits in a financial year does not exceed Rs 1 lac

b. The aggregate of withdrawals& transfers not exceeding Rs 10000/ in a month

c. The balance at any time does not exceed Rs 50000/

d. All of the above

10 Small Account can be allowed for a Maximum period of

a 12 Months b 24 months c 6 Months

d 12 Months which can be extended upto 24 months if proof application for OVD

11 Amount withdrawn from Cap-gain deposit is to be utilized within

a 30 day b 60 days c 14 days d 90 days


12 Air Accident Insurance cover for Platinum Category Salary Package Account Holders

a Rs 10 lacs b Rs 20 lacs c Rs 25 lacs d Rs 30 lacs

13 No sureties required for settlement of assets of deceased if the amount involved is

a Up to Rs 50000/- b Up to Rs 100000/-

c Up to Rs 20000/- d Up to Rs 500000/

14 Maximum no of Members in a Pvt Ltd Company

a 100 b 200 c 50 d 20

15 The rate of interest being given on deposits opened in the name of Senior Citizens

a 0.50 % above the normal rate of interest on Term Deposits

b 0.25 % above the normal rate of interest on Term Deposits

c 1.00% above the normal rate of interest on Term Deposits

d 0.75% above the normal rate of interest on Term Deposits

16 How many nominations that can be accepted for Capital Gains Account

a 1 b 2 c 3 d 4

17 The complaints relating to ATM should be settled within a period of

a 10 day b 12 days c 14 days d 7 days

18 Maximum Period for which Capital Gain account can be opened for construction

a 3 year b 2 years c 1 year d None

19 DEAF account is

a BGL account b Sundry Deposit Account

c CGL Account d Account maintained at RBI

20

CIF in CBS denotes

a Customer Information Facility b Customer Information File

c Customer Information Folder d None

21 Penalty for premature closure of Annuity Deposit

a 1% b 2% c 2.5% d No Premature Closure Allowed

22 Interest on Savings Bank account is calculated on the basis of

a Daily Balance

b Lowest Balance between 10TH to Last Working Day on Monthly basis

c Month end balance

d None

23 What is the lock in period for allowing pre-mature withdrawal in respect of SBI Tax

Savings Scheme?

a) Two years b) Three years c) Five years d) None of these


24 NRO account is maintained for…………………

a) To park overseas savings remitted to India after converting in to INR

b) To park domestic savings of NRI’s

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) Only (b)

25 What is the minimum and maximum tenure allowed for NRE fixed deposit account?

a) Minimum 6 months maximum 5 years

b) Minimum one year maximum 10 years

c) Minimum 1 year maximum 5 years

d) None of these

26 What is the minimum and maximum tenure stipulated for NRO fixed deposit account?

a) Minimum 7 days’ maximum 10 years

b) Minimum one year maximum 10 years

c) Minimum 6 months maximum 10 years

d) None of these

27 What is the minimum and maximum tenure stipulated for FCNR fixed deposit account?

a) Minimum one year maximum 10 years

b) Minimum one year maximum five years

c) Minimum one year maximum seven years

d) None of these

28

Liberalized KYC is available for

a Small Account b Basic Savings Account

c Salary Account d None

29 Main purpose of Introduction of Small & Basic Savings Account

a Financial Inclusion b Direct Cash Transfer

c Both a & b d None

30 How many times the money can be deposited in SBI Flexi Deposit Scheme in a

month?

a Only once during 1 st to 10TH of Every month

b Any number of times and at any time

c 12 times in a year

d None

31 Which of the following is not forming part of the definition of Small Account?

a) The aggregate of credits in a financial year does not exceed Rs.1 lac

b) The aggregate of all withdrawals and transfers in a month does not exceed

Rs.10000/-

c) The balance at any point of time does not exceed Rs.50000/-

d) Introduction is mandatory for a Small Account

32 Grant/contributions received in favour of newly born girl child from State Governments


or other Government bodies can be deposited for a maximum period of……………

a) 10 years b) 21 years c) 18 years d) As applicable to normal deposits

33 In case of a deposit account in joint names with mode of operation ‘Either or Survivor’

the amount is paid before maturity with………

a) With the signature, only one of the depositors

b) Signature of both the depositors should be obtained

c) Signature of the first person is obtained

d) None of the above

34 In case of a TD/STD deposit in joint names with mode of operation ‘Former or

Survivor’ which one of the following is incorrect?

a) It can be paid before maturity to the ‘Former’

b) It can be paid to the ‘Former’ on maturity

c) It can be paid before maturity only when both the signatures of ‘Former and

Survivor’ are available

d) In case the ‘Former’ is deceased it can be paid to the ‘Survivor’ only on maturity

35 If the joint depositors in the case of ‘Either or Survivor’ and ‘Former or Survivor’ wish to

get payment of deposit in the case of TD/STD as per mandate even in case of before

maturity which one of the following is correct?

a) Either or Survivorship form to be obtained at the time of opening the deposit

account

b) This is not possible as per law

c) Can be paid only after maturity

d) None of these

36 What is the procedure to be followed for issue of duplicate TD/STD receipt?

a) By obtaining indemnity bond from the depositor

b) Duplicate TD/STD receipt is issued only for those deposits against which loan has

to be sanctioned

c) Duplicate TD/STD receipt is not issued, instead a fresh print out of advice is given to

the depositor

d) None of these

37 In case of payment of deposit to the legal heirs of deceased in respect of TD/STD

where claim is made after maturity and death of customer before maturity what is the

interest rate applicable for the period from the date of death to the date of Settlement

of claim?

a) One per cent above the contracted rate of interest

b) The rate mentioned in the original receipt/advice

c) of maturity, The rate current as on the date for a fresh deposit for the overdue

period

d) contracted rate upto maturity and after maturity till settlement simple TDR rate

38 KYC obtained for LOW risk customer is after


a) Five years b) Three years c) Two years d) Ten years

39 Which of the following statements is incorrect in respect of additional interest payable

to deposits of senior citizens?

a) Additional interest is payable to senior citizens of age 60 and above

b) Deposits have to be more than Rs.10000/-

c) The minimum tenor has to be one year

d) If the Karta of HUF is a senior citizen additional interest is paid to the HUF deposits

also

40 Annuity Deposit is a…….

a) Demand deposit account

b) Recurring deposit account

c) Term deposit account

d) None of these

41 What is the maximum amount that can be deposited in Annuity Deposit account?

a) No Maximum

b) Rs.100000/- per year per individual

c) Rs.200000/- per year per individual

d) Maximum amount is decided based on clearance from Income Tax dept.

42 Which of the following statement is correct in respect of Annuity Deposit Scheme?

a) Premature payment is permitted only in the case of death of the depositor

b) Premature payment is allowed, but interest will be paid 1% less than the applicable

rate of interest for the period the deposit remained with the Bank

c) No penalty will be levied on premature payment

d) None of these

43 Which of the following facilities is available for SBI Cap Gains Plus account?

a) Cheque Book facility b) ATM facility

c) Online Account opening facility d) INB viewing rights

44 Cash withdrawals upto which amount is available in SBI Cap Gains Plus account?

a) Rs.25000/- b) Rs.50000/-

c) Cash withdrawals are not allowed d) None of these

45 YONO is part of

a) Project Lotus b) Project Vijay c) Project CASA d) Project Anywhere

46 The following is not eligible for opening account under YONO

a. age above 18 years b. should be resident Indian

c. Literate Individual d. Jointly operated account

47 Under SCSS scheme what is the maximum amount allowed to invest

a. 15 lacs b. 10 lacs c. 20 lacs d. No such limit, any amount

48 If the KYC Compliance is not done in the existing accounts, debit transactions in the

account will be frozen (Partial Freezing) after


a)

b)

Notice is to be issued with a response time of 3 months to the account

holder

Sending Reminder after 3 months of the first notice

c)

d)

If the customer doesn’t respond to above two, then only.

Bank has no right to freeze transactions .

49 If the KYC Compliance is not done in the existing accounts, the account will be

blocked after

a) Notice is to be issued with a response time of 3 months to the account holder

b) Sending Reminder after 3 months of the first notice

c) After six months, If the customer doesn’t respond to two notices of (a) & (b)

d) Bank has no right to block transactions.

50 Report name where the list of minors who attained majority is

a)

b)

Depd0622.txt

Deposit Shadow file

c)

d)

Depdmaj.txt

None of these

ANSWERS

1-b 2-b 3-b 4-c 5-b

6-b 7-d 8-b 9-d 10-d

11-b 12-d 13-d 14-b 15-a

16-c 17-d 18-a 19-d 20-b

21-d 22-a 23-c 24-c 25-b

26-a 27-b 28-a 29-c 30-b

31-d 32-c 33-b 34-d 35-a

36-c 37-d 38-d 39-d 40-c

41-a 42-a 43-d 44-a 45-a

46-a 47-a 48-c 49-c 50-a


AGRICULTURAL BANKING AGRICULTURAL BANKING – 1

1. Maximum loan limit for any crop per acre is decided by the?

a) Block Level Development Committee

b) District Level Technical Committee

c) State Level Technical Committee

d) None of these

2. No margin is stipulated for crop production loans up to?

a) Rs. 50,000/- b) Rs.1,60,000/-

c) Rs.3,00,000/- d) Margin is inbuilt in SOF

3. For the first-time borrowers, security for Crop loans up to Rs.1.60 lakh,

Documents to be obtained are?

I. Hypothecation Agreement

ii. Arrangement Letter

iii. Equitable Mortgage

iv. Guarantee Deed

a. i. only b. i and ii only

c. i, ii, and iii only d. i, ii and iv only

4. Validity period of KCC is?

a.3 years subjected to Annual review b.5 years subjected Annual review

c.1 year d. None of the above

5. Repayment due date for crop loans sanctioned during Kharif (Mono)?

a.31 st July b.31 st January

c.12 Months from the date of sanction d. None of the above

6. Repayment due date for crop loans under Long duration crops?

a.31st July b.31st January

c.12 Months (from the date of 1st Disbursement)

d. None of the above

7. Document obtained for conversion of Crop Loan to Term Loan

AB-3 b. AB-7 c. AB-4 d. None of the above

8. The loans sanctioned under New Tractor Loan Scheme are classified under?

a. Indirect Agri Advances b. Direct Agri Advances

c. Small Business Finance d. None of these


9. Minimum Land holding criteria for MNTLS?

a.8 Acre of Perennially Irrigated land b.2 Acres of Land

c. No land criteria stipulated d. None of these

10. Collateral Security stipulated for MNTLS?

a. Mortgage of landed property valued equivalent of 100% of loan value

b. Mortgage of landed property valued equivalent of 150% of loan value

c. Mortgage of landed property valued equivalent of 75% of loan value

d. None of these

11. Failure in registering the Tractor within 1 month from the date of delivery attracts

penalty of?

a. Interest of 1% for the period of default

b. Interest of 2% for the period of default

c. Interest of 2% from date of disbursement

d. None of these

12. Limit under revised KCC scheme?

a. Based on cropping pattern & scale of finance

b.10% towards post-harvest/ house hold/ Consumption needs

c.20% towards maintenance of farm assets/ crop insurance/ PAIS

d. All of these

13. Agriculture Gold loan can be sanctioned as?

a. Cash Credit/ Overdraft b. Demand Loan

c. Term Loan d. a & b above

14. Maximum tenure of Agricultural Gold Loan under Demand Loan?

a.30 months b.36 months

c.12 months d. None of these

15. Additional interest subvention @ % is available for prompt repaying farmers?

a.2% b.3% c.1% d. None of these

16. Maximum permissible loan under Produce Marketing Loan?

a. Rs.25 lacs b. No Limit c.Rs.50 lacs

d. Based on WHR (Ware house Receipt)

17. Maximum Margin under Produce Marketing Loan?

a. 40% value of the produce b. 25% value of the produce

c. 50% value of the produce d. None of these

18. Collateral Security for PML for produce stored in farmer’s own godown?

a. Waived for limits uptoRs.1.60 lacs & above 1.60 lac Mortgage of land


b. Waived c. Waived up to 10 lacs d. None of these

19. Collateral Security waived under PML for limits up to Rs. ___ lac if stored in

approved warehouses

a. Rs.1 lacs b. Waived completely

c. Waived up to 10 lacs d. None of these

20. Inspection norms when the produce is stored in farmer’s own godown?

a. At monthly intervals for loans above Rs.25000/-and once in 2 months otherwise

b. At monthly intervals for loans above Rs.25000/-and once in Quarter

c. Waived up to 10 lacs

d. None of these

21. Due date of PML?

a. Not exceeding 6 months b. Not exceeding 18 months

c. None of these d. Not exceeding 12 months

22. Interest subvention for PML is available to?

a. For Small & Marginal Farmers having KCC

b. For Limits uptoRs.3 lacs and Maximum period of 6 months

c. For farmers who keep their produce in warehouse and against negotiable

warehouse receipt only

d. All of these

23. PML is valid for maximum period of?

a.12 months

b. Shelf life of the commodity

c. Date mentioned on the WHR

d. Whichever is less

24. When a short duration crop will become NPA?

a. If the loan amount remains overdue for 1 year

b. If the loan amount remains overdue for 2 crop seasons

c. If the loan amount remains overdue for 1 crop season

d. If the loan amount remains overdue for more than 90 days

25. While financing tractors, if there is score of 70 and above, then the collateral

security required is _________________________.

a. Mortgage of land b. Third party Guaranty

c. Hypothecation of tractor d. No collateral is required


26. The minimum DSCR in tractor loan under normal scheme should be

a.1.5:1 b.2:01 c.1.25:1 d. None of the above.

27. SBI Asset Backed Agri Loan (also known as Premium Kisan Gold Card) is

dedicated to which kind of customers and what is the collateral security and LTV.

a. To finance High tech agriculture, the collateral should be SARFESI property and

the LTV is 65%.

b. To finance High tech agriculture, the collateral should be agriculture property and

the LTV is 65%.

c. To finance High tech agriculture, the collateral should be NON-SARFESI property

and the LTV is 65%.

d. To finance High tech agriculture, the collateral should be SARFESI property and

the LTV is 50%.

28 What are the 3 Major control mechanism under PML / Ware House loan.

a. The Branch should keep a tab on the price movement and necessary top up the

margin whenever the price rise.

b. The quality of the grains and the certificate issued by the respective department

should be monitored and inspected regularly.

c. Banks lien on the WR should be properly done and such receipt should be from a

reputed WR managers.

d. All the three.

29. Quantum of collateral for tractor loan under tie up scheme is

a.50% of the loan value b. Minimum 30% of loan value

c. Not stipulated d.75% of the loan value

30. Minimum scoring under Poly House financing is

a.70 b.60 c.50 d.55

31. Self-declaration is sufficient for production loans up to Rs. ______ instead of

NDC

a) Rs.50000/-for KCC b) under tie up loans uptoRs.1 lac

c) Both above d) None of the above

32. No collateral security is obtained in Crop loans up to Rs. ___________

a) Rs.1,60,000/- b) Rs.300000/-under tie up loans

c) both of the above d) None of the above


33. Inspection to be conducted for irregular crop loans on _______________

a) On monthly visits for recovery b) On Quarterly basis for recovery

c) On yearly basis d) None of the above

34. Inspection norms for ATL where movable assets are created------

a) Within month after disbursement b) Quarterly

c) Half yearly d) None of the above

35. What is AB2?

a) Guarantee Agreement b) Hypothecation Agreement

c) Mortgage Deed d) None of the above

36. Processing Charge in KCC is being recovered on

a) Maximum Permissible limit b) Maximum Drawing Limit

c)Minimum Permissible limit d) Scale of Finance

37. Which is not true in case of Asset Backed Agri loan?

a) Over Draft facility may be provided up to Rs. 50.00 lakhs for 12 to 72 months.

b) Drop Line-Overdraft facility may be provided for above Rs.50.00 lakhs for 12 to 72

months.

c) Maximum LTV Ratio based on loan limit will be 65%.

d) Maximum Loan Amount is Rs.5.00 crore

38. Branches should finance only those models of tractors which have completed the

commercial test form organizations

a) Central Farm Machinery Training and Testing Institute (CFMTTI), Budni (MP)

b) Farm Machinery Testing Institute (FMTI), Kurukshetra (Haryana)

c) Tractor Testing Centre, HMT, Bangalore

d) John Deere Tractor Mfg. unit, Hisar (Haryana)

39. Minimum Net Annual Income of applicant/co-applicant together to be Rs.1.50

lacs from farm activity/custom hiring/other sources in case of Stree Shakti Tractor

Loan (Collateral Free), what should be the maximum EMI/NMI?

a)50% b)60% c)40% d)55%

40. What is amount of collateral required in case of Poly House financing below Rs.

1.60 Lakh

a) Equitable Mortgage of SARFAESI COMPLIANT Immovable property

b) NIL

c) Hypothecation of crops and poly house

d) FD for value not less than 50% of loan amount.


ANSWERS

1-b 11-b 21-d 31-c

2-d 12-d 22-d 32-c

3-b 13-d 23-d 33-a

4-b 14-c 24-b 34-a

5-b 15-b 25-a 35-a

6-c 16-c 26-a 36-b

7-b 17-a 27-a 37-d

8-b 18-a 28-d 38-a

9-b 19-c 29-c 39-b

10-a 20-a 30-c 40-b


AGRICULTURAL BANKING – 2

1. Who is not eligible for KCC loan

1.Tenant Farmers/ Share croppers 2.Any individual

3.Oral Lessees/ cultivators 4.SHG/JLG

2. Components of short term credit KCC –odd man out

1.Production limit 2.Post Harvest Expenses

3.Consumption needs & maintenance of farm assets

4.Domestic expenses

3.What is MDL in KCC

1.Minimum Drawal Limit 2.Maximum Drawal Limit

3.Minimum Drawing Limit 4.Maximum Drawing Limit

4. KCC limit is valid for

1. 5 years 2.3 years 3.12 months 4.24 months

5. KCC annual step up percentage

1. 5% 2.25% 3.10% 4.15%

6. For KCC collateral security waived for limits up to under no tie up

1.2 lacs 2.1.60 lac 3.3 lac 4.0.50 lac

7. Interest subvention is eligible for Agri Gold Loans sanctioned upto

1.2 lacs 2.5 lacs 3.1 lac 4.3 lacs

8. Interest subvention available for KCC limits upto

1.1 lac 2.2 lacs 3.3 lacs 4.5 lacs

9.KHARIFseasonstartsfrom

1.1st April 2.1st October 3.1st May 4.1st June

10.PMFBY full form

1.Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana

2.Prime Minister Fasal Bima Yojana

3.Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yochana

4.Prime Minister Fasal Bima Yochana

11.What is SHORT DURATION crop Harvesting period

1.60 to 90 days 2.60 to 120 days

3.90 to 120 days 4.Less than 1 year


12.Find out the ODDMAN out

1.Wheat 2.Cereals 3.Paddy 4.Banana

13.How many Crop loans can grow as per Irrigation sources

1.Mono 2.Double 3. Long Duration 4.All the above

14. As per land Holding of 2.50 acres (1 hectare) a farmer is called as

1.Small Farmer 2.Marginal Farmer 3.Other Farmers 4.None

15. As per KCC credit scoring model, what are the GOOD LOANS

1.Credit Score = > 71 2.Credit Score = > 70 3.Credit Score = > 75

16. What is the percentage of Processing charges for KCC limits beyond 3 lacs

1.0.30 % of Loan Amount 2.0.50 % of Loan Amount

3.0.25 % of Loan Amount 4.0.10 % of Loan Amount

17.WhatistheInsurancepremiasharing ratio between Bank &Borrower for KCC

1.1:2 2.2:1 3.1: 1

4. Insurance is borne by the Bank for KCC.

18.AgriGold loans are not sanctioned for

1.Crop production expenses 2.Creation of farm assets

3.Agriallied activities 4.Farmers children education purpose

19.Which of the following is not correct–in respect of AGRI-Gold loans

1.It should be for Agri & allied activities

2.Bonafideowner of Gold Ornaments

3.All farmers, tenant farmers, oral lessees

4.Gold ornaments of others

20.AGRI limits are sanctioned based on Scale of Finance & Advance value of gold

1.Whichever is lower

2.Whichever is higher

3.Advance value of Gold ornaments

4.Scale of finance & land holdings

21.Which Department issues circular on GOLD Loans Advance value

1.Precious Metals Department 2.PBBU

3.ABU 4.Local Head Office

22.Processing fee for Gold loans –Which is not correct

1.Upto25000 -NIL

2.25000 to 2 lacs Rs.500+GST

3.Above 2 lacs 0.30% of loan amount

4.Upto50000 -Nil


23.Maximum loan amount under AGRI

1.10 lacs 2.15 lacs 3.20 lacs 4.25 lacs

24.What is the LTV ratio for AGRI Gold loans

1.50% 2.75% 3.90% 4.80%

25.When LTV ratio breaches AGRI GOLD loan will become

1.Irregular standard loan 2.SMA-2 3.NPA 4.Loss Asset

26.When loan is sanctioned as per Scale of finance, what is the margin

1.No margin 2.10% 3.25% 4. Margin is in built in Scale of Finance

27.Whether part delivery of Gold ornaments is permitted

1.If adv value covers O/s & margin

2.If adv value covers O/s

3.No, after full payment only possible

4.On case to case basis, considered

28. Third party delivery of GOLD ORNAMENTS permissible or not

1.No, only to be delivered to Borrower

2.Yes, on exceptional cases

3.Yes, without any restriction

4.No, only to Borrower/ legal heir only

29.For testing of GOLDPURITY which of the following tests not done

1.Nitric Acid test 2.SulphuricAcid test

3.Touch stone method 4.Specific Gravity test

30.What is the other name of ABAL-Asset Backed Agri Loan

1.KisanGold Card 2.Premium Kisan Card

3.Premium Kisan Gold Card 4.Premium Gold Card

31.For what purposes ABAL is sanctioned

1.Traditional & Modern farm activities

2.Hitech Agri activities

3.Investment and short term credit requirement

4.All the above

32.Target group of ABAL

1.Individual Farmers 2.Corporate Farmers

3.Partnership firms and Companies 4.All the above

33.What is the nature of facility sanctioned to ABAL

1.Term Loan 2.Demand Loan

3.OvedrDraft up to 50L, Dropline OD above 50L 4.Drop line OD


34.How ABAL loan amount is assessed

1.65% of collateral property 2.5 times of annual income

3.Production cr (SOF)+investment cr 4.Whichever is less of above 3

35. What is the Min & Max amount sanctioned under ABAL

1.No Minimum –Max 200 lacs 2.Min 3 lacs –Max 200 lacs

3.No Minimum –Max 300 lacs 4.Min 3 lacs –Max 300 lacs

36.What is the LTV ratio for ABAL

1.75% 2.50% 3.65% 4.55%

37.For accepting collateral under ABAL, the property should be within the radius of

1.10 kms 2.15 kms 3.20 kms 4.25 kms

38.What are the permissible securities to sanction ABAL

1.SARFAESI compliant property 2.GOLD

3.Bank TDRS/ LIC Pol/ KVP 4.All the above

39.Processing charges for ABAL

1.1 % of loan amount max 2 lacs 2.2 % of loan amount max 2 lacs

3.1 % of loan amount max 1 lacs 4.2 % of loan amount max 1 lacs

40.Repayment period for ABAL

1.12 to 72 months 2.12 to 60 months 3.72 months 4.60 months

41.What is the periodicity of inspection in case of ABAL

1.Monthly 2.Quarterly 3. Half yearly 4.Annual

42.How to ensure end use of funds in ABAL

1.No bills upto10 lacs, only declaration 2.Above 10 lacs declaration & bills

3.Upto10 lacs declaration above bills 4.Post sanction valuation of assets

43.Name some of the Tractor loans

1.MNTL-Modified New Tractor loan 2.SSTL-StreeShakti Tractor Loan

3.TTL-TatkaTractor Loan 4.All the above

44.Maximum repayment period for tractor loans-SSTL without collateral

1.7 years 2.5 years 3.10 years 4.3 years

45.Life of TRACTOR is

1.15000 Hours 2.10000 Hours 3.25000 Hours 4.20000 Hours

46. CFMTTI –odd man out

1.Central Farm Machinery Training and Testing Institute

2.Situated at Budni, Madya Pradesh


3.Both 1 & 2 Correct

4.Only 1 correct

47.TAT for tractor loans

1.MNTLS-3 days 2.SSTL-3 days

3.TTL-2 days 4.All are correct

48.Minimum land holding for Tractor loan

1. 5 acres 2.2.50 acres 3.2 acres 4.3 acres

49.Which is the mortgage free Tractor Loan

1. TTL 2.SSTL 3.MNTLS 4.None

50. Whether Gold Loan sanctioned against coins

1.Yes 2.No 3.Yes, upto 50 gms

4.Yes, upto 50 gms, minted by SBI & e-ABs per person

ANSWERS

1-2 2-4 3-2 4-1 5-3 6-2 7-4 8-3 9-1 10-1

11-3 12-4 13-4 14-2 15-1 16-4 17-2 18-4 19-4 20-1

21-1 22-4 23-4 24-2 25-3 26-4 27-1 28-2 29-2 30-3

31-4 32-4 33-3 34-4 35-2 36-3 37-4 38-4 39-1 40-1

41-3 42-3 43-4 44-4 45-2 46-3 47-4 48-3 49-1 50-4


AGRICULTURAL BANKING – 3

01 Which of the following statements is correct with regard to Produce Marketing Loan as

per Bank’s instructions?

a) Produce marketing loan can be sanctioned to Companies and partnership firms,

engaged in agriculture.

b) Produce marketing loan can be sanctioned to groups of farmers.

c) Both A & B are correct

d) Both A & B are wrong

02 Which of the following can be categorized under Agri Priority sector lending with

regard to Produce Marketing Loan?

a) Up to Rs 50 lakh for all categories

b) Up to Rs 100 lakh for, partnership and companies

c) Up to Rs 125 lakh for all categories.

d) Up to Rs 75 lakh for individual farmers.

03 Produce Marketing loan can be sanctioned as____?

a) Overdraft with reduced Drawing power

b) Term Loan

c) Cash credit with reduced Drawing power

d) Demand Loan

04 Shelf life of the commodity is 15 months. Validity of Warehouse receipt is 18 months.

Produce marketing loan can be sanctioned for a period of ____?

a) 15 months b) 18 months c) 24 months d) 12 months

05 Which of the following statements with regard to Produce Marketing Loan is correct?

a) Collateral should be in the form of SARFAESI compliant property only

b) Collateral is waived irrespective of loan amount where negotiable Ware House

Receipt is available

c) Both the statements (a) & (b) are correct

d) Both (a) & (b) are not correct

06 Which of the following services are rendered by Collateral Managers under Produce

Marketing Loan?

a) Provide sale and settlement support in case of default in the loan.

b) Source PML loan applications

c) Facilitate periodical inspection and verification of the stock

d) All of these are correct

07 Which of the following statements is not correct relating to empanelment of

Collateral Manager under Produce Marketing Loan?

a) Should have experience in Collateral Management of agri commodities for at least

2 years


b) Should be linked with major commodity exchanges like MCX, NCDEX.

c) Should have external rating of minimum “AAA”.

d) Should have operated profitably for last two years

08 _____are eligible to avail Produce Marketing loan?

a) Farmers, who have availed crop loan from our banks

b) Farmers, who have availed crop loan from other Banks

c) Farmers, who have not availed crop loan from any Bank.

d) All of these are correct

09 Which of the following document(s) is/are required for Produce Marketing Loan?

a) D P Note

b) Warehouse / godown/ cold storage receipt duly endorsed in favour of the Bank

c) A letter of undertaking obtained from the owner of the warehouse / godown / cold

storage that the commodity pledged to the Bank will not be delivered without written

authorization of the Bank.

d) All of these

10 Produce Marketing Loan is sanctioned___

a) To avoid distress sale of produce by farmers

b) To provide liquidity support to farmers

c) Both (a) & (b)

d) None of the above.

11 Loan amount that can be sanctioned under Produce Marketing Loan when collateral

manager’s support is availed based on the value of the produce as follow ____.

Minimum Support Price : Not declared Price prevailing at the time of harvest of the

commodity in the current year : Rs 20 lacs Current Market Price : Rs 26 lacs

a) Rs 10 lacs b) Rs 15 lacs c) Rs 12 lacs d) Rs 16 lacs

12 In Produce Marketing Loan where Collateral Manager’s services are availed, up to

how much amount Collateral is waived?

a) 10 lacs b) 20 lacs c) 50 lacs

d) Collateral is not waived when Collateral Manager’s services are availed

13 How much margin is to be stipulated for Produce Marketing Loan when minimum

support price is declared and Collateral Manager’s support is taken?

a) 25% b) 50% c) 15% d) 40%

14 In Produce Marketing loan, a certificate in respect of the condition of goods covered

by the warehouse receipts and pledged to the bank at _____ intervals.

a) Weekly b) Monthly c) Quarterly d) Half yearly


15 KCC loans are insured by which scheme

a. PMSBY b. PMFPY c. PMFBY d. PMFBS

16 Which of the following are essential for sanctioning KCC?

a. KYC b. Land proof c. Cropping pattern d. All of the above

17 What is the repayment period of Investment credit component in KCC?

a. 12 months b. 24 months c. 5 years d. This is renewed every year

18 In KCC, which is considered for obtaining documents?

a. MPL b. MDL c. Both of these d. None of these

19 How much amount is available for maintenance of farm equipment in KCC?

a. 10% b. 20%

c. Not specified in master circular d. None of these

20 How much increase can be made every year in

a. 10% b.20% c. 30% d. No mention in Master circular

21 Which of the following borrowers are eligible for agri Interest Subvention?

a. Limits up to Rs.300000/- b. Limits up to Rs.160000/-

c. Limits up to Rs.100000/- d. None of the above

22 How much maximum loan can be sanctioned without collateral Under Tie up

arrangement in KCC?

a. 100000/- b. 200000/- c. 300000/- d. None of the above

23 How much amount is available for consumption purpose in KCC?

a.10% b.20% c. Not specified in master circular d. None of these

24 In KCC, what is the due date for short term Rabi mono crop (in the absence of

specific instruction from SLBC

a. 31st July b. 31st January c. 12 months from the date of sanction d. None of

these

25 For Long term crops, due date is fixed as under: (in the absence of specific

instruction from SLBC)

a. 31st January b. 31st July c. 12 months after sanction d. None of these

26 When we start the process of obtaining Revival Letter in KCC?

a. After 2 years 3 months b. After 2 years 6 months

c. No revival needed d. After 2 years 9 months


27 Processing fee for AGRI GOLD LOAN is waived upto

a.25000/- b.50000/- c.100000/- d. Not waived for any amount

28 Under PMFBY, what is the maximum premium for Kharif food crops?

a. 1.5% b. 2% c. 5% d. None of these

29 PAIS under agri for KCC loans covered under which scheme?

a. PMFBY b. SBI GENERAL

c. PAIS not covered under KCC d. PMSBY

30 KCC limit is due for review after?


31 For KCC limits RL is obtained after


32 As per land Holding of 2.50 acres (1 hectare) a farmer is called as

a. Small Farmer b. Marginal Farmer c. Big Farmer d. Oral lessee

33 As per land Holding of 5.00 acres (2 hectare) a farmer is called as

a. Small Farmer b. Marginal Farmer c. Big Farmer d. Oral lessee

34 Bankers commission under PMFBY total amount of premium paid is

a. 2% b.4 % c. 3% d.1%

35 The maximum limit under PML?

a.50 lacs b.2 crores c.3 crores d. No cap fixed

36 What is the maximum amount can be sanctioned without collateral under PML,

against WHR?

a. 1 lac b. 3 lacs c. 5 lacs d. 10 lacs

37 Kisan Credit Card covers

a. Tenant Farmers b. Share croppers

c. Oral Lessee d. All the above

38 What is the security in Kisan Credit Card?

a. Hypothecation of Standing crops b. Hypothecation of Standing & future crops

c. No security i.e.., clean loan d. Mortgage on land

39 What is the maximum limit under ABAL

a) Rs 200 lacs b) Rs 500 lacs c) Rs 50 lacs d) No cap fixed


40 Loan Collection Module (LCM) is a tool to support at ___ stage

a) Sourcing of Application b) Only when loan becomes NPA

c) Post Sanction d) Pre-Sanction

41 In Loan Collection Module (LCM) Role Mapping for branch officials is done at____

a) Branch b) RBO c) LHO d) Corporate Centre

42 Which of the following will be generated in Loan Collection Module (LCM)? Choose

the most appropriate answer.

a) MIS reports b) inspection reports c) SMS d) All of the above

43 Which of the following document was not generated by Agri LOS?

a) Acknowledgement letter b) Pre-sanction Survey Report

c) Control Return d) Repayment notice to the borrower

44 What is LOS?

a) Loan Origination Software b) Loan Original System

c) Loan Origination Screen d) Loan Oriented Software

45 Which among the following is a feature in Agri LOS?

a) Interface with Credit Bureaus b) De dupe of Customers data

c) Interface with CBS d) All of the above

46 In Agri LOS, which of the following tasks is scheduled in “Appraisal &

recommendation” stage of processing the tractor loans?

a) Legal clearance b) Opinion report

c) Observations of the appraising officer d) All of the above

47 Which among the following is a task under “Applicant Detail Information” stage?

a) Credit Bureau verification b) CIC Defaulter check

c) LOS De dupe d) All of the above

48 In Agri LOS, what is the minimum score required to avoid rejection of KCC loan

application?

a. 25 b) 26 c) 50 d)70

49 What is the first Interest application debit date in case of long/multiple/double crops?

a) 12 months from the date of sanction b) Preceding month end date of next year

c) Due date of crop d) 24 months from the date of sanction

50 In Agri LOS, the following fields can be amended.

a) Scale of finance b) Loan amount applied

c) Inspection/Processing Charges d) All of the above


-ANSWERS-

1-c 2-a 3-d 4-d 5-d 6-d 7-c 8-d 9-d 10-c

11-b 12-c 13-a 14-b 15-c 16-d 17-a 18-a 19-b 20-a

21-a 22-c 23-a 24-a 25-c 26-a 27-a 28-b 29-d 30-d

31-c 32-b 33-a 34-b 35-a 36-d 37-d 38-c 39-a 40-c

41-b 42-d 43-d 44-a 45-d 46-d 47-d 48-b 49-b 50-d

AGRI RATIONALES

01. Two milch animals are financed in two phases.

➢ To ensure uninterrupted generation of income two milch animals are financed

at a time with a gap of 6 months. Second animal will be purchased with

instalment amount released after 6 months to ensure that one animal will give

milk during dry period of the other animal.

02. Farmers Club formation is beneficial to the Bank.

➢ Farmer’s club formation is based on the principle “Development through

credit”. It enables the farmers to adopt improved practices for their

development. Because of their voluntary participation, the change process will

be faster. We can as well make use of the Clubs to inculcate proper credit

discipline among the farmers.

03. Agricultural Term Loans interest is calculated in May and November.

➢ To reduce the burden on the farmers and to coincide with harvesting season

of Kharif & Rabi crops. It is easier & convenient to repay the installments and

interest from the sale proceeds and will not result in compounding of interest.

04. "PRODUCER COMPANIES" is a new thrust area in agricultural Finance.

➢ Our Bank is also showing inclination in financing and Identification of

Producer Companies as an emerging area in Agriculture Business.

Opportunities and to take advantage of revolution in Agriculture marketing.

05. Gold loans could be granted against gold coins minted by SBI & e-ABS.

➢ RBI have clarified that specially minted gold coins sold by banks need not be

treated as' BULLION' and hence there should be no objection to banks in

granting loans against the specially minted gold coins sold by banks. In case

of SBI, we are granting loans against the coins minted by SBI and e-Abs only.


06. Micro finance will help in poverty alleviation of weaker section of society.

➢ Micro finance involves provision of thrift credit and other financial services and

products of very small amount to the poor in rural semi urban and urban areas

for enabling them to raise their income levels and improve living standards.

This programme is gaining increasing recognition in many developing

countries including India.

07. Revival Letters are obtained as per limitation act.

➢ All security documents are revived as per the provisions of Indian Limitation

Act 1963. In case the documents are not renewed, the Bank cannot legally

proceed against the borrower in the event of default on the strength of the

time-barred documents.

08. Inspection of agricultural advances should be farmer oriented rather than farm

oriented.

➢ To understand their problems, credit requirements and repayment capacity.

To ensure better follow up of advance, recovery and revival.

09.Promoting Farmers Clubs is beneficial to the Bank.

➢ Farmer’s club formation is based on the principle “Development through

credit”. It enables the farmers to adopt improved practices for their

development. Because of their voluntary participation, the change process will

be faster. We can as well make use of the Clubs to inculcate proper credit

discipline among the farmers.

10. While creating Equitable Mortgage, the mortgager does not sign the Title Deed

register, Why?

➢ If the mortgager signs the Title deed register, it will amount to Registered

Mortgage and it attracts advalorem Stamp duty.

11. Banks are allowed to give incentives to NGOs for providing SHG-Bank linkages.

➢ To compensate the NGOs for the work involved for them in providing the

linkages It is an incentive to increase the involvement of NGOs, and enable

bank to achieve its target under SHG linkage.

12. Agriculture Gold Loan scheme is revised.

➢ In view of the negligible NPAs and vast potential available for increasing gold

loan portfolio in agri business. The procedures have been simplified to de-

bottleneck the scheme keeping risk mitigation aspect intact. RBI has reduced

the risk weightage on loans up to Rs 1 lac against gold and silver ornaments

from 120 % to 50 %. Therefore, financing under this portfolio will ease the

capital adequacy ratio of the Bank.

13. Spacing norms for location of wells are stipulated by NABARD.


➢ If wells are constructed too close, they are likely to interfere with each other

resulting in lowering of discharge. Hence, not viable. The purpose is defeated.

The farmer borrower may not be able to repay the loan which becomes bad

and doubtful

14. Comprehensive Insurance Cover is required to be obtained in respect of the

hypothecated vehicles in the name of the borrower only.

➢ In case Bank's name is also included, it is likely that the third parties may

claim damages from the Bank for any acts of negligence on the part of

transport operator resulting in injury/ loss and to obviate claim by insurance

company for unpaid insurance premia.

15. Scale of finance per acre for granting crop loans is not uniform for the entire

country.

➢ Since, the pattern of cropping, fertility of soil, yield, irrigation facilities, cost of

cultivation are not uniform throughout the country.


SME ASSET PRODUCTS

MSMED ACT 1.As per notification issued by the Ministry of MSME, the term “Micro Enterprises”

has to be used in place of …………………………..in the statutes /rules/notifications

/guidelines/instructions etc. and in all other documents concerned.

a) Tiny Enterprises b) Industries c) Tiny Units d) ll of these

2. Recently IBA approved a common loan application form for upto the amount of

Rs. ……..for all MSME Units.

a) 2.00 Cr b) 1.00 Cr c) 50.00 lacs d) 5.00 lacs

3. An Industrial enterprise is known as Micro enterprise if the original investment in

plant and machinery is

a) upto Rs 25 Lakhs b) more than Rs 25 L & Upto Rs 5 Crores

c) more than Rs 5 Crs & Upto Rs 10 Crores d) upto Rs 10 Lakhs

4. An Industrial enterprise is known as Medium enterprise if the original investment

in plant and machinery is

a) upto Rs 25 Lakhs b) more than Rs 25 L & Upto Rs 5 Crores

c) more than Rs 5 Crs & Upto Rs 10 Crores d) upto Rs 10 Lakhs

5. A Service enterprise is known as Small Enterprise if the original investment in

equipment is

a) upto Rs 25 Lakhs b) more than Rs 10 L & Upto Rs 2Crores

c) more than Rs 2Crs & Upto Rs 5 Crores d) upto Rs 10 Lakhs

6.Amendment in the MSMED Act 2006 ,in February 2018 , Now the classification of

enterprises is based on .

a. Annual turn over b. Investment in P & M

c. Internal rating d. External rating

KEY – MSMED

1 D 2 B 3 A 4 C 5 A 6 A


SME DOCUMENTATION 1.With regard to documentation, SME 3 refers to …

a. Agreement of Loan-cum-Hypothecation b. Guarantee Agreement

c. Supplemental Document d. Arrangement Letter

2. The form to be obtained for Agreement of Loan-cum-Hypothecation for SME is …

a. SME 2 b. SME 4 c. SME 5 d. SME 3

3. What is the form to be obtained with regard to confirmation of EM under SME

documentation?


4. For extension of EM under SME documentation, what is the form to be used?


5. SME 9 refer to -------------- in SME Documentation.

a. Deed of further mortgage b. Revival letter

c. Deed of mortgage d. memorandum of extn of mortgage

6. Revival letter is obtained under SME documentation by using the form ….


7. The Letter of Arrangement for SME units is given in the form of …..


8. While obtaining the SME documentation, the form used for obtaining the

particulars of assets is …..

a. SME 2 A b. SME 2 c. SME 5 d. SME 3

9. What is the form used for obtaining Deed of further mortgage in SME

Documentation?


10. Link letter under SME documentation is obtained by using the form …..


11. In place of SME 13, what is the form used by Branches at present?

a. Link letter b. Arrangement letter

c. valuation report d. Title Investigation Report

KYE – SME Documentation

1 b 2 a 3 b 4 c 5 c 11

6 a 7 a 8 a 9 c 10 b D


ARTISAN CREDIT CARD

1.Which of the following statement is correct in respect of financing under Artisan

Credit Card?

a. Artisans in the handicrafts sector not covered by any other government scheme.

b. Minimum Score is 60%

c. Preference to the artisans registered with the Development Commissioner

(Handicrafts)

d. All the above

2. What is the maximum loan under Artisan Credit card?

a) Rs2 lacs b) Rs1 lac c) Rs5 lacs d)None of the above

3. What is the repayment period, for the loan component used for purchase of tools,

etc. in Artisan Credit Card?

a) 36 months b) 48months

b) 60months d)None of the above

4. What are all the facilities that can be sanctioned under Artisan Credit Card?

a)Cash Credit b) Term Loan c) Demand loan d) Any facility

KEY - Artisan Credit Card

01 d 02 a 03 a 04 a

SME CREDIT CARD 1. Which among the following with a satisfactory track record for the last two years

are eligible for availing loan under SME Credit Card scheme?

a) Small industrial units & Small retail traders

b) Professionals & self- employed persons

c) Small business enterprises & Transport operators

d) All of the above

2. What is the Maximum quantum of finance under SME Credit Card scheme?

a) Rs. 5 lacs b) Rs.10 lacs c) Rs.20 lacs d) Rs.50 lacs

3. What is the margin stipulated for loans under SME Credit Card scheme?

a) 20% b) 15% c) 10% d) 25%


4. Collateral security to be obtained for loans sanctioned for SSI units under SME

credit card scheme is

a) No collateral to be insisted upon.

b) For loans more than Rs.25000/- charge over movable /immovable property

c) For loans more than Rs.25000/- -third party guarantee only

d) For loans more than Rs.25000/- charge over movable /immovable property /third

party guarantee

5. Collateral security to be obtained for loans sanctioned for SBF units under SME

credit card scheme is

a) No collateral to be insisted upon for loans more than Rs.25,000/-

b) For all loans charge over movable /immovable property

c) For loans more than Rs.25000/- charge over movable /immovable property/third

party guarantee


6. The Term Loan component in SMECC should be repayable in a maximum of __

years in suitable instalments.

a) 05 b) 06 c) 07 d) 03

7. In SME Credit Card Scheme, the working capital component should be reviewed

every year provided the credit summation is not less than 50% of the projected

turnover. If the credit summation is less than 50%, then

a) Advance has to called off immediately

b) A letter has to be sent to the unit requesting them to route through the sale

proceeds

c) A repayment schedule should be fixed for the out standings in Suitable monthly

instalments

d) Borrower to be asked to close the account without further delay

8. To qualify under SME credit card scheme the unit should score a minimum of ___

%.

a) 50% b) 60% c) 45% d) 70%

9. To qualify under SME credit card scheme the unit should score __ Marks

a) 36 b) 40 c) 56 d) 60

10. The limit sanctioned under SME credit card is valid for _ subject to annual

review

a) 2 years b) 5 years c) 1 year d) 3 years


11. Under SME credit card scheme for self- employed and professionals, the working

capital assessment will be made as under

a) 20% of their annual turnover OR 20% of turnover of the last 12 months in their

accounts, whichever is lower

b) 100% of gross annual income as declared in their income tax return

c) 20% of their annual turnover OR 20% of turnover of the last 12 months in their

accounts, whichever is higher

d) As per Nayak Committee norms ie.,20% of annual turnover

KEY - SME CREDIT CARD

01 d 02 b 03 a 04 a 05 c

06 a 07 c 08 b 09 a 10 c

11 d 12 b

SME SMART SCORE 1. What is the Minimum and Maximum quantum of finance for manufacturing

unitsunder SME Smart Score scheme?

a) Rs. 5 lacs and Rs.50 lacs b) Rs.10 lacs and Rs.50 lacs

c) Rs 5lacs and Rs.25 lacs d) Rs. 50 lacs for both segments

2. What is the Minimum and Maximum quantum of finance for units engaged in

trade& services under SME Smart Score scheme?

a) Rs. 5 lacs and Rs.50 lacs b) above Rs.10 lacs and < Rs.50 lacs

c) Rs 5 lacs and Rs.25 lacs d) Rs.3 lacs to Rs.30 lacs

3. The quantum for working capital loan for units engaged in trade& services under

SME Smart Score scheme is assessed as __% of annual turnover subject to

maximum of Rs.50 lacs.

a) 20% b) 15% c) 10% d) 25%

4. The quantum for working capital loan for units engaged in manufacturing under

SME Smart Score scheme is assessed as __% of annual turnover subject to

maximum of Rs.50 lacs.?

a) 20% b) 15% c) 10% d) 25%

5. The quantum of finance for Term loans, under SME Smart Score scheme is __

% of project cost.

a) 75% b) 67% c) 60% d) 80%

6. The margin stipulated for Term loans for units engaged in manufacturing / trade/

services, under SME Smart Score scheme is _% of project cost.


a) 25% b) 15% c) 33% d) 35%

7. What is the margin stipulated for working capital component under SME Smart

Score scheme?

a) 20% b)15% c) 10% d) 25%

8. Under SME Smart Score scheme the Working Capital loans can be sanctioned for

years subject to annual review, specifying the limit requirement for each year.

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Five

9. In SME Smart Score scheme the Working Capital loans where two different limits

are sanctioned for two years the documents are to be obtained for

a) Lower of the two limits b) Average of the two limits

c) Higher of the two limits d) Sum of the two limits

10. To be eligible under the scheme, the age of the chief promoter/executive should

be to years of age.

a) 18 to 65 b) 21 to 70 c) 18 to 70 d) 21 to 65

11. Under SME Smart Score scheme Working Capital loans can be renewed if credit

score is _ and above out of 60 under business score

a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 37

12. Under SME Smart Score scheme, to be eligible for loan, the applicant must

obtain a minimum overall score of 60% with a minimum of _ % under each sub-head

like Personal details, Business details and collateral details (except in cases where

collateral should be asked as per Bank’s norms, where the minimum marks will be

nil).

a) 50% b) 60% c) 35% d) 40%

13. The working capital limit sanctioned under SME Smart Score scheme is to be

renewed years subject to annual review every

a) 2 years b) 5 years c) 1 year d) 3 years

14. Maximum tenure of the term loan sanctioned under SME Smart Score scheme is

a) Not more than 7 years excluding moratorium not exceeding 6 months

b) Not more than 7 years excluding moratorium not exceeding 3 months

c) Not more than 5 years excluding moratorium not exceeding 6 months

d) Not more than 5 years excluding moratorium not exceeding 3 months

15. In SME Smart Score scheme the maximum score awarded for Personal details,

Business details and Collateral conditions are -----, ----- & -------

a) 15, 25 & 10 b) 30, 50 & 20 c) 60,100 & 40 d) 70, 20 & 10


16. To be eligible under SME Smart Score scheme the unit should get a minimum

score of 60% with a minimum marks to be scored in personal details, Business

details and Collateral conditions are ----- , ----- & -------

a) 15, 25 & 10 b) 30, 50 & 20 c) 60,100 & 40 d) 70, 20 & 10

KEY - SME SMART SCORE

SME CREDIT PLUS 1. Which of the following is/ are the target group can be considered under SME

credit plus Scheme

a) Existing SSI borrowers with excellent track record

b) standard assets for the past two consecutive years

c) new borrowers

d) a & b or c

2.Which of the following statement is/are true about SME credit plus Scheme

a) Units with CRA Rating of SB 7 & above and / or standard assets for the past two

years

b) the purpose is to meet bulk orders, repairs to machinery

c) the purpose is to make tax payments, Any other contingency

d) All of the above

3. The quantum of finance under SME Credit plus is

a) 20% of aggregate working capital limit subject to a maximum of Rs.25lacs

b) 20% of aggregate working capital limit subject to a maximum of Rs.10lacs

c) 15% of aggregate working capital limit subject to a maximum of Rs.25lacs

d) 15% of aggregate working capital limit subject to a maximum of Rs.10lacs

4. The margin to be maintained by the borrowing unit under SME credit plus is

a) Not applicable b) 10% c) 20% d) 25%

01 d 02 b 03 b 04 a 05 b

06 c 07 d 08 b 09 c 10 a

11 c 12 a 13 a 14 c 15 b

16 a

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100

5. The primary security for SME credit plus will be

a) book debts b) Stocks c) Both a & B d) Nil

6. Which of the following not true about SME credit plus scheme

a) type of facility is clean cash credit

b) rate of interest is as applicable for working capital limits

c) Each amount of withdrawal should be repaid within 2 months and there should be

a gap of 15 days between the last date of repayment of outstandings and the next

withdrawal

d) Cheque book will be issued

KEY - SME CREDIT PLUS

STAND BY LINE OF CREDIT (SLC)

1. The minimum CRA rating required for eligible to avail SLC is ….

a) SB 7 b) SB 3 c) SB 4 d) SB 10

2. SLC can be given to the eligible borrowers under the facility of

a) FB only b)NFB only c) Either a or b or both d) Either a or b only

3. The maximum loan that can be sanctioned to a unit under SLC is Rs.…..( Crs)

a) 10 b)5 c)20 d)50

4. For sanctioning under SLC facility, the maximum quantum that can be sanctioned

to a unit with respect to its working capital limit is …

a) 20% of FBWC facility b) 20% of total WC facility

c) 15% of total WC facility d) 15% of FBWC facility

5. The minimum margin required for SLC is ….

a) 25% uniform for SLC b) 20% uniform for SLC

c) as per the terms of the original limits of WC facility

d) 30% uniform for SLC

6. The rate of interest to be charged for SLC is….

a) the applicable CC rate b) one step above the applicable CRA

c) one per cent higher than that applicable for CC facility

d) a separate CRA for SLC

01 d 02 d 03 a 04 a 05 D 06 a

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101

7. The maximum tenor of SLC loan as per sanction of SLC is …….

a) 2 months b)3 months c)6 months d)9 months

8. If SLC is sanctioned to a unit, then how many times can that unit avail SLC during

its validity?

a) 6 times b)12 times c) No such restriction d) 9 times

KEY - STAND BY LINE OF CREDIT (SLC)

01 d 02 c 03 c 04 C 05 c

06 c 07 b 08 c

SME COLLATERAL FREE LOAN 1. SME Collateral free loan is for exposure to the SME borrowers

a) Rs 10.00 lacs and above irrespective of the amount

b) Rs 10.00 lacs above and up to Rs1.00 crores

c) Rs 1.00 crores and above

d) Maximum Up to Rs 100 lacs

2. The submission of stock statement for loans up to Rs 25.00 lacs under SME

Collateral free loan is

a) Once in a month b) Once in a quarter

c) Once in Six months d) Once in a year as on 28th February

3. The submission of stock statement for loans above Rs 25.00 lacs under SME

Collateral free loan is

a) Once in a year as on 28th February b) Once in a month

c) Once in Six months d) Once in a Quarter

4. The maximum repayment for term loan under the SME Collateral free loan is

a) Eight years including moratorium period not exceeding 6months – 1 year

b) Six years including moratorium period not exceeding 6months – 1 year

c) Five years including moratorium period not exceeding 6months – 1 year

d) 7 years including moratorium period not exceeding 6months –1 year

KEY - SME Collateral free loan

01 d 02 b 03 b 04 d

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102

OPEN TERM LOAN 1. The minimum current ratio for sanctioning of Open Term Loan is …

a) 1.33 b) 1.00 c) 1.20 d) no minimum stipulated

2. What is the maximum loan ceiling for Open Term Loan?

Rs.250 lacs b) Rs.500 lacs c) Rs.700 lacs d) Rs.800 lacs

3. The minimum margin requirement for open term loan….

a) 20% b) 15% c) 25% d ) 10%

4. What is the validity period of sanction of open term loan?

a) 24 months from the date of sanction

b) 12 months from the date of 1st date of disbursement

c) 12 months from the date of sanction

d) No such restriction

5. The maximum repayment period allowed for open term loan is not to exceed….


6. Open Term Loan is applicable for which of the following sectors?

a) Manufacturing sector b) Service sector

c) both (a) and (b) d) no such restriction

7. Maximum number of disbursements allowed in open term loan is…

a) only once b) 3 times c) 5 times d) No such restriction

8. The minimum eligible CRA rating for availing open term loan is … when customer

is having more than 5 years relations with bank?

a) SB 4 or ECR BB b) SB 2 or ECR AAA

c) SB 10 or ECR B+ d) SB 8 or ECR of BB or better

KEY - OPEN TERM LOAN

01 b 02 d 03 c 04 c 05 c

06 c 07 d 08 d

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103

CONSTRUCTION EQUIPMENT LOAN 1.What is the Maximum loan under Construction Equipment loan ?

a) Rs10Lacs b) Rs25Crores c) Rs25Lacs d) Rs10Crores

2.What is the minimum credit rating condition to sanction CEL?

a) SB1 b) SB2 c) SB9 d) SB8

3. What are all the purposes eligible for CEL?

a) Purchase of new machines

b) Purchase of new equipments

c) Purchase of new vehicles

d) Any of the above

4. What is the maximum number of disbursements that can be made in CEL?

a) 12 b)6 c)3 d) None

5. What is the maximum period upto which the disbursement can be made in CEL?

a) 12months b)6months c)3months d) None

6.What is the prepayment charge for loans under CEL for individuals?

a) Nil b) 1% of the prepaid amount

c) 2% of the outstanding amount d) 2% of the prepaid amount

7. For what purpose SME Construction Equipment Loan can be sanctioned?

a) For purchase of construction materials – cement, steel, sand, bricks, timber etc.

b) For purchase of construction equipment – Loaders, Excavators, JCB etc.

c) For purchase of land & buildings.

d) None of these.

8. What is the loan amount that can be sanctioned under SME Construction

Equipment Loan in metro cities?

a) Min.Rs.5.00Lacs– MaxRs.100.00 Lacs

b) Min. Rs.10.00 Lacs – Max Rs.10.00 crores

c) Min. Rs.25.00 Lacs -Max Rs.10.00 crores

d) Min. Rs.10.00 Lacs - Max Rs.500.00 Lacs

10. What is the repayment period for SME Construction Equipment Loan?

a) 2 years b) 3 years c) 5 Years. d) 7 Years.

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11. What is the nature of facility is sanctioned under SME Construction Equipment

Loan?

a) Cash credit b) Term Loan c) Drop line OD d) b or C.

11. What is the penal rate of interest charged in case of default under SME

Construction Equipment Loan for borrowers with CRA ratings 1-5?

a) 2.00% of the default amount b) 1.00% of the default amount

c) 1.00% of the outstanding amount d) 2.00%of the outstanding amount

12. What is the CRA rating below which SME Construction Equipment Loan will not

be sanctioned?

a) SB 10 b) SB 9 c) SB 8 d) SB 7

13. What is the minimum margin fixed under SME Construction Equipment Loan with

collateral?

a) 25% b) 20% c) 15% d) 10%

14.What is the collateral security to be offered under SME Construction Loan?

a) Collateral Security is waived

b) Hypothecation of other unencumbered security or mortgage of properties at-least

for 10% of the limit

c) Mortgage of properties at-least for 25% of the limit.

d) Hypothecation of other unencumbered security or mortgage of properties at-least

for 33% of the limit

15. What is the rule regarding insurance of machinery under SME Construction

Loan?

a) 110% of the loan limit b) Insurance waived

c) Comprehensive insurance with endorsement in favour of SBI on the policy as

“Loss Payee”

d) Comprehensive insurance in the name of borrower.

KEY - Construction Equipment Loan

01 d 02 c 03 d 04 d 05 a

06 a 07 b 08 c 09 b 10 d

11 d 12 b 13 d 14 c 15 d

SBILD NUNGAMBAKKAM Page 105

FLEET FINANCE SCHEME 1. Minimum and maximum loan amount that may be sanctioned under “SBI Fleet

Finance Scheme” are.........................and.......................respectively

a) Rs 10.00 Lacs; Rs 1.00 Crore

b) Rs 25.00 Lacs; Rs 5.00 Crore

c) Rs 50.00 Lacs; normally Rs.10 Cr and any limit with due approval

d) No ceiling

2. Drawals against aggregate limit sanctioned for purchasing vehicles under “SBI

Fleet Finance Scheme” can be permitted upto.................….......................from the

date of sanction, beyond which unutilized limit would lapse


3. The score obtained by the borrower should be minimum of ……% out of the total

marks for eligible under Fleet Finance.

a) 33% b) 40% c) 60% d) 50%

4. Loan sanctioned under “SBI Fleet Finance Scheme” is to be repaid in............ for

borrowers having scores 60% and above in ‘Credit Scoring Matrix’


5. Normally minimum tangible collateral security that should be taken for Loan above

Rs1.00 Crore sanctioned under “SBI Fleet Finance Scheme” is............including

unencumbered vehicles in the existing fleet.

a) 10 percent b) 15 percent c) 20 percent d) 25 percent

6. The minimum experience required for a borrower to be eligible for SBI Fleet

finance is ……….


7. Prepayment penalty for SBI Fleet finance if the loan is pre-closed from own

sources, it is ………% of outstanding

a) 1% b) NIL c) 3% d) 4%

8. Prepayment penalty for SBI Fleet finance if the loan is pre-closed not from own

sources, it is ………% of outstanding

a) 1% b) 2% c) 3% d) 4%

9. As per the revised instructions, the commitment charges [for beyond 2 months] to

be recovered from the borrowers of fleet finance is …….

a) 1% b) 2% c) Nil d) 3%

10. Minimum average gross DSCR required for the fleet finance accounts is


a) 1.75 b) 1.5 c) 1.4 d) 2

KEY - Fleet finance scheme

1 C 2 B 3 D 4 C 5 C

6 A 7 B 8 D 9 C 10 B

SBI ASSET BACKED LOAN (ABL) 1.“SBI Asset Backed Loan” provides.................................facility.

a) Cash Credit b) NFB c) Dropline Overdraft d) All of these

2. Minimum loan amount that may be sanctioned to eligible borrower under “SBI

Asset Backed Loan” is …...................

a) Above Rs 10.00 Lacs b) above Rs 25.00 Lacs

c) Rs 50.00 Lacs d) Rs 100.00 Lacs

3. Maximum loan amount that may be sanctioned to eligible borrower under “SBI

Asset Backed Loan” is …................... (permission has to be sought from WBCC I for

higher loan)

a) Rs 5.00 crore b) Rs 10.00 crore c) Rs 15.00 crore d) Rs 20.00 crore

4. Property that is going to be mortgaged under “SBI Asset Backed Loan” needs to

be within a radius of …....................from the Branch, wherein account is maintained.

a) 10 km b) 15 km c) 20 km d) 25 km

5. Drop-line Overdraft Limits may be sanctioned under “SBI Asset Backed Loan” for

period of 12 months to …..................... with either Equated Reduction in limit or

customized reduction in limit depending upon the cash accruals.


6. Under “SBI Asset Backed Loan”, maximum permissible amount against the

securities i.e. LTV is …................ of the realizable value of property.

a) 50 percent b) 60 percent c) 70 percent d) 75 percent

7. Fresh valuation of property under “SBI Asset Backed Loan” is to be carried out

every….................and any shortfall has to be topped up.


8. Submission of Stock Statements under “SBI Asset Backed Loan” to be obtained

at .................... intervals.

a) monthly b) quarterly c) half yearly

d) No stock statement, instead Quarterly operating data to be submitted.


9. Obtention of ECR for customers under ABL & ABL CRE

a) optional b) mandatory c) optional upto Rs.10 cr d) No such exemption

10. Prepayment penalty for ABL is now charged at the rate of ………

a) 2% of DP limit b) 4% of operating limit

c) 2% of outstanding d) 4% of outstanding

11. Penal Interest rate of __% charged if overdue more than ---- days for ABL

a) 1%: 90 days b) 1%: 30days c) 2%: 7 days d) 2%: 30 days

12. In ABL inspection of Property and Activity/Unit to be carried out once in a _____

a) Month b) Quarter c) Half-year d) Year

KEY - SBI ASSET BACKED LOAN (ABL)

1 D 2 A 3 D 4 D 5 D

6 B 7 B 8 D 9 A 10 c

11 c 12 C

SBI ASSET BACKED LOAN FOR RESIDENTIAL HOUSING ( ABL-

RH)

1.“SBI Asset Backed Loan for Residential Housing ( ABL-RH) the type of loan is

...........

a) Cash Credit b) Working Capital Demand Loan

c) Dropline Overdraft d) All of these

2. Minimum loan amount that may be sanctioned to eligible borrower under “ABL –

RH is ….................

a) Rs 10.00 Lacs b) Rs 25.00 Lacs c) Rs 50.00 Lacs d) Rs 100.00 Lacs

3. Maximum loan amount that may be sanctioned to eligible borrower under ABL –

RH in Metros is ……

a) Rs. 50 Crores b) Rs.100 Crores c) Rs.200 Crores d) Rs.500 Crores

4. Maximum loan amount that may be sanctioned to eligible borrower under ABL-

RH in other centers is

a) Rs.50 Crores b) Rs.100 Crores c) Rs.200 Crores d) Rs.500 Crores


5. Maximum loan amount that may be sanctioned to eligible borrower under ABL RH

for NBG Branch is


6. LTV % of Immovable property under .ABL-RH is-----% of realizable value.

a) 50% b) 60% c) 70% d) 75%

7. Maximum Repayment period under the under ABL-RH is ----- Months

a) 48 b) 60 c) 84 d) 96

8. Limits under “SBI Asset Backed Loan for ABL –RH can be sanctioned from _ _

Months to _ Months.

a) 12, 96 b) 6, 84 c) 12, 84 d) 6, 96

9. The margin on project cost for fixed asset requirement. under ABL-RH is

a) 20% b) 25% c) 33% d) 40%

10. Pre-payment penalty for loans under ABL-RH if not from internal accruals is .

a) NIL b) 1% of the limit c) 2% of DP limit

d) 2% of the Outstanding

KEY - SBI ABL FOR CRE

1 C 2 C 3 B 4 A 5 B

6 B 7 C 8 C 9 B 10 C

SBI ASSET BACKED LOAN FOR (Commercial real estate)

Commercial projects ( ABL- CRECP) 1.ABL-CRECP the type of loan is ...........

a) Cash Credit b) Working Capital Demand Loan

b) Dropline Overdraft d) All of these

2. Minimum loan amount that may be sanctioned to eligible borrower under ABL-

CRECP is ….................

a) Rs 10.00 Lacs b) Rs >10.00 Lacs c) Rs 25.00 Lacs d) Rs.>25.00 Lacs


CRECP in tier I branches is ……




CRECP in tier – II & III branches is



CRECP for tier iv/ v/ vi Branch is

a) Rs. 2.00 Crores b) Rs.3.00 Crores c) Rs.5.00 Crores d) Rs.10.00 Crores

6. LTV % of Immovable property under ABL-CRECP is-----% of realizable value.

a) 50% b) 60% c) 70% d) 75%

7. Maximum Repayment period under the under ABL-CRECP is ----- Months

a) 48 b) 60 c) 72 d) 84

8. Limits under “SBI Asset Backed Loan for ABL-CRECP can be sanctioned from _

_ Months to _ Months.

a) 12, 96 b) 6, 84 c) 12, 72 d) 6, 96

9. The margin on project cost for fixed asset requirement. under ABL-CRECP is

20% b) 25% c) 33% d) 40%

10. Pre-payment penalty for loans under ABL-RH if not from internal accruals is.

a) NIL b) 1% of the limit c) 2% of DP limit

d) 2% of the Outstanding

KEY - SBI ABL FOR CRE

1 C 2 B 3 A 4 B 5 C

6 A 7 C 8 C 9 B 10 D

CGTMSE 1. For credit guarantee claims of more than…………….., copies of appraisal /

sanction memorandum, sanction letter evincing acceptance by borrower, recall

notice, legal documents are required to be submitted to CGTMSE for detailed

verification.

a) Rs 10.00 Lacs b) Rs 20.00 Lacs

c) Rs 25.00 Lacs d) Rs 50.00 Lacs

2. Guarantee fee for for loan account sanctioned under CGTMSE scheme is to be

paid within …......from the date of “Demand Advice Notice (DAN)” generated by

CGTMSE


a) 15 days ` b) 30 days

c) 45 days d) 60 days

3. Bank is required to lodge claim with CGTMSE in respect of credit facility within a

maximum period of …................... from date of NPA, if NPA is after lock-in period in

respect of the loans covered by CGTMSE 01.04.2018

a) Six months b) One year

c) Three years d)Two years

4. CGTMSE gives credit coverage for the following activities except ?

a) Retail trade b) Manufacturing & service

c) SHG’s & JLG’s d) All of the above

5. Lock in period for lodging claim in CGTMSE is ?

a) 6 months b)12 months

c) 18 months d) 24 months.

KEY – CGTMSE

WEAVER’S CREDIT CARD SCHEME 1. Weaver’s credit card scheme is mooted by

a) The ministry of Textiles b) Department of Financial services

c) Both a & b d) None of these

2. Which of the following Govt. Departments will act as sponsoring / monitoring /

implementing agency for the scheme and will also act as one point contact

a) Commissioner / Director (Handlooms & Textiles) in-charge in the State

Government.

b) Office of the Development Commissioner for Handlooms.

c) Assistant Director, Handlooms or District Industries Centre in the District

concerned.

d) All of these

3. The Weaver’s Credit Card will be issued for an upper limit of up to Rs.__ per

individual weaver.

a) Rs.5 lacs b) Rs.3 lacs c) Rs.2 lacs d) Rs. 1 lac

4. The Weaver’s Credit Card would be valid for __ years

1 B 2 B 3 C 4 C 5 c


a) 2 years b) 3 years c) 5 years d) one year

5. Under Weaver’s credit card scheme, Margin money support by the Govt. of India

to the eligible borrower @20% of the project cost, subject to maximum of Rs.___ per

weaver

a) Rs.4000/- b) Rs.4200/- c) Rs.7200/- d) Rs.10000/-

6. Under Weaver’s credit card scheme, the interest subvention extended by the

Govt. of India is capped at _ % on bank loans

a) 9% b) 7% c) 5% d) 3%

7. The term loan sanctioned under Weaver’s credit card scheme is repayable in _ _

years

a. 2 years b) 3 years c) 5 years d) one year

8. Under Weaver’s credit card scheme, the payment of CGTMSE Guarantee fee and

annual service charges for first 3 years will be paid in advance by

a) the borrower

b) the bank by debiting 50% of such fee from borrowers account

c) the bank

d) The Development Commissioner (Handlooms)

9. The margin for loans up to Rs.25000/- Under Weaver’s credit card Scheme is

a) Nil b) 10% c) 15% d) 20%

10. The margin for loans above Rs.25000/- Under Weaver’s credit card Scheme is

b) Nil b) 10% c) 15% d) 20%

KEY – Weavers’ Credit Card Scheme

CAR LOAN TO SME UNITS 1. What is the minimum CRA rating of unit having exposure of above Rs.50 lacs to

be eligible for SME car loan is?

a) SB 05 b) SB 8 c) SB 10 d) No such condition.

2. What is the maximum loan ceiling under SME car loan for new vehicles?

a) Rs.25 lacs b) Rs.50 lacs c) Rs.100 lacs d) Rs.300 lacs

3. Maximum number of vehicles under SME new car loan?

01 c 02 d 03 c 04 b 05 d

06 b 07 b 08 d 09 a 10 d


a) Only one b) Only 2 c) maximum 3 d) No such limit

4. Maximum loan amount under SME car loan scheme is?

a) 5% of limit b) 10% of limit c) 15% of limit d) No such limitation

5. What is the minimum margin% for SME car loans for loans above Rs.10 lacs?

a) 10% of the on-road price b) 20% of the on road price

c) 15% of the ex-showroom price d) b or c as per customer choice

6. What is the maximum permissible repayment period for SME car loan ?


7. Penal interest for SME car loan is

a) 5% above loan rate b) 4% above loan rate c) 3% above loan rate d) 2% above

loan rate.

8. Processing fees under SME car loan is ?

a) 1% b) 0.75% c) 0.50% d) 0.25%

9. The maximum permissible age of old vehicles for financing under SME car loan

for used vehicles is

a) 5 years b) 6 years c) 3 years d) No old car finance

permissible.

10. Collateral security for SME car loan is?

a) Extension of EM b) 10% c) 20% d) Nil

11. Pre payment penalty in case of SME car loan is ?

a) 1% b) 2% c) 3% d) 4%

12. When SME Car loan is rejected, 25% of processing fee is retained after pre-

sanction subject to minimum of Rs___ & Maximum of Rs____

a) 500 & 2500 b) 100 & 1000 c) 250 & 2500 d) 250 & 5000

KEY – CAR LOAN TO SME UNITS

01 c 02 d 03 d 04 b 05 d

06 b 07 a 08 c 09 d 10 d

11 b 12 a


BANK GUARANTEE & LETTERS OF CREDIT 1. The applicable credit conversion factor (CCF) for Financial Bank Guarantees and

Performance Bank Guarantees are…………….and…………..respectively.

a) 100 per cent; 50 per cent b) 75 per cent; 75 per cent

c) 50 per cent; 100 per cent d) 25 per cent; 25 per cent

2. All Letters of Credit (L/C) to be opened by nominated Banks/Agencies for import of

gold under all categories will be only on …................cash margin basis.

a) 25.00% b) 50.00% c) 75.00% d) 100.00%

3. BG can be issued normally for a period not exceeding…….. without administrative

clearance ?


4. Condition for issuing BG above 10 years is ?

a) Administrative approval b) against 100% cash margin

c) Cant be issued d) Need based.

5. Minimum claim period in case of BG’s is ?

a) 6months b) 12 months c) 18 months d) 24 months

KEY - Bank Guarantee & Letters of Credit

ELECTRONIC VENDOR FINANCING SCHEME (EVFS)

1. The validity period of loans sanctioned under EVFS is…


2. To be eligible under EVFS , the minimum turnover of the IM should be ?

a) Rs.100 crs b) Rs.250 crs c) Rs.500 crs d) No such restrictions

3. The margin required for loans under EVDS is …..

1 A 2 D 3 B 4 B

5 b


a) 10% b) 20% c) Nil d) 25%

4. The minimum collateral security to be obtained for sanction under EVDS is…

a) 50% b) 75% c) 100% d) Nil

5. The document to be obtained for loans sanctioned under EVDS is as per the

documents of

a) C&I b) SME c) As per the Law Dept’s instructions d) Law documents

KEY - eVFS

01 c 02 c 03 c 04 d 05 c

M-DFS -“MORTGAGE DEALER FINANCE SCHEME”

1.Minimum amount of facility that may be sanctioned under “Mortgage Dealer

Finance Scheme” (m-DFS) is..............................

a. Rs 10.00 Lacs b) Rs 25.00 Lacs c) Rs 50.00 Lacs d) Rs 100.00 Lacs

2. Maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under Mortgage Dealer finance

scheme ( M-dfs)

a. Rs 1.00 crore b) Rs 5.00 crore c) Rs 10.00 crore d) Rs 25.00 crore

3. Minimum collateral security required for sanction of loan under m-dfs is

a. 50% b) 75% c) 100% d) 125%

4. Maximum credit period that can be given under M-dfs is …….

a. 30 days b) 60 days c) 90 Days d) 120 days

5. Minimum margin to be maintained for M-dfs is ………

a. Nil b) 10% c) 15% d) 20%

KEY – m-DFS

01 c 02 b 03 B 04 C 05 b

CORPORATE LOAN 1. The minimum loan amount for Corporate Loan is

a. Rs.25 lacs b) Rs.50 lacs c) Rs.100 lacs

d. No such minimum amount specified

2. What is the maximum loan amount under Corporate Loans for Corporates?

a. No upper ceiling b) Rs.10 Crores c) Rs.25 Crores d) Rs.50 Crores

3. The maximum loan amount for Non - Corporates under Corporate Loan?


a) Rs.20 Crores b) Rs.10 Crores c) 5 Crores d) No such limit

4. Maximum repayment that can be allowed for Corporate Loans is….

10 years b) 7 years c) 5 years d) 3 years

5. What is the minimum margin% for corporate loans?

a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) As applicable to term loans

6. Maximum number of corporate loans that a unit can have at a time is

a) 3 loans b) 1 loan c) 2 loans d) 5 loans

7. Maximum number of corporate loan is loan sanctioned for shoring of NWC is?

a) 1 b) 2 c) No restriction d) None of the above

8. External Credit Rating (ECR) is mandatory for exposure above Rs…..


9. Minimum CRA rating to be eligible for Corporate Loan if ECR is available is?

a) SB 6 to SB 10 b) SB 5 to 10 c) SB 1 to 5 d) SB 7 to 10

10. Minimum CRA rating to be eligible for Corporate Loan if ECR not available is?

a) SB 6 to SB 10 b) SB 5 to 10 c) SB 1 to 5 d) SB 7 to 10

KEY – CORPORATE LOAN

01 b 02 a 03 b 04 a 05 d

06 c 07 a 08 d 09 a 10 c

DOCTOR PLUS SCHEME 1. Doctor plus loan can be given to the Doctors practicing

a) Allopathic b) Homeopathy c) Naturopathy d) all

2. Type of facility is

a) Term Loan b) Cash Credit c) both a&b d) Dropline OD

3. Minimum and Maximum loan is

a) Rs.10 lakhs and Rs.5 cr b) Rs.10 lakhs and Rs.10 cr

c) Rs.10 lakhs and Rs.1 cr d) Rs.10 lakhs and no limit

4. Margin amount for the loan is

a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 25%


5. Maximum repayment period of the loan is

a) 5 years

b) 5years including moratorium period of 12 m

c) 7 years including max moratorium period of 6 months

d) 7 years including max moratorium period of 12 months

KEY – DOCTOR PLUS SCHEME

01 a 02 a 03 a 04 b 05 d

SIMPLIFIED SMALL BUSINESS LOANS (SSBL) 1. Type of loan sanctioned can be ……….

a) Term Loan b) Cash Credit

c) Both a and b d) Drop line overdraft

What is the minimum loan amount

a) Rs.5 lakhs b) above Rs.10 lakhs

c) Rs.10 lakhs d) above Rs.5 lakhs

3. What is the maximum loan amount

a)Rs.25 lakhs b) less than Rs.25 lakhs

c) Rs.50 lakhs d) no limit

4. What is the maximum repayment period

a) 12 months to 48 months b)12 months to 60 months

c) 6 months to 48 months d)6 months to 60 months

5. What is the eligibility norms to avail the loan

a) Existing business for at least 5 years in the same location

b) Current Account holder of any bank for at least 2 years

c) Minimum average balance of above Rs.1 lakh in the last 1 year

d) Unit is situated within a radius of 5 KM from the financing Branch

e) All the above

KEY - SSBL

01 d 02 b 03 b 04 b 05 e


“MUDRA e-SMART SCORE ( Financing for e- tailers) 1. Type of loan sanctioned can be ……….

a) Term Loan b) Cash Credit

c) Both a and b d) Drop line overdraft

2. What is the minimum loan amount

a) Rs.1 lakhs b) Rs.2 lakhs

c) Rs.3 lakhs d) Rs.5 lakhs


a) Rs.5 lakhs b) Rs.10 lakhs

c) Rs.20 lakhs d) Rs.50 lakhs

4. Collateral security for loans upto Rs. 10 lacs

a) 50% b) Nil

c) covered under CGFMU c) Covered under CGTMSE

5. Collateral for loans above Rs. 10 lacs

a) CGTMSE cover b) 10%

c) 15% d) 25%

6. Processing charges for loan upto Rs. 5 lacs is.

a) 1% b) 2.5%

c) 2% d) NIL

KEY - e-COMMERCE LOAN

01 b 02 a 03 d 04 c 05 a

06 d

MUDRA LOAN 1. Expand MUDRA

a) Micro and Urban Development Refinancing Agency

b) Metro and Urban Development Refinancing Agency

c) Medium and Underdeveloped Rural Agency


d) Micro Units Development and Refinancing Agency

2. MUDRA was launched on

a) 8th April 2015 b) 8th May 2015 c) 6th April 2015 d) 6th June 2015

3. MUDRA is basically lending to

a) Manufacturing Sector only b) Trading Sector only

c) Services Sector only d) All the above

4. Loan Value Upto Rs.50000 is classified as

a) Sishu b) Kishor c) Tarun d) None of the above

5. Loan Value from Rs.50001 and upto Rs.5 lacs is classified as

a) Sishu b) Kishor c) Tarun d) None of the above

6. Loan Value above Rs.5 lakhs and upto Rs.10 lacs is classified as

a) Sishu b) Kishor

c) Tarun d) None of the above

7. The Circle will report the progress of MUDRA Loans to

a) Government of India b) State Government

c) State Level Bankers Committee d) None of the above

8.Margin amount for loan upto Rs. 5.00 lacs under MUDRA is ?

a)5% b) 10% c) 15% d) NIL

KEY - MUDRA

01 d 02 a 03 d 04 a 05 b

06 c 07 c 8 d

STANDUP INDIA 1. Who are all eligible to avail the loan

a) SC / ST b) Women entrepreneurs

c) Greenfield projects d) All the above

2. What is the minimum loan amount

a) Rs.5 lakhs b) Above Rs.10 lakhs

c) Above Rs.10 lakhs d) Rs.25 lakhs



a) Rs.25 lakhs b) Rs.50 lakhs c) Rs.100 lakhs d) no limit

4. What is the margin

a) NIL b)10% c) 15% d) 20%

5. What is the maximum repayment period

a) 5 years including moratorium period of 12 months

b) 5 years excluding moratorium period of 12 months

c) 7 years including moratorium period of 18 months

d) 7 years excluding moratorium period of 18 months

KEY – STANDUP INDIA

01 d 02 b 03 c 04 b 05 c

E- SME SMART LOAN 1. e- SME Smart loan is available under ... platform ?

a) ALP b) SLP

c) CLP d) PMLP

2.Under CLP in principal sanction is available within …….. min ?

a) 29 min b) 39 min

c) 49 min d) 59 min

3.Minimum & Maximum loan under E- SME smart loan is Rs…… & Rs……… lacs?

a) 10 & 100 b) 10 & 50

c) 5 & 100 d) 5 & 50

4.Collateral security for the E- SME Smart loan is ?

a) 25% b) 50%

c) 100% d) To be covered under CGTMSE

5.Maximum repayment for e- SME smart loan is ?

a) 3 years b) 5 years

c) 7 years d) 10 years

KEY – e sme smart Loan

01 2 02 D 03 A 04 D 05 c


SME ASSIST 1.Facility for under SME Assist is ?

a) CC b) TL c) WCDL d) Drop line OD

2.To be eligible for SME Assist the unit should be rated ….. and better ?

a) SB 8 b) SB 10 c) SB 6 d) SB 7

3.Maximum loan under SME Assist ?

a) 20% of CC limit b) 15% of CC limit

c) 80% of ITC (credit) d) lower of a or c

4.Maximum repayment period under SME Assist is ?

a) 12 months b) 3months c) 06 months

d) a or b depending on option

5.Maximum moratorium period under SME Assist is ?

a) 3 months b) 6 months

c) 9 months d) 12 months

KEY – E SME SMART LOAN

01 c 02 b 03 d 04 d 05 a

ARTHIAS PLUS 1.Facility for under SME Assist is ?

a) CC b) TL c) WCDL d) Drop line OD

2.To be eligible for Arithias plus the unit should have experience of minimum ?

a) 1 year b) 2 years c) 3 years d) 5 years

3. Maximum loan under Arthias plus ?


4.New connections the CRA / CUE rating should be…. And better ?

a) SB 6 b) SB 8 c) SB 5 d) SB 4

5.Collateral security requirement for the scheme is ?

a) 50% b) 100% c) 125% d) 150%

KEY – e sme smart Loan

01 a 02 c 03 d 04 b 05 c


SME LIABILITY PRODUCTS CURRENT ACCOUNT

Features Regular Gold Diamond Platinum

MAB Rs. 10000 Rs. 100000 Rs.500000 Rs.1000000

Free cash

deposit

Rs. 5 lac pm Rs. 25 lac pm Rs.100 lac pm Unlimited

Free cheque

leaves

50 pm 300 pm 700 pm Unlimited free

NEFT / RTGS Normal

charges

Unlimited free Unlimited free Unlimited free

Demand draft Normal

charges

50 free pm Unlimited free Unlimited free

Charges for

non

maintenance

of MAB

Rs.500 + GST Rs.2000 +

GST

Rs.4000 +

GST

Rs.8000 +

GST

Cash deposit

at Non Home

Rs.1 lac/ day Rs.2 lac / day Rs.2 lac / day Rs.2 lac / day

Cash

withdrawal

charges at non

home branch

Free for

unlimited

amount

Free for

unlimited

amount

Free for

unlimited

amount

Free for

unlimited

amount

Cash

withdrawal at

non home

Rs. 1 lacs /

day

Rs. 1 lac / day Rs. 1 lac / day Rs. 1 lac / day

POWER JYOTHI & POWER JYOTHI (PLUS) FEATURES POWER JYOTHI POWER JYOTHI (PLUS)

Purpose To provide fee collection facility for institutions through our core

banking branches

Eligibility Any institution / firm / company, etc., desirous of countrywide

collection of fee/funds from multi location outlets.

Mode of Operation : 1 SINGLE, 2 POWER OF ATTORNEY,3 ALL AC

HOLDERS OR SURVIVORS 4 OTHERS 5 LETTER OF AUTHORITY

Facility Any type of fees / funds like university / college / School fee,

competitive examination fee, funds from dealers/sub dealers/sales

outlets etc can be collected through any of our Branches.

MAB Rs. 50,000/- Rs. 50,000/-

Penalty for Rs.1,000/- + GST Rs.1,000/- + GST


nonmaintenance

Of MAB

Penalty for a/c

closing

Upto 14 days of opening Nil ; After 14 days before 12 months -

Rs.1,000/-+ GST

A/c Keeping

Chs

₹ 550/-+ GST p.a. ₹ 550/-+ GST p.a.

Charges per

transaction

Rs. 60/- + GST per transaction Nil. Cash Handling Charges.

Discretion vested with CGM of the Circle to reduce charges by Rs.

20/- per challan.

Transactions not

permitted

Transactions other than fee collection / fund collection from

suppliers/customers is not permitted in non-home branches Unlimited

- Free

Cheque book

facility

Cheque book facility not available. The Institution can transfer the

required balance through authorization/sweep

Collection –INB Not available Available

Documents

Required

Usual procedure for opening institution accounts to be followed

• Terms and conditions such as adherence to the KYC procedure,

obtaining photograph (wherever necessary) / IT PAN / Form 60

sending of letter of thanks, as applicable to ordinary current account

will be applicable.

Other features Any type of fees like School/

college / university fee, competitive

examination fee etc can be

collected through any of our CBS

Branch. Journal No. (Host Trace

Number) would be entered in the

challan copy given to the remitter.

This number will be appearing in

the statement, and also can be

viewed by the Institution through

statement/CINB.

The Circle would forward the

requirement of individual

corporate/institution, regarding

the details in the field names

(MIS) to BO & S department at

GITC, CBD Belapur for

parameterization, which would

generate a fee type no. and

intimate the Circle. The branch

would, thereafter, open the

Power Jyoti account with

product type 5091-2421.

The Circle would then send the

request to SME Business Unit,

Corporate Centre for issuance

of Circular instructions for

receipt of fees/contributions by

all the branches across the

country.

ARTHIA (Commission Agent) Current Account: Sno Parameters Features

1 Eligibility Non Individual Customers of all segments,

having valid Arthia registration certificate

issued by Agriculture Produce Market


Committee (APMC) or registered under

any law relating to APMC or the

concerned State.

2 MAB Rs. 10000/-

3 Penalty for non maintenance of

Minimum MAB

Rs. 500/- + GST per month

4 Free monthly cash deposit Rs. 15.00 lacs

5 Free cheque leaves 100 cheque leaves per month

6 NEFT / RTGS Normal charges

7 Cash withdrawal limit at home

branch

Free for unlimited amount

8 Maximum cash deposit at non

home branch

Rs. 2 lac per day

9 Cash withdrawal charges at

non home branches

Rs. 1 lac per day ( only self )

10 SMS alerts fees Free

RATIONALES 1. Banks are asked to do Review of NCTL referred accounts?

Rationale. To monitor progress of NCLT referred accounts.

2.Bank has introduced SOP for SWIFT operations of late ?

Rationale. To mitigate risk of unauthorized / erroneous entries through SWIFT

3.Bank has introduced Risk scoring model for loan against property?

Rationale. A separate scoring model for the scheme to assess the inherent risk of

the customer for processing.

4.The bank has relaxed the collateral norms for KCC review / Renewal ?

Rationale. To facilitate Timely review/renewal of KCC entitle farmers to be eligible

for 2% interest subvention and 3% additional interest subvention.

5.OCAS has been withdrawn ?

Rationale. To achieve the objective of customer relationship in true sense and to

avoid duplication of work, it is important that the leads are captured and further

processed in one application i.e. CRM only.

6. Bank has introduced new format for account opening?

Rationale. To have a uniformity in the images being uploaded for second level

scrutiny subsequent to implementation of C-KYC policy.

7.Bank has introduced e-Fx forum ?

Rationale. e-Portal for forex – A knowledge sharing portal for staff.


8.Bank has brought in modification in the authority structure for settling of NRR( Not

readily realizable accounts )?

Rationale. Revised authority structure as after so many years of amalgamation of

these Banks, logic behind classifying NRR accounts as a special category, does not

stand any more.

9.SANJEEIVINI –SBI HR helpline has been launched ?

Rationale. To provide quick and meaningful resolution to the grievances lodged by

our employees on HR matters.

10.Banks to desist from opening of current account of units having loan with other

banks ?

Rationale. To avoid mal practices by the customers by way of diversion of funds

&Self-Regulatory Mechanism while opening of current account by non-lender banks

as suggested by IBA.

11.Bank has stopped affixing of Holograms on IOI instruments and BG’s issued

through SFMS.

Rationale Substantially improved security features and the IOI a/cs being

reconciliatory in nature, affixing of hologram doesn’t offer any extra security in the

present CBS environment.

12. Restriction on number of Layers of Subsidiaries companies ?

Rationale To comply with MCA Guidelines and to safeguard the interest of the Bank.

13. obtention of TIR’S / valuation reports from the empanelled advocates / valuers, at

the location of the properties mortgaged. creation of registered mortgage where the

title is derived from certificate issued by revenue authorities.

Rationale:-To provide more clarity on the procedure of obtention of TIRs /Valuation

Reports.

14. Bank has waived the minimum balance charges for Insta Saving account ?

Rationale:- To give boost to the marketing of this product and thereby increasing

the number of Insta Digital Savings accounts being opened.

15. Bank has revised the policy for computation of Drawing power by deducting the

unpaid stocks form final DP ?

Rationale: To avoid double financing while treating Sundry Creditors and aligning

DP calculation with that of other Banks.

16. Bank has launched customer segmentation initiative?

Rationale :- Customer Segmentation initiative is launched to differentiate customers

based on their value of connection and offer them services according to their

segment. This will also help the Bank to retain as well as acquire high value non

salaried customers who later can be migrated to our ‘SBI Exclusif’ Wealth platform .


17.Bank is promoting INB registration through online Mode ?

Rationale :- Reducing customer complaints arising due to pre log in issues

Promotion of Online Registration for Internet Banking will help the Bank to reduce

costs on printing and dispatch of INB PPK.

18. Bank has mandated perusal of IT returns for compilation of opinion report of the

borrower and guarantors?

Rationale: To have additional due diligence in place to arrive at the net means in

compiling the Opinion Reports.

19. Administrative approval for issue of BG above 18 months to 120 months has

been modified by bank?

Rationale: Introduction of two-level authority structures for Period Angle Clearance

and Monthly Report (by listing) for control, for ease of doing business.

20.Bank has decided that the Operating Units need not insist on the RL/ LR from IBA

approved transport Operators for the purpose of discounting/ negotiation of bills

under inland/ Export Letter of Credit?

Rationale: To tap the business potential as also to realign the SOP in the light of

introduction of GST/ GST Invoices/ proposed roll out of e-way bill.

21.Bank has introduced CIBIL MSE ranking (CMR) for loans > Rs.10 lacs to

Rs.50.00 lacs ?

Rationale :- in view, increase in the number of borrowers, NPAs and to ascertain the

Credit Risk involved at the time of processing customer’s loan request, as a risk

mitigating tool.

22. Bank has decided that all unpaid stocks financed through Sundry Creditors/

Usance Letter of Credit/Buyers Credit/ Letter of Comfort are to be deducted from the

market value of stocks in all the cases ?

Rationale: To avoid double financing while treating Sundry Creditors and aligning

DP calculation with that of other Banks.

23.Bank has revised the interchangeability clause between FB & NFB limits ?

Rationale: a. To introduce ECR criteria for Interchangeability in Limits

b. To revise authority structure for such approvals

24. In respect of Partnership firms and Sole Proprietary concerns, an independent

confirmation to be obtained from the Chartered Accounts concerned with regard to

certification of financials directly by e-mail/ fax.

Rationale: Exercising due diligence before sanction of credit facilities.

25. Bank has increased the frequency of review of NPA accounts for identification of

willful defaulters ?


Rationale: Compliance of RBI’s observation on identification of instances of willful

default.

26. Verfication of possession details to be included in Annexure F of TIR?

Rationale: To ensure proper recording of identification and physical verification of

Primary/ Collateral Security.

27. Bank has come up with instructions regarding creation of EM using certified copy

and laminated copy of title deeds.

Rationale:-To provide clarification on creation of Mortgage based on Certified copies

of Title deeds and Laminated Original Title deeds.

28. Bank has revised the time norms for submission of compliance remarks for RFIA.

Rationale: To improve the quality of compliance remarks and to avoid delays in

closure of audit reports.

29. Dispensing with No Due certificate (NDC) for agriculture lending.

Rationale: to ensure hassle free credit to all borrowers, in rural and semi-urban

areas and keeping in view the technological developments and various alternatives

available with banks to avoid multiple financing, RBI have advised Banks to dispense

with obtaining ‘NDC’ from individual borrowers (including SHGs & JLGs) in rural and

semi urban areas for all types of loans including loans under Government

SponsoredSchemes (GSS), irrespective of the amount involved

30.Bank has reduced the frequency of changing the ATM vault passwords .

Rationale: It is thought that the periodicity of changing the password may be

reduced to have an effective control over the functioning of the cash replenishment

system in ATMs.

31.Bank has revised the norms for updating of opinion reports .

Rationale : To introduce the standardized opinion report formats and revise the

guidelines for compilation and updating of opinion reports.

FOR AND AGAINST QUESTIONS 1. Implementation of GST is a boon or bane?

For: GST is a revolutionary change in the taxation system in India. It has improved

the tax collection by preventing tax evasion . Implementation of GST was one of the

reason for improvement in global ranking in terms of ease of doing business.

Against : The procedures involved in filing of returns are very cumbersome causing

hardships to business entities especially export oriented entities . There is

disagreement in tax sharing between state and central governments .

2.CLP ( Contactless lending platform ) is a boon or bane for MSME sector?


For : It is an effective initiative of the central government which would enable the

business persons to apply for loans easily with the banks as per their choice and get

in principal approval of the loans.

Against: The process involved is cumbersome and requires some technical skills for

applying the loan . It has the risk of miscreants accessing banking channel for

availing loan.

3. Priority Sector lendings are eroding commercial banks' profitability and hence they

should be discontinued.

For: Substantial portion of the banks' funds are locked up as bad and doubtful

debts in the advances to Priority Sectors. Further, these are cost-intensive and

consume staff-time considerably.

Against: In a capital-scarce/labour-abundant developing economy like ours small

enterprises like small indus-tries, small service units, small businesses, small

agriculturists dominate the economic scene. National economic development means

naturally the development of these groups.

4. The name of bank defaulters should be publicized.

For: This will ensure that the Banks/FIs do not lend to the defaulters/their associates

etc. This will act as a deterrent to the willful defaulters.

Against: Defaults take place due to genuine reasons like competition, change in

Govt. policy etc also. Sick units which can be rehabilitated will be affected as their

credit would be damaged by any such adverse publicity. The banking secrecy laws

have to be amended.

5.Banks are exposed to Prompt corrective action ( PCA ) ?

For : It is mandate of RBI as part of Asset quality review to assess the quality of

assets of commercial banks and to bring to light hidden stressed assets. It would

enable the banks devise recovery strategies at the earliest when scope of recovery

is more .

Against : PCA imposes certain restrictions on banks which would lead to a vicious

cycle further aggravating the already stressed banks and the banks would be

exposed to reputation loss and a sense of uncertainty in the minds of investors and

depositors.


SME ASSET PRODUCTS

Sl

No.

Name of

the

product

Nature

of

Loan

Validity Min Max Min

Score

Repayment

&

Collateral

Special features

1 Artisan

Credit

Card

Cash

Credit

12

months

NIL 2 lacs 60 3 Years

CGTMSE

Registered with

Development

commissioner

Eligible for

subsidy.

2 SME

Credit

Card

Cash

credit /

TL

3 Years Nil 10

lacs

60 5 Years

CGTMSE

1.Submission of

stock statements

Only last quarter

(Feb).

2.If credit

summations

below

50% WCDL

3 SME

Smart

score

Cash

credit /

TL

2 years 5 lacs 50

lacs

60 5 Years

CGTMSE

1.Age of

promoter : 18-65

years

2.Min : 50%

score under each

Parameter

4 SME

Credit Plus

Cash

credit

12

months

Nil 25

lacs

NA Extension

of mortgage

if any

1.Limit is 20% of

WC limits

2.CRA to be SB

9 or better.

3.ROI equal to

CC.

4. No cheque

books.

5.The facility to

repaid in 2

months And

availed after 15

days.

5 Stand by

Line of

credit

Cash

credit

12

months

Nil 20

crores

NA Extension

of mortgage

if any

1.Limit is 15% of

WC limits

2.CRA to be SB

10 or better.

3.ROI 1 % above

CC.

4. No cheque

books.


5.The facility to

repaid in 3

months And

availed again.

6 SME

Collateral

free loans(

SMECFL)

Cash

credit /

TL

/NFB

12

months

5 lacs 100

lacs

NA 7 years

CGTMSE

1. Loans upto 5

lacs: as micro

Loans.

2.Stock

statements :

Upto 25 lacs-

quarterly

Above 25 lacs –

Monthly

7 Open term

loan

Term

loan

NA 20% of limit

sanctioned

Max:

Rs.800.00 lacs

For creation of

Tangible

assets

& 200 .00 lacs

In tangible

assets

5 years ,

may

Be

extended

Upto 7

years

1.Limit will be

20% of limit

sanctioned

2.Borrower with

CRA SB 06 and

ECR BBB and

above.

3.A/c not slipped

into SMA 02

during Last 12

months.

3.For unit more

than 5 years

CRA

Upto SB 08 and

ECR BB and

above

8 SBI fleet

finance

Term

loan

NA 50

lacs

10 crs 60 Max: 5

years

1.The feel size

should be min

10.

2.Disbursement

multiple times

As per need

within 6 months

of

Sanction.

3. Inspections

quarterly

intervals.

9 Weavers

credit card

Cash

credit

/TL

3 years Nil 2 lacs 60 CGTMSE 1.Registered

weavers are

eligible

For subsidy and


CGTMSE fees.

10 Doctors

plus

Term

loan

NA 10

lacs

5

crores

Nil 7 years

Upto 2 crs:

CGTMSE

> 2 crs :

25%

collateral

1.Units to be

rated SB 09 and

above

2.Min. DSCR

should be 1.5:1

3.Unit inspection:

HY/ Yearly

11 Simplified

small

business

loan(SSBL

)

Drop

line

OD

NA > 10

lacs

25

lacs

12 to 60

months

Min: 40%

collaeral

1.The unit should

be in existence

for Min . 5 years

and premises

own.

2.within 5 km

from branch.

3.CA holders of

any bank for 2

years.

4.Min. Average

balance 1.00 lacs

5.Loan amount=

10* Ave balance

In then past 12

months.

6. Inspections :

Quarterly.

12 E-

commerce

loan

Cash

Credit

12

months

1 lacs 25

lacs

NA Nil. But

concession

in interest

Upto 1% for

min. 25%

collateral

1.Limits are

sanctioned

centrally by

CC.

2. Limit is 3

months average

net sales.

3. Inspection:

upto 10 lacs:

Yearly

Above 10 lacs :

Quarterly.

4.Stock

statements :

quarterly.

13 Asset

backed

Loan (

ABL)

Drop

line

OD/

CC

NA 10

lacs

20 crs NA Upto 240

months

LTV : upto

60%

collateral

1. Quarterly

operating

statement

2. Inspections

half yearly.


3. Property

SARFAESI

compliant.

4. Property within

25 km radius

14 ABL- RH (

Residential

Housing)

Drop

line

OD/

CC

NA 50

lacs

100

crs

NA 84 months

LTV: upto

60% of

collateral

1.Loan

sanctioned Min.

12 to 84 mts.

2. Pre payment

penalty 2% of DP

.

15 ABL –

CRECP

Drop

line

OD/

CC

NA >10

lacs

Tier

I:50.0

0

Crore

s

Tier II

/ Iii:

20.00

crs

Tier

iii/iv:

5.00cr

s

NA 72 months

LTV : upto

50%

collateral

1.Loan

sanctioned Min.

12 to 72 mts.

2. Pre payment

penalty 2% of o/s

.

16 Constructi

on

equipment

Loans

Term

loan/

Drop

line

OD

NA 25

lacs

10

crores

NA 5 years

Min : 25%

collateral

required

1. Units SB 09

and above.

2.Gross DSCR:

Min 1.25 last

year.

3.CIR score Min:

680 and above.

4.Multiple

disbursals upto 6

months.

5.Margin:

10% with

collateral

15% covered

under CGTMSE

17 MUDRA

LOAN

Cash

credit /

TL

Depend

s upon

the

scheme

NIL Sishu:

0 to

Rs.

50000

Kishor

e:

Rs.

Depe

nds

upon

the

sche

me

3-5 years

CGTMSE

1.Central

government

guarantee .

2.specific product

codes to be

used.

3.Mudra rupay


50001

to

Rs.5.0

0 lacs

Tarun:

Rs.

50000

1 to

Rs.

10.00

lacs

card for eligible

accounts.

18 Stand up

India (

SUI)

CC/ TL CC: 12

months

>10

lacs

100

lacs

NA 7 years

max:

Moratorium

18 months

CGSUI

1.Setting up of

green field

projects only.

2.Combined

charges: 0.20%

of loan.

3.Inspections :

Quarterly.

19 M-dfs CC 12

months

50

lacs

10 crs NA Min: 75%

tangible

security

1.Electronic

platform only

2.Credit period

90 days.

3.Quarterly stock

statements

4. Margin: 10%

20 Commodit

y Backed

Warehous

e

Receipt

(WHR)

finance

CC/

WCDL

/ RDL

12

months

Nil Need

based

NA CC : on

demand

WCDL: 12

months

RDL: 12

months

1.Unified charges

Processing

fees/Inspection /

Facility fees.

2.Inspection

quarterly.

3.No stock

statements.

4.security value

based on MP of

stocks


LOAN POLICY GUIDELINES 2019-20 PREAMBLE

It’s a broad framework for sanction of loans / Monitoring and follow up of credit risk.

The policy is applicable for domestic as well as overseas exposures.

The policy is reviewed once in a financial year and approved by ECCB.

ORGANISATION OF BUSINESS BUSINESS VERTICALS:

1.Retail & Digital banking (R & DB Group) : The group will handle all loans in PER

segment and Upto 50 crores in AGRI & SME segment .( Exceptions : Bill

discounting / e-dfs / ABL / WHR )

2.Commercial Client group (CCG):- Loan portfolio with exposure of > Rs.50.00

crores

3. Corporate accounts group (CAG):- Loan accounts above Rs. 50.00 crores and

having ECR of AA / AAA rated are handled by this group.

4.Project finance Strategic Business Unit (PFSBU) : These are specialized outfits for

processing of long term loans. The Project cost is the only criterion for referring the

proposals to PFSBU.

5. International Banking Group (IBG): This vertical plays and important role in

facilitating international trade.

6. Stressed assets resolution group (SARG): Specialized outfit for handling NPA

including SMA 2 accounts .

DUE DILIGENCE

Proper selection of customers is the primary reason for the asset quality. The Loan

policy guidelines suggest the following due diligence which needs to be followed

while processing of credit proposals.

Bank's approach in granting credit facilities to companies whose directors are in the

Defaulters' List of RBI / Credit Information Companies/SEBI Banned list / CRILC/

Central Fraud Registry of RBI is also to be taken care of.

Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) has been made mandatory by RBI for the Borrowers

having total fund based and non-fund based exposure of Rs. 5 Cr and above.

The approach for obtention of CIR on group companies shall be as follows:

a. CIR shall be mandatory for all Borrowing group concern of the unit.

b. CIR shall also be mandatory for Non-Borrowing Group concern where turnover is

Rs. 100 Cr


c. In all other cases, the waiver, if any required shall be given by Branch Head/

Controller not below DGM.

Financial due diligence:

Authenticity of the documents/ reports/ certificates etc. issued by Chartered

Accountants is to be verified from the link https://udin.icai.org with UDIN and key field

provided by the certifying Chartered Accountants. (UDIN – Unique document

identification Number)

Willful defaulters

Not repaying loans despite having the capacity to repay.

Diversion of funds.

Siphoning of funds.

Alienation of FA/ Collateral properties without bank’s knowledge.

Threshold for classifying as willful defaulters: Rs.25.00 lacs and above.

Non-cooperative borrower

Defaulting timely repayment of dues despite having capacity.

Thwarting banks efforts for recovery.

Denying access to the assets financed / collateral security mortgaged.

OTHERS

Sanction of credit facilities to directors / relatives of directors amounting to Rs.25.00

lacs and above must be approved by ECCB.

Loans sanctioned to senior management officers must be reported to board.

Loans sanctioned to relatives of senior officers must be sanctioned by authority one

step higher than the sanctioning authority.

RESTRICTIONS ON SANCTION OF LOANS:

Loans and advances cannot be sanctioned for the following reasons/ purposes.

Speculation.

Loan against Fixed deposits of other banks.

Loans against own shares.

Loan to Directors of banks.


TAKE OVER NORMS

CRA requirements

Exposure level

Rs.25 lacs to <10crs CRA SB 07 and better

Rs.10 crs to Rs.50 crs ECR not available :

CRA SB 07 and better, Min . 75% collateral security must.

ECR available:-

CRA SB 09 or better and ECR should be BBB or better.

>Rs.50crs ECR not available :

CRA SB 05 and better.

ECR available:-

CRA SB 09 or better and ECR should be BBB + or better.

Where ever credit rating agency is changed, ECR to be obtained from two rating

agencies and lower of the two ratings is to be considered.

2. The account should not have slipped into SMA 02 or NPA.

3. Perfection of security should be completed within 90 days of disbursement.

4.Take over with enhancement: - Upto 1 crore – 30%.

Above 1 crore- 15% or 30 lacs whichever is high.

5.The unit should have made profits in the preceding two years (1 year for Infra

projects)

6. No dilution in security.

7. Incomplete term loan projects not eligible for takeover.

8.Residual repayment period in case of term loans should be minimum of 2 years.

9.The unit should be in commercial operations for a minimum of 2 years (1 year in

case of infra structure projects)

10.Take over norms are applicable upto 3 months of closure of the accounts with the

existing banker.

Exempted list:-

• Public sector undertakings (PSUs) under central government.

• Loans under PER segment.

• Schematic lending such as LRD / ABL/ ABL (CRE) & e-DFS.

Agricultural segment:-

Nature of facility Amount

ACC Rs. 1 lac minimum

ATL- for allied activities Rs. 10.00 lac

ATL for other than allied Rs. 2.00 lacs


The maximum amount eligible for takeover would be Rs. 2.00 cores .

Additional take over norms for AGL segment above Rs.25.00 lacs:-

CRA SB-7 or better ( Min.60% under financial parameter )

Profit post tax each of the immediately preceding 2 years.

*Taken over advances above Rs.5.00 crores has to be subject to review after 6

months of full disbursement.

*SAR Audit to be done before disbursement for limits above Rs.5.00 crores.

Exposure norms

Exposure includes both credit ( FB & NFB ) and investments

Nature of borrower /

exposure

Cap on exposure (prudential norms)

Single borrower 20% of banks Tier I capital , plus additional 5% for credit to

infrastructure.

Exposure on single

NBFC

15% of Tier I capital funds , plus additional 5% for credit to

infrastructure.

Exposure to

infrastructure

15% of banks capital funds.

Aggregate exposure to

the capital markets

40% of banks net worth

Factoring services 10% of banks total advances

Group of borrowers 25% of banks Tier I capital funds, plus additional 10% for

credit to infrastructure.

Large borrowers 10% of capital funds.

Constitution Maximum ceiling

Individual as borrower Maximum aggregate of Rs.50.00 crores, for ship breaking

industries Rs. 100.00 crores.

Non-corporate Maximum aggregate exposure Rs.100.00 cores.

Renewable energy: Rs.50.00 crs

Ship breaking: Rs.200.00 crs

Corporate’s As per prudential norms.

Subsidiary company: -A company holding more than 51% share in another company.

Associate company: A company holding > 20% but below 50% stake in another

company.

Exemptions:

* The above norms do not apply to sharing of exposure on Central Government

PSUs and borrowal units with ECR of AAA.


Non-corporate will include: Partnerships, Trusts, JHFs, Associations and REIT

(Real Estate

Investment Trust) if not listed on stock exchange.

Corporate will include: Companies, Societies, REIT if listed on stock exchange, Govt.

Departments, Institutions and Statutory Corporations and Limited Liability

Partnerships (LLP).

Substantial exposure limit: -

With a view to mitigate credit concentration risk, the Bank has fixed substantial

exposure limits on ‘Single Borrower’ and ‘Group’ within the regulatory prudential

exposure norms.

Types of Substantial Exposure Stipulation

Aggregate of Substantial Exposures to

Single Borrowers

300% of Tier I capital

Aggregate of Substantial Exposures to

Single Borrowers and Borrower Groups

600% of Tier I capital

Large Borrowers 10% of tier I capital

Internal prudential exposure limits (IPEL):

It is based on internal rating CRA of the unit and Portfolio quality index (PQI), it is

higher for better rated units and lower for lowly rated units.

Unsecured exposure: Should not be above 25% of total exposure. Unsecured ab

initio means the realizable value of the tangible assets should not be more than 10%.

Term loan exposure: Should not exceed 40% of the bank’s total advances. Maximum

tenure is 10 years with certain exemptions.

Non fund exposure: Should not exceed 100% of fund based exposure.

Performance / Financial analysis of credit risk

Balance sheet: should be obtained every year and internal rating should be carried

out. If Audited balance sheet is more than 9 months old, provisional balance sheet

should be obtained.

Renewal of CC accounts should be done every year, if full renewal is not possible

extension can be done for a period of 6 months further extended for a period of 3

months. Above this full renewal has to be done. Term loans are subject to be

reviewed every year.

For Renewal of CC account the age of balance sheet based on which renewal is

proposed is


Listed companies – 15 months

Un listed companies – 18 months.

Internal rating is done for unit having an exposure of above Rs.50.00 lacs, for below

50.00 lacs scoring model is used.

CRA (Credit Risk Assessment )

1.Applicable for all advances of Rs.50.00 lacs and above.

2. Simplified model – Upto Rs. 5.00 crs only borrower rating done.

Regular model - above Rs.5.00 crs both borrower and facility rating done.

3.Dynamic CRA review without trigger for limits above Rs.500 crores.

4.Dynamic CRA review with trigger for limits Rs.10.00 crs to Rs.500.00 crores.

5.No new connections / enhancements for units rated SB 10 and above.

6.CRA review upto SB 10- annually, below that half yearly.

EXTERNAL CREDIT RATING ( ECR)

Mandatory only for unit having exposure of above Rs.50.00 crores and above.

(exemptions are there)

At present there are seven (7) ECR Agencies namely CARE, CRISIL, India Ratings

and Research Private Limited (India Ratings), ICRA, Brickwork, SMERA and

INFOMERICS are accredited by RBI for the purpose of risk weighting the Bank’s

claim for computation of Capital adequacy.

ASSESSMENT OF CREDIT FACILITIES Working capital assessment:

a. Projected annual turnover method (Nayaka committee method): for limits upto

Rs.5.00 crores.

b. Projected balance sheet method (PBS): for exposure above Rs. 5.00 crores

c. Cash budget method : For seasonal industry.

Loan appraisal :- ( Project Vivek)

1.SME loans from Rs. 25.00 lacs to Rs.50.00 lacs LOS.

2.>Rs.50.00 lacs upto Rs.5.00 crores in LLMS.

3. From balance sheet financing to cash flow-based assessment of Working capital.

4. PACE (Package for accurate/ convenient / efficient recasting) for arriving at the

actual cash flows by netting off the non-trade transactions.

5. CUE (Credit underwriting engine) rating – based on assessing the probability of

default ( PD).


Term loans:

1.The maximum tenor of the loans can be upto 20 years, with exceptions like HTL

and ETL where it can be upto 30 years.

2.The average Maturity period of term loans should not exceed 10 years.

Non-fund-based assessment:

Letter of Credit (LC):

1.Cash budget of the unit must be analyzed to ensure that the retirement of LC will

happen promptly.

2.LC’s can be sanctioned for purchase of raw material and CAPEX. It should be

ensured that Letter of credits are within the working capital cycle of the unit.

Bank Guarantees(BG):

1.BG’s can be given for a maximum period of 18 months.

2.BG’s above 18 months can be issued after obtaining period angle clearance.

3.BG’s above 10 years can be issued only against 100% cash margin.

Security / Insurance / Covenants and documents

Primary: The asset created out of banks funding.

collateral security: Additional security offered to secure the advance or loan.

SME loans upto Rs.10.00 lacs no need for collateral security.

CGTMSE coverage upto Rs.200.00 lacs.

Agriculture segment collateral waiver is done upto Rs.1.00 lacs general cases and

upto Rs.1.60 lacs in case of renewal and upto Rs.3.00 lacs for contract farming.

PRICING

Pricing of loans is based on two important factors

Profitability of the lending

Risk inherent in the transaction.

Marginal cost of Lending Rate (MCLR):

The rate is fixed based on the following factors:

Marginal cost of funds

Negative carry over for CRR

Overheads

Tenor Premium


Reset clause: In case of Cash Credit accounts MCLR is reset after one year or at the

time of renewal of the account, whichever is earlier; whereas in case of Term Loans

the reset of MCLR is applicable only after one year from the date of first

disbursement.

External Benchmark Linked Rate (EBLR):

The rate of interest is linked to the external bench mark ( Repo Rate) , the factors

which decide the final rate would be :

a.Repo Rate

b. Spread

c. Credit Risk premium.

FOLLOW UP SUPERVISION AND MONITORING a) Early review of sanction (ERS- Small loans) – above 100 lacs to Rs.20.00

crs.(ESR)

b) Early review of sanction (ERS- Large loans) – Above 20 crores. (LRM)

c) Legal audit: For loans Rs. 5.00 crores and above.

d) Credit audit: For exposure of Rs. 20.00 crores and above.

e) Stock audit: For exposure of Rs.10.00 crores and above, for SS assets above

Rs.5.00 crores

f) CRILIC: - Advances of Rs.5.00 crores and above in NPA and SMA category are to

be reported to RBI

g) EWS: (Early warning System) : Applicable for loans above Rs.1.00 crores and

above . It is a trigger mechanism which projects the delinquencies in the account at

the incipient stages.

DELEGATION OF FINANCIAL POWERS No credit facility can be extended to any borrower unless duly sanctioned by the

designated sanctioning authority/committee. All loans and advances in the Bank are

to be sanctioned by the designated sanctioning authority

The three significant principles around which the scheme of delegation of financial

powers revolves are:

i) powers are exercisable only in relation to the duties and responsibilities specially

entrusted to a functionary; ii) all sanctions are subject to report to the next higher

authority; iii) No sanction/approval should be given beyond the delegated powers

IRAC NORMS 1. Irregularity for more than 90 days an account is classified as NPA.

2.For CC/ OD accounts the term out of order is used:-

a. If the O/s in the account exceeds the limit sanctioned or DP.


b. If no credit in the account for 90 days

c. If credits not equal to debits

Norms for agriculture:

a. Long term crop the account becomes NPA after one crop season after due date.

b. For short term crops the account becomes NPA after two crop season after due

date.

Risk grade Days of delinquency Provisioning norms

0 – Standard 0-6 days Agriculture & SME – 0.25%

CRE (Housing projects) – 0.75%

CRE (Commercial) – 1.00 %

Others – 0.40%

1 – standard 7-29 days

2 – Standard 30-59 days

3 – Standard 60- 89 days

4 – Substandard 90 to 1 year Secured portion Unsecured portion

15.00% 25.00%

5 – doubtful (D1) 2 years 25.00% 100.00%

provisioning on

the unsecured

portion

6 – doubtful (D2) 4 years 40.00%

7 – doubtful (D3) 4-5 years 100.00%

8 – Loss Above 5 years 100% provisioning achieved.

SMA CLASSIFICATION:

SMA category Days of delinquency

SMA 0 1-30 days

SMA 1 31-60 days

SMA 2 61-90 days

*Stock and receivable audit for an NPA account with exposure above Rs.5.00 crores

have to be done annually.

Restructuring:

The proposal should be financially viable.

The borrower should not be willful defaulter.

Steps:

The account will be classified as sub standard immediately

Additional provisioning for the first 2 years of up gradation.

Specified period: Min.20% of the principal and interest paid and 1 year after

commencement of repayment.

E- auction:


Third party treaty can be done only after one failed attempt upto 1 crore and two

attempts for value of property above 1 crores.

INSOLVENCY & BANKRUPTCY CODE (IBC-2016) *The code outlines separate insolvency resolution processes for individuals /

corporate and non corporate .

*Can be initiated either by the creditor or the debtor.

*Two tribunals : For corporate and LLP’s – NCLT , for non corporate and individuals-

DRT.

*Unit files with NCTL / DRT- accept or reject within 14 days. If accepted the tribunal

appoints insolvency resolution professionals ( IRP) who perform the corporate

insolvency resolution process ( CIRP) , who control the assets of the customer

during the process .

*Maximum time is 180 days (grace 90 days) corporate. In case of others its is 90

days (grace period 45 days).

*IRP finds an amicable plan for settlement, if insolvency process fails --- liquidation

of the company.

SAFAESI ACT -2002: Eligibility:

1.The account should be classified as NPA in the books of the bank.

2.The property should not be an agricultural property.

3.The amount of default should be minimum of Rs.1.00 lacs.

4.The repaid principal amount should be less than 80% of the sanctioned limit.

Steps:

13(2) Notice: Demand notice to borrower/ guarantor / mortgagor for payment of the

loan within 60 days.

13(4) Notice : Possession notice

Within 7 days of taking possession, publication in two leading newspaper one in

English and another in vernacular language should be published.

Approval of reserve price for the property & e- auction of property.

After successful e-auction sale certificate to be issued to the purchaser.


GOVERNMENT BUSINESS 1. Which are the following are government schemes

a. PPF b. SSA c. SCSS 2004 d. all the above

2. This amount is transferred to RBI within prescribed time period ______ days as

applicable to local/ outstation/ difficult Centre branches.

a. 5/7/12 b. 3/5/12 c. 3/7/12 d. 3/5/7

3. Commission received for physical receipt

a. Rs 10 b. Rs 50 c. Rs 40 d. Rs 100

4. Commission received for e-receipt

a. Rs 9 b. Rs 12 c. Rs 50 d. Rs 100

5. In respect of state government transactions settlement for local and outstation

transactions takes place in ____ and ____ days

a. 5 and 7 b. 3 and 5 c. 1 and 3 d. 3 and 4

6. What is the interest rate for delayed payment

a. Bank rate b. Bank rate +1% c. Bank rate + 2% d. Bank rate + 3%

7. Dealing branches/L.B. will share the commission in the ratio of

a. 50/50 b. 25/75 c. 75/25 d. 70/30

8. The balance in the State Govt. A/c should be transferred to the FSLO on

a. 30th june b. 30th September c. 31st December d. 31st march

9. Which of the following is not a direct tax

a. Corporation tax b. Income tax c. wealth tax d. GST

10. The challan number for advance tax

a. ITNS 280 b. ITNS 281 c. ITNS 282 d. ITNS 283

11. BSR code of branch is _____ digits

a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9

12. CIN in government business means

a. Challan Identification Number b. Company identification number

c. Corporate identification number d. City identification number

13. PAN has how many digits

a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14

14. In GST challan amount should not exceed


a. 5000 b. 10000 c.15000 d. 20000

15. In PPF what is the minimum amount of subscription per year

a. 250 b. 500 c. 1000 d. 2000

16. What is the original duration of PPF


17. An individual can open how many PPF account

a. 1 b.2 c. 3 d. no such limitation

18. In SSA what is the minimum amount of subscription per year

a. 250 b. 500 c. 1000 d. 2000

19. What is the penalty for non-payment of minimum amount per year

a. 25 b. 50 c.75 d. 100

20. For opening SCSS 2004, what is the minimum age in normal cases

a.55 b. 60 c. 65 d. 70

21. In SCSS 2004 the total amount of investment should not exceed

a. 10 lakhs b. 15 lakhs c. 20 lakhs d. 25 lakhs

22. In SCSS 2004 , interest compounding is done at what frequency

a. quarterly b. half yearly

c. Interest compounding not permitted d. annually

23. Who decides rate of interest for deposits under SCSS, 2004?

a. RBI b. MoF, GOI

c. Decided by individual Bank's Board d. None of these

24. Who are ineligible to open deposits under SCSS, 2004?

a. Non Individuals b. Non Resident Indian

c. Hindu Undivided Family d. All of these

25. What is the form to be used for payment / pre-mature closure of deposit under

SCSS, 2004?

a. Form A b. Form B c.Form C d. Form E

26. Who are not eligible to open PPF account?

a. HUF b. NRI c. Trust d. all the above

27. Which of the following is not an indirect tax

a. GST b. service tax c. excise duty d. TDS


28.What is expansion of EASIEST

a. Electronic Accounting System in Excise and Service Tax

b. Electronic Accounting Standards in Excise and Service Tax

c. Electronic Accounting Services in Excise and Service Tax


29. Sukanya Samriddhi Account is for girls who are below

a. 2 yrs b. 10 yrs c. 3 yrs d. 5 yrs

30. Expand GBSS

a. Government Business Software Solution

b. Government Business Software System

c. Government Business System Software

d. Government Business Software Solutions

31. Which of the following is a govt payment transaction

a. Govt bills b. govt cheques c. ITRO d. all the above

32. For govt cheques, the CTS scanned image should be retained for a period of


33.On a govt bill Drawing officer should sign

a.1 time b. 2 times c. 3 times d. 4 times

34. Commission for ITRO payment

a. 6.50 p per Rs 100 b. 5.50 p per Rs.100

c. 6.00 p per Rs.100 d. 10 p per Rs.100

35. Sharing of commission between banks in the ratio

a. 80/20 b.70/30 c.60/40 d. 75/25

36. Commission for pension payment if end-to-end work done

a. Rs 75 per txn b. Rs.50 per txn c. Rs.65 per txn d.Rs.55 per txn

37. For govt cheque of amount more than ______ two signatures are required

a. Rs.5 lacs b.Rs.1 lac c.Rs.25 lac d. Rs. 10 lacs

38. Overdraft under PMJDY A/c is for a period of

a. 36 months b.12 months c. 24 months d. 60 months

39. Minimum and Maximum pension payable under APY

a. Rs.1000/- to Rs.5000/- b. Rs.500/- to Rs.3000/-

c. Rs. 500/- to Rs.5000/- d. Rs.750/- to Rs.10000/-


40. Maximum deposit under Senior citizen savings scheme

a. Rs.1000000/- b. Rs.500000/- c. Rs.1500000/- d.No such limit

41. Withdrawal in Sukanya Samriddhi Account is permitted after the girl child attains

a. 18 years b. 21 years c. 16 years d.None of the above

42. Who among the following cannot open under Senior Citizen Savings Scheme

a. NRI b.HUF c. Only A d. Both A & B

43. The maturity period of Senior Citizen Savings Scheme is?

a. 5 years b. 3 years c. 7 years d.10 years

44. Form No to be submitted at the time of opening of SCSS?

a. A b. B c. F d. E

45. Form No to be submitted at the time of Renewal of SCSS?

a. A b. B c.F d. E

46. Form No to be submitted at the time of claim under SCSS?

a. A b. B c. F d. E

47. Form No to be submitted at the time of premature closure under SCSS?

a. A b. B c. F d. E

48. Penalty for delayed settlement of central government receipt other than schemes

of Ministry of Finance?

a.8% b. 9% c. 7% d. 10%

49. Penalty for delayed settlement for Ministry of Finance Schemes like PPF and

SCSS? (upto 30 days and beyond 30 days)

a.0.5 and 1 percent sb. 0.75 and 1 percent

c. 0.25 and 0.75 percent d. 0.25 and 0.50 percent

50. How many times PPF account can be extended after completion of 15 years?

a. Block of 5 any number of times b. Block of 5 and 2 times

c. Block of 5 and 3 of times d. Block of 5 and only one time


ANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

d b c a b c c b d a

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

c a b b b b a a b b

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

b c b d d d d a b d

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

d b c a d a d a a c

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

a d a a b c d a a a


TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS

ATM, CDM, ADWM, GCC, GRC

1. What is a White label ATM?

a. It is an ATM owned and operated by third parties (not being a Bank) and the

operators gets usage charges from the Bank, whose customers utilise the services

of the ATM

b. It is the new type of white colour ATM supplied by NCR Corporation

c. It is the ATM owned and operated by Reserve Bank of India

d. It is the ATM run by National Dairy Development Board (NDDB)

2. What is the amount prescribed by RBI the Net worth for the non-banking entities

who will set up, own and operate White label ATMs?

a. Rs. 200 Crores b. Rs. 100 Crores c. Rs. 50 Crores d. Rs. 250 Crores

3. What is the insurance coverage available to Platinum International ATM card for

Platinum account holders under PAI (death) cover?


4. What is the insurance coverage available to VISA Signature card for Wealth

Savings Bank account holders under PAI (death) cover?


5. What is the eligibility criteria for Wealth clients?

a. Total relationship Value (TRV) for Existing to Bank (ETB) customers Rs. 30 Lakhs

or more & New to Bank (NTB) customers TRV on boarding Rs. 10 Lakhs and within

one-year TRV to be increased to Rs. 30 Lakhs or more.

b. Customers having a home loan sanction limit of Rs. 1 Crore or more.

c. The customers having a net salary credit of Rs. 2 lakhs and above.

d. Any one of the above

6. RBI has advised that ATMs operated by banks/white label ATM operators

(WLAOs) should enable ATMs for processing of EMV chip and PIN cards came

into effect from

a. 01.01.2019 b. 01.01.2016

c. 01.01.2017 d. No such Instructions

7. As per RBI guidelines, all payments made via Master/Visa credit cards over

phone (IVR system) will require an additional ----------?

a. Permanent Identification number b. Unique Identification number

c. One Time Password d. None of the above


8. ATM Cards for Minors can be issued, if

a. The Minor is having Pehla kadam/Pehli Udan account

b. Cheque enabled account

c. Cannot be given

d. Both (a) & (b)

9. The unreconciled credit balances in BGL account No. 3199844-ATM Excess

Cash A/c and 459927-Cash Point Excess Held A/c to be credited in to

a. On completion of 10 years the amount to be transferred to DEAF A/c

b. On completion of 03 years the amount to be transferred to Charges A/c

c. On completion of 03 years the amount to be transferred to Commission A/c

d. On completion of 03 years the amount to be issued as Banker Cheque

10. The software used by the ATM Switch Centre, Belapur for running of ATMs is

a. Base 20 b. Base 24 c. Bank 24 d. Bank 20

11. A customer uses his ATM card in the machine and he gets a response code

“51‟. What does it mean?

a. Unauthorised usage b. Card Expired

c. Invalid PIN d. Transaction not supported by this ATM

12. The time limit for resolution of customer complaints regarding failed ATM

transaction by issuing bank is ---- of receipt of the complaint?

a. 12 days b. 12 working days c. 7 days d. 7 working days

3. As per RBI directives, failed ATM transactions have to be settled within 7 working

days, failing which the bank has to pay ---- per day, provided the complaint was

lodged within 30 days of the transaction.

a. Rs. 100/- b. Rs. 50/- c. Rs. 200/- d. Rs. 500/-

14.The withdrawal limit in State Bank Classic Debit Card is

a. Rs. 50,000/- b. Rs. 10,000/- c. Rs. 40,000/- d. Rs. 20,000/-

15. SBI cards launched credit cards with EMV chip security features. EMV stands

for..

a. Euro Pay, Master Card & Visa b. Electronic Monitoring Vehicle

c. Electronic Money Value d. None of the above

16. SBI launched the (World’s first) SBI-Debit-Cum-Transit card for ______

a. Delhi Metro Rail b. Hyderabad Metro Rail

c. Mumbai Metro Rail d. Namma Metro of Bengaluru

17. ATMs linked to the National Financial Switch (NFS) network are managed by _

a. IDRBT b. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)


c. State Bank of India (SBI) d. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

18. The largest number of ATMs under National Financial Switch (NFS) network are

owned by ______

a. ICICI Bank b. State Bank of India c. HDFC Bank d. Axis Bank

19. Which one of the statement is false in the following

a. Customers can apply for a Debit card through log in “onlinesbi” -> e-services ->

ATM card services -> Request ATM / Debit card -> Debit card.

b. Customers can apply for a Debit card through log in “YONO” -> Service request

-> Request ATM / Debit card -> Request New / Replacement.

c. The customers can withdraw cash from ATMs through cardless cash withdrawal

facility of Instant Money Transfer (IMT) on ATMs

d. The customer can choose the “New Address” option for applying for a Debit card

through “onlinesbi” for delivery at an address other than Registered Address.

20. In case of duplicate PIN for ATM Cards, the customers can get through

a. Branches only

b. Contact centre only

c. Through email

d. Green PIN through SMS/INB/ATM

21. Maximum cash withdrawal from other Bank ATM (per day transaction)

a. Rs. 10000/- b. Rs.20000/- c. Rs.40000/- d. No Limit

22. Validity of YUVA Card is

a. 5 years b. 10 years c. 15 years d. None of these

23. Jointly operated accounts are not eligible for

a. ATM Banking b. Internet Banking c. Both (a) & (b) d. None of these

24. First Public Sector Bank to install ATM in India

a. State Bank of India b. Indian Bank

b. Indian Overseas Bank d. Central Bank of India

25. First ATM in the world was established in which year and by which Bank?

a. Barclays Bank in London in 1967

b. Barclays Bank in Manchester in 1967

c. American Express Bank in New York in 1967

d. American Express Bank in Connecticut in 1967


26. First ATM installed by SBI

a. Mumbai 1993 b. Goa 1993 c. Jamshedpur 1993 d. Delhi 1993

27. For a State Bank of India customer ATM pin change can be done at

a. Any Nationalised Bank ATM b. State Bank ATM only

c. Any Private Bank ATM d. All the above

28. For Platinum International Card the daily limit of cash withdrawal

a. In India Rs. 100000/Abroad USD 2000 b. India 5000 /Abroad USD 1000

c. In India Rs. 200000/Abroad USD 3000 d. In India 100000/abroad USD 1000

29. For domestic ATM Card daily limit at POS

a. Rs. 25000 b. Rs. 50000 c. Rs. 75000 d. Rs. 100000

30. For VISA Signature card daily limit at POS

a. Rs. 200000 b. Rs. 150000 c. Rs. 300000 d. Rs. 250000

31. Which organization provides connectivity among ATMs of various Banks?

a. Central ATM Centre b. Central ATM Switch

c. National Financial Switch d. National ATM Centre

32. State Bank Platinum International debit cards are issued for

a. All personal Customers requesting ATM cards for domestic operations only

b. Non cheque book accounts for both domestic and international use

c. If the customer maintains QAB 1.00 lakh / CIF Bal Rs. 10 Lakhs / Home loan

limit Rs.20.00 lakhs / Car Loan Limit Rs. 3.00 Lakhs.

d. Cheque book accounts for both domestic and international use

33. Which of the following is not SBI Contact Centre Phone number?

a. 1800 425 3800 b. 1800 112 211

c. 1800 425 5425 d. 080-26599990

34. Customer can complain to CMS

a. By calling contact centre b. By visiting Home branch

c. By visiting any branch d. All the above

35. The user ID in CMS package is

a. User Ads id b. sbi@123 c. cms@sbi d. sbi.cms

36. Maximum amount of deposit a customer can make in CDM per transaction is

a. Rs 200000/- b. Rs 25000/- c. Rs 49900/- d. Rs 40000/-

37. Maximum number of pieces allowed by CDM in a transaction


a. 100 b. 200 c. 50 d. 250

38. If there is difference in the number of pieces remitted by the customer in CDM

a. The amount equivalent to the actual no of pieces is taken into account

b. The CDM will reject the transaction

c. The CDM will accept only after confirmation by the customer

d. None of the above.

39. The denomination of notes that can be used for deposit in CDM include

a. Rs 2000/- & 500/-only b. Rs 500/- & 100/-only

c. Rs 2000/-,500/- & 100/- only d .Rs 100/ only

40. New name for Cash Recyclers (Cash Point) is

a. Auto Cash Deposit With ATM Machine (ADWM)

b. Auto Cash Deposit And Withdrawal Machine (ADWM)

c. Automated Deposit Cum Withdrawal Machine (ADWM)

d. Automated Cash Deposit With ATM Machine (ADWM)

41. GCC means

a. Green Credit Card b. Green Channel Counter

c. Green Cash Credit d .None of the above.

42. Green Channel Counter is available for

a. Cash deposits, cash Withdrawal b. Demand Draft, Funds Transfer

c. Gold Coin Purchase d. All the above

43. The maximum amount that can be transacted through GCC for a day is

a. For cash withdrawal per transaction limit is Rs 40000/- and customer can withdraw

cash through GCC in a day in multiple transactions with in the overall daily limit of

ATM/Debit card (card variant wise).

b. For Fund Transfer Per transaction limit is Rs 40000/- and customer can transfer

fund through GCC within the combined limit of Rs. 40000/- for both GCC and

ATM/ADWMs irrespective of card variant.

c. Both A and B are correct.

d. A only correct.

44. The cards that can be used for transactions in GCC

a. State Bank ATM Cum Debit card b SME Insta Deposit Card & Business

Debit cards

c Green Remit Card d All the above.

45. When a transaction is put through GCC


a. SWO has to enter the account no.

b. Customer has to enter the account no.

c. Cash drawer menu will appear immediately on swiping the card

d. System will ask amount of cash.

46. Eligibility for GRC

a. Non Home branch Customers b. Home Branch customers

c. Any customers d. None of the above

47. GRC can be used

a. GCC in branches b. CDM

c. GCC/CDM/ADWM d. None of the above

48. Maximum transaction limit per transaction through GRC

a. Rs 40000/- b. Rs 50000/- c. Rs 25000/- d. Rs 10000/-

49. Maximum Cap allowed per month through GRC is

a. Rs 50000/- b. Rs 250000/- c. Rs 25000/- d. Rs 100000/-

50. SMS alert of credit transaction through GRC will go to

a. The depositor. b. The account holder

c. Both a & b d. None

ANSWERS

1 A 2 B 3 B 4 D 5 D

6 A 7 C 8 D 9 A 10 B

11 B 12 D 13 A 14 D 15 A

16 D 17 D 18 B 19 C 20 D

21 A 22 B 23 C 24 B 25 A

26 C 27 B 28 A 29 B 30 C

31 C 32 C 33 C 34 D 35 A

36 C 37 B 38 C 39 C 40 C

41 B 42 D 43 C 44 D 45 C

46 A 47 C 48 C 49 D 50 C


RETAIL INTERNET BANKING

1. Customer can register for RINB facility through

a. Only at Home Branch b. Any branch from the same Region

c. Any branch (or) through INB portal d. INB portal only

2. What is URIB in “onlinesbi”

a. Un Reconciled Transaction in Internet Banking

b. Un Realized Amount in Internet Banking

c. User Registration For Internet Banking

d. User Driven Registration Process For Internet Banking

3. A Customer can bring up any internet banking problem to the notice of the Bank

by raising a

a. Ticket b. Complaint c. Letter d. E-mail

4. Which of the following account(s) is/are not eligible for INB facility?

a. Minor above 10 years b. Single Account holder

c. NRE A/c d. Jointly Operated A/c

5. When an existing customer forgets his Profile Password and gives a request for

resetting his Profile Password, the branch has to

a. In the Branch interface, go to =Requests = >> =Reissue Login Password‘

b. Send an e-mail to the INB department

c. Issue a new PPK

d. In the Branch Interface, go to =Requests‘>> =Reset Profile Password‘ & Checker

has to approve

6. When a customer is enabled for Internet Banking facility, by default, the following

rights are provided

a. Transaction Rights only b. View Rights only

c. Both of the above d. None

7. If a INB customer has forgotten the user name and approaches the branch

with his account number, the INB maker/checker can find the user name by

a. Selecting the link =Find Username under = Requests

b. Taking up the matter with Alternate Channels Department

c. Placing a request in Service Desk

d. None

8. Fund transfer limit to third party accounts within SBI

a. Rs.10 lakhs b. Rs. 5 lakhs c. Rs. 2 lakhs d. None


9. The type of transaction that can be carried out by INB customers is

a. Straight Through Processing Transactions

b. Manual Intervention Transactions

c. Both of the above

d. None

10. Which of the following is a manual intervention transaction?

a. Request for issue of Demand Draft

b. Request for cheque Book

c. e-TDR

d. Blocking of ATM Card

11. To whom should a customer report in case of receipt of email/SMS or calls

over phone requesting for the details of personal information, password or

one time SMS (high security) password related to SBI Online Banking?

a. [email protected] b. [email protected]

c. [email protected] d. None

12. Phishing is

a. A form of terrorist attack b. A form of internet piracy

c. An animation software d. None

13. An INB customer can apply for an Initial Public Offer using

a. Demat b. Third Party Transfer c. ASBA d. None

14. In the website of online banking of SBI, https://www.onlinesbi.com, In

“https” the letter “s‟ stands for:

a. Secure b. Strong c. State Bank d. None

15. What is the maximum limit under ASBA for individual category of investor in

online banking can apply?

a. 2,50,000- b. 2,00,000- c. 1,50,000- d. 1,00,000-

16. What is the minimum and maximum amount of e-TDR / e-STDR that can be

created under SBI Online Banking?

a. Rs.1,000/- and Rs.99,99,999/- b. Rs.1,000/- and No Maximum

c. Rs.100/- and Rs.25,00,000/- d. None

17. What is the validity period of Virtual Card (e-card) created under SBI Online

Banking?

a. 48 hours b. No Time Limit Prescribed

c. Valid for single transaction d. 48 hours or till the transaction is complete,

whichever is earlier.

https://www.onlinesbi.com/


18. What is the cut off time for creating e-TDR / e-STDR online banking?

a. 8:00 AM IST to 8:00 PM IST b. 7:00 AM IST to 7:00 PM IST

c. 24 hrs without any restriction on timing d. None

19. Minor can also be given INB facility with

a. Only viewing Rights b. View & Transaction Rights

c. Limited Transaction Rights d. None

20. How many persons can jointly open a Savings Bank account under Online

Account Opening Process?

a. Any number without restriction b. Only up to three applicants

c. Only Single account is allowed d. None

21. To overcome the generic risks (Role or Name specific) and not employee

specific risks, Bank introduced Branch INB interface IDs, which are...

a. Authorised by the concerned Regional Manager

b. PF index based user id‘s c. Branch Specific user id‘s d. None

22. What is the time limit within which a prospective customer must approach a

branch after submitting the information online, for opening of account?

a. within 30 days b. within 15 days

c. within 5 days d. None

23. What is TCRN with respect to SB Online Account opening Process?

a. Temporary Customer Registration Number

b. Temporary Customer Reference Number

c. Transaction CIF Reference Number

d. None

24. What is the site address for accessing ―Online SBI on Mobile?

a. https://mobile.onlinesbi.com b. https://m.onlinesbi.com

c. onlinesbi.mobile.com d. None

25. What is the minimum and maximum amount of denominations a customer can

apply for Gift Card through SBI Online Banking?

a. Rs.500/- and Rs.50000/- b. Rs.50/- and Rs.50000/-

c. No Min No Max d. None

ANSWERS

1 C 2 D 3 A 4 D 5 D

6 B 7 A 8 A 9 C 10 C

11 B 12 B 13 C 14 A 15 B

16 A 17 D 18 A 19 C 20 B

21 B 22 A 23 B 24 B 25 A


CORPORATE INTERNET BANKING

1. Khata, Vyapar and Vistar are the terms associated with

a Retail internet banking b Corporate internet banking

c RTGS d NEFT

2.The height of our Corporate Internet Banking is?

a Khata (Advantage) b Khatha (Avantage Plus)

c Vyapar (Privilege) d Vistaar (Freedom)

3.Only Vistaar (Freedom) type of CINB is having this user

a Regulator b Administrator c Authoriser d Cheque Writer

4. What is the maximum Limit in CINB Saral for Payments to Govt. and semi Govt.

institutions including taxes and statutory dues such as EPF, ESI etc.OLTAS, CBEC

and ICEGATE

a. Rs. 10 lakhs b. Rs. 25 lakhs c. Rs. 1 crore d. Rs. 2 crores

5.The CINB-Saral user will be able to transfer an amount not exceeding ________

per day to accounts in another branch …………..

a.Rs.5 lakhs b Rs.10 lakhs c.Rs.15 lakhs d Rs.20 lakhs

6.Which category of branches of SBI can provide CINB facility?

a. Metro Branches b. Semi Urban Branches

c. Rural Branches d. All the above

7. What is the supplier Limit in CINB Saral

a. Rs. 10 Lakhs b. Rs. 15 Lakhs c. Rs. 20 Lakhs d. Rs. 25 Lakhs

8. After activation by the system of the new beneficiary in “RINB” and “CINB Saral”,

daily one SMS alert regarding beneficiary addition will be sent to the user during

the………….

a Two day cooling period b Three day cooling period

c Four day cooling period d Five day cooling period

9. CINB can be made available to _________

a. Individual Customers b. Corporate customers

c. Both (a) & (b) d. None of the above

10. Multiple role holders like ‘’Administrator‟, ‘’Regulator‟,‟Maker‟ and Authoriser are

not required for:

a. Khata & Saral b.Vyapaar c.Vistaar d.Khata plus


11. A single user enquiry product meant for small firms or institutions who maintain

accounts with only one branch of SBI and who wish to do only online enquiry

and downloading of account statements. Online Transactions are not allowed in this

product.

a. Khata b. Khata Plus c.Saral d.Vyapaar

12. A multi-user enquiry product meant for slightly larger firms or institutions banking

with multiple branches of SBI. This provides enquiry facility to multiple users of the

organization. Online transactions are not allowed in this product.

a. Khata b. Khata Plus c. Saral d. Vyapaar

13. A simplified single user transactional product ideally suited for sole

proprietorship concerns, micro enterprises or individual businessmen who require

online transaction facility in their business accounts. Both intra and interbank

transactions are supported


14. CINB Saral product provides transaction rights to the user involving

transfer of funds to own or third party accounts up to a limit of ------ lakhs per day.

a. 1.00 lac b. 5.00 lakhs c. 2.50 lakhs d. 10.00 lakhs

15. A multi-user transactional product meant for small and medium

enterprises and organisations maintaining accounts with a single branch of SBI and

who wish to provide discretionary access/ transaction rights to their users.


16. In Vyapaar facility maximum transaction amount of Rs. ____ is allowed per

transaction. There will not be any ceiling on the number of transactions per day.

a. 5.00 lakhs b. 10.00 lakhs c. 25.00 lakhs d. 50.00 lakhs

17. A complete internet banking suite for large and very large corporates,

Government organisations and Institutions. The facility enables multiple users

to have discretionary access / transaction rights across accounts with various

branches.

a. Khata b. Khata Plus c. Vistaar d. Vyapaar

18.In Vistaar facility maximum transaction amount of Rs. ____ is allowed per

transaction. There will not be any ceiling on the number of transactions per day.

a. 50.00 crs b. 100.00 crs c. 500.00 crs d. 2000.00 crs

19. Registration form for CINB Vyapaar is

a. C 1 b. C 2 c. C 3 d. C 4

20. Form for Registration for Regulator (Vistaar) is


a. C 1 b. C 2 c. C 3 d. C 4

21. Form for Registration for Administrator for both Vyapaar and Vistaar is

a. C 1 b. C 2 c. C 3 d. C 4

22. Terms of service is given in Form.

a. C1 b. C2 c. C3 d. C4

23. Format for Board Resolution is given in Form

a. C2 b. C3 c. C4 d. C5

24. CINB User Manual form is

a. C3 b. C4 c. C5 d. C6

25. Which statement(s) is/are true in case of the Virtual Account Number (VAN)

a. The first 6 characters of the VAN (Short VAN) must be unique for each client.

b. The remaining 17 characters of the VAN serve the purpose of MIS relating to the

remitter of funds and is vital information for the client.

c. The total length of VAN can be up to 23 characters.

d. All the statements are true.

ANSWERS

1 B 2 D 3 A 4 D 5 B

6 D 7 D 8 D 9 B 10 A

11 A 12 B 13 C 14 D 15 D

16 D 17 C 18 D 19 A 20 B

21 C 22 D 23 D 24 D 25 D


DIGITAL BANKING

1. SBI Anywhere personal renamed as “YONO Lite” can be registered through

a. Existing State Bank Anywhere/INB users with one time activation

b. Existing State Bank Freedom users by register for State Bank Anywhere personal

c. Registration of new users with “New User” option.

d. All the above

2. The approximate cost per transaction to the Bank for offering Mobile

Banking Services is :

a. 1 rupee b. 45 rupees c. 36 Paise d. 50 Paise

3. Through USSD “send money” through

a. Mobile number b. Payment address

c. Saved beneficiary d. IFSC + Account No.

e. All the above

4. Expand WAP

a. Wire Application Provider b. Wireless Aerial Provider

c. Wire Applied Protocol d. Wireless Application Protocol

5. Expand USSD

a. Unsupplementary Service Send Data

b. Unstructured Supplementary Service Data

c. Unstructured Supply of Services Data

d. Unblocked Service Supplier Data

6. The Maximum amount that can be transferred using IMPS facility is

a. 1000 b. 10000 c. 100000 d. 200000

7. In MMID the first ______digits identify the ______and the last

________ digits identify the ___________

a. 4; Bank; 4; Account

b. 4; Branch 3; Account

c. 4; Bank; 3; Account

d. 3; Account; 4; Bank

8. The per transaction limit in NUUP is

a. Rs 50,000/- b. Rs 1,000/- c. Rs 5,000/- d. Rs 10000/-

9. What are the daily cash withdrawal limit in cash@pos?

a. Minimum Rs. 100/- Maximum Rs.2000/- in Tier 1 & 2 cities Rs. 2000/- for smaller

towns


b. Minimum Rs. 100/- Maximum Rs.3000/- in Tier 1 & 2 cities Rs. 2000/- for smaller

towns

c. Minimum Rs. 100/- Maximum Rs.1000/- in Tier 1 & 2 cities Rs. 2000/- for smaller

towns

d. Minimum Rs. 100/- Maximum Rs.5000/- in Tier 1 & 2 cities Rs. 2000/- for smaller

towns

10. YONO Lite In our Bank, the daily transaction limit for self accounts and third

party accounts is

a. Rs 2,00,00,000/- and Rs 10,00,000/- respectively

b. Rs 5,000/- and Rs 50,000 respectively

c. Rs 1,000/- and Rs 5,000 respectively

d. Rs 5000/- and Rs 25,000 respectively

11. The facility of IMPS is developed and operated by _____________ in which

most of the banks are members among which funds can be transferred.

a. ICICI b. RBI c. SBI d. NPCI

12. What is Easy pin in SBI Anywhere personal :

a. 6 Alphabets set by users instead of password

b. 6 Numerals set by users instead of password

c. 4 Numerals set by users instead of password

d. 4 Alphabets set by users instead of password

13. YONO Lite In our Bank, with easy pin option the daily transaction limit for

self accounts and third party accounts is

a. Rs 100,000/- for both

b. Rs 5,000/- and Rs 50,000 respectively

c. Rs 1,000/- and Rs 5,000 respectively

d. Rs 5000/- and Rs 25,000 respectively

14. In NUUP OTP will be advised to user through

a. Bank‘s Contact Centre (IVR) b. SMS

c. Both (A) & (B) d. None of these

15. What are the requirements for Bharat QR SBI

a. Bharat QR merchant application installed smart mobile phone (presently Android)

b. A data connection (2G, 3G or 4G)

c. Account with SBI

d. All the above

16. Which of the following is not the function available in BHIM SBI PAY?

a. Cash withdrawal through ATM b. Pay Money

c. Collect Money d. Recharge


17. Which of the following function is not available in BHIM SBI PAY?

a. Payment through VPA b. Payment through IFSC

c. Payment through QR scan d. Payment through Aadhaar No.

18. What is the monthly limit for sending money through mCASH

a. Rs.1001 b. Rs.2501 c. Rs.5101 d. Rs.11101

19. State Bank Secure OTP will work in

a. Only in Online Mode b. Both Online & Offline mode

c. Only in Offline Mode d. SIM Mode

20. What is the feature of State Bank mCASH?

a. Sending small amount to third parties through INB without registering them in INB

b. Money can be send by entering mobile no or e-mail ID

c. Claiming sent money through mCASH mobile APP / login page of “onlinesbi”.

d. All the above

21. What is SAMADHAAN

a. Scheme launched for one time settlement for Car Loan

b. Mobile App for public to know about product info, Interest Rate etc.,

c. New variant of CINB

d. Collateral free SME loan product

22. Which of the following is not a benefit of the SBI FASTag

a. Easy Recharge/Top up through Authorised Service providers

b. Instant discount on Toll tax

c. Top up from the customer's SB account

d. Saves Time , Fuel and Money

23. A customer (Android phone user) was explained about our BHARAT QR code.

He is unable to find any such app in Google Play Store. How you will advise to the

customer in this situation?

a. Payment through BHARAT QR is available in Pre-login stage at YONO Lite app

b. Payment through BHARAT QR is available after login in SBI Quick

c. Payment through BHARAT QR is available in SBI Samadhaan


24. What is the transaction limit on BHIM SBI Pay?

a. Maximum limit is Rs.100000/- and Minimum limit is Rs.100000/-

b. Maximum limit is Rs.100000/- and Minimum limit is Rs.50000/-

c. Maximum limit is Rs.50000/- and Minimum limit is Rs.100000/-

d. Maximum limit is Rs.50000/- and Minimum limit is Rs.50000/-


25. What are the security measures in on boarding process in BHIM SBI PAY?

a. SMS token expiry period reduced to 45 seconds, the fraudsters leaving lesser

time to convince the customer to forward SMS.

b. Restricting transaction limit at Rs. 5,000/- per day for the first 7 days.

c. Time interval between two successive transactions for the first seven days limited

to 59 minutes and 59 seconds.

d. All of the above

ANSWERS

1 D 2 A 3 E 4 D 5 B

6 D 7 C 8 C 9 C 10 A

11 D 12 B 13 A 14 C 15 D

16 A 17 D 18 C 19 B 20 D

21 B 22 B 23 A 24 A 25 D


YOU ONLY NEED ONE (YONO)

1. What is Chatbot

a. Customer Executive b. Digital Virtual Assistant

c. Chat Room d. Contact Centre

2. What does NPS stands for in YONO

a. Net Promoter Score b. New Promoter Score

c. Net Promoter Satisfaction d. Net product Score

3. What is YONO how it is helpful to customer?

a. You Only Need One b. It is Omni channel platform

c. It is a mobile apps providing banking facilities d. All the above

4. Who are the Target Customers under YONO?

a. Individuals possessing smartphone/ iOS devices/tablet/PC.

b. Individuals not having a bank account but prefer to do cashless transactions.

c. Aged 18 years and above, who are tech-savvy.

d. All are above.

5. What is the significant of Funds Transfer in YONO?

a. Process is designed as a simple 3 clicks journey

b. Integration of latest technology features like UPI and QR Code for convenient fund

transfers are also incorporated.

c. Smart search functionality to search beneficiary, IFSC code has been made

available for superior customer experience.

d. All the above.

6. What is Spend Analyzer in YONO?

a. Analysis and graphical representation of spending pattern of the customers in an

account for a particular period.

b. Analysis and graphical representation of spending pattern of the customers in

Credit Card for a particular period.

c. This can help customer in understanding spending behavior, better financial

planning and budgeting.

d. A and C

7. How, Goal Based My Dreams is going to help the above customer in YONO?

a. This is a facility for creating a basket of savings by the customer for a certain goal.

b. Customer will be allowed to set more than one Goal also. Initially, we will allow the

user to open an online e-RD account.


c. For creating a new and/or linking of existing products like fixed deposits or mutual

fund investment products to a dream is proposed with flexibility in nature.

d. All the above.

8. What basic infrastructure is required for a customer to download YONO?

a. Operating system requirement for Android devices (mobile/tablet) – Android

version 5.0 and above.

b. Operating system requirement for Apple devices (mobile/ipad) – iOS 8.0 and

above.

c. Internet Connection: Cellular (3G/4G) or Wireless (1Mbps and above).

d. All the above.

9. What is YONO Cash?

a. It is card less cash withdrawal facility from SBI ATMs for YONO users.

b. Minimum Rs.500/- and multiples of Rs. 500/-. Maximum amount of Rs. 10000/-

per transaction and maximum of Rs. 20000/- per day can be withdrawn.

c. The customer can withdraw the cash by visiting SBI ATM with the previously

created a six digit YONO Cash PIN & reference number received as SMS.

d. All of the above

10. YONO Cash PIN & the reference number will be valid for

a. 30 Minutes b. 60 Minutes c. 120 Minutes d. 240 Minutes

11. The maximum limit in YONO Cash will be

a. Maximum of Rs.10000/- per transaction / per account cash withdrawal from SBI

ATM and overall cumulative limit of Rs. 20000/- per day for all types of YONO Cash.

b. Maximum of Rs.10000/- per transaction / per account cash withdrawal from CSP

and overall cumulative limit of Rs. 20000/- per day for all types of YONO Cash.

c. Maximum of Rs.2000/- per transaction / per account cash withdrawal from YONO

Cash @ POS and Rs. 10000/- per transaction / per account from YONO Shop @

POS and overall cumulative limit of Rs. 20000/- per day for all types of YONO Cash.

d. All the above is correct

12. YONO KRISHI is available in how many languages and name them?

a. Nine – English, Hindi, Bengali, Malayalam, Kannada, Marathi, Punjabi, Tamil &

Telugu

b. One – English alone.

c. Six – English, Hindi, Bengali, Kannada, Marathi, Punjabi,

d. Two – English & Hindi


13. Key Proposition / Pillars of YONO KRISHI

a. Mandi b. Mitra c. Agri Gold Loan d. All the above

14. The referral code generated through YONO KRISHI is valid upto

a. 5 days b. 10 days c.15 days d. 30 days

15. Dedicated Toll Free No. of YONO is

a. 1800112211 b. 1800111101 c. 1800123401 d. 1800425380

16. Conversion of Digital savings account to Regular savings account can be done

a. By visiting Home branch b. By applying for a cheque book

c. By visiting any branch d. Cannot be done

17. Digital savings account can be converted into

a. All type of Savings account

b. New Regular Savings account only

c. Any type of savings account except Basic and PKPU saving account.

d. Cannot be converted

18. How many finger prints of the customer are required to be captured in the

Aadhaar based account opening process?

a. Any two b. One of each hand c. One d. All

19. Who is eligible to opening New Regular Savings Account?

a. Resident Indian above 18 years of age

b. Non-resident Indian having multiple tax residency

c. Only foreign nationals

d. Minors

20. During Digital Savings Account opening how the signature is updated in CBS?

a. Terms and conditions form is scanned at the Branch and signature is

automatically uploaded by the system.

b. No, the customer has to do it online through internet banking.

c. The signature has to be scanned by the Branch Manager.

d. The signature has to be scanned by the staff.

21. Which type of ATM card to be provided to Digital Savings Account?

a. SBI Global Debit card b.SBI Classic Debit card

c. SBI Platinum International card – Visa

d. SBI Platinum International card - Master


22. What is the maximum age limit for Non CSP customers under PAPL?

a. 50 b. 58 c. 60 d. 68

23. When PAI applied through YONO the policy will be provided by whom?

a. The certificate will be rendered by YONO and send to his email address.

b. The certificate will be rendered by SBI General

c. The certificate will be rendered by YONO and SBI General

d. None of this

24. When applying SBI card through YONO how the customer signature is obtained?

a. For SBI card applying through Yono signature is not required.

b. The Home branch has to obtain the signature

c. Customer visit the nearby SBI card office and provide the signature

d. KYC and wet signature are obtained by the cards team in person after scheduling

a time with the customer.

25. What is the full form of OMP in YONO?

a. Offline Marketplace b. Offline Market program

c. Online market program d. Online Marketplace

ANSWERS

1 B 2 A 3 D 4 D 5 D

6 D 7 D 8 D 9 D 10 D

11 D 12 A 13 D 14 C 15 B

16 A 17 C 18 A 19 A 20 A

21 D 22 D 23 A 24 D 25 D


CKYCR, CRM, CEEP

1. What is CKYCR

a. Central Know your Customer Registry.

b. Centralized Know your Customer Register

c. Central Know your Customer Register


2. Who is the Nodal Agency to perform the functions of the CKYCR.

a. State Bank of India

b. Central Registry of Securitization, Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest of

India (CERSAI)

c. SIDBI d. None of the above

3. Which of the following accounts are covered under CKYC

a. All Types of Deposit accounts b. Loan accounts

c. Letter of credit/Bank Guarantee d. All of the aove

4. Which accounts are covered under CKYC (Phase-I)?

a. All existing accounts b. New accounts

c. Both first and second d. None of the above

5. Which transactions are permitted in the accounts, before second validation is

done by LCPC?

a. Credit Transactions b. Debit Transactions

c. Both first and second d. None

6. Who will be responsible for any related consequences arising after uploading the

CKYC details on CKYCR portal (for uploaded details), even if accounts are opened

at other Banks?

a. The Bank which uploaded the KYC details b. Other Bank which opened account


7. Within how many Days, Bank is required to submit KYC documents / Data to

CKYCR after commencement of account based relationship with Customer?

a. 1 day b. 2 days c. 3 days d. 1 week

8. There is no change in existing status of KYC records of the customer and he has

provided his CKYC number. He has already provided his PAN number and Aadhaar

Card. What additional documents are required to be obtained by Bank for opening a

Deposit account?

a. Fresh ID b. Recent address Proof



9. There is no change in existing status of KYC records of the customer and he has

provided his CKYC number. What additional documents are required to be obtained

by Bank for opening a Loan account?

a. Fresh ID b. Recent address Proof

c. Revised Account Opening Form (with Part I & Part II)


10. When will the Debit restrictions be lifted in the newly opened accounts?

a. After second scrutiny and authorization at LCPC

b. After approval received from CKYCR

c. Immediately after opening of account


11. What is the software used to gather and monitor customer business leads

a. LMS b. CRM c. LOS d. CMS

12. In CRM, which of the following products are included in the Liability layout?

a. Savings Accounts b. Current Accounts

c. Term Deposits d. All of the above

13. CRM application is used by

a. Bank staff b. Customers

c. Call centre executives d. both first and third

14. What are the steps involved in CRM application?

a. End to end life cycle management

b. Automated reminders and escalations

c. System facilitated follow-ups and appointment dates

d. All of these

15. What is the role of Senior Marketing Executive of SBI in CRM?

a. Customer Relation Officer b. Relationship Manager

c. Branch Manager d. Filed Officer

16. The Profile Card view describes the following Customer 360 degree page

a. Displays the key details about the customer

b. Displays all the products used/purchased by the customer

c. Contains all the product category recommendations for cross sell.

d. List all activities (open and closed) created for the customer

17. URL to login in CRM

a. https://crm.sbi.co.in

a. https://crm.statebanktimes.in

a. https://crm.onlinesbi.com

a. https://crm.bank.sbi


18. How can resolve issues related to role mapping in CRM

a. NBG branches to be done by LHO Admin (Service desk at ITS Department, LHO)

b. Non NBG branches to be done by contact in the call support desk 022-39367191

or send e mail to [email protected].

c. All branches to be done through Service desk

d. A and B are correct

19. What are the mandatory steps in lead creation?

a. Initiate b. Collect Document c. Sent to LOS/CBS d. All the above

20. What are the “Lead Rating” available in the CRM portal and its meaning?

a. “Hot Lead” – Customer interest level is “High”

b. “Warm Lead” – Customer interest level is “Medium”

c. “Cold Lead” – Customer interest level is “Low”

d. All the above

21. Which of the following is not part of CEEP?

a. QMS b. Grahak Mitra c. Branch Choreography d. CMS

22. NPS (Net Promoter Score) in CEEP represents

a. Customer’s Experience in current visit

b. Customers who are likely to recommend SBI

c. Feedback score given for a particular transaction

d. Score given to the BM for effective implementation of CEEP

23. CEEP is rolled-out at CPCs for smooth process workflow from submission to

sanction & disbursement in

a. Education Loans b. CGTMSE Loans c. Home Loans d. None

24. What is Choreography in CEEP?

a. Depending on the assessment of peak days and peak hours Dynamic Single

window planning and staggered duty hours to have better crowd management.

b. Depending on the assessment of peak days and peak hours migrate the

customers to Alternate Channels.

c. A and B are correct

d. A only correct

25. Which is false in “Sales Planning” of CEEP?

a. The Branch Manager must prepare the monthly “Sales Plan” in advance.

b. The product scripts only to be placed in Banking Hall and not with BM/ SWO/

Service Desks.

c. Each Staff member should be allotted appropriate budget on business / cross

selling parameters.

d. Special provision/attraction should be made for high value clients like easy

access, direct interactions etc.,



ANSWERS

1 A 2 B 3 D 4 B 5 A

6 A 7 C 8 D 9 C 10 A

11 B 12 D 13 D 14 D 15 C

16 A 17 A 18 D 19 D 20 D

21 D 22 D 23 D 24 D 25 B


RATIONALE

1) Digital Banking is the need of the hour.

➢ Several Digital channels such as Yono, YONO Lite, BHIM SBI pay, etc. will provide customer satisfaction and convenience.

➢ It will decrease the crowd at the counters and give free time to branch operative staff to sell and market products.

➢ It will help to improve market share and quality of business. ➢ It will help our bank to compete effectively with new forces of the market. ➢ It drives to cashless economy.

2) Change of ATM password to me made mandatory in the ATM after 30 days / change of incumbency.

➢ It is thought that the periodicity of changing the password may be reduced to have an effective control over the functioning of the cash replenishment system in ATMs.

3) INTERNET BANKING INTRODUCED

➢ To provide anywhere and anytime banking. ➢ Extend prompt, efficient and flawless remittance facilities and services

comparable in quality and range to that of foreign and private banks. 4) Why Cheque Truncation is being introduced.

➢ Capture image of cheques and restricts their physical movement. ➢ To speed up the collections. ➢ To prevent the possibility of frauds. ➢ To minimize complaints of missing of instruments.

5) In Internet Banking, in addition to regular user ID and Password, a customer also needs to have a profile password.

➢ The regular user id and password allow a customer to enter the site and view his accounts, and put through routine transactions within his accounts

➢ Profile password allows a person to assign trusted third party and fix limits for funds transfer to them.

➢ It is an additional safety measure, so that if the customer's password is compromised, no body else can have access to his funds and transfer the same to a third party.

6) Passwords of computer users should be changed frequently.


➢ Security should be maintained in respect of passwords used by different functionaries at the branch.

➢ To prevent unauthorized access to the account. ➢ Software packages do not accept the passwords those have not been

changed for a long time.

7) Bio metric authentication introduced.

➢ Unique Individual identification of biological characteristics. ➢ To prevent unauthorized access to the account. ➢ Nearly impossible to forge ensures 100% accuracy.

8) Disaster Recovery Plan must be prepared for all the branches.

➢ To ensure that in the event of a disaster the branch is capable of dealing with the situation and take emergent action to restore the normalcy and commence transaction within least possible time.

9) An Electronic waste (e-waste) management policy has been formulated by the Bank.

➢ In order to ensure proper handling of e-waste with a view to protecting the environment, reducing pollution by toxic gases / green house emissions and other non-biodegradable substances caused by e-waste disposal.

➢ Falling in line with instructions of Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India (GOI)

10) Mobile Banking services were made available over USSD (Unstructured supplementary Services Data).

➢ To facilitate the customers having non-java mobile phones to avail the service.

➢ The advantage of using this mode of Mobile Banking Services is that the customers need not download the mobile banking application and can avail the facilities over a SMS session.

➢ Customers can transact with restricted limits. 11) YONO – Project Lotus introduced

➢ Omni channel initiative (available on web, tabs and mobiles). ➢ Deliver a new and distinctive customer experience through leveraging

predictive analytics and latest innovation technology. ➢ It reduces the multiple apps requirement. ➢ Radically improve customer experience and staff efficiency.


12) Welcome Kits consisting of ATM Card and Internet Banking user id and password are given to persons opening new SB or Current accounts.

➢ As a measure of good customer service, so that customers can use these facilities from day one It is being provided by other banks, so customers expect our bank to provide the same.

➢ To be competitive and attract new/ younger generation customers to our Bank

13) Our Bank is introducing e-learning courses for staff.

➢ It is difficult to spare staff members from branches for training. ➢ Staff members can learn at their convenience ➢ They can take up courses relevant to them and pursue them ➢ Reduces cost for the bank.

14) Green PIN introduced

➢ Easy and convenient way to generate Debit card PIN through various channels like ATM, Internet Banking, IVR and SMS.

➢ It is a step towards paperless banking which will benefit both customers and employees of the bank.

➢ Considerably reduce the carbon foot print of the Bank. ➢ More convenience by avoiding delay and visits to branch for submitting

regeneration ATM PIN requests.

15) Number of ATMs declining in Banks

➢ Decreasing ATM usage in cities after demonetization. ➢ Increase in operational costs another factor. ➢ The ATM operators need to focus on rural areas now. ➢ Customer behavior from cash to electronic payments. ➢ Rationalization after merger of SBI with Associate Banks.

16) ATMs availability to be improved

➢ It is the matter of Bank’s image ➢ To reduce the Issuing transaction and increase the Acquiring transaction

improve the Bank’s profit. ➢ To gain/retain the customer’s confidence with the bank.

17) Green channel counters have been introduced.

➢ The Green Channel counters provide safety and comfort to the customers. ➢ It avoids filling up withdrawal forms/cheques, pay in slips. ➢ The customer can get cash in denomination his/ her choice. ➢ Cost effective for bank as it reduces the burden of VVR checking/back office

operations. ➢


18) Discontinuation of transaction slips for unsuccessful transactions in ATMs?

➢ To keep our ATM rooms clean. ➢ To fulfill the green initiative of the Bank

19) Discontinuation of transaction slips for unsuccessful transactions in ATMs?

➢ To keep our ATM rooms clean. ➢ To fulfill the green initiative of the Bank

20) Bank stopping of “card 2 card” (c2c) & “card to account” transfer facility at ATMs between 11.00 P.M to 06.00 A.M.?

➢ To reduce the loss to the customers from the fraudsters withdraw and transfer daily limit money from the cloned/skimmed cards within a short period before and after midnight to get the maximum advantage of the withdrawal & transfer day limit of cards.


21) Policy for dealing with incidence of frequent dishonor of Electronic Payment System has been modified.

➢ Under Section 25 of Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 dishonour of an electronic fund transfer instruction due to insufficiency of funds in the account etc is an offence punishable similar to the dishonour of a cheque under NI Act,1881.

➢ This will enforce financial discipline among the customers. 22) The Bank is not responsible for the transactions of the customer put through Internet Banking.

➢ The Bank has the responsibility to safeguard the personal date of the customer by employing highest security features.

➢ It is the responsibility of use to protect the username, Password and any attempts of attack to hijack the banking information by any unscrupulous elements.

➢ Since all Internet transactions are conducted through Virtual Banking (without direct involvement of bank staff) the responsibility for Internet transactions lies solely with the customers.

23) All staffs have to submit their claims regarding monthly expenses online in HRMS portal.

➢ Avoidable and Costly paper work will be saved in respect of small amounts. ➢ Centralized payment will be credited to employees salary account. ➢ The process will be speeded up. ➢ A step towards Green-Banking.

24) Outstanding entries in System Suspense Account are to be reconciled promptly.

➢ Outstanding entries in System Suspense account indicate inefficiency in the system and lack of control over operations.

➢ System Suspense account is very sensitive and may result in fraud. ➢ Entries in this account reflect that the accounting process is not complete and

may put bank into trouble in case of deficiency in services. ➢ Bank has to make provision for long outstanding entries, which will affect the

profitability of the bank.

25) Customer Relationship Management (CRM) introduced.

➢ CRM is an approach to managing a company’s interaction with the current and potential customer’s.

➢ Analyzing data about customer’s history with a company. ➢ Compile data from different communication channels including Bank’s website

(INB), telephone, email, referrals, marketing materials and social media. ➢ To integrate and automate sales, marketing and customer support.


FOREIGN EXCHANGE

1. Facility of remittance under LRS is available to --?

a. All Individual residents b. Corporates

c. NRIs d. None of the above

2.NRO accounts may be opened / maintained in the form of :

a. Current, savings, recurring or fixed deposits accounts

b. Savings or fixed deposit accounts only

c. Current, savings, fixed deposits accounts only

d. Current and savings accounts only.

3.NRO accounts may be held:

a. By non-residents only b. Jointly with residents and/or with non-residents

c. Jointly with non-residents only d. Jointly with residents only

4.Unspent foreign exchange (above USD 2000) should be surrendered to the

authorized dealer within:

a. 7 days b. 15 days

c. 180 days d. Can retain with him forever

5. Expand SWIFT

a. Software international funds transfer

b. Scheme for worldwide international funds transfer

c. Society for worldwide inter-bank financial telecommunication

d. Society for worldwide international financial telecommunication

6. In terms of the extant regulations, remittances against imports should be

completed:

a. Not later than nine months from the date of shipment

b. Not later than six months from the date of shipment

c. Not later than three months from the date of shipment

d. There are no stipulations.

7.Which of the following is an evidence of import?

a. Bill of entry b. Postal wrapper

c. Courier cover/wrapper d. All the above

8. Which one of the following terminology is used for a foreign exchange market?

a. Commodity exchange b. Inter Bank market

c. Debt Market d. All the above

9.Which of the following types of transactions are generally done in a foreign

exchange merchant market?


a. Spot transactions b. Forward transactions

c. Cash transactions d. All the above

10.An exchange quote “USD 1.00 = INR 71.74” is a :

a. Direct quote b. Indirect quote c. Foreign quote d. Forward quote

11.Which of the following is not permitted under Liberalised Remittance Scheme?

a. Gift or donation b. Maintenance of close relatives abroad

c. For trading in foreign exchange abroad d. Emigration

12. For bills received on collection what type of contract importers can book?

a. Forward purchase contract b. Forward sale contract

c. Cannot book forward contract for collection bills d. None of the these

13.Which of the following defines a foreign exchange forward contract better?

a. exchange rate that is determined in future

b. exchange rate that is determined in future but delivery is made now

c. exchange rate that is determined now but delivery of currency is made in future

on a day fixed at the time of making the contract

d. exchange rate and delivery, both are determined in future

14. A customer has submitted an export sight document for purchase. The date of

shipment is 01.12.2019. What is the due date?

a. 15.12.2019 b. 21.12.2019 c. 25.12.2019 d. Immediate

15.What is UCP?

a. Uniform customer and parties b. Uniform customs and practice

c. Uniform customer and priorities d. Uniform company and practices

16. Which document is known as Document of title of goods?

a. Airway Bill b. Shipping Bill c. Bill of Lading d. Bill of Exchange

17.__________ refers to loans for payment of imports into India arranged by the

importer from a bank or financial institution outside India for maturity of less than

three years.

a. Suppliers credit b. PCFC c. Buyers credit d. Deemed Export

18. Whether Credit facilities can be extended in Indian Rupees or foreign currency

by AD Banks for making remittances under LRS?

a. Can be extended only for purchase of property

b. Can be extended only for investments abroad

c. Cannot be extended

d. Both a & b


19.Liberalized remittance scheme is available upto?

a. USD 100000 b. USD 150000

c. USD 250000 d. USD 200000

20.Resident Individual can send gifts abroad upto

a. USD 15000 b. USD 25000 c. USD 100000 d. USD 250000

21. Remittances out of lottery winnings, income from races, remittance for purchase

of tickets is permissible or not

a. Not permitted b. Permitted

c. Permitted with approval from Ministry d. Permitted with RBI permission

22.DP Bills refer to

a. Sight Bills b. Usance Bills

c. Both Sight and Usance Bills d. None of the above

23.Which is not part of post shipment finance?

a. LC bills negotiated b. Advance against bills sent for collection

c. Sight bills purchased d. All are post shipment finance

24. Which ministry decides the permissibility of goods for export from and Import into

India?

a. Ministry of commerce b. Ministry of Finance

c. Ministry of External affairs d. Ministry of Home

25.What is the maximum permitted tenor for Trade Credits raised for imports into

India?

a. It should not exceed 3 years b. Maturity upto 5 years

c. Upto to 6 months d. None of the above

26.CFR means

a. The seller delivers the goods on board the vessel and bears all the costs of freight

b. Buyer bears the cost of freight to bring the goods to the named destination

c. The seller pays for insurance


27. In EXW term the obligation of the seller is

a. Upto loading of goods on the ship

b. Upto delivery of the goods to importer

c. Deliver the goods at the disposal of the buyer at seller’s premises or at a named

place

d. Pay the loading charges on the ship at exporter’s country


28.In case of early realisation of export bill

a. No refund of interest b. Proportionate interest is refunded

c. May vary from case to case d. None of the above

29.UCPDC, URR and URC are which organisation’s provisions?

a. ICC b. WTO c. IMF d. UNO

30.If a Letter of credit is advised by a Bank, it is responsible for

a. Financial standing of the issuing Bank b. Financial standing of the applicant

c. Payment of the LC amount d. Authenticity of the LC

31.Who is the ultimate obligator of payment under LC?

a. Negotiating Bank b. Confirming Bank

c. Nominated Bank d. Issuing Bank

32. Which one of the following can be called as financial document?

a. Bill of exchange b. Draft

c. Promissory Notes d. All of the above

33.Unless otherwise specified in a Letter of Credit which is issued subject to UCPDC

600, documents must be presented for negotiation within ------ days from the date of

shipment


34. ECGC provides guarantee cover for?

a. Preshipment b. Post Shipment c. Both the above d. Only A above

35.Pre-shipment finance is credit granted to the exporters to:

a. Procure raw material b. Provide a secure warehouse for goods

c. Ship the goods to the buyers d. All are true

36. Which of the following is not a criteria for availing PCFC

a. Exporter should have a ten-digit importer exporter code number allotted by DGFT

b. Exporter should not be in the caution list of RBI

c. If the goods to be exported are not under OGL, the exporter should have the

required licence to export the goods

d. The exporter should get the recommendation of the respective Chambers of

Commerce

37.Which of the following is true with respect to Running Account Packing Credit?

a. It is continuous facility wherein the exporter need not submit any documents to the

bank before or after the goods are shipped.

b. It is extended in special types of exports activities that may be seasonal in nature,

in which case the exporter may not be able to produce the export order at the time of

availing the Packing credit.


c. Both the above d. None of the above

38.Post shipment finance is provided against:

a. Evidence of acceptance of goods by the importer

b. Evidence of production by the exporter

c. Evidence of shipment of goods

d. None of these

39. This is a financial arrangement whereby a financial institution in the exporting

country, or another country, extends a loans directly or indirectly to a foreign importer

to finance the purchase of goods from the exporting country. What are we referring

to here?

a. Buyer’s credit b. Supplier’s credit

c. Direct Collection d. Letter of credit

40. The forward premium/discount on a foreign currency can be affected by:

a. Interest rate differential between the currencies

b. Political environment in the foreign currency’s home country

c. None of the above

d. Both of the above

41. EEFC account can be opened for:

a. An exporter b. Only units operating from EPZs

c. By any foreign exchange recipients d. None of these

42. Which of the following nationals cannot buy property in India?

a. Pakistan and Bangladesh b. Srilanka and Afganistan

c. China, Iran, Nepal & Bhutan d. All the above

43. All Categories of foreign exchange earners are now allowed to retain ____ % of

their foreign exchange earning in their EEFC account.

a. 50 b. 75 c. 100 d. 95

44.Where an exporter receives advance payment, the exporter shall under an

obligation to ensure that the shipment of goods is made within _____ from the date

of receipt of advance.

a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 1 year d. 15months

45.FEMA rules came into force with effect from

a. 1st June 2000 b. 1st May 2000 c. 1st April 2000 d. 1st January 2000

46.Expand EDPMS:

a. Export Data Processing and Monitoring System

b. External Data Processing Monitoring System


c. Export Data Processing and Monitoring Service

d. Export Data Processing and Maintenance System

47.AD Category – I banks may make remittances where import bills have been

received directly by the importers from the overseas supplier provided the value of

import bill does not exceed USD __________

a. 100000 b. 150000 c. 200000 d. 300000

48.AD category banks may consider requests for grant of EDF waiver from exporters

for export of goods free of cost, for export promotion upto 2 percent of the average

annual exports of the applicant during the preceding three financial years subject to

a ceiling of

a. Rs.5 lacs b. USD 100,000

c. USD 250,000 d. Rs.10 lakhs

49.Which of the following is true with regard to Merchanting Trade?

a. The entire merchant trade transaction to be completed within a period of 3 months

b. The entire merchant trade transaction to be completed within a period of 6 months

c. The entire merchant trade transaction to be completed within a period of 9 months

d. The entire merchant trade transaction to be completed within a period of 12

months

50.Bill of Lading is __________________

a. Evidence of shipment b. Evidence of import

c. Evidence of payment d. Evidence of remittance

51. Whether Credit facilities can be extended in Indian Rupees or foreign currency

by AD Banks for making remittances under LRS?

a. Can be extended only for purchase of property

b. Can be extended only for investments abroad

c. Cannot be extended

d. Both a & b

52. As per FEMA, a capital account transaction is

a. Which alters the assets or liabilities outside India of persons resident in India

b. Which alters the assets or liabilities in India of persons resident outside India

c. Both a and b


53. As per FEMA, transactions expressly prohibited is mentioned in

a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. None of the above

54. As per FEMA, transactions which require prior approval of Government of India

is mentioned in



55. As per FEMA, transactions which require prior approval of RBI where the

transaction amount exceeds the permitted limit, is mentioned in


56. For which of the following transactions, drawal of Foreign Exchange is expressly

prohibited as per FEMA

a. Remittance out of lottery winnings b. Gift Remittance

c. Medical Treatment d. Cultural Tours

57. What is the maximum amount permitted under Liberalised Remittance

Scheme(LRS)?

a. USD 100,000 b. USD 200,000

c. USD 250,000 d. USD 500,000

58. Foreign tourist who have come to India on short visit can open which type of

account?

a) NRE b) Saving account c) NRO d) cannot open any account

59. Physical import into India should be made within how many months from the date

of advance remittance?

a) 8 b) 6 c) 12 d) 9

60. Expand TBML?

a) Trade Based Money Laundering b) Trade Based Multiple Lending

c) Transaction Based Money Laundering d) Transaction Based Multiple Lending

61. The entire Merchanting Trade transactions should be completed within an overall

period of?


62. Which one of the following document/information is not mandatory for making

remittance under LRS?

a. Aadhar Card b. FEMA Declaration

c. PAN Card d. Form A-2

63. Expand IDPMS

a. Import Data Processing and Monitoring System

b. Import Data Processing and Monitoring Service

c. Import Data Payment and Monitoring System

d. Import Data Payment and Monitoring Service

64. In which of the following account TDS is not applicable?

a. NRE a/c b. NRO a/c c. Both the above d. None of the above


65. From which of the following account the balance (Balance + Interest ) is fully

repatriable?

a. NRE a/c b. NRO a/c c Both the above d. None of the above

66. Which of the following account is a Unique deposit which provides higher

attractive yield through a Forwards Contract?

a. NRE a/c b. NRO a/c c. FCNB premium d. RFC account

67. Foreign students who visit India for studies are permitted to open______

accounts?

a. NRO a/c b. NRE a/c c. Savings a/c d. Cannot open

68. A person resident in India is permitted to open, hold and maintain a Foreign

Currency account Known as

a. Resident Foreign Currency (Domestic) account

b. Resident Foreign Currency (Foreign) account

c. Resident Foreign Denomination account

d. Residents cannot open Foreign Currency account

69. What is the maximum amount that can be repatriated from NRO account per

year?

a. USD 100000 b.USD 250000 c. USD 500000 d. USD 1000000

70. What is the maximum amount per transaction that can be sent through FXout

remittance facility?

a. USD 20000 b. USD 25000 c. USD10000 d. USD 15000

71. Expand FATCA?

a. Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act

b. Foreign Account Transaction Compliance Act

c. Foreign Asset Tax Compliance Act

d. Foreign Asset Transaction Compliance Act

72. Expand OFAC?

a. Office of Foreign Account Control b. Office of Foreign Assets Control

c. Office of Foreign Account Compliance d. Office of Foreign Assets Compliance

73. Expand OPGSPs ?

a. Online Payment Gateway Service Providers

b. Online Payment Gateway Service Process

c. Online Payment Gateway System Providers

d. Online Payment Gateway System Process


74. What is the time period permitted for shipment of goods in case of Export

Advance payment ?

a. 180 days b. 90 days c. one year d. 270 days

75. What is time period within which, it is exporter obligatory on the part of the

exporter to realise and repatriate the full value of goods /software / services to India,

from the date of export?

a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 9 months d. 12 months

76. Which among the following account is non interest bearing account?

a. NRE a/c b. NRO a/c c. EEFC a/c d. FCNR(B) a/c

77. What is the maximum amount that can be written off by the exporter in case the

proceeds are not realized?

a. 5% of total exports proceeds realized during previous year

b. 10 % of total exports proceeds realized during previous year

c. 5% of average exports proceeds realized during the last three years

d. 10% of average exports proceeds realized during the last three years

78. What is the time limit permitted for payment against import?

a. 3 months from the date of shipment b. 6 months from the date of shipment

c. 9 months from the date of shipment d. 12 months from the date of shipment

79. What is maximum time permitted to importers for submission of evidence of

import?

a. 1 month b. 3 months c. 6 months d. 9 months

80. What is a DP Bill?

a. Documents against Payment b. Documents at Par

c. Documents Paid d. Documents Payable

81.If the settlement takes place on the same day, then the settlement is?

a. Cash b. TOM c. Spot d. Forward

82. If the settlement takes place next day, then the settlement is ?


83. If the settlement takes place after two days from the Transaction date, then the

settlement is ?


84. If the settlement takes place beyond two days from the Transaction date, then

the settlement is ?



85. Who among the following is the applicant of LC?

a. Buyer b. Seller c. Buyer’s Bank d. Seller’s Bank

86. Who among the following is having the obligation to honour the claim under LC if

the documents are submitted as per the terms of LC?

a. Buyer b. Issuing Bank c. Negotiating Bank d. Reimbursing Bank

87. Who among the following undertakes to honour the bills drawn under Letter of

Credit, in addition to the issuing Bank?

a. Advising Bank b. Confirming Bank c. Negotiating Bank d. Issuing Bank

88. Which of these is not a permitted transaction under LRS?

a. Remittance for purchase of FCCB issued by Indian company

b. Bill payment for call back services offered by a foreign telecom company

c. Payment for advertisement in a Foreign Travel Magazine

d. All of these

89. Credit for imports into India extended by the overseas suppliers is called?

a. Buyer’s Credit b. Supplier’s Credit c. Import Credit d. None of the above

90. A letter of credit opened on the strength of another Letter of credit?

a. Transferrable LC b. Back to Back LC c. Confirmed LC d. Clean LC

91. A Letter of credit where the original beneficiary transfers a part or full amount to

another beneficiary is called?

a. Transferrable LC b. Back to Back LC c. Confirmed LC d. Clean LC

92. If the due date falls on a holiday, then the bills drawn under LC, to be paid on?

a. Preceding working day b. next working day

c. three days grace period available d. None of the above

93. Letters of Credit are governed by?

a. UCPDC b. FTP c. FEX d. RBI

94. Which among the following is a form of Export finance?

a. Packing Credit b. Post shipment c. Both a and b d. Only A

95. What is the time limit permitted for remittances against import of Books?

a. 3 months b. 6 months

c. 12 months d. No restriction as to the time limit

96. While remitting funds out of India, the AD banks are required to determine need

of obtaining Form 15 CB and Form CA from the remitter by referring to which one of

the following?


a. FEMA Rules b. GST Rules

c. Income Tax Rules d. ICC Rules

97. Any person resident in India who had gone out of India on a temporary visit, may

bring into India at the time of his return from any place outside India (other than from

Nepal and Bhutan), currency notes of Government of India and Reserve Bank of

India notes up to an amount not exceeding?

a. Rs.25,000/- b. Rs.10,000/- c. Rs.15,000/- d. Rs.50,000/-

98. Importer-Exporter (IE) code is issued by ?

a. RBI b. DGFT c. FEDAI d. SEBI

99. The process of converting foreign currency liability into Indian Rupee liability is

called?

a. Conversion b. Crystallisation c. Factoring d. Forfating

100. What is EBR?

a. Export Bill Rediscounting b. Export Bill Revalidated

c. Export Bill Received d. Export Bill Reissued

FOREIGN EXCHANGE- ANSWERS

Q.No. Ans Q.No Ans Q.No Ans Q.No Ans Q.No Ans

1 A 2 A 3 B 4 C 5 C

6 A 7 D 8 B 9 D 10 A

11 C 12 B 13 C 14 C 15 B

16 C 17 C 18 C 19 C 20 D

21 A 22 A 23 D 24 A 25 B

26 A 27 C 28 B 29 A 30 D

31 D 32 D 33 D 34 C 35 D

36 D 37 B 38 C 39 A 40 D

41 C 42 D 43 C 44 C 45 A

46 A 47 D 48 A 49 C 50 A

51 C 52 C 53 A 54 B 55 C

56 A 57 C 58 C 59 B 60 A

61 A 62 A 63 A 64 B 65 A

66 C 67 A 68 A 69 D 70 B

71 A 72 B 73 A 74 C 75 C

76 C 77 B 78 B 79 B 80 A

81 A 82 B 83 C 84 D 85 A

86 B 87 B 88 D 89 B 90 B

91 A 92 B 93 A 94 C 95 D

96 C 97 A 98 B 99 B 100 A


CUSTOMER VALUE ENHANCEMENT

1. What is Cross Selling?

a) Selling a different product or service to an existing customer

b) Selling a comparably higher end product to an existing customer

c) Selling a product by narrowing a customer’s expectations and matching them


2. What is Up Selling?





3. What is Down Selling?





4. What is the new name of our Cross-selling department?

a) Cross selling Business Unit (CSB-BU)

b) Customer Base expansion Business Unit (CBE-BU)

c) Customer Value Enhancement Business Unit (CVE-BU)

d) Cross Product Selling Business Unit (CPS-BU)

5. IDV stands for

a. Investment Declaration Verification b. Indian Depreciation Volume

c. International Debt Veracity d. Insured Declared Value

6. NAV stands for

a. Net Asset Value b. Net Advance Value

c. Notional Asset Value d. Nominal Asset Value

7. IPO stands for

a. Indian Postal Organisation b. Initial Public Offering

c. Investment Portfolio Opportunity d. International Property Organisation

8. Life Insurance is a/ an -------- against premature death?

a. Indemnity b. Protection c. Neither A or B d. Both A and B

9. Which of the following is not a product under CVE-BU

a. SBI Life b. SBIMF c. SBI Card d. None of the above


10. Which is the credit card variant available for SBI customers against Fixed

Deposit?

a. SBI Kishor b. SBI Prakashan c. SBI Unnati d. SBI Parbat

11. Which is the portal available for servicing SBIMF customers?

a. Sahayak Portal b. Mitra Portal

c. Shakti Portal d. Vikas Portal

12. _______ are high risk funds and their returns are linked to stock markets.

a. Debt Funds b. Mixed Funds c. Equity Funds d. Pure Funds

13. Which of the following is not a type of Life Insurance?

a. Term Life Insurance b. Whole Life Insurance

c. Endowment Assurance d. Debt Insurance

14. General Insurance does not cover which of the following?

a. Insurance of Property b. Accident Insurance

c. Health Insurance d. Life Insurance

15. Mutual funds can be classified as

a. Open ended funds b. Close ended funds

c. Both the above d. None of the above

16. Who is the regulatory authority for National Pension Scheme

a. IRDA b. SEBI c. PFRDA d. RBI

17. Which among the following is not a type of funds?

a. Money market funds b. Equity Funds

c. Balanced funds d. Corporate Funds

18. What is a rider?

a. An add on provision to a basic insurance policy

b. An exemption to a basic insurance policy

c. A condition to a basic insurance policy

d. An annexure to a basic insurance policy

19. Cross selling is a not an effective tool for

a. Growing Business b. Acquiring new Clients

c. Enhance customer life time value d. Recovering NPA

20. _________ Insurance covers relates to a type of insurance that essentially

covers the medical expenses.

a. Life Insurance b. Health Insurance c. Hospital Insurance d. PAI


21. ___________ are high risk funds and their returns are linked to the stock

markets.?

a. Hybrid Funds b. Equity Funds c. Money market funds d. Sector funds

22. Tax Savings Funds give income tax rebate under

a. Sec 80 C of Income Tax Act b. Sec 90 of Income Tax Act

c. Sec 85 of Income Tax Act d. Sec 95 of Income Tax Act

23. An ______ is a regular investment in a fund for a fixed sum at a fixed frequency?

a. Systematic Investment Plan b. Systematic Transfer Plan

c. Schematic Investment Plan d. Schematic Transfer Plan

24. Regular redemption from a fund is called as ?

a. Systematic Investment Plan b. Systematic Withdrawal Plan

c. Schematic Investment Plan d. Schematic Withdrawal Plan

25. A ------ establishes the Mutual Fund ?

a. Sponsor b. Trustee c. AMC d. None of the above

26. All Mututal Funds carry the element of-------- ?

a. Profit b. Risk c. Marketability d. reward

27. Which one of the following is not a benefit of investing in mutual fund

a. Instant diversification b. Liquidity

c. Safe and transparent d. Risks

28. The value of ULIP is determined by its

a. Exchange Traded Value b. Mutual Asset Value

c. Net Asset Value d. Government Valuation Unit

29. To sell Group Insurance policies of SBI Life, an employee of the bank must be

a. CIF b. ACE c. IRDA Registered Broker d. SEBI Registered Broker

30. Composite certificate (that is one can appear for single exam of ______ .)

a. Life and General insurance b. Life and mutual fund

c. General insurance and Mutual fund d. Credit card and Mutual fund

ANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A B C C D A B A B A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

B C D D C C D A D B

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B A A B A B D C A A


RISK FOCUSSED INTERNAL AUDIT (RFIA) 1. __is gaining more importance with the implementation of Basel Guidelines

a. Operational Risk Management b. Credit Risk Management

c. External Compliance d. compliance remarks 2. The Basel committee defines operational risk as the risk of loss resulting from

inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or from ___events

a. Internal b. External c. Both d. None 3. Operational Risk Management includes evaluation of Bank's Risk

Management Process and overall environment.

a. Control b. Internal c. External d All of the above

4. __ also helps in minimizing losses and customer dissatisfaction due to

failures in processes by putting in place mitigating measures.

a. CRM b. ORM c. Both d. None 5. OTMS is

a. Online Transaction Monitoring System

b. Online Transaction Measuring System

c. Online Transaction Monitoring Solution

d. Online Transaction Measuring Solution 6. ESR is

a. Early Sanction Review b. Early Solution Review

c. Earlier Sanction Rating d. Early Sanction Risk 7. LRM is

a. Loan Review Mechanism b. Loan Rating Mechanism

c. Loan Review Machine d. None

8. What is the full form of RADAR? a. Remote Access for Dynamic Assessment of Risk

b. Remote Application for Dynamic Assessment of Risk

c. Remote Application for Dynamic Access Risk

d. Remote Application for Dynamic Alternate Risk


9. To ensure closure there should be 95% rectification of high & medium risk and

overall rectification 90%.

a. True b. False 10. Penalty of 2 marks for each false compliance remark, with a minimum penalty of

20 marks would be imposed on the auditee unit in the ongoing RFIA, for which the

compliances are being submitted.

a. True b. False 11. The maximum penalty is restricted to _____ marks in each of the areas of

CRM / ORM / FEMA

a. 20 b. 30 c. 50 d. 100

12. False certification shall be treated as misconduct on the part of the officials and

he may be penalized in terms of rule 50(4) of SBI OSR

a. True b. False

13. Identification of branches for Audit, Deployment of based Outlier Model is being used

a. Analytics b. System c. Computer d. All of these 14. Data from the source systems is obtained from GITC, Mumbai at intervals

a. Daily b. Weekly c. Monthly d. Quarterly 15. A branch categorized as ‘Normal or Acceptable’ as per the Outlier Model is the

one with limited gaps and hence carrying a lower risk. Scores received: 0 to 250,

outlier status will be

a. Moderate b. Acceptable c. Normal d. Outlier 16. A branch categorized as ‘Normal or Acceptable’ as per the Outlier Model is the

one with limited gaps and hence carrying a lower risk. Scores received: >250 to 350,

outlier status will be

a. Moderate b. Acceptable c. Normal d. Outlier 17. A branch categorized as ‘Outlier or Moderate’ as per the Outlier Model is the

one with high control gaps. Scores received: >350 to 450, outlier status will be


a. Moderate b. Acceptable c. Normal d. Outlier 18. A branch categorized as ‘Outlier or Moderate’ as per the Outlier Model is the

one with high control gaps. Scores received: >450, Outlier Status will be

a. Moderate b. Acceptable c. Normal d. Outlier 19. Branches are categorised as Outlier, Moderate Outlier, Acceptable, Normal

where the branches with the aggregate score to be taken up first for audit.

a. Lowest b. Highest c. Equal d. None

20. Offsite Audit Score is assigned based on the percentage of exceptions observed.

a. Daily b. Weekly c. Monthly d. Quarterly 21. Integrated scores i.e. scores from onsite RFIA audit plus offsite audit will

determine the risk rating of the credit risk management and the operational risk

management areas of the branch

a. True b. False 22. Date of the next audit will not be more than months from the date of

previous audit

a. 9 b. 12 c. 21 d. 18

23. Date of the next audit will not be less than _____ months from the date of

previous audit (Minimum frequency of audit for Extremely High Risk/ High Risk

branches as per the Basant Seth Committee guidelines)

a. 9 b. 12 c. 21 d. 18

24. Under new system there will be three Core Parameters i.e. CRM, ORM &

FEMA (If applicable) with separate score of 1000 each. Branches will be awarded

three

separate ratings for each core parameter.

a. True b. False

25. Symbols for Audit Rating will be in three letter model like AAA, ABA, ABC, ABD,

BBA etc. Each letter will represent CRM, ORM & FEMA as under: First Letter -

CRM Rating, Second letter - ORM Rating, Third Letter – FEMA


a. True b. False 26. For scoring bracket 850 and above, New rating will be

a. A b. B c. C d. D 27. For scoring bracket 725 TO 849, New rating will be

a. A b. B c. C d. D

28. For scoring bracket 650 TO 724, New rating will be

a. A b. B c. C d. D

29. For scoring bracket 649 and below, New rating will be

a. A b. B c. C d. D

30. Compliance assessment involving assessing bank’s adherence to the

regulatory prescriptions is an important component of supervisory assessment by the

RBI Branches reporting deviation level >15% in an area, will be assigned an Audit

rating of “_____ ” for that area, irrespective of the score received in that area

a. A b. B c. C d. D

31. The Offsite Audit will be scrutinizing of the records at monthly periodicity as

against sample based verification during onsite audit.

a. 50% b. 60% c. 75% d. 100%

32. A maximum score for ORM related areas in Offsite Audit has been allocated

based on the number and criticality of Value Statement scrutinized under the offsite

audit.

a. 250 b. 260 c. 270 d. 280 33. Frauds which involve gross negligence in following systems and procedures,

abuse of delegated powers, staff involvement for personal gains and concealing of

fraudulent transactions and non-reporting to controllers.

a. Category-I Frauds b. Category-II Frauds c. Both d. Category-III 34. Such type of frauds which are not covered under Category-I

a. Category II b. Category III c. Both d. None

35. Frauds that have occurred mainly outside the control area of the branch more particularly in the realm of digital banking, for which the branch cannot be made responsible will come under category-III


a. True b. False 36. Recurrent Income Leakage: Maximum penalty is

a. 10 b. 20 c. 25 d. 50 37. Which of the following is not one of the risk parameters in RFIA?

a. Credit Risk Management b. Market Risk Management

c. Operational Risk Management d. External Compliance 38. Which is a systematic and timely examination of financial transactions on an

ongoing basis to ensure accuracy & compliance with procedure and guidelines?

a. Self-Audit b. Concurrent Audit c. Internal Audit d. Management Audit 39. As per revised RFIA system enhanced weightage has been given to

a. Credit Risk Management b. Self Audit

c. Operational Risk Management d. External Compliance 40. Category I Fraud: ORM rating of the branch will be downgraded by one step

and score will be reduced by a minimum of 50 or more Category II Fraud: Negative

marks of 50 will be awarded, which may or may not entail a down grade of Risk

Rating depending on the score

a. True b. False 41. Timeline for submission of Compliance Remarks for Group I Branch is

a. 7 weeks b. 8 weeks c. 10 weeks d. 12 weeks

42. Timeline for submission of Compliance Remarks for Credit CPCs (Group II) is


43. Timeline for submission of Compliance Remarks for BPR Linked Branches (Group II Branches) is


44. Timeline for submission of Compliance Remarks for Non BPR Branches (Group II Branches) is


45. Timeline for submission of Compliance Remarks for BPR Linked Branches and

Non Credit CPCs in Group II (Group III Branches) is



46. Timeline for submission of Compliance Remarks for Controllers in Group I

Branches & Credit CPCs is


47. Timeline for submission of Compliance Remarks for Controllers in BPR Linked

Branches and Non BPR Branches is

a. 2 weeks b. 3 weeks c. 4 weeks d. 5 weeks 48. Timeline for submission of Compliance Remarks for controllers in BPR Linked

Branches & Non Credit CPCs in Group II is


49. The data as on the end of a month will be uploaded by the day of the next month

a. 7th b. 10th c. 15th d. 30th

50. Risk Based Offsite Audit (RBOSA) is a system driven continuous monitoring of

controls at the auditee units. This process has been developed by the Internal Audit

Department (IAD) to supplement the Onsite Audit - Risk Focused Internal Audit -

currently in vogue in the Bank.

a. Mumbai b. Belapur c. Hyderabad d. New Delhi

ANSWERS

1 a 11 c 21 a 31 d 41 c

2 b 12 a 22 c 32 b 42 c

3 a 13 a 23 a 33 a 43 b

4 b 14 c 24 a 34 a 44 c

5 a 15 c 25 a 35 a 45 c

6 a 16 b 26 a 36 c 46 b

7 a 17 c 27 b 37 b 47 b

8 b 18 d 28 c 38 b 48 b

9 a 19 b 29 d 39 d 49 c

10 a 20 c 30 c 40 a 50 c


IT PRODUCTS AND RELATED ASPECTS

1

Expand OEM

a Original Entry Machine b Original Equipment Manufacturer

c Original Equipment Machine d Original Engine Made

2

Expand HTTPS

a Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

Secure

b Higher Text Transfer Placed

Secure

c Hyper Transfer Text Protocol

Secure

d Higher Transferred Text Placed

Secure

3

Cyber Security Policy is applicable to

a IT Professionals in the Bank b System Officials at GITC/LHOs/

AUs/RBOs

c All employees of Bank d Officials in the Bank

4

Cyber Security Policy is approved by

a DMD and CIO b CISO

c Bank’s Board of Directors d Information Security and IT Risk

Committee

5

Cyber risks represent the possibility that technologies, processes and

practices at SBI can be circumvented, allowing unauthorized users to

(including but not limited to):

A. Modify and/or delete key applications and information, which will affect the

accuracy or integrity of processing

B. Access or extract protected or sensitive information (e.g., IP, proprietary

information, credit card information, PII)

C. Disrupt computer-controlled operations or access to online systems

a Only A is correct b Only C is correct

c Only A and C is correct d Only A, B,C is correct

6

The Three pillars of Information Security are

a Confidentiality, Integrity,

Availability

b Non- repudiation, Integrity,

Availability

c Confidentiality, Integrity, Non-

Repudiation

d Non-repudiation, Availability,

Confidentiality

7

Information Security and IT Risk Committee is headed by

a Chairman b MD (R&DB)

c MD (Risk, IT and Subsidiaries) d DMD & CIO

8 Information Security and IT Risk Committee submits its minutes of the


meeting to

a Chairman b Board of directors

c IT Strategy committee of the

Board

d RBI

9

Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT)- SBI is headed by

a DMD & CIO b CISO

c MD( Risk,IT, subsidiaries) d CGM(IT)

10

_____________is defined as the ability of the Bank to anticipate,

withstand cyber-attacks and the capability to contain, recover rapidly

and evolve to improved capabilities from any disruptive impact caused

due to cyber-attacks.

a Cyber Security b Cyber resilience

c CERT d Cyber response

11

Individuals that are hired by a company to break into their

system/network to discover potential security lapses/ weaknesses

/vulnerabilities

a Hackers b White Hat Hackers

c Grey Hat Hackers d Crackers

12

Malicious users or Hackers can carry out cyber-attacks using a variety

of methods. The common types of attacks are: a) Malware b) Social

Engineering c) Vulnerability/Exploit Attacks d) Virus attacks

a Only A and B b Only A and C

c Only A, B and C d All the above

13

A _________ attack whereby the attacks come from multiple computers

at the same time causing the website/network to become disabled.

a Denial of Service b Virus

c Ransomware d Distributed Denial of Service

14

Clean Desk policy is

A. Ensure that your screen is locked, whenever you leave your workstation

by using ‘Ctrl’ + ‘Alt’ + ‘Del’+‘Enter

B. Keep filing cabinets shut and locked, when unattended

C. Documents containing sensitive data should be shredded before disposal

Mark sensitive documents as “confidential” in both print & electronic format

D. Do not leave photocopiers, fax machines and other office equipment

unattended and ensure they are cleared of papers and any storage media

a Only A,B and C b Only A,B,C and D

c Only A,C and D d All the above

15 To whom do we report incidents on cyber/IT Security breaches


a [email protected] b [email protected]

c [email protected] d All the above

16

What should be the minimum length of the password as per IT Security

Policy

a Six Characters b Seven Characters

c Eight Characters d Nine characters

17

What are Positive Websites in our bank

a websites which dealing in self

development areas

b websites used by the customers

for queries

c website which are blocked for

security reasons

d websites/ URLs available for

Banks business purpose to

authorised users

18

Expand LLMS

a Life Loan Maintenance System b Loan Lifecycle Management

System

c Loan Lifecycle Maintenance

System

d Loan Life Management System

19

Expand ICCOMS

a Internet enabled Currency and

Cash operations Management

System

b Intensive Cash Component

Operations and Management

System

c Integrated Computerised

Currency Operations and

Management System

d Institutionalised Currency, Cash

of Monetary System

20

Of the pairs of user IDs and passwords listed below, which pair is the

strongest

a Admin and Admin123 b Super and super@12

c User1 and usr12345 d Rahul and R@hul*76

21

You are the Official at branch and are busy attending to some calls of

users, when a hardware vendor comes for maintenance. You should :

a Allow him to carry out his work

in the system room, while you

finish the jobs at hand.

b Since the hardware vendor is a

routine visitor, allow him to

attend to your systems in the

system room.

c Allow him to complete his

maintenance work and ask him

to record his visit in the Access

Register.

d Accompany him to the system

room, record his visit in the

Access Register, and then

provide him access to the system


as authorised.

22

Who is primarily responsible for the Physical and Logical security of

Desktop as per the Acceptable Usage Policy of the Bank

a Branch Manager / Head of the

Department

b System Administrator

c User to whom the desktop is

allotted

d Information Security Department

(ISD)

23

The first step in Security Awareness is being able to ______ a security

a Avoid b Recognise

c Challenge d Log

24

What is to be compulsorily contained in mails sent from official emails

a Name b Designation

c Contact details d All the above

25

Bank has laid detailed guidelines that would assist users in adopting

secure practices in using computers called ____________

a Acceptable Usage b Do's and Don’ts

c Bank's Security Standards d Network Security Standards

26

The maximum capability level applicable in Core Banking System is

a 10 b 9

c 15 d 16

27

The screen which is used for comparing CDC cash report and teller

cash report is

a 440 b 669

c 621 d 721

28

What will be the capability of the maker and checker for reversal of IBTS

transaction

a 2 and 5 b 3 and 5

c 3 and 8 d 3 and 9

29

Our bank has established contact centre at

a Chennai, Mumbai, Delhi and

Hyderabad

b Agra, Bengaluru, Kolkata and

Vadodara

c Chennai, Mumbai, Delhi and

Kolkata

d Kolkata, Ahmedabad, Chennai

and Vadodara

30 You receive an attachment in an e-mail from an unknown source. What

should you do in such a situation as per bank's policy ?

a Click on the attachment to see if b Click on the attachment to view


it contains any clues about the

sender.

its contents

c Delete the e-mail without

opening it

d Run a virus scan on the

attachment before opening it.

ANSWERS - IT

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

B A C C D A C C A B

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

B C D D D C D B C D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

D C B D A C B C B D


ENGLISH LANGUAGE BUSINESS CORRESSPONENCE

LETTER WRITING MODEL FORMAT

STATE BANK OF INDIA

(BRANCH NAME) Phone Nos:

Ref no Date:

Xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx

Xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx

Xxxxxxxxxx

(Address)

Madam / Dear Sir,

Xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx

xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx

(CAPTION/SUBJECT)

_________________________

Xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx

xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx



xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx.

2.xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx

xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx.

Yours faithfully,

Branch Manager

(xxxxxxxxxxx) – Name

9999999999 – Mob No./Contact number


1. Your branch is located in a Rural Area which has frequent power cuts. Please

address communication to controller seeking approval for purchase of Generator.

SUGGESTED ANSWER

Dear Sir,

REQUEST FOR GENERATOR FOR THE BRANCH

Our branch has been provided with 3+3 KVA UPS with batteries, 12V, 130AH

SOUTHERN MAKE TUBULAR BATTERY – 10 NOS. This supports the systems

and a few lights in the branch. As there are frequent power cuts in the area (almost

10 hours during day time on an average), the functioning of the branch is getting

interrupted frequently.

2. To address the issue, we propose to purchase a generator to provide

uninterrupted power supply. We have obtained three quotations from panel vendors

(copy of invoices attached for your reference)

3. The L1 quote of Rs.1,50,000/- falls within the powers of Assistant General

Manager. Hence, we seek approval for purchase of the same.

Yours faithfully,

Branch Manager




2. The lease deed executed on 1st February 2014 for a period of five years. The rent

for the premises was Rs.15000/- upto 31.01.2019 and has currently demanded

enhancement of 15% over the current rate. Address a communication to your

Controller regarding the matter.

SUGGESTED ANSWER

Dear Sir,

RENEWAL OF LEASE – ATM PREMISES

The branch is currently operating out of a leased premises and lease agreement for

the same was executed on 01.02.2014 for a period of five years at a rent of

Rs.15000 per month. The lease agreement is due for renewal on 01.02.2019.

2. On approaching the landlord for renewal of lease, he has given his willingness to

renew the lease for a further period of 5 years ending 01.02.2024 and has requested

an enhancement in rent of Rs.17250/- (enhancement of 15% over the present rent)

3. The current branch premises in the heart of the city and strategically placed. The

location of the branch also provides immense opportunities for business. Hence, we

recommend for extension of lease agreement in the current premises.

4. As per the delegation of financial powers, enhancement in rent of leased premises

of more than 10% falls within the powers of DGM. We attach herewith proposal

seeking approval for the enhancement in rent to the recommended and forwarded to

DGM.

Yours faithfully,

Branch Manager



Encl:

1. Proposal for DGM approval

2. Letter of consent from landlord.


3. There is a special campaign for Housing Loan and Car Loan going on. A Branch

Managers' Seminar was held and the concerns of slow progress was discussed.

After the discussions, one of your branches have done very well.

As a Controller of the Region, Send a letter of appreciation to the Branch Manager

SUGGESTED ANSWER

Dear Sir,

HOUSING AND CAR LOAN CAMPAIGN

LETTER OF APPRECIATION

I invite your reference to the Branch Managers' seminar held on...... conveying the

concerns of the Top Management in the slow/nil growth in the business levels during

the current year. In order to give a boost to the loan growth, a campaign was

announced for the period _________.

2. We observe that the growth in Housing Loan and Car Loan levels in your branch

for the campaign period ended Nov 2018 has surpassed the targets allotted to your

branch.

3. We place on record the appreciation for the concentrated efforts put in by the

Branch during the campaign period for making it a grand success.

4. While your efforts are commendable, I am sure that you along with your team will

continue with the same zest and zeal to achieve the Top Position during the

campaign period, and bring laurels to the branch and the region.

Wishing you and your team a successful year ahead.

Yours faithfully,

(…...................)

Assistant General Manager




4. One of the branches in your region is due to RFIA audit. In the last RFIA audit, lot

of lapses have been observed and hence rating of the branch was downgraded.

Write a letter to the branch manager advising him to take necessary steps to correct

the lapses and also improve the score in current audit.

SUGGESTED ANSWER

Dear Sir,

RFIA AUDIT 19-20

As you are aware, branch is due for RFIA audit in the current quarter. As per the last

audit report dated 12.10.2017, lot of lapses have been observed in the area of

Operational Risk Management. Due to the poor performance in ORM area, the rating

of the branch was downgraded from A to B in the last audit.

2. Please ensure that all the lapses are attended to branch is in full preparedness to

face the audit.

I am sanguine that with your best efforts and support from staff at your branch and

RBO, the branch will definitely improve its rating in the present audit.

Yours faithfully,

Assistant General Manager




5. The branch is provided with the Armed guard. The Gun license and retainer

license is about to expire. Write to your controller appraising the present position of

renewal of gun license.

SUGGESTED ANSWER

Ref:Gun Licences /04/18-19 Date : 25.12.2018

The Asst.Gen Manager

Regional Office

Dear sir,

RENEWAL OF GUN LICENSE

With reference to the captioned subject, we wish to bring to your kind attention that

Gun License was issued by Superintendent of Police vide letter dated ______ and

the license was valid for the period 01.01.2016 to 31.12.2018.

2. For renewal of gun license, we had since obtained approval from DGM (B & O)

(copy enclosed for your reference.

3. In this connection, we submit the present position as under. The application for

renewal of license has been submitted to the Superintendent of Police vide letter no

_______ dated 15.12.2018. We are following it up closely in the office of

superintendent for timely renewal of license. We hope to receive the renewed

license in 10 days.

4. The branch gun is also deposited with the above police station for obtaining the

license, we note to take delivery of the same.

Submitted for information.

Yours faithfully,

Branch Manager

ABC Branch




6. The branch has decided to conduct an Exporters’ meet for as part of SME

Connect campaign announced by the bank. Write to your controller inviting him for

the Traders meet.

SUGGESTED ANSWER

Dear Sir,

SME CONNECT CAMPAIGN

EXPORTERS’ MEET: 03.01.2019

With reference to the captioned subject, we wish to inform that a Exporters’ meet is

proposed to be conducted on 03.01.2019 as part of the SME CONNECT campaign.

2. Since the branch is one of the oldest branches in the area, most of the established

Exporters are having a banking relationship with our bank for a long time. In order to

felicitate some of our valued customers and also to attract new generation customers

into our fold, we propose to conduct an Exporters Meet at Hotel Crystal Palace on

03.01.2019 at 6.30 p.m.

3. We request you to grace the occasion and make the meet a great success.

Yours faithfully,

Branch Manager




7. The bank has recently introduced a deposit scheme with attractive interest rates

specifically targeted at NRIs. Write a letter to the top customers informing them

about the new product and garner deposits from them.

SUGGESTED ANSWER

Dear Sir,

PARDESH KHATA

DEPOSIT SCHEME FOR NRIs

State Bank of India presents its new offering Pardesh Khata exclusively for its NRI

customers. The deposit is exclusively launched for our valued NRI customers and

offers attractive interest rates for a limited period till 15.01.2019.

We enclose herewith the brochure and account opening form for the deposit for your

reference.

Please feel free to contact us for any further clarifications. We assure you of our best

service at all times.

Yours faithfully,

Branch Manager




COMPREHENSION

Comprehension- Exercise –I

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below:-

1. The major forces changing the banking and financial industries are

globalization, deregulation, technological change and innovation. Globalization in

the banking and securities industries mean the end of geographical restrictions on

doing business. The globalization of the two industries came about through a

combination of the banks and securities firms responding to the needs of the

customers looking for both new sources of funds and venues for investing funds. An

ancillary effect of this activity has been an inevitable easing and in some cases,

liberalization of regulations. This has resulted in banks from Hiroshima, for example,

competing in London with other Japanese banks while not competing directly with

them in their domestic market. Globalization has, in fact increased competitive

pressures. The high costs of maintaining far-flung branches in foreign market has,

further contributed to the erosion of bank margins. The cost of doing business is

higher in exotic places, be they London or Singapore. Banks with have only a long

domestic history are hard pressed to contain such costs. The Banks and securities

firms are experiencing their own wage inflation as they struggle to keep the salaries

at their different foreign locations in line with local salaries. The fact that banks and

securities firms are working in different markets makes it doubly difficult for

domestic regulators to enforce restrictive measures designed in some cases by the

various finance ministries to assure a “Level Playing Field” within the domestic

market. Deregulation is one of the principal inevitable consequences of

globalization. Domestic banks operating in foreign locations have to adapt to

survive. Often adaptation to foreign practices means adopting local market customs

and practices which are often inimical to domestic regulatory practices. This only

tends to accelerate the trend towards deregulation as the domestic regulators wring

their hands over the foreign practices of their domestic banks in far-off markets.

1. In the passage, the word ‘Globalization’ refers to –

a) The existing restrictions on banks and financial institutions.

b) Increased competitive pressure.

c) Competing globally.

d) Curbing the freedom of the domestic market.

2. According to the author, the immediate effect of globalization is:

a) More risks of losses to domestic banks.

b) The cost of operations has gone up which has lowered profitability.

c) Foreign banks have to adopt the customs of the local markets.

d) There is a high rate of inflation in the country.


3. The two crucial problems due to globalization are:

a) Bring about uniformity in the domestic as well as foreign sectors.

b) Discrepancies in the salaries between the domestic and foreign banks.

c) Both (a) and (B)

d) d) None of the above.

4. The word ‘level playing field’ means:

a) Deregulating policies in exotic places like Singapore and London

b) Involving overseas participation

c) Having a healthy competitive field

d) Uniform conditions and stipulations that govern all banks operating in the

domestic market.

5. The cause for deregulation is

a) Globalization

b) Competition among domestic banks.

c) Liberalization of banking policies.

d) Domestic markets

Directions (Q 6-10) Choose the word which has the same meaning as the word

given in the passage:

6. Venues

a) Places b) opportunities c) Plant Venus d) Avenues

7. Inevitable

a) Unavoidable b) uncertain c) Destined d) Avoidable

8. Inflation

a) Increased wages b) Deflation c) Disbursement d) Gathering

9. Consequence

a) Antecedent b) Aftermath c) Cause d) Source

10. Inimical

a) Adverse b) Friendly c) Helpful d) Sympathetic.


Directions (Q 11-15) Choose the word which has the opposite meaning as the

word given in the passage:

11. Domestic

a) Alien b) Exported c) Internal d) Indigenous

12. Accelerate

a) Precipitate b) Defer c) Advance d) Expedite

13. Restriction

a) Circumspection b) Sanction c) Prohibition d) Regulation

14. Liberal

a) Tolerant b) Magnanimous c) Conservative d) Unorthodox

15. Exotic

a) Mysterious b) Extraneous c) Naturalized d) Familiar

KEYS

1. c 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. a

6. B 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. a

11. a 12. b 13. b 14. c 15. d


Comprehension : Exercise -II

Doctors make the point that stress-related ailments do not usually stem directly from

stress as such. You can take two people under the same amount of pressure, and

one will be healthy while the other is sick. Our accommodation of stress depends

partly on what type of personalities we have: broadly speaking, those who are highly

competitive, insecure, materialistic and abrasive are more likely to succumb to the

effects of stress than those who are less prickly. It also depends on the kind of lives

we lead.

In every case, however, the question of whether or not stress takes a heavy toll on

our physical or mental health ultimately depends on how we handle it. Of all the

characteristics that humans have and animals do not, the one that stands out most is

man’s ability to do something about his condition. We can control our thoughts,

feelings and actions. We are thus capable of exercising control over the impact on us

of stress.

“Learn to ignore what you can’t control and learn to control what you can “writes Dr.

Peter G Hanson, author of the commendable. The Joy of Stress, a recent bestseller.

“Take an active role in your own management: do not be just a passive tourist

through life.”

When we turn our minds to dealing with stress, however, we should be careful to

make the distinction between controlling it and trying to escae from it. People who

believe that they can hide away from the pressures of life by “doing nothing” may find

that inactivity is very stressful. People subject to stress under load are liable to be

wakeful, withdrawn and have poor appetites. If they work, they tend to be accident

prone have a high absentee rate, and lack judgement. What they are missing,

clearly, is the energizing tension which stress exerts.

Experts in the field speak of a “stress comfort zone” in which there is neither strain

nor slack on a particular person. The dimensions of the zone vary with personalities.

The threshold seems higher for some hardy souls, than it is for the majority. But on

close observation, you may find that these cool-headed individuals are able to adapt

to pressure better than others because of their positive attitudes.

In general, any effort to deal with stress will be reinforced by considering what steps

you can take to make yourself physically fitter. Unfitness is a major source of

distress in its own right. The traditional ways of alleviating tension fly in the face of

keeping fit: smoking, drinking and perhaps eating too much, taking tranquilizers. By

merely following a healthful diet and exercising a little, you can use physical stress to

fight mental distress. The first line of defence against pressure is the confidence that

comes from feeling vibrantly alive.


Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

1.Does the author believe that we can control the impact of stress on us?

a) Yes. b) No c) Can’t say d) depends on the situation

2. What type of attitude is recommended for managing stress:

a) A passive laidback approach

b) Mute acceptance of any stressful situation

c) An active approach, eg: healthy diet, appropriate exercise avoidance of stimulants

etc.,

d) Combination of all three.

3. What does the author mean when he speaks of a ‘stress comfort zone‘ ?

a) complete denial of stress

b) A positive mindset in extremely stressful situation

c) Escapist attitude

d) Hibernation.

4.What can be done to combat stress:

a) Physical fitness

b) Healthy diet

c) A confident “can and will ‘attitude

d) Avoidance of tranquilizers

e) All of these.

5. Is stress uniform for all people?

a) Yes

b) No

c) Uniformity evident in men

d) Uniformity evident in women.

6.What is the one characteristic that is distinctive of humans vis a vis animals?

a) Being able to stand on two feet

b) Being able to think calmly and infer on what needs to be done during stressful

times

c) Being able to adapt to inner and outer environments

d) All of these

e) None of these.


7. People subject to stress usually exhibit/are:

a) Poor appetities, withdrawn behavior and insomnia

b) High absentee rate, lack of judgement

c) Not accident prone

d) (a) (b) and (c)

e) (a) and ( b ) only

Choose the word which has the same meaning as the word given in the

passage:

8. Succumb (more likely to succumb)

a) Give in

b) Give vent to

c) Give yield

d) die

9. Passive (A passive tourist through life)

a) Receptive

b) Stirred

c) Inactive

d) Influenced

10.Accommodation (Accommodation to stress…)

a) House

b) Hotel

c) Boarding & lodging

d) ability to adapt

11.Hardy (The Threshold seems higher for some hardy people)

a) Muscular

b) Flexible

c) Well-equipped

d) Acclimatized

12. Energizing (Energizing tension that stress exerts)

a) Make active

b) Exhausting

c) Uplifting

d) Invigorating


Choose the correct words or a phrase that means the same:

13. Exercise control:

a) To manage the impact of stress

b) To control exercise

c) To work on one’s exercise regime

d) To strengthen reflexes

14.In its own right

a) On its own merit ‘

b) bending towards right

c) Standing straight

d) Have no proof of

15. Take a heavy toll

a) take a good shot

b) Pay heavy tax

c) Take a beating

d) Come down heavily on

Keys:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

A C D E B B E A

9 10 11 12 13 14 15

C D D D A A C


Comprehension exercise III

Since change is the function of leadership, being able to generate highly energized behaviour is important for coping with the inevitable barriers to change. Just as direction setting identified an appropriate path for movement and just as effective alignment gets people moving down that path, Successful motivation ensures that they will have the energy to overcome obstacles. Managerial processes cannot be dependent on the unusual. The whole purpose of systems and structures is to help normal people who behave in normal ways to complete routine jobs successfully, day after day. It’s not exciting or glamorous. But that’s management.

Leadership is different. Achieving grand visions always requires an occasional burst of energy. Motivation and inspiration energies people, not by pushing them in the right direction as control mechanisms do but by satisfying basic human needs for achievement, a sense of belonging, recognition, self-esteem, a feeling of control over one’s life, and the ability to live up to one’s ideals.

Good leaders motivate people in a variety of ways. First, they always articulate the organization’s vision in a manner that stresses the value of the audience they are addressing. This makes the work important to those individuals. Leaders also regularly involve people in deciding how to achieve the organization’s vision. This gives people a sense of control. Another motivational technique is to support employee efforts to realize the vision by providing coaching, feedback, and role modeling. Finally, good leaders recognize and reward success, which not only gives people a sense of accomplishment but also makes them feel like they belong to an Organization that cares about them. When all this is done, the work itself becomes intrinsically motivating.

The more that change characterizes the business environment, the more that leaders must motivate people to themselves provide leadership as well. It tends to reproduce leadership across the entire Organisation. This is valuable, because coping with change demands initiatives from a multitude of people. Of course, leadership from many sources can easily conflict.

Directions (Q 1-5) : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given

below:

1. What is important for copying with change?

a) Being a good leader.

b) Being aware of the benefits of change.

c) Being able to generate highly energized behavior

d) None of the above.

2. What distinguishes leadership from management?

a) Providing motivation

b) Creating a sense of achievement

c) Creating a sense of belonging & self-esteem

d) All of the above

e) None of the above.


3. According to the author management is neither exciting nor glamorous – Is it

because _____

a) You have to work out strategies to implement unusual; systems

b) It involves an in-depth study of behavior.

c) You have to help people complete routine jobs successfully day after day.

d) A combination of a, b & c


4. How can work be made intrinsically motivating?

a) By encouraging employees to work for individual benefit.

b) By inculcating a sense of belonging in people by sharing the vision of the

organization

c) By training employees not to expect rewards for success.

d) By undermining the value of the audience.


Directions (Q 5-9): Choose the work which has the same meaning as the word

given in the passage:

5. Alignment

a) Arrangement

b) Reconciliation

c) Improvement

d) Regulation

6. Vision

a) Fantasy

b) Perception

c) Trance

d) Vivid mental image

7. Coaching

a) Illustrating

b) Brainwashing

c) Educating

d) Lecturing

8. Characterizes

a) Delineates

b) Portrays

c) Designates

d) Defines

9. Initiatives

a) Action

b) First step

c) Enterprise

d) Responsibility


10. Multitude

a) Throng

b) Mob

c) Gathering

d) A large number

Choose the word which has the opposite meaning to the word given in the

passage:

11. Inevitable (The inevitable barriers to change)

a) Destined

b) Doubtful of happening

c ) Doomed

d) Deniable

12. Appropriate (Identifies an appropriate path)

a) Unsuitable

b) Secure

c) Budget

d) Set apart

13. Overcome (energy to overcome obstacles)

a) Overhelm

b) Vanquish

c) To be defeated

d)Trounce

14. Articulate (always articulate the organization vision)

a) Incoherent in speech

b) Disconnect

c) Delink

d) Conjoin

15. Conflict (From any sources can easily conflict )

a) Battle

b) peace

c) Contend

d) Agree

Answers

1. c 2. d 3. c 4. b 5. d

6. d 7. c 8. d 9. b 10. d

11. b 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. d


Comprehension : Exercise – IV

The effectively functioning organization makes change its open ally. It keeps the barriers low. Its leaders know that survival depends on the regular euthanasia of the organisations’s regularities. Otherwise everybody and everything winds down. Entropy overtakes enterprise. Competitiveness diminishes and finally expires. Nothing characterizes the successful Organization so much as its willingness to abandon what has been long successful. Of course, not all that is new is better. Good things have good reasons for enduring. It may be good to be skeptical of fashionable new prescriptions for achieving organizational vitality and competitive virtuosity, but it’s bad to be resistant to the kind of self-examination that might prescribe new medicine. Nobody who leads or manages knowingly resists self-examination and adaptation. But to keep the barriers low takes effort. It requires open advocacy and demonstrable receptiveness to innovation. The history of lon surviving and thriving enterprise is a history of innovation, mostly by their forcing changes on others and on themselves. Sometimes these occur suddenly and painfully. Mostly they happen gradually, continuously, even imperceptibly. What’s key, especially in the complex Organization where work is deeply regularized, is leadership that insist on constant, open self-examination of everything , on demonstrable receptiveness to change, and on the budgetary encouragement of innovation. It seeks out, encourages, and supports intelligent, experienced people who have the will, energy, and courage to make changes they think make sense. Often these people will be younger rather than older.


1) Which of the following is not true as per the passage?

a) A successful organization does not change

b) A successful organization will adapt itself to changes

c) Competitiveness will increase with the ability to manage changes

d) A healthy organization always carries out a self-examination.

2) It does not require any efforts to adapt to changes ?

a) True

b) b) False

c) c) Can be true at times

d) d) Difficult to assess

3) The strategy suggested in the passage for adapting to changes is

a) Constant self criticism

b) Regular self evaluation

c) Regular appraisal

d) Constant & open self-examination of everything.

4) The author recommends that an organization must adapt to all new changes

a) True

b) Half the statement is true

c) False


d) Can’t say

5) Only young people can adapt to changes

a) False

b) True

c) Can’t say

d) The passage does not mention this.


passage:

6. Ally

a) Adversary b) Accomplice c) Foe d) Antagonist

7.Skeptical

a) Believing b) Doubting c) Trusting d) Skipping

8.Adaptation

a) Defiance b) Compliance c) Denial d) Disagreement

9.Advocacy

a) Criticism b) Rejection c) Championing d) Advocates

10. Receptiveness

a) Imperviousness b) Responsiveness c) Awareness d) Insensitivity

Choose the word which has the opposite meaning as the word given in the

passage:

11. Diminish a) Attenuate b) Develop c) Wane d) Curtail 12. Thriving a) Successful b) Declining c) Progressing d) Thriftiness 13.Encourage a) Animate b) Stimulate c) Dampen d) Exhilarate 14. Support a) Patronize b) Supply c) Supple d) Oppose 15. Receptiveness a) Hostility b) Responsiveness c) Alertness d) selfishness

1. c 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. a

6. b 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. a

11. a 12. b 13. b 14. c 15. d


Comprehension Exercise V:

Challenges for the future and possible policy directions

What is the future of science and technology in India? Against the above

background, let me now turn to some of the challenges and burning questions of the

future. From rather long menu of issues, I shall largely deal with two issues in

particular.

Efffective Patent Laws and Intellectual Property Rights

I have already pointed out that innovative activities often turn out to be risky from the

stand-pont of the financier, existence of an effective and speedy patent-legal

framework goes a long way to solve the incentive problem associated with any

innovative venture. Though the Indian Patent Act,1970 was indeed a break-through

from the earlier archaic Indian Patent and Design Act of 1911, still much needs to be

done. The following example may illustrate the point. During 1994, whereas in India

4000 patents were filed, China in the same year had 70,000 patents. After all, a slow

process of patenting not only hurts the interest of the innovator but also discourages

the potential ones. Existence of loose paten t laws or its violation, like those

prevalent in software piracy, thus, makes me extremely anxious.

Nevertheless, as a far-reaching extension to above argument, the global regime

represented by trade related intellectual property rights (TRIPS) titled the balance of

benefits of innovation in favour of the private innovator. As a signatory to the 1994

Uruguary Round of Multilateral trade negotiation of the then General Agreement on

Tariff and Trade (GATT), India is bound by the regulatory framework of the recently

created World Trade Organization(WTO). This may have consequences on the

adopted modes of industrial research in India like imitative research or reverse

engineering. We need only to stress more innovative research but also to develop

the intermediaries like patent agents and patent attorneys, who will bridge the gap

between the market and the scientists. This apart, as the Draft Ninth Plan pointed

out, we need to take new initiative to “secure a more favourable deal at the

impending review of the TRIPs agreement in the WTO”. This is going to be a serious

challenge of the future.

The Role of the State in Technological Development:

What is the role of Government in advancement of science and technology

upgradation in a liberalized market-friendly atmosphere? As this point of time, he

issue may apparently seem to be old-fashioned. Often in popular parlance,

liberalization is equated to a withdrawal of state from the economic domain.

However, science and technology is a field where such popular notion may turn out

be fallacious. It is widely argued that there are tree sources of market failure, viz.,

indivisibility, uncertainty and externalities. Knowledge generating activities like R & D

suffer from all three types of market failure. Moreover, when there is a wedge

between private and social profitability, like that existent in pure research. Private


finance may not be forthcoming. Thus, even in a deregulated regime the state will

have three specific and selective roles in fostering science and technology viz.,

financier of fundamental research, provider of infrastructure and regulator of property

rights. The Approach paper of the Ninth Five Year Plan (1997-2002) rightly pointed

out.

“Experience of many developing and industrialized countries suggest that a rapid

acceleration of industrial technology development calls for a deliberate ‘strategy’, in

the sense that it requires the Government to coordinate and guide an essentially

market driven process. Free markets suffer from various kinds of ‘market failures’

They may not throw up the appropriate amounts of infrastructure, skill, information

and institutional support and mere exposure to market forces, while getting rid of

inefficient policies may not suffice to create the technological dynamism that

continued industrial growth needs.”


1.What does the author recommend to solve the incentive problem?

a) Heavy cash awards

b) An effective and speedy patent legal framework

c) Government Subsidies on inventions.

d) Approved financiers to facilitate innovative activities.

2.What reason do you attribute to the fact that China filed 70000 patents to India’s 4000 in a given year?

a) The Chinese are a more creative lot.

b) Chinese govt. is eager to file more patents as compared to other countries.

c) India suffers from a slow process of patenting

d Indian Govt. discourages potential inventors.

3.What are the consequences of the regulatory frameworks on the adopted modes of industrial research in India?

a) It reflects directly on innovative research

b) Consequences are likely to affect imitative research or reverse engineering.

c) Exerts an unfavorable effect on private innovators

d) None of these.

4.What according to the author is going to be a serious challenge with respect to the Draft Ninth Plan?

a) To secure grants for funding research

b) To make India a prominent player at trade related meets


c) To secure a favourable deal at the impending review of the TRIPS agreement in the WTO.

d) International frameworks to favour Indian patent laws and Intellectual property Rights

5.Who are the important entities that play a significant role in the evolution of patents?

a) Patent agents, patent attorneys and scientists

b) Government agencies and financiers

c) Scientific advisors working in coordination with private innovators

d) The passage does not specify.

6. What stand does the author take with regard to knowledge generating activities like R & D?

a) That not much is done by the state to promote R & D

b) It is difficult to find financiers-private or state owned

c ) It argues well for the country’s knowledge management if there is non interference by the government.

d)He maintains that they are bound to suffer from the three sources of market failure, namely indivisibility, uncertainty and externalities.

7.According to the Approach Paper to the Ninth Five Year Plan, what kind of a role is suggested for the state as far as fostering science and technology is concerned ?

a) Fostering foreign collaborations

b) Not to adopt any specific strategy

c) Three specific roles, namely financier of fundamental research, provider of infrastructure and regulator of property rights

d) All of the above.


passage:

8.Innovate

a) Modernize b) invention c ) venure d) Innumerable

9. Stand point

a) A point that stands apart b) Points out c) a point of view d) Stand still

10.Archaic

a) Primitive b) Very cold c) Place where historical documents are stored d) Modern

11. Strategy

a) Layer of rock b) long-term plan c) stray struggle d)None of the above


12.Domain

a) Field of thought b) Dominate c) Domicile d) Dominant

Choose the word which has the opposite meaning to the word given in the

passage:

13.Liberalised

a) Generous b) Liberty c) Enslavened d) tightened

14.Dynamism

a) Static b) Dynamite c) dynamic d) dormant

Choose the correct words or a phrase that means the same

15.’Burning question of the future’ means

a) a question that burns in future b) An important question that burns

c) That which needs prime attention d)a current problem of the present.

1 2 3 4 5

a c a a d

6 7 8 9 10

d c b c a

11 12 13 14 15

b a d a c


GENERAL AWARENESS GENERAL AWARENESS I

Q.1 Who will take charge as the MD of National Housing Bank? a. Sharad Kumar Hota b. Suman Kumar Hota c. Sarada Kumar Hota d. Sushil Kumar Hota e. None of these Q.2 What is the name of the drone lander that will be launched by NASA in a new mission to explore Titan, Saturn's largest moon? a. Dragonfly b. Pathfinder c. Space Ranger d. Galaxy X e. None of these Q.3 Which veteran British journalist was conferred with 'Lifetime Achievement Award' at the 'UK-India Awards' in London for his contributions to UK-India relationship? a. Sir Matt Tully b. Sir Matthew Tully c. Sir Marcus Tully d. Sir Mark Tully e. None of these Q.4 When is GST (Goods & Services Tax) Day celebrated? a. 1st July b. 2nd July c. 3rd July d. 4th July e. None of these Q.5 United States President Donald Trump became the first sitting US president to set foot in which country? a. Venezuela b. North Korea c. Cuba d. Iceland e. None of these Q.6 When is the National Doctor's Day observed? a. 30th June b. 1st July c. 2nd July d. 3rd July e. None of these Q.7 India has pledged USD 5 million in 2019 to which refugee agency? a. UN Myanmar Refugee Agency b. UN Syria Refugee Agency c. UN Honduras Refugee Agency d. UN Palestine Refugee Agency e. None of these Q.8 Which country has resumed commercial whaling after a period of 31 years? a. China b. South Korea c. Japan d. Vietnam e. None of these


Q.9 Which Indian pro boxer has become World Boxing Council (WBC) Asia Silver Welterweight Champion? a. Rishi Yadav b. Vaibhav Yadav c. Yograj Yadav d. Susheel Yadav e. None of these Q.10 Who has been elected as the new chairman of Microfinance Institutions Network (MFIN)? a. Murli Kumar Nambiar b. Mridul Kumar Nambiar c. Manoj Kumar Nambiar d. Manohar Kumar Nambiar e. None of these Q.11 For whom the Alternate composition scheme was launched under GST? a. Farmers b. Small taxpayers c. Inter-state suppliers d. Tobacco manufacturers e. None of these Q.12 Which of the following is exempted from the benefits of alternate composition scheme? a. Service providers of turnover up to Rs 50 lakh b. Small taxpayers c. E-commerce players d. Traders of turnover up to Rs 1.5 crore e. None of these Q.13 Mega Pollution Awareness Pakhwada is an initiative taken by? a. Indian Navy b. National Cadet Corps c. Indian Coast Guard d. Indian Army e. None of these Q.14 RISAT-2B an earth observation satellite was developed by? a. DRDO b. European Space Agency c. ISRO d. NASA e. None of these Q.15 In the series of India’s RADAR imaging satellites, the first satellite launched was? a. RISAT-2B b. RISAT-1B c. RISAT-1 d. RISAT-2 e. None of these Q.16 Zero Budget Natural Farming is based on which method? a. Using a limited amount of chemical fertilizer b. Use of only nitrogen fertilizer c. No use of chemical fertilizer d. High production cost based farming e. None of these


Q.17 Who is the chairman of the committee set up by RBI to review the regulatory guidelines and supervisory framework of Core Investment Companies (CIC)? a. Rakesh Mohan b. Tapan Ray c. Nandan Nilekani d. U.K.Sinha e. None of these Q.18 The Core Investment Companies recently in the news, belong to which among the following? a. Schedule Commercial Bank? b. Non-Banking Financial Company c. Insurance Company d. Foreign Investment company e. None of these Q.19 Which among the following has been incorporated as a new commercial arm of ISRO? a. Indian Space Research Limited b. Research & Development India Limited c. New Space India Limited d. National Space Limited e. None of these Q.20 What is the maximum limit for the subscription of the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme for the first applicant holding a joint account? a. 4 kg b. 8 kg c. 20 kg d. 1 kg e. None of these Q.21 Budget 2019 announced setting up of a DD channel for which sector among the following? a. Agriculture b. Education c. Start-ups d. Health e. None of these Q.22 As announced in the budget 2019, RBI will supersede the regulation of which board following the provisions of the finance bill? a. Bank Board Bureau b. Non-Banking Financial companies Board c. Financial Investment Board d. Foreign Investment Board e. None of these Q.23 What is the maximum amount that can be taken by a verified women SHG member under MUDRA scheme? a. Rs 5000 b. Rs 5 lakh c. Rs 10,000 d. Rs 1 lakh e. None of these


Q.24 which among the following has been included as India’s 38th UNESCO world heritage sites? a. Hill Forts of Rajasthan b. Historic city of Ahmedabad c. Jaipur city d. The Jantar Mantar, Jaipur e. None of these Q.25 Semi high-speed train, Train18 which was flagged off in India with the name Vande Bharat Express was designed and built by which country? a. France b. India c. Japan d. China e. None of these Q.26 The Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2019 recently passed by the parliament allows voluntary use of Aadhaar for which of the following purpose? a. Taking admission in private schools b. Buying a mobile phone c. Opening a bank account d. Buying medicines from e-pharmacy e. None of these Q.27 Which statement correctly point out the provisions of the Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2019? a. Aadhaar number can be used as a KYC document on voluntary basis b. Aadhaar number can be used as driving license document c. Aadhaar number can be used as visa document d. Aadhaar number can be used as a payroll document e. None of these Q.28 Recently, which state has provided 1% quota for girl child of trafficked women for undergraduate and postgraduate programmes in state-run universities? a. Odisha b. Bihar c. Karnataka d. Andhra Pradesh e. None of these Q.29 Which book was launched to commemorate five decades of the partnership of India and the UN World Food Programme? a. World hunger challenge book b. 50 years of Partnership for Change c. 50 years of Partnership for food security d. Hunger assistance measures book e. None of these


Q.30 Which SDG Goal’s agenda is to end hunger and all forms of malnutrition by 2030? a. SDG Goal 4 b. SDG Goal 8 c. SDG Goal 2 d. SDG Goal 12 e. None of these Q.31 Under which Act SEBI has acquired the power to invest regulatory data leaks and unauthorised access of data? a. RBI Act, 1934 b. Income Tax Act,1961 c. SEBI Act,1992 d. Banking Regulation Act, 1949 e. None of these Q.32 Who is the present chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)? a. U.K. Sinha b. Ajay Tyagi c. M.D. Mallya d. Nandan Nilekani e. None of these Q.33 UTKARSH 2022 recently in the news, deals with which among the following subjects? a. Data leak policy of SEBI b. NBFC investment policy and PSUs c. RBI core investment company policy d. RBI three year roadmap for regulation & supervision e. None of these Q.34 Which statement about UTKARSH 2022 launched recently by RBI is correct? a. Is a 5-year long term strategy b. Is a 6 months short term strategy c. Is a 3-year medium-term strategy d. Is a 10-year long term strategy e. None of these Q.35 Which launching vehicle will be used by ISRO to launch chandrayaan-2? a. PSLV-MK II b. GSLV-MK II c. GSLV-MK III d. GSLV-MK I e. None of these Q.36 With the successful launch of chandrayaan-2, what will be India’s position in terms of countries landed successfully on the moon? a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 4th e. None of these Q.37 Plan Bee recently in the news is associated with which among the following? a. A device to measure rainfall b. Honey bee sound producing device c. Climate condition detection device d. A device used by Banks for payments e. None of these


Q.38 Which commodity has been recently included by the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange in its grain products basket? a. Wheat b. Basmati Rice c. Millets d. Jowar e. None of these Q.39 What is India’s position in terms of export of Basmati rice? a. 2nd largest exporter b. Top leading exporter c. 4th largest exporter d. 5th largest exporter e. None of these Q.40 With respect to the changes made by IRDAI in the regulation of TPAs, which is the correct statement? a. Policyholders can change TPAs any time b. Policyholder can have many options to choose even If the insurer provides only one TPA c. TPAs are not allowed to discuss service matters with policyholders d. Policyholders can choose TPAs apart from insurer’s option e. None of these Q.41 Out of the given options which statement correctly deals with bank frauds? a. Bank frauds are drastically reduced in the decade b. The Highest amount of bank fraud occurred in 2006-07 c. The Highest amount of bank fraud occurred in 2016-17 d. No Bank frauds are reported in the past decade e. None of these Q.42 Recently PM Jan Dhan Yojana was in news for crossing Rs1 trillion cumulative account balance, in how many years it has acquired this balance? a. In around 7th year b. In around 4th year c. In around 3rd year d. In around 5th year e. None of these Q.43 Choose the correct statement with respect to the provisions of Banning of Unregulated Deposited Scheme Bill? a. Only RBI approved deposits are allowed b. Only SEBI approved deposits are allowed c. RBI and SEBI approved deposits are allowed d. No approval of deposits required at all e. None of these Q.44 The Workers Safety Bill, 2019 recently approved by the union cabinet is for? a. Only IT establishments b. A business entity with 15 or more workers c. Mine with at least 10 workers d. Business entity with 10 or more workers and mines even with one worker e. None of these


Q.45 Gold Medallist Dutee Chand, belongs to which field of sports? a. Boxing b. Long jump c. Sprint d. Weight Lifting e. None of these Q.46 Recently Dutee Chand won gold at the World Universiade, in this concern choose the correct statement? a. She is the 1st Indian sprinter to win gold at a global event b. She is the 2nd Indian sprinter to win gold at a global event c. She is the 2nd Indian sprinter to win gold at 100m global event d. She is the 3rd Indian sprinter to win gold at a global event e. None of these Q.47 Which edition of India-Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue (IRSED) was recently held in New Delhi? a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 4th e. None of these Q.48 India-Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue (IRSED), held under the chairmanship of which department of the government of India? a. Ministry of Finance b. AYUSH c. NITI Aayog d. Ministry of external affairs e. None of these Q.49 The RBI’s Residential Asset Price Monitoring Survey is conducted ______? a. Biannually b. Annually c. Quarterly d. Half-yearly e. None of these Q.50 As per the RBI’s Residential Asset Price Monitoring Survey, the house price-to-income ratio in the last 4 years has____? a. Decreased b. Increased c. Stagnant d. Drastically decreased e. None of these Q.51 Automated Facial Recognition System, recently in the news is proposed for use by which organisation? a. RBI b. CBI c. National Crime Record Bureau d. Central Board of Direct Taxes e. None of these Q.52 ‘Study in India’ programme is an initiative of which Department/Ministry of the government of India? a. Ministry of Human Resource Development b. Ministry of External Affairs c. Ministry of Women and child Development d. Department of Space e. None of these


Q.53 Which day is celebrated as the World population Day every year? a. 10th May b. 11th August c. 11th July d. 10th June e. None of these Q.54 Recently “operation Thirst” was in news, it was organised by? a. National Cadet Corps b. Railway Police Force c. Central Response Police Force d. Delhi Metro e. None of these Q.55 What is India’s position in the world in terms of purchasing power Parity? a. 6th b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 5th e. None of these Q.56 Which is the first train handed over to a private player by the Indian Railways? a. Delhi-Mumbai Tejas Express b. Delhi-Lucknow Tejas Express c. Mumbai-Goa Tejas Express d. Delhi-Goa Tejas Express e. None of these Q.57 Which organisation of GOI is tasked to verify the standard of food for human consumption? a. Food processing department b. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India c. APEDA d. Food distribution department e. None of these Q.58 Who has been recently appointed as the CFO of the World Bank Group? a. Arundhati Bhattacharya b. Anshula Kant c. G. Padmanabhan d. Girish Chandra Chaturvedi e. None of these Q.59 The government has launched a “LaQshay” program for whom? a. Old age people b. Skill development of youth c. Prevent Labour room mortality d. Vocational training e. None of these Q.60 Who won the Wimbledon Women’s final 2019? a. Simona Halep b. Serena Williams c. Maria Sharapova d. Venus Williams e. None of these


Q.61 Regional passport office comes under which ministry of GOI? a. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting b. Ministry of External Affairs c. Finance and corporate affairs Ministry d. Human resource development ministry e. None of these Q.62 India has recently provided 250 homes for refugees to which country? a. China b. Maldives c. Myanmar d. Bhutan e. None of these Q.63 Recently Indian Army celebrated which year’s completion of Kargil War? a. 15 years b. 20 years c. 25 years d. 30 years e. None of these Q.64 Which statement is correct in terms of the recent trend in Wholesale price-based inflation? a. WPI has increased b. WPI has increased marginally c. WPI has decreased d. WPI is stagnant e. None of these Q.65 International Film Festival of India (IFFI) will mark its which edition in the year 2019? a. Silver Jubilee Edition b. Golden Jubilee Edition c. platinum Jubilee Edition d. Diamond Jubilee Edition e. None of these Q.66 Vinesh Phogat who recently won gold at Yasar Dogu International is a? a. Boxer b. Wrestler c. Gymnast d. Sprinter e. None of these Q.67 Chandrayaan-2 mission of ISRO will explore which side of the Moon? a. Lunar North pole b. Lunar South pole c. Earth-facing surface d. Moon’s orbital rotation surface e. None of these Q.68 Recently England won the title of ICC cricket world cup 2019, choose the correct statement in this context? a. England became the 3rd country to win the cup b. England became the 4th country to win the cup c. England became the 6th country to win the cup d. England became the 10th country to win the cup e. None of these Q.69 Who won the fifth Wimbledon title in men’s singles 2019? a. Roger Federer b. Novak Djokovic c. Rafael Nadal d. Andy Murray e. None of these


Q.70 The SARFAESI Act of the government of India is linked with? a. Recovering dues exceeding 5 lakh b. Recovering dues exceeding 2 lakh c. Recovering dues exceeding 1 lakh d. Recovering dues exceeding 10 lakh e. None of these Q.71 With respect to Basic Savings Bank Deposit (BSBD) accounts, which statement is correct? a. A minimum balance is required b. No minimum balance is required c. Limit on the number of deposits d. Banks charge for additional services e. None of these Q.72 Global Economic Prospects report is released by? a. World Economic Forum b. IMF c. World Bank d. OECD e. None of these Q.73 With powers vested under which Act, RBI has recently imposed a penalty on SBI bank for noncompliance of its IRAC and CRILC norms? a. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 b. Banking Regulation Act,1949 c. State Bank of India Act, 1955 d. Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976 e. None of these Q.74 The Fast-Track Mechanism recently in news, was to facilitate investors and companies of India and ___? a. China b. France c. Germany d. Italy e. None of these Q.75 ‘Resilient Kerala Initiative’ is a partnership project between the Kerala government and ____? a. IMF b. World Bank c. WTO d. SAARC e. None of these Q.76 Out of the given options, which committee is related to the surplus transfer of reserves between RBI and the government? a. H.R. khan committee b. Tapan Ray committee c. Bimal Jalan committee d. TN Mahoharan committee e. None of these Q.77 What is the maximum duration of time for the completion of the resolution process for corporates, allowed under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC)? a. 330 days b. 270 days c. 250 days d. 100 days e. None of these


Q.78 Among the following sportspersons, who is appointed as the UNICEF India’s Youth Ambassador? a. Dutee Chand b. Hima Das c. Mithali Raj d. MC Mary Kom e. None of these Q.79 The 15th Finance Commission is using which census for resource allocation of funds? a. 1971 b. 2001 c. 2011 d. 1991 e. None of these Q.80 The Budget 2019-20 has proposed to transfer___% of SEBI’s surplus funds to the government? a. 20% b. 60% c. 25% d. 75% e. None of these Q.81 Which Indian player is recently inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame? a. Sourav Ganguly b. M.S. Dhoni c. Sachin Tendulkar d. Virat Kohli e. None of these Q.82 Which infrastructure finance entity was proposed to be set up in Budget 2019-20? a. Credit Guarantee Bond Corporation b. Credit Guarantee Enhancement Corporation c. Credit Bond Enhancement Corporation d. Credit Bond Rating Corporation e. None of these Q.83 Which is the 1st foreign bank to launch operations at IFSC GIFT City, Gujarat? a. Abu Dhabi Commercial Bank b. Bank International Indonesia c. Standard Chartered d. Antwerp Diamond Bank e. None of these Q.84 According to the disclosure norms of SEBI, all listed banks have to disclose the NPAs exceeding ____% of the reported profit before provisions and contingencies? a. 15% b. 10% c. 20% d. 25% e. None of these Q.85 The Finance bill consisting of the amendment of the SEBI Act is passed in the parliament as? a. An ordinary Bill b. Financial Bill c. Money Bill d. Constitutional Amendment Bill e. None of these


Q.86 What is the present term of the chairman of the National Human Rights Commission? a. 4 years b. 5 years c. 3 years d. 6 years e. None of these Q.87 Which day is celebrated as ‘Kargil Vijay Diwas’? a. 25th July b. 26th July c. 27th July d. 28th July e. None of these Q.88 The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has recently prohibited the use of Colistin in the animal food industry because? a. It is harmful to milch animals b. It increases anti-microbial resistance in animals c. It increases anti-microbial resistance in humans d. It affects the fertility of animals e. None of these Q.89 Apollo 11 has marked its ___ anniversary on moon landing on 20th July 2019? a. 25th b. 40th c. 50th d. 75th e. None of these Q.90 National Productivity Summit recently in news is related to which sector? a. Agriculture b. Manufacturing Industry c. Fisheries d. Education e. None of these Q.91 Which statement is correct about the legality of cryptocurrency in India? a. It is considered as a legal tender money b. It is accepted in financial transactions and banks c. Both a & b d. It is considered cryptocurrencies as legal tender or coin e. No statement is correct Q.91 RBI’s medium-term strategy framework UTKARSH 2022 has a duration of? a. 2020-2023 b. 2019-2024 c. 2020-2022 d. 2019-2022 e. None of these Q.93 What is the theme of the Global Innovation Index 2019? a. Creating Innovative ideas- The Future Innovation b. Creating Healthy Lives - The Future of Medical Innovation c. Live to Elders- Future of Medical Innovation d. Creating Child and Mother lives-The Future of Medical Innovation e. None of these


Q.94 Which country has topped the Global Innovation Index 2019? a. France b. Germany c. USA d. Switzerland e. None of these Q.95 Which among the following report is published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF)? a. World Development Report b. World Economic Outlook Report c. Global Economic Prospects d. World Economic Situation and Prospects Report e. Both b and c are correct Q.96 Which country has recently made free visa-on-arrival facility for India? a. China b. Pakistan c. Srilanka d. Bhutan e. None of these Q.97 As per IBBI new norm, the resolution professionals will not be eligible to obtain the ‘Authorisation for Assignment’ once they attain the age of? a. 60 years b. 65 years c. 70 years d. 75 years e. None of these Q.98 Which state has recently stalled the centre’s PM Fasal Bima Yojana Scheme and launched its own crop insurance scheme? a. Odisha b. Jharkhand c. West Bengal d. Andhra Pradesh e. None of these Q.99 Recently the term “Cloud seeding” was in news in the context of___? a. Cybersecurity b. Non Communicable disease c. Artificial rainfall d. Export demand from China e. None of these Q.100 The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) is a _____? a. Statutory body b. Constitutional body c. Quasi-judicial body d. State regulatory e. None of these Q.101 “UKEIRI Mobility Programme: Study in India”, is associated with India and_____? a. USA b. UK c. China d. Germany e. None of these


Q.102 Who is the present chairman of the National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA)? a. Amand Shah b. R Bhagyadevi c. Badri Narain Sharma d. J C Chauhan e. None of these Q.103 With respect to the Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan-Dhan Yojana, choose the correct statement? a. It is eligible for a person between 18-40 years of age b. The person will get a monthly pension of Rs 3000/month after attaining 60 years of age c. The contribution of the person to the scheme varies with the age of enrolment d. All are correct e. a & b are correct Q.104 The government has reduced the GST on Electric Vehicles to____? a. 12% b. 5% c. 18% d. 10% e. None of them Q.105 In which context UN-SPIDER was in news recently? a. Export to Asian countries b. Sharing data among the world’s central banks c. Sharing data on disasters among countries d. Sharing data on terrorism with countries e. None of these Q.106 Raising day is celebrated by which police force? a. CRPF b. ITBP c. BSF d. CIPF e. None of these Q.107 Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Beema Yojna is applicable to? a. Small traders and vendors of age group 18-60 years b. Shopkeepers and small businessman of age group 18-40 years c. All individuals of age group 18-70 years d. Both a and b e. None of them Q.108 Which is the last country to become a member of BRICS in 2010? a. Srilanka b. South Africa c. Seychelles d. Saudi Arabia e. None of these Q.109 The Ambedkar Hastshilp Vikas Yojana was launched for which sector? a. Agriculture b. Artisans c. Construction workers d. Traders e. None of these


Q.110 SBI has signed an agreement with which company for upkeeping its Agri mortgaged commodities? a. Systematic lending commodity Management b. Sohan Lal Commodity Management c. Shyam Lal Commodity Management d. Systematic lowest commodity Management e. None of these Q.111 As per the IBBI norms, what is the timeline given for completing the liquidation process for corporate debtors? a. 2 years b. 60 days c. 1 year d. 5 years e. None of these Q.112 Which day is celebrated as International Tiger Day every year? a. 26th June b. 29th July c. 29th June d. 26th July e. None of these Q.113 Under which ministry the 7th Economic census is being conducted? a. Ministry of commerce and industry b. Ministry of Human Resource Development c. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation d. Ministry of Development of North-East Region e. None of these Q.114 The first Himalayan Conclave was held in which state? a. Tripura b. Jharkhand c. Punjab d. Uttarakhand e. None of these Q.115 The domestic proxy advisory firms are regulated under? a. SEBI Act 1992 b. SEBI (Research Analysts) Regulations, 2014 c. SEBI (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018 d. SEBI (Procedure for Search and Seizure) Repeal Regulations, 2015 e. None of these Q.116 Which out of the following states in India has got GI tag for ‘Banglar Rasogolla? a. Odisha b. West Bengal c. Both a & b d. Neither a nor b e. None of these Q.117 The Companies (Amendment) Bill, 2019 has made provisions for? a. Corporate Bonds b. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) c. Companies shareholders d. Both a and c e. None of them


Q.118 As per RBI norms, ECBs with minimum 10 years average maturity period can be used for? a. General corporate purposes b. Working capital purposes c. Borrowing by NBFCs d. All of them e. None of these Q.119 Which option is correct in the context of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill? a. India is 1st country to ban triple Talaq b. Triple Talaq is a punishable offence with up to 3-year jail term c. The bill is passed by both the houses of the parliament d. b & c e. All of them ANSWERS

1 c 2 a 3 d 4 a 5 b 6 b 7 d 8 c 9 b 10 c

11 B 12 C 13 B 14 C 15 D 16 C 17 B 18 B 19 C 20 A

21 C 22 B 23 D 24 C 25 B 26 C 27 A 28 C 29 B 30 C

31 C 32 B 33 D 34 C 35 C 36 D 37 B 38 B 39 B 40 C

41 C 42 D 43 C 44 D 45 C 46 B 47 B 48 C 49 C 50 B

51 C 52 A 53 C 54 B 55 C 56 B 57 B 58 B 59 C 60 A

61 B 62 C 63 B 64 C 65 B 66 B 67 B 68 C 69 B 70 C

71 B 72 C 73 B 74 D 75 B 76 C 77 A 78 B 79 C 80 D

81 C 82 B 83 C 84 B 85 C 86 A 87 B 88 C 89 C 90 B

91 E 92 D 93 B 94 D 95 E 96 C 97 C 98 C 99 C 100 C

101 B 102 C 103 D 104 B 105 C 106 A 107 C 108 B 109 B 110 B

111 C 112 C 113 C 114 D 115 B 116 B 117 B 118 B 119 D


GENERAL AWARENESS II Q.1 The World Skills International Competition (WIC) 2019 will be held in? a. China b. Russia c. USA d. France e. None of these Q.2 What is the opposite of hedger in the derivative market or who complements hedger in derivative market? a. Buyer b. Seller c. Speculator d. Investor e. None of these Q.3 ISRO has recently instituted an ISRO Technical Liaison Unit (ITLU) in which country? a. China b. Japan c. Israel d. Russia e. None of these Q.4 Which gaming application is launched by Indian Air Force (IAF) to mobilise youth toward joining IAF? a. Indian Air Force: A cut Below b. Indian Air Force: A cut Above c. Indian Air Force: A Game Cut d. Indian Air Force: A Mobile Game Cut. e. None of these Q.5 PRAGATI, which is an ICT multi-modal platform used by PM Modi to address public grievances stands for? a. Programme on active governance and Their Implementation b. Pro-Active Governance And Timely Implementation c. Pro-Reliable Active Governance And Timely Implementation d. Perfect Reliable Active Governance and Their Implementation e. None of these Q.6 The 22nd National Conference on e-Governance 2019 will be held in? a. Tripura b. Manipur c. Assam d. Meghalaya e. None of these Q.7 The One Nation-One Ration Card allows beneficiaries to buy subsidized rice and wheat by linking ration card with_____? a. Aadhaar card b. Voter card c. Domicile d. BPL card e. None of these Q.8 Which institute has recently developed the technology to convert solid waste into biofuels? a. IIT Delhi b. IIT kharagpur c. IIT Bombay d. IIT Rorkee e. None of these


Q.9 The National Time Release Study (TRS) is associated with? a. Agriculture b. Cargo Trade c. Health d. Education e. None of these Q.10 According to the latest World Gold Council (WGC) report, the demand for gold is_____? a. 3-year low b. 3-year high c. Stagnant since 2013 d. All of above e. None of them Q.11 Which statement is correct regarding RBI guidelines for elected directors in public sector banks? a. The directors will be nominated by the nomination and remuneration committee b. all PSBs have to constitute a nomination and remuneration committee c. only statement b is correct d. only statement a is correct e. both a & b are correct Q.12 What is the theme of the World Breastfeeding Week 2019 organised by the Women and Child Development Ministry? a. Enable mother, Enable Breastfeeding b. Empower mother, Enable Breastfeeding c. Empower Parents, Enable Breastfeeding d. Empower Village, Enable Breastfeeding e. None of these Q.13 Which country has given the highest State honour of National Order of Merit to the president of India? a. Nigeria b. Kenya c. Guinea d. Uruguay e. None of these Q.14 The HRD Ministry has announced to give the tag of Institutions of Eminence (IoE) to____? a. 5 public and 5 private institutions b. 5 public and 10 private institutions c. 10 public and 10 private institutions d. 10 public and 5 private institutions e. None of these Q.15 Who has won the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2019 from India? a. Akshay Kumar b. Rajiv Kumar c. Ravish Kumar d. Manoj Kumar e. None of these Q.16 Which state has launched the Scheme ‘Vhali Dikri Yojana’ to ensure gender equality? a. Kerala b. Karnataka c. Madhya Pradesh d. Gujarat e. None of these


Q.17 The Department of Biotechnology has decided to launch Genome sequencing of 20,000 Indians for? a. Making a DNA data bank of Indians b. To predict cancer risk among Indians c. To find Virus infection from Foreigners d. Both a and c e. None of these Q.18 Recently RBI has fined 11 Banks for non-compliance with its direction of? a. Fraud classification and reporting by core investment companies b. Frauds classification and reporting by commercial banks c. Frauds classification and reporting by NBFCs d. Frauds classification and reporting by Small Finance Bank e. None of these Q.19 Which Indian women wrestler has won gold at the Poland Open wrestling tournament? a. Vinesh Phogat b. Babita Phogat c. Geeta Phogat d. Ritu Phogat e. None of these Q.20 The biggest fall of rupee against the dollar in the last six years, was recently in news at? a. Crossing 70 level mark b. Crossing 80 level mark c. Crossing 75 level mark d. Crossing 68 level mark e. None of these Q.21 The Consumer Protection Bill 2019 will replace which existing act? a. The Consumer Protection Act, 1980 b. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 c. The Consumer Protection Act, 1990 d. The Consumer Protection Act, 2000 e. None of these Q.22 The National Handloom Day is celebrated on which date? a. 7th July b. 7th August c. 7th November d. 7th June e. None of these Q.23 Which of the following has launched the life term insurance plan ‘Jeevan Amar’? a. HDFC Life b. Birla Sun Life Insurance c. Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) d. SBI Life Insurance Company e. None of these Q.24 Which out of the following has launched the “Identity Check Express” for online payment security?


a. PayPal b. Standard Chartered c. American Express d. MasterCard e. None of these Q.25 India signed the United Nations Convention on International Settlement Agreements (UNISA) at which convention? a. Singapore Convention on Mediation b. Bangkok Convention on Mediation c. Srilanka Convention on Mediation d. Thailand Convention on Mediation e. None of these Q.26 Researchers of which institute has recently developed a portable device to detect bacteria? a. IIT Delhi b. IIT Bombay c. IIT Guwahati d. IIT Kharagpur e. None of these Q.27 The United Nations Relief and Works Agency provides assistance to? a. Rohingya refugees b. Hindu refugees from Pakistan c. Minorities in India d. Palestinian Refugees e. None of these Q.28 RBI in its third bi-monthly policy has decided to extend the working hour of the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) from 8 am to 7pm to? a. 8 am to 9 pm b. 7 am to 9 pm c. 24x7 round-the-clock d. 9 am to 9 pm e. None of these Q.29 Recently ISRO has announced an award on the centenary year celebrations of Dr. Vikram Sarabhai for whom? a. School students b. Research Scholars c. Journalists d. Scientists e. None of these Q.30 The National Medical Commission Bill 2019 seeks to establish which common test for MBBS students to take admission in PG courses? a. National Medical Exam b. National Medical Exit Test c. National Exit Test d. National Final Medical Test e. None of these Q.31 Which out of the following banks has recently got the status of scheduled Bank by RBI? a. Allahabad Bank b. Coastal Local Area Bank Ltd. c. Jana Small Finance Bank Ltd. d. Amarnath Co-operative Bank Ltd. e. None of these


Q.32 Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) lists species in ____ appendices? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 7 e. None of these Q.33 Which edition of the Renewable Energy Investors' Meet and Expo (RE-INVEST) is going to be held in 2019? a. 1st edition b. 2nd edition c. 3rd edition d. 4th edition e. None of these Q.34 The World Biofuel Day is celebrated on ____? a. 1st August b. 10th July c. 11th August d. 10th August e. None of these Q.35 Women Transforming India Awards is a flagship initiative of___? a. Women and Child Development Ministry b. NITI Aayog c. Female Empowerment and Development Association (FEDA) d. Gender and Development Association (GDA) e. None of these Q.36 The ‘Samagra Shiksha-Jal Suraksha’ is launched to create awareness about water conservation among____? a. People of drought-affected areas b. People of flood-prone areas c. School Students d. Rural people e. None of these Q.37 Which film has got the award for best film on social issues in the 66th National Film Awards 2018? a. Toilet b. Uri: The Surgical Strike c. Padman d. Badhai Ho e. None of these Q.38 The 3rd edition of International Electronic Vehicle (EV) conclave was held at? a. Indore b. Gurugram c. Noida d. Kolkata e. None of these Q.39 Mukhyamantri Krishi Aashirwad Yojana is an ambitious scheme of which state government? a. Kerala b. Punjab c. Jharkhand d. Odisha e. None of these


Q.40 The L3 status of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), recently in the news signifies? a. Need for state assistance for a disaster b. Need for Centres assistance for a disaster c. Need for district assistance for a disaster d. Need for global assistance for a disaster e. None of these Q.41 Out of the following which train/trains provide service to passengers between India and Pakistan? a. Sahara Train b. Samjhauta Train c. Thar Express d. Both a & b e. Both b & c Q.42 Recently the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) has organized a two-day exhibition on DAE spin-off technologies in______? a. Gurugram b. Chandigarh c. New Delhi d. Bhopal e. None of these Q.43 The Defence Ministry provides Child Care Leave (CCL) to? a. Woman officers in defence forces b. Single male service personnel in defence c. only a d. only b e. both a & b Q.44 Which state has recently signed the Memorandum of Settlement with the National Liberation Front of Twipra (NLFT- SD)? a. Odisha b. Tripura c. Mizoram d. Nagaland e. None of these Q.45 National Youth Award is conferred by which department/Ministry of Government of India? a. Ministry of Labour and Employment b. Ministry of Human Resource Development c. Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports d. Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprise e. None of these Q.46 Who is known as the father of Indian Space Program? a. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam b. Rakesh Sharma c. Mylswamy Annadurai d. Dr. Vikram Sarabhai e. None of these


Q.47 The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019 (UAPA) deals with? a. Companies fraud b. Credit rating agencies faults c. Terrorists d. Ponzi scam e. None of these Q.48 Who has won the FIM Baja World Cup 2019 in women’s category? a. Roshini sharma b. Mc Ritizer Kensley c. Aishwarya Pissay d. Daniel Sanoy e. None of these Q.49 Recently Union Minister of Textiles, Smriti Zubin Irani, inaugurated Textiles Gallery at National Crafts Museum in___? a. Kanpur b. Bhubaneswar c. Hyderabad d. New Delhi e. None of these Q.50 Recently a special drive named “Operation Number Plate” was launched by? a. Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC) b. Railway Protection Force (RPF) c. Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) d. Indian Coast Guard (ICG) e. None of these Q.51 The Swachh Survekshan 2020 has been launched under which ministry? a. Ministry of Drinking water and Sanitation b. Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs c. Ministry of Health & Family welfare d. Ministry of Rural Development e. None of these Q.52 A High-Level Committee chaired by the Secretary (Corporate Affairs) Injeti Srinivas was in news in the context of? a. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) b. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) c. laws of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code d. Core Investment Company (CIC) e. None of these Q.53 Maharshi Badrayan Vyas Samman award is given to Scholars once in a year on? a. Hindi Diwas b. Republic Day c. Independence Day d. Sanskrit Diwas e. None of these


Q.54 Who has won the Junior Wrestling World Championship 2019? a. Sushil Kumar b. Yogeshwar Dutt c. Pawan Kumar d. Deepak Punia e. None of these Q.55 Who is the chairman of the Inter-State Council? a. Chief Minister of the concerned state b. Governor of the concerned state c. Prime Minister d. President e. None of these Q.56 Which product/technology/services are not acceptable for testing in Regulatory Sandbox? a. cryptocurrency/crypto assets services b. trading/investing /settling in crypto assets c. only a d. only b e. both a&b Q.57 Who has been awarded Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Award by the Tamil Nadu government in 2019? a. K. Sivan (ISRO Chairman) b. Pichai Sundararajan (Google CEO) c. Pichai Sundararajan (President of Singapore) d. Krishnamurthy Nooyi (CEO of PEPSICO) e. None of these Q.58 The SAMARTH scheme is associated with which sector? a. Artisans b. Textiles c. Farmers d. School students e. None of these Q.59 The post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) is recently formed for? a. To ensure coordination among the Indian air force and Indian army b. To ensure coordination among the Indian air force and Indian navy c. To ensure coordination among the Indian air navy and Indian army d. To ensure coordination among the Indian air force, Indian Army and Indian Navy e. None of these Q.60 Choose the correct match for the product with its place of origin for GI tag? a. Tawlhlohpuan- Mizoram b. Mizo Puanchei- Tripura c. Tirur betel vine- Karnataka d. Palani Panchamirtham- Kerala e. None of these Q.61 The Aadi Mahotsava 2019 was held at? a. Srinagar b. Ladakh c. Bhopal d. Bhubaneswar e. None of these


Q.62 The Differential Voting Rights (DVRs) shares for Start-ups have been recently revised to? a. 26% b. 74% c. 68% d. 80% e. None of these Q.63 The Defence Minister has recently constituted a Committee to review Defence Procurement Procedure under the chairmanship of? a. Chairmanship of Director General (Acquisition) b. Chief of Armed staff c. Chief of the Naval Staff d. Chief of defence staff (CDS) e. None of these Q.64 The 28th ministerial meeting of the BASIC countries on climate change was held in? a. South Africa b. Brazil c. China d. India e. None of these Q.65 Recently a two-day International Conference on Teacher Education was held in New Delhi by? a. National Council of Educational Research and Training b. Central Board of Secondary Education c. National Teachers Council d. National Council of Teacher Education e. None of these Q.66 Mangdechhu hydel power project recently inaugurated by PM Modi, is in? a. Bangladesh b. Bhutan c. Nepal d. Myanmar e. None of these Q.67 Recently the government has planned to give debt wavier under the insolvency law framework to? a. steel sector only b. small distressed borrowers under EWS category only c. home buyers d. Power sector only e. None of these Q.68 Who has won gold at Athleticky Mitink Reiter 300m race event in women’s category? a. Saumya Narayan b. Dutee Chand c. Hima Das d. Garima Parthi e. None of these


Q.69 5 new fish species have been discovered recently by the Zoology Researchers of the Rajiv Gandhi University (RGU) in? a. Odisha b. Mizoram c. Arunachal Pradesh d. Assam e. None of these Q.70 Which state has announced to set up Atal Bihari Vajpayee residential schools for children of labourers? a. Jharkhand b. Bihar c. Madhya Pradesh d. Uttar Pradesh e. None of these Q.71 Currently the Debenture Reserve Requirement (DRR) for issuance of debentures by HFCs, NBFCs and listed firms is? a. 25% b. 10% c. 30% d. 20% e. None of these Q.72 What is the time limit given by SEBI for making the bond issue in a case where shareholders’ approval for making the bond issue is not required? a. 2 months b. 15 days c. 25 days d. 1 month e. None of these Q.73 The “bottom-up consultative process” was an initiative of Finance Ministry to take feedbacks from? a. Core Investment Companies b. NBFCs c. Public Sector Banks d. Credit Rating Agencies e. None of these Q.74 The government has recently made a uniform age of retirement for CAPF personnel to? a. 60 years b. 57 years c. 65 years d. 58 years e. None of these Q.75 Out of the following options, which sportsperson has been given Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in 2019? a. Mohammed Anas Yahiya (Athletics) b. Arup Basak (Table Tennis) c. Bajrang Punia (Wrestling) d. Ravindra Jadeja (Cricket) e. None of these Q.76 As per the recently released Credit Suisse Report, which statement correctly depicts the current lending situation of the entities? a. Growth in loans by NBFCs has slowed down b. Growth in loans by private banks has slowed down c. Both a & b d. All of them e. None of these


Q.77 Who has submitted the new Direct Tax Code (DTC) report as the convenor of the task force appointed by the government? a. Akhilesh Ranjan b. Arbind Modi c. Rajiv Modi d. Subhash shah e. None of these Q.78 The Draft National Resource Efficiency Policy (NREP), 2019 has been proposed by which ministry? a. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy b. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change c. Ministry of Earth Science d. Ministry of Petroleum & Natural gas e. None of these Q.79 Who is recently appointed as the Cabinet Secretary by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC)? a. Ajay Kumar b. Rajiv Gauba c. Subhash Chandra d. Brij Kumar Agarwal e. None of these Q.80 Recently the Indian Railways has decided to include _____ as a part of Extended Producer Responsibility? a. Electronic waste b. Cleanliness of toilets/bathrooms c. Single use plastic d. Used Newspapers e. None of these Q.81 Which state has topped the State Rooftop Solar Attractiveness Index–SARAL? a. Madhya Pradesh b. Uttar Pradesh c. Kerala d. Karnataka e. None of these Q.82 The government has recently launched an initiative called NISHTHA for? a. School Students b. Teachers c. Farmers d. Physically Disabled e. None of these Q.83 Recently the book “The diary of Manu Gandhi” has been brought out to the public by? a. Institute of Asian Studies, Kolkata b. National Archives of India c. National Museum Institute d. Indian Council for Cultural Relations e. None of these


Q.84 Section 80-IAC of the Income Tax Act, 1961 was recently in the news for which context? a. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code related norms b. Foreign direct investment c. Angel tax provisions d. Start-ups tax holiday eligibility e. None of these Q.85 The ‘San-Sadhan’ Hackathon recently in the news was organised for finding solutions for? a. Divyangjan affordable transport b. Divyangjan accessible toilets c. Divyangjan accessible government offices d. Divyangjan affordable housing e. None of these Q.86 The World Police and Fire Games 2019 was held in? a. Bangladesh b. China c. Nepal d. Bhutan e. None of these Q.87 The 1st World Youth Conference on Kindness was/will be held in which year? a. 2017 b. 2018 c. 2019 d. 2020 e. None of these Q.88 Sabka Vishwas-Legacy Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2019 recently notified and implemented by the government was announced in the Budget____? a. 2018-19 b. 2017-18 c. 2016-17 d. 2015-16 e. None of these Q.89 Which ministry has launched the Poshan Abhiyaan Awards 2018-19? a. Ministry of Jal Shakti b. Ministry of Women and Child Development c. Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation d. Ministry of Rural Development e. None of these Q.90 The Composite Water Management Index is released by? a. Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation b. Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare c. Ministry of Development of North-east region d. NITI Aayog e. None of these


Q.91 Which country has conferred it’s the highest civilian decoration ‘Order of Zayed’ to Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi? a. Bahrain b. UAE c. Israel d. Oman e. None of these Q.92 The G7 summit 2019 was held in? a. France b. USA c. Italy d. Japan e. None of these Q.93 Who has won the title of the World Badminton Championship 2019? a. Saina Nehwal b. Jwala Gutta c. PV V. Lakshmi d. Pusarla Venkata Sindhu e. None of these Q.94 Choose the correct option in the context of withdrawal of enhanced Surcharge on tax payable on the transfer of certain assets by the Government recently? a. The surcharge is levied under the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019 b. Capital assets under section 111A and section 112A of the income tax Act 1961 are exempted c. Both a & b d. Both are not domestic as well as foreign investors e. None of these Q.95 Who is the head of the Advisory Board for Banking Frauds (ABBF) constituted by the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) to examine bank frauds? a. YM Malegam b. T M Bhasin c. B.P. Kanungo d. Mahesh Kumar Jain e. None of these Q.96 What is the present age limit of the managing director of the International Monetary Fund? a. 66 years b. 70 years c. 50 years d. 65 years e. None of these Q.97 Which country has recently faced the Dengue outbreak in 2019? a. China b. Bangladesh c. Myanmar d. Srilanka e. None of these Q.98 Standard Chartered Bank has recently tied-up with which bank to issue a co-branded credit card to that bank’s customers? a. Dena Bank b. HSBC c. Bandhan Bank d. Punjab National Bank e. None of these


Q.99 What is the theme of the 7th Community Radio Sammelan 2019? a. Community Radio for Water b. Community Radio for Elders c. Community Radio for SDGs d. Community Radio for Women safety e. None of these Q.100 Who has won the title of World Archery Youth Championships 2019 in women’s recurve category? a. Deepika Kumari b. Komalika Bari c. Bombayla Devi Laishram d. Jyothi Surekha Vennam e. None of these Q.101 Which route has been inaugurated recently between India and Nepal for bus service? a. Kathmandu-Amravati b. Kathmandu- Bhopal c. Kathmandu-Siliguri d. Kathmandu-Prayagraj e. None of these Q.102 Energy Efficiency Services Ltd. (EESL) recently in the news, comes under which Ministry? a. Ministry of Power b. Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises c. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises d. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy e. None of these Q.103 The Well-Being Index Report recently in the news is released by? a. World Vision India b. India’s Vision to the World c. Smile Foundation d. India and its Children e. None of these Q.104 The Project SURE 'Sustainable Resolution', is launched by which Ministry? a. Ministry for Environment, Forest and Climate Change b. Ministry of Agriculture and Family welfare c. Ministry of Textiles d. Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises e. None of these Q.105 The Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Awards 2018 in lifetime achievement category is given to? a. Aparna Kumar b. Manikandan K c. Prabhat Raju Koli d. Wangchuk Sherpa e. None of these


Q.106 “Janaushadhi Sugam”, a mobile application has been launched by the Government of India for which purpose? a. To do a product comparison of Generic Vs Branded medicine b. To locate the Janaushadhi Kendra through Google Map c. Both a & b d. Do not push for women hygiene e. None of these Q.107 The government has recently decided to provide sugar export subsidy of _____? a. Rs10.45 per kg b. Rs11.45 per kg c. Rs12.45 per kg d. Rs15.45 per kg e. None of these Q.108 _____% of FDI is permitted for uploading and streaming news and current affairs using digital media, on the lines of print media? a. 20% b. 30% c. 26% d. 22% e. None of these Q.109 Which online portal has been launched recently by the Ministry of Human Resource Development for School Students? a. Veer b. Shahyog c. Shagun d. Samagra e. None of these Q.110 Which facial biometric technology has been launched by India in accordance with the Convention No. 185 of the International Labour Organisation (ILO)? a. Biometric People Identity Document b. Biometric Seafarer Identity Document c. Biometric Police Identity Document d. Biometric Personal Identity Document e. None of these Q.111 Which among the following movements have been launched by Prime Minister Modi on the National Sports Day 2019? a. Fit and Sporty Movement b. National Fitness Movement c. Fit India Movement d. Healthy and Fit India Movement e. None of these Q.112 Which ministry has recently launched an e-course on Vulnerability Atlas? a. Ministry of Human Resource and Development b. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs c. Ministry of Drinking water and sanitation d. Ministry of Earth Science e. None of these


Q.113 As per RBI, what percentage of total accounts were covered by Deposit insurance by end-March 2019? a. 26% b. 36% c. 92% d. 88% e. None of these Q.114 Recently 10 AYUSH Health and Wellness Centres were launched in the state of? a. Haryana b. Uttar Pradesh c. Uttaranchal d. Madhya Pradesh e. None of these Q.115 Which among the following is not included in the merger of 10 PSBs, announced recently? a. Punjab National Bank b. Canara Bank c. Syndicate Bank d. South Indian Bank e. None of these Q.116 Which state assembly has recently passed the bill against religion conversion by force? a. Uttar Pradesh b. Madhya Pradesh c. Himachal Pradesh d. Arunachal Pradesh e. None of these Q.117 The Safe Cities Index is released by? a. The Economist Intelligence Unit b. The World Bank Unit c. The World Economic Forum d. International Monetary Forum e. None of these Q.118 The Mount Kun lies in which Indian state? a. Jammu and Kashmir b. Uttaranchal c. Sikkim d. Arunachal Pradesh e. None of these ANSWERS

1 B 2 c 3 D 4 B 5 D 6 D 7 A 8 B 9 B 10 B

11 E 12 C 13 C 14 C 15 C 16 D 17 B 18 B 19 A 20 A

21 B 22 B 23 C 24 D 25 A 26 C 27 D 28 C 29 C 30 C

31 C 32 B 33 C 34 D 35 B 36 C 37 C 38 D 39 C 40 B

41 E 42 C 43 E 44 B 45 C 46 D 47 C 48 C 49 D 50 B

51 B 52 A 53 C 54 D 55 C 56 E 57 A 58 B 59 D 60 A

61 B 62 B 63 A 64 B 65 D 66 B 67 B 68 C 69 C 70 D

71 D 72 B 73 C 74 A 75 C 76 C 77 A 78 B 79 B 80 C

81 D 82 B 83 B 84 D 85 B 86 B 87 C 88 A 89 B 90 D

91 B 92 A 93 D 94 C 95 B 96 D 97 B 98 C 99 C 10

0 B

101 C

102 A

103 A

104 C

105 D

106 C

107 A

108 C

109 C

110 B

111 C

112 B

113 C

114 A

115 D

116 C

117 A

118 A


GENERAL AWARENESS III Q.1 Which Act was recently put into force for increasing the penalty/fine for a traffic rule violation? a) Motor Vehicle (Amendment) Act, 2018 b) Motor Vehicle (Amendment) Act, 2017 c) Motor Vehicle (Amendment) Act, 2019 d) Motor Vehicle (Amendment) Act, 2016 e) None of these Q.2 Who has been recently appointed as the Governor of Telangana by the President of India? a) TamilisaiSoundararajan b) Kalraj Mishra c) Karti Chidambaram d) M. Rajeev e) None of these Q.3 What is the ranking of India in the Happiness Index 2019? a) 1st b) 9th c) 4th d) 11th e) 20th Q.4 Which country is the host of the 14th session of the Conference of Parties (COP) of the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)? a) China b) Russia c) USA d) India e) None of these Q.5 Which month in 2019 was celebrated as the 'RashtriyaPoshanMaah'? a) June b) August c) September d) November e) None of these Q.6 Recently the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) signed a statement of intent with Google to launch which programme? a) A path for Digital India b) Towards Digital India c) Build for Digital India d) Grow towards Digital India e) None of these Q.7 Recently a Fintech committee was constituted by the government as per the announcement of which year’s Budget proposal? a) 2019-2020 b) 2018-2019 c) 2017-2018 d) 2016-2017 e) None of these


Q.8 Which Grinder Machine has been recently launched by the government for reusing wasted pottery items? a) Plastic Grinder b) Ceramic Grinder c) Terracotta Grinder d) Earthenware Grinder e) None of these Q.9 Which country hosted the 72nd Session of the WHO Regional Committee for South-East Asia held in 2019? a) China b) Bangladesh c) India d) Bhutan e) None of these Q.10 Which is the most advanced multi-role heavy attack helicopter in the world, that was recently added into the Indian Air Force (IAF)? a) Bell AH-1 Cobra b) Kamov Ka-50 c) Mil Mi-28 d) AH-64E Apache e) None of these Q.11 Which country has been given the Chairmanship of the Association of World Election Bodies (AWEB) in 2019? a) China b) Russia c) India d) South Africa e) None of these Q.12 Choose the correct option among the following with respect to the Global Fund for AIDS, TB and Malaria (GFTAM)? a) India has a partnership with GFTAM as a recipient only b) India has a partnership with GFTAM as a donor only c) India has a partnership with GFTAM both as a recipient and as a donor d) India has a partnership with GFTAM Neither as a recipient nor as a donor e) None of these Q.13 The Government has recently approved the Capital Infusion of Rs 4,557 crore in which bank on a one-time basis? a) Allahabad Bank b) Bank of Baroda c) IDBI Bank d) Dena Bank e) None of these Q.14 The military training exercise “YudhAbhyas” is conducted between? a) India-Russia b) India-Srilanka c) India-Bangladesh d) India-USA e) None of these Q.15 The 20th India-Russia Summit was held at? a) New Delhi, India b) Moscow, Russia c) Vladivostok, Russia d) Greater Noida, India e) None of these


Q.16 Recently Prime Minister Modi was invited by the Russian President Vladimir Putin as the chief guest of? a) 5th Western Economic Forum b) 5th Eastern Economic Forum c) 5th Southern Economic Forum d) 5th Northern Economic Forum e) None of these Q.17 Which external benchmarks are proposed by the RBI to banks to link their fresh retail loans? a) Policy repo rate b) The Government of India’s 3-month and 6-month Treasury bill yields published by Financial Benchmarks India Private (FBIL) c) Any other benchmark market interest rate published by FBIL d) All of them e) None of these Q.18 The 1st Asean-US Maritime Exercise (AUMX) is conducted across which sea? a) Baltic Sea b) Caspian Sea c) South China Sea d) Mediterranean Sea e) None of these Q.19 The TSENTR 2019 is an annual armed force training exercise of which country? a) USA b) Russia c) China d) France e) None of these Q.20 Which out of the following has been launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare at the 72nd Session of the WHO Regional Committee for South-East Asia? a) Eat Right India Movement b) Healthy India Movement c) Good Health India Movement d) Right Food India Movement e) None of these Q.21 The “Kaushalacharya Awards” is launched by which Ministry? a) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports b) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship c) Ministry of Science and Technology d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment e) None of these Q.22 The SLINEX 2019 is a joint maritime naval exercise between? a) India and South Africa b) Indonesia and South Africa c) Singapore and Indonesia d) Srilanka and India e) None of these


Q.23 The CORPAT Patrol exercise is conducted between? a) India-Srilanka b) India-Maldives c) India-Indonesia d) India-Bangladesh e) None of these Q.24 What was the name of the lander of ISRO’s Chandrayaan-2 lunar Spacecraft? a) Pragyan b) Vikram c) Pranay d) Vasistha e) None of these Q.25 The 6th edition of the India-China strategic economic dialogue 2019 would be held in? a) China b) India c) Nepal d) Bhutan e) None of these Q.26 The government has estimated Rs_______ for capital expenditure for the FY 2019-20? a) Rs 2.38-lakh crore b) Rs 3.38-lakh crore c) Rs 4.38-lakh crore d) Rs 5.38-lakh crore e) None of these Q.27 The second multi-modal Terminal has been inaugurated recently at? a) Varanasi b) Sahibganj c) Haridwar d) Prayagraj e) None of these Q.28 The United Nations Human Rights Council is headquartered at? a) Paris b) Washington D.C. c) Geneva d) Vienna e) None of these Q.29 Motihari-Amlekhganj petroleum product pipeline is inaugurated between? a) India-Bangladesh b) India-Srilanka c) India-Bhutan d) India-Nepal e) None of these Q.30 The National Animal Disease control programme is launched to eradicate which disease/diseases? a) Bird flu b) Foot-and-mouth disease c) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy d) Rabies e) None of these Q.31 Which is the 2nd Scorpene class submarine, going to be commissioned into the Indian Navy? a) INS Kalvari b) INS Khanderi c) INS Vela d) INS Karanj e) None of these


Q.32 The first MoU to set up GeM Organizational Transformation Team- Project Management Unit (GOTT PMU) was made with which state? a) Jharkhand b) Bihar c) Odisha d) Punjab e) None of these Q.33 National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) has recently for the inclusion of which Union Territory under Fifth/Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India? a) Chandigarh b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli c) Daman & Diu d) Ladakh e) None of these Q.34 The 1st Indian Institute of Skills (IISs) is to be built in? a) Mumbai b) Ahmedabad c) Kanpur d) Varanasi e) None of these Q.35 The National Pension Scheme for Traders and Self Employed Persons is applicable to the age group? a) 18 to 35 years b) 18 to 40 years c) 18 to 50 years d) 18 to 60 years e) None of these Q.36 Under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana, the farmer would receive a monthly pension of Rs_____ after attaining 60 years age? a) 2000 b) 3000 c) 4000 d) 5000 e) None of these Q.37 The training exercise MAITREE is conducted between which countries? a) India-Thailand b) India-Indonesia c) India-Srilanka d) India-Bangladesh e) None of these Q.38 Which exoplanet has been discovered recently to have water in its atmosphere? a) K1-17b b) K2-17b c) K1-18b d) K2-18b e) K3-18b Q.39 The Ministry of Railways has recently signed an MoU with Confederation of Indian Industries (CII) to facilitate ___? a) Passenger service in Railways b) Plastic removal in Railway Premises c) To provide Coal and Power Supply d) Green initiative in Indian Railways e) None of these


Q.40 Which state is the first in the country to launch the Jan Soochna Portal on the lines of RTI Act, 2005? a) Madhya Pradesh b) Rajasthan c) Uttar Pradesh d) Maharashtra e) None of these Q.41 Who is the largest exporter to India from Europe? a) France b) Germany c) Switzerland d) Spain e) None of these Q.42 Government has recently made the Aadhaar authentication or physical verification mandatory for? a) New Shopkeepers b) New Dealers c) New Imports d) New Exports e) None of these Q.43 The government has put the Minimum Export Price on which of the following commodity recently? a) Potato b) Tomato c) Onion d) Mustard e) None of these Q.44 Who has won the world title at the IBSF World Billiards Championship 2019? a) Saurav Advani b) Arjun Advani c) Pankaj Advani d) Rupesh Advani e) None of these Q.45 Which Ministry has recently launched the ‘JALDOOT’ a travelling exhibition for spreading the message of water conservation? a) Ministry of Drunking Water and Sanitation b) Ministry of Science and Technology c) Ministry of Women and Child Development d) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting e) None of these Q.46 The Ministry of Railways is recently done away with the existing fare system of which train? a) Ajanta Express b) Agniveena Express c) Humsafar Express d) Amaravati Express e) None of these Q.47 The Government has recently decided to replace the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) for textiles with? a) Scheme for Reduction of Duties or Taxes on Export Product (RoDTEP) b) Scheme for Remission of Duties or Taxes on Export Product (RoDTEP) c) Scheme for Removal of Duties or Taxes on Export Product (RoDTEP) d) Scheme for Re-examination of Duties or Taxes on Export Product (RoDTEP) e) None of these


Q.48 Who among the following has been chosen for the 2019 Asia Society Game Changers award? a) IPS Soumya Sharma b) IPS Chhaya Sharma c) IPS Rema Rajeshwari d) IPS Roopa Divakar Moudgil e) None of these Q.49 Recently, the Government has released a postage stamp on the foundation day of which Public Service Broadcasting channel? a) All India Radio b) Doordarshan c) BTRC d) KBS World e) None of these Q.50 The government initiatives LEAP and ARPIT are launched for which section? a) Farmers b) Teachers c) Small Traders and Shopkeepers d) Sugar mills e) None of these Q.51 Which Act has been recently passed by the government for speedy eviction of unauthorized occupants from Government residential accommodations? a) The Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorized Occupants) Amendment Bill, 2019 b) The officer Premises (Eviction of Unauthorized Occupants) Amendment Bill, 2019 c) The licence Premises (Eviction of Unauthorized Occupants) Amendment Bill, 2019 d) The government Premises (Eviction of Unauthorized Occupants) Amendment Bill, 2019 e) None of these Q.52 Choose the correct statement about the air-to-air missile ASTRA? a) It is indigenously built by DRDO b) ASTRA has a range of over 70 km c) Both a & b d) Over 6000 Kilometres per hour e) None of these Q.53 RBI has recently allowed ______ to apply for Small Finance Bank (SFB) licences through the “on tap licensing”? a) NBFCs b) Payment Banks c) Core Investment Companies d) NABARD e) None of these Q.54 Choose the correct option to boost the Credit flow in agriculture, as per the recommendations of RBI? a) No farm waivers b) Setting up of management information system (MIS) for banks c) Interest subvention/subsidy to be replaced with DBT d) All of them e) None of these


Q.55 The National Safety Award is given by which Ministry of the Government of India? a) Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change b) Ministry of Defence c) Ministry of Information & Broadcasting d) Ministry of Labour & Employment e) None of these Q.56 Choose the correct option with respect to the Prohibition of Electronic Cigarettes Ordinance 2019? a) It prohibits the storage of e-cigarettes b) It prohibits the export of e-cigarettes c) It prohibits the import of e-cigarettes d) All of them e) None of these Q.57 Which medal has Vinesh Phogat won at the World Wrestling Championship? a) Gold b) Silver c) Bronze d) Diamond e) None of these Q.58 The Government of India’s Scheme NIRVIK is concerned with? a) Import of Gold b) Insurance coverage on Exports c) Minimum Export Price d) Domestic Consumption e) None of these Q.59 What is the present strength of Judges in the Supreme Court? a) 31 b) 32 c) 33 d) 34 e) 35 Q.60 Under the National Educational Alliance for Technology (NEAT) scheme, the Startup companies have to provide ___% free coupons to the marginalised students? a) 20% b) 25% c) 30% d) 35% e) None of these Q.61 How much the government will invest in the fisheries sector to boost production and enhance the infrastructure of fishes in India? a) 25,000 Crores b) 35,000 Crores c) 45,000 Crores d) 55,000 Crores e) None of these


Q.62 The Finance Ministry has recently slashed the corporate tax rates to ___% for domestic companies and _____% for new domestic manufacturing companies. a) 15%, 20% b) 22%, 20% c) 22%, 15% d) 15%, 22% e) None of these Q.63 The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) has been implemented in all states of the country except? a) Odisha b) Andhra Pradesh c) Telangana d) Himachal Pradesh e) Both a & c Q.64 The 55th Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) was held at? a) Srilanka b) Myanmar c) Bangladesh d) Vietnam e) India Q.65 Choose the wrestlers who have scored medals at the World Championships 2019? a) Bajrang Punia b) Ravi Dahiya c) Vinesh Phogat d) Amit Dahiya e) Only a, b, c Q.66 Gandan Tegchenling Monastery, recently in the news is in which country? a) China b) Vietnam c) Mongolia d) Japan e) None of these Q.67 Which document has been made mandatory under GST to be linked during the registration of taxpayers? a) Personal Identification Number b) Aadhaar c) House number d) Both a and b e) None of these Q.68 In which of the following, a citizen-centric App named “E-Sathi” was launched recently? a) Uttar Pradesh b) Chandigarh c) Himachal Pradesh d) Goa e) Kerala Q.69 The “Glory Run” was organised recently in concern of? a) Sino-Indian War b) Kargil War c) First Battle of Panipat d) Partition of British India e) None of these


Q.70 Choose the correct statement as per the new Standard Operating Procedure-SOP of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways? a) Documents like Driving License and Registration Certificate can be produced in electronic form b) The documents presented must be available on DigiLocker or mParivahan app c) Online Verification d) Both a and b e) None of these Q.71 The WAWE Summit 2019 was recently organised for? a) Promoting women entrepreneurs to work towards waste management b) Promoting school students to work towards waste management c) Promoting citizens to work towards waste management d) Promoting MSMEs to work towards waste management e) None of these Q.72 The Margadarshan and Margdarshak Scheme were recently launched by the government for? a) Providing training to School teachers b) Help mentee institutions (institutions with low accreditation) improve their ranking c) Provide atleast 100 teachers to each mentee institutions (institutions with low accreditation) d) Help students of mentor institution to teach the students of mentee institutions e) None of these Q.73 RBI has expanded the scope of the Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) by allowing_____ payments on its platform? a) Recurring Payments b) Insurance Premium c) Mutual Funds d) Fixed Payments e) None of these Q.74 Recently, the government has allowed corporate social responsibility (CSR) spending on _______ for corporate companies? a) Waste Management Control b) Research and Development activities c) Water conservation d) Afforestation e) None of these Q.75 The newly “UMMID” initiative of the government is launched for which purpose? a) To provide early medication in the first one hour of child birth b) To reduce the new-born death due to malnutrition c) To provide aid for genetic disorders in new-borns d) To provide aid of Rs 7000 to each newborn girl child e) None of these


Q.76 The second edition of the India Tourism Mart (ITM) 2019 was recently held at? a) Kolkata b) Bhopal c) Ahmedabad d) New Delhi e) Guwahati Q.77 Which among the following is the first investor country in India’s National Infrastructure Investment Fund (NIIF)? a) USA b) UK c) France d) UAE e) Japan Q.78 SEBI has recently made it mandatory to hold at least _____% liquid assets in mutual fund liquid schemes? a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 25% e) None of these Q.79 The Global SME Business Summit is organised by which Ministry every year? a) Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas b) Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises c) Ministry of Tourism d) Ministry of Development of North-East Region e) None of these Q.80 Recently, the CHC Farm Machinery App is launched by which Ministry? a) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution b) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare c) Ministry of Agro & Rural Industries d) Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying e) None of these Q.81 Which edition of the India Water Week is observed in the year 2019 by the Ministry of Jal Shakti? a) 3rd b) 4th c) 5th d) 6th e) 7th Q.82 Which bank has been recently put under Directions by the RBI? a) Allahabad Bank b) Punjab National Bank c) Bank of Baroda d) Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank e) None of these Q.83 ‘Varaha’ was recently in the news in the context of? a) It was recently commissioned in the Indian Coast Guard b) It was recently decommissioned by the Indian Coast Guard c) It was recently successfully tested by the Indian Air force d) It was brought recently from USA e) None of these


Q.84 The trilateral MALABAR exercise is conducted between? a) India-USA-Australia b) India-Srilanka-Japan c) India-Japan-Australia d) India-USA-Japan e) None of these Q.85 The 'TB HAREGA DESH JEETEGA' campaign is launched by which Ministry? a) Ministry of Science & Technolog b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare d) Ministry of Women and Child Development e) None of these Q.86 Which among the following option is correct with respect to the ‘Sardar Patel National Unity Award’? a) Monetary grant of Rs 50,000 is given to the awarde b) Monetary grant of Rs 1,50,000 is given to the awardee c) Monetary grant of Rs 20,000 is given to the awardee d) Monetary grant of Rs 2,50,000 is given to the awardee e) No monetary grant is given to the awardee Q.87 Choose the correct option in the context of powers of RBI? a) RBI can limit the money that depositors can withdraw from a bank b) It can suspend the Board of the Bank c) It can appoint an administrator for the Bank d) All of the above e) None of these Q.88 The 2nd edition of the ‘Singapore India Hackathon 2019’ will be held at? a) IIT Madras b) IIT Delhi c) IIT Kanpur d) IIT Kharagpur e) None of these Q.89 Which state has won the National Tourism Awards as the Best State Award for overall growth in tourism category? a) Maharashtra b) Andhra Pradesh c) Madhya Pradesh d) Uttarakhand e) None of these Q.90 India has recently developed its first Indigenous High Temperature Fuel Cell System, which is developed by? a) Indian Space Research Organisation b) Defence Research and Development Organization c) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research d) Department of Biotechnology e) None of these


Q.91 Which bank has been recently put under the Prompt Corrective Action Framework by RBI? a) Punjab & Maharashtra Cooperative Bank b) Lakshmi Vilas Bank c) South India Bank d) SBM Bank e) None of these Q.92 What is the theme of the Aadi Mahotsav? a) An exhibition of the spirit of Tribal Art, Culture and Commerce b) An exhibition of the spirit of Tribal Craft, Culture and Commerce c) A celebration of the spirit of Tribal Craft, Culture and Commerce d) A celebration of the spirit of Tribal Art, Culture and Commerce e) None of these Q.93 Who has been ranked as number one wrestler in 86 kilogram category in the latest ranking issued by the International Wrestling Federation? a) Ravi Dahiya b) Bajrang Punia c) Rahul Aware d) Deepak Punia e) None of these Q.94 Which Scorpene-class submarines has been recently commissioned by the Indian Navy? a) INS Vela b) INS Vagir c) INS ‘Karanj’ d) INS Khanderi e) INS Vagsheer Q.95 Recently, the government has changed the export policy of Onion from earlier ‘free’ to ______? a) Reserved b) Prohibited c) Charged d) Exempted e) None of these Q.96 The recently launched Delhi-Meerut Package-3 will connect? a) Dasna to Hapur b) Hapur to Meerut c) Sarai Kale Khan to Ghazipur d) Ghazipur border to Dasna e) None of these Q.97 Which stealth frigate has been recently inducted into Indian Navy? a) INS Pratik b) INS Suraj c) INS Nilgiri d) INS Swastika e) None of these Q.98 Who has been appointed as the new chief of the Indian Air Force succeeding Air Chief Marshal B.S. Dhanoa? a) Air Chief Marshal Rakesh Kumar Singh Bhadauria b) Air Chief Marshal Arup Raha c) Air Chief Marshal Birender Singh Dhanoa d) Air Chief Marshal Bikram Singh e) None of these


Q.99 Choose the correct statement about the IPCC Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change? a) India is a member of IPCC b) IPCC is the UN body c) IPCC provides scientific assessments concerning climate change d) All of them are correct e) None of these Q.100 Which among the following doesn’t come under the 8 core Industries? a) Electricity b) Cement c) Fertilizer d) Steel e) None of these Q.101 WING-Women Rise Together initiative is launched for? a) Women Entrepreneurs b) Women Artisans c) Women Daily wage workers d) Women House workers e) None of these Q.102 The task force on the National Infrastructure Pipeline recently constituted by the Finance Ministry is headed by? a) CEO, NITI Aayog b) Secretary, Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance c) Joint Secretary, Infrastructure Policy & Finance Division, DEA d) Secretary of Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) e) None of these Q.103 In which state recently the 1st Mega Food Park of the state has been inaugurated? a) Bihar b) Telangana c) Madhya Pradesh d) Assam e) None of these Q.104 The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has recently approved $ 200 million for road safety project for which the state of India? a) Madhya Pradesh b) Andhra Pradesh c) Maharashtra d) Kerala e) None of these Q.105 The 7th Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) Ministerial Meeting was held at? a) Thailand b) China c) South Korea d) New Zealand e) Japan Q.106 Which institute/University has recently established an Animal Facility centre for experimental research? a) University of Delhi b) University of Mumbai c) University of Hyderabad d) University of Himachal Pradesh e) None of these


Q.107 Who has won the Women's Singles tennis title at the 2019 US Open? a) Serena Williams b) Bianca Andreescu c) Venus Williams d) Billie Jean e) None of these Q.108 The 68th plenary session of the North Eastern Council (NEC) 2019 was held at? a) Tripura b) Guwahati c) Imphal d) Shillong e) None of these Q.109 Choose the correct statement about the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)? a) Only 90% equity is owned by the government of India b) It provides Aadhaar enabled payment system (AePS) services c) IPPB comes under the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting d) a, b, c are correct e) None of these Q.110 The international conference ANGAN (Augmenting Nature by Green Affordable New-habitat) on energy efficiency was organised under which ministry? a) Ministry of Power b) Ministry of New and Renewable energy c) Ministry of Earth Science d) Ministry of Petroleum & Natural gas e) None of these Q.111 The Recipients of Visitor's Awards are presented by? a) Governor of the respective state b) Chief Minister of the respective state c) President of India d) Vice-president of India e) None of these Q.112 The 22nd Session of the United Nation Committee on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD) was held recently in? a) New York b) Washington c) Geneva d) Paris e) None of these ANSWERS

1 C 2 A 3 B 4 A 5 D 6 C 7 B 8 C 9 C 10 D

11 C 12 C 13 C 14 D 15 C 16 B 17 D 18 C 19 B 20 A

21 B 22 D 23 C 24 B 25 B 26 B 27 B 28 C 29 D 30 B

31 A 32 D 33 D 34 A 35 B 36 B 37 A 38 D 39 D 40 B

41 C 42 B 43 C 44 C 45 D 46 C 47 B 48 B 49 B 50 B

51 A 52 C 53 B 54 D 55 D 56 D 57 C 58 B 59 D 60 B

61 A 62 C 63 E 64 C 65 E 66 C 67 B 68 B 69 B 70 D

71 A 72 B 73 A 74 B 75 C 76 D 77 D 78 C 79 B 80 B

81 D 82 D 83 A 84 D 85 C 86 E 87 D 88 A 89 B 90 C

91 B 92 C 93 D 94 D 95 B 96 A 97 C 98 A 99 D 100 E

101 A 102 D 103 B 104 C 105 A 106 C 107 B 108 B 109 B 110 A

111 C 112 C


GENERAL AWARENESS IV Q.1 Which Coach Factory of Indian Railways has recently launched a pilot project for ushering in Industry 4.0? a) Integral Coach Factory b) Rail Coach Factory c) Modern Coach Factory d) Both a and b e) None of these Q.2 What was India’s rank in the IMD world digital competitiveness ranking 2019 (WDCR)? a) 42nd b) 43rd c) 44th d) 45th e) None of these Q.3 The BRAHMOS missile, which is a joint venture between India and Russia, has been named after? a) Brahmaputra and Moskva river b) God Brahma and Mosya c) An earlier used Russian Cruise Missile d) Indian Navy’s decommissioned Ship e) None of these Q.4 Who has won the men's singles title of ATP Challenger Tournament 2019? a) Facundo Bognis b) Sumit Nagpal c) Mohit Rohanty d) Suresh Prakash e) None of these Q.5 The word Plogging is currently in the news in which context? a) Fitness and Cleanliness b) Education and Health c) Money & cleanliness d) Fitness and Money e) None of these Q.6 The School Education Quality Index (SEQI) is released by? a) NITI Aayog b) Ministry of Human Resource Development c) Ministry of Science & Technology d) Ministry of Labour & Employment e) None of these Q.7 Choose the correct option in the context of Sovereign Gold Bonds? a) In case of joint holding, the investment limit of 4 KG will be applied to the first applicant only. b) Minimum permissible investment will be 1 gram of gold. c) Bonds can be used as collateral for loans. d) All a, b and c are correct e) Only a and b


Q.8 Which app has been recently launched by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution for providing a one-stop solution for consumer grievance redressal? a) Grievance App b) Consumer App c) Redressal App d) Buyer & Seller App e) None of these Q.9 Which train has been recently flagged off between New Delhi and Jammu & Kashmir for speedy development of the later? a) Delhi-Srinagar Vande Bharat Express b) Delhi-Jammu Vande Bharat Express c) Delhi- Mirpur Vande Bharat Express d) Delhi-Katra Vande Bharat Express e) None of these Q.10 The Paryatan Parv 2019 is organized by which Ministry/Ministries? a) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting b) Ministry of Tourism c) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas d) Jointly by a, b and c e) None of them Q.11 The Vayoshreshtha Samman-2019 is conferred for which purpose? a) Doing excellent work towards rural sanitation b) Rendering service for the cause of elderly persons c) Rendering service for the cause of women empowerment d) Doing excellent work towards Urban sanitation e) None of these Q.12 To whom the prestigious Saraswati Samman award was conferred to in the year 2019? a) Poet K Siva Reddy b) Poet Laxmi Agarwal c) Poet Meena Alexander d) Poet Syed Waheed Ashraf e) None of these Q.13 India has recently inaugurated a Metro Express in which country under a Special Economic Package given by it earlier to this country? a) Vietnam b) Srilanka c) Mauritius d) Laos e) None of these Q.14 The Bharat-22 Exchange Traded Fund (ETF) is managed by whom? a) ICICI Prudential Mutual Fund b) Aditya Birla Sun Life Mutual Fund c) UTI Mutual Fund d) Axis Mutual Fund e) None of these Q.15 Which train was recently renamed as the 'Sarbat Da Bhala Express'? a) New Delhi-Amritsar Intercity-Express b) New Delhi-Ludhiana Intercity-Express c) New Delhi-Udhampur Intercity-Express d) New Delhi-Jalandhar Intercity-Express e) None of these


Q.16 RBI has recently cut the repo rate by 25 basis points, which is the _____ rate cut in 2019? a) Forth b) Sixth c) Fifth d) Seventh e) None of these Q.17 Which railway station has topped the Swacch Bharat cleanliness assessment 2019? a) Jodhpur b) Durgapur c) Ajmer d) Jaipur e) None of these Q.18 The Youth Co: Lab was recently launched by? a) NITI Aayog and United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India b) NITI Aayog and United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) c) Ministry of Human Resource and Development and United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India d) Ministry of Human Resource and Development and United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) e) None of these Q.19 The World Cotton Day is observed on? a) 5th Aug b) 7th Oct c) 5th Sept d) 7th Nov e) None of these Q.20 What is the Centre’s contribution to the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) for the General Category States? a) 60% b) 75% c) 80% d) 85% e) None of these Q.21 With which country India has signed an agreement to build Vivekananda Bhavan recently? a) Sri Lanka b) Myanmar c) China d) Bangladesh e) None of these Q.22 Swiss Bank has recently exchanged financial account details of nationals with India under the framework of? a) Trusted Exchange Framework and Common Agreement (TEFCA) b) Cybersecurity Information Exchange (CYBEX) c) Secured Currency Money Transfer (SCMT) d) Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI) e) None of these Q.23 The e-DantSeva is launched by which Ministry? a) Ministry of Science & Technology b) Ministry of Health & Family Welfare c) NITI-Aayog d) Ministry of Women & Child Development e) None of these


Q.24 Which edition of the India International Cooperative Trade Fair will be held in 2019? a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th e) 5th Q.25 Which place has been recently approved by the central government for setting up of a Special Economic Zone (SEZ)? a) Jalefa, Tripura b) Balaghat, MP c) Betul, MP d) Kalimpong, West Bengal e) None of these Q.26 The International Film Festival of India has celebrated which edition of the festival in 2019? a) 25th edition b) 50th edition c) 75th edition d) 100th edition e) None of these Q.27 The newly launched scheme PM-ASMI stands for? a) Pradhan Mantri – Assured and Safe Motherhood initiative b) Pradhan Mantri – Assured safety Malaria initiative c) Pradhan Mantri – Assured safety Measles initiative d) Pradhan Mantri – Assured Sewage Management initiative e) None of these Q.28 Which state government has launched the Free Drug Scheme for tea garden workers? a) Assam b) Tripura c) Manipur d) Sikkim e) None of these Q.29 Who has been recently selected from India for the Asia Environmental Enforcement Award by the United Nations Environment Programme? a) Rakesh Pandey b) Ramesh Pandey c) Mohan Pandey d) Suresh Pandey e) None of these Q.30 Who has received the Nobel awards in Medicine for 2019? a) William G Kaelin b) Gregg L Semenza c) Jr Peter J Ratcliffe d) All of the above e) None of these Q.31 The World Powerlifting Championship 2019 is held at? a) Paris, France b) Rome, Italy c) Berlin, Germany d) Vienna, Austria e) None of these Q.32 The Finance Ministry’s National e-Assessment Centre (NeAC) is launched for? a) E-commerce Companies b) PSUs Disinvestment c) Taxpayers d) Money laundering e) None of the above


Q.33 India had signed an agreement worth Rs 59,000 crore with France in _________for the procurement of 36 Rafale fighter jets? a) August 2017 b) September 2016 c) August 2016 d) September 2017 e) None of these Q.34 Who has received the Nobel Prize 2019 for Physics? a) Michel Mayor b) James Peebles c) Didier Queloz d) All a, b and c e) None of them Q.35 The World Post Day is observed on? a) 7th Oct b) 8th Nov c) 9th Oct d) 10th Dec e) None of these Q.36 The Central government has recently announced _____ Dearness Allowance for Central Government employees and pensioners? a) 4% b) 7% c) 5% d) 10% e) None of these Q.37 Recently, the DHRUV programme was launched by the government for which section? a) To select 10 students for experiencing the Gaganyaan Mission by ISRO b) To mentor 60 talented students from Science, Mathematics and Performing Arts c) To select 5 students to represent India at the National Youth Conference d) Both a and c e) None of the above Q.38 Which device has been recently launched by the Ministry of Earth Science to provide emergency Disaster Warning to fishermen? a) GRADED device b) GROUND device c) GEMINI device d) GROSS device e) None of these Q.39 The Mahatma Gandhi National Fellowship Programme is launched by which Ministry? a) Ministry of Human Resource and Development b) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship c) Ministry of Science and Technology d) Ministry of Labour and Employment e) None of these Q.40 Which city is in the news for commencing the first-of-its-kind initiative 'Garbage Cafe'? a) Kolhapur b) Raipur c) Ambikapur d) Bhopal e) None of these


Q.41 Who has won the Nobel Prize 2019 in Literature? a) Olga Tokarczuk b) Peter Handke c) Margaret Drabble d) Frédéric Beigbeder e) None of these Q.42 Ministry of Health and Family has recently launched______ scheme to provide free healthcare benefits to pregnant women, mothers up to 6 months after delivery, and all sick new-borns? a) SWASTHYA b) SUMAN c) SHILP d) SOUMYA e) None of these Q.43 Which among the following doesn’t come in the list of 6 ASEAN FTA partners? a) India b) Pakistan c) Australia d) New Zealand e) None of these Q.44 President’s Colours is an acknowledgement of the meritorious service rendered by the ______________ over the years? a) National Cadet Corp (NCC) b) Army Aviation Corps (ACC) c) National Defence Academy (NDA) d) Indian Coast Guard (ICG) e) None of these Q.45 The SARAS Aajeevika Mela was recently organised by? a) Ministry of culture b) Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs c) Ministry of Rural Development d) Ministry of Tourism e) None of these Q.46 Recently, the mobile app, ________ has been launched by the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs for ‘Environment Protection in Government Colonies? a) uGreen b) mSanrakshan c) uEnvironment d) mHariyali e) None of these Q.47 Government e-Marketplace (GeM) has recently signed MoU with which bank to provide paperless and cashless payment and procurement system for government entities? a) Union Bank of India b) Bank of Baroda c) Punjab National Bank d) State Bank of India e) None of these Q.48 Which edition of the Coordinated Patrol (CORPAT) was held recently between the navies of India and Bangladesh? a) 2nd b) 3rd c) 4th d) 5th e) None of these


Q.49 The Nobel Prize 2019 in Chemistry was awarded for? a) Development of rechargeable Helium batteries b) Development of lithium-ion batteries c) For discovering the power of evolution through enzymes d) For discovering the evolution in plants through chlorophyll e) None of these Q.50 DHARMA GUARDIAN-2019, is a Joint Military Exercise between India and? a) China b) Bangladesh c) Japan d) Singapore e) None of these Q.51 Which edition of the Ministry of Culture’s flagship programme Rashtriya Sanskriti Mahotsav was recently held in Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh? a) 4th b) 6th c) 8th d) 10th e) None of these Q.52 The _____India-China Informal Summit was held in Mamallapuram, Chennai in 2019? a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th e) None of these Q.53 The 2019 First Global DXB Challenge will be held in _________? a) Rome b) Paris c) Dubai d) South Africa e) None of these Q.54 Republic of Sierra Leone, of the _______ Nation, was recently in the news for the first-ever visit of an Indian Vice President to the country? a) African b) South American c) Chinese d) North American e) None of these Q.55 As per the latest report of the World Bank, which country has become the 2nd fastest growing economy in South Asia after Bhutan? a) India b) Bangladesh c) Srilanka d) Maldives e) None of these Q.56 Netherlands is India’s ____ largest trading partner in the European Union? a) 2nd b) 3rd c) 4th d) 5th e) None of these


Q.57 Which is the 1st airline in the world to use a Taxibot? a) Singapore Airlines b) Qatar Airways c) Air India d) Virgin Atlantic Airways e) None of these Q.58 The RBI has set the minimum paid up equity capital of _______, for Entities who are desirous to operate or provide platforms for Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS)? a) Rs 100 Crore b) Rs 25 crore c) Rs 50 Crore d) Rs 150 Crore e) None of these Q.59 The 2019 Booker Prize is won by? a) Bernardine Evaristo b) Margaret Atwood c) Salman Rushdie d) Both a and b e) Both a and c Q.60 Which Indian shuttler has won the men's singles title at the Bahrain International Series Badminton? a) Priyanshu Rajawat b) Rohan Kapoor c) Venkat Gaurav Prasad d) Kanyanat Sudchoeichom e) None of these Q.61 The LOTUS-HR project is a joint initiative between India and _______, for clean water through water management? a) Russia b) France c) Netherland d) Germany e) None of these Q.62 Which Indian-American has won the 2019 Nobel Prize for Economics? a) Abhijit Banerjee b) Saumik Banerjee c) Sourabh Banerjee d) Amit Banerjee e) None of these Q.63 Who has recently created Individual Guinness World Records for most full contact knee strikes in 3 minutes in one leg, female category? a) Kiran Uniyal b) Supriya Darshini c) Mahima Pandey d) Visha Chaudary e) None of these Q.64 Who is recently appointed as the new Controller General of Accounts (CGA), Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance? a) Anil Bansal b) J.P.S. Chawla c) Kumar Mahendra d) Abhijit shahi e) None of these


Q.65 The World Food Day is observed on? a) 21st November b) 16th October c) 25th August d) 20th September e) None of these Q.66 Section 65 of the Customs Act, 1962 was recently in the news, is concerned with___? a) Manufacturing activity in a ship warehouse. b) Manufacturing activity in a customs bonded warehouse. c) Manufacturing activity in a Private bonded warehouse. d) Manufacturing activity in a Co-operative bonded warehouse. e) None of these Q.67 Which state has topped the India Innovation Index 2019 in the overall ranking? a) Madhya Pradesh b) Karnataka c) Gujarat d) Telangana e) None of these Q.68 The joint exercise EX-EASTERN BRIDGE-V is conducted between India and _____? a) Bangladesh b) France c) Oman d) Indonesia e) None of these Q.69 Which Indian company has recently crossed Rs 9 lakh crore of market capitalization? a) Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) b) Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) c) ITC Limited d) State Bank of India e) None of these Q.70 The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has slashed India’s GDP growth projection for the year 2019 to ______? a) 5.9% b) 6% c) 6.1% d) 6.2% e) 7% Q.71 KHON Ramlila is a masked form of Ramlila art of _______? a) India b) China c) Vietnam d) Thailand e) Myanmar Q.72 Who is the Chairman of the International Jury of 50th International Film Festival of India (IFFI)? a) Zhang Yang b) John Bailey c) Robin Campillo d) Lynne Ramsay e) None of these


Q.73 The biodiesel manufacturer, BioD energy, has recently come into a partnership with ________, to collect the used cooking oil from restaurants around the country and convert it into biodiesel? a) Swiggy b) UberEats c) Zomato d) Faasos e) None of these Q.74 The Government has recently put _______ charge or Merchant Discount Rates (MDR) on customers/merchants on digital payment to large firms having a turnover in excess of Rs 50 crore? a) 2% b) 3% c) 4% d) 5% e) Zero Q.75 As per the new norms of SEBI, if the auditor resigns after____ days from the end of the quarter in a Financial Year, the auditor has to issue the audit report for such a quarter as well? a) 15 days b) 30 days c) 45 days d) 50 days e) None of the above Q.76 The Okayama Declaration was recently adopted by _______? a) BRICS b) G7 c) G20 d) SAARC e) None of the above Q.77 The key components of the DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill include? a) Establishment of a DNA Regulatory Board b) Accreditation of DNA laboratories undertaking DNA testing, analysing, etc. c) Establishment of the National and Regional DNA Data Banks, for forensic investigations d) All the above e) None of these Q.78 India will host the General Assembly of Interpol in ______? a) 2020 b) 2021 c) 2022 d) 2023 e) None of these Q.79 Which two female NASA astronauts have become the first all-female pairing to carry out a spacewalk? a) Christina Koch and Jessica Meir b) Sally Ride and Judith Resnik c) Irina Solovyova and Valentina Ponomaryova d) Svetlana Savitskaya and Valentina Tereshkova e) None of these


Q.80 Who has won the mixed doubles title at the Egypt International 2019? a) Kuhoo Garg and Dhruv Rawat b) Ahmed Salah and Hadia Hosny c) Simran Singhi and Ritika Thaker d) Koceila Mammeri and Linda Mazri e) None of these Q.81 US-India Strategic Partnership Forum (USISPF) was in news, who is the Chairman of USISPF? a) John Mickle b) John Missale c) John Chambers d) John Adam e) None of these Q.82 The Ministry of Defence has recently approved the procurement of indigenously developed military equipment worth ________ for the armed forces? a) Rs 3000 crore b) Rs 3200 crore c) Rs 3300 crore d) Rs 3500 crore e) None of these Q.83 Choose the correct statement about the scheme Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) Scheme? 1. It covers Small and Marginal farmers 2. It covers landless farmers a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 e) None of these Q.84 Which country was recently removed from the Financial Action Task Force's grey list at the five-day plenary concluded in Paris? a) Bangladesh b) Sri Lanka c) Iran d) Pakistan e) Turkey Q.85 The Bhashan Char Island recently in the news, is in______? a) India b) Myanmar c) Sri Lanka d) Bangladesh e) None of these Q.86 India has recently provided training at NACIN to the 2nd batch of _________ official under the Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) programme? a) Chinese b) Bangladeshis c) Nepalese d) Bhutanese e) None of these


Q.87 Who has been recently appointed as the chief executive officer (CEO) of Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)? a) Praveen Kumar b) Kumar Pranav c) Pankaj Kumar d) Kumar Prakash e) None of these Q.88 The International Snow Leopard Day is celebrated on ________ every year? a) 20th October b) 20th September c) 23rd October d) 23rd November e) None of these Q.89 The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has announced to celebrate 25 years of Pulse polio programme in the year______? a) 2019 b) 2020 c) 2021 d) 2022 e) None of these Q.90 Which among the following will host the 2024 Olympic Games? a) Tokyo b) Los Angeles c) Beijing d) Paris e) None of these Q.91 The National Panchayat awards 2019, recently in the news is given by which Ministry? a) Ministry of Panchayati Raj b) Ministry of Rural Development c) Ministry of Tourism d) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare e) None of these Q.92 Ministry of Heavy Industry and Public Enterprises has recently accorded ‘Maharatna’ status to? a) Hindustan Petroleum b) Power Grid Corporation c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b e) None of these Q.93 The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) has recently signed MoU with __________ for Payment Services? a) Yes Bank b) Pay Pal c) Federal Bank d) Pay U e) None of these Q.94 The government has recently approved the merger of which two telecom companies? a) BSNL and Airtel b) MTNL and Jio c) BSNL and MTNL d) MTNL and Jio e) None of these


Q.95 Recently the World Bank has signed a $165 million loan agreement for a Climate Resilient Agricultural Project with which state? a) Madhya Pradesh b) Odisha c) Chhattisgarh d) Rajasthan e) None of these Q.96 What is India’s rank in the World Bank’s Doing Business Report 2020? a) 77th b) 63rd c) 66th d) 73rd e) None of these Q.97 ___________ is the 1st Indian man to win gold at the Wushu World Championships? a) Kumar Kartik b) Mahesh Kumar c) Praveen Kumar d) Sourabh Kumar e) None of these Q.98 The National Corporate Social Responsibility Awards is conferred by which Ministry? a) Ministry of Corporate affairs b) Ministry of Commerce & Industry c) Ministry of Company Affairs d) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises e) None of these Q.99 What was India’s rank in the Global Health Security Index 2019? a) 52nd b) 54th c) 55th d) 57th e) None of these Q.100 The theme of the Vigilance Awareness Week 2019 is? a) Gratitude-a way of life b) Remove Corruption- Make Incredible India c) Integrity- a way of life d) Remove Corruption-Heart of Darkness e) None of these Q.101 The DEFCOM 2019 was organized at_____? a) Guwahati b) Bhopal c) New Delhi d) Imphal e) None of these Q.102 Who has been appointed as the Lieutenant Governor of the recently formed Union Territory, Ladakh? a) R K Mathur b) Girish Chandra Murmu c) Satya Pal Malik d) P.S. Sreedharan Pillai e) None of these


Q.103 Recently Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) system is installed at ports for? a) Eliminating manual checking of documents at port gate b) Real time tracking of movement of vehicles, men and materials c) Both a and b d) Not Ease of doing business with Port users e) None of the above Q.104 What is the name of the project launched by the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), Ministry of Science & Technology for Genome Sequencing of Indians? a) India’s Genome Sequencing Project b) IndiGen Genome project c) Genome India Project d) Indi Science Genome Project e) None of these Q.105 Recently the Kalidhar Battalion conducted the white water rafting expedition named ____________, to commemorate its 75th Raising Day? a) Rudraprayag b) Rudrarishi c) Rudrashila d) Rudrasmita e) None of these Q.106 The 29th ministerial meeting of the BASIC countries was recently held in____? a) Beijing, China b) Tokyo, Japan c) Pretoria, South Africa d) New Delhi, India e) None of these Q.107 India has won _______ in the Men's doubles at the French Open 2019? a) Gold b) Silver c) Bronze d) Both a and b e) None of the above Q.108 The ‘Odisha-Mo Parivar’ initiative launched recently by the Chief Minister of Odisha Naveen Patnaik is for? a) Encouraging environment protection b) Health care service: Blood donation c) Welfare of Odias in distress d) All of the above e) None of these Q.109 Exercise SHAKTI is conducted between the armies of India and ______? a) Russia b) USA c) France d) Indonesia e) None of these


Q.110 Tiger Woods is associated with which sports? a) Golf b) Shooting c) Tennis d) Gymnastics e) None of these Q.111 Who among the following can vote through postal ballots as per the recent amendment made into the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 by the Ministry of Law and Justice? a) Persons over 80 years of age and person with disability b) Persons over 70 years of age and person with disability c) Persons over 65 years of age and person with disability d) Persons over 60 years of age and person with disability e) None of these Q.112 RBI has recently imposed a monetary penalty on Tamilnad Mercantile Bank Ltd (TMB) with the power vested to RBI under________? a) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 b) Banking Regulation Act, 1949 c) Banking Regulation (Companies) Rules, 1949 d) Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953 e) None of these Q.113 The National Health Profile (NHP) released by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare provides data and information on? a) Housing and amenities b) Population c) Employment d) All the above e) None of these Q.114 The Ministry of Railways has recently signed a MoU with _______________ for an Executive Education Program? a) International School of Management (ISM) b) Research Schools Network (RSN) c) Indian School of Business (ISB) d) The Education Endowment Foundation (EEF) e) None of these Q.115 The 2nd Assembly of International Solar Alliance (ISA) is to be held in _______? a) New Delhi b) Paris c) Berlin d) Beijing e) None of these


Q.116 Which authority regulates the National Pension System (NPS)? a) Personal Retirement Savings Accounts Authority (PRSAA) b) Department of Pension & Pensioners' Welfare (DPPW) c) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) d) Pension Distributing and Regulatory Authority (PDRA) e) None of these Q.117 Recently RBI has imposed a monetary penalty of Rs 25 lakh on Jalgaon Peoples Co-operative Bank Ltd. for non-compliance of which norm? a) Guidelines for Licensing of New Banks in Private Sector b) Income Recognition and Asset Classification (IRAC) norms c) Frauds classification and reporting by commercial banks and select FIs directions 2016 d) Both a and c e) None of the above Q.118 RBI has recently imposed Janata Sahakari Bank Ltd for non-compliance with directions on IRAC norms that stands for? a) Income Registration and Asset Classification b) Income Recovery and Asset Categorisation c) Income Recognition and Asset Classification d) Income Requirement and Asset Categorisation e) None of these Q.119 The penalty of Rs 1 crore was recently imposed on the Bandhan Bank Limited by RBI for non-compliance with the guidelines on ______? a) Frauds classification b) Asset Classification c) Promoter Holding d) Income Registration e) None of these ANSWERS 1 (C) 2 (C) 3 (A) 4 (B) 5 (A) 6 (A) 7 (D) 8 (B) 9 (D) 10 (D) 11 (B) 12 (A)

13 (C) 14 (A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 18 (A) 19 (B) 20 (B) 21 (D) 22 (D) 23 (B) 24 (A)

25 (A) 26 (B) 27 (A) 28 (A) 29 (B) 30 (D) 31 (C) 32 (C) 33 (B) 34 (D) 35 (C) 36 (C)

37 (B) 38 (C) 39 (B) 40 (C) 41 (B) 42 (B) 43 (B) 44 (B) 45 (C) 46 (D) 47 (A) 48 (A)

49 (B) 50 (C) 51 (D) 52 (B) 53 (C) 54 (A) 55 (B) 56 (C) 57 (C) 58 (B) 59 (D) 60 (A)

61 (C) 62 (A) 63 (A) 64 (B) 65 (B) 66 (B) 67 (B) 68 (C) 69 (A) 70 (C) 71 (D) 72 (B)

73 (C) 74 (E) 75 (C) 76 (C) 77 (D) 78 (C) 79 (A) 80 (A) 81 (C) 82 (C) 83 (A) 84 (B)

85 (D) 86 (C) 87 (C) 88 (C) 89 (A) 90 (D) 91 (A) 93 (C) 94 (C) 95 (B) 96 (B) 97 (C)

98 (A) 99 (D) 100 (C) 101 (C) 102 (A) 103 (C) 104 (B) 105 (C) 106 (A) 107 (B) 108 (D)

109 (C) 110 (A) 111 (A) 112 (B) 113 (D) 114 (C) 115 (A) 116 (C) 117 (B) 118 (C) 119 (C)


GENERAL AWARENESS V Q.1 Who has won gold at the Olympic Test Event for Boxing 2019 in men’s

category?

a) Shiva Thapa b) Sanatali Toltayev c) Ashish

d) Manish Kaushik e) None of these

Q.2 'The Best-Performing CEOs in the World, 2019' was recently in the news, is

topped by?

a) Adobe CEO Shantanu Narayen b) NVIDIA's CEO Jensen Huang

c) MasterCard CEO Ajay Banga d) Amazon CEO Jeff Bezos

e) None of these

Q.3 Recently the Foundation Day of 6 states and 3 Union territories was observed

on?

a) 1st Oct b) 10th Oct c) 1st Nov d) 5th Nov e) None of these

Q.4 The theme of the 35th ASEAN Summit is?

a) Promoting Partnership for Regional equality

b) Advancing Partnership for sustainability

c) Promoting Partnership for Clean energy

d) Advancing Partnership for Economic cooperation

e) None of these

Q.5 A nation-wide online Hackathon ‘Data-driven Innovation for Citizen Grievance

Redressal’ is conducted by which Ministry?

a) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution

b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs c) Ministry of Labour & Employment

d) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions e) None of these

Q.6 Choose the correct statement in the context of reorganisation done by the RBI in

its regulatory and supervisory Departments?

a) RBI has made a unified Department of Supervision of financial entities

b) RBI has made a unified Department of Regulation of financial entities

c) Both a and b d) Only a e) None of the above

Q.7 Which Indian City is not a part of the UNESCO Creative Cities Network

(UCCN)?

a) Mumbai b) Hyderabad c) Kolkata d) Jaipur e) Varanasi


Q.8 The "eCAPA 2019 - Art from the Heart" was recently organised by the

Government of India for whom?

a) Divyang Artists b) Sand Artists c) Wildlife Photographers

d) Film Photographers e) None of these

Q.9 Which country has won the Rugby World Cup 2019?

a) England b) Japan c) South Africa d) New Zealande e) None of these

Q.10 The IMF has recently predicted which region of becoming centre of global

growth by 2040?

a) South Asia region b) South East Asia region c) Central East region

d) Central west region e) None of these

Q.11 Which Indian female wrestler has recently won silver at the UWW Under-23

World Championships 2019 in 51 kg?

a) Pooja Gehlot b) Babita Kumari c) Vinesh Phogat

d) Sakshi Malik e) None of these

Q.12 The exercise Dustlik-2019, is the first-ever joint military exercise between India

and _____?

a) Bangladesh b) Uzbekistan c) Singapore d) France e) None of these

Q.13 The 5th India International Science Festival (IISF) 2019, is being held

at_______?

a) New Delhi b) Chennai c) Kolkata d) Lucknow e) None of these

Q.14 Which country has hosted the Shanghai Cooperation Organization Joint

Exercise on Urban Earthquake Search & Rescue (SCOJtEx-2019)?

a) India b) China c) Japan d) Singapore e) None of these

Q.15 Who has won the “Lifetime Achievement Award – Foreign Artiste” at the

Golden Jubilee edition of IFFI 2019?

a) Roman Polanski b) Isabelle Anne Madeleine Huppert c) Isabelle Adjani

d) Vanessa Paradis e) None of these

Q.16 Who won the ‘Icon of Golden Jubilee of IFFI’ award at the 50th International

Film Festival of India (IFFI) 2019?

a) Akshay Kumar b) Shah Rukh Khan c) S Rajinikanth

d) Amitabh Bachchan e) None of these


Q.17 Which documentary was recently in the news for winning the BAFTA and

Scotland Awards at Glasgow, Scotland?

a) Documentary on Real Ladakh Football Club b) Documentary on Real India Football Club c) Documentary on Real Kashmir Football Club d) Documentary on Real J&K Football Club e) None of these Q.18 Which country has recently allowed the sale and use of the first Alzheimer's

medicine GV-971?

a) India b) Scotland c) Ireland d) China e) None of these

Q.19 As per the recent RBI’s guidelines on the compensation of whole-time directors

and chief executive officers, __________% of the variable pay will be paid in non-

cash if the variable pay is above 200% of the fixed pay?

a) 50% b) 56% c) 67% d) 70% e) None of these

Q.20 Which among the following apps has been recently launched by the Finance

Minister to facilitate monitoring and faster clearance of Customs goods?

a) ICEDASH b) ATITHI c) BRIK d) Only a & b e) Only b & c

Q.21 Which sportsperson has claimed India's 10th Tokyo Olympic quota in shooting

by winning the bronze medal at the 14th Asian Championships?

a) Deepak Kumar b) Manu Bhaker c) Abhinav Bindra

d) Elavenil Valarivan e) None of these

Q.22 The 15th meeting of Governing Council of South Asia Co-operative

Environment Programme (SACEP) was held in ________?

a) New Delhi b) Colombo c) Dhaka d) Kathmandu e) None of these

Q.23 Which country was recently in news for withdrawing from the Paris climate

accord?

a) New Zealand b) China c) USA d) India e) None of these

Q.24 Which ministry organises the "Hunar Haat"?

a) Ministry of Culture b) Ministry of Women and Child Development

c) Ministry of Minority Affairs d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs e) None of these

Q.25 The Central government has recently set up Rs ________ fund to revive stalled

housing projects in the country?

a) Rs 1 lakh crore b) Rs 50,000 crore c) Rs 25,000 crore

d) Rs 10,000 crore e) None of these


Q.26 The 19th India-Russia Inter-Governmental Commission on Military and Military-

Technical Cooperation (IRIGC-M&MTC) meeting was held in ________?

a) New Delhi b) Moscow c) Saint Petersburg d) Lucknow e) None of these

Q.27 Which country hosted the first ever BIMSTEC ports Conclave 2019?

a) Bangladesh b) India c) Srilanka d) Thailand e) None of these

Q.28 Recently ________ Global investors' meet was organised to attract investment

and create employment opportunities in the state?

a) Andhra Pradesh b) Madhya Pradesh c) Gujarat

d) Himachal Pradesh e) None of these

Q.29 The chairmanship of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) was transferred

from South Africa to ______________ at the 19th IORA meeting in 2019?

a) India b) Indonesia c) UAE d) Srilanka e) None of these

Q.30 The maritime Exercise ‘Samudra Shakti’ is jointly organised by the Navies of

India and _______?

a) Indonesia b) Srilanka c) Bangladesh d) France e) None of these

Q.31 Choose the correct statement about Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPIs)?

1. PPIs facilitate purchase of goods 2. PPIs facilitate purchase of Services

a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 & 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 e) None of the above

Q.32 The DIN system is recently in news for bringing transparency and

accountability in the indirect tax administration. It stands for_____?

a) Departmental Identification Number b) Direct Identification Number

c) Documentation Identification Number d) Divisional Identification Number

e) None of these

Q.33 What is the theme of the 27th Conference of Central and State Statistical

Organizations (COCSSO) 2019?

a) Quality Assurance in Official Statistics b) Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)

c) Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare d) Quality Education

e) None of these

Q.34 Which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) target calls for reduction of the

global MMR to less than 70 maternal deaths per 100 000 live births by 2030?

a) SDG 2 b) SDG 3.1 c) SDG 5 d) SDG 4.1 e) None of these


Q.35 Reserve Bank of India has recently increased the household income limits for

borrowers of Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) and microfinance

institutions (MFIs) to Rs ________ for rural areas?

a) Rs 2 lakh b) Rs 1.25 lakh c) Rs 1 lakh d) Rs 1.6 lakh e) None of these

Q.36 Which Ministry has recently conferred the National Entrepreneurship Awards

2019?

a) Ministry of Labour and Employment b) Ministry of Human Resource Development c) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship d) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports e) None of these Q.37 The 9th BRICS Trade Ministers Meet 2019 will be held in _________?

a) New Delhi, India b) Brasilia, Brazil c) Beijing, China

d) Moscow, Russia e) None of these

Q.38 Who won the 10th title as Japan's world No. 1 by winning the Fuzhou China

Open Badminton crown 2019?

a) Chen Yufei b) PV Sindhu c) SHI Yu Qi d) Kento Momota e) None of these

Q.39 Which edition of Dhaka Global Dialogue was held in 2019?

a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th e) None of these

Q.40 Which state government has recently approved the proposal of setting up the

world’s first CNG port terminal in the state?

a) Maharashtra b) Gujarat c) Madhya Pradesh

d) West Bengal e) None of these

Q.41 Which sportsperson has recently secured gold at the World Para Athletics

Championships 2019 in the men's F46 javelin throw?

a) Sundar Singh Gurjar b) Ajeet Singh c) Yogesh Kathuniya

d) Devendra Jhajharia e) None of these

Q.42 Sportsperson Saurabh Chaudhary who was recently in news belongs to which

sports?

a) Shooting b) Boxing c) Javelin Throw d) Discus throw e) None of these

Q.43 The term iDEX was in news recently, it stands for? a) Innovations for Defence Expertise b) Investment for Defence Equipment c) Indigenous formula of Defence Equipment d) Innovations for Defence Excellence e) None of these


Q.44 Swachh-Nirmal Tat Abhiyaan was launched by the Ministry of Environment,

Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) for whom?

a) Cleaning coastal areas

b) Save marine creatures from plastic waste

c) Creating awareness amongst citizens about coastal ecosystems

d) All the above

e) None of them

Q.45 The theme of the India-ASEAN Business Summit 2019 is?

a) Today, Tomorrow, Together b) Co-creating the future

c) Socio and economic cooperation d) Resilient and innovative ASEAN

e) None of these

Q.46 APRACA, which recently organised the 6th World Congress on Rural and

Agriculture Finance, stands for?

a) All Parties Rural Agricultural and Community Association b) Asia - Pacific Rural Agricultural and Credit Association c) Asia’s People Rural Agricultural and Community Association d) Asia-Pacific Rural Agricultural Community Association e) None of these Q.47 The ‘TIGER TRIUMPH’ Military Exercise is conducted between?

a) USA b) Russia c) UK d) Indonesia e) None of these

Q.48 Which country hosted the 11th BRICS Summit 2019?

a) Brazil b) Russia c) India d) China e) South Africa

Q.49 Which country was accorded the status of 'Partner Country' in the 39th edition

of the India International Trade Fair 2019?

a) Australia b) Iran c) UK d) Vietnam e) Afganistan

Q.50 Recently CSIR-Institute of Microbial Technology (IMTECH) has signed MoU

with ________, for collaborative research in areas of healthcare?

a) IIT Kharagpur b) IIT Bombay c) IIT Delhi d) IIT Roorkee e) IIT Kanpur

Q.51 The term “Social Audit” refers to?

1. Getting only the financial details of public agencies working for development

initiatives

2. In-depth analysis of entities in which the public is involved

a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 & 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 e) None of them


Q.52 Which joint military exercise was recently conducted between the Indian and

French Army?

a) Exercise Dustlik b) Exercise Tiger Triumph c) Exercise Shakti

d) Exercise Yudh Abyas e) None of these

Q.53 Which state government has launched the e-Ganna web portal and mobile

application for sugarcane farmers of the state?

a) Maharashtra b) Andhra Pradesh c) Odisha d) Uttar Pradesh

e) Jharkhand

Q.54 ___________ has recently won the Golden Leaf Award in the Most Impressive

Public Service Initiative category for the year 2019?

a) Indian Coffee Board b) The Board of Control for Cricket in India

c) Securities and Exchange Board of India d) Tobacco Board of India

e) None of these

Q.55 Which among the following is a part of the largest FDI Project of Indian

Railways?

a) Hitachi Rail S.P.A (Formerly Ansaldo Breda)

b) Madhepura Electric Locomotive Pvt. Ltd. (MELPL)

c) Valente d) Diesel Loco Works(DLW) e) None of these

Q.56 The Global Cooling Prize is recently in the news, is organised by?

a) The Office of Science and Technology Policy (USA)

b) Department of Science and Technology (India)

c) Ministry of Higher Education, Research and Innovation (France)

d) Ministry for Industry, Science and Technology (Australia)

e) None of these

Q.57 Which among the following initiatives aims at “Improving learning outcomes at

Elementary level” through Integrated Teacher Trainings?

a) SHIKSHA b) SMRITI c) NISHTHA d) ABHYAS e) None of these

Q.58 The China International Travel Mart (CITM) 2019 was held at?

a) Kunming b) Beijing c) Shanghai d) Hong Kong e) None of these

Q.59 For which purpose the Ministry of Human Resource Development launched the

draft guidelines at the 40th UNESCO General Conference 2019 held in Paris?

a) Smart Learning b) Tech Learning c) Digital Learning d) E-learning

e) None of these


Q.60 The first ever International Buyer Seller Meet on Agriculture & Horticulture

produce is recently held at?

a) Assam b) Tripura c) Sikkim d) Arunachal Pradesh e) Odisha

Q.61 The 8th International Conference on Agricultural Statistics (ICAS) 2019 was

recently held at?

a) Rome, Italy b) New Delhi, India c) Brasilia, Brazil

d) Paris, France e) None of these

Q.62 The National Press Day is observed on?

a) 16th Sept b) 11th Oct c) 16th Nov d) 11th Nov e) None of these

Q.63 Which Ministry has recently released the Water Quality Report to rank the

states and UT on the quality of piped drinking water being supplied in the country?

Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution

a) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution

b) Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation

c) Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change

d) Ministry of Jal Shakti e) None of these

Q.64 The SAANS campaign is recently launched by the Ministry of for Health &

Family Welfare to fight against______?

a) Asthma b) Hepatitis c) Pneumonia d) AIDS e) None of these

Q.65 Which country chaired the 6th ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus

(ADMM-Plus) 2019?

a) India b) China c) New Zealand d) Thailand e) Vietnam

Q.66 Which among the following was recently launched by the government to avoid

the problem of freezing of diesel in the vehicles during winters?

a) Winter-X Diesel b) Winter-Stable Diesel c) Winter-State Diesel

d) Winter-Grade Diesel e) None of these

Q.67 What is India’s total medal count in the World Para Athletics Championship

2019?

a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10 e) 11

Q.68 The Maritime Exercise Za’ir-Al-Bahr (Roar of the Sea) is conducted between?

a) India and Uzbekistan b) India and Iran c) India and Qatar

d) Uzbekistan and Yemen e) None of these


Q.69 The Government of India has recently signed a $ 91 million loan with the Asian

Development Bank (ADB) for Comprehensive Water Management in

_____________?

a) Odisha b) Madhya Pradesh c) Karnataka d) Telangana e) None of these

Q.70 The World Heritage Week 2019 was observed in the month of_______?

a) October b) September c) December d) November e) None of these

Q.71 The Target Olympic Podium (TOP) Scheme was formulated in which year?

a) 2010 b) 2012 c) 2014 d) 2016 e) 2018

Q.72 Who has been appointed as the 47th Chief Justice of India?

a) Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde b) Justice Sanjay Yadav

c) Justice Govind Mathur d) Justice Dr. Ravi Ranjan e) None of these

Q.73 What is India’s rank in terms of crude steel production in the world?

a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th e) None of these

Q.74 The Golden Chariot Train is the initiative of which state government?

a) New Delhi b) Madhya Pradesh c) Gujarat d) Karnataka e) Tamil Nadu

Q.75 What was the theme of the 2019 World Conference on Access to Medical

Products Achieving the SDGs 2030?

a) Innovation and Sustainable Development Goal (SDG)

b) Universal Health Coverage (UHC) and Sustainable Development Goal (SDG)

c) Universal Health Coverage (UHC) and innovation

d) Innovation and Medicine e) None of these

Q.76 The World Fisheries Day is being celebrated on which date every year?

a) 1st Nov b) 10th Nov c) 11th Nov d) 21st Nov e) None of these

Q.77 The government has recently approved the establishment of the National

Institute for Sowa-Rigpa (NISR) in?

a) Mussoorie b) Leh c) Shimla d) Nainital e) Rishikesh

Q.78 The Global Bio-India Summit is being held in India for the first time at?

a) Bhopal b) Guwahati c) New Delh d) Leh e) Mumbai

Q.79 As per the SEBI’s latest disclosure norms for listed companies, in case of

default in repayment of loans beyond 30 days, the listed companies will have to

disclose the default’s fact within _______?

a) 12 hours b) 24 hours c) 48 hours d) 72 hours e) None of these


Q.80 The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has recently approved

sale of government stake in five Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) that

includes?

a) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL)

b) Shipping Corporation of India (SCI) c) Container Corporation of India (CONCOR)

d) Only a and b e) All a, b and c

Q.81 The 11th edition of Agro-Vision, an Agro-based Exhibition is recently organized

by the government in ______?

a) Bhopal b) Nagpur c) Mumbai d) Nainital e) Jaipur

Q.82 The 8th “International Tourism Mart” (ITM) 2019 will be held at?

a) Mizoram b) Nagaland c) Tripura d) Manipur e) Arunachal Pradesh

Q.83 The Chit Funds (Amendment) Bill, 2019 contains the provision that the

prescribed ceiling of aggregate chit fund amount for individuals will be_____?

a) Rs 1 lakh b) Rs 2 lakh c) Rs 3 lakh d) Rs 4 lakh e) Rs 6 lakh

Q.84 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constituted a three-member panel to

advise the Administrator of Dewan Housing Finance Corporation Limited, DHFL. The

panel comprises of?

a) Rajiv Lall b) N S Kannan c) N S Venkatesh

d) Only a & c e) All the above

Q.85 Which Indian city/cities featured in the Global Prosperity Index 2019?

a) Delhi b) Mumbai c) Bengaluru d) Only a and b e) All a, b and c

Q.86 Which among the following countries have not signed the United Nations

Security Council (UNSC) Convention on the Prohibition of the Development,

Production, Stockpiling and Use of Chemical Weapons?

a) North Korea b) Egypt c) South Sudan d) Israel e) Only a, b & c

Q.87 Who is the Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission?

a) Nand Kishore Singh b) Shaktikanta Das c) Anoop Singh

d) Ramesh Chand e) Ashok Lahiri

Q.88 Who is the present Chairman of Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)?

a) Pranab Kumar Das b) S Ramesh c) Pramod Chandra Mody

d) Vundela Malakonda Reddy e) None of these

Q.89 Who has won the sixth Davis Cup title 2019?

a) Denis Shapovalov b) Roberto Bautista Agut c) Rafael Nadal

d) Felix Auger-Aliassime e) None of these


Q.90 Which Ministry has recently launched the Credit-linked Subsidy Services Awas

Portal (CLAP)?

a) Ministry of Rural Development b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

c) Ministry of Rural Development d) Ministry of Health and Family Welfar

e) None of these

Q.91 The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2019 contains the provision to slash the

corporate rate tax to ______% for domestic companies provided they do not claim

certain deductions under the IT Act.

a) 15% b) 22% c) 25% d) 30% e) None of these

Q.92 Which day is celebrated as the Constitution Day in India?

a) 26th Nov b) 26th Jan c) 15th Aug d) 2nd Oct e) 31st Jan

Q.93 The 63rd National Shotgun Shooting Championship 2019 is organised by?

a) Field AND Target Shooting Association of India

b) National Rifle Association of India

c) Indian Crossbow Shooting Association

d) RIMFIRE & AIR RIFLES BENCHREST SHOOTING ASSOCIATION OF INDIA

e) None of these

Q.94 Who is known as the Father of India’s White Revolution?

a) Sam Pit Roda b) Norman Borlaug c) Dr. Verghese Kurien

d) MS Swaminathan e) None of these

Q.95 The Ocean Dance Festival 2019 was held at?

a) India b) Bangladesh c) Myanmar d) Vietnam e) China

Q.96 The National Cadet Corps (NCC) has recently celebrated its ______ Raising

Day on 24th Nov 19?

a) 70th b) 71st c) 72nd d) 74th e) None of these

Q.97 The Oman India Joint Investment Fund (OIJIF) is co-sponsored by?

a) State Bank of India (SBI) b) State General Reserve Fund of Oman (SGRF)

c) Both a and b d) Punjab National Bank e) None of the above

Q.98 Fitch group firm India Ratings and Research have recently lowered India’s

GDP growth forecast for FY20 to ______?

a) 4.7% b) 6.1% c) 5.6% d) 4.5% e) None of these


Q.99 Choose the current statement/statements among the following

1. Vultures come in the category of endangered species

2. Jatayu Conservation Breeding Centre at Pinjore in Haryana is the first vulture

conservation and breeding centre in India

a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 & d) Neither 1 nor 2 e) None of these

Q.100 The national space agency ISRO has recently launched the 3rd generation

Earth observation satellite named?

a) Robsat-3 b) PSLV-3 c) Cartosat-3 d) Cartbat-3 e) None of these

ANSWERS:

1 (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (B) 5 (D) 6 (C) 7 (C) 9 (C) 10 (A) 11 (A) 12 (B) 13 (C)

14 (A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (C) 18 (D) 19 (C) 20 (D) 21 (A) 22 (C) 23 (C) 24 (C) 25 (C)

27 (B) 34 (B) 35 (B) 36 (C) 39 (A) 41 (A) 42 (A) 44 (D) 45 (A) 46 (B) 47 (A) 48 (A)

49 (E) 50 (B) 51 (B) 52 (C) 53 (D) 54 (D) 55 (B) 56 (B) 57 (C) 58 (A) 59 (C) 60 (D)

61 (B) 62 (C) 63 (A) 64 (C) 66 (D) 67 (C) 68 (C) 69 (C) 70 (D) 71 (C) 72 (A) 73 (B)

74 (D) 75 (C) 76 (D) 77 (B) 78 (C) 79 (B) 80 (E) 81 (B) 82 (D) 83 (C) 84 (E) 86 (E)

87 (A) 88 (C) 89 (C) 90 (B) 91 (B) 92 (A) 93 (B) 94 (C) 95 (B) 96 (B) 97 (C) 98 (C)

99 (C) 100 (C)